Final Exam A+P
reticular tissue location
liver, kidney, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
what structure prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sound
Larynx
The folds of the internal membrane of a mitochondrion are called
cristae
blood flow is
directly related to the pressure gradient but inversely related to the resistance
Two atoms that differ only in the number of neutrons they contain are known as
isotopes
endocrine glands
lack ducts and secrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid
Which feature is found in both cartilage and bone
lacuna
The heart valves:
permit the passage of blood in one direction
Why are carbohydrates important for the human body? describe their structure function and special attributes
Carbs are mde of carbons, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms (1:2:1) Simple sugars (monosaccharides) are the monomer of carbs. Disaccharides are 2 monomers of monosaccharides bound together, while polysaccharides are the polymers. The bond between monosaccharide groups is called a glycosidic bond. Glucose is the most common monosacc and is the primary form of energy to many cells, including the brain. Carbs are used for energy, storage and structure (form the groups on red blood cells to determine blood type). An example of polysaccharides in the body would be glycogen, which is stored in the liver and muscles for later use.
The superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the ____veins
Brachiocephalic
In fibrous joints, the articulating surfaces are held together by
Dense regular connective tissue
7 bones that make up the eye orbit
Frontal, zygomatic, maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, palatine, sphenoid
not correct pairing of a joint with its common name
Glenohumeral joint-Elbow
The popliteal artery supplies the
Knee joint
provide the correct term for the anatomical region to which each common names refers to
Kneecap-patellar foot-pes breast-mammary forehead-frontal
which ligament is responsible for holding the head of the radius inplace
annular ligament
a muscle whos action opposes that of the prime mover is known as an
antagonist
Disease is often considered the result of
failure of homeostatic systems
The membranous sheets (soft spots) that connect developing cranial bones are called
fontanelles
which of the following choices list the order of stages of cellular respiation in proper order
glycolysis, intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system
The type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a(n)
neutrophil
A _____, also called a mole, is a harmless, localized overgrowth of melanin-forming cells
nevus
Fatty acids consist mainly of carbon and hydrogen, and so fatty acids are
nonpolar and do not dissolve in water
To spread healing from surgery, incisions should be placed___ to lines of cleavage
parallel
The membranous network that wraps around myofibrils and holds relatively high concentrations of caclium
sarcoplasmic reticulum
The microscope of choice for a detailed three-dimensional study of the surface of a cell specimen is the:
scanning electron microscope
sebaceous glands discharge an oily, waxy secretion called
sebum
The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _____process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch
temporal
the pronator teres and pronator quadratus cause pronation of the forearm. What muscle opposes this movement
supinator
Interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna is an example of
syndesmosis
An articular capsule is present in
synovial joints
A flat, thin structure made of dense connective tissue that serves to attach a muscle to a bone (or to another muscle) is a(n):
tendon
Which part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood?
systemic veins
Describe an example in the body of negative feedback and how it maintains homeostasis
You have a stimulus (heat), a receptor (thermoreceptors in the skin), that send a message to the control center (hypothalamus in the brain). The control center determines that the body is past the set point and sends a message to the effectors (blood vessels dilate to release heat and make you turn red; sweat glands are stimulated to secrete sweat to cool the body via evaporation). The body returns to normal temperature and the feedback loop turns off.
A sarcomere is defined as the distance from one _____ to the next adjacent ____ . (The same answer fills in both spaces.)
Z-disc
epiphyseal plate zones
Zone of resting cartilage Zone of proliferating cartilage Zone of hypertrophic cartilage Zone of calcified cartilage
The term "codon" refers to
a 3 base sequence of mRNA
The smallest structural unit that exhibits the characteristics of living things is
a cell
what structure is known as the voice box
larynx
Consider a cell with a total internal solute concentration of 0.9%. Placing the cell in which bath solution would result in creation of the greatest osmotic pressure in the cell?
0.5% NaCl
4 muscles that attach to the scapula
Teres major, subscapularis, teres minor, and infraspinatus
An autorhythmic heart cell is one in which
action potentials fire spontaneously.
ATP is a nucleotide composed
adenine, ribose, and 3 covalently bonded phosphate groups
describe in detail the process of taking a deep breath
air enters the body through the nostrils then goes into the nasal cavity. it passes through the nasopharynx past the oropharynx and the pharynx, then past the epiglottis and into the larynx. It then goes through the trachea into the primary bronchi. Next through the secondary and tertiary bronchi and into the terminal bronchi, then to the respiratory bronchi. It travels through the alveolar ducts into the alveoli where oxygen and Co2 is exchanged. The air is moved past ciliated pseudostratified columnar cells with mucus, through stratified squamous epithelium, and then into simple squamous epithelium, where gas exchange can take place. Air moves from areas of high to low pressure. when you inhale the pressure inside is lower than the outside and so air rushes into the lungs 1. impulses are conducted on phrenic nerves to muscle fibers in the diaphragm contracting them 2. as the dome shaped diaphragm moves downward the thoracic cavity expands 3. the external intercostal muscles may contract raising the ribs and expanding the thoracic cavity further. The sternocleidomastoid, scalenes De, serratus posterior superiors, pectoralis minor, and erector spinae all assist in pulling the thoracic cavity upward and outward 4. the intra alveolar pressure decreases 5. atmospheric pressure, 760mm Hg, which is greater than the intra alveolar pressure 758 mmHg forces air into the respiratory tract through the air passages lungs fill with air
What type of stimulus is detected by the sensory receptors of the skin?
all
which describes anatomic position
all apply
____short, membrane-attached projections containing microtubules that occur in large numbers on exposed membranes surfaces
cilia
movement of substance from and area of high to less concentration
diffusion
at temperatures above 40 c (104 F) in the human body
enzymes denature and reaction rates decrease
What flap like structure closes over the trachea to prevent food from entering lungs
epiglottis
Another name for the cuticle is the
eponychium
the most abundant lipid of the membrane consists of a head and 2 tails.
phospholipid
which of the following has the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide
the systemic cells
isomers
they have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas
The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart is the _____ layer.
visceral
the term epicardium is another name for
visceral layer of the serosal pericardium
3 functions of CT
-CT acts to bind differnet tissues togehter -can provide support and protection for tissues -Serves and a framework for structures like cartilage becoming bone -Can fill spaces between organs and other tissues -produce blood cells -protect against infection Components of the CT are nucleus fibers and collagen
The lifespan of an erythrocyte is about ____ days
120
Give an example of a 1st, 2nd, and 3rd class lever in body
1st- resistance on hand, fulcrum of humeroulnar joint, and effort of triceps brachii; or resistance of head, fulcrum of atlanto occipital joint, and neck extensor muscles/ trapezius 2nd- fulcrum of phalanx of hallux and metatarsal 1: resistance of body, and effort of gastrocnemius and soleus 3rd- resistance in hand, effort of biceps brachii at radial tuberosity, and fulcrum of humeroulnar joint at elbow
how many pairs of floating ribs do not articulate with the sternum
2
the optimal pH range for the stomach enzyme pepsin is
2-4
The right lung is divided into how many lobes?
3
When one glucose molecule is fully oxidized, how many molecules of CO2 result?
6
A person with erythrocytes that have surface antigen A, but not surface antigen B, is said to have type_____blood
A
A person with erythrocytes that have surface antigen A, but not antigen B is said to have type
A blood
discuss first and second degree burns, healing processes, treatment, and how they affect the integumentary system
A first- degree burn, superficial partial-thickness, injures only the epidermis. Can be caused by minor sunburns or contact with chemicals or heat. They have minor inflammation, redness, pain, and dry and peeling skin and usually heal within a few days on two weeks without scarring. Cool water, pain relief and antibiotic ointment are typical treatments. Second degree or deep partial- thickness has fluid escaping from damaged fibroblasts, epidermal stem cells, and leukocytes are all involved in the healing process. These burns can be caused by exposure to hot objects, liquids, flames are burning clothing. Keeping wound clean and bandages is important to prevent infection. Healing takes 3 weeks without scarring but can cause pigment changes. In some cases skin grafting may be needed. If accessory structures and stem cells are affected, there can by scarring and lack of structures in the healed area. Cold water, pain meds and antibiotic cream are used to treat. Burns on the face, hands buttock, groin, and feet may require emergency treatment. the rule of nines is applied to the burn area to estimate how much body fluids and electrolytes are required. keeping the skin clean to prevent infections is paramount. The epidermal and dermal stem cells will replace tissues.
A chemical buffer is described as
A weak acid and weak base that help prevent big changes in pH
What blood type is known as the universal recipient
AB+
3 molecules that are important energy storage locations in the body are
ATP, Glycogen, and triglyceride
Which is the neurotransmitter that causes the release of calcium ions from reservoirs within the muscle cell and thereby initiates the steps of contraction?
Acetylcholine
The most common cell making up the alveolar wall is the
Alveolar Type I cell
7 ligaments of the knee joint
Anterior cruciate ligament, posterior cruciate ligament, patellar ligament, fibular collateral ligament (lateral collateral ligament), tibial collateral ligament(Medial collateral ligament), oblique popliteal ligament, arcuate popliteal ligament
Blood plasma is slightly_____;if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of
Basic; protiens
which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominents
C7
2 apical modifications found on the surface of many epithelial cells and what do they do?
Cilia and microvilli. both are cell surface extensions of the plasma mem suppoeted by protein microvilli are thin , microscopic membrane extensions from the surface of the plasma mem that serve to increase the surface area of a cell for more efficient membrane transports. They are shorted, wider and more densely packed than cilia and are supported by microfilament protein Cilia are small hair like projections supported by microtubules that function in moving material along cell surface. They contain both cytoplasm and supportive microtubule proteins, and are enclosed by the plasma membrane
the end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into
Common iliac arteries
How are competitive enzyme inhibitors-different from non competitive enzyme inhibitors in how they bind and how the function
Competitive vs noncompetitive inhibitors of enzymes, inhibitors bind to the enzyme to revent the enzyme from catalyzing the substrate reaction. They bind in either active site (competitive) or an allosteric or distant site ( noncompetitive), which changes shape of the enzymes active site. This "turns off" an enzyme. competitive inhibitors compete with the substreate for binding in the active site. If more substrate is added, the less the inhibitor can bind. A noncompetitive inhibitor does not compete with the substrate and changes the shape of the enzyme. this can be a poison, like cyanide.
Describe the stages of mitosis in detail including the important events, structures and what happens to the chromosomes in each step
Division of DNA within the nucleus to form 2 nuclei occurs in Mitosis, and cytokinesis, which is the division of the cytoplasm to form 2 cells with each having on of the nuclei 4 stages of mitosis: 1) Prophase, chromatin supercoils into chromosomes, the nucleolus breaks down and disappears, spindle fibers begin to grow from centrioles, centriole pairs move to opposite poles of the cell, and the nuclear envelope disassembles: 2) metaphase: chromosomes are aligned in the equatorial plate as spindle fibers attach to the centromere of each chromosome and move them into the center of the cell 3) Anaphase: spindle fibers move sister chromatids apart toward the cell's poles and each sister chromatid, with its own centromere is now considered a chromosome) 4) Telophase- chromosomes arrive at each cell pole, chromosomes uncoil each new nucleus forms a nucleolus, the mitotic spindle breaks up and disappears, and anew nuclear envelope forms around each of the 2 new sets of chromatin cytokinesis: division of the cytoplasm between the two newly forming cells- each with their own nucleus
When diagramming an atom, how many electrons can fit in each of the shells beyond the innermost shell?
Eight
Match the muscles with the action
Elevates mandible - masseter closes lips, protrudes lips as for kissing - orbicularis oris rotates scapula: various fibers raise scapula, pull scapula medially or pull scapula and shoulder down - trapezius closes eye in blinking - orbicularis oculi 1elevates scapula - levator scapulae extends, adducts, and rotates the arm medially, or pulls the shoulder downward and back -latissimus dorsi
What is the greatest risk factor for skin cancer
Exposure to UV light rays
The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by
Facilitated diffusion
During aging of the integumentary system, sweat production increases as a result of improved sweat gland activity.
False
Match the bone with the correct feature
Fibula- lateral malleolus Mandible- alveolar process Scapula- coracoid process humerus- greater tubercle ethmoid- cribriform plate occipital- foramen magnum temporal- mandibular fossa rib- costal groove
explain the process of the citric acid cycle, starting with the product from glycolysis. list the location of the process, the molecules entering and exiting, and the final products
First, if oxygen is present, the pyruvate can leave the cytoplasm and enter the matrix of the mitochondrion and do the intermediate stage, which involves the addition of coenzyme A to the pyruvate. A carboxyl group is removed in the form of CO2 and hydrogen atoms plus their electrons are transferred to a molecule of NADH. Sinse there are 2 pyruvates, 2 Co2 and 2NADH molecules are formed at this step. which also results in 2 acetyl-CoA molecules that are ready to enter the Citric Acid Cycle In the CAC, for each acetyl-CoA that enters, 2 Co2 molecules, 3 NADH molecules, 1 ATP molecule, and 1 FADH2 molecules are made for each turn of the 10 step cycles. The total molecules are formed from the CAC are 4 CO2, 6NADH, 2 ATP, 2 FADH2 molecules. When added to the products of the intermediate step, there are 6 CO2, 8 NADH, 2 ATP, 2 FADH2 molecules formed from 1 glucose
why would taking synthetic Erythropoitin give endurance athletes an advantage over their competitors?
Generating more erythrocytes to carry more oxygen to the body is a huge advantage. Synthetic erythropoietin hormone was developed to treat patients with anemia, in order to increase their erythrocyte (rbc) count. However. too many erythrocytes would increase hematocrit above normal levels >45% and this could cause the heart to work harder to pump the thick, viscous blood through the body. This can lead to an increase in blood pressure, heart attacks, strokes, or even cerebral or pulmonary embolisms. The synthetic EPO is like a boost in the arm, instead of a long, vigorous training program at altitude, and thus an increase in oxygen carrying capacity can be huge advantage in endurance sports. However it can be an unfair advantage. some athletes have naturally high hematocrit levels and they would not have as much of a boost by taking EPO as someone with lower hematocrit.
name the 3 muscles of the butt, their origin, and their insertion
Gluteus maximus- origin= sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of ilium Insertion= posterior surface of femur and fascia of thigh (IT band) Gluteus medius- origin= Lateral surface of the ilium Insertion- greater trochanter of femur Gluteus minimus origin= lateral, medial surface of ilium insertion= greater trochanter of femur
Which letter is associated with a zone (in a relaxed muscle) that is a little more lightly shaded because only thick filaments are present?
H
Discuss the major differences between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.
Intramembranous ossification produces flat bones of the skull (frontal, parietal, occipital). Facial bones (zygomatic, maxilla, madible) central part of the clavicle, sternum. It begins when mesenchyme becomes thickened and condensed with blood vessels. 1) Ossification centers form within thicken regions of mesenchyme beginning at the eighth week of development, with osteoprogenitor cells becoming osteoblasts and secreting osteoid. 2) osteoid undergoes calcification, entrapping osteoblasts, and turning them into osteocytes. 3) woven bone forms the rest of the skeleton, starting with fetal hyaline cartilage model in the eighth to 12 week. Cartilage calcifies and forms a periosteal bony collar around embryonic hyaline cartilage in the fetus. A periosteal bud extends from the periosteum into the cartilage shaft, forming the primary ossification center. Secondary ossification center then form at the epiphyses of the developing bone.. Eventually bone tissue replaces all of the cartilage except at the epiphyseal growth plate and the articular cartilage. Lengthwise growth continues until around the time of puberty the epiphyseal plates re replaced completely by bone tissue.
Abdominal wall muscles
Linea alba is right down midle
Cerumen is a secretion that
Lubricates the ear canal and traps debris before it reaches the eardrum
3 components of connective tissue
Nucleus, fibers, and collagen All CT share 3 basic components, cells, proteins, fibers, ground substances. Cells are either resident (mesenchymal) fixed macrophages, adipocytes (fibroblasts) or wandering cells (mast cells, plasma cells, free macrophages, other leukocytes) Fibers include collage, elastic reticular. Ground substance is the fluid, gel or solid substance of matrix containing glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, glycoproteins and protein fibers of the extracellular matrix.
The atrioventricular node is located
On the floor of the right atrium, just above the venticles.
Describe 6 characteristics of living things
Organization- complex structure and order, body organizations, tissues, cells, organs etc Metabolism- sum of chemical reactions that keep the body functioning Growth and development- organisms assimilate materials from their environment and often increase size and specializations as the body grows and develops Regulation- body's abilitiy to regulate internal body functions in response to environmental change ( body temp) reproduction- ability to reproduce new cells for growth, maintenance and repair responsiveness- ability to detect and react to stimuli
Biceps brachii Origin/Insertion
Origin= short head, tip of coracoid process of scapula: long head, supraglenoid tubercle of scapula. Insertion: Radial tuberosity (fascia of forearm)
The scientific discipline that studies the functions of body structures is
Physiology
6 synovial joints
Plane Joint- uniaxial- intercarpal joints, intertarsal joints Pivot joint- atlantoaxial joint Condylar joint- metacarpophalangeal or metatarsophalangeal Saddle joint-articulation between carpal bone, the trapezium, and the first metacarpal hinge joint- elbow, knee joint interphalangeal joints ball and socket joint- glenohumeral joint between the glenoid fossa of the scapula and the head of the humerus
Describe the plasma components of blood, being detailed about the percentage of blood it makes up and all the things dissolved in t
Plasma (55%) is composed of water (92%), electrolytes (such as Na+, Cl, K+) proteins (7%, such as albumins, globulins, fibrinogen), wastes (such as nitrogenous urea), nutrients (such as glucose fats, amino acids, minerals) , vitamins, hormones, gases (such as nitrogen, oxygen, and Carbon dioxide
which two biomolecules contain the most nitrogen atoms and contribute to the formation of nitrogenous waste that must be eliminated by the urinary system?
Proteins have nitrogen in the amino group of the amino acid while nucleic acids have nitrogen in the nitrogenous base (like A, T, G, C, U)
9 abdominopelvic regions
R. hypochondriac — Epigastric— L. hypochondriac; R. lumbar — Umbilical — L. lumbar; R. iliac — Hypogastric — L. iliac the hypogastric regain contains the urinary bladder
which heart chambers contain deoxygenated blood
RA and RV
3 bones that have a styloid process
Radius, ulna, temporal
describe the process of cross bride cycling once calcium enters the sarcomere and is available to bind
Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is triggered by the arrival of the action potention at the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ diffuses out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. Ca2+ binds to troponin in muscles thin actin filaments (red molecules) causing conformational changes of troponin. This affects the shape of the enterire troponin- tropomyosin (green rope like) complex, exposing myosin binding sites on actin. Crossbridge cycling continually repeats four steps. 1- crossbridge formation (attaching myosin head) (yellow) to actin. 2. a power stroke (swiveling of myosin head to pull the thin filament a small distance past the thick filament 3. release of myosin head from acting resulting from the binding ATP into a site on myosin head 4- reset myosin head resulting from the splitting of ATP and pi. Binding from ATP to the myosin head causes the release of myosin from acting. The hydrolysis splitting of ATP then provides energy for the conformational change in resetting of the myosin head
in an ECG, what does the T wave represent
Repolarization of the ventricles
the term activation energy refers to the amount of energy
Required to initiate any chemical reaction
put the parts of the Cardiac conduction system in order from start to end
SA node Across atria AV node AV bundle Bundle Branches Purkinje fibers across ventricles
Not lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Small intestine
the number of neutrons in an atom can be determined by
Subtracting the atomic number from the atomic mass
describe the general structure of both the endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus
The endoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) is the site of lipid synthesis and detoxification of drugs and alcohol. Rough ER synthesizes proteins destined for the cell membrane, for lysosomes, or for secretion. Rough ER has rough ribosomes attached to it. The Golgi apparatus is a sack of flattened membranes that get the proteins from the rough endoplasmic reticulum, they then modify package, and sort them for delivery to other organelles or to the plasma membrane of the cell. Golgi looks like a rainbow.
7 functions of the integumentary system
The skin acts as a protective covering and barrier against harmful substances and microorganisms. Melanocytes give a body protection against uv radiation Prevents some water loss through keratinization contains sensory receptors that help the body feel pain, temp, pressure secretion and absorption of chemicals and some wastes (urea, sebum, cerumen) Metabolic regulation. Cells within the integument help produce vitamin D Integument helps regulate body temp through dermal blood vessels, sweat glands, adipose tissue, and cellular respiration the dendritic cells in the epidermis and dermis are capable of initiating immune response
describe when you hear the "lubb" and "dupp" hear sounds in relation to an ECG
The sounds of the heart rate are due to the tissue vibrations caused as blood flow suddenly slows down with the contraction and relaxation of the heart chambers and the closing valves. The first lubb sound is heard when ventricular systole occurs, when the atrioventricular valve closes (tricuspid, mitral) this is also during atrial diastole and occurs during QRS complex of an ECG. Dupp occurs during ventricular diastole, when the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic) close. this is during atrial diastole as well, and occurs near the end of the T wave of an ECG
the ____ is composed of an endothelium and a subendothelial layer made up of a thin layer of areolar CT
Tunica intima
The _____ is composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells
Tunica media
Describe the process of transcription. What does it produce? where in the cell does it occur? what molecules are involved
Transcription occurs in the nucleus and it is the copying and formation of messenger RNA from the DNA genetic code. During initiation, the DNA is unwound by the enzyme RNA polymerase at the promoter of the gene. Then in elongation, the RNA polymerase moves along with ones strand of the DNA whith the gene and catalyzes synthesis of RNA, making the bases of RNA complimentary to the bases of DNA, with Uracil replacing thymine in the RNA, in termination exons remaining in the code and introns being spliced out of a guanine cap and a 3' poly A tail are added, then the finished product passes through the pore in the nuclear envelope to enter cytoplasm for translation
Describe the process of translation
Translations or synthesis of a protein occurs in the cytoplasm and involves 3 process Initiation elongation termination During initiation the small subunit, large subunit, mRNA is in the P site of the ribosome. During elongation of the following steps occurs repeatedly. A charged tRNA with its amino acid attached is positioned in the A site of the ribosome. The specific tRNA is based on complementary base paring of the codon of the mRNA and the anticodon of that charged tRNA. A peptide bond then forms between the 2 amino acids, one in the P site and the other in the A site. At this point the first tRNA is released and the ribosome shifts down one codon on the mRNA. The process continues until a stop codon enters the A site signaling the termination of translation. Termination occurs when a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) enters the A site to end translation. A release factor enters the A site at this point instead of a charged tRNA. When the ribosome hits the factor bound to the mrNA stop codon, the two subunits of the ribosome are separated from the mRNA and the newly synthesized protein is released.
Dr. Frankenstein cuts 3 different people into the 3 major planes that we've discussed in class. Name the anatomical planes and what portions of the body is divided into as a result of each cut
Transverse-inferior and superior coronal- anterior and posterior midsagittal- Medial and lateral or right and left divided equally
Hyperventilation causes generalized______, whcih______ blood flow to the brain and cells can result in feeling dizzy or faint
Vasoconstriction: decreases
Rickets, a disease characterized by overproduction and deficient calcification of osteoid tissue, is caused by a lack of sufficient:
Vitamin D
discuss the stages of wound healing in detail
When skin is injured, blood escapes from dermal blood vessels, phagocytic cells, such a neutrophils and macrophages come to eat bacteria and damaged tissues, and a blood clot soon forms with platelets. red blood cells, and proteins like fibrin. Blood vessels send out branches and fibroblasts migrate into the area, producing new collagen fibers to knit the tissue together. The scab formed by the blood clot and dried tissue fluid protects the region until the skin is mostly repaired by epithelial stem cells dividing and producing new epidermis. then the scab sloughs off and scar tissue forms
Phagocytic cells of the alveolus are the
alveolar macrophages
Phospholipids are described as
amphipathic
The building of complex molecules from simpler ones is described as:
anabolism
What are 2 apical modifications found on the surface of many epithelial cells? what do they do?
apical modifications are cilia and microvilli. both microvilli are cell surface extensions of the plasma membrane supported by protein microvilli are thin, microscopic membrane extensions from the surface of the plasma membrane that serve to increase the surface area of a cell for more efficient membrane transport. Microvilli are shorter, wider, and more densely packed than cilia and are supported by microfilament protein Cilia re small hair like projections supported by microtubules that function in moving material along the cell surface. They contain both cytoplasm and supportive microtubule proteins, and are enclosed by the plasma membrane.
The process of programmed cell death (cell suicide) is known as
apoptosis
composition of the subcutat
areolar CT and adipose ct
In an ECG, the P wave is generated when the
atria depolarize
The head neck and trunk make up the __ region of the body
axial
similarities and differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle
both contractile, striated and lead to movement. Skeletal is used for conscious movement of body and is voluntary, contains several nuclei, and are in long threadlike fibers. cardiac is found only in hear, involuntary and contains intercalated discs. has one nucleus, is branched and interconnected.
The hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to
both oxygen and carbon dioxid
The artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the
brachiocephalic artery
nervous tissue
brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves
not one of the four most common elements in the body
calcium
The pubic symphysis is classified as a
cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis
When the body's digestive system breaks down starch, a complex carbohydrate, into simpler carbohydrates the reaction is:
catabolic and exergonic
The end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into the
common iliac arteries
alternate term for compact bone
cortical bone
Another name for the skin is the
cutaneous membrane
According to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas _________ if the volume of its container increases.
decreases
The presence of an enzyme within a chemical system:
decreases activation energy
a malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. As a result, colloid osmotic pressure
decreases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space
the main function of a leukocyte is to
defend against pathogens
the reticular layer of the dermis consists primarily of
dense irregular ct
Dense irregular connective tissue location
dermis
these junctions provide direct passageways for substances to travel between neighboring cells
desmosomesz
movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called
diapedesis
The abdominal area is superior to the medisastinum
false
The lower concentration of H+ is , the lower the pH is
false
The subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis, is one of the two parts of the integument
false
the brachial region is distal to the antebrachial region
false
the dermis is the superficial layer of the skin
false
Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs?
fibrocartilage
The agglutinogens (or antigens) that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are
found on the surface of erythrocytes
The term diarthrosis refers to a joint that is
freely mobile
The fixed point around which a lever rotates is the _________.
fulcrum
A motor unit within the powerful quadriceps muscle would:
generally contain sever hundred fibers
If the cells of the alveoli suddenly become stratified, how would that affect lung function
going from simple squamous epithelium will fundamentally prevent the ability of the alveoli to do gas exchange quickly between the air sacs and the pulmonary capillaries. The function of stratified squamous epithelium is to provide protection, such as against abrasions or chemicals, so thickening the lung tissue would reduce the surface area available for oxygen and Carbon dioxide exchange and would reduce the overall volume of the lungs, leading to decreased oxygen available for cellular respiration, Increased Co2, which would affect pH levels, and likely death if were widespread.
Biological half life is the time required for:
half of a radioactive material to be eliminated from the body.
The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the
head
Which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow
humeroulnar and humeroradial
The most common type of cartilage, named for its glassy appearance
hyaline cartilage
If you move your head in such a way to look up at the ceiling, you are _________ your neck.
hyperextending
Cell shrinking, also known as crenation, occurs when a cell is placed into a(n) _________ solution.
hypertonic
Airway obstruction can lead to hypoventilation which can cause
hypoxia and respiratory acidosis
systolic blood pressure is recorded
in arteries and is the maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction.
proteins that are embedded within, and extend across, the phospholipid bilayer are called
integral proteins
What are the cell-to cell contacts of the cardiac muscle fibers called
intercalated discs
The lungs remain inflated because
intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure
Air flows out of the body during expiration because
intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure
The posterior interventricular sulcus
is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart
The serous fluid within the pericardial cavity works to:
lubricate membranes of the pericardium
The white crescent at the proximal end of the nail plate is called the
lunula
which cell type, found in connective tissue proper, is formed from monocytes and serves to phagocytes damaged cells or pathogens
macrophage
which bone is not paired
mandible
The median space in the thoracic cavity is called the
mediastinum
Freckles are the result of
melanocyte activity, genetic inheritance, and sun exposure.
which of the following structures function in holding organelles inplace
microtubules
water contains two hydrogen atoms bound to one oxygen atom, "H2o" is therefore water's
molecular formula
The type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is an
monocyte
compared to a solution with a pH of 7, a solution with a pH of 4
more acidic and has a 1,000-fold increase in H+
smooth muscle tissue location
mostly in the walls of hollow organs
Which muscles help us in the initial breakdown of food?
muscles of mastication
The layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the
myocardium
the hepatic portal system allows for the processing of
nutrients and toxins in absorbed from the gastrointestinal system into the blood
which of the following accurately describes the organization of structures
organs are made up of tissues, which are made up of cells, which are made up of organelles and molecules
What structure is used by both the respiratory and digestive systems
oropharynx and laryngopharynx
Which is a passive transport process?
osmosis
Which type of cell produces a new bone tissue by secreting matrix
osteoblasts
As the bone matrix calcifies and the secreting cells become walled in:
osteoblasts become osteocytes
Bone cells called __________ break down bone by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes that dissolve the matrix.
osteoclasts
Myoglobin is a muscle within muscle cells that can bind
oxygen
In addition to the joint between the tibia and the femur, the knee contains a joint between the:
patella and the femur
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found lining
portions of the respiratory system
The directional term that means in back of or towards the back surface is
posterior
the function of melanin is to
protect against UV light
an elements atomic number is determined by the number of_____in one atom of that element
protons
what type of tissue lines the trachea
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
Oxidative fibers are
red and fatigue-resistant.
in a redox reaction, when one reactant is oxidized, the other is
reduced
When NAD+ becomes NADH it is being:
reduced and gaining chemical energy
The part of the hair that extends beyond the skin surface is called the
shaft
A double covalent bond involves
sharing two pairs of electrons
The walls of kidney tubules are formed by _____________ epithelium, which functions in resorbing materials filtered from blood plasma such as nutrients, ions, and water.
simple cuboidal
A ____epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened cells attached directly to a basement membrane
simple squamous
Similarities and differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle
skeletal and cardiac muscles are both contractile, and lead to movements. skeletal muscle is used for conscious movement of the body and is voluntary, contains several nuclei, and are in long threadlike fibers. cardiac muscle is found only in the heart, is involuntary. has intercalated discs, has one nucleus, is branched and interconnected.
Which fibers dominate many of the back and calf muscles that contract almost continually to maintain posture?
slow-twitch
If you were to remove the gastrocnemius muscle you would expose the
soleus
in humans, the only cell that bears a flagellum is the
sperm cell
anatomy is the study of
structure and form
While most of the cells in ta hair are dead, the living epithelial cells are found in
the hair bulb
Discuss how intrinsic clotting is both similar and different from extrinsic clotting
the intrinsic pathway is initiated by damage to the inside of the vessel wall and is initiated by platelets. This pathway typically takes approximately 3-6 minutes. In contrast. the extrinsic pathway is initiated by damage to the tissue that is outside of the vessel, and this pathway usually takes approximately 15 seconds. The intrinsic pathway starts with platelets releasing Factor XII to activate factor XI, then has a cascade until it reaches the common pathway where Factor X is active. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin, fibrinogen to fibrin, and a clot forms, plugging the damage. The extrinsic pathway starts when tissue damage releases tissue factor III (thromboplastin) which interacts with factor VII and Ca2+ and then intersects also with the common pathway to form a clot
describe the blood flow into and out of the heart starting where the blood enters the heart after leaving the lungs and then take it all
the oxygen rich blood flows out of the lungs in the right and left pulmonary veins, traveling to the left atrium. The blood in the left atrium flows through the bicuspid (mitral) valve into the left ventricle. Blood leaves the left ventricle through the aortic valve and enters the aorta to flow through the body, exiting in branches along the aortic arch including the right brachiocephalic artery, the left common carotid artery and the left subclavian artery on its way down the descending or thoracic aorta. Oxygen poor blood enters the right atrium from the superior vena cava, inferior VC and coronary sinus. The blood leaves the right atrium through the tricuspid valve and enters the right ventricle. Flows through the pulmonary valve then enters the pulmonary trunk. Blood then flows into the right and left pulmonary arteries traveling too the lungs where gas exchange occurs.
blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to
the proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption
when you are exposed to bright light, a reflex is initiated and your iris constricts to decrease pupil size. Which structure serves as a receptor in this system
the retina
when we shiver on a cold day, the heat produced by muscle tissue is a demonstration of
the second law of thermodynamics
Positive feedback in the body
the stimulus is reinforced to continue in the same direction until a climactic event occurs. Following the climactic event, the body again returns to homeostasis. They are rare in the body and can include : blood clotting, birth, lactation, in breastfeeding, the stimulus is the baby suckling at the breast. The receptor is the sensory receptors in the skin of the breast that send signals to the control center, which is the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus sends signals to the posterior pituitary to release oxytocin hormone. The oxytocin is released and heads to the effector tissue, which is the glands in the breast tissue. Mammary glands eject breast milk. Baby feeds and continues to suckle, which reinforces the positive feedback. When nursing ends, The release of hormones stoop and so does milk productions
The adams apple in mature men is actually
thyroid cartilage
what structure connects the larynx to the primary bronci
trachea
The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and may include some binucleated cells is called _____epithelium
transitional
The eyes are lateral to the mouth
true
The right arm and the right leg are ipsilateral
true
The visceral peritoneum covers the external surfaces of most abdominopelvic organs
true
the diaphragm separates the abdominal and pelvic cavities
true
the iliac region is lateral to the hypogastric region
true
transitional epithelium
urinary bladder, ureters, and urethra