Final Exam Therapeutic Exercise
C. Grade the exercise to the stage of recovery to stress the tissues safely
A properly applied and progressed therapeutic exercise program should: A. Follow a pre-established protocol in order to be consistent for all patients with the same diagnosis B. Push the patient beyond his or her current stage of recovery in order to progress the healing process C. Grade the exercise to the stage of recovery to stress the tissues safely D. Begin with passive exercise, progressing to active assistive exercise, active exercise, and then resistive exercise by the third week after injury
B. Pool therapy can be used to decrease pain, improve mobility, and strengthen muscles.
A 55-year old man with stable congestive heart failure is unable to tolerate land-based exercises for strengthening his back because of chronic low back pain. He has expressed concern with attempting pool therapy because of his inability to swim and his use of pain medications. Which of the following statements is true about his ability to participate in aquatic therapy? A. Pool therapy is contraindicated because of the chronicity of his pain. B. Pool therapy can be used to decrease pain, improve mobility, and strengthen muscles. C. Fear of water and use of pain medications are a contraindication. D. Pool therapy is contraindicated for any individual with congestive heart failure.
A. poor plantarflexor strength
A PTA considers an AFO for a 62 y/o female who has difficulty with toe clearance during ambulation due to dorsiflexor weakness. Which objective finding would make a posterior leaf spring orthosis an INAPPROPRIATE orthotic selection? A. poor plantarflexor strength B. mild spasticity C. good knee stability and strength D. reduced proprioception at the ankle
A. hand mirror
A PTA educates a patient s/p transfemoral amputation on the importance of frequent skin checks. What is the MOST appropriate resource for the patient to utilize when inspecting the posterior aspect of the residual limb? A. hand mirror B. video camera C. nurse D. prosthesist
C. movement test
A PTA is performing an assessment of proprioception and has the patient close their eyes then lifts their finger by the side asking the patient to determine if it was moved up or down. This test is called: A. finger to nose B. space test C. movement test D. romberg test
B. space test
A PTA is performing an assessment of proprioception and has the patient close their eyes while the PTA moves a body part to a position and asks the patient to match with the opposite side. This test is called: A. finger to nose B. space test C. movement test D. romberg test
D. Two hand hold on the bars on a firm surface
A PTA is performing balance exercises with a patient in the parallel bars on a firm surface with one hand hold assist on the bars. Which of the following would NOT be a progression? A. No hand hold on the bars on a firm surface B. Two hand hold on the bars on a soft surface C. One hand hold on the bars on a wobble board D. Two hand hold on the bars on a firm surface
C. passive range of motion up to 10 degrees of external rotation
A PTA is treating a patient two weeks post rotator cuff repair. Which of the following interventions in the MOST appropriate? A. light progressive shoulder exercise with resistive tubing B. grade III sustained joint mobs C. passive range of motion up to 10 degrees of external rotation D. active range of motion up to 90 degrees of abduction
C. soleus
A PTA observes a patient complete a standing squat as shown in the image. During the squat the assistant notes that the patient is unable to maintain their heels in contact with the ground. Based on this finding, which muscle is MOST likely shortened? A. gastrocnemius B. popliteal C. soleus D. tibialis anterior
C. dysdiadochokinesia
A PTA observes a patient complete a test that requires the patient to perform quick alternating pronation and supination of the forearm. What can this test be used to identify? A. dysmetria B. dysphagia C. dysdiadochokinesia D. dysarthria
B. nystagmus
A lesion in the cerebellum will most likely cause which of the following impairments? A. bradykinesia B. nystagmus C. chorea D. rigidity
C. multiple-angle isometric exercise against resistance
A patient has mild joint swelling and pain during active ROM, but resisted tests of the muscles that cross the swollen joints do not cause pain. Your goal is to maintain or possibly increase strength through the available ROM. The most appropriate choice of exercise is: A. muscle setting exercises at the end of the ROM B. high-velocity isokinetic exercise C. multiple-angle isometric exercise against resistance D. Eccentric/concentric, closed-chain exercise against body weight throughout the ROM
A. rectus femoris
A patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury is instructed in a stretching exercise. Based on the depicted image what does this stretch MOST appropriately target: A. rectus femoris B. right soleus C. rectus abdominis D. right biceps femoris
C. Prone lying without the use of a pillow
A patient reports to PT one week s/p transtibial amputation. Which sleeping position would be the MOST appropriate to prevent a knee and hip contracture? A. Supine with pillow placed under the knee B. Sidelying on the side of the residual limb with a pillow between the legs C. Prone lying without the use of a pillow D. Sidelying on the non-amputated side without a pillow between the legs
B. buoyancy
Decreasing the amount of weight bearing by immersing more of a person's body in water is a result of what property of water? A. viscosity B. buoyancy C. surface tension D. hydrostatic pressure
D. all of the above
The Functional Independence Measure is an example of a multidimensional functional assessment instrument because it includes some measure of which of the following? A. physical function B. social function C. activities of daily living function D. all of the above
A. Is the weight-bearing portion of the spinal column
The anterior pillar of the spine: A. Is the weight-bearing portion of the spinal column B. Consists of the vertebral bodies and the vertebral arches C. Includes the sternum and the 12 pairs of ribs D. Provides the gliding mechanism for movement
C. stepping strategy
What balance strategy is activated when a large force displaces the center of mass beyond the limits of stability? A. ankle strategy B. hip strategy C. stepping strategy D. suspension strategy
C. rheumatoid arthritis
Synovectomy, when used, typically is indicated for: A. long-standing osteoarthritis B. tear of a joint capsule as the result of trauma C. rheumatoid arthritis D. postimmobilization arthritis
B. Hip strategy
What balance strategy is activated with larger rapid external pertubations or from movements that occur near the limits of stability? A. ankle strategy B. hip strategy C. stepping strategy D. suspension strategy
A. ankle strategy
What balance strategy is activated with small external pertubations? A. ankle strategy B. hip strategy C. stepping strategy D. suspension strategy
D. 23 hours a day, except when bathing
Your instructions to a patient who has been fit with an elastic shrinker for the residual limb is to wear it A. whenever the patient dons the prosthesis B. whenever the patient is up during the day C. at least 8 hours a day D. 23 hours a day, except when bathing
C. Strengthen the core and protect the spine with flexion exercises (curls and sit-ups)
All of the following are recommendations of the National Osteoporosis Foundation for ways to prevent osteoporosis except: A. maintain a diet rich in calcium and vitamin D B. routinely participate in weight bearing and aerobic exercises C. Strengthen the core and protect the spine with flexion exercises (curls and sit-ups) D. stop smoking and decrease excessive alcohol consumption
B. chest pain alleviated with deep breathing and rib compression
All of the following are signs and symptoms your patient may exhibit that would alert you to a possible pulmonary embolism except: A. sudden onset of dyspnea B. chest pain alleviated with deep breathing and rib compression C. rapid, shallow breathing D. diaphoresis with minimal activity
A. HOOS
All of the following would be appropriate orthopedic questionnaires for a patient with a diagnosis of right knee OA except: A. HOOS B. KOOS C. KOOS jr D. oxford knee score
B. Reduce the risk of a DVT after surgery
Ambulation should begin in the early postoperative phase in order to: A. Reduce the risk of a pulmonary embolism after a diagnosis of DVT is confirmed B. Reduce the risk of a DVT after surgery C. Provide an alternative circulatory activity for those who do not want to wear compression stockings D. Reduce the risk of a diagnosed embolism traveling to the lungs
A. Transfer of training to land-based functional activities
After a musculoskeletal injury of the lower extremity, you develop an aquatic exercise program for your patient. An aquatic exercise program is the least effective for: A. Transfer of training to land-based functional activities B. Reducing risk of re-injury during the early stage of rehabilitation C. Enabling early weight bearing D. Increasing range of motion
C. It is centrally aligned within the annulus fibrosis at all levels of the spine to provide uniform shock absorption
All of the following are generally true of the nucleus pulposus except: A. It is the axis of motion for the functional units of the spine B. It takes on and/or releases water in response to compressive loads C. It is centrally aligned within the annulus fibrosis at all levels of the spine to provide uniform shock absorption D. It is covered superiorly and inferiorly by a cartilaginous end-plate
A. Individuals under 10 years or over 70 years
Contraindications to the use of plyometrics include all of the following except: A. Individuals under 10 years or over 70 years B. Painful joints C. Acute inflammation D. Unstable joints
A. ligamentous necrosis
Extreme caution should be used when manipulating the spine of patients with rheumatoid arthritis. There is high potential for subluxation of the vertebrae and damage to the spinal cord secondary to: A. ligamentous necrosis B. joint effusion C. synovial hypertrophy D. pain
D. quadriceps
In the above picture, the patient is performing an exercise to primarily work which muscle group? A. hamstrings B. abdominals C. glutes D. quadriceps
C. dynamic trunk flexion exercises
Individuals with symptoms from an intervertebral disk lesion and individuals with osteoporosis should not do: A. the drawing-in maneuver B. anterior and posterior pelvic tilt motions C. dynamic trunk flexion exercises D. stabilization exercises in the supine position
A. health condition
According to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF) endorsed by the American Physical Therapy Association (APTA), a rotator cuff tear is considered a(n): A. health condition B. impairement C. functional limitation D. disability
C. Optimize overall health status, fitness, or sense of well-being
According to the definition of therapeutic exercise and the goal of designing an individualized program of therapeutic exercise, the physical therapist might develop a therapeutic exercise program in order to: A. Restore function through the elimination of body structure impairments B. Improve function but not to remediate or reduce disability C. Optimize overall health status, fitness, or sense of well-being D. Remediate activity limitations but not to reduce health-related risk factors
A. Otego Home Exercise Program
An 82-year-old woman is referred to physical therapy with a history of two falls in the past month. She shows inadequate anticipatory control on the Functional Reach Test and is now expressing fear of falling. The patient lives alone and relies on her daughter for transportation. The best exercise program for this person is: A. Otego Home Exercise Program B. Circuit training as described by Nitz and Choy C. A Tai Chi exercise program D. An individualized walking exercise program that she can do with her daughter
B. HKAFO
An orthosis that includes a pelvic band that wraps around the hips, a thigh strap, hinge component at the knee, and goes to the shoe is called a: A. THKAFO B. HKAFO C. KAFO D. AFO
D. Patients in advanced phases of rehabilitation should be trained to return to high-demand functional activities and sports
As you develop progressions of exercise programs for varied patients, which of the following describes the appropriate use of plyometric drills? A. Pediatric programs should include plyometric drills because they are fun to perform and will engage the patient in functional activities. B. Patients with unstable joints should perform plyometric drills early in the course of therapy to challenge firing of antagonistic muscle groups. C. Every patient on a strengthening program should progress to plyometric drills during the return-to-function phase of rehabilitation. D. Patients in advanced phases of rehabilitation should be trained to return to high-demand functional activities and sports
C. using more than 15-ply of socks
At what point with prosthetic socks do you request a reevaluation by the PT of socket fit? A. using more than 6-ply of socks B. using more than 12-ply of socks C. using more than 15-ply of socks D. using more than 20-ply of socks
A. decreased thoracic kyphosis
Common postural changes/deviations that develop or become exaggerated during pregnancy include each of the following except: A. decreased thoracic kyphosis B. increased internal rotation of the shoulders C. excessive lumbar lordosis D. genu recurvatum
A. The annulus begins degenerating, loses tensile strength, and begins to tear with excessive forces
Disc lesions are more common in the 30 year to 45 year age span because: A. The annulus begins degenerating, loses tensile strength, and begins to tear with excessive forces B. The nucleus pulposus changes in chemical composition during this time and is capable of imbibing greater than normal amounts of water, causing greater than normal pressure against pain-sensitive structures C. The facets are wearing out and the entire joint complex is placed under greater stress D. This is not the most common age span for disc lesions
C. superior and anterior
During pregnancy, in which direction does the center of gravity of the body move? A. inferior and anterior B. inferior and posterior C. superior and anterior D. superior and posterior
B. round ligament
During the last trimester of pregnancy, pain in the groin area is often caused by overstretching of the: A. broad ligament B. round ligament C. uterosacral ligament D. pubococcygeal ligament
D. progressive resistance exercise
During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm, each of the following is an important intervention except: A. Scar management with pressure on the scar B. tendon-gliding exercises C. gentle prolonged stretch D. progressive resistance exercise
D. significant joint deformity
Each of the following is a relative or absolute contraindication for use of total joint replacement arthroplasty except: A. severe loss of bone stock B. active systemic infection or infection in the joint C. significant paralysis of the muscles surrounding the joint D. significant joint deformity
B. A gradual increase in temperature (sensation of warmth) in the exercising muscles
Each of the following is an indication that muscle fatigue is occurring when a patient is exercising against resistance except: A. Muscular tremor occurring during the exercise B. A gradual increase in temperature (sensation of warmth) in the exercising muscles C. The patient may not be able to complete the available range of motion (ROM) against the initial level of resistance applied D. The patient may attempt to use a substitute motion and muscle group to perform the exercise
C. To perform these exercises, the therapist passively moves the patient's fingers into five different positions in a particular sequence
Each of the following is true about flexor tendon-gliding exercises except: A. Maintain or develop free gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons B. To perform these exercises, the patient actively moves the fingers into five different positions C. To perform these exercises, the therapist passively moves the patient's fingers into five different positions in a particular sequence D. Maintain or develop free gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons and adjacent bones
C. Provides the design for the ramp to assist the worker to get into a job or establishment
Ergonomics is defined as all of the following EXCEPT: A. Uses scientific and engineering principles to improve safety, efficiency, and quality of movement B. Looks at the relationship among the worker; the work that is done; and actions, tasks, or activities inherent in the job C. Provides the design for the ramp to assist the worker to get into a job or establishment D. Often includes tests in functional capacity and performance during work actions, tasks, or activities
B. Interruption of the flexed postures at frequent intervals by standing upright and bending backward
Following recovery of a posterolateral disk protrusion, your patient will be returning to a job that requires prolonged forward bending and stooping. Your instructions to the patient must include: A. Preparing for the forward bending by posterior tilting of the pelvis before bending and stooping B. Interruption of the flexed postures at frequent intervals by standing upright and bending backward C. Advice to quit that job and find one that is sedentary D. No advice—forward bending helps maintain mobility in the spine
D. Kinesthetic awareness of safe spinal positions and movement, activation of deep segmental muscles, and global muscle control of spinal posture when moving the extremities or moving from one position to another.
Fundamental techniques that every patient with spinal impairments should learn before progressing to basic and advanced training exercises include: A. Strengthening exercises for the cervical and trunk stabilizers, including the abdominals, longus colli, quadratus lumborum, and cervical and lumbar multifidus muscles. B. Safe use of weights and elastic resistance while maintaining the spine in a neutral posture. C. Safe stretching techniques prior to any stabilization, strengthening, or power training. D. Kinesthetic awareness of safe spinal positions and movement, activation of deep segmental muscles, and global muscle control of spinal posture when moving the extremities or moving from one position to another.
D. hydrostatic pressure
If a patient has lower extremity edema, which of the following principles associated with hydrotherapy (an aquatic environment) will assist with decreasing the edema? A. viscosity B. buoyancy C. surface tension D. hydrostatic pressure
D. The knee flexors contract concentrically from 0° to 90°, and the knee extensors contract eccentrically from 90° to 135° of flexion
If a patient, who is in a prone-lying position with a cuff weight around his ankle, flexes his knee from a fully extended (0°) position to a fully flexed (135°) position, what type(s) of contraction will occur in which muscle group(s)? A. The knee flexors contract concentrically through the full ROM B. The knee flexors contract eccentrically throughout the full ROM C. The knee flexors contract eccentrically from 0° to 90°, and the knee extensors contract concentrically from 90° to 135° of flexion D. The knee flexors contract concentrically from 0° to 90°, and the knee extensors contract eccentrically from 90° to 135° of flexion
B. abduction and extension
In order to maintain the web space of the hand, it is important to maintain which of the following motions of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb? A. adduction and flexion B. abduction and extension C. adduction and extension D. abduction and flexion
B. B. arthrodesis (fusion)
John is a 25-year-old active athlete and outdoorsman who suffered a severe lateral ankle injury 5 years ago, resulting in progressive subtalar arthritis, pain, and instability of the ankle and hindfoot. His quality of life and ability to work are now restricted owing to the pain and instability despite repeated sessions in therapy. The surgical procedure of choice for John is most likely: A. total ankle arthroplasty B. arthrodesis (fusion) C. brostrom procedure D. watson-jones procedure
D. Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm pronation
Mr. J underwent a repair of a torn biceps brachii 2 days ago. During PROM exercises, which combination of motions should you avoid at end range to protect (not disrupt) the healing tissue? A. Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm supination B. Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm pronation C. Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm supination D. Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm pronation
D. Place the patient's ankle in as much dorsiflexion as is comfortable; have the patient isometrically contract the plantar flexors against resistance for 3 to 5 seconds. Then have the patient relax as you passively dorsiflex the ankle.
Of the following choices, which is the most appropriate application of the hold-relax (contract-relax) method of muscle inhibition and elongation of the gastrocnemius muscle? Extend the patient's knee, stabilize the lower leg, and: A. Place the patient's ankle in a fully plantar flexed position. Have the patient concentrically contract the dorsiflexors against your manual resistance through as much ROM as possible. B. Place the patient's ankle in as much dorsiflexion as possible; have the patient isometrically contract the dorsiflexors against resistance for 3 to 5 seconds. Then have the patient relax as you passively dorsiflex the ankle. C. Place the patient's ankle in a comfortably dorsiflexed position; have the patient concentrically contract the plantar flexors against your resistance through the available ROM. Then have the patient dorsiflex the ankle as far as possible. D. Place the patient's ankle in as much dorsiflexion as is comfortable; have the patient isometrically contract the plantar flexors against resistance for 3 to 5 seconds. Then have the patient relax as you passively dorsiflex the ankle.
B. develop postural muscle response to external disturbances
Rhythmic stabilization exercises are important in a spinal rehabilitation program because they: A. make the patient feel good B. develop postural muscle response to external disturbances C. develop strength using isometric holds D. develop awareness of the neutral spinal posture
D. anterior to the S2 vertebra
The center of gravity in most adult humans is located slightly: A. posterior to the L2 vertebra B. posterior to the s2 vertebra C. anterior ro the L2 vertebra D. anterior to the S2 vertebra
B. reverse total shoulder replacement/arthroplasty
The image on the right is an example of what type of surgical procedure? A. bankart repair B. reverse total shoulder replacement/arthroplasty C. conventional total shoulder replacement/arthroplasty D. hemireplacement/hemiarthroplasty
C. Grasp the patient's forearm just proximal of the wrist and perform ROM while maintaining the elbow in flexion
The most effective and safe way to perform passive pronation and supination of the forearm is to: A. Grasp the patient's hand around the metacarpals and perform ROM while maintaining the elbow in extension B. Grasp the patient's forearm just proximal of the wrist and perform ROM while maintaining the elbow in extension C. Grasp the patient's forearm just proximal of the wrist and perform ROM while maintaining the elbow in flexion D. Grasp the patient's hand around the metacarpals and perform ROM while maintaining the elbow in flexion
A. drop arm test
The special test that is performed to test for RTC tear where the arm is placed at 90 degrees abduction and then the patient slowly lowers to their side is called the A. drop arm test B. infraspinatus test C. neer test D. apprehension test
C. apley's compression test
The special test that is performed to test for meniscal injury where the patient lies prone with 90 degrees of knee flexion and the therapist stabilizes the femur while pushing down on the heel medially and laterally rotating the tibia is called the A. valgus stress test B. varus stress test C. apley's compression test D.mcmurray test
D. transversus abdominis and multifundus
The spinal muscles that are activated first with rapid arm movements are the: A. erector spinae and rectus abdominis B. internal and external obliques C. multifundus and internal obliques D. transversus abdominis and multifundus
A. Use the stretch-induced gains in ROM during functional activities as soon as able on a regular basis
To maintain gains in ROM achieved as the result of a stretching program, it is recommended to: A. Use the stretch-induced gains in ROM during functional activities as soon as able on a regular basis B. Perform daily resistance training of the muscle group opposite the stretched muscle C. Apply heat on a daily basis to the lengthened muscle groups D. Perform daily resistance training of the stretched muscle
C. Bend at the knees partially while keeping the back straight and pick up the load slowly.
To prevent falls and maximize safety while lifting heavy objects from the floor, an elderly patient is instructed to: A. Bend at the knees as far as possible, keeping the back straight and placing the load between the legs. B. Keep the knees straight, bend at the hips, keep the back straight, and pick up the load quickly. C. Bend at the knees partially while keeping the back straight and pick up the load slowly. D. Bend the knees partially and rotate and laterally bend the back to lift the load to one side of the hips.
C. Apply resistance to the plantar and medial surfaces of the foot at the first metatarsal as the patient plantar flexes and inverts the ankle and foot
To strengthen the posterior tibialis using manual resistance, have the patient assume a long sitting position on a table or mat. Support and hold the lower leg with one hand and: A. Apply resistance to the dorsal and medial surfaces of the foot at the first metatarsal as the patient dorsiflexes and inverts the ankle and foot B. Apply resistance to the dorsal and lateral surfaces of the foot at the fifth metatarsal as the patient dorsiflexes and everts the ankle and foot C. Apply resistance to the plantar and medial surfaces of the foot at the first metatarsal as the patient plantar flexes and inverts the ankle and foot D. Apply resistance to the plantar and lateral surfaces of the foot at the fifth metatarsal as the patient plantar flexes and everts the ankle and foot
True
True or False? Older adults may report a fear of falling, with or without a history of a previous fall, that may result in them avoiding or restricting activities.
B. scoot more toward the end of the table
What would the patient in the picture need to change in order to increase hip flexor stretch? A. flex the knee more B. scoot more toward the end of the table C. place a folded towel under the knee D. flex the hip, pulling the knee to the chest
C. 33%
When a person is standing in chest-deep water, the percentage of weight bearing is approximately what percentage of body weight? A. 10% B. 20% C. 33% D. 50%
D. Exercises for strength and power should precede balance and stability exercises
When designing an exercise program to return a patient to his/her prior functional level, each of the following guidelines is true except: A. Proximal stability is a requirement for controlled distal mobility B. Coordinated segmental and global stability of the spine is needed for execution of functional tasks with safe body mechanics C. Stability of each joint is necessary for effective function of the extremities D. Exercises for strength and power should precede balance and stability exercises
D. double knees to chest
Which of the following PROM exercises provides the most flexion of the lumbar spine? A. single knee to chest B. posterior pelvic tilt with the patient lying supine with hips/knees at 45 degrees/90 degrees C. posterior pelvic tilt with patient lying supine D. double knees to chest
C. Have the patient lie supine, arms across the abdomen, and perform head lifts.
Which of the following activities should be used initially to correct a diastasis recti postpartum? A. Have the patient lie supine, arms at sides, and do a partial sit-up (until scapulae clear the surface). B. Have the patient lie supine, arms across the abdomen, and perform leg lowering from a 90° position. C. Have the patient lie supine, arms across the abdomen, and perform head lifts. D. Have the patient avoid all abdominal exercises until the diastasis corrects itself.
A. providence brace
Which of the following braces for scoliosis would you instruct your client to wear only at night? A. providence brace B. milwaukee brace C. boston brace D. wilmington brace
C. berg
Which of the following functional assessments does not include a gait component? A. timed up and go test B. tinetti C. berg D. mini-BESTest
A. A surgically repaired muscle or tendon is immobilized in a shortened position for a period of time after surgery.
Which of the following is a correct statement about surgical repair of a torn or ruptured muscle or tendon? A. A surgically repaired muscle or tendon is immobilized in a shortened position for a period of time after surgery. B. After a tear or rupture of a muscle, the best results are achieved if the torn tissue is repaired immediately after injury rather than delaying the repair for 48 to 72 hours after injury. C. During postoperative rehabilitation for a muscle or tendon repair muscle setting exercises are contraindicated during the acute phase until immobilization is removed. D. A longer immobilization period is required for a repaired muscle than for a repaired tendon because the degree of inflammation and edema is greater.
B. As the immobilized muscle atrophies, an increase in fibrous and fatty tissue in the muscle occurs.
Which of the following is a true statement about a muscle's response to immobilization? A. When a muscle is immobilized for a period of time, atrophy occurs more rapidly and extensively in fast-twitch fibers than in slow-twitch fibers. B. As the immobilized muscle atrophies, an increase in fibrous and fatty tissue in the muscle occurs. C. Atrophy of an immobilized muscle will begin after the first 30 days of inactivity, resulting in contractile weakness. D. A muscle immobilized in a shortened position will have an increased ability to produce maximum tension at its resting length because of sarcomere absorption.
A. Have the patient stand on one foot on a piece of foam and maintain his balance
Your goal is to improve lower extremity proprioception, balance, and strength. Which of the following closed-chain exercises is the most challenging? A. Have the patient stand on one foot on a piece of foam and maintain his balance B. Have the patient kneel in an upright position on a piece of foam and shift his weight from side to side C. Have the patient stand on the floor on one leg and maintain his balance D. Have the patient stand on the floor with weight equally distributed on both feet and throw and catch a ball
B. If the size and severity of the tears are similar, rehabilitation after repair of an acute, traumatic cuff tear typically progresses more rapidly than after repair of an atraumatic tear associated with chronic impingement
Which of the following is a true statement about surgical repair of the rotator cuff and postoperative management? A. Regardless of the size of the cuff tear, the shoulder is immobilized in an abduction splint for a period of time after surgery B. If the size and severity of the tears are similar, rehabilitation after repair of an acute, traumatic cuff tear typically progresses more rapidly than after repair of an atraumatic tear associated with chronic impingement C. Detachment of the deltoid from its proximal insertion is a necessary component of a traditional open repair or an arthroscopically assisted repair (mini-open) D. The quality of the patient's tissues (tendon and bone) has little to no impact on the progression of rehabilitation
B. A risk associated with an autograft is potential weakening of a patient's otherwise healthy tissue at the donor site.
Which of the following is a true statement about the use of autografts and allografts for repair of tissue lesions? A. An autograft can be used to repair soft tissues, such as a torn ligament, but cannot be used for repair of articular cartilage lesions. B. A risk associated with an autograft is potential weakening of a patient's otherwise healthy tissue at the donor site. C. There is a greater risk of disease transmission with use of an autograft than an allograft. D. There is a greater risk of graft failure with use of an autograft than an allograft.
C. maintenance of upright posture
Which of the following is the primary function of the cerebellum? A. an intellectual source B. planning and executing learned and purposeful behaviors C. maintenance of upright posture D. processing of vision
B. The primary contributing factor for pelvic floor dysfunction in men is prostate enlargement or prostate cancer treatment.
Which of the following is true about physical therapy intervention for pelvic floor dysfunction? A. Men are twice as likely as women to experience urinary incontinence but are unwilling to seek medical care. B. The primary contributing factor for pelvic floor dysfunction in men is prostate enlargement or prostate cancer treatment. C. Biofeedback used to help patients perform effective pelvic floor contractions is not possible for men because the penis and scrotum block visualization of the internal structures. D. Females who have not been pregnant and males do not experience pelvic floor dysfunction, because it is directly associated with childbearing and childbirth.
D. The fingertips are placed horizontally at the midline of the abdomen (perpendicular to the linea alba) at the level of the umbilicus to assess the size of the separation.
Which of the following is true about testing for a diastasis recti? A. The fingertips are placed vertically at the midline of the abdomen (parallel along the linea alba) at the level of the umbilicus to assess the size of the separation. B. Place the heel of your hand across the abdomen and apply light compression at the level of the umbilicus and have the patient cough. C. The test is performed with the patient in a hook-lying position and having her perform an abdominal contraction by lifting her head, shoulders, and trunk off the support surface. D. The fingertips are placed horizontally at the midline of the abdomen (perpendicular to the linea alba) at the level of the umbilicus to assess the size of the separation.
D. A HEP is an important component for success of a PT program and should be provided early in the treatment, updating as appropriate
Which of the following is true regarding appropriate HEP's? A. A HEP should only be provided at the time of D/C B. A HEP should consist of as many exercises as possible C. A HEP is not a significant part of the physical therapy treatment plan D. A HEP is an important component for success of a PT program and should be provided early in the treatment, updating as appropriate
B. quick dash
Which of the following orthopedic questionnaires would be most appropriate for a patient with a diagnosis of frozen shoulder/ adhesive capsulitis? A. neck disability index B. quick dash C. HOOS D. KOOS
D. Up-slipped innominate
Which of the following sacroiliac impairments will probably not respond to muscle energy techniques? A. Pubic symphysis hypomobility B. Posteriorly rotated innominate C. Anteriorly rotated innominate D. Up-slipped innominate
B. Pain along the lateral aspect of the hip joint and possibly along the lateral thigh and knee to the insertion of the iliotibial band; pain typically worsens during long periods of asymmetrical standing with more weight shifted to the involved side
Which of the following signs and symptoms in the hip region and/or lower extremity is most consistent with the finding associated with trochanteric bursitis? A. Pain that becomes evident during extended periods of sitting, with most pain experienced in the buttock region over the ischial tuberosities B. Pain along the lateral aspect of the hip joint and possibly along the lateral thigh and knee to the insertion of the iliotibial band; pain typically worsens during long periods of asymmetrical standing with more weight shifted to the involved side C. Groin and anterior thigh pain that becomes evident or is aggravated during activities that require repetitive hip flexion D. Groin pain at rest that increases with weight bearing coupled with a positive Trendelenburg sign and pain with hip abduction
A. chronic stage
Which of the following stages of soft tissue healing is characterized by remodeling and maturation of collagen in the scar? A. chronic stage B. early subacute stage C. late subacute stage D. acute stage
C. To stretch the posterior tibialis, you dorsiflex and evert the foot and ankle.
Which of the following statements about stretching is true? A. To effectively stretch the tensor fascia latae, you first flex the hip to 30° and then adduct the hip. B. To maximally lengthen the wrist extensors, you fully flex the wrist and flex the elbow. C. To stretch the posterior tibialis, you dorsiflex and evert the foot and ankle. D. To stretch the long head of the triceps brachii, you fully flex the elbow and then extend the shoulder past neutral.
A. Patients should perform cardiovascular exercise at the low end of this range.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the temperature range of water 26°C-35°C (78.8°F-95°F) recommended for aquatic exercise? A. Patients should perform cardiovascular exercise at the low end of this range. B. Patients with multiple sclerosis should exercise in temperatures at the high end of this range. C. Patients should perform intense aerobic exercise at the high end of this range. D. If a patient has an acute, painful injury, perform exercise at the low end of this range.
D. four square step test
Which of the following tests can be performed with only a stopwatch and four canes? A. functional reach test B. berg C. mini-BESTest D. four square step test
B. Scapular depressors and elbow extensors
Which of the following two upper extremity muscle groups are the MOST important to strengthen to assist with body lifting during ambulation? A. Elbow flexors and elbow extensors B. Scapular depressors and elbow extensors C. Shoulder adductors and elbow extensors D. Shoulder abductors and elbow flexors
D. low-intensity muscle setting
Which of the following types of active exercises are the most appropriate to use first during the acute phase of healing after a muscle injury? A. submaximal isokinetic concentric exercise at slow velocities B. full active ROM exercises C. multiple-angle isometrics against manual resistance D. low-intensity muscle setting
A. Avoid these activities on a permanent basis
You are educating your patient about returning to functional activities following a radial head resection with an implant. What should you tell her about returning to high-demand, high-impact activities? A. Avoid these activities on a permanent basis B. Because she had a radial head implant, she may return to these activities after 6 months C. She may return to heavy lifting after 6 months, but not high-impact (tennis or golf) activities because of the ballistic force these activities create D. She should have had a TEA if she wanted to return to these activities
A. short prosthesis
You are observing your patient with a transfemoral prosthesis ambulate and note that she has increased lateral trunk bend in stance phase. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation of the problem? A. short prosthesis B. contracture of hip flexors C. contracture of hip adductors D. insufficient toe out of the prosthetic foot
B. soft heel cushion
You are observing your patient with a transtibial prosthesis ambulate and note that she has insufficient knee flexion in early stance phase. Which of the following is a likely explanation of the problem? A. stiff heel cushion B. soft heel cushion C. knee flexion contracture D. weak quadriceps
C. Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the supine position as you support the weight of the leg
You are treating a patient with weak hip abductors (muscle grade is 2/5). Which of the following ROM exercises is most appropriate to prevent tightness of the hip adductors and maintain the current level of strength of the hip abductors? A. Perform passive abduction of the hip with the patient positioned in the supine position B. Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the side-lying position C. Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the supine position as you support the weight of the leg D. Perform passive abduction of the hip with the patient positioned in the side-lying position
B. rhythmic stabilization
You have a patient assume a prone-lying position and prop symmetrically on his forearms. You apply manual resistance in several directions at the shoulder girdles as you ask the patient to hold (maintain) the symmetrical position. This technique is known as: A. agonist-contraction B. rhythmic stabilization C. recurrent facilitation D. repeated contractions
B. Teaching tension-reducing postures and modification of chair, desk, and computer heights
Your patient describes posterior cervical pain and headaches that get progressively worse throughout each workday. She is a computer programmer, plays tennis on the weekends, and is an aerobic walker in the evenings. Your evaluation reveals a person who is physically fit with well-balanced flexibility and strength. Your treatment emphasis will be: A. Stretching the short suboccipital, levator, and scalene muscles B. Teaching tension-reducing postures and modification of chair, desk, and computer heights C. Teaching proper warm-up exercises and progressing her aerobic program to running D. Changing her sleeping posture and pillow height
A. The hold-relax technique, with isometric contraction of the hamstrings with the knee at 45°, followed by relaxation, then passive movement into more flexion
Your patient has only 50° of passive and active knee flexion (but full passive extension) 2 weeks after removal of a cast for a fracture of the tibia. The bone is now radiologically healed. Each of the following techniques will be of value to increase the range of knee flexion except: A. The hold-relax technique, with isometric contraction of the hamstrings with the knee at 45°, followed by relaxation, then passive movement into more flexion B. Low-load, long-duration self-stretching of the quadriceps C. Posterior glide of the tibia D. Caudal glide of the patella
C. Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint, such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time
Your patient has osteoarthritis of the left hip and states he experiences hip and thigh pain after walking for more than 20 to 30 minutes. As a therapist, which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for you to recommend? A. a period of complete rest or immobility B. application of heat and massage after periods of walking C. Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint, such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time D. use of anti-inflammatory medication
B. Joint-mobilization techniques to stretch the restricted joints (grade III sustained glide or grade IV oscillation techniques) after evaluating the reactivity of the elbow joints with grade II sustained glides
Your patient, a 19-year-old college student, sustained a nondisplaced fracture of the distal humerus, which was managed by closed reduction and 6 weeks of immobilization in a cast. Yesterday the cast was removed and the patient is to begin exercises to improve range of motion (ROM) and strength of the elbow. Your examination reveals significant limitation of elbow flexion/extension and forearm pronation/supination as well as reduced joint play at the elbow. The patient describes her elbow as feeling "very stiff," but pain occurs only when overpressure is applied at the end of the available ranges. One of the goals in this patient's treatment plan is to increase elbow ROM. With which of the following techniques should you begin to increase ROM? A. Cross-fiber massage of the tendons inserting at the elbow B. Joint-mobilization techniques to stretch the restricted joints (grade III sustained glide or grade IV oscillation techniques) after evaluating the reactivity of the elbow joints with grade II sustained glides C. Manual passive stretching to lengthen muscles that cross the elbow D. Passive ROM within pain-free ranges
