Final Exam RMI

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The gross premium is defined as A) the net premium plus the loading allowance. B) the terminal reserve plus the commission. C) the net premium minus expenses. D) the sum of all acquisition expenses.

27) Disadvantages of life insurance settlement options include which of the following? I. Higher yields can often be obtained elsewhere. II. Life income options have limited usefulness at younger ages. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

26) Tom is planning to build a home. He is weighing many factors, including construction materials, location, and other considerations. Which of the following statements is true with regard to homeowners insurance and Tom's new home? A) The higher the construction costs are in the area, the lower Tom's homeowners insurance premiums will be. B) The lower the homeowners deductible selected, the lower the premium will be. C) Older homes cost more to insure than newer homes. D) A wood frame home costs less to insure than a brick home.

C) Older homes cost more to insure than newer homes.

10) The period during which a surviving spouse is ineligible for Social Security benefits is referred to as the A) emergency period. B) readjustment period. C) dependency period. D) blackout period.

12) Which of the following statements about assignments of life insurance policies is (are) true? I. Under a collateral assignment, the policyowner assigns a life insurance policy to secure a loan. II. Under an absolute assignment, only limited ownership rights in a policy are transferred. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

30) Which of the following statements about the guaranteed purchase option is true? A) An insured usually has 24 months to exercise an option. B) The option cannot be exercised until the insured reaches age 40. C) The amount of life insurance that can be purchased at each option is limited to 10 percent of the face amount of the basic policy. D) The additional coverage can be purchased without demonstrating insurability.

Life insurance policy reserves A) are always equal to the policy's cash surrender value. B) are a major asset of life insurance companies. C) are paid to the beneficiary when the insured dies. D) are a major liability of life insurance companies.

32) Cal is renting an apartment. Which homeowners policy is specially designed to insure renters? A) HO-2 B) HO-3 C) HO-4 D) HO-6

C) HO-4

33) Shauna purchased a condominium unit. Which homeowners policy is specially designed for condominium unit owners? A) HO-2 B) HO-3 C) HO-4 D) HO-6

D) HO-6

32) Which of the following statements about limited-payment life insurance is true? A) It is a form of term insurance. B) It matures at the end of the premium-payment period. C) The premium decreases each year during the premium-payment period. D) Its use may be appropriate if a person wants paid-up life insurance during retirement.

43) Jose and Maria would like "open-perils" coverage on their home and their personal property. Which unendorsed homeowners form provides this coverage? A) Homeowners 2 B) Homeowners 3 C) Homeowners 4 D) Homeowners 5

D) Homeowners 5

22) All of the following are nonforfeiture options found in cash value life insurance policies EXCEPT A) cash value. B) reduction of premiums. C) reduced paid-up insurance. D) extended term insurance.

Fundamental purposes of the principle of indemnity include which of the following? To reduce physical hazards To prevent the insured from profiting from insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 2 Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of the principle of indemnity? A) to reduce moral hazard B) to minimize physical hazards C) to settle property insurance losses on a replacement cost basis D) to require deductibles in all property insurance policies Answer: A 3 Sam's furniture was destroyed by a fire. The furniture cost $1200 when it was purchased, but similar new furniture now costs $1800. Assuming the furniture was 50 percent depreciated, what is the actual cash value of Sam's loss? A) $600 B) $900 C) $1200 D) $1800 Answer: B 4 The loss settlement under which of the following supports the principle of indemnity? A) life insurance B) valued policies C) replacement cost property insurance D) actual cash value property insurance Answer: D 5 Under which of the following rules is actual cash value determined by taking into consideration all relevant factors an expert would use to determine the value of the property? A) the circumstantial evidence rule B) the broad evidence rule C) the property indemnity rule D) the objective value rule Answer: B 6 A total loss under a valued policy is settled on the basis of the A) market value of the loss. B) actual cash value of the loss. C) replacement value of the loss. D) amount of insurance covering the loss. Answer: D 7 Which of the following statements describes how losses will be settled if a property insurance policy is written on a replacement cost basis? A) Losses are settled without the applicable deductible. B) Losses are settled without a deduction for depreciation. C) The insurer must replace the damaged or destroyed property in lieu of a cash settlement. D) The policy is converted to a valued policy. Answer: B 8 Which of the following statements about the principle of insurable interest is (are) true? It makes it difficult to measure the amount of an insured's loss. It reduces moral hazard. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 9 All of the following will support an insurable interest for purposes of purchasing property and liability insurance EXCEPT A) former ownership of property. B) potential legal liability. C) secured creditors. D) contractual right. Answer: A 10 Which of the following statements about an insurable interest in life insurance is (are) true? It is required of any person named as beneficiary. It may result from a pecuniary (financial) interest. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 11 When must an insurable interest legally exist in life insurance? A) only at the time of the insured's death B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the beneficiary is paid D) both at the time of the insured's death and at the inception of the policy Answer: B 12 When must an insurable interest legally exist in property insurance for an insured to receive payment for a loss from the insurer? A) only at the time of the loss B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the loss settlement takes place D) both at the time of the loss and at the inception of the policy Answer: A 13 Sue's office building was damaged by a fire caused by a careless tenant. After paying Sue for the loss, the insurance company sued the tenant to recover its loss. This suit is based on the principle of A) warranty. B) insurable interest. C) utmost good faith. D) subrogation. Answer: D 14 Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) Subrogation eliminates adverse selection. B) Subrogation helps to hold down the cost of insurance. C) Subrogation results in violation of the principle of indemnity. D) Subrogation permits a party who caused a loss to avoid responsibility for the loss. Answer: B 15 Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) It is used primarily for losses paid under life insurance policies. B) It allows the insurer to sue its own insured who is negligent. C) The insured's right to collect benefits may be forfeited if the insured interferes with the insurer's subrogation rights after a loss occurs. D) The insurer is required to exercise its subrogation rights. Answer: C 16 The principle of utmost good faith is supported by all of the following legal doctrines EXCEPT A) representations. B) warranty. C) subrogation. D) concealment. Answer: C 17 What is the legal significance of a material concealment by an insurance applicant? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the concealment. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium. Answer: B 18 What is the legal significance of a material misrepresentation in an insurance application? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the misrepresentation. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium. Answer: B 19 A false material statement made by an applicant for insurance is an example of A) concealment. B) breach of warranty. C) lack of offer and acceptance. D) misrepresentation. Answer: D 20 Which of the following statements about a warranty in an insurance contract is (are) true? It is part of the insurance contract. Statements made by an insurance applicant are considered warranties rather than representations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 21 David owns a liquor store in a high-crime area. In order to obtain a reduced insurance premium, David promised to have a burglar alarm operating at the store when the store was closed. This agreement, which was incorporated into the insurance contract, is an example of a A) representation. B) binder. C) rider. D) warranty. Answer: D 22 Which of the following statements about offer and acceptance for insurance contracts is true? A) In property and liability insurance, agents typically do not have the authority to bind coverage. B) In life insurance, the agent can usually accept an offer by immediately binding coverage. C) In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral. D) In life insurance, completing the application and paying the first premium constitute acceptance of the offer from the insurer. Answer: C 23 Chris applied for life insurance and paid the first premium on Monday. She was given an insurability premium receipt which specified that coverage was effective on the date of the application or the date of the medical exam, whichever is later. She took the medical exam the following Thursday. She was found to be in perfect health. On which day was her coverage effective? A) on Monday, when she completed the application and paid the first premium B) on Wednesday, two days after completing the application and paying the first premium C) on Thursday when she passed the medical exam D) on Saturday, two days after passing the medical exam Answer: C 24 Which of the following statements about consideration in an insurance contract is (are) true? The insured's total consideration is submission of a completed application. The insurer's consideration is the promise to do those things specified in the policy. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 25 A contract in which the values exchanged are not equal because chance is involved is called a(n) A) contract of adhesion. B) unilateral contract. C) conditional contract. D) aleatory contract. Answer: D 26 Why are insurance contracts said to be contracts of adhesion? A) The values exchanged by the parties to the contract are not equal. B) One party writes the contract, and the other party must accept the entire contract as written. C) Only one party makes a legally enforceable promise. D) Conditions are placed on the insurer's promise to perform. Answer: B 27 Why does the insured get the benefit of the doubt if an insurance policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion Answer: D 28 Why can an insurer refuse to pay a claim if an insured fails to abide by the policy provisions? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion Answer: C 29 Which of the following types of insurance policies can usually be assigned without the insurer's consent? Life insurance Property insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 30 What is the practical effect of an insurance policy being a conditional contract? A) The insurer can refuse to a pay claim if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The insured gets the benefit of the doubt if a policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties. Answer: A 31 What is the practical effect of an insurance contract being a contract of adhesion? A) The insurer can refuse to pay claims if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The policy is interpreted in the insured's favor if the policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties. Answer: D 32 All of the following statements about the rules governing agency relationships are true EXCEPT A) An agent must be authorized to act on behalf of a principal. B) An agency agreement may grant certain powers to the agent as well as denying the agent other powers. C) The principal is responsible for the acts of agents only if the acts are criminal. D) Knowledge of the agent is presumed to be knowledge of the principal with respect to matters within the scope of the agency relationship. Answer: C 33 The voluntary relinquishment of a legal right is called A) subrogation. B) adhesion. C) estoppel. D) waiver. Answer: D 34 Frank asked his company's employee benefits director if his group health coverage could be converted to individual coverage. The benefits director said, "Yes, you can convert to an individual policy, and the coverage is identical to your group coverage." Frank quit his job and converted to an individual policy. Six months later he filed a claim. He was dismayed to learn the conversion policy was more limited compared to the group coverage, and his claim was denied. What legal doctrine will allow Frank to bring a successful legal action against his former employer because he was financially harmed due to his reasonable reliance upon a representation of fact? A) adhesion B) waiver C) estoppel D) subrogation Answer: C 35 Janice purchased a living room set for $1,000 and insured this furniture on an actual cash value basis. Two years later the living room set was destroyed by a covered peril. At the time of loss, the property had depreciated in value by 25 percent. The replacement cost of the furniture at the time of loss was $1,200. Assuming no deductible, how much will Janice receive from her insurer? A) $900 B) $950 C) $1,000 D) $1,200 Answer: A 36 Jacob sold his house to Shelia for $140,000 in cash. Jacob "threw in" insurance on the house as part of the deal and did not bother telling the insurer that there was a new owner. Four months after Shelia purchased the home, a windstorm damaged the roof. Which of the following legal characteristics of insurance contracts could the insurer use to legally deny payment for the damage to the roof? A) Insurance contracts are unilateral contracts. B) Insurance contacts are contracts of adhesion. C) Insurance contracts are aleatory contracts. D) Insurance contracts are personal contracts. Answer: D 37 Melody's car was damaged when another driver ran a stop sign and hit her car. Melody decided to collect from her own insurer and to let her insurer recoup the loss payment from the negligent driver who hit her. What fundamental legal principle is illustrated in this scenario? A) the principle of utmost good faith B) the principle of insurable interest C) the principle of subrogation D) the principle of reasonable expectations Answer: C 38 When Ben applied for life insurance, he was asked on the application if he smoked or used tobacco products. Ben answered "No." In reality, Ben smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. The policy was issued at the "preferred, nonsmoker rate." If Ben dies 6 months after the policy is issued, upon what grounds will the insurer be able to legally deny the claim? A) warranty B) misrepresentation C) waiver D) concealment Answer: B 39 Robin plans to open a bar in a high-crime area. She had difficulty obtaining insurance for the business. She found an insurer willing to write the coverage, but only if Robin agreed to have a security alarm system in operation at all times when the business is closed. Robin's promise to have a security alarm system operational as a condition of having the insurance coverage in force is a A) binder. B) warranty. C) waiver. D) deductible. Answer: B 40 Dave is an agent for Easy Pay Insurance. Easy Pay insures only high-quality applicants. Dave wanted to earn more commissions, so he sold some policies to applicants he knew were below-average risks. When these policyowners started filing claims, Easy Pay tried to deny the claims stating that Dave had not acted appropriately. Which general rule of agency makes Easy Pay responsible for the claims of the higher-than-average risk policyowners? A) There is no presumption of an agency relationship. B) Agents should be compensated based on the quality of the business they generate. C) A principal is responsible for the acts of its agents who are acting within the scope of their authority. D) An agent must have authority to represent the principal. Answer: C 41 Ted's insurance claim was denied by XYZ Insurance Company. When Ted inquired why the claim was denied, he was told to, "Read the exclusion on page 5 of the policy." Ted read the exclusion. In his opinion, the exclusion was poorly worded and vague. If a court of law agrees with Ted's assessment of the exclusion, Ted may still be able to have his claim paid by the insurer because insurance contracts are A) personal contracts. B) unilateral contracts. C) aleatory contracts. D) contracts of adhesion. Answer: D 42 Mark owns a bar. The bar has a back room where Mark has some slot machines. Mark lets some of his patrons play the machines, and Mark keeps any profits. This type of gambling is illegal where Mark lives. Mark wanted to purchase insurance in case his slot machines were confiscated by the police. Such an insurance contract would not be enforceable. Which requirement needed to form a valid insurance contract is missing? A) consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties Answer: C 43 Which distinct legal characteristic of insurance contracts states that only the insurer's promise to perform is legally enforceable? A) contracts of adhesion B) unilateral contracts C) aleatory contracts D) personal contracts Answer: B 44 Some courts have ruled that an alternative to "replacement cost less depreciation" should be used to determine the actual cash value of a property loss. Under this alternative, the value of property lost is determined by the price a willing buyer would pay a willing seller for the property in a free market. This method of determining actual cash value is called the A) intrinsic value method. B) valued policy method. C) fair market value method. D) forensic cost method. Answer: C 45 Some states have a law that requires payment of the face amount of insurance to the insured if a total loss to real property occurs from a peril specified in the law. These laws are called A) agreed amount laws. B) replacement cost laws. C) homestead laws. D) valued policy laws. Answer: D 46 The general rule that ambiguity in insurance contracts is construed against the insurer is reinforced by an important legal principle. This principle states the insured is entitled to coverage under a policy that he or she would assume the policy would provide, and exclusions must be conspicuous, plain, and clear. This principle is known as A) the principle of utmost good faith. B) the principle of reasonable expectations. C) the principle of subrogation. D) the principle of indemnity. Answer: B 47 Dave and Meagan Philips borrowed $150,000 from Fifth National Bank to help fund the purchase of a new home. The home serves as collateral for the loan. Fifth National has an insurable interest in the home based on A) potential responsibility for legal liability. B) being a secured creditor. C) expectation of ownership. D) having a contractual right. Answer: B 48 All of the following statements about subrogation are true EXCEPT A) The general rule allows the insurer to recover up to the amount paid to its insured under the policy. B) Subrogation does not apply in life insurance. C) Interfering with the insurer's subrogation rights can jeopardize indemnification of the insured. D) The insurer reserves the right to subrogate against its own insureds. Answer: D 49 Powers specifically conferred on an agent to act on behalf of a principal are A) incidental authority. B) apparent authority. C) implied authority. D) express authority. Answer: D 50 If a third party is led to reasonably believe that an agent is acting within the scope of his/her authority, even though the agent is exceeding his/her authority, the principal may still be bound by the agent's actions. In this case, the agent has bound the principal by A) implied authority. B) apparent authority. C) incidental authority. D) express authority. Answer: B 51 The authority of an agent to perform all incidental acts necessary to fulfill the purposes of the agency agreement is called A) implied authority. B) declared authority. C) apparent authority. D) express authority. Answer: A 52 ABC Life Insurance Company insures both smokers and nonsmokers. Beth lied on her life insurance application, checking the box for "no" in response to the question of whether she smokes cigarettes or uses other tobacco products. Even though Beth smokes 10 to 15 cigarettes each day, the policy was issued at the "preferred nonsmoker rate." Beth's lie is materiel in this case because A) it was in writing on the application. B) it was given with the intent to deceive. C) the policy would have been issued on different terms if the insurer knew the true facts. D) the policy would have been issued for a lower face value if the insurer knew the true facts. Answer: C 53 Bob purchased insurance on his home with an insurer that was not licensed to do business in the state. In this case, which requirement to form a binding insurance contract is lacking? A) exchange of consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties Answer: D 54 A pharmaceutical company employs a young chemist who is responsible for three new patents last year and for the development of the company's two best-selling drugs. The company purchased a large life insurance policy on the chemist. In this case, the insurable interest requirement was met because of a(n) A) ownership interest. B) close family relationship. C) pecuniary interest. D) economic family relationship. Answer: C 55 Hank bought a farm that had an old barn. He noticed one day that the roof of the barn was swaying in the wind. Hank went to see his insurance agent and he insured the barn for $20,000. The agent didn't ask if the roof might collapse, and Hank didn't say anything about it. One week later there was a strong wind and the roof collapsed. Assuming the insurer can prove it, under what legal grounds could the insurer deny payment of the claim? A) estoppel B) concealment C) warranty D) misrepresentation Answer: B 56 Kim purchased a one-year property insurance policy. She agreed to pay half the premium when she bought the coverage, and the other half six months later. If Kim fails to pay the second premium, the insurer cannot sue her for the premium because insurance contracts are A) unilateral contracts. B) contracts of adhesion. C) personal contracts. D) aleatory contracts. Answer: A 57 Charles Blake told Wendy that he was an agent for Easy Pay Life Insurance Company. He presented no credentials. He asked Wendy some questions about her health and activities, and recorded the answers on scrap paper. He collected a $250 cash premium from Wendy. When Wendy did not receive a policy from Easy Pay, she contacted the company. Easy Pay said they do not have an agent named Charles Blake. Easy Pay is not responsible for Wendy's loss of $250 because A) the principal is never responsible for the acts of its agents. B) there is no presumption of an agency relationship. C) limitations can be placed on the powers of agents. D) knowledge of the agent is assumed to be knowledge of the principal. Answer: B

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24) All of the following statements about the interest settlement option are true EXCEPT A) The minimum guaranteed interest rate is usually equal to the prime rate. B) The interest can be paid monthly, quarterly, semiannually, or annually. C) The beneficiary may be allowed to withdraw part or all of the proceeds. D) The beneficiary may be allowed to change to another settlement option.

The policy reserve at the end of any given policy year is called the A) terminal reserve. B) unearned premium reserve. C) mean reserve. D) initial reserve.

42) Tim purchased a 10-payment whole life insurance policy 15 years ago. Tim would like to donate this paid-up policy to a charity. Under which policy provision can Tim transfer all ownership rights in the policy to the charity? A) absolute assignment B) extended term nonforfeiture option C) reinstatement D) collateral assignment

51) Dave purchased a life insurance policy. The policy is nonparticipating and the cash values are based on the insurer's present mortality, investment, and expense experience. After 2 years, the insurer will recalculate the premium based on the mortality, investment, and expense experience at that time. Dave purchased A) current assumption whole life. B) variable life insurance. C) universal life insurance. D) variable universal life insurance

54) Which statement is true concerning the economic problem of premature death in the United States? I. The economic impact of premature death of the breadwinner varies for different types of families. II. Increased life expectancy has increased the economic problem of premature death over time. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A

The gross premium for life insurance is equal to A) the present value of the future death claim plus an expense loading. B) the present value of the future death claim less the sum of the premiums paid when death occurs. C) the present value of the future death claim less the present value of the expected dividends. D) the net premium less the expense loading.

Which of the following statements about the yearly-rate-of-return method (also known as the Belth method) of calculating the yearly rate of return for a life insurance policy is (are) true? The formula requires the use of benchmark prices per $1,000 of protection. The main drawback of the formula is its complexity, necessitating the use of a computer to calculate the rate of return. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding taxation of life insurance? Life insurance proceeds paid in a lump-sum to a designated beneficiary are received free of federal income taxes. The policyowner must pay taxes annually on the amount by which the cash value of his or her life insurance policy has increased. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

20) Which of the following statements about endorsements to the homeowners policy is (are) true? I. The purpose of the inflation guard endorsement is to help prevent home owners from being under-insured. II. The purpose of the watercraft endorsement is to provide coverage for watercraft when they are used outside the United States. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

52) Which of the following $100,000 whole life insurance policies, issued by the same company to a man age 32, would require the highest first-year premium? A) continuous premium (ordinary) life B) whole life paid-up at 65 C) 10-payment whole life D) 20-payment whole life

19) Factors that affect the cost of homeowners insurance include which of the following? I. Construction material II. Deductible amount A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

33) Which of the following statements about endowment insurance policies is (are) true? I. The face amount is paid if the insured dies during the policy period or at the end of the policy period if the insured is still alive. II. The use of endowment insurance has increased in recent years because of its favorable tax treatment. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

35) Which of the following statements about accelerated death benefits riders is (are) true? I. Under a terminal illness rider, after a partial payment is made to the insured, there is a reduction in the face amount of insurance, cash value, and premiums. II. Benefits under a long-term care rider are for home health care only. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

24) Which of the following statements about the scheduled personal property endorsement to the homeowners policy is (are) true? I. It provides named-perils coverage on scheduled items. II. It can be used to insure valuable items such as jewelry, silverware, and coin collections. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

Traditionally, risk has been defined as A) any situation in which the probability of loss is one. B) any situation in which the probability of loss is zero. C) uncertainty concerning the occurrence of loss. D) the probability of a loss occurring. Answer: C 2 Objective risk is defined as A) the probability of loss. B) the relative variation of actual loss from expected loss. C) uncertainty based on a person's mental condition or state of mind. D) the cause of loss. Answer: B 3 An insurance company estimates its objective risk for 10,000 exposures to be 10 percent. Assuming the probability of loss remains the same, what would happen to the objective risk if the number of exposures were to increase to 1 million? A) It would decrease to 1 percent. B) It would decrease to 5 percent. C) It would remain the same. D) It would increase to 20 percent. Answer: A 4 Uncertainty based on a person's mental condition or state of mind is known as A) objective risk. B) subjective risk. C) objective probability. D) subjective probability. Answer: B 5 The long-run relative frequency of an event based on the assumption of an infinite number of observations with no change in the underlying conditions is called A) objective probability. B) objective risk. C) subjective probability. D) subjective risk. Answer: A 6 Which of the following statements about a priori probabilities is correct? A) They are subjective probabilities based on ambiguity in the way probability is perceived. B) They are subjective probabilities that may vary among individuals because of factors such as age, gender, education, and the use of alcohol. C) They are objective probabilities that can be determined by deductive reasoning. D) They are objective probabilities that can be determined by subjective reasoning. Answer: C 7 An individual's personal estimate of the chance of loss is a(n) A) objective probability. B) objective risk. C) subjective probability. D) a priori Answer: C 8 A peril is A) a moral hazard. B) the cause of a loss. C) a condition that increases the chance of a loss. D) the probability that a loss will occur. Answer: B 9 An earthquake is an example of a(n) A) moral hazard. B) peril. C) physical hazard. D) objective risk. Answer: B 10 Dense fog that increases the chance of an automobile accident is an example of a A) speculative risk. B) peril. C) physical hazard. D) moral hazard. Answer: C 11 Faking an accident to collect insurance proceeds is an example of A) physical hazard. B) objective risk. C) moral hazard. D) attitudinal hazard. Answer: C 12 Carelessness or indifference to a loss is an example of A) physical hazard. B) objective probability. C) moral hazard. D) attitudinal hazard. Answer: D 13 Some characteristics of the judicial system and regulatory environment increase the frequency and severity of loss. This hazard is called A) moral hazard. B) physical hazard. C) attitudinal hazard. D) legal hazard. Answer: D 14 Taylor Tobacco Company is concerned that the company may be held liable in a court of law and ordered to pay a large damage award to a smoker harmed by the company's cigarettes. The characteristics of the judicial system that increase the frequency and severity of loss are known as A) moral hazard. B) particular risk. C) speculative risk. D) legal hazard. Answer: D 15 A name that encompasses all of the major risks faced by a business firm is A) financial risk. B) speculative risk. C) enterprise risk. D) pure risk. Answer: C 16 Which of the following statements about financial risk is (are) true? Enterprise risk does not include financial risk. Financial risk is easily addressed through the purchase of insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: D 17 One of the speculative financial risks considered in an enterprise risk management program is the risk of loss because of adverse changes in commodity prices, interest rates, foreign exchange rates, and the value of money. This risk is called A) property risk. B) financial risk. C) strategic risk. D) operational risk. Answer: B 18 Katelyn was just named Risk Manager of ABC Company. She has decided to create a risk management program which considers all of the risks faced by ABC—pure, speculative, operational, and strategic—in a single risk management program. Such a program is called a(n) A) financial risk management program. B) enterprise risk management program. C) fundamental risk management program. D) consequential risk management program. Answer: B 19 A pure risk is defined as a situation in which there is A) only the possibility of loss or no loss. B) only the possibility of profit. C) a possibility of neither profit nor loss. D) a possibility of either profit or loss. Answer: A 20 The premature death of an individual is an example of a A) pure risk. B) speculative risk. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) physical hazard. Answer: A 21 Which of the following statements about speculative risks is true? A) They are almost always insurable by private insurers. B) They are more easily predictable than pure risks. C) They may benefit society even though a loss occurs. D) They involve only a chance of loss. Answer: C 22 An automobile that is a total loss as a result of a collision is an example of which of the following types of risk? Speculative risk Diversifiable risk A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 23 All of the following are programs to insure fundamental risks EXCEPT A) federally subsidized flood insurance. B) auto physical damage insurance. C) Social Security. D) unemployment insurance. Answer: B 24 All of the following are examples of personal risks EXCEPT A) poor health. B) unemployment. C) premature death. D) loss of business income. Answer: D 25 Which of the following is a reason why premature death may result in economic insecurity? Additional expenses associated with death may be incurred. The income of the deceased person's family may be inadequate to meet its basic needs. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 26 Which of the following is (are) often consequences of long-term disability? Continuing medical expenses Loss or reduction of employee benefits A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 27 Which of the following is an example of consequential (indirect) loss? A) the theft of a person's jewelry B) the destruction of a firm's manufacturing plant by an earthquake C) the cost of renting a substitute vehicle while a collision-damaged car is being repaired D) the vandalism of a person's automobile Answer: C 28 The extra expense incurred by a business to stay in operation following a fire is an example of a(n) A) fundamental risk. B) speculative risk. C) direct loss. D) indirect loss. Answer: D 29 Which of the following statements about liability risks is (are) true? Future income and assets can be attached to pay judgments if inadequate insurance is carried. There is an upper limit on the amount of loss. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 30 All of the following are burdens to society because of the presence of risk EXCEPT A) The size of an emergency fund must be increased. B) Risk provides an incentive for people to engage in loss control. C) Society is deprived of certain goods and services. D) Mental fear and worry are present. Answer: B 31 Loss control includes which of the following? Loss reduction Loss prevention A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 32 Following good health habits can be categorized as A) loss prevention. B) risk retention. C) noninsurance transfer. D) personal insurance. Answer: A 33 From the insured's perspective, the use of deductibles in insurance contracts is an example of A) risk transfer. B) risk control. C) risk avoidance. D) risk retention. Answer: D 34 The use of fire-resistive materials when constructing a building is an example of A) risk transfer. B) risk control. C) risk avoidance. D) risk retention. Answer: B 35 All of the following statements about risk retention are true EXCEPT A) It may be used intentionally if commercial insurance is unavailable. B) It may be used passively because of ignorance. C) Its use is most appropriate for low-frequency, high-severity types of risks. D) Its use results in cost savings if losses are less than the cost of insurance. Answer: C 36 Which of the following is an example of a noninsurance risk transfer? A) not engaging in dangerous activities B) entering into a hold-harmless agreement C) installing smoke detectors in your home D) using nonflammable building material when constructing a house Answer: B 37 Curt borrowed money from a bank to purchase a fishing boat. He purchased property insurance on the boat. Curt had difficulty making loan payments because he did not catch many fish, and fish prices were low. Curt intentionally sunk the boat, collected from his insurer, and paid off the loan balance. This scenario illustrates the problem of A) adverse selection. B) moral hazard. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) attitudinal hazard. Answer: B 38 Jenna opened a successful restaurant. One night, after the restaurant had closed, a fire started when the electrical system malfunctioned. In addition to the physical damage to the restaurant, Jenna lost profits that could have been earned while the restaurant was closed for repairs. The lost profits are an example of A) direct loss. B) nondiversifiable risk. C) speculative risk. D) indirect loss. Answer: D 39 Brad started a pest control business. To protect his personal assets against liability arising out of the business, Brad incorporated the business. Brad's use of the corporate form of organization to shield against personal liability claims illustrates A) fundamental risk. B) noninsurance transfer. C) risk retention. D) objective risk. Answer: B 40 ABC Insurance Company plans to sell homeowners insurance in five Western states. ABC expects that 8 homeowners out of every 100, on average, will report claims each year. The variation between the rate of loss that ABC expects to occur and the rate of loss that actually occurs is called A) objective probability. B) subjective probability. C) objective risk. D) subjective risk. Answer: C 41 Williams Company installed smoke detectors, a sprinkler system, and fire extinguishers in its new manufacturing facility. These devices are all examples of A) risk control. B) noninsurance transfer. C) risk avoidance. D) risk retention. Answer: A 42 Which of the following statements about hedging is (are) true? Hedging is a form of risk transfer. Hedging is used to address the risk of unfavorable price fluctuations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 43 Cathy's car hit a patch of ice on the road. The car skidded off the road and hit a tree. The presence of ice on the road is best described as a(n) A) peril. B) subjective risk. C) physical hazard. D) indirect loss. Answer: C 44 Jim and Paula Franklin started a dry cleaning business. The business may be successful or it may fail. The type of risk that is present when either a profit or loss could occur is called A) pure risk. B) subjective risk. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) speculative risk. Answer: D 45 Ben is concerned that if he injures someone or damages someone's property he could be held legally responsible and required to pay damages. This type of risk is called a A) speculative risk. B) liability risk. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) property risk. Answer: B 46 MLX Drug Company would like to market a new hypertension drug. While the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) was testing the drug, it discovered that the drug produced a harmful side effect. When MLX learned of the FDA's test result, MLX abandoned its plan to produce and distribute the drug. MLX's reaction illustrates A) risk avoidance. B) hedging. C) risk transfer. D) risk retention. Answer: A 47 ABC Insurance Company sells auto insurance in one state. Recently, the state legislature passed a law that limits the use of an individual's credit history by insurers when selecting applicants to insure. This change in law will increase the possibility of unprofitable results for ABC. This type of hazard is an example of A) physical hazard. B) legal hazard. C) moral hazard. D) attitudinal hazard. Answer: B 48 All of the following are characteristics of the liability risk that most people face EXCEPT A) a lien may be placed on your income and assets to satisfy a legal judgment. B) substantial legal expenses may be incurred defending the claim. C) there is no upper limit on the amount of the loss. D) owning liability insurance eliminates the possibility of being held legally liable. Answer: D 49 Which of the following statements about chance of loss and risk is (are) true? If the chance of loss is identical for two groups, the objective risk must be the same. Two individuals may perceive differently the risk inherent in a given activity. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 50 A risk that affects only individuals or small groups and not the entire economy is called a A) diversifiable risk. B) pure risk. C) speculative risk. D) nondiversifiable risk. Answer: A 51 Which of the following is an example of a commercial risk? A) the risk of insufficient retirement income B) the loss of business income C) the risk of premature death D) the risk of being unemployed Answer: B 52 A special form of planned retention by which part or all of a give loss exposure is retained by the firm is called A) hedging. B) self-insurance. C) passive retention. D) noninsurance transfer. Answer: B 53 The production facility for ABC Manufacturing is located in a flood plain. Although the risk of flood is low, ABC's risk manager is concerned that a flood could damage the plant and equipment. He received bids on flood insurance from two insurance agents, but decided the cost of coverage was too high relative to the risk. So he did not purchase flood insurance. Which risk management technique is ABC using with respect to the risk of flood? A) active retention B) noninsurance transfer C) passive retention D) avoidance Answer: A 54 A student who has skipped many classes and not studied the course material was surprised to learn there was a test when he showed-up for class. The student's mental uncertainty about whether or not he will pass the test is called A) objective risk. B) objective probability. C) subjective probability. D) subjective risk. Answer: D 55 Rapid inflation, cyclical unemployment, war, hurricanes, and floods are all examples of A) diversifiable risks. B) physical hazards. C) nondiversifiable risks. D) speculative risks. Answer: C 56 Five years ago, Shannon decided to start investing monthly in the common stock of ABC Telecom Company. Her financial well-being will be harmed if the price of ABC Telecom stock drops significantly. The risk of investment loss can be reduced if she invests in other companies and other types of financial assets. The risk Shannon faces with regard to her investments is a(n) A) enterprise risk. B) diversifiable risk. C) pure risk. D) nondiversifiable risk. Answer: B 57 Frazier Electric keeps a paper copy of business records at the company's headquarters. The company also has two back-up copies of business records stored in electronic files. The electronic files are kept in the event the paper records are damaged or destroyed. The back-up files illustrate which of the following risk control techniques? A) loss prevention B) loss reduction C) diversification D) duplication Answer: D 58 Rather than storing all of its finished goods in a single location, Davis Company divides the finished goods between two warehouses. This simple risk control technique which is designed to limit losses should a warehouse fire occur is called A) duplication. B) risk transfer. C) separation. D) loss prevention. Answer: C 59 Some members of Congress are concerned that if one or two large U.S. banks fail, it could lead to the collapse of the entire U.S. financial sector. This risk is called A) objective risk. B) systemic risk. C) enterprise risk. D) subjective risk. Answer: B

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Which of the following statements about torts is (are) true? The person who is injured or harmed by a tort is called a plaintiff or claimant. The punishment for committing a tort is damages in the form of money. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 2 Which of the following is an intentional tort? A) slander B) negligence C) strict liability D) murder Answer: A 3 A situation in which a person is held legally liable even though fault or negligence cannot be proven is an example of A) general damages. B) comparative negligence. C) an intentional tort. D) strict liability. Answer: D 4 Failure to exercise the degree of care required by law to protect others from harm is called A) premeditated liability. B) vicarious liability. C) punitive damages. D) negligence. Answer: D 5 All of the following are elements of negligence EXCEPT A) the ability to pay damages. B) the failure to perform a legal duty to use reasonable care. C) damage or injury to a claimant. D) proximate cause between the negligent act and the injury or harm that occurs. Answer: A 6 Which of the following statements about the elements of negligence is (are) true? The negligence of the tortfeasor may arise from a failure to act. The damage that results must be in the form of property damage. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 7 Damages awarded for losses that can be determined or measured are A) special damages. B) general damages. C) punitive damages. D) comparative damages. Answer: A 8 Which of the following statements about monetary damages awarded by a court is (are) true? The purpose of general damages is to provide benefits for medical expenses or loss of earnings. The purpose of punitive damages is to punish the tortfeasor so that others are deterred from committing the same wrongful act. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 9 Heather sued Robert for injuries suffered in an automobile accident. Based on the facts presented, the jury concluded that Heather was 40 percent at fault in the accident and Robert was 60 percent at fault. Under the common law doctrine of contributory negligence, the jury should award Heather A) nothing. B) 40 percent of her actual damages. C) 60 percent of her actual damages. D) 100 percent of her actual damages. Answer: A 10 Which of the following statements about comparative negligence laws is (are) true? Under the pure rule, any negligence by the plaintiff automatically bars recovery for damages. Under the 50 percent rule, parties who are equally at fault are each allowed to recover damages. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 11 Nancy was injured when she drove her car through a stop sign and was struck by Philip's car. Philip saw Nancy and could have stopped. However, he failed to do so since he had the right-of-way. Nancy can recover damages from Philip under which of the following legal doctrines? A) vicarious liability B) the last clear chance rule C) contributory negligence D) the assumption of risk doctrine Answer: B 12 A common situation involving strict liability includes which of the following? A) operating a motor vehicle B) blasting operations C) manufacturing a product D) mining operations Answer: B 13 Which of the following may give rise to imputed negligence? A) employer-employee relationships B) injury to a trespasser C) sole proprietorships D) attractive nuisance situations Answer: A 14 All of the following requirements must be met to satisfy the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur EXCEPT A) The injured party has not contributed to the accident in any way. B) The injured party must prove negligence on the part of the defendant. C) The event is one that normally does not occur in the absence of negligence. D) The defendant has exclusive control over the instrumentality causing the accident. Answer: B 15 Under certain conditions, the wrongful acts of one person can be attributed to another person. This practice is called A) imputed negligence. B) mediation. C) comparative negligence. D) strict liability. Answer: A 16 Which of the following statements about the legal obligations of a property owner is (are) true? A property owner must inspect the premises for the benefit of an invitee and correct any unsafe conditions. A property owner has the right to set a trap designed to injure a trespasser. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 17 Under common law, which of the following persons is most likely to be classified as an invitee? A) a mail carrier B) a social guest C) a door-to-door salesperson D) a solicitor for a charitable organization Answer: A 18 Which of the following are legal obligations of a property owner with respect to an invitee? The property owner must warn an invitee of any unsafe conditions. The property owner must inspect the premises and eliminate any dangerous conditions revealed by the inspection. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 19 What is the intent of the family purpose doctrine? A) to impose liability on children for the care of elderly parents B) to impose liability on the owner of an automobile for the negligence of immediate family members operating the automobile C) to impose liability on a parent for any negligence caused by a child D) to impose strict liability on the owner of a wild animal for any injuries caused by the animal Answer: B 20 Which of the following statements about the immunity of governmental entities is (are) true? Governmental entities are more likely to be immune from liability when performing proprietary functions than when performing governmental functions. Many courts have eliminated the immunity of government entities. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 21 The doctrine of respondeat superior applies to a(n) A) parent's liability for a negligent child. B) pet owner's liability for the pet. C) employer's liability for a negligent employee. D) manufacturer's liability for a faulty product. Answer: C 22 Situations under which parents can be held liable for the actions of a child include which of the following? The child uses a parent's gun to injure someone. The child is acting as an agent of the parent. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 23 Under one doctrine, a person who understands the danger inherent in an activity cannot recover damages in the event of injury from the activity. This doctrine is called the A) contributory negligence doctrine. B) assumption of risk doctrine. C) comparative negligence doctrine. D) fellow servant doctrine. Answer: B 24 One tort reform permits manufacturers to assert that as long as the product conformed to the prevailing technology and production methods at the time it was produced, it cannot be considered a defective product today. This defense is called the A) collateral source rule. B) state of the art defense. C) strict liability defense. D) privity of contract rule. Answer: B 25 Traditionally, federal state, and local governments could not be sued. This immunity had eroded over time. Today, government units may be liable for injuries arising out of money-making activities. Such activities are called A) municipal operations. B) proprietary functions. C) commercial ventures. D) pecuniary interest. Answer: B 26 All of the following are proposed solutions to the medical malpractice problem EXCEPT A) shortening the statute of limitations for filing lawsuits. B) eliminating arbitration panels to resolve disputes. C) placing limitations on contingent fees charged by attorneys. D) placing limitations on damage awards. Answer: B 27 A homeowner was repairing the deck on the back of his home. He left power tools on the deck when he quit working for the day. A neighbor's child saw the power tools. He came on to the deck, and started to play with a power saw. He cut off two of his fingers. A property owner may be held liable for creating a condition that entices children to enter the property where they are injured under the doctrine of A) sovereign immunity. B) attractive nuisance. C) family purpose. D) respondeat superior. Answer: B 28 Arguments in favor of reforming the civil justice system include which of the following? There is often a long delay in settling lawsuits. Compensation awards have decreased significantly over the past two decades. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 29 All of the following are examples of tort reform proposals EXCEPT A) modifying the collateral source rule. B) eliminating caps on noneconomic damages. C) regulation of attorney fees. D) imposing penalties to deter frivolous lawsuits. Answer: B 30 A defendant who is only slightly liable may be required to pay the full amount of damages under which of the following? A) the joint and several liability rule B) the collateral source rule C) arbitration D) res ipsa loquitor Answer: A 31 Alternative techniques for resolving legal disputes without litigation include which of the following? Arbitration Mediation A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 32 All of the following are categories of torts EXCEPT A) intentional torts. B) breach of contract. C) strict liability. D) negligence. Answer: B 33 James was injured in an auto accident caused by another motorist's negligence. To reimburse him for his hospital bills and lost earnings, items which can be specifically itemized, James will receive A) punitive damages. B) special damages. C) imputed damages. D) general damages. Answer: B 34 James was injured in an auto accident caused by another motorist's negligence. He received severe facial lacerations and injured his back in the accident. In payment for his pain, suffering, and disfigurement, losses which cannot be specifically itemized, James will receive A) punitive damages. B) special damages. C) imputed damages. D) general damages. Answer: D 35 Michelle had major abdominal surgery. Months after the surgery, she still did not feel well. When she was operated on again, the surgeon discovered two sponges that were not removed at the conclusion of the first operation. Michelle should be able to collect damages without having to prove negligence under the doctrine of A) joint and several liability. B) res ipsa loquitor. C) contributory negligence. D) uberrimae fidei. Answer: B 36 Francis opened a store. She knows that customers who come to the store may be injured on the premises and hold her responsible for their injuries. Under common law, business customers in the store Francis opened are considered A) aliens. B) licensees. C) trespassers. D) invitees. Answer: D 37 Malcolm was involved in an auto accident. He was judged to be 20 percent at fault in the accident, and the other party was judged to be 80 percent at fault. Malcolm's actual damages were $40,000. Under a pure comparative negligence rule, how much will Malcolm receive for his injuries? A) $8,000 B) $24,000 C) $32,000 D) $40,000 Answer: C 38 Louise was in a hurry and tried to cross the street in the middle of the block rather than at a street corner. A car struck her. Even though Louise placed herself in danger, she may still be able to collect for her injuries if the driver had an opportunity to avoid hitting her but failed to do so. This rule is called the A) last clear chance rule. B) collateral sources rule. C) alternative dispute resolution rule. D) joint and several liability rule. Answer: A 39 Bruce believes a local manufacturer is responsible for contaminating some land he owns. He filed suit against the company. Rather than have the case go to court, the manufacturing company's legal team suggested mediation or arbitration to settle the case. Methods that are employed to resolve legal disputes without litigation, such as mediation, are called A) collateral source rules. B) alternative dispute resolution techniques. C) joint and several liability techniques. D) comparative negligence rules. Answer: B 40 Jan was injured in a work-related auto accident. She sued the other driver, and the case went to court. While questioning Jan, the defendant's lawyer asked if her injuries and lost earnings were covered under workers compensation. Jan's lawyer objected to the question. The judge ruled the question was improper and instructed the jury to disregard the question. Based on the judge's reaction to the question, which of the following rules is in force where this trial took place? A) the joint and several liability rule B) the last clear chance rule C) the comparative negligence rule D) the collateral source rule Answer: D 41 Trisha was injured when the delivery truck for a local furniture store struck her. The delivery driver claimed the brakes of the delivery truck failed, causing the accident. Trisha filed suit, and in her lawsuit named the delivery driver, the furniture store, the service station responsible for vehicle maintenance, and the manufacturer of the vehicle. Even though the manufacturer of the vehicle may be only 1 percent responsible for the accident, it may be required to pay a large percentage of the damages under the A) collateral source rule. B) assumption of risk rule. C) joint and several liability rule. D) last clear chance rule. Answer: C 42 Compensatory damages include A) general damages and special damages. B) special damages and punitive damages. C) punitive damages and general damages. D) general damages, special damages, and punitive damages. Answer: A 43 A person who enters or remains on the property with the occupant's expressed or implied permission is called (a)n A) trespasser. B) resident agent. C) invitee. D) licensee. Answer: C 44 In the context of medical malpractice, what is a "never event"? A) A medical condition that despite the best screening and technology cannot be detected. B) A pandemic that quickly spreads and infects many people. C) A medical error that should never occur. D) An event for which doctors and medical facilities cannot be held legally responsible. Answer: C 45 Steve was involved in an auto accident. Both drivers were partially at fault for the accident. Steve's actual damages were $50,000. He was judged to be 60 percent at fault. If Steve's state has a pure comparative negligence law, how much will Steve collect? A) $0 B) $20,000 C) $30,000 D) $50,000 Answer: B 46 Steve was involved in an auto accident. Both drivers were partially at fault for the accident. Steve's actual damages were $50,000. He was judged to be 60 percent at fault. If Steve's state has a 51 percent rule for comparative negligence, how much will Steve collect? A) $0 B) $20,000 C) $30,000 D) $50,000 Answer: A 47 A legal wrong for which the law allows a remedy in the form of money damages is a A) crime. B) breach. C) misdemeanor. D) tort. Answer: D 48 One requirement for proving that an act was negligent is the existence of an unbroken chain of events between the act and the injury or harm that occurred. This unbroken chain of events is called A) condition precedent. B) cause and effect. C) proximate cause. D) condition subsequent. Answer: C 49 Under a dram shop law, a business may be held liable for damages resulting from A) the sale of alcohol. B) the creation of an unsafe work place. C) the sale of prescription drugs. D) the creation of a hostile work environment. Answer: A 50 One tort reform proposal is capping noneconomic damages. Noneconomic damages include A) payment for time missed from work. B) payment for the cost of a hospital stay. C) payment for pain and suffering. D) payment for the cost of care provided by a physical therapist. Answer: C 51 Under state workers compensation programs, employers may not use common law defenses to defend against claims of workers who are injured on the job. In such cases, proof of a worker's injury is proof of responsibility of the employer. Because of this characteristic, workers compensation is an example of A) personal injury. B) strict (absolute) liability. C) comparative negligence. D) tort liability. Answer: B 52 Steve was involved in an auto accident. Both drivers were partially at fault for the accident. Steve's actual damages were $50,000. He was judged to be 20 percent at fault. If Steve's state has a contributory negligence law, how much will Steve collect? A) $0 B) $10,000 C) $25,000 D) $40,000 Answer: A 53 Someone who is asked to come on to the property to benefit the property owner, such as customers at a store or a garbage collector, is classified as a(n) A) trespasser. B) resident agent. C) invitee. D) licensee. Answer: C 54 Liability may arise because of a method of collecting oil or natural gas. Under this collection method, a high-pressure flow of fluid is injected underground. This collection method is called A) clear cutting. B) flow mining. C) hydraulic fracturing. D) slurry mining. Answer: C 55 Unmanned aircraft systems are gaining in popularity. These systems are creating new liability exposures. Unmanned aircraft systems are also known as A) rockets. B) hovercraft. C) ultralights. D) drones. Answer: D 56 Individuals renting out rooms in their home for overnight stays, individuals jointly owing a car with other owners, and individuals who give rides to people who call or text them are creating "new" liability exposures for insurers. The social change that creates these new liability exposures is called A) the millennial generation. B) the baby boom factor C) the greying of America. D) the sharing economy. Answer: D

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37) All of the following statements describe the flexibility available to the owner of a universal life insurance policy EXCEPT A) Policy loans are permitted on an interest-free basis. B) The frequency of premium payments can be varied. C) The death benefit can be increased with evidence of insurability. D) Premium payments can be any amount provided there is sufficient cash value to keep the policy in force.

22) Which of the following statements about an earthquake endorsement for a homeowners policy is (are) true? I. The endorsement also covers landslides and volcanic eruptions. II. The coverage for earthquakes is written without a deductible. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

49) Which of the following statements is true about uninsured motorists coverage under the Personal Auto Policy? A) The benefits are paid without regard to fault. B) The insured collects from his or her own insurer, and the insurer can recoup the loss payment from the other driver. C) Uninsured motorists benefits are limited to the medical expenses of the insured. D) States require the purchase of uninsured motorists coverage to be able to license an auto.

B) The insured collects from his or her own insurer, and the insurer can recoup the loss payment from the other driver.

12) Which of the following statements about the medical payments coverage of the PAP is true? A) The amount of the benefit typically is $100,000. B) Covered expenses must be incurred within 30 days of the accident. C) Covered expenses include the cost of funeral services. D) The benefit limit applies on a per-accident basis rather than on a per-person basis.

C) Covered expenses include the cost of funeral services.

24) The insurance company's options for settling a collision loss to a covered auto under the PAP include which of the following? I. Pay the loss in money. II. Repair or replace the damaged auto. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

28) Gail lives in southern Illinois, near the New Madrid Fault Line. She added an earthquake endorsement to her Homeowners 3 policy. All of the following statements about the endorsement are true EXCEPT A) The deductible is expressed as a percentage of the coverage limit rather than as a dollar amount. B) The endorsement also covers landslides and volcanic eruptions. C) Aftershocks occurring within 72 hours of an earthquake are considered part of the same occurrence. D) The endorsement also covers flood losses.

D) The endorsement also covers flood losses.

38) Dennis was involved in an accident. He believes the damage to his auto is $6,000. His insurer believes the damage is only $3,500. Which PAP provision is designed to handle disputes between the insurer and the insured over the amount of the loss? A) other insurance provision B) agreed amount endorsement C) coinsurance provision D) appraisal provision

D) appraisal provision

10) Which of the following statements about the change of plan provision in a life insurance contract is (are) true? I. A change to a lower premium policy results in a refund of the difference in the cash values of the two policies. II. A change to a higher premium policy requires evidence of insurability. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

35) Betty's personal property is insured for $100,000 under her Homeowners 3 policy. If she usually keeps some personal property at a mountain cabin that she owns, how much coverage for this property is available under her homeowners policy? A) $10,000 B) $20,000 C) $40,000 D) $50,000

A) $10,000

A factor that can be ignored when determining the cost of life insurance is A) time value of money. B) premiums paid. C) settlement options. D) dividends.

30) Which of the following statements about life insurance cash values is (are) true? I. Cash values are a result of the level premium method of purchasing life insurance. II. The cash value of a policy must always exceed the policy's legal reserve. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

19) Bill is attempting to determine how much life insurance to purchase. He has two dependent children and his wife does not work outside of the home. An advisor suggested that Bill should consider Social Security benefits when doing his life insurance planning. One concern in this regard is the period after Social Security benefits to a widow terminate until they resume again. This period is called the A) blackout period. B) dependency period. C) emergency period. D) readjustment period.

21) A dividend option that allows the policyowner to purchase 1-year term insurance is referred to as the A) fifth dividend option. B) policy loan dividend option. C) paid-up additions dividend option. D) family protection dividend option.

23) What happens to the premiums for yearly renewable term insurance as an insured gets older? A) They increase at an increasing rate. B) They increase at a decreasing rate. C) They decrease at a constant rate. D) They remain level.

39) All of the following statements about current assumption whole life insurance are true EXCEPT A) It is a form of participating whole life insurance that pays annual dividends. B) An accumulation account is credited with an interest rate based on present market conditions and company experience. C) Under the low-premium version, the premium is subject to change after an initial guaranteed period. D) Under the high-premium version, the premium may vanish after a period of time.

39) Bruce lied about his health history when he purchased a life insurance policy. He died 3 years after the policy was issued. Which life insurance policy provision will require the life insurer to pay the beneficiary even though Bruce lied on the application? A) incontestable clause B) entire contract clause C) ownership clause D) change-of-plan provision

40) Which of the following statements about an indeterminate-premium whole life insurance policy is (are) true? I. It permits the insurer to adjust premiums based on anticipated future experience. II. It allows policyholder dividends to be used to lower premiums. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

According the 2001 CSO mortality table, the yearly probability of dying for a 40 year-old man is .00165. The present value of $1 one year from today, assuming a 5.5 percent interest rate, is .9479. What is the net single premium per $1,000 for a one-year term insurance policy sold to a man at age 40 assuming a 5.5 percent interest rate? Assume the premium is paid at the start of the year and the death benefit is paid at the end of the year. A) $1.56 B) $2.45 C) $7.18 D) $952.81

All of the following statements about the tax treatment of life insurance purchased by an individual are true EXCEPT A) The annual increase in the cash value is currently taxable. B) Premium payments are not tax deductible. C) Death benefits received in a lump sum are not taxable income. D) Policyowner dividends are not considered taxable income.

Brad owns a cash value life insurance policy. Last year, the cash value increased by $300. Brad received $100 in policyowner dividends on the policy last year. Brad was the beneficiary named in his grandmother's $50,000 life insurance policy. When she died this past year, Brad received $50,000. How much taxable income relating to life insurance must Brad report for federal income tax purposes? A) $0 B) $100 C) $400 D) $50,400

Mary is interested in comparing life insurance policies. Rather than looking at the cost per thousand, she would like to compare the rate of return earned on the savings portion of the policy. Which of the following would be of the most interest to Mary? A) the policy's Linton Yield B) the policy's surrender cost C) the policy's traditional net cost D) the policy's net payment cost

34) Sarah purchased a Personal Auto Policy with liability limits of 50/100/25. Sarah ran a stop sign and hit a van. The van sustained $15,000 in damages. The following bodily injuries were suffered by passengers in the van: Passenger #1, $15,000; Passenger #2, $60,000; and Passenger #3, $10,000. Sarah sustained $5,000 in medical expenses, and Sarah's car sustained $10,000 in damages. How much will Sarah's insurer pay under Part A: Liability Coverage? A) $90,000 B) $100,000 C) $115,000 D) $125,000

A) $90,000

25) Duties of an insured after a collision loss covered under the PAP include which of the following? I. Take reasonable steps to protect the vehicle from further damage. II. Admit fault if the insured believes he or she caused the collision. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

37) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the home business insurance coverage endorsement? I. It increases the coverage on business personal property at the insured residence from $2,500 to the Coverage C limit. II. It excludes coverage for liability arising out of the home business. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

40) Which of the following statements concerning the scheduled personal property endorsement with agreed value loss settlement is (are) true? I. The endorsement provides open-perils ("all-risks") coverage on the scheduled property. II. Losses under the endorsement are settled on an actual cash value basis. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

16) Which of the following statements about coverage for loss of use (Coverage D) under the Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) If a covered loss makes the home unfit for living, the insurer pays additional living expenses the insured may incur as a result of the loss. B) The duration of payments for additional living expenses is limited to a maximum of 30 days. C) There is no coverage for loss of rent if an insured peril makes the part of the premises rented to others uninhabitable. D) There is coverage for loss of business income if an insured peril forces a home business to be terminated.

A) If a covered loss makes the home unfit for living, the insurer pays additional living expenses the insured may incur as a result of the loss.

45) Which of the following statements regarding Section II coverage under the Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) Medical payments to others are covered regardless of whether the insured is legally liable. B) Legal defense costs incurred by the insurer to defend the insured reduce the per-occurrence limit of liability available. C) The insurer is not required to defend the insured against a groundless, false, or fraudulent lawsuit. D) Any amount paid under medical payments coverage reduces the personal liability limit available for the same claim.

A) Medical payments to others are covered regardless of whether the insured is legally liable.

25) Which of the following losses would be covered under Section II of an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) The homeowner accidentally dropped a bowling ball, injuring another bowler's foot. B) The homeowner's nanny was injured on her day off while hiking at a state park. C) The insured slandered a city council member at a city council meeting. D) The homeowner's dog bit the homeowner's daughter.

A) The homeowner accidentally dropped a bowling ball, injuring another bowler's foot.

21) Which of the following statements about covered perils under the personal property coverage (Coverage C) of the Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) Theft losses to boats and watercraft are covered only if they occur at the insured's residence. B) Damage from an explosion is covered only if the explosion is the result of fire or lightning. C) Property damage from vehicles is covered only if it is caused by the insured. D) Smoke damage is covered only if it arises from agricultural or industrial operations.

A) Theft losses to boats and watercraft are covered only if they occur at the insured's residence.

17) Which of the following statements about the additional coverages under Section I of the Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) There is coverage for the reasonable cost incurred to protect property from further damage after a covered loss occurs. B) There is unlimited coverage for furnishings of the landlord in an apartment on the premises that is rented to others. C) Property removed from the premises because it is endangered by an insured peril is covered on a named-perils basis while it is outside the insured premises. D) Damage caused by the settling of the insured structure is covered as a collapse.

A) There is coverage for the reasonable cost incurred to protect property from further damage after a covered loss occurs.

30) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred: —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the other driver's medical expenses? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

A) bodily injury liability

50) One additional coverage under the homeowners policy makes available up to 10 percent of the Coverage A limit to cover increased repair costs after a loss in order to comply with a stricter building code. This additional coverage is called A) ordinance or law. B) reasonable repairs. C) concurrent causation. D) debris removal.

A) ordinance or law.

39) The purpose of the collision damage waiver when renting an auto is to A) relieve the renter of financial responsibility if the rented car is damaged or stolen. B) relieve the renter of legal liability to third parties arising out of operation of the rented car. C) relieve the renter's insurer of legal liability to third parties arising out of operation of the rented car. D) waive the insured's deductible if the rented car is damaged or stolen.

A) relieve the renter of financial responsibility if the rented car is damaged or stolen.

29) All of the following are duties of the mortgagee under the standard mortgage clause EXCEPT A) to reimburse the insurer for any loss payments. B) to notify the insurer of any change in ownership of the property of which the mortgagee is aware. C) to provide a proof of loss form if the insured fails to do so. D) to pay the premium if the insured fails to do so.

A) to reimburse the insurer for any loss payments.

17) Sarah is using the needs approach to determine how much life insurance to buy. Her cash needs are $30,000; her income needs are $140,000; and special needs are $100,000. Sarah has the following assets: $20,000 in bank accounts, $30,000 in retirement plans, and $40,000 in investment accounts. Sarah owns no individual life insurance. She is covered by a $50,000 group life insurance policy through her employer. Based on this information, how much additional life insurance should Sarah purchase? A) $80,000 B) $130,000 C) $150,000 D) $160,000

19) Which of the following statements about dividend options is (are) true? I. The interest on dividends left to accumulate with the insurer is not considered to be taxable income. II. Paid-up additions are additional units of whole life insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

20) When using the needs approach, several "special needs" should be considered. One special need is money to cover unexpected events, such as major car repairs, dental bills, or home repairs. Money set aside for this purpose is called a(n) A) estate clearance fund. B) emergency fund. C) readjustment period fund. D) mortgage redemption fund.

26) Which of the following statements about a decreasing term insurance policy is true? A) The face amount of the policy decreases during the policy period, and the premium increases. B) The face amount of the policy decreases during the policy period, but the premium remains level. C) The premium decreases during the policy period, but the face amount remains constant. D) Both the premium and the face amount of the policy decrease gradually over the policy period.

27) The purchase of term insurance is justified by which of the following circumstances? I. The insured wants to save money through the policy for a specific need. II. The insured has a temporary need for life insurance protection. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

31) All of the following statements about ordinary life insurance are true EXCEPT A) Premiums are level throughout the policy period. B) The face amount of the policy is paid if the insured lives to age 65. C) There is a build-up of cash value that can be borrowed by the policyholder. D) It offers the policyholder the flexibility to meet a wide variety of financial objectives.

32) Which of the following statements about a typical accidental death benefit rider is (are) true? I. Death must occur within 14 days of the covered accident. II. The accidental death must occur prior to some specified age. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

36) The practice of buying the life insurance policy of a terminally ill insured at a discount is referred to as a A) collateral assignment. B) viatical settlement. C) catastrophic illness conversion. D) grace period transaction.

36) Which of the following statements about universal life insurance is (are) true? I. The interest rate credited to the cash value at the time the policy is issued remains fixed for the life of the policy. II. A monthly deduction is made from the policy's cash value for the cost of insurance protection. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

37) Al was named the beneficiary in his mother s life insurance policy. His mother died during the contestable period. The insurer denied payment, citing a material misrepresentation on the application. Al believes the insurer should pay the claim because the misrepresentation occurred on the application, and the application is not part of the formal agreement between the insurer and the policyholder. Which provision protects the insurer by making the application part of the formal agreement between the parties to the contract? A) incontestable clause B) entire contract clause C) ownership clause D) reinstatement clause

38) Cal purchased a whole life policy 6 years ago. The policy requires annual premium payments. Cal forgot to pay the premium that was due 2 weeks ago. He wonders if his life insurance is still in force. Which life insurance policy provision is designed to keep the policy in force for a short time even if the premium payment is late? A) waiting period B) grace period C) guaranteed purchase option D) reinstatement clause

38) Which of the following statements about a variable universal life insurance policy is (are) true? I. There is a minimum guaranteed interest rate for the cash value. II. The policyowner has a variety of investment options for the investment of premiums. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

41) A whole life insurance policy in which premiums are reduced for an initial period (e.g. 3 years) and are higher thereafter is an example of a A) level-term policy. B) modified life policy. C) limited-payment whole life policy. D) variable life policy.

41) Becky is considering the purchase of a whole life policy on her own life. She is concerned that if she becomes disabled, paying premiums will become a burden. Which provision can Becky attach to her life insurance policy to address this concern? A) guaranteed purchase option B) waiver-of-premium provision C) accidental death benefit rider D) accelerated death benefits rider

43) Which of the following statements about second-to-die life insurance is (are) true? I. The insurance is a form of endowment coverage. II. The premium is lower than the combined cost of purchasing a life insurance policy on each insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

44) Lionel purchased a $200,000 ordinary life insurance policy when he was 25 years old and had significant life insurance needs. Now Lionel is 50. His mortgage is almost paid -off and his children have left home and are financially independent. Lionel no longer wants to pay premiums, but he would like to have some permanent life insurance in force. Which nonforfeiture option could Lionel employ to meet these objectives? A) cash value B) reduced paid-up insurance C) paid-up additions D) extended term insurance

45) Which of the following statements about industrial life insurance (also called home service life insurance) policies is true? A) Most policies have a face value exceeding $100,000. B) Most industrial life insurance policies are cash value coverage. C) Industrial life insurance is group term insurance coverage marketed to employers. D) This popular product accounts for over 40 percent of the life insurance sold today.

46) Malcolm would like to purchase life insurance. He is concerned that he might need additional life insurance in the future and that he might be uninsurable at that time. What provision can Malcolm add to his life insurance policy that will permit him to purchase additional life insurance at specified times in the future without providing evidence of insurability? A) double indemnity rider B) guaranteed purchase option C) waiver-of-premium provision D) accelerated death benefits rider

46) Michael wants to make sure that life insurance proceeds are available to pay his outstanding mortgage balance if he dies. He purchased a type of life insurance in which the amount of coverage gradually declines, just as his outstanding mortgage balance gradually declines. This type of life insurance is called A) modified life insurance. B) decreasing term insurance. C) re-entry term insurance. D) current assumption whole life.

48) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the automatic premium loan provision? I. Unlike other policy loans, interest is not charged on automatic premium loans. II. The basic purpose of an automatic premium loan is to prevent a life insurance policy from lapsing. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

50) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding exclusions in life insurance contracts? I. Life insurance policies are remarkably restrictive, including numerous exclusions. II. A life insurer may exclude death attributable to certain activities or hobbies disclosed on the application. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

53) Which of the following statements about variable universal life insurance is (are) true? I Variable universal life insurance has fixed premium payments. II. Variable universal life insurance allows the policyowner to decide where the premiums are invested. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

55) Which of the following statements is true regarding the results of studies by LIMRA and New York Life Insurance Company on the adequacy of life insurance owned by households in the United States? I. The average household is adequately insured against the risk of premature death. II. The average household is significantly underinsured against the risk of premature death. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

ABC Life Insurance Company is offering a new product. The product is a two-year term insurance policy funded by a single premium at the start of the first year. Death claims are paid at the end of the year in which death occurs. A portion of the appropriate mortality table is shown below. The first number is age, the second is the number alive at the start of the year, and the last number is the number dying during the year. 39 9,693,539 14,928 40 9,678,611 15,970 Using a 5.5 percent interest rate, the present value of $1 one year from today is .9479, and the present value of $1 two years from today is .8985. Assuming a 5.5 percent interest rate, what is the net single premium for a $1,000 two-year term policy issued at age 39? A) $1.49 B) $2.94 C) $5.67 D) $12.83

Beth purchased a $50,000 nonparticipating whole life insurance policy. The annual premium was $1,278. The cash value of the policy after 10 years will be $13,740. The future value of $1 deposited at the start of the year for 10 years, assuming 5 percent interest, is $13.207. If the premiums were invested at 5 percent interest for 10 years, the premiums would grow to $16,878.55. Assuming 5 percent interest, what is the surrender cost of this policy, per thousand per year, over the first 10 years the policy is in force? A) $4.48 B) $4.75 C) $4.92 D) $5.16

Charles, age 65, owns a paid-up $250,000 whole life policy on his own life. Charles is doing some estate planning and would not like this policy to be included in his gross estate for federal estate tax purposes. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the tax treatment of this policy? Charles can avoid having the policy proceeds included in his gross estate by naming his estate the beneficiary. If Charles makes an absolute assignment of the policy and dies more than three years later, the policy is not counted as part of his gross estate. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

Which method of analyzing the cost of life insurance does not consider the cash value of the policy in the analysis? A) traditional net cost method B) net payment cost index C) the Linton Yield D) the surrender cost index

Lisa does not want her life insurance policy included in her gross estate when she dies. Lisa can remove the life insurance policy from her estate if she does which of the following more than 3 years before she dies? A) borrow the cash value of the policy B) make an absolute assignment of the policy to someone else C) change the beneficiary to someone who does not have insurable interest D) select a lump sum settlement option and name her estate the beneficiary

Paul is shopping for a life insurance policy. An agent asked Paul if he would like to purchase a participating policy. What is a "participating" policy? A) a policy which has a cash value B) a policy which pays dividends C) a policy which invests in common stock D) a policy which provides for an increasing death benefit

The net premiums collected by a life insurer for a particular block of policies, plus interest income at an assumed rate, less assumed death benefits paid is called the A) cash value. B) retrospective reserve. C) net amount at risk. D) prospective reserve.

38) Darla purchased an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy. While the policy was in force, a fire occurred that destroyed a living room set. The living room set cost $4,000 new, but was 25 percent depreciated when the loss occurred. Replacement furniture will cost $4,400. Assuming no deductible, how much will Darla receive from her insurer? A) $3,000 B) $3,300 C) $3,400 D) $4,400

B) $3,300

30) All of the following statements about the cancellation of a Homeowners 3 policy are true EXCEPT A) The insurer may cancel a new policy for any reason if it has been in force for less than 60 days and is not a renewal policy. B) At least 100 days' notice of cancellation must be given if an insurer cancels a policy for nonpayment of premium. C) A policy written for longer than 1 year can be cancelled for any reason on the anniversary date by giving the insured at least 30 days' notice of cancellation. D) After a policy has been in force for at least 60 days, it can be cancelled by the insurer if the risk has increased substantially since the policy was issued.

B) At least 100 days' notice of cancellation must be given if an insurer cancels a policy for nonpayment of premium.

52) Which of the following statements concerning the coverage of collapse of the dwelling under an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) There is no coverage for collapse, regardless of the cause of the collapse. B) Collapse is covered if it is caused by one of the Coverage C perils. C) If collapse is caused by an earthquake, the loss is covered. D) There is no coverage for collapse unless the proper endorsement is added to the policy.

B) Collapse is covered if it is caused by one of the Coverage C perils.

51) Dan picked up his friend Rodney to drive to their softball game. Both Dan and Rodney have a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) with $5,000 of medical payments coverage. Dan hit a parked car, and Rodney was injured, incurring $9,000 of medical expenses. How will this claim be settled under the other insurance provision of the PAP? A) Both insurers will pay $4,500. B) Dan's insurer will pay $5,000 and Rodney's insurer will pay $4,000. C) Dan's insurer will pay $4,000 and Rodney's insurer will pay $5,000. D) Dan's insurer will pay $3,000, Rodney's insurer will pay $3,000, and Rodney must pay $3,000 out of his own pocket.

B) Dan's insurer will pay $5,000 and Rodney's insurer will pay $4,000.

25) Which of the following statements about the replacement cost provision of the Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) It applies to personal property losses only. B) Except for small losses, the insured must repair or replace the damaged property in order to receive full replacement cost. C) The insured is required to carry an amount of insurance equal to 100 percent of the replacement value of the insured property. D) Loss settlements are equal to 50 percent of the value of the loss if the insured is carrying less than the required amount of insurance.

B) Except for small losses, the insured must repair or replace the damaged property in order to receive full replacement cost.

17) Which of the following persons is (are) insured under the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP? I. A pedestrian struck by a covered auto if he or she has no insurance to pay medical expenses II. The spouse of a named insured who is killed by an uninsured motorist A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

27) Which of the following statements about the appraisal clause in the Homeowners 3 policy is (are) true? I. It is used to determine a value for personal property when the policy is issued. II. It is used to help settle disputes over the amount of a loss after a loss has occurred. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

29) Which of the following statements about the Miscellaneous-Type Vehicle Endorsement to the PAP is (are) true? I. It provides bodily injury liability coverage for any vehicle rented by the insured. II. To lower premiums when a motorcycle is insured, bodily injury to passengers can be excluded. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

45) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding how the Homeowners 3 policy handles the peril of collapse? I. Collapse is specifically excluded, and there are no exceptions to the exclusion. II. Collapse that is caused by a Coverage C peril is covered. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

44) Which of the following statements about covered perils and loss settlement under an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) The dwelling is covered on a named-perils basis. B) Personal property losses are settled on an actual cash value basis. C) Losses to the dwelling are always settled on an actual cash value basis. D) Personal property is covered on an open-perils basis.

B) Personal property losses are settled on an actual cash value basis.

34) Michelle had four matching end tables in her home. A fire damaged the home, destroying two of the end tables. Michelle's home was covered by an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy. Which of the following is true with regard to the settlement for the end tables in this case? A) Loss to a pair or set is excluded under the policy. B) The insurer will pay the difference in actual cash value of the property before and after the loss. C) The insurer will pay the replacement cost of the loss. D) If a partial loss to a pair or set occurs, the insurer is liable for replacement of the entire pair or set.

B) The insurer will pay the difference in actual cash value of the property before and after the loss.

31) All of the following losses are excluded from coverage under Section II of an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy EXCEPT A) Phyllis, a medical technician, misread a lab test and the patient is suing her. B) While using his canoe, Bert hit another canoe. The other canoe sank. Bert is being sued. C) Violet runs a for-profit daycare service in her home. The parents of a child injured while in Violet's care are suing Violet. D) The homeowner's son was injured when he fell off a swing in the homeowner's yard.

B) While using his canoe, Bert hit another canoe. The other canoe sank. Bert is being sued.

50) The appraisal provision in the Personal Auto Policy is used to determine the A) value of a loss payable under the property damage liability. B) amount paid for a physical damage loss to the insured's auto if the insured and insurer disagree. C) amount of auto insurance that should be purchased for an older/antique car. D) value of the loss payable under the medical payments coverage.

B) amount paid for a physical damage loss to the insured's auto if the insured and insurer disagree.

40) Ellen believes the value of the loss to her home is $30,000. The insurer has offered $18,000 to settle the loss. If Ellen and the insurer cannot agree on the value of the loss, which homeowners policy provision specifies how this dispute will be settled? A) insurer's option B) appraisal clause C) loss payment clause D) mortgage clause

B) appraisal clause

43) If the value of a vehicle is increased after repairs, such as repainting an entire auto when only one fender or door is damaged, the insurer will not pay for the increase in value. Another name for the increase in value is A) diminution. B) betterment. C) appraisal. D) subrogation.

B) betterment.

31) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the damage to Ken's car? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

B) collision coverage

37) Which of the following is an additional coverage provided under Section I of the Homeowners 3 policy? A) medical payments to others B) debris removal C) personal liability D) intentional property damage caused by an insured

B) debris removal

38) One of the "Tips for Buying a Homeowners Policy" is to consider purchasing a personal umbrella policy. What coverage is provided by a personal umbrella policy? A) blanket property coverage for any damage caused by water B) excess liability coverage and coverage for some liability claims excluded by underlying policies C) all-risk, replacement cost, property coverage D) coverage for business and professional liability

B) excess liability coverage and coverage for some liability claims excluded by underlying policies

44) The 2005 PAP states that the insurer has no duty to provide coverage if the insured fails to comply with certain listed duties. In practice, however, the insurer is only relieved of its duty to provide coverage if A) the insured was unaware of the listed duties. B) failure to comply with the duties is prejudicial to the insurer. C) the claim involves bodily injuries of more than $50,000. D) the claim occurred in another state.

B) failure to comply with the duties is prejudicial to the insurer.

18) Liability arising out of which of the following is covered under the personal injury endorsement to the homeowners policy? A) property damage liability B) false arrest C) bodily injury D) business liability

B) false arrest

26) In addition to providing coverage in the United States, its territories and possessions, and Puerto Rico, where else does the PAP provide coverage? A) in Mexico B) in Canada C) in both Mexico and Canada D) anywhere in the world

B) in Canada

36) A credit-based score that is highly predictive of future claims cost is an individual's A) CLUE score. B) insurance score. C) motor vehicle record score. D) underwriting score.

B) insurance score.

33) Which of the following losses would be covered under the personal liability coverage (Coverage E) of an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) liability arising out of the manufacture and sale of illegal narcotics B) liability arising out of damage to a neighbor's property that occurred over time C) liability arising out of a business operated in the home. D) liability arising out of bodily injury to an insured

B) liability arising out of damage to a neighbor's property that occurred over time

41) The purpose of gap insurance is to A) pay the difference between the bodily injury liability limit purchased and the actual amount of bodily injury liability if it exceeds the limit. B) pay the difference between the amount the insurer pays if a car is a total loss and the amount owed on a lease or car loan. C) pay the difference between the medical payments coverage limit and the actual medical expenses of injured family members or passengers in the insured auto. D) pay the difference between the uninsured motorists coverage limit and the actual amount of the medical expenses incurred by the insured.

B) pay the difference between the amount the insurer pays if a car is a total loss and the amount owed on a lease or car loan.

36) Linda wants to purchase a homeowners policy, but she has some valuable personal property to which internal policy limits apply. Her agent said that she could obtain coverage under her homeowners policy by attaching a list of this valuable property with specific amounts of insurance. Such a listing is called a(n) A) binder. B) schedule. C) application. D) warranty.

B) schedule.

33) Reasons for NOT purchasing an accidental death benefit rider include which of the following? I. Most people die as a result of a disease rather than from an accident. II. The economic value of a human life is not increased if death occurs because of an accident. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

46) A vehicle is considered a constructive total loss when A) it cannot be repaired. B) the repair cost exceeds the actual cash value. C) it can be repaired, but the insured prefers a cash settlement. D) it can be repaired, but the insurer prefers a cash settlement.

B) the repair cost exceeds the actual cash value.

47) If there is a conflict between state law and a provision in a homeowners policy, A) the policy wording takes precedence. B) the state law takes precedence. C) the policyholder is entitled to whichever provides broader coverage. D) the policy is null and void.

B) the state law takes precedence.

23) All of the following losses are excluded under Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of an unendorsed PAP EXCEPT A) vandals damaged a portable cell phone kept in the car. B) theft of a compact disc player which was permanently installed in the auto. C) damage caused to a car's engine because the named insured never changed the oil. D) destruction of a radar detector which overheated and caught on fire.

B) theft of a compact disc player which was permanently installed in the auto.

37) Angie was injured when her car was struck by a driver who ran a red light. The other driver carried the minimum liability coverage necessary to be considered financially responsible. Angie's injuries were $15,000 above the minimum bodily injury limit. There is a coverage that can be added to the PAP that applies when a negligent driver carries the minimum liability insurance required by the state, but is less than the insured's actual damages for bodily injury. This coverage is called A) medical payments coverage. B) underinsured motorists coverage. C) bodily injury liability coverage. D) uninsured motorists coverage.

B) underinsured motorists coverage.

35) Patricia purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP). Her car was rear-ended by a driver who fled the scene. Patricia suffered whiplash, migraine headaches, and she was unable to work. Which of the following coverages will cover her lost work earnings? A) medical payments B) uninsured motorists C) underinsured motorists D) bodily injury liability

B) uninsured motorists

42) Liability arising out of which of the following is covered under Coverage E of an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) use of the insured's auto on a public road B) use of the insured's golf cart at a golf course C) use of the insured's motorcycle on a highway D) use of the insured's 40-foot boat with a 200 horsepower engine

B) use of the insured's golf cart at a golf course

34) The cost-of-living rider typically bases increases in the policy face value on changes in the A) gross national product. B) interest rate for short-term U.S. government securities. C) consumer price index. D) national wage level.

17) Sources of life insurance dividends include which of the following? I. Excess interest earned on the assets necessary to maintain legal reserves II. Favorable mortality experience A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

20) Advantages of selecting the paid-up additions dividend option in a life insurance policy include which of the following? I. Evidence of insurability is not required to purchase additional insurance. II. The additions are purchased at net rates without loading for expenses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

23) Which of the following statements about nonforfeiture options found in life insurance policies is true? A) Under the reduced paid-up option, the paid-up policy is term insurance. B) Under the extended term option, the amount of term insurance is less than the face value of the surrendered cash value policy. C) Under the reduced paid-up option, no additional premiums must be paid. D) Unless the policyowner has selected another nonforfeiture option, the cash value option goes into effect automatically.

25) Which of the following statements about life insurance settlement options is true? A) Under the fixed period option, the beneficiary normally has the right to make partial withdrawals in case of emergency. B) Under the fixed period option, any remaining proceeds revert to the insurer if the beneficiary dies before the end of the fixed period. C) Under the fixed amount option, the beneficiary can be given the right to increase or decrease the fixed amount. D) Under the fixed amount option, any interest credited in excess of the guaranteed rate increases the amount of each periodic payment.

29) The net amount at risk for an ordinary life insurance policy is the difference between the A) present value of future benefits and the present value of future premiums. B) face amount of the policy and the total premiums that have been paid. C) face amount of the policy and the legal reserve. D) annual premium and the annual policyholder dividend.

31) Which of the following statements about the guaranteed purchase option is true? A) It is usually available with term insurance policies. B) The premium when an option is exercised is based on the insured s age at the time the original policy was issued. C) The option permits the insured to purchase specified amounts of life insurance in the future even if the insured has become uninsurable. D) If a guaranteed purchase option expires without being used, it can simply be exercised at a later date.

35) All of the following statements about universal life insurance are true EXCEPT A) Interest is credited to the policy's cash value each month. B) Any withdrawal of a policy's cash value reduces the amount of the death benefit. C) Interest credited to a policy's cash value is taxable for the policyowner in the year credited. D) The policyowner can add to a policy's cash value at any time subject to policy guidelines.

42) Which of the following statements about policies sold to preferred risks is (are) true? I. Preferred risks are people whose mortality experience (deaths per thousand at a given age) is expected to be more favorable than average. II. Insurers require preferred risks to purchase at least a minimum amount of life insurance, such as $250,000. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

45) Jane purchased a life insurance policy on her own life and named her daughter, Cheryl, the beneficiary. Cheryl has a history of not managing money well. Jane wants the death benefit paid to Cheryl in monthly installments over 20 years. Which settlement option should Jane pre -select for Cheryl? A) lump sum B) fixed amount C) fixed period D) interest option

47) Carl would like to purchase life insurance. He would also like to invest in a mutual fund. An agent told Carl about a form of life insurance in which Carl could select where the saving component is invested. This form of life insurance has fixed premiums and the cash value is not guaranteed. This type of life insurance is called A) universal life insurance. B) current assumption whole life. C) variable life insurance. D) indeterminate-premium whole life.

48) Tamara purchased a term insurance policy when she had high life insurance needs and limited income. Now Tamara can afford whole life insurance. What term life insurance provision will permit Tamara to switch her term insurance to whole life insurance without having to show that she is still insurable? A) renewal provision B) tax-free exchange provision C) conversion provision D) free look provision

49) Life insurance policy proceeds can be paid to a trustee upon the death of the insured. All of the following statements about having the proceeds paid to a trustee are true EXCEPT A) Use of a trustee provides flexibility with regard to the timing and amount of the payments. B) Trustees are often used when the beneficiary is a minor child or an adult with diminished mental capacity. C) The trustee is not permitted to accept a fee for rendering services. D) The trustee does not guarantee investment results.

50) Ann is considering the purchase of a life insurance policy with these characteristics: flexible premium payments, the insurance and savings components are separate, the interest rate credited to the savings is tied to a market interest rate but a minimum rate is guaranteed, and a monthly administrative fee is charged. Ann is considering buying A) whole life insurance. B) variable life insurance. C) universal life insurance. D) current assumption whole life.

Actuaries at Term Life Insurance Company calculated the net single premium per thousand for a five-year term policy for a man age 32 to be $5.04. To calculate the net level premium for this policy, the net single premium should be A) divided by 5. B) divided by the future value life annuity due factor for $1 for five years. C) divided by the present value life annuity due factor for $1 for five years. D) divided by the present value ordinary life annuity factor for $1 for five years.

All of the following statements about the income tax treatment of individually-purchased life insurance are true EXCEPT A) policyowner dividends are received tax-free. B) the annual increase in cash value is not taxable while the policy remains in force. C) premiums paid for individual life insurance are a tax deductible expense. D) life insurance proceeds paid to a beneficiary in a lump-sum are received tax-free.

Beth purchased a $50,000 nonparticipating whole life insurance policy. The annual premium was $1,278. The cash value of the policy after 10 years will be $13,740. The future value of $1 deposited at the start of the year for 10 years, assuming 5 percent interest, is $13.207. What is the traditional net cost of this policy, per thousand per year, over the first 10 years the policy is in force? A) -$2.86 B) -$2.14 C) -$1.92 D) -$0.88

Each of the following helps to reduce federal estate taxes EXCEPT A) the marital deduction. B) the applicable unified tax credit amount. C) life insurance policies in which the deceased had an incidents of ownership at the time of death. D) expenses such as the cost of the funeral, estate settlement costs, and probate costs.

Lynn calculated the future value of the first twenty premiums she will pay under her nonparticipating whole life insurance policy. Then she subtracted the cash value after 20 years. Next, she divided this value by the future value annuity due factor for 20 years to arrive at an annual cost of insurance. Finally, she divided the annual cost by the number of thousands of dollars of life insurance purchased to arrive at the cost per thousand per year. Lynn calculated the A) traditional net cost per thousand per year. B) the Linton Yield. C) the surrender cost per thousand per year. D) the net payment cost per thousand per year.

Purposes of life insurance policy reserves include which of the following? Legal test of the insurer's solvency Formal recognition of the obligation to pay future claims A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) has drafted a "Life Insurance Policy Illustration" model law that most states have adopted. Which of the following statements concerning this model law is (are) true? The policy illustration must include a narrative summary describing the basic characteristics of the policy. The policy illustration must include a numeric summary showing the premium outlay, the value of the accumulation account, the cash surrender value, and the death benefit. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

The difference between the present value of future benefits payable under a life insurance policy and the present value of net premiums for the policy is the policy's A) retrospective reserve. B) policyholders surplus. C) prospective reserve. D) admitted assets.

The first step in "shopping for life insurance" is to A) estimate the amount of life insurance to purchase. B) decide whether you want a policy which pays dividends. C) determine if you need life insurance. D) decide on the best type of life insurance for you.

The net single premium for a life insurance policy is A) the premium the insurer charges to cover the death benefit and the insurer's expenses. B) the future value of the future death benefit. C) the present value of the future death benefit. D) the face value of the policy discounted back for the number of year the policy will be in force.

To level a net single premium (NSP), the NSP is divided by A) the maximum number of years the premium could be paid. B) the ordinary life annuity factor for the premium payment period. C) the present value of a life annuity due of $1 for the premium payment period. D) the deferred life annuity factor for the premium payment period.

Which of the following statements is (are) true about the federal estate tax? The gross estate can be reduced by a number of deductions. If the person who died had any ownership interest in a life insurance policy at the time of death, the proceeds are included in the gross estate for federal estate tax purposes. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

Which of the following statements is (are) true with regard to using interest-adjusted cost data when shopping for life insurance? Cost indexes apply to new policies and should not be used to determine whether to replace a policy. Cost indexes should only be used to compare similar plans of insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

Which statement is true regarding using interest-adjusted cost data and purchasing life insurance? A) Cost indices can help to determine whether a policy should be replaced. B) The type of policy you purchase should he based solely on a cost index. C) Small variations in cost indices should be ignored. D) Cost indices should be used to select an insurer, not an individual policy.

39) A dwelling with a replacement cost of $150,000 was insured under a Homeowners 3 policy for $100,000 at the time the roof was destroyed by a windstorm. The actual cash value of the loss was $9,000, but it will cost $12,000 to replace the roof. Assuming no deductible, what will the insurer pay to settle this loss? A) $8,000 B) $9,000 C) $10,000 D) $12,000

C) $10,000

26) David has a Homeowners 3 policy that provides $280,000 of insurance on his dwelling, which has a current replacement value of $400,000. Ignoring any deductible, how much will David collect if a kitchen with a replacement value of $24,000 but an actual cash value of $18,000 is destroyed in a fire? A) $18,000 B) $20,000 C) $21,000 D) $24,000

C) $21,000

36) Rob purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) with collision and other-than-collision coverage. Which of the following losses would be covered under his policy? A) Rob wrecked his car while using it as a taxi cab. B) Thieves took Rob's radar detector from his car. C) A flash flood washed Rob's car off the road and damaged it. D) The new tires Rob had on the car were defective and wore out after 2 months.

C) A flash flood washed Rob's car off the road and damaged it.

21) Which of the following statements about buying homeowners insurance is true? A) There is no reason to carry insurance for more than 80 percent of a dwelling's replacement cost. B) The deduction for depreciation will be increased if a personal property replacement cost endorsement is purchased. C) Premiums often can be reduced substantially by selecting a higher deductible. D) There is little reason to compare cost since the lack of competition results in little price variation among companies.

C) Premiums often can be reduced substantially by selecting a higher deductible.

51) Brian purchased an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy. Under the policy, Brian's detached garage is also covered. Which of the following statements regarding coverage on the garage is true? A) The garage is covered on a named-perils basis. B) Any losses to the garage are settled on an actual cash value basis. C) The cost of removing debris is included in the policy limit on the garage, but if the damage and cost of removing debris exceed the limit, an additional five percent of the policy limit is available. D) The garage is covered under the dwelling coverage, Part A.

C) The cost of removing debris is included in the policy limit on the garage, but if the damage and cost of removing debris exceed the limit, an additional five percent of the policy limit is available.

48) A fire destroyed the home next door to Brad's home. The fire department chief was concerned that the damaged home would collapse on to Brad's home, so he ordered Brad to evacuate his home. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cost of Brad's hotel room while he is complying with the fire chief's order? A) The cost of the hotel room is not covered, as Brad's home was not directly damaged. B) The cost of the hotel room is covered under the "fair rental value" coverage of Part D. C) The cost of the hotel room is covered under the "prohibited use" coverage of Part D. D) The cost of the hotel room is covered under the dwelling coverage of Part A.

C) The cost of the hotel room is covered under the "prohibited use" coverage of Part D.

21) Which of the following is considered to be a collision loss under Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of the PAP? A) The covered auto was damaged when the car hit a deer. B) The covered auto is vandalized by a thief after it is stolen. C) The covered auto is damaged when it slid off an icy road and hit a fence. D) The covered auto is damaged by a fire after the engine overheated.

C) The covered auto is damaged when it slid off an icy road and hit a fence.

27) All of the following statements about the termination provisions of the PAP are true EXCEPT A) The insured can cancel the policy for any reason. B) The insurer can cancel a newly-written policy if it has been in force for fewer than 60 days. C) The insurer can cancel the policy after it has been in force for 60 days only if the insured has three or more traffic violations. D) The insurer can refuse to renew the policy at its annual anniversary date as long as proper notice is given prior to the end of the policy period.

C) The insurer can cancel the policy after it has been in force for 60 days only if the insured has three or more traffic violations.

44) Which of the following statements regarding Section II conditions under the homeowners policy is true? A) Other insurance is handled on a pro rata basis. B) Under no circumstances may the insured bring a lawsuit against the insurer. C) The liability limit is the same regardless of the number of persons injured in a covered occurrence. D) There is no requirement for the insured to submit written notification of a possible claim to the insurer.

C) The liability limit is the same regardless of the number of persons injured in a covered occurrence.

18) All of the following are considered to be uninsured vehicles for purposes of the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP EXCEPT A) a vehicle owned by an individual who is insured, but for less than the amount required by the state's financial responsibility law. B) a hit-and-run vehicle, the ownership of which cannot be determined. C) a vehicle owned by an individual who purchased enough liability insurance to satisfy the state's financial responsibility law. D) a vehicle insured by a company which becomes insolvent before a claim can be paid.

C) a vehicle owned by an individual who purchased enough liability insurance to satisfy the state's financial responsibility law.

34) Tom and Tammy Evans were ready to purchase a home. The home was to serve as collateral for their mortgage loan. Two insurers declined to insure the home, citing "an adverse CLUE report." Why would an insurer reject a homeowners insurance application because of an adverse CLUE report? A) because the previous owner had defaulted on the mortgage loan B) because the home is located in an area where the zoning law had been changed C) because there had been previous property insurance claims filed on the home D) because the home is located in an area that does not have a certified fire department

C) because there had been previous property insurance claims filed on the home

24) Which of the following is (are) included among the duties of an insured following a loss covered under the Homeowners 3 policy? I. To file a proof of loss within a specified time period after the insurer's request II. To prepare an inventory of damaged personal property A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

35) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the use of an individual's credit history as an insurance rating factor? I. Individuals with poor credit histories, as a group, generally file more homeowners claims than do individuals with good credit histories. II. The use of credit history as an insurance rating factor is controversial. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

49) The homeowners policy excludes a loss brought about by two or more perils where one peril is covered under the policy and the other perils are excluded. This situation is called A) ordinance or law. B) proximate cause. C) concurrent causation. D) nullification.

C) concurrent causation.

20) Which of the following losses to a dwelling would be covered under an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) smoke damage resulting from agricultural operations of a neighboring farmer B) damage to the structure caused by a flash flood C) damage to the structure caused by the weight of heavy snow D) damage to a floor caused by water backing up through a sewer pipe

C) damage to the structure caused by the weight of heavy snow

18) All of the following are additional coverages under Section I of the Homeowners 3 policy EXCEPT A) the reasonable expenses of removing debris of covered property after an insured loss. B) fire department service charges for which the insured is liable by contract or agreement. C) damage to trees and shrubs caused by a windstorm. D) losses incurred from the unauthorized use of a stolen credit card.

C) damage to trees and shrubs caused by a windstorm.

42) A car damaged in an auto accident may have reduced market or resale value after it is repaired. Some insureds have sought to recover this reduction in market or resale value. This loss in value is called A) gap coverage. B) betterment. C) diminution. D) subrogation.

C) diminution.

42) Mike and Susan built their "dream home." They insured their home for its full replacement cost. They also added an endorsement that will pay up to an additional 20 percent of the policy limit in case the cost of rebuilding the home after a loss is greater than the policy limit. The basis under which Mike and Susan insured their home is called A) actual cash value. B) valued policy coverage. C) extended replacement cost. D) guaranteed replacement cost.

C) extended replacement cost.

32) Which of the following losses would be covered under the medical payments coverage of the Homeowners 3 policy? A) injuries to another person arising out of the insured's negligent operation of an automobile B) medical payments resulting from the transmission of a communicable disease C) injury to a resident employee at the insured's home D) workers compensation medical payments

C) injury to a resident employee at the insured's home

28) The purpose of the Miscellaneous-Type Vehicle Endorsement to the PAP is to A) add coverage for newly-acquired autos. B) provide coverage for when the insured is using someone else's auto with the permission of the owner. C) insure motorcycles, mopeds, motor scooters, and similar vehicles. D) provide coverage for when the insured is using someone else's auto without the permission of the owner.

C) insure motorcycles, mopeds, motor scooters, and similar vehicles.

53) If the insurer broadens coverage during the policy period without an increase in premium, and the broadened coverage is not part of a general program revision, the insured is entitled to the broadened coverage under which policy provision? A) waiver of policy provisions B) subrogation C) liberalization clause D) pair or set clause

C) liberalization clause

23) All of the following are general exclusions under Section I of the Homeowners 3 policy EXCEPT A) losses due to earthquake. B) losses due to the failure of the insured to use all reasonable means to save and preserve property after the time of a loss. C) losses resulting from a power failure caused by an insured peril at the residence premises. D) losses due to radiation from a nuclear power plant.

C) losses resulting from a power failure caused by an insured peril at the residence premises.

48) Kelly was hit by a car while she was walking to the park. She incurred $750 in medical costs at a hospital emergency room. Kelly has coverage for this charge under which of her Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages? A) bodily injury liability B) other-than collision C) medical payments D) collision

C) medical payments

32) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover Ken's medical expenses? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

C) medical payments coverage

27) Robert purchased an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy. He is concerned that if his personal property is destroyed, the insurer will take depreciation into consideration when determining the loss settlement and will pay him less than the amount needed to purchase new property. Which endorsement can Robert add to his Homeowners 3 policy to address this concern? A) inflation guard endorsement B) personal injury endorsement C) personal property replacement cost endorsement D) earthquake endorsement

C) personal property replacement cost endorsement

17) Liability arising out of which of the following is covered under the personal injury endorsement to the homeowners policy? A) bodily injury B) property damage C) slander D) professional liability

C) slander

41) John purchased an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy. The coverage will expire next month. Which of the following changes will lower the premium that John will pay? A) reducing the deductible B) adding a replacement cost endorsement for personal property C) switching to an HO-2 policy D) adding a personal injury endorsement

C) switching to an HO-2 policy

19) Which of the following is a covered peril under the personal property coverage (Coverage C) of an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) earthquake B) nuclear radiation C) windstorm D) flood

C) windstorm

18) All of the following are common dividend options found in participating whole life insurance policies EXCEPT A) reduction of premiums. B) dividend accumulations. C) purchase of paid-up insurance. D) purchase of insurance company stock.

18) Richard is using the capital retention approach to determine how much life insurance to purchase. Richard would like to provide $35,000 per year to his family, forever, if he dies. The assets that he has today will provide $25,000 in annual income without the liquidation of these assets. If life insurance proceeds can be invested to earn a 5 percent annual return, how much life insurance should Richard purchase to fund the additional income needed to meet the $35,000 annual income goal? A) $10,000 B) $100,000 C) $150,000 D) $200,000

21) Most family heads need substantial amounts of life insurance. However, with limited income, money spent on life insurance reduces the amount of discretionary income available for other high-priority needs. What an insured person gives up when he or she purchases life insurance instead of using the premium dollars for other purposes is called the A) estimated cost of life insurance. B) net cost of life insurance. C) real (inflation-adjusted) cost of life insurance. D) opportunity cost of buying life insurance.

22) Which of the following statements about yearly renewable term insurance is (are) true? I. It requires evidence of insurability for renewal. II. It is most appropriate when an insured needs lifetime protection. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

24) All of the following statements about term insurance are true EXCEPT A) The insurance provides protection for a specified period of time. B) Most policies can be renewed for additional periods without evidence of insurability. C) Most policies can be converted to a permanent life insurance policy. D) Most policies have a cash value that is refunded when coverage ceases.

25) All of the following statements about the conversion of a term policy are true EXCEPT A) Under an attained age conversion, the premium is based on the insured's attained age at the time of conversion. B) Under an original age conversion, the policyowner must pay a financial adjustment in addition to the premium for the new policy. C) Most insurers require original age conversion to take place within a specified period (5 years, for example) of the issue of the term policy. D) Evidence of insurability is required before a conversion is permitted.

26) Which of the following statements about life income settlement options is (are) true? I. Under a joint-and-survivor life income option, payments cease at the death of the first annuitant. II. Under a life income with period certain, a contingent beneficiary is guaranteed a minimum number of payments regardless of when the primary beneficiary dies. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

28) A legal reserve in life insurance is a result of A) premium taxes payable by life insurance companies being postponed during the early policy years. B) dividends being paid to policyowners. C) inadequate premiums in the early policy years being subsidized by investment earnings. D) excess premiums in the early policy years being invested at compound interest.

28) Which of the following statements about the waiver-of-premium provision is true? A) Because the probability of becoming disabled exceeds the probability of premature death, the cost to include this provision is usually prohibitive at younger ages. B) Premiums are usually waived if the insured becomes partially disabled. C) Life insurance protection continues in force during a period of disability, but dividends cease and cash values are reduced. D) The disability must occur before a stated age, such as 65, for premiums to be waived.

29) All of the following are requirements that must be satisfied before premiums are waived under a waiver-of-premium provision EXCEPT A) The insured must furnish proof of disability to the insurer. B) The insured must be disabled before some specified age, such as age 60 or 65. C) The insured must satisfy the definition of disability. D) The insured must satisfy a 2-year waiting period.

34) All of the following statements about variable life insurance are true EXCEPT A) The premium is level and guaranteed not to increase. B) The death benefit varies according to investment experience. C) The policyowner has the option of investing the cash value in several investment accounts. D) Cash surrender values are guaranteed.

40) Which life insurance policy provision specifies that it is the policyowner, and not the insured or beneficiary, who possesses all contractual rights while the policy is in force? A) nonforfeiture options B) entire contract clause C) incontestable clause D) ownership clause

43) Beth purchased a participating life insurance policy 6 years ago. Her life insurance needs have increased, but she has developed a medical condition that makes it impossible for her to purchase more life insurance at affordable premiums. Which dividend option makes sense for Beth to use given her medical condition? A) cash B) apply to premium C) dividend accumulations D) paid-up additions

44) Which of the following statements about savings bank life insurance is true? A) The maximum amount that a depositor can purchase is $50,000. B) The maximum amount of insurance that a depositor can purchase is limited to the amount of money on deposit in his or her savings account with the savings bank. C) The objective of savings bank life insurance is to provide protection to the bank in case a borrower dies before a loan is repaid. D) The objective of savings bank life insurance is to provide low-cost insurance to consumers by holding down expenses.

47) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning settlement options? I. A straight life annuity provides the lowest periodic income of all the life income options. II. Fixed-period and fixed-amount are life income options. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

51) A life insurance policyowner may no longer need life insurance. Such a policyowner may sell the policy to a third party for more than its cash value. The purchaser becomes the new beneficiary and is responsible for subsequent premium payments. Such a financial transaction is called a(n) A) collateral assignment. B) accelerated death benefits rider. C) absolute assignment. D) life settlement.

Beth purchased a $50,000 nonparticipating whole life insurance policy. The annual premium was $1,278. The cash value of the policy after 10 years will be $13,740. The future value of $1 deposited at the start of the year for 10 years, assuming 5 percent interest, is $13.207. If the premiums were invested at 5 percent interest for 10 years, the premiums would grow to $16,878.55. Assuming 5 percent interest, what is the net payment cost of this policy, per thousand per year, over the first 10 years the policy is in force? A) $12.71 B) $14.82 C) $17.24 D) $25.56

Carl and Carol Williams, a married couple, are doing some estate planning. Upon his death, Carl plans to leave $1,000,000 in property to his wife. This amount will reduce the value of Carl's gross estate and will be taxed later when Carol dies. This reduction of the gross estate is called the A) unified tax credit. B) taxable estate. C) capital gains deduction. D) marital deduction.

The average annual rate of return on a cash-value policy if it is held a specified number of years is called the policy's A) net present value. B) interest-adjusted cost. C) benchmark cost. D) Linton yield.

46) Following catastrophic hurricane losses, South Coast Insurance Company changed its deductible provision. Rather than using a specified dollar value, $250 for example; the dollar value of the deductible increases with the size of the loss. The type of deductible that South Coast changed to is called a(n) A) calendar-year deductible. B) aggregate deductible. C) straight deductible. D) percentage deductible.

D) percentage deductible.

39) Which of the following statements is true regarding the Homeowners 3 policy and identity theft? A) Identity theft is covered under Coverage D—Loss of Use. B) Identity theft is covered under Coverage C—Personal Property. C) Identity theft is covered under Coverage E—Personal Liability. D) Identity theft is covered by adding an endorsement.

D) Identity theft is covered by adding an endorsement.

31) All of the following statements about conditions under a homeowners policy are true EXCEPT A) If an insurer broadens coverage without an additional premium during the policy period, the broadened coverage applies immediately to the present policy. B) A waiver or change in any policy provision must be approved in writing by the insurer to be valid. C) The insurer must give written consent for an assignment of the policy to be valid. D) If the named insured dies, coverage automatically ceases with respect to any property of the deceased.

D) If the named insured dies, coverage automatically ceases with respect to any property of the deceased.

22) John has an auto which is covered for collision losses subject to a $250 deductible. Kate's auto also has collision coverage but her deductible is $500. Which of the following statements describes how a $2,000 collision loss will be paid if it occurs when John borrows Kate's car because his car is in the shop for repairs? A) John's policy will pay $1,500, and Kate's policy will pay nothing. B) John's policy will pay $1,750, and Kate's policy will pay nothing. C) Kate's policy will pay $1,750, and John's policy will pay nothing. D) Kate's policy will pay $1,500, and John's policy will pay $250.

D) Kate's policy will pay $1,500, and John's policy will pay $250.

20) All of the following statements about Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of the PAP are true EXCEPT A) Coverage may be purchased with or without collision insurance. B) Losses are paid regardless of fault. C) Coverage applies to a nonowned auto occasionally driven by an insured. D) No coverage is provided for newly-acquired vehicles.

D) No coverage is provided for newly-acquired vehicles.

19) Joyce was injured by an uninsured drunk driver while she was riding in a friend's car. Joyce and her friend each have a PAP with an uninsured motorists limit of $50,000. How much will be paid by each policy if it is determined that Joyce has $70,000 of bodily injuries? A) Each policy will pay $35,000. B) Joyce's policy will pay $50,000, and the friend's policy will pay nothing. C) Joyce's policy will pay $50,000, and the friend's policy will pay $20,000. D) The friend's policy will pay $50,000, and Joyce's policy will pay $20,000.

D) The friend's policy will pay $50,000, and Joyce's policy will pay $20,000.

41) Ted purchased a home. To finance the purchase, he borrowed $140,000 from ABC Bank, pledging the home as collateral for the loan. Shortly after purchasing the home, Ted lost his job. He could not find another job and could not pay the mortgage each month. Ted set fire to the home. The claims adjuster suspected arson, and an investigation proved that Ted intentionally caused the loss. Under the mortgage clause of the Homeowners 3 policy, how will this loss be settled? A) The insurer has no liability because the loss was intentional. B) The insurer will pay Ted the actual cash value of the loss as intentional loss is not excluded. C) The insurer will pay ABC the value of its insurable interest and pay Ted the value of his insurable interest. D) The insurer will pay ABC the value of its insurable interest and then attempt to recoup the loss payment from Ted.

D) The insurer will pay ABC the value of its insurable interest and then attempt to recoup the loss payment from Ted.

43) Which of the following statements regarding the Coverage E limit in the homeowners policy is true? A) It is an aggregate limit, and once the amount paid for one or more claims reaches the limit, no additional coverage is provided. B) The limit applies only if a court orders the insured to pay—there is no coverage for settlements reached out-of-court. C) Any legal defense costs incurred by the insurer are counted against the limit of liability. D) The limit applies on a per-occurrence basis so more than the limit could be paid during the policy period.

D) The limit applies on a per-occurrence basis so more than the limit could be paid during the policy period.

22) Which of the following types of water damage is covered under an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) damage from flood B) damage from water backing up through a drain C) damage from water below the surface of the ground that seeps into a basement D) damage from water that overflows from a malfunctioning washing machine

D) damage from water that overflows from a malfunctioning washing machine

30) Reggie just purchased a home. A friend told him to consider insurance coverage for natural disasters when insuring the home. A loss from which of the following perils is covered under an unendorsed Homeowners 3 policy? A) tsunami B) earthquake C) flood D) forest fire

D) forest fire

29) Lu would like to save money on her homeowners premium. All of the following steps will help her to reduce her homeowners premium EXCEPT A) raising the deductible in the homeowners policy to a higher amount. B) shopping around a homeowners policy. C) installing burglar alarms, smoke detectors, and dead-bolt locks. D) insuring the value of the land beneath the house.

D) insuring the value of the land beneath the house.

23) Which of the following statements about the personal property replacement cost endorsement used with the homeowners policy is (are) true? I. The damaged or destroyed property must be repaired or replaced, no matter the size of the loss. II. It is designed primarily for antiques and fine art. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

40) Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the collision damage waiver on rented cars? I. It is inexpensive and is provided at no charge by most rental car companies. II. It waives the renter's liability for bodily injury liability arising out of use of the rented auto. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

45) Which statement concerning towing and labor coverage under the PAP is (are) true? I. There's no coverage for towing if the auto breaks down—towing is only covered if the auto needs to be towed after a collision has occurred. II. Towing and labor coverage pays for repairs at a service station or garage. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

47) Owen rents an apartment and parks his car in the lot behind the apartment building. A hailstorm occurred one evening, and his car was severely damaged. Which PAP coverage, if Owen purchased it, would cover this damage to his auto? A) property damage liability B) uninsured motorists property damage C) collision D) other-than-collision

D) other-than-collision

28) Under the Homeowners 3 policy, all of the following are options of the insurer for settling claims EXCEPT A) paying the claim in cash. B) replacing the property. C) repairing the property. D) paying the claim with insurance company stock.

D) paying the claim with insurance company stock.

33) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the damage to the car that Ken hit? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

D) property damage liability

49) Alex, age 26, purchased a 20-payment whole life insurance policy. After Alex has made 20 premium payments, his life insurance policy is considered A) matured. B) reduced. C) expired. D) paid-up.

1) Which of the following statements about the ownership of a life insurance policy is (are) true? I. Under the ownership clause, the policyowner and beneficiary equally share all contractual rights in the policy while the insured is living. II. The policyowner can designate a new owner by filing an appropriate form with the insurance company. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

11) Which of the following statements about the capital retention approach for determining life insurance needs is (are) true? I. It assumes that life insurance proceeds will be liquidated to provide income to survivors. II. It requires the preparation of a personal balance sheet. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

15) Julian, age 45, would like to determine how much life insurance to purchase using the human life value approach. He assumes his average annual earnings over the next 20 years will be $40,000. Of this amount, $20,000 is available annually for the support of his family. Julian will generate this income for 20 more years and he believes that 5 percent is the appropriate interest (discount) rate. The present value of one dollar payable for 20 years at a discount rate of 5 percent is $12.46. What is Julian's human life value? A) $184,600 B) $249,200 C) $360,800 D) $400,000

3) All of the following information is needed to calculate a person's human life value EXCEPT A) the person's average annual earnings over his or her productive lifetime. B) the person's estimated annual Social Security benefits after retirement. C) the person's cost of self-maintenance. D) the number of years from the person's present age to the expected retirement age.

Under the traditional net cost method, the net cost of life insurance for a given period (e.g., 20 years) is determined by which of the following formulas? A) the total premiums for the period less the policy reserve at the end of the period B) the total premiums for the period less the sum of the total dividends received during the period and the cash value at the end of the period C) the sum of the total premiums and dividends for the period less the cash value at the end of the period D) the sum of the total dividends received during the period and the cash value at the beginning of the period less the total premiums paid for the period

Which of the following statements describes how the net payment cost index differs from the surrender cost index? A) Dividends are ignored. B) The cash value is ignored. C) Premiums are not accumulated at a specified interest rate. D) Dividends are not accumulated at a specified interest rate.

3) Which of the following statements about the personal liability coverage (Coverage E) of an unendorsed homeowners policy is true? A) Coverage is written on an accident basis. B) Coverage is provided for bodily injury liability. C) Coverage is provided for business and professional liability. D) Coverage is provided for personal injury liability.

B) Coverage is provided for bodily injury liability.

4) Which homeowners policy is designed for the tenants of rented premises? A) Homeowners 2 B) Homeowners 4 C) Homeowners 6 D) Homeowners 8

B) Homeowners 4

) Which of the following statements about eligibility requirements for homeowners insurance is (are) true? I. A contract can be written on a twenty-unit apartment complex as long as the tenants are families. II. Separate forms are available for renters and condominium owners. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

14) Which of the following statements about life insurance policy loans is true? A) Loans are only permitted for specific reasons listed in the policy. B) They are forgiven if the insured dies before the loans are repaid. C) The policyowner must pay interest on a life insurance policy loan. D) They must be repaid on the basis of a schedule determined at the time of the loan.

15) All of the following statements about the automatic premium loan provision in a life insurance policy are true EXCEPT A) Its purpose is to prevent a policy from lapsing because of nonpayment of premium. B) The premium loan requires interest to be paid at a stated contractual rate. C) If the provision is used, the insured must show evidence of insurability to resume regular premium payments. D) The policy proceeds will be reduced if the premium loans are not repaid by the time of death.

16) What major feature distinguishes a participating policy from a nonparticipating policy? A) the availability of a waiver-of-premium provision B) the existence of settlement options C) the payment of dividends D) the method by which beneficiaries can be named

2) The human life value is defined as the A) present value of a deceased breadwinner's future gross income. B) future value of a deceased breadwinner's past earnings. C) present value of the family's share of a deceased breadwinner's future earnings. D) future value of the family's share of a deceased breadwinner's future earnings.

2) Which of the following statements about the entire contract clause is true? A) It allows the insurer to change the policy terms without the insured s consent. B) It specifies that all statements in the application are considered warranties. C) It specifies that the life insurance policy and the attached application constitute the complete agreement between the parties. D) It prevents the insurance company from contesting a policy after it has been in force for two years during the lifetime of the insured.

7) The purpose of an estate clearance fund is to pay all of the following EXCEPT A) burial expenses. B) estate administration expenses. C) education costs. D) installment debts.

Consumer experts typically recommend all of the following rules when buying life insurance EXCEPT A) Consider the financial strength of the insurer. B) Deal with a competent agent. C) Ignore all factors other than cost. D) Shop around for a low-cost policy.

David purchased a $100,000 participating whole life policy. The annual premium is $2,280. Projected dividends for the first 20 years are $15,624. The cash value after 20 years will be $35,260. If the premiums were invested at 5 percent interest for 20 years, the premiums would grow to $79,156. If the dividends were accumulated at 5 percent interest for 20 years, they would grow to be $24,400. The amount to which $1 deposited annually will accumulate in 20 years at 5 percent interest is $34.719. Based on this information, what is the net payment cost per thousand per year of David's policy over the 20-year period? A) $5.62 B) $13.75 C) $15.77 D) $27.38

Which of the following statements about the traditional net cost method of measuring the cost of life insurance is (are) true? The traditional net cost method does not consider the time value of money. The traditional net cost method can show that life insurance has a negative cost. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

16) Jessica is an agent for LMN Life Insurance Company. She met with Brad, who was interested in purchasing life insurance. Jessica explained the various uses of life insurance, including income for Brad's wife during the 1- or 2-year period following Brad's death. This period is known as the A) dependency period. B) estate clearance period. C) blackout period. D) readjustment period.

Risk management is concerned with A) the identification and treatment of loss exposures. B) the management of speculative risks only. C) the management of pure risks that are uninsurable. D) the purchase of insurance only. Answer: A 2 A situation or circumstance in which a loss is possible, regardless of whether a loss occurs, is called a A) deductible. B) loss exposure. C) loss avoidance. D) peril. Answer: B 3 Which of the following is a post-loss risk management objective? A) treating loss exposures in the most economical way B) continuing operations C) reduction of anxiety D) meeting externally imposed legal obligations Answer: B 4 Preloss objectives of risk management include which of the following? Preparing for potential losses in the most economical way Reduction of anxiety A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 5 A risk manager is concerned with which of the following? Identifying potential losses Selecting the appropriate techniques for treating loss exposures A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 6 Which of the following is a source of information a risk manager could use to help identify pure loss exposures? A) commodity prices B) physical inspections C) currency exchange rates D) interest rate movements Answer: B 7 Loss severity is defined as the A) probable size of the losses which may occur during some period. B) probable number of losses which may occur during some period. C) probability that any particular piece of property may be totally destroyed. D) probability that a liability judgment may exceed a firm's net worth. Answer: A 8 Loss frequency is defined as the A) probable size of the losses that may occur during some period. B) probable number of losses that may occur during some period. C) probability that any particular piece of property may be totally destroyed. D) probability that a liability judgment may exceed a firm's net worth. Answer: B 9 The worst loss that could ever happen to a firm is referred to as the A) maximum possible loss. B) probable maximum loss. C) frequency of loss. D) severity of loss. Answer: A 10 The worst loss that is likely to happen is referred to as the A) maximum possible loss. B) probable maximum loss. C) frequency of loss. D) severity of loss. Answer: B 11 All of the following statements about avoidance are true EXCEPT A) Certain loss exposures are never acquired. B) Certain loss exposures may be abandoned. C) The chance of loss for certain loss exposures may be reduced to zero. D) It can be used for any loss exposure facing a firm. Answer: D 12 Abandoning an existing loss exposure is an example of A) avoidance. B) retention. C) noninsurance transfer. D) insurance transfer. Answer: A 13 Which of the following conditions is (are) appropriate for using retention? Losses are difficult to predict. The worst possible loss is not serious. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 14 Which of the following statements regarding the use of retention is (are) true? Retention is best used for loss exposures that have a low frequency and a high severity. A financially strong firm can have a higher retention level than a firm whose financial position is weak. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 15 Which of the following statements about the use of a captive insurance company by a parent firm is true? A) The captive may not write outside, non-parent company, business. B) Captives are not permitted to use reinsurance, so any business insured by the captive stays with the captive. C) The captive may be used to insure loss exposures that the parent firm finds it difficult to insure with private insurers. D) Business placed with the captive is always considered retained risk and is never considered transferred risk. Answer: C 16 Which of the following statements about self-insurance is (are) true? It is a form of planned retention. State law usually prohibits its use for workers compensation. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 17 All of the following are potential advantages of retention EXCEPT A) lower expenses. B) increased cash flow. C) encouragement of loss prevention. D) protection from catastrophic losses. Answer: D 18 A restaurant owner leased a meeting room at the restaurant to a second party. The lease specified that the second party, not the restaurant owner, would be responsible for any liability arising out of the use of the meeting room, and that the restaurant owner would be "held harmless" for any damages. The restaurant owner's use of the hold-harmless agreement in the lease is an example of A) retention. B) self-insurance. C) insurance. D) noninsurance transfer. Answer: D 19 All of the following are disadvantages of noninsurance transfers EXCEPT A) The party to whom the potential loss is transferred may be unable to pay. B) The transfer may fail because the contract language is ambiguous. C) The only potential losses that can be transferred are those that are not commercially insurable. D) The noninsurance transfer may be costly. Answer: C 20 ABC Insurance retains the first $1 million of each property damage loss and purchases reinsurance for that part of any property loss that exceeds $1 million. The insurance for property losses above $1 million is called A) excess insurance. B) liability insurance. C) coinsurance. D) primary insurance. Answer: A 21 Which of the following statements about the use of deductibles is (are) true? They represent risk retention by insurance purchasers. They tend to increase the cost of adjusting small claims. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 22 Which of the following statements about an excess insurance plan is true? A) The insurer does not participate in a loss until the loss exceeds the amount the firm has decided to retain. B) The insurer pays first up to some specified level; the insured then pays all losses exceeding the insurer's retention level. C) Losses in excess of a specified amount are not covered. D) The insured and insurer share equally in any loss that occurs. Answer: A 23 Factors a risk manager must consider in selecting an insurer include which of the following? The availability of risk management services The financial strength of the insurer A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 24 An insurance policy specifically written and designed to meet the needs of an insurance purchaser is called a(n) A) manuscript policy. B) bureau policy. C) standard policy. D) excess policy. Answer: A 25 All of the following are disadvantages of using insurance in a commercial risk management program EXCEPT A) There is an opportunity cost because premiums must be paid in advance. B) Considerable time and effort must be spent selecting and negotiating coverages. C) It results in considerable fluctuations in earnings after losses occur. D) Attitudes toward loss control may become lax when losses are insured. Answer: C 26 Which of the following types of loss exposures may be appropriately handled through the purchase of insurance? High-frequency, low-severity loss exposures Low-frequency, high-severity loss exposures A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 27 Which of the following types of loss exposures are best handled by the use of avoidance? A) low-frequency, low-severity loss exposures B) low-frequency, high-severity loss exposures C) high-frequency, low-severity loss exposures D) high-frequency, high-severity loss exposures Answer: D 28 Low-frequency, low-severity loss exposures are best handled by A) avoidance. B) retention. C) insurance. D) noninsurance transfer. Answer: B 29 All of the following statements about the administration of a risk management program are true EXCEPT A) The risk manager is an important part of a firm's management team. B) A risk management policy statement can be used to educate top executives about the risk management process. C) If a risk management program is properly designed, periodic review of the program is unnecessary. D) In order to properly identify loss exposures, the risk manager needs the cooperation of other departments. Answer: C 30 Cal was just hired as XYZ Company's first risk manager. Cal would like to employ the risk management process. The first step in the process Cal should follow is to A) evaluate potential losses faced by XYZ Company. B) formulate a treatment plan for XYZ Company's loss exposures. C) identify potential losses faced by XYZ Company. D) implement and administer a risk management plan for XYZ Company. Answer: C 31 Members of Mid-South Petroleum Distributors, a trade group, had trouble obtaining affordable pollution liability insurance. The members formed a group captive that is exempt from many state laws that apply to other insurers. This group captive is called a(n) A) reinsurance pool. B) Lloyd's association. C) alien insurer. D) risk retention group. Answer: D 32 Acme Company has three identical manufacturing plants, one on the Texas Gulf Coast, one in southern Alabama, and one in Florida. Each plant is valued at $200 million. Acme's risk manager is concerned about the damage which could be caused by a single hurricane. The risk manager believes there is an extremely low probability that a single hurricane could destroy two or all three plants because they are located so far apart. What is the probable maximum loss associated with a single hurricane? A) $0 million B) $200 million C) $400 million D) $600 million Answer: B 33 Acme Company has three identical manufacturing plants, one on the Texas Gulf Coast, one in southern Alabama, and one in Florida. Each plant is valued at $200 million. Acme's risk manager is concerned about the damage which could be caused by a single hurricane. The risk manager believes there is an extremely low probability that a single hurricane could destroy two or all three plants because they are located so far apart. What is the maximum possible loss associated with a single hurricane? A) $0 million B) $200 million C) $400 million D) $600 million Answer: D 34 Laura Evans is risk manager of LMN Company. Laura decided to retain certain property loss exposures. Which of the following is a method that Laura can use to fund the retained property losses? A) current net income B) private insurance C) noninsurance transfer D) high deductibles Answer: A 35 Parker Department Stores has been hurt in recent months by a large increase in shoplifting losses. Parker's risk manager concluded that while the frequency of shoplifting losses was high, the severity is still relatively low. What is (are) the appropriate risk management technique(s) to apply to this problem? A) retention B) loss prevention C) transfer through insurance D) avoidance Answer: B 36 Barb, who is self-employed, is the main breadwinner for her family. Barb does not have disability income insurance because she has never stopped to consider the impact of a long-term disability upon her family. Barb's treatment of the risk of disability is best described as A) risk transfer. B) passive retention. C) risk avoidance. D) active retention. Answer: B 37 Ryan decided to review his personal risk management program. His car is 10 years old, and he would receive little money from his insurer if the car was damaged or destroyed. Ryan decided to drop the physical damage insurance on the car. From a risk management perspective, dropping the physical damage insurance on the car is best described as A) increasing the use of avoidance in the risk management program. B) increasing the use of noninsurance transfer in the risk management program. C) increasing the use of retention in the risk management program. D) increasing the use of risk control in the risk management program. Answer: C 38 To better understand her company's operations, a risk manager asked a production manager to draw a diagram tracing the steps in the production and distribution of the company's products. Such a diagram, which is useful in risk identification, is called a A) financial statement. B) risk management matrix. C) flowchart. D) risk management audit. Answer: C 39 In reviewing his company's operations, a risk manager noticed that all of the company's finished goods were stored in a single warehouse. The risk manager recommended that the finished goods be divided among three warehouses to prevent all of the finished goods from being destroyed by the same peril. Dividing the finished goods among three warehouses illustrates A) duplication. B) separation. C) insurance. D) noninsurance transfer. Answer: B 40 Which of the following statements about a personal risk management program is (are) true? Insurance and retention are the only techniques used to handle potential losses. The steps in a personal risk management process are the same steps used by businesses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 41 Bev lives in the suburbs and works downtown. She drives to work, and her most direct route to work would require her to pass through an area where carjackings and drive-by-shootings are common. Bev does not drive through this area. Instead, she uses a route which adds 10 minutes to her commute. Which risk management technique is Bev using with respect to the risk of injury while driving through the dangerous area? A) noninsurance transfer B) avoidance C) passive retention D) loss reduction Answer: B 42 Brenda identified all of the pure loss exposures her family faces. Then she analyzed these loss exposures, developed a plan to treat these risks, and implemented the plan. The process Brenda conducted is called A) personal insurance programming. B) personal estate planning. C) personal financial planning. D) personal risk management. Answer: D 43 Which statement about a company's cost of risk is (are) true? Cost of risk includes insurance premiums and retained losses. Reducing the cost of risk increases profitability. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 44 A useful measure for an organization to monitor is the total expenditures for treating loss exposures including retained losses, loss control expenses, insurance premiums, and other related expenses. This measure is called the organization's A) cost of capital. B) cost of goods sold. C) cost of risk. D) cost of equity. Answer: C 45 Mark owns a 2006 sedan. The last time Mark renewed his auto insurance, he decided to drop the physical damage insurance on this vehicle. How is Mark dealing with the auto physical damage exposure in his personal risk management program? A) risk transfer B) passive retention C) avoidance D) active retention Answer: D 46 Purchasing health insurance illustrates the use of which personal risk management technique? A) avoidance B) risk transfer C) risk control D) risk retention Answer: B 47 Which of the following statements about captive insurance companies is (are) true? A captive insurance company established by a U.S. company must be domiciled in the United States. A captive insurance company may be owned by several parents. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 48 Which of the following is least likely to occur during a "hard" insurance market period? A) difficulty in obtaining insurance B) tightening underwriting standards C) higher insurer profits D) increasing premiums Answer: C 49 Which of the following statements concerning the selection of risk management techniques and insurance market conditions is (are) true? It's easier to purchase affordable insurance during a "soft " market than during a "hard" market. Retention is used more during a "soft" market than during a "hard" market. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 50 Discount Department Stores is a national retail chain. The company had one large, central warehouse. At the suggestion of the risk manager, the company decided to build four smaller regional warehouses so that a loss at the central warehouse would not be a catastrophic blow to the company's distribution system. Splitting the inventory between four regional warehouses illustrates which risk management technique? A) duplication B) risk transfer C) separation D) risk avoidance Answer: C 51 Each accounting period, Harris Company Department Store charges a bookkeeping account for its estimated shoplifting losses. The method that Harris Company Department Store uses to fund its retained shoplifting losses is a(n) A) private insurance policy. B) captive insurer. C) credit line. D) unfunded reserve. Answer: D 52 Morris Company self-insures its workers compensation loss exposure. The risk manager of Morris Company is concerned about the possible impact of a single catastrophic claim. She decided to set a retention limit of $500,000 per-claim, and to purchase insurance that will be begin to pay once Morris Company has paid $500,000 on a single claim. The insurance the risk manager purchased is called A) captive insurance. B) excess insurance. C) primary insurance. D) umbrella insurance. Answer: B 53 When Derrick became risk manager of Boller Company, he noticed that the company did not have a clear set of risk management objectives and a clearly-stated risk management philosophy. Derrick developed a written document stating the company's risk management objectives and risk management philosophy. This document is called a risk management A) policy statement. B) manuscript policy. C) manual. D) binder. Answer: A 54 David never stopped to consider the possible consequences of a long-term, permanent, disability. So David did not include disability income insurance in his personal risk management program. David is dealing with the risk of disability through A) passive retention. B) active retention. C) risk control. D) risk avoidance. Answer: A 55 The property and liability insurance industry fluctuates between periods of increasing insurance rates and tight underwriting standards, and decreasing insurance rates and loose underwriting standards. Profitability in the industry follows these cyclical movements. What is this pattern of fluctuations called? A) the claims cycle B) the underwriting cycle C) the business cycle D) the accounting cycle Answer: B 56 The U.S. government is concerned that terrorists might try to crash a vehicle loaded with explosives into a U.S. embassy in a foreign country. Inside the gate to the embassy, they installed steel and cement posts in the road. These posts can be raised up from the ground to form a barrier against suicide bombers. The posts can be lowered back into the ground to allow safe vehicles to pass. This physical barrier system illustrates which risk management technique? A) risk avoidance B) insurance transfer C) loss prevention D) noninsurance transfer Answer: C 57 A college professor stores class grading records on a spreadsheet on her office computer. Each time she updates a grading file she makes a printout and a backup copy of the grading file. The professor is using which risk management method to address the risk of losing her class grading records? A) risk avoidance B) duplication C) separation D) noninsurance transfer Answer: B 58 A risk manager was asked to review all the loss exposures his company faces. The risk manager noted that the company obtained over 90 percent of its raw materials from one supplier. He voiced concern about business interruption if that supplier was closed for some reason. Acting on his recommendation, the company began to purchase raw materials from two other suppliers. Using multiple suppliers illustrates which risk control technique? A) risk avoidance B) duplication C) separation D) diversification Answer: D 59 Melanie was just hired as the risk manager of JKL Company. The company president asked her to make a thorough review of all of the company's loss exposures. Melanie noted that many employees were too heavily invested in stock issued by the company in their 401-k plan. Melanie suggested that the employees change some of their investment holdings to mutual funds that invest in stock issued by different companies. The risk control method that Melanie suggested is A) risk avoidance. B) duplication. C) diversification. D) separation. Answer: C 60 A U.S. athletic equipment company has production plants in several Pacific Rim countries. Each plant is divided into separate production areas using six-foot thick concrete walls. The construction method is designed to prevent fire from spreading from one production area to another. Using thick concrete walls so that fire does not spread to another production area illustrates which risk control method? A) separation B) duplication C) risk avoidance D) diversification Answer: A

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Which of the following is a basic characteristic of insurance? A) pooling of losses B) avoidance of risk C) payment of intentional losses D) certainty about specific losses that will occur Answer: A 2 Which of the following is implied by the pooling of losses? A) sharing of losses by an entire group B) inability to predict losses with any degree of accuracy C) substitution of actual loss for average loss D) increase of objective risk Answer: A 3 According to the law of large numbers, what happens as the number of exposure units increases? A) Actual results will increasingly differ from probable results. B) Actual results will more closely approach probable results. C) Nondiversifiable risk will decrease. D) Objective risk will increase. Answer: B 4 According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurer increases the number of units insured? A) The amount the insurer expects to pay in claims should decrease. B) Underwriting expenses should decrease. C) Actual results will more closely approach expected results. D) The insurer's profitability should become more variable. Answer: C 5 Characteristics of a fortuitous loss include which of the following? The loss is certain to occur. The loss occurs as a result of chance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 6 From the viewpoint of the insurer, all of the following are characteristics of an ideally insurable risk EXCEPT A) The loss must be accidental. B) The loss should be catastrophic. C) The premium must be economically feasible. D) There must be a large number of exposure units. Answer: B 7 From the standpoint of the insurer, which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk? A) The loss must be intentional. B) There must be a small number of unique loss exposures. C) The chance of loss must be calculable. D) The loss must be indeterminable. Answer: C 8 Why is a large number of exposure units generally required before a pure risk is insurable? A) It prevents the insurer from losing money. B) It eliminates intentional losses. C) It minimizes moral hazard. D) It enables the insurer to predict losses more accurately. Answer: D 9 The requirement that losses should be accidental and unintentional in order to be insurable results in which of the following? Decrease in moral hazard More accurate prediction of future losses A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 10 Which of the following is implied by the requirement that a loss should be determinable and measurable to be insurable? The loss must be definite as to place. The loss must be definite as to amount. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 11 Methods by which insurers may minimize or avoid catastrophic losses include which of the following? The use of reinsurance Concentrating coverage written in one geographic region A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 12 Which of the following types of risks best meets the requirements for being insurable by private insurers? A) most market risks B) property risks C) financial risks D) political risks Answer: B 13 Reasons why market, financial, and production risks are often uninsurable include which of the following? The potential to produce a catastrophic loss is great. The chance of loss cannot be accurately estimated. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 14 Which of the following types of risks is normally uninsurable by private insurers? A) personal risks B) property risks C) liability risks D) political risks Answer: D 15 Which of the following is a result of adverse selection? A) The insurer's financial results will be substantially improved. B) Persons most likely to have losses are also most likely to seek insurance at standard rates. C) It is unnecessary for the insurance company to use underwriting. D) Insurance can be written only by the federal government. Answer: B 16 The tendency for unhealthy people to seek life or health insurance at standard rates is an example of A) moral hazard. B) fundamental risk. C) attitudinal hazard. D) adverse selection. Answer: D 17 Which of the following statements regarding insurance and gambling is (are) true? Insurance is used to handle existing pure risks, while gambling creates a new speculative risk. Insurance usually involves risk avoidance, while gambling typically involves only risk reduction. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 18 In addition to marketing life insurance, life insurers typically sell which of the following products? Retirement annuities Disability income insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 19 Inland marine insurance provides coverage for A) goods being shipped on land. B) premature death of members of the armed forces. C) goods being shipped on ocean-going vessels. D) liability exposures of nonprofit organizations. Answer: A 20 Which of the following is classified as casualty insurance? A) workers compensation insurance B) fire insurance C) marine insurance D) life insurance Answer: A 21 Which of the following is a form of casualty insurance? A) fire insurance B) general liability insurance C) inland marine insurance D) ocean marine insurance Answer: B 22 Which of the following statements regarding private insurance and government insurance is (are) true? Private insurance programs include life and health insurance and property and liability insurance. Social insurance programs are government insurance programs that are voluntary and financed entirely by contributions from covered employers. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 23 All of the following are benefits to society that result from insurance EXCEPT A) less worry and fear. B) elimination of moral hazard. C) indemnification for loss. D) loss prevention. Answer: B 24 Which of the following statements about the insurance industry as a source of investment funds is (are) true? These funds result in a lower cost of capital than would exist in the absence of insurance. These funds tend to promote economic growth and full employment. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 25 All of the following are social costs associated with insurance EXCEPT A) insurance company operating expenses. B) fraudulent claims. C) inflated claims. D) increased cost of capital. Answer: D 26 A group of farmers agreed that if any farmer suffered a property loss, the loss would be spread over the entire group. In this way, each farmer is responsible for the average loss of the group rather than the actual loss that each farmer sustained. Which characteristic of insurance is embodied in this agreement? A) pooling of losses B) fortuitous losses C) risk avoidance D) indemnification Answer: A 27 XYZ Insurance Company writes coverage for most perils which can damage property. XYZ, however, does not write flood insurance on property located in flood plains. Which requirement of an ideally insurable risk might be violated if XYZ wrote flood insurance on property located in flood plains? A) There must be a large number of similar exposure units. B) The loss should not be catastrophic. C) The chance of loss must be calculable. D) The losses must be determinable and measurable. Answer: B 28 ABC Appliance offers a warranty requiring an annual fee. The warranty may be purchased at the time of sale or at any time within the first year after the appliance was purchased. The warranty fee after the date of purchase is twice the time-of-purchase fee. When asked why the fee was higher after the date of purchase, ABC's president said, "Buying a warranty is voluntary. We've noted that those who buy the warranty after the purchase date have a greater need for service." Charging the same rate or a lower rate after the date of purchase would expose ABC to what problem that also impacts private insurers? A) excessive premiums B) reduced claims C) bad investments D) adverse selection Answer: D 29 Insurance companies collect premiums in advance. Since the premiums collected are not needed to pay losses and expenses immediately, the funds can be loaned to business firms. Because of this fact, insurance benefits society by A) enhancing credit. B) providing a source of investment funds. C) indemnifying losses. D) providing an incentive for loss prevention. Answer: B 30 LMN Insurance sells homeowners insurance. The LMN homeowners policy combines property and casualty insurance in the same contract. Insurance policies combining property and casualty coverage in the same contract are called A) mono-line policies. B) multi-year policies. C) multiple-line policies. D) manuscript policies. Answer: C 31 One branch of government insurance programs has a number of distinguishing characteristics. These programs are compulsory, they are financed by mandatory contributions rather than general tax revenues, and benefits are weighted in favor of low-income groups. These government insurance programs are called A) welfare programs. B) social insurance programs. C) casualty insurance programs. D) private insurance programs. Answer: B 32 Gina would like to buy a house. She will pay 10 percent of the cost of the house as a down payment and borrow the other 90 percent from a mortgage lender. The home will serve as collateral for the loan. The lender will not make the loan to Gina unless the home is insured. Using insurance to secure the collateral for a loan illustrates which of the following benefits of insurance to society? A) enhancement of credit B) reduction of fear and worry C) source of investment funds D) incentives for loss prevention Answer: A 33 ABC Insurance Company calculated the amount that it expected to pay in claims for each policy sold. Rather than selling the insurance for the amount it expected to pay in claims, ABC added an allowance to cover the cost of doing business, including commissions, taxes, and acquisition expenses. This allowance is called a(n) A) policyowner dividend. B) premium. C) expense loading. D) rate credit. Answer: C 34 JKL Insurance Company estimates that 14 out of every 100 homeowners it insures will file a claim each year. Last year, JKL insured 200 homeowners. According to the law of large numbers, what should happen if JKL insures 2,000 homeowners this year? A) The total number of claims filed by JKL policyowners should decrease. B) The total dollar value of claims will decrease. C) The average size of loss will decline in value. D) The actual results will more closely approach the expected results. Answer: D 35 Apex Insurance Company wrote a large number of property insurance policies in an area where earthquake losses could occur. When the president of Apex was asked if she feared that a severe earthquake might put the company out of business, she responded, "Not a chance. We transferred most of that risk to other insurance companies." An arrangement by which an insurer that initially writes insurance transfers to another insurer part or all of the potential losses associated with such insurance is called A) hedging. B) speculating. C) reinsurance. D) loss avoidance. Answer: C 36 According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurance company increases the number of loss exposures that it insures? A) Fewer losses should be expected to occur. B) The amount of premiums needed to cover losses should decrease. C) The volatility of the insurance company's underwriting results should increase. D) The difference between actual and expected results should decrease. Answer: D 37 Which of the following statements regarding insurance and hedging is (are) true? Insurance involves the transfer of an insurable risk while hedging handles risk that is typically uninsurable. Insurance transactions can reduce objective risk, while hedging typically involves only risk transfer and not risk reduction. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 38 Ashley opened an all-you-can-eat buffet restaurant. The price per-person was based on what Ashley believed an average restaurant patron would consume. The restaurant began to lose money. Ashley concluded that her patrons had "above average" appetites, and were attracted to her restaurant because they could eat as much as they wanted while being charged an average price. A similar phenomenon exists in insurance markets. This problem is called A) legal hazard. B) adverse selection. C) attitudinal hazard. D) nondiversifiable risk. Answer: B 39 Which of the following statements concerning social insurance benefits is (are) correct? Social insurance benefits are heavily weighted in favor of upper-income groups because of their higher earnings. Social insurance benefits are financed entirely or in part by mandatory contributions by covered employers and employees, and not by general revenues of the government. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: B 40 Adverse selection occurs A) when an insurance company loses money on its investments. B) when insurance purchasers buy insurance but do not have a loss. C) when catastrophic losses occur as a result of a natural disaster. D) when applicants with a higher-than-average chance of loss seek insurance at standard rates. Answer: D 41 Which of the following statements regarding insurance and hedging is true? A) Both insurance and hedging deal only with pure risks. B) Insurance reduces objective risk while hedging involves only risk transfer and not risk reduction. C) Hedging reduces objective risk while insurance involves only risk reduction and not risk transfer. D) Both insurance and hedging reduce objective risk but do not involve the transfer of risk. Answer: B 42 Which of the following is an example of private insurance? A) unemployment insurance B) Social Security C) life insurance D) federal deposit insurance Answer: C 43 If insurers were to provide indemnification for losses that were deliberately caused, which characteristic of ideally insurable risks would not be met? A) The loss must be accidental and unintentional. B) The loss must be determinable and measurable. C) The loss should not be catastrophic. D) There must be a large number of similar exposure units. Answer: A 44 An insurance company that sells earthquake insurance in an area where earthquakes are possible has subjected itself to the risk of insolvency if a severe earthquake occurs. An insurer can safely sell earthquake insurance in this area if it shifts the risk of catastrophic loss to another insurer. The shifting of insured risk from one insurer to another insurer is called A) underwriting. B) casualty insurance. C) coinsurance. D) reinsurance. Answer: D 45 The premium that insurance companies charge does not cover the cost of expected losses only. The premium must also cover the cost of compensating agents and other costs of doing business. The amount added to the pure premium to cover these costs is called the A) expense loading. B) deductible. C) dividend. D) loss reserve. Answer: A 46 A discount store chain is concerned that cashiers might steal money from cash registers. To provide protection against theft by the cashiers, the discount store chain can purchase a A) fidelity bond. B) liability insurance policy. C) surety bond. D) business income insurance policy. Answer: A 47 BBB Auto Club provides emergency road service and other services to its members. BBB Auto Club charges a higher membership fee to new members than it charges to members who are renewing their membership. When asked to explain this pricing policy, the auto club president noted, "New members often sign-up prior to taking a long road trip, so we have to charge more as first-year members have higher service utilization rates." A similar phenomenon observed in insurance markets is called A) attitudinal hazard. B) adverse selection. C) risk aversion. D) moral hazard. Answer: B

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9) All of the following situations are excluded from coverage under Section II of the homeowners policy EXCEPT A) the rental of a spare bedroom which is used by the tenant as an office. B) the use of a rented airplane to take a vacation. C) the ownership of a ten-unit apartment house as an investment. D) the performance of professional services by the insured at the residence premises.

A) the rental of a spare bedroom which is used by the tenant as an office.

4) To calculate a human life value, it is necessary to deduct certain costs from a person's average annual earnings. These costs include A) funeral costs. B) income taxes. C) investment income. D) pension benefits after retirement.

1) Which of the following types of families is likely to have the least need for a large amount of life insurance? A) a blended family B) a traditional family C) a single person family D) a sandwiched family

That part of a property and liability insurance contract that contains information about the property or activity to be insured is called the A) declarations. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions. Answer: A 2 What information is contained in the insuring agreement of an insurance policy? A) a description of the property or life to be insured B) a summary of the major promises of the insurer C) a summary of the obligations of the insured D) a list of the property, losses, and perils that are not covered Answer: B 3 Which of the following statements about "open-perils" coverage is (are) true? All losses are covered except those losses specifically excluded. The burden of proof is on the insured to prove that a loss is covered. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 4 The exclusion of flood in a homeowners policy is an example of an A) excluded activity. B) excluded condition. C) excluded property. D) excluded peril. Answer: D 5 Exclusions are used in insurance policies for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce moral hazard. B) to waive policy conditions. C) to eliminate coverage for uninsurable perils. D) to eliminate coverage not needed by typical insureds. Answer: B 6 Reasons why a peril may be considered uninsurable and therefore excluded from insurance contracts include which of the following? The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be due to a predictable decline in value. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be incalculable and catastrophic. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 7 The policy provision requiring the filing of proof of loss with the insurer is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) condition. C) insuring agreement. D) miscellaneous provision. Answer: B 8 Which of the following statements about the definition of the insured is (are) true? In some cases, a person who is not specifically named may be classified as an insured. Under no circumstances can more than one person be named as an insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 9 All of the following statements about endorsements and riders are true EXCEPT A) They are usually written. B) They can be used to add or delete policy provisions. C) They normally take precedence over other conflicting policy provisions. D) They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions. Answer: D 10 Deductibles are not used in which of the following type of insurance? A) life insurance B) health insurance C) property insurance D) disability income insurance Answer: A 11 One of the reasons that deductible are used in insurance policies is to A) eliminate coverage for small claims. B) place restrictions or limits on the insurer's promise to perform. C) provide broader coverage by increasing the number of perils covered. D) exclude perils that are not insurable. Answer: A 12 The deductible used for automobile collision losses is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) elimination period. C) straight deductible. D) aggregate deductible. Answer: C 13 Which of the following statements about a calendar-year deductible is (are) true? It requires the insured to pay a specified amount of each claim regardless of when the claim occurs during the year and regardless of any previous claims during the year. It is used only in policies which cover direct property losses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: D Answer: D 14 A provision in a disability income insurance policy that requires a person to be disabled for 60 days before receiving benefits is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) grace period. C) elimination period. D) probationary period. Answer: C 15 At what point in time must an insured meet the coinsurance requirement in a property insurance policy in order to avoid having to pay a portion of the loss? A) only at the time of loss B) only at the time when the policy is issued C) only at the time of policy application D) both at the time when the policy is issued and at the time of loss Answer: A 16 David owns a commercial building with a replacement cost of $4 million. The building is insured on a replacement cost basis for $2.4 million under a fire insurance policy that has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. How much will David collect if the building sustains a covered fire loss with a replacement cost of $80,000? A) $50,000 B) $60,000 C) $66,667 D) $80,000 Answer: B 17 The primary purpose of coinsurance in property insurance is to A) reduce moral hazard. B) achieve equity in rating. C) minimize problems in settling claims. D) eliminate small losses. Answer: B 18 Which of the following statements about problems arising from the use of a coinsurance clause is (are) true? The amount of insurance should be periodically evaluated to avoid a coinsurance penalty because of inflation. An agreed value coverage option is one method used to solve the problem of values that fluctuate throughout the policy term. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: C 19 Connie has an individual medical expense policy with a $1,000 deductible. She is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. The insurer will pay 80 percent of expenses in excess of the deductible. If Connie has eligible medical expenses of $26,000, how much will be paid by her insurer? A) $10,000 B) $11,000 C) $20,000 D) $21,000 Answer: C 20 Purposes of the coinsurance clause in health insurance contracts include which of the following? To reduce premiums. To exclude coverage for certain medical procedures. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer: A 21 The purpose of other-insurance provisions is to A) eliminate the need for deductibles. B) penalize those insureds who carry inadequate amounts of insurance. C) specify who will pay losses if the insurer is bankrupt. D) preserve the principle of indemnity. Answer: D 22 Lisa has three fire insurance policies on her office building. The policy from company A is for $400,000, and the policies from companies B and C are for $100,000 each. If Lisa has a $360,000 loss, how much of the loss will be covered by each policy if the loss is settled on a pro rata basis by the insurers? A) each policy: $120,000 B) policy A: $160,000; policies B and C: $100,000 each C) policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each D) policy A: $360,000; policies B and C: nothing Answer: C 23 Kevin has three liability policies which provide for contribution by equal shares if other insurance applies to a loss. How much will each policy pay for a $3,000,000 liability judgment if policy A provides $500,000 of coverage, policy B provides $1,000,000 of coverage, and policy C provides $3,000,000 of coverage? A) Each policy will pay $500,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $1,500,000. B) Policy A will pay $500,000, policies B and C will each pay $1,000,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $500,000. C) Policy A will pay nothing, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $2,000,000. D) Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000. Answer: D 24 Helen and John both own automobiles on which they carry liability insurance. If Helen is negligent and has an accident while driving John's car with his permission, how will each insurer respond to any liability judgment against Helen? A) The insurers will pay the judgment on a pro rata basis. B) John's insurer will pay on an excess basis if Helen's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. C) Helen's insurance will pay on an excess basis if John's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. D) The policies will pay the judgment on the basis of contribution by equal shares. Answer: C 25 Kate is covered under her employer's group health plan. She is also covered as a dependent under her husband's group health plan. Under the usual coordination-of-benefits provision, how will each company respond to a claim filed by Kate? A) Kate's plan is primary, and her husband's plan is excess. B) Her husband's plan is primary, and Kate's plan is excess. C) The plan of the person with the birthday earliest in the year pays first, and the other plan is excess. D) Each plan will pay 50 percent of the claim. Answer: A 26 Eric's property was damaged in an accident. He phoned his agent to see if the loss was covered under his property insurance policy. The agent said, "As long as the cause of loss is not specifically excluded in the policy, the loss is covered." Based on the agent's answer, what type of insuring agreement appears in the policy? A) unconditional coverage B) named-perils coverage C) extended-perils coverage D) "open-perils" coverage Answer: D 27 Janet hit a wall causing a large dent in the fender of her car. She was busy at work and delayed reporting the damage to her insurer for 9 months. When she finally reported the claim, her insurer denied payment, stating, "Although such a loss is usually covered, you are required under the terms of the contract to provide prompt notification in case of loss." The prompt notification requirement is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) definition. C) insuring agreement. D) condition. Answer: D 28 Mark reviewed his homeowners policy. He learned that his personal property was insured on an actual cash value basis. He would like replacement cost coverage on his personal property. He contacted his agent who said, "I'll simply add an amendment to your contract that changes the basis of recovery to replacement cost." The written provision the agent was referring to is called a(n) A) endorsement. B) coinsurance clause. C) binder. D) deductible. Answer: A 29 Under the terms of Jenny's auto insurance policy, she must pay the first $500 of any physical damage loss to her vehicle before her insurer will pay anything. What type of deductible is included in Jenny's auto insurance policy? A) calendar-year deductible B) waiting period C) straight deductible D) aggregate deductible Answer: C 30 Shauna hurt her back and was unable to work. She filed a claim under her disability income insurance policy. Under terms of the policy, a period of time must pass between when the injury occurred and when the insurer begins to replace lost earnings. This time period is called a(n) A) grace period. B) enrollment period. C) probationary period. D) elimination (waiting) period. Answer: D 31 ABC Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $700,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $1 million when it sustained a $40,000 loss. How much will ABC Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $33,333 B) $35,000 C) $36,000 D) $40,000 Answer: B 32 XYZ Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $450,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $500,000 when it sustained a $50,000 loss. How much will XYZ Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $42,500 B) $45,000 C) $50,000 D) $56,250 Answer: C 33 Laura's medical insurance policy includes a $500 deductible. Laura is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible, and her insurer will pay 80 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. Laura was hospitalized and her covered medical expenses were $10,500. How much of the $10,500 will be paid by the insurer? A) $7,500 B) $7,900 C) $8,000 D) $10,000 Answer: C 34 James purchased liability insurance with a $100,000 limit from Insurer A. When Insurer A denied a claim that James thought should be covered, he bought a second liability insurance policy with a $150,000 limit from Insurer B. Before he cancelled the policy with Insurer A, a $60,000 loss occurred. If this loss is settled on a pro rata basis, how much must each insurer pay? A) Insurer A will pay $10,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. B) Insurer A will pay $20,000 and Insurer B will pay $40,000. C) Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000. D) Insurer A will pay $40,000 and Insurer B will pay $20,000. Answer: C 35 Jane purchased a $50,000 liability insurance policy from Insurer A. Fearing that she did not have enough liability insurance, she purchased an additional $100,000 of liability coverage from Insurer B. As a result of a negligent act, Jane was ordered to pay $75,000 in damages. Assuming the coverage from Insurer A is primary and the coverage from Insurer B is excess, how will this claim be settled? A) Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000. B) Insurer A will pay $37,500 and Insurer B will pay $37,500. C) Insurer A will pay $25,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. D) Insurer A will pay nothing and Insurer B will pay $75,000. Answer: A 36 The purpose of a coordination-of-benefits provision in group health insurance plans is to A) determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss. B) determine which health care provider an insured may use for his or her care. C) determine if the calendar-year deductible has been satisfied by the insured. D) determine if the employee is eligible for coverage under the group health plan. Answer: A 37 As an alternative to coinsurance, rate discounts can be given as the amount of insurance to value increases. This alternative is called A) graded rates. B) agreed value coverage. C) retrospective rating. D) manual rating. Answer: A 38 Mark owns a building that he insured for $90,000. The replacement cost of the building is $100,000. Mark's property insurance policy has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. Ignoring any deductible, if Mark's building is destroyed by a covered peril, how much will Mark receive from his insurer? A) $80,000 B) $90,000 C) $101,250 D) $112,500 Answer: B 39 A special coverage policy is a policy that A) has no exclusions. B) provides open-perils coverage. C) provides coverage under special conditions. D) has coverage for multiple lines of insurance. Answer: B 40 The section of the insurance policy that includes provisions that qualify or limit the insurer's promise to perform is the A) definitions. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions. Answer: D 41 An elimination (waiting) period is an example of a(n) A) exclusion. B) deductible. C) other-insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision. Answer: B 42 Roger owns some farmland that he rents to a tenant. The tenant lives in an old farmhouse on the property and raises crops on the land. Roger is concerned about possible legal liability if the tenant injures someone. Roger requires the tenant to have liability insurance and to add himself to the liability coverage through an endorsement. Under the tenant's liability insurance, Roger is a(n) A) additional insured. B) first-named insured. C) second-named insured. D) other insured. Answer: A 43 Maria's home was damaged by an earthquake. As Maria has open-perils coverage on her home, she was surprised to learn that her loss was not covered. Which section of a property insurance policy specifies which perils, property, and types of losses are not covered? A) the declarations B) the exclusions C) the conditions D) the insuring agreement Answer: B 44 In determining insurance limits and deductibles, an important concept is that insurance should be used to pay big losses rather than small losses. The objective is to insure big losses that could cause financial ruin and to exclude small losses that can be budgeted out of current income. This concept is called the A) law of large numbers. B) efficient loss-cost concept. C) large-loss principle. D) retention-transfer tradeoff. Answer: C 45 An insurance policy provision that specifies how a property loss will be settled if more than one property insurance policy covers the loss is the A) insuring agreement provision. B) loss settlement provision. C) other insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision. Answer: C 46 Property insurance policies contain declarations, conditions, definitions, exclusions, and an insuring agreement. However, some policy terms, such as subrogation, cancellation, other insurance, and assignment do not fall into these categories. The part of an insurance contract in which these provisions can be found is the A) endorsements. B) binders. C) conditions. D) miscellaneous provisions. Answer: D 47 Ann Parks and Robert Evans jointly own a grocery store. Ann and Robert are both named insureds on the property insurance covering the store, but Ann is the first named insured. Which of the following statements is true with regard to Ann's status as the first named insured? A) Any loss settlement is paid to Ann only. B) Ann is responsible for making sure that the premium has been paid. C) Ann can assign the policy without the consent of the insurer. D) Ann can waive policy conditions. Answer: B 48 Maggie purchased a life insurance policy. She was concerned that if she became disabled, she would no longer be able to pay the premiums. Her agent added an amendment of the policy stating that if she became disabled, future premium payments would be waived. Such an amendment to a life insurance policy is called a(n) A) binder. B) rider. C) warranty. D) schedule. Answer: B 49 Homeowners insurance policies usually cover resident relatives of the named insured who are under age 24 and who are full-time students away from home. Under the homeowners policy, these full-time students are considered A) first named insureds. B) second named insureds. C) other insureds. D) additional insureds.

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5) Which of the following statements about the grace period in a life insurance contract is (are) true? I. It is usually between 90 and 180 days in duration. II. If the insured dies during the grace period, the death benefit is reduced by 50 percent. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II Answer

6) All of the following statements about the requirements to reinstate a lapsed life insurance policy are true EXCEPT A) Evidence of insurability is required. B) The lapse must have resulted from other than the surrender of the policy for its cash value. C) All overdue premiums must be paid along with interest from the premium due dates. D) The policy must be reinstated within 1 year.

Which of the following statements about the use of interest-adjusted cost data for comparing life insurance policies is (are) true? Using interest-adjusted cost data provides a more accurate measure of the cost of life insurance than is provided if the time value of money is ignored. Its use is most appropriate in deciding between policies when the cost variation is very small. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

Why might the use of "grades" assigned by a life insurance company rating organization not be a reliable guide for consumers? There may be variations in grades given by different rating organizations. They ignore factors such as profitability and quality of investments. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

Consumer experts typically recommend which of the following rules when purchasing life insurance? Avoid policies which pay dividends. Purchase life insurance equal to ten times your annual salary. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

David purchased a $100,000 participating whole life policy. The annual premium is $2,280. Projected dividends for the first 20 years are $15,624. The cash value after 20 years will be $35,260. If the premiums were invested at 5 percent interest for 20 years, the premiums would grow to $79,156. If the dividends were accumulated at 5 percent interest for 20 years, they would grow to be $24,400. The amount to which $1 deposited annually will accumulate in 20 years at 5 percent interest is $34.719. Based on this information, what is the surrender cost per thousand per year of David's policy over the 20-year period? A) $5.62 B) $13.75 C) $15.77 D) $27.38

11) Which of the following statements about the assignment of a life insurance policy is true? A) The insurer must be notified of any assignment or the death proceeds will be paid to the named beneficiary. B) Under an absolute assignment, the only right transferred to a new owner is the right to change the beneficiary designation. C) As long as a collateral assignment exists, a creditor will receive the entire death benefit even if the loan has been repaid. D) Assignment may be made only with the permission of the insurer and the beneficiary.

12) When the capital retention approach is used to determine how much life insurance to purchase, all of the following are subtracted from total assets to calculate the capital available to produce income EXCEPT A) investments in stocks and bonds. B) non-income producing capital such as autos and the value of the home. C) the amount of money needed to payoff the mortgage. D) auto loans and credit card debt.

13) The transfer of all ownership rights in a life insurance policy can be accomplished through a(n) A) absolute assignment. B) irrevocable beneficiary designation. C) incontestable clause. D) participating-policy provision.

6) Which of the following statements about the needs approach for estimating the amount of life insurance to purchase is (are) true? I. It involves an analysis of various family needs which must be met if a family breadwinner dies. II. Its use is appropriate only if a person currently has no life insurance protection. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

9) A contingent beneficiary in a life insurance policy has the right to A) receive the policy proceeds if the primary beneficiary dies before the insured. B) share the policy proceeds with the primary beneficiary. C) change the beneficiary designation under specified circumstances. D) exercise policy rights if the insured is incapacitated.

14) Tony has a PAP which provides medical payments coverage. Under which of the following circumstances would the injured person be eligible for benefits under Tony's policy? I. A friend in the car is injured while Tony is driving a covered auto. II. A passenger on a motorcycle driven by Tony is injured when Tony hit another vehicle. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

2) Which of the following statements about the payment of defense costs by the PAP is (are) true? I. They are paid in addition to the policy limits. II. They are payable even after the limit of liability is exhausted. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A) I only

3) Which of the following statements about the Homeowners 6 (unit-owners form) policy is true? A) It includes personal liability coverage. B) It covers personal property on an open-perils basis. C) It covers the dwelling on an open-perils basis. D) It is designed for tenants who rent an apartment or a home.

A) It includes personal liability coverage.

11) Which of the following statements about the coverage for other structures (Coverage B) under the Homeowners 3 policy is true? A) The coverage applies to a detached garage or tool shed on the residence premises. B) Structures attached to the dwelling by a fence or utility line are considered to be part of the dwelling rather than other structures. C) Coverage applies even if the other structure is used for business purposes. D) There is no coverage for a private garage if it is rented to a tenant of the dwelling.

A) The coverage applies to a detached garage or tool shed on the residence premises.

13) Which of the following is a covered person under the medical payments coverage of the PAP? A) a family member of the named insured if struck by an auto while crossing the street B) a pedestrian struck by the named insured's auto C) the named insured while she is operating her car as a taxi D) a carjacker who is involved in an accident after stealing the insured's car

A) a family member of the named insured if struck by an auto while crossing the street

3) All of the following are covered autos under the liability section of the PAP EXCEPT A) a nonowned van which is driven by the insured on a regular basis. B) a trailer owned by the named insured. C) a borrowed auto used by the insured as a substitute for a stolen covered auto. D) a newly acquired auto which replaces a vehicle previously described in the policy.

A) a nonowned van which is driven by the insured on a regular basis.

8) Section II of the homeowners policy has exclusions applying to all of the following EXCEPT A) activities of the named insured's minor children. B) business activities. C) transmission of a communicable disease. D) intentional injuries.

A) activities of the named insured's minor children.

9) Section I of the Homeowners 3 policy provides coverage for which of the following? A) loss of use B) personal liability C) disability of the homeowner D) medical payments

A) loss of use

7) The major difference between the dwelling coverage (Part A) of the Homeowners 2 (Broad From) policy and the Homeowners 3 (Special Form) policy is that A) the HO-3 provides open perils ("all risks") coverage and the HO-2 provides named-perils coverage. B) the HO-3 provides actual cash value coverage, the HO-2 provides replacement cost coverage. C) the HO-3 is always written without a deductible, the HO-2 always written with a deductible. D) the HO-3 can be used for any type of construction, the HO-2 is limited to wood frame construction.

A) the HO-3 provides open perils ("all risks") coverage and the HO-2 provides named-perils coverage.

4) Amy purchased a life insurance policy with the intent of committing suicide to pay all the debts that were burdening her family. If she commits suicide 9 months after the policy is purchased, and the insurer is able to prove that her death was a suicide, how much will be paid by the insurance company? A) nothing, because the policy is void B) the premiums paid for the policy C) the policy's cash value D) the face value of the policy

7) Bert purchased a life insurance policy 4 years ago. He inadvertently stated that he was 1 year younger than his actual age. If Bert dies today, how much will the insurance company pay? A) nothing B) less than the policy face value C) the policy face value D) more than the policy face value

8) What is the length of the readjustment period which is considered when the needs approach is used to determine the amount of life insurance to own? A) 3 to 6 months B) 1 to 2 years C) until the youngest child reaches age 18 D) until the surviving spouse reaches age 65

9) Under the needs approach, when is the dependency period of a surviving spouse assumed to end? A) 1 or 2 years after the breadwinner's death B) when the youngest child reaches age 18 C) when the surviving spouse reaches age 65 D) when the surviving spouse dies

David purchased a $100,000 participating whole life policy. The annual premium is $2,280. Projected dividends for the first 20 years are $15,624. The cash value after 20 years will be $35,260. If the premiums were invested at 5 percent interest for 20 years, the premiums would grow to $79,156. If the dividends were accumulated at 5 percent interest for 20 years, they would grow to be $24,400. The amount to which $1 deposited annually will accumulate in 20 years at 5 percent interest is $34.719. Based on this information, what is the traditional net cost per thousand per year of David's policy over the 20-year period? A) -$1.52 B) -$2.64 C) $5.17 D) $9.75

11) Which of the following statements regarding watercraft liability under Section II of an unendorsed HO-3 policy is (are) true? I. No coverage is available for watercraft liability. II. Liability arising out of the use of watercraft that are under certain length and horsepower limits is covered. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

4) Which of the following statements about the insurer's obligation to provide a legal defense under the personal liability coverage (Coverage E) of the homeowners policy is (are) true? I. The insurer agrees to defend the insured only if the suit is not groundless, false, or fraudulent. II. The insurer's obligation to defend the insured ceases after the amount paid for damages from an occurrence equals the policy limit. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

9) Which of the following situations would be covered under the liability section of the PAP? I. A mechanic is sued by a pedestrian who is injured when the mechanic has an accident while road testing the insured's auto. II. The daughter of the named insured is sued after she has an accident when a new friend she just met at a campus hangout lets her drive his car. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B) II only

5) Which of the following statements about the coverage for medical payments to others (Coverage F) under the homeowners policy is true? A) Medical payments may be made for any resident of the named insured's household. B) Medical expenses incurred within 3 years of an accident are covered. C) Medical payments are made only if the insured is not legally liable. D) Covered medical expenses are limited to emergency room charges.

B) Medical expenses incurred within 3 years of an accident are covered.

16) Which of the following statements about the additional coverage for damage to property of others in Section II of the homeowners policy is true? A) The maximum amount of coverage is $25,000 per occurrence. B) Payments are made on the basis of the replacement cost of the damaged property. C) There is coverage for property damage arising out of a business engaged in on a full-time basis by an insured. D) There is coverage for intentional property damage by any insured who is a teenager.

B) Payments are made on the basis of the replacement cost of the damaged property.

16) Which of the following statements about the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP is true? A) The coverage usually applies only to property damage. B) The coverage applies only if the uninsured motorist is legally liable. C) Unless higher amounts are purchased, the maximum benefit is normally limited to $1,000. D) A covered person's only recourse is to sue the insurer if there is a disagreement over the amount of damages.

B) The coverage applies only if the uninsured motorist is legally liable.

7) Which of the following situations would be covered by the liability section of an unendorsed PAP if the insured is legally liable? A) The insured injures a pedestrian while operating a friend's new motorcycle. B) The insured backs into and damages the garage door of his rented house. C) A friend's suitcase and laptop computer were damaged in an auto accident while the insured and the friend were vacationing together. D) The insured damages a parked car while driving a dump truck for his or her employer.

B) The insured backs into and damages the garage door of his rented house.

15) Which of the following property is covered under the personal property coverage (Coverage C) of the Homeowners 3 policy? A) a pet iguana owned by the named insured's spouse B) a bicycle owned by a foster child living with the named insured C) a motor vehicle owned by the named insured D) a stamp collection insured under a separate policy

B) a bicycle owned by a foster child living with the named insured

14) All of the following are exclusions in the homeowners policy that apply to medical payments to others (Coverage F) EXCEPT A) bodily injury resulting from nuclear radiation. B) bodily injury to persons who are social guests at the insured location. C) bodily injury to persons eligible to receive workers compensation benefits. D) bodily injury to residents of the household who are in the care of an insured.

B) bodily injury to persons who are social guests at the insured location.

10) Which of the following situations is covered under Section II of an unendorsed homeowners policy? A) injuries which occur at a park resulting from a motorcycle owned by the insured B) injuries resulting from an auto not subject to registration because it is in dead storage C) injuries resulting from an auto rented by the insured while on a vacation D) injuries resulting from a trailer being pulled by the insured's auto

B) injuries resulting from an auto not subject to registration because it is in dead storage

6) All of the following are covered as supplementary payments under the liability section of the PAP EXCEPT A) the cost of an appeal bond in a lawsuit stemming from an auto accident. B) the cost of a bail bond for a traffic violation when no accident is involved. C) interest which accrues on a liability judgment covered by the policy. D) reasonable expenses incurred by the insured to testify at a trial involving a lawsuit covered by the policy.

B) the cost of a bail bond for a traffic violation when no accident is involved.

10) All of the following are covered under the dwelling coverage (Coverage A) of the Homeowners 3 policy EXCEPT A) any structure attached to the dwelling. B) the land on which the insured dwelling is located. C) materials and supplies intended for alteration or repair of the dwelling. D) materials and supplies intended for construction of a detached garage.

B) the land on which the insured dwelling is located.

8) Which of the following statements about beneficiary designations is true? A) A primary beneficiary is entitled to the death proceeds of a life insurance policy only if the contingent beneficiary dies before the insured. B) If a revocable beneficiary designation is used, the insured must obtain the beneficiary's permission to exercise most policy rights. C) The effect of a class beneficiary is to divide death proceeds equally among the members of a particular group. D) Naming the insured s estate as primary beneficiary is the best way to avoid probate expenses, inheritance taxes, and claims of creditors.

Which of the following statements about the Linton yield is (are) true? It is based on the assumption that a cash-value policy can be viewed as a combination of insurance protection and a savings fund. It is the average compound annual rate of return required to make the savings deposits in a life insurance policy equal to the policy's guaranteed cash value at the end of a specified period. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

15) Which of the following statements about the additional coverages included in Section II of the homeowners policy is true? A) Damage to property of others is covered only if the insured is legally liable. B) Damage to property arising out of a business engaged in by the insured is covered. C) Interest that accrues on a judgment after the judgment is awarded but before the judgment is paid is covered under claims expenses. D) First aid expenses incurred by the insured for a bodily injury covered under the policy are not covered.

C) Interest that accrues on a judgment after the judgment is awarded but before the judgment is paid is covered under claims expenses.

10) Larry has $25,000 of bodily injury liability coverage under his PAP. This limit is the minimum amount required by his state to be considered financially responsible. While on a vacation, Larry visited a neighboring state which has a minimum financial responsibility limit of $50,000 for bodily injury. Which of the following statements describes the situation for Larry while he was in the neighboring state? A) Larry's policy was suspended while he was in the neighboring state. B) Larry had only $25,000 of liability coverage. C) Larry's policy automatically provided $50,000 of liability coverage. D) Larry's policy automatically provided $100,000 of liability coverage.

C) Larry's policy automatically provided $50,000 of liability coverage.

11) John occasionally borrows the car of his friend, Sophie. Sophie has a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50. John also has a PAP, and his liability limits 250/500/50. John had an accident while using Sophie's car and was found to be legally liable for $300,000 in bodily injury liability for injuries suffered by one person. How much will be paid by each policy? A) Sophie's policy will pay $150,000, John's policy will pay $150,000. B) Sophie's policy will pay $50,000, John's policy will pay $250,000. C) Sophie's policy will pay $100,000, John's policy will pay $200,000. D) John's policy will pay the entire amount.

C) Sophie's policy will pay $100,000, John's policy will pay $200,000.

14) The Homeowners 3 policy limits the amount of coverage provided on certain personal property (e.g. coin collections and silverware). This personal property can be adequately insured by A) lowering the deductible which applies to personal property losses. B) storing the property away from the home at another location. C) adding a schedule to the policy listing the property with specific amounts of insurance. D) adding an appraisal clause to the policy.

C) adding a schedule to the policy listing the property with specific amounts of insurance.

1) Which of the following statements about the liability limits of the PAP is (are) true? I. The policy can be written with split limits of liability. II. Prejudgment interest is considered part of the damage award and is subject to the policy limit of liability. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

5) Which of the following persons is (are) covered for liability insurance under the PAP? I. a family member who drives a covered auto II. a family member who occasionally drives a friend's auto A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

6) Which of the following persons is (are) eligible for benefits under medical payments to others (Coverage F) of the homeowners policy? I. A friend who slips and falls on a wet patio while visiting the named insured II. A neighborhood child who is severely scratched by a cat in the care of the named insured A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

8) Persons insured under Section I of the Homeowners 3 policy include which of the following? I. A spouse of the named insured if living in the same household II. The named insured's children who are under age 24 and who are full-time college students A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C) both I and II

15) In which of the following situations would medical payments be paid under an unendorsed PAP? A) injuries incurred while riding a motorcycle B) injuries incurred while an auto is being used without the presumption that permission would have been granted to use the auto C) injuries incurred in an auto while it is used in a share-the-expense car pool D) injuries incurred during the course of employment if workers compensation benefits are available

C) injuries incurred in an auto while it is used in a share-the-expense car pool

1) All of the following persons are insured for personal liability under the homeowners policy EXCEPT A) children of the named insured under age 24 who are attending college full time and temporarily residing elsewhere. B) foster children under the age of 21 who reside with the named insured. C) nonresident employees of the named insured. D) the spouse of the named insured if a resident of the same household.

C) nonresident employees of the named insured.

4) All of the following are insured persons under the liability coverage of the PAP EXCEPT A) a friend to whom the named insured loans a covered auto. B) the employer of the named insured for actions resulting from the named insured's use of a covered auto. C) the former spouse of the named insured who moved out of the home 2 years ago when the divorce was finalized. D) a relative of the named insured if a member of the same household.

C) the former spouse of the named insured who moved out of the home 2 years ago when the divorce was finalized.

13) Disadvantages of the capital retention approach include which of the following? I. Assets are often liquidated too quickly. II. It underestimates the amount of life insurance needed. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

14) Tom and Nancy Boyle provide financial support for their two children. In addition, they provide financial support for Tom's aged father and Nancy's aged mother. The Boyle family can be described as a A) blended family. B) single-parent family. C) two-income earner family. D) sandwiched family.

3) All of the following are reasons an insurer can contest a policy after the contestable period has ended EXCEPT A) The beneficiary purchased the policy with the intent of murdering the insured. B) An insurable interest did not exist at the inception of the policy. C) The applicant had someone else take the medical examination required for policy approval for her. D) The policyowner concealed a material fact at the time of application.

5) All of the following are defects which limit the usefulness of the human life value approach in determining the correct amount of life insurance to purchase EXCEPT A) The effects of inflation are ignored. B) Other sources of income for survivors are ignored. C) Earnings are assumed to remain constant. D) Earnings during the individual's productive lifetime are ignored.

Marshall is interested in determining the cost per thousand of his life insurance policy. Which of the following will provide Marshall the most meaningful measure of the cost per thousand dollars per year of his life insurance? A) the needs approach B) the traditional net cost method C) the human life value approach D) the surrender cost index

Which of the following statements about the surrender cost index for measuring the cost of life insurance is true? A) It is based on the assumption that the policy will be in force indefinitely. B) It takes into account the settlement options available in the policy. C) It does not consider the cash value in the policy. D) It takes the amount and timing of each dividend into consideration.

12) All of the following losses are subject to special limits of liability under the Homeowners 3 policy EXCEPT the A) theft of firearms. B) destruction by fire of property used for business purposes. C) storm damage to a boat at a marina. D) destruction of jewelry by fire.

D) destruction of jewelry by fire.

7) All of the following are considered insured locations for medical payments to others (Coverage F) under a homeowners policy EXCEPT A) a new vacation home purchased by an insured during the policy period. B) a motel room where an insured is temporarily residing. C) a hall rented by the insured for her daughter's graduation party. D) farmland owned by the insured.

D) farmland owned by the insured.

1) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding renters insurance? I. Renters insurance is needed if you rent a house, but is not needed if you rent an apartment. II. The ISO renter's policy provides open perils ("all-risks") coverage on the insured's personal property. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

12) Which of the following situations would be covered under Section II of a homeowners policy? I. The insured is sued by his girlfriend because he infected her with the AIDS virus. II. The insured's son is sued after a friend suffered serious injury as a result of using illegal drugs sold to him by the son. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

13) For which of the following situations would there be personal liability coverage under the homeowners policy? I. The named insured accidentally injures her husband with a chain saw. II. The named insured breaks his wife's valuable vase while practicing his golf swing. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

13) Which of the following statements about the personal property coverage (Coverage C) of the Homeowners 3 policy is (are) true? I. The coverage applies only in the United States and Canada. II. The full amount of coverage applies only if the property is permanently located at any residence of the insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

2) Persons insured for personal liability under the homeowners policy include which of the following? I. Relatives while visiting the named insured. II. Overnight guests who are not relatives of the named insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

5) Which of the following statements about the Homeowners 8 policy is (are) true? I. Losses to the dwelling are settled on a replacement cost basis if the dwelling is insured for its full market value. II. It is designed primarily for expensive, newer, dwellings. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

6) Which of the following statements about the Homeowners 3 policy is (are) true? I. Losses to the dwelling are always settled on an actual cash value basis. II. Coverage on personal property is limited to $5,000. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D) neither I nor II

8) What is the purpose of the extended nonowned liability coverage endorsement to the PAP? A) to provide liability coverage for an insured's employer when an insured uses his or her auto for business purposes B) to provide liability coverage for an insured who occasionally operates a nonowned auto C) to provide liability coverage for anyone who loans a covered auto to another driver D) to provide liability coverage for an insured who operates a nonowned auto on a regular basis

D) to provide liability coverage for an insured who operates a nonowned auto on a regular basis

Final Exam RMI

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