Final GI

A nurse is caring for a patient who has an order to discontinue the administration of parenteral nutrition. What should the nurse do to prevent the occurrence of rebound hypoglycemia in the patient? A) Administer an isotonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. B) Administer a hypertonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. C) Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% immediately prior to discontinuing the PN. D) Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% 1 hour after discontinuing the PN.

A Feedback: After administration of the PN solution is gradually discontinued, an isotonic dextrose solution is administered for 1 to 2 hours to protect against rebound hypoglycemia. The other listed actions would likely cause hyperglycemia.

A patient's new onset of dysphagia has required insertion of an NG tube for feeding; the nurse has modified the patient's care plan accordingly. What intervention should the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? A) Confirm placement of the tube prior to each medication administration. B) Have the patient sip cool water to stimulate saliva production. C) Keep the patient in a low Fowler's position when at rest. D) Connect the tube to continuous wall suction when not in use.

A Feedback: Each time liquids or medications are administered, and once a shift for continuous feedings, the tube must be checked to ensure that it remains properly placed. If the NG tube is used for decompression, it is attached to intermittent low suction. During the placement of a nasogastric tube the patient should be positioned in a Fowler's position. Oral fluid administration is contraindicated by the patient's dysphagia.

2. An elderly patient comes into the emergency department complaining of an earache. The patient and has an oral temperature of 100.2ºF and otoscopic assessment of the ear reveals a pearly gray tympanic membrane with no evidence of discharge or inflammation. Which action should the triage nurse take next? A) Palpate the patient's parotid glands to detect swelling and tenderness. B) Assess the temporomandibular joint for evidence of a malocclusion. C) Test the integrity of cranial nerve XII by asking the patient to protrude the tongue. D) Inspect the patient's gums for bleeding and hyperpigmentation.

A Feedback: Older adults and debilitated patients of any age who are dehydrated or taking medications that reduce saliva production are at risk for parotitis. Symptoms include fever and tenderness, as well as swelling of the parotid glands. Pain radiates to the ear. Pain associated with malocclusion of the temporomandibular joint may also radiate to the ears; however, a temperature elevation would not be associated with malocclusion. The 12th cranial nerve is not associated with the auditory system. Bleeding and hyperpigmented gums may be caused by pyorrhea or gingivitis. These conditions do not cause earache; fever would not be present unless the teeth were abscessed.

4. The nurse notes that a patient who has undergone skin, tissue, and muscle grafting following a modified radical neck dissection requires suctioning. What is the most important consideration for the nurse when suctioning this patient? A) Avoid applying suction on or near the suture line. B) Position patient on the non operative side with the head of the bed down. C) Assess the patient's ability to perform self-suctioning. D) Evaluate the patient's ability to swallow saliva and clear fluids.

A Feedback: The nurse should avoid positioning the suction catheter on or near the graft suture lines. Application of suction in these areas could damage the graft. Self-sectioning may be unsafe because the patient may damage the suture line. Following a modified radical neck dissection with graft, the patient is usually positioned with the head of the bed elevated to promote drainage and reduce edema. Assessing viability of the graft is important but is not part of the suctioning procedure and may delay initiating suctioning. Maintenance of a patent airway is a nursing priority. Similarly, the patient's ability to swallow is an important assessment for the nurse to make; however, it is not directly linked to the patient's need for suctioning.

A patient has been brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy but questions the nurse about how his health will be affected by the absence of an appendix. How should the nurse best respond? A) "Your appendix doesn't play a major role, so you won't notice any difference after you recovery from surgery." B) "The surgeon will encourage you to limit your fat intake for a few weeks after the surgery, but your body will then begin to compensate." C) "Your body will absorb slightly fewer nutrients from the food you eat, but you won't be aware of this." D) "Your large intestine will adapt over time to the absence of your appendix."

A) "Your appendix doesn't play a major role, so you won't notice any difference after you recovery from surgery." Feedback: The appendix is an appendage of the cecum (not the large intestine) that has little or no physiologic function. Its absence does not affect digestion or absorption.

A patient has come to the outpatient radiology department for diagnostic testing. Which of the following diagnostic procedures will allow the care team to evaluate and remove polyps? A) Colonoscopy B) Barium enema C) ERCP D) Upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy

A) Colonoscopy Feedback: During colonoscopy, tissue biopsies can be obtained as needed, and polyps can be removed and evaluated. This is not possible during a barium enema, ERCP, or gastroscopy.

A patient has been experiencing significant psychosocial stress in recent weeks. The nurse is aware of the hormonal effects of stress, including norepinephrine release. Release of this substance would have what effect on the patient's gastrointestinal function? Select all that apply. A) Decreased motility B) Increased sphincter tone C) Increased enzyme release D) Inhibition of secretions E) Increased peristalsis

A) Decreased motility Feedback: Norepinephrine generally decreases GI motility and secretions, but increases muscle tone of sphincters. Norepinephrine does not increase the release of enzymes.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and whose bowel preparation will include polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage prior to the procedure. The presence of what health problem would contraindicate the use of this form of bowel preparation? A) Inflammatory bowel disease B) Intestinal polyps C) Diverticulitis D) Colon cancer

A) Inflammatory bowel disease Feedback: The use of a lavage solution is contraindicated in patients with intestinal obstruction or inflammatory bowel disease. It can safely be used with patients who have polyps, colon cancer, or diverticulitis.

A patient has sought care because of recent dark-colored stools. As a result, a fecal occult blood test has been ordered. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following prior to collecting a stool sample? A) NSAIDs B) Acetaminophen C) OTC vitamin D supplements D) Fiber supplements

A) NSAIDs Feedback: NSAIDs can cause a false-positive fecal occult blood test. Acetaminophen, vitamin D supplements, and fiber supplements do not have this effect.

A nurse is promoting increased protein intake to enhance a patient's wound healing. The nurse knows that enzymes are essential in the digestion of nutrients such as protein. What is the enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein? A) Pepsin B) Intrinsic factor C) Lipase D) Amylase

A) Pepsin Feedback: The enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein is pepsin. Intrinsic factor combines with vitamin B12 for absorption by the ileum. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats and amylase aids in the digestion of starch.

An advanced practice nurse is assessing the size and density of a patient's abdominal organs. If the results of palpation are unclear to the nurse, what assessment technique should be implemented? A) Percussion B) Auscultation C) Inspection D) Rectal examination

A) Percussion Feedback: Percussion is used to assess the size and density of the abdominal organs and to detect the presence of air-filled, fluid-filled, or solid masses. Percussion is used either independently or concurrently with palpation because it can validate palpation findings.

A patient will be undergoing abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast. The nurse has administered IV sodium bicarbonate and oral acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) before the study as ordered. What would indicate that these medications have had the desired therapeutic effect? A) The patient's BUN and creatinine levels are within reference range following the CT. B) The CT yields high-quality images. C) The patient's electrolytes are stable in the 48 hours following the CT. D) The patient's intake and output are in balance on the day after the CT.

A) The patient's BUN and creatinine levels are within reference range following the CT. Feedback: Both sodium bicarbonate and Mucomyst are free radical scavengers that sequester the contrast byproducts that are destructive to renal cells. Kidney damage would be evident by increased BUN and creatinine levels. These medications are unrelated to electrolyte or fluid balance and they play no role in the results of the CT.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home on parenteral nutrition. What should an effective home care teaching program address? Select all that apply. A) Preparing the patient to troubleshoot for problems B) Teaching the patient and family strict aseptic technique C) Teaching the patient and family how to set up the infusion D) Teaching the patient to flush the line with sterile water E) Teaching the patient when it is safe to leave the access site open to air

A, B, C Feedback: An effective home care teaching program prepares the patient to store solutions, set up the infusion, flush the line with heparin, change the dressings, and troubleshoot for problems. The most common complication is sepsis. Strict aseptic technique is taught for hand hygiene, handling equipment, changing the dressing, and preparing the solution. Sterile water is never used for flushes and the access site must never be left open to air.

A patient has been discharged home on parenteral nutrition (PN). Much of the nurse's discharge education focused on coping. What must a patient on PN likely learn to cope with? Select all that apply. A) Changes in lifestyle B) Loss of eating as a social behavior C) Chronic bowel incontinence from GI changes D) Sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during nighttime infusions E) Stress of choosing the correct PN formulation

A, B, D Feedback: Patients must cope with the loss of eating as a social behavior and with changes in lifestyle brought on by sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during night time infusions. PN is not associated with bowel incontinence and the patient does not select or adjust the formulation of PN.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a gastrointestinal tube in place. Which of the following are indications for gastrointestinal intubation? Select all that apply. A) To remove gas from the stomach B) To administer clotting factors to treat a GI bleed C) To remove toxins from the stomach D) To open sphincters that are closed E) To diagnose GI motility disorders

A, C, E Feedback: GI intubation may be performed to decompress the stomach and remove gas and fluid, lavage (flush with water or other fluids) the stomach and remove ingested toxins or other harmful materials, diagnose disorders of GI motility and other disorders, administer medications and feedings, compress a bleeding site, and aspirate gastric contents for analysis. GI intubation is not used for opening sphincters that are not functional or for administering clotting factors.

A male client with a long history of ulcerative colitis experienced massive bleeding and had emergency surgery for creation of an ileostomy. He is very concerned that sexual intercourse with his wife will be impossible because of his new ileostomy pouch. How does the nurse respond? A. "A change in position may be what is needed for you to have intercourse with your wife." B. "Have you considered going to see a marriage counselor with your wife?" C. "What has your wife said about your pouch system?" D. "You must get clearance from your health care provider before you attempt to have intercourse."

A. A simple change in positioning during intercourse may alleviate the client's apprehension and facilitate sexual relations with his wife. Suggesting marriage counseling may address the client's concerns, but it focuses on the wrong issue; the client has not stated that he has relationship problems. Asking the client what his wife has said about the pouch may address the client's concerns, but it similarly focuses on the wrong issue. Telling the client that he needs to get clearance from his health care provider is an evasive response that does not address the client's primary concern.

A client diagnosed with ulcerative colitis is to be discharged on loperamide (Imodium) for symptomatic management of diarrhea. What does the nurse include in the teaching about this medication? A. "Be aware of the symptoms of toxic megacolon that we discussed." B. "If diarrhea increases, you should let your health care provider know." C. "Pregnancy should be avoided." D. "You will need to decrease your dose of sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)."

A. Antidiarrheal drugs may precipitate colonic dilation and toxic megacolon. Toxic megacolon is characterized by an enlarged colon with fever, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. Loperamide will decrease diarrhea rather than increase it. Constipation is sometimes a problem. No contraindication for pregnancy is noted. Sulfasalazine therapy typically continues on a long-term basis.

A client is scheduled for discharge after surgery for inflammatory bowel disease. The client's spouse will be assisting home health services with the client's care. What is most important for the home health nurse to assess in the client and the spouse with regard to the client's home care? A. Ability of the client and spouse to perform incision care and dressing changes B. Effective coping mechanisms for the client and spouse after the surgical experience C. Knowledge about the client's requested pain medications D. Understanding of the importance of keeping scheduled follow-up appointments

A. Assessing the client's and the spouse's ability to carry out incision care and dressing changes is essential for avoiding further development of the infectious process, as well as infection of the surgical incision itself. Assessing coping mechanisms and knowledge of the client's pain medication are important, but are not the priority. Understanding the importance of scheduled follow-up appointments is important, but is not the priority.

The nurse is teaching a client who recently began taking sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) about the drug. What side effects does the nurse tell the client to report to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) A. Anorexia B. Depression C. Drowsiness D. Frequent urination E. Headache F. Vomiting

A. E. F. Anorexia, headache, and nausea/vomiting are side effects of sulfasalazine that should be reported to the health care provider. Depression, drowsiness, and urinary problems are not side effects of sulfasalazine.

A client with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has been prescribed Vivonex PLUS. The client asks the nurse how this is helpful for improving symptoms. How does the nurse reply? A. "It is absorbed quickly and allows the affected part of the GI tract to rest and heal." B. "It provides key nutrients and extra calories to promote healing." C. "It is bland and reduces the secretion of gastric acids." D. "It does not contain caffeine or other GI tract stimulants."

A. For less severe exacerbations, an elemental or semi-elemental product such as Vivonex PLUS may be prescribed to induce remission. These products are absorbed in the jejunum and therefore permit the distal small intestine and colon to rest. Nutritional supplements such as Ensure or Sustacal are added to provide nutrients and more calories. GI stimulants such as caffeinated beverages and alcohol should be avoided, but this is not the reason for using Vivonex PLUS.

A client with ulcerative colitis (UC) has stage 1 of a restorative proctocolectomy with ileo-anal anastomosis (RPC-IPAA) procedure performed. The client asks the nurse, "How long do people with this procedure usually have a temporary ileostomy?" How does the nurse respond? A. "It is usually ready to be closed in about 1 to 2 months." B. "This is something that you will have to discuss with your health care provider." C. "The period of time is indefinite—I am sorry that I cannot say." D. "You will probably have it for 6 months or longer, until things heal.

A. The RPC-IPAA has become the most effective alternate method for UC clients who have surgery to remove diseased portions of intestines. Stage 1 creates a temporary ileostomy to be used while an internally created pouch is healing. Stage 2 closes the ileostomy, and the client begins to use the pouch for storage of stool. The time between the surgeries is generally 1 to 2 months. Telling the client that he or she will have to discuss it with the health care provider evades the question; the nurse can give generalities to the client based on past practice and available data. The time that the client has the ileostomy is not "indefinite." The intent of this procedure is to eliminate the need to have a permanent ileostomy. The pouch should heal in 1 to 2 months, not 6 months; this estimate is not based on the expected outcome.

A nurse is teaching a client with Crohn's disease about managing the disease with the drug adalimumab (Humira). Which instruction does the nurse emphasize to the client? A. "Avoid large crowds and anyone who is sick." B. "Do not take the medication if you are allergic to foods with fatty acids." C. "Expect difficulty with wound healing while you are taking this drug." D. "Monitor your blood pressure and report any significant decrease in it."

A. The client should avoid being around large crowds to prevent developing an infection. The client should not take the medication if he or she is allergic to certain proteins. Although immune suppression may occur to some degree, the client should not experience difficulty with wound healing while taking adalimumab. The client should not experience a decrease in blood pressure from taking this drug.

The nurse is instructing a client with recently diagnosed diverticular disease about diet. What food does the nurse suggest the client include? A. A slice of 5-grain bread B. Chuck steak patty (6 ounces) C. Strawberries (1 cup) D. Tomato (1 medium)

A. Whole-grain breads are recommended to be included in the diet of clients with diverticular disease because cellulose and hemicellulose types of fiber are found in them. Dietary fat should be reduced in clients with diverticular disease. If the client wants to eat beef, it should be of a leaner cut. Foods containing seeds, such as strawberries, should be avoided. Tomatoes should be avoided unless the seeds are removed. The seeds may block diverticula in the client and present problems leading to diverticulitis.

A client is in the emergency department with an esophageal trauma. The nurse palpates subcutaneous emphysema in the mediastinal area and up into the lower part of the client's neck. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's oxygenation. b. Facilitate a STAT chest x-ray. c. Prepare for immediate surgery. d. Start two large-bore IVs.

ANS: A The priorities of care are airway, breathing, and circulation. The priority option is to assess oxygenation. This occurs before diagnostic or therapeutic procedures. The client needs two large-bore IVs as a trauma client, but oxygenation comes first.

A nurse cares for a client with ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I feel like I am tied to the toilet. This disease is controlling my life." How should the nurse respond? a. "Let's discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms." b. "If you take the prescribed medications, you will no longer have diarrhea." c. "To decrease distress, do not eat anything before you go out." d. "You must retake control of your life. I will consult a therapist to help."

ANS: A Clients with ulcerative colitis often express that the disorder is disruptive to their lives. Stress factors can increase symptoms. These factors should be identified so that the client will have more control over his or her condition. Prescription medications and anorexia will not eliminate exacerbations. Although a therapist may assist the client, this is not an appropriate response. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1180 KEY: Ulcerative colitis| coping MSC: Integrated Process: Caring NOT: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity

An older client has had an instance of drug toxicity and asks why this happens, since the client has been on this medication for years at the same dose. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Changes in your liver cause drugs to be metabolized differently." b. "Perhaps you don't need as high a dose of the drug as before." c. "Stomach muscles atrophy with age and you digest more slowly." d. "Your body probably can't tolerate as much medication anymore."

ANS: A Decreased liver enzyme activity depresses drug metabolism, which leads to accumulation of drugs—possibly to toxic levels. The other options do not accurately explain this age-related change.

A nurse cares for a client who has obstructive jaundice. The client asks, "Why is my skin so itchy?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Bile salts accumulate in the skin and cause the itching." b. "Toxins released from an inflamed gallbladder lead to itching." c. "Itching is caused by the release of calcium into the skin." d. "Itching is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction."

ANS: A In obstructive jaundice, the normal flow of bile into the duodenum is blocked, allowing excess bile salts to accumulate on the skin. This leads to itching, or pruritus. The other statements are not accurate.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron (Lotronex). Which assessment question should the nurse ask this client? a. "Have you been experiencing any constipation?" b. "Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "What vitamins and supplements are you taking?"

ANS: A Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse should assess the client for constipation. The other questions do not identify complications related to alosetron.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a paracentesis 1 hour ago. Which assessment finding requires action by the nurse? a. Urine output via indwelling urinary catheter is 20 mL/hr b. Blood pressure increases from 110/58 to 120/62 mm Hg c. Respiratory rate decreases from 18 to 14 breaths/min d. A decrease in the client's weight by 6 kg

ANS: A Rapid removal of ascetic fluid causes decreased abdominal pressure, which can contribute to hypovolemia. This can be manifested by a decrease in urine output to below 30 mL/hr. A slight increase in systolic blood pressure is insignificant. A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that breathing has been made easier by the procedure. The nurse would expect the client's weight to drop as fluid is removed. Six kilograms is less than 3 pounds and is expected.

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and the nurse has provided instructions on the bowel cleansing regimen. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It's a good thing I love orange and cherry gelatin." b. "My spouse will be here to drive me home." c. "I should refrigerate the GoLYTELY before use." d. "I will buy a case of Gatorade before the prep."

ANS: A The client should be advised to avoid beverages and gelatin that are red, orange, or purple in color as their residue can appear to be blood. The other statements show a good understanding of the preparation for the procedure.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery. The client reports pain in the shoulder blades. How should the nurse respond? a. "Ambulating in the hallway twice a day will help." b. "I will apply a cold compress to the painful area on your back." c. "Drinking a warm beverage can relieve this referred pain." d. "You should cough and deep breathe every hour."

ANS: A The client who has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy may report free air pain due to retention of carbon dioxide in the abdomen. The nurse assists the client with early ambulation to promote absorption of the carbon dioxide. Cold compresses and drinking a warm beverage would not be helpful. Coughing and deep breathing are important postoperative activities, but they are not related to discomfort from carbon dioxide.

A client has dumping syndrome after a partial gastrectomy. Which action by the nurse would be most helpful? a. Arrange a dietary consult. b. Increase fluid intake. c. Limit the client's foods. d. Make the client NPO.

ANS: A The client with dumping syndrome after a gastrectomy has multiple dietary needs. A referral to the registered dietitian will be extremely helpful. Food and fluid intake is complicated and needs planning. The client should not be NPO.

A nurse cares for a client with hepatopulmonary syndrome who is experiencing dyspnea with oxygen saturations at 92%. The client states, "I do not want to wear the oxygen because it causes my nose to bleed. Get out of my room and leave me alone!" Which action should the nurse take? a. Instruct the client to sit in as upright a position as possible. b. Add humidity to the oxygen and encourage the client to wear it. c. Document the client's refusal, and call the health care provider. d. Contact the provider to request an extra dose of the client's diuretic.

ANS: A The client with hepatopulmonary syndrome is often dyspneic. Because the oxygen saturation is not significantly low, the nurse should first allow the client to sit upright to see if that helps. If the client remains dyspneic, or if the oxygen saturation drops further, the nurse should investigate adding humidity to the oxygen and seeing whether the client will tolerate that. The other two options may be beneficial, but they are not the best choices. If the client is comfortable, his or her agitation will decrease; this will improve respiratory status.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed lactulose (Heptalac). The client states, "I do not want to take this medication because it causes diarrhea." How should the nurse respond? a. "Diarrhea is expected; that's how your body gets rid of ammonia." b. "You may take Kaopectate liquid daily for loose stools." c. "Do not take any more of the medication until your stools firm up." d. "We will need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory."

ANS: A The purpose of administering lactulose to this client is to help ammonia leave the circulatory system through the colon. Lactulose draws water into the bowel with its high osmotic gradient, thereby producing a laxative effect and subsequently evacuating ammonia from the bowel. The client must understand that this is an expected and therapeutic effect for him or her to remain compliant. The nurse should not suggest administering anything that would decrease the excretion of ammonia or holding the medication. There is no need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory because diarrhea is the therapeutic response to this medication.

A nurse teaches a client with hepatitis C who is prescribed ribavirin (Copegus). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge education? a. "Use a pill organizer to ensure you take this medication as prescribed." b. "Transient muscle aching is a common side effect of this medication." c. "Follow up with your provider in 1 week to test your blood for toxicity." d. "Take your radial pulse for 1 minute prior to taking this medication."

ANS: A Treatment of hepatitis C with ribavirin takes up to 48 weeks, making compliance a serious issue. The nurse should work with the client on a strategy to remain compliant for this length of time. Muscle aching is not a common side effect. The client will be on this medication for many weeks and does not need a blood toxicity examination. There is no need for the client to assess his or her radial pulse prior to taking the medication.

The nurse working with older clients understands age-related changes in the gastrointestinal system. Which changes does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased hydrochloric acid production b. Diminished sensation that can lead to constipation c. Fat not digested as well in older adults d. Increased peristalsis in the large intestine e. Pancreatic vessels become calcified

ANS: A, B, C, E Several age-related changes occur in the gastrointestinal system. These include decreased hydrochloric acid production, diminished nerve function that leads to decreased sensation of the need to pass stool, decreased fat digestion, decreased peristalsis in the large intestine, and calcification of pancreatic vessels.

A nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding - Erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation - Localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon - Transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction - Paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula - Dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

ANS: A, B, D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon. DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 1181 KEY: Ulcerative colitis MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Analysis NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

A nurse delegates hygiene care for a client who has advanced cirrhosis to an unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP). Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this task to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) a. "Apply lotion to the client's dry skin areas." b. "Use a basin with warm water to bathe the client." c. "For the client's oral care, use a soft toothbrush." d. "Provide clippers so the client can trim the fingernails." e. "Bathe with antibacterial and water-based soaps."

ANS: A, C, D Clients with advanced cirrhosis often have pruritus. Lotion will help decrease itchiness from dry skin. A soft toothbrush should be used to prevent gum bleeding, and the client's nails should be trimmed short to prevent the client from scratching himself or herself. These clients should use cool, not warm, water on their skin, and should not use excessive amounts of soap.

A client has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage and is prescribed two units of packed red blood cells. What actions should the nurse perform prior to hanging the blood? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask a second nurse to double-check the blood. b. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline. c. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose in water. d. Take and record a set of vital signs. e. Teach the client about reaction manifestations.

ANS: A, B, D, E Prior to starting a blood transfusion, the nurse asks another nurse to double-check the blood (and client identity), primes the IV tubing with normal saline, takes and records a baseline set of vital signs, and teaches the client about manifestations to report. The IV tubing is not primed with dextrose in water.

A nurse assesses a client with peritonitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Distended abdomen b. Inability to pass flatus c. Bradycardia d. Hyperactive bowel sounds e. Decreased urine output

ANS: A, B, E A client with peritonitis may present with a distended abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, inability to pass flatus or feces, tachycardia, and decreased urine output secondary to dehydration. Bradycardia and hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with peritonitis. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 1170 KEY: Inflammatory bowel disorder| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

A nurse assesses a male client who has symptoms of cirrhosis. Which questions should the nurse ask to identify potential factors contributing to this laboratory result? (Select all that apply.) a. "How frequently do you drink alcohol?" b. "Have you ever had sex with a man?" c. "Do you have a family history of cancer?" d. "Have you ever worked as a plumber?" e. "Were you previously incarcerated?"

ANS: A, B, E When assessing a client with suspected cirrhosis, the nurse should ask about alcohol consumption, including amount and frequency; sexual history and orientation (specifically men having sex with men); illicit drug use; history of tattoos; and history of military service, incarceration, or work as a firefighter, police officer, or health care provider. A family history of cancer and work as a plumber do not put the client at risk for cirrhosis.

A nurse plans care for a client who has hepatopulmonary syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Oxygen therapy b. Prone position c. Feet elevated on pillows d. Daily weights e. Physical therapy

ANS: A, C, D Care for a client who has hepatopulmonary syndrome should include oxygen therapy, the head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees or as high as the client wants to improve breathing, elevated feet to decrease dependent edema, and daily weights. There is no need to place the client in a prone position, on the client's stomach. Although physical therapy may be helpful to a client who has been hospitalized for several days, physical therapy is not an intervention specifically for hepatopulmonary syndrome.

An infection control nurse develops a plan to decrease the number of health care professionals who contract viral hepatitis at work. Which ideas should the nurse include in this plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Policies related to consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Hepatitis vaccination mandate for workers in high-risk areas c. Implementation of a needleless system for intravenous therapy d. Number of sharps used in client care reduced where possible e. Postexposure prophylaxis provided in a timely manner

ANS: A, C, D, E Nurses should always use Standard Precautions for client care, and policies should reflect this. Needleless systems and reduction of sharps can help prevent hepatitis. Postexposure prophylaxis should be provided immediately. All health care workers should receive the hepatitis vaccinations that are available.

A nurse plans care for a client who has acute pancreatitis and is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). With which health care team members should the nurse collaborate to provide appropriate nutrition to this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Registered dietitian b. Nursing assistant c. Clinical pharmacist d. Certified herbalist e. Health care provider

ANS: A, C, E Clients who are prescribed NPO while experiencing an acute pancreatitis episode may need enteral or parenteral nutrition. The nurse should collaborate with the registered dietitian, clinical pharmacist, and health care provider to plan and implement the more appropriate nutritional interventions. The nursing assistant and certified herbalist would not assist with this clinical decision.

A client has dumping syndrome. What menu selections indicate the client understands the correct diet to manage this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Canned unsweetened apricots b. Coffee cake c. Milk shake d. Potato soup e. Steamed broccoli

ANS: A, D Canned apricots and potato soup are appropriate selections as they are part of a high-protein, high-fat, low- to moderate-carbohydrate diet. Coffee cake and other sweets must be avoided. Milk products and sweet drinks such as shakes must be avoided. Gas-forming foods such as broccoli must also be avoided.

A client has been taught about alginic acid and sodium bicarbonate (Gaviscon). What statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? a. "I can only take this medicine at night." b. "I should take this on a full stomach." c. "This drug decreases stomach acid." d. "This should be taken 1 hour before meals."

ANS: B Gaviscon should be taken with food in the stomach. It can be taken with meals at any time. Its mechanism of action is not to decrease stomach acid.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized for botulism. The client's vital signs are temperature: 99.8° F (37.6° C), heart rate: 100 beats/min, respiratory rate: 10 breaths/min, and blood pressure: 100/62 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take? a. Decrease stimulation and allow the client to rest. b. Stay with the client while another nurse calls the provider. c. Increase the client's intravenous fluid replacement rate. d. Check the client's blood glucose and administer orange juice.

ANS: B A client with botulism is at risk for respiratory failure. This client's respiratory rate is slow, which could indicate impending respiratory distress or failure. The nurse should remain with the client while another nurse notifies the provider. The nurse should monitor and document the IV infusion per protocol, but this client does not require additional intravenous fluids. Allowing the client to rest or checking the client's blood glucose and administering orange juice are not appropriate actions. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1191 KEY: Inflammatory bowel disorder| respiratory distress/failure MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Analysis NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab (Humira) for severe ulcerative colitis, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I must wash my hands after I play with my dog."

ANS: B Adalimumab (Humira) is an immune modulator that must be given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1183 KEY: Ulcerative colitis| medication safety MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A nurse plans care for a client with Crohn's disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention should the nurse indicate as the priority action in this client's plan of care? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

ANS: B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a client who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn's disease includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1181 KEY: Crohn's disease| bowel care MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

After teaching a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "Drinking at least 2 liters of water each day is suggested." b. "I will decrease the amount of fatty foods in my diet." c. "Drinking fluids with my meals will increase bloating." d. "I will avoid concentrated sweets and simple carbohydrates."

ANS: B After cholecystectomy, clients need a nutritious diet without a lot of excess fat; otherwise a special diet is not recommended for most clients. Good fluid intake is healthy for all people but is not related to the surgery. Drinking fluids between meals helps with dumping syndrome, which is not seen with this procedure. Restriction of sweets is not required.

A nurse cares for a client with hepatitis C. The client's brother states, "I do not want to contract this infection, so I will not go into his hospital room." How should the nurse respond? a. "If you wear a gown and gloves, you will not get this virus." b. "Viral hepatitis is not spread through casual contact." c. "This virus is only transmitted through a fecal specimen." d. "I can give you an update on your brother's status from here."

ANS: B Although family members may be afraid that they will contract hepatitis C, the nurse should educate the client's family about how the virus is spread. Viral hepatitis, or hepatitis C, is spread via blood-to-blood transmission and is associated with illicit IV drug needle sharing, blood and organ transplantation, accidental needle sticks, unsanitary tattoo equipment, and sharing of intranasal cocaine paraphernalia. Wearing a gown and gloves will not decrease the transmission of this virus. Hepatitis C is not spread through casual contact or a fecal specimen. The nurse would be violating privacy laws by sharing the client's status with the brother.

A client who has been taking antibiotics reports severe, watery diarrhea. About which test does the nurse teach the client? a. Colonoscopy b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) toxin A+B c. Ova and parasites d. Stool culture

ANS: B Clients taking antibiotics are at risk for Clostridium difficile infection. The most common test for this disorder is a stool sample for ELISA toxin A+B. Colonoscopy, ova and parasites, and stool culture are not warranted at this time.

After teaching a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client correctly understands the dietary teaching? a. Ham sandwich on white bread, cup of applesauce, glass of diet cola b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice c. Grilled cheese sandwich, small banana, cup of hot tea with lemon d. Baked tilapia, fresh green beans, cup of coffee with low-fat milk

ANS: B Clients with IBS are advised to eat a high-fiber diet (30 to 40 g/day), with 8 to 10 cups of liquid daily. Chicken with brown rice, broccoli, and apple juice has the highest fiber content. They should avoid alcohol, caffeine, and other gastric irritants.

A telehealth nurse speaks with a client who is recovering from a liver transplant 2 weeks ago. The client states, "I am experiencing right flank pain and have a temperature of 101° F." How should the nurse respond? a. "The anti-rejection drugs you are taking make you susceptible to infection." b. "You should go to the hospital immediately to have your new liver checked out." c. "You should take an additional dose of cyclosporine today." d. "Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours until you feel better."

ANS: B Fever, right quadrant or flank pain, and jaundice are signs of liver transplant rejection; the client should be admitted to the hospital as soon as possible for intervention. Anti-rejection drugs do make a client more susceptible to infection, but this client has signs of rejection, not infection. The nurse should not advise the client to take an additional dose of cyclosporine or acetaminophen as these medications will not treat the acute rejection.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client after a motor vehicle crash and notes ecchymotic areas across the client's lower abdomen. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Measure the client's abdominal girth. b. Assess for abdominal guarding or rigidity. c. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. d. Obtain the client's complete health history.

ANS: B On noticing the ecchymotic areas, the nurse should check to see if abdominal guarding or rigidity is present, because this could indicate major organ injury. The nurse should then notify the provider. Measuring abdominal girth or obtaining a complete health history is not appropriate at this time. Laboratory test results can be checked after assessment for abdominal guarding or rigidity.

The nurse knows that a client with prolonged prothrombin time (PT) values (not related to medication) probably has dysfunction in which organ? a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Spleen d. Stomach

ANS: B Severe acute or chronic liver damage leads to a prolonged PT secondary to impaired synthesis of clotting proteins. The other organs are not related to this issue.

A nurse plans care for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to reduce discomfort? a. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed. b. Maintain nothing by mouth (NPO) and administer intravenous fluids. c. Provide small, frequent feedings with no concentrated sweets. d. Place the client in semi-Fowler's position with the head of bed elevated.

ANS: B The client should be kept NPO to reduce GI activity and reduce pancreatic enzyme production. IV fluids should be used to prevent dehydration. The client may need a nasogastric tube. Pain medications should be given around the clock and more frequently than every 4 to 6 hours. A fetal position with legs drawn up to the chest will promote comfort.

A client is recovering from an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and requests something to drink. What action by the nurse is best? a. Allow the client cool liquids only. b. Assess the client's gag reflex. c. Remind the client to remain NPO. d. Tell the client to wait 4 hours.

ANS: B The local anesthetic used during this procedure will depress the client's gag reflex. After the procedure, the nurse should ensure that the gag reflex is intact before offering food or fluids. The client does not need to be restricted to cool beverages only and is not required to wait 4 hours before oral intake is allowed. Telling the client to remain NPO does not inform the client of when he or she can have fluids, nor does it reflect the client's readiness for them

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) after a cholecystectomy. The client states, "When I wake up I am in pain." Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer intravenous morphine while the client sleeps. b. Encourage the client to use the PCA pump upon awakening. c. Contact the provider and request a different analgesic. d. Ask a family member to initiate the PCA pump for the client

ANS: B The nurse should encourage the client to use the PCA pump prior to napping and upon awakening. Administering additional intravenous morphine while the client sleeps places the client at risk for respiratory depression. The nurse should also evaluate dosages received compared with dosages requested and contact the provider if the dose or frequency is not adequate. Only the client should push the pain button on a PCA pump.

After teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hepatitis A, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis A." b. "I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend." c. "I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion." d. "My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A."

ANS: B The route of acquisition of hepatitis A infection is through close personal contact or ingestion of contaminated water or shellfish. Hepatitis A is not transmitted through medications, blood transfusions, or Epstein-Barr virus. Toxic and drug-induced hepatitis is caused from exposure to hepatotoxins, but this is not a form of hepatitis A. Hepatitis B can be spread through blood transfusions. Epstein-Barr virus causes a secondary infection that is not associated with hepatitis A.

A student nurse is providing care to an older client with stomatitis and dysphagia. What action by the student nurse requires the registered nurse to intervene? a. Assisting the client to perform oral care every 2 hours b. Preparing to administer a viscous lidocaine gargle c. Reminding the client not to swallow nystatin (Mycostatin) d. Teaching the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush

ANS: B Viscous lidocaine gargles or mouthwashes are sometimes prescribed for clients with stomatitis and pain. However, the numbing effect can lead to choking or mouth burns from hot food. This client already has difficulty swallowing, so this medication is not appropriate. Therefore, the nurse should intervene when the student prepares to administer this preparation. The other options are correct actions.

A nurse collaborates with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide care for a client who is in the healing phase of acute pancreatitis. Which statements focused on nutritional requirements should the nurse include when delegating care for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not allow the client to eat between meals." b. "Make sure the client receives a protein shake." c. "Do not allow caffeine-containing beverages." d. "Make sure the foods are bland with little spice." e. "Do not allow high-carbohydrate food items."

ANS: B, C, D During the healing phase of pancreatitis, the client should be provided small, frequent, moderate- to high-carbohydrate, high-protein, low-fat meals. Protein shakes can be provided to supplement the diet. Foods and beverages should not contain caffeine and should be bland.

The nurse working with clients who have gastrointestinal problems knows that which laboratory values are related to what organ dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.) a. Alanine aminotransferase: biliary system b. Ammonia: liver c. Amylase: liver d. Lipase: pancreas e. Urine urobilinogen: stomach

ANS: B, D Alanine aminotransferase and ammonia are related to the liver. Amylase and lipase are related to the pancreas. Urobilinogen evaluates both hepatic and biliary function.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client with potential liver trauma. Which clinical manifestations should alert the nurse to internal bleeding and hypovolemic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Tachycardia c. Flushed skin d. Confusion e. Shallow respirations

ANS: B, D Symptoms of hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock include hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, pallor, diaphoresis, cool and clammy skin, and confusion

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from acute pancreatitis. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Take a 20-minute walk at least 5 days each week." b. "Attend local Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings weekly." c. "Choose whole grains rather than foods with simple sugars." d. "Use cooking spray when you cook rather than margarine or butter." e. "Stay away from milk and dairy products that contain lactose." f. "We can talk to your doctor about a prescription for nicotine patches."

ANS: B, D, F The client should be advised to stay sober, and AA is a great resource. The client requires a low-fat diet, and cooking spray is low in fat compared with butter or margarine. If the client smokes, he or she must stop because nicotine can precipitate an exacerbation. A nicotine patch may help the client quit smoking. The client must rest until his or her strength returns. The client requires high carbohydrates and calories for healing; complex carbohydrates are not preferred over simple ones. Dairy products do not cause a problem.

A nurse assesses a client who has liver disease. Which laboratory findings should the nurse recognize as potentially causing complications of this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated aspartate transaminase b. Elevated international normalized ratio (INR) c. Decreased serum globulin levels d. Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase e. Elevated serum ammonia f. Elevated prothrombin time (PT)

ANS: B, E, F Elevated INR and PT are indications of clotting disturbances and alert the nurse to the increased possibility of hemorrhage. Elevated ammonia levels increase the client's confusion. The other values are abnormal and associated with liver disease but do not necessarily place the client at increased risk for complications.

A nurse works on the surgical unit. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client who underwent diverticula removal with a pulse of 106/min b. Client who had esophageal dilation and is attempting first postprocedure oral intake c. Client who had an esophagectomy with a respiratory rate of 32/min d. Client who underwent hernia repair, reporting incisional pain of 7/10

ANS: C The client who had an esophagectomy has a respiratory rate of 32/min, which is an early sign of sepsis; this client needs to be assessed first. The client who underwent diverticula removal has a pulse that is out of the normal range (106/min), but not terribly so. The client reporting pain needs pain medication, but the client with the elevated respiratory rate needs investigation first. The nurse should see the client who had esophageal dilation prior to and during the first attempt at oral feedings, but this can wait until the other clients are cared for.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

ANS: C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client should have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this client than heart rate and rhythm. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1172 KEY: Ulcerative colitis| hydration MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed mesalamine (Asacol) for ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I am having trouble swallowing this pill." Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the clinical pharmacist and request the medication in suspension form. b. Empty the contents of the capsule into applesauce or pudding for administration. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe the medication as an enema instead. d. Crush the pill carefully and administer it in applesauce or pudding.

ANS: C Asacol is the oral formula for mesalamine and is produced as an enteric-coated pill that should not be crushed, chewed, or broken. Asacol is not available as a suspension or elixir. If the client is unable to swallow the Asacol pill, a mesalamine enema (Rowasa) may be administered instead, with a provider's order. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1176 KEY: Ulcerative colitis| medication safety MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Positive Murphy's sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn's disease. A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohn's disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn's disease. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1182 KEY: Crohn's disease| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Analysis NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

A nurse prepares a client for a colonoscopy scheduled for tomorrow. The client states, "My doctor told me that the fecal occult blood test was negative for colon cancer. I don't think I need the colonoscopy and would like to cancel it." How should the nurse respond? a. "Your doctor should not have given you that information prior to the colonoscopy." b. "The colonoscopy is required due to the high percentage of false negatives with the blood test." c. "A negative fecal occult blood test does not rule out the possibility of colon cancer." d. "I will contact your doctor so that you can discuss your concerns about the procedure."

ANS: C A negative result from a fecal occult blood test does not completely rule out the possibility of colon cancer. To determine whether the client has colon cancer, a colonoscopy should be performed so the entire colon can be visualized and a tissue sample taken for biopsy. The client may want to speak with the provider, but the nurse should address the client's concerns prior to contacting the provider.

A client had a colonoscopy and biopsy yesterday and calls the gastrointestinal clinic to report a spot of bright red blood on the toilet paper today. What response by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client to call back if this happens again today. b. Instruct the client to go to the emergency department. c. Remind the client that a small amount of bleeding is possible. d. Tell the client to come in to the clinic this afternoon.

ANS: C After a colonoscopy with biopsy, a small amount of bleeding is normal. The nurse should remind the client of this and instruct him or her to go to the emergency department for large amounts of bleeding, severe pain, or dizziness.

A nurse cares for a client who has chronic cirrhosis from substance abuse. The client states, "All of my family hates me." How should the nurse respond? a. "You should make peace with your family." b. "This is not unusual. My family hates me too." c. "I will help you identify a support system." d. "You must attend Alcoholics Anonymous."

ANS: C Clients who have chronic cirrhosis may have alienated relatives over the years because of substance abuse. The nurse should assist the client to identify a friend, neighbor, or person in his or her recovery group for support. The nurse should not minimize the client's concerns by brushing off the client's comment. Attending AA may be appropriate, but this response doesn't address the client's concern. Making peace with the client's family may not be possible. This statement is not client-centered.

A client is having an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and has been given midazolam hydrochloride (Versed). The client's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min. What action by the nurse is best? a. Administer naloxone (Narcan). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide physical stimulation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask.

ANS: C For an EGD, clients are given mild sedation but should still be able to follow commands. For shallow or slow respirations after the sedation is given, the nurse's first action is to provide a physical stimulation such as a sternal rub and directions to breathe deeply. Naloxone is not the antidote for Versed. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client does not need manual ventilation.

A nurse assesses a client who has cholecystitis. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the condition is chronic rather than acute? a. Temperature of 100.1° F (37.8° C) b. Positive Murphy's sign c. Light-colored stools d. Upper abdominal pain after eating

ANS: C Jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine are more commonly seen with chronic cholecystitis. The other symptoms are seen equally with both chronic and acute cholecystitis.

A nurse cares for a client with acute pancreatitis. The client states, "I am hungry." How should the nurse reply? a. "Is your stomach rumbling or do you have bowel sounds?" b. "I need to check your gag reflex before you can eat." c. "Have you passed any flatus or moved your bowels?" d. "You will not be able to eat until the pain subsides."

ANS: C Paralytic ileus is a common complication of acute pancreatitis. The client should not eat until this has resolved. Bowel sounds and decreased pain are not reliable indicators of peristalsis. Instead, the nurse should assess for passage of flatus or bowel movement.

After teaching a client who has plans to travel to a non-industrialized country, the nurse assesses the client's understanding regarding the prevention of viral hepatitis. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I should drink bottled water during my travels." b. "I will not eat off another's plate or share utensils." c. "I should eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables." d. "I will wash my hands frequently and thoroughly."

ANS: C The client should be advised to avoid fresh, raw fruits and vegetables because they can be contaminated by tap water. Drinking bottled water, and not sharing plates, glasses, or eating utensils are good ways to prevent illness, as is careful handwashing.

After teaching a client who is prescribed pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "The capsules can be opened and the powder sprinkled on applesauce if needed." b. "I will wipe my lips carefully after I drink the enzyme preparation." c. "The best time to take the enzymes is immediately after I have a meal or a snack." d. "I will not mix the enzyme powder with food or liquids that contain protein."

ANS: C The enzymes should be taken immediately before eating meals or snacks. If the client cannot swallow the capsules whole, they can be opened up and the powder sprinkled on applesauce, mashed fruit, or rice cereal. The client should wipe his or her lips carefully after drinking the enzyme preparation because the liquid could damage the skin. Protein items will be dissolved by the enzymes if they are mixed together.

A client with peptic ulcer disease is in the emergency department and reports the pain has gotten much worse over the last several days. The client's blood pressure when lying down was 122/80 mm Hg and when standing was 98/52 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer ibuprofen (Motrin). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Start a large-bore IV with normal saline. d. Tell the client to remain lying down.

ANS: C This client has orthostatic changes to the blood pressure, indicating fluid volume loss. The nurse should start a large-bore IV with isotonic solution. Ibuprofen will exacerbate the ulcer. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client should be put on safety precautions, which includes staying in bed, but this is not the priority.

A nurse cares for a client who is hemorrhaging from bleeding esophageal varices and has an esophagogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Sedate the client to prevent tube dislodgement. b. Maintain balloon pressure at 15 and 20 mm Hg. c. Irrigate the gastric lumen with normal saline. d. Assess the client for airway patency.

ANS: D Maintaining airway patency is the primary nursing intervention for this client. The nurse suctions oral secretions to prevent aspiration and occlusion of the airway. The client usually is intubated and mechanically ventilated during this treatment. The client should be sedated, balloon pressure should be maintained between 15 and 20 mm Hg, and the lumen can be irrigated with saline or tap water. However, these are not a higher priority than airway patency.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed an infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) for bleeding esophageal varices. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to a serious adverse effect? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Frontal headache c. Vertigo and syncope d. Mid-sternal chest pain

ANS: D Mid-sternal chest pain is indicative of acute angina or myocardial infarction, which can be precipitated by vasopressin. Nausea and vomiting, headache, and vertigo and syncope are not side effects of vasopressin.

The nurse is preparing to insert a patient's ordered NG tube. What factor should the nurse recognize as a risk for incorrect placement? A) The patient is obese and has a "short neck." B) The patient is agitated. C) The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D) The patient is being treated for pneumonia.

B Feedback: Inappropriate placement may occur in patients with decreased levels of consciousness, confused mental states, poor or absent cough and gag reflexes, or agitation during insertion. A "short neck," GERD, and pneumonia are not linked to incorrect placement.

A patient is postoperative day 1 following gastrostomy. The nurse is planning interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection Related to Presence of Wound and Tube. What intervention is most appropriate? A) Administer antibiotics via the tube as ordered. B) Wash the area around the tube with soap and water daily. C) Cleanse the skin within 2 cm of the insertion site with hydrogen peroxide once per shift. D) Irrigate the skin surrounding the insertion site with normal saline before each use.

B Feedback: Infection can be prevented by keeping the skin near the insertion site clean using soap and water. Hydrogen peroxide is not used, due to associated skin irritation. The skin around the site is not irrigated with normal saline and antibiotics are not administered to prevent site infection.

A female patient has presented to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain; the physician has ordered abdominal ultrasound to rule out cholecystitis (gallbladder infection). The patient expresses concern to the nurse about the safety of this diagnostic procedure. How should the nurse best respond? A) "Abdominal ultrasound is very safe, but it can't be performed if you're pregnant." B) "Abdominal ultrasound poses no known safety risks of any kind." C) "Current guidelines state that a person can have up to 3 ultrasounds per year." D) "Current guidelines state that a person can have up to 6 ultrasounds per year."

B) "Abdominal ultrasound poses no known safety risks of any kind." Feedback: An ultrasound produces no ill effects and there are not specific limits on its use, even during pregnancy.

A patient's sigmoidoscopy has been successfully completed and the patient is preparing to return home. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include in the patient's discharge education? A) The patient should drink at least 2 liters of fluid in the next 12 hours. B) The patient can resume a normal routine immediately. C) The patient should expect fecal urgency for several hours. D) The patient can expect some scant rectal bleeding.

B) The patient can resume a normal routine immediately. Feedback: Following sigmoidoscopy, patients can resume their regular activities and diet. There is no need to push fluids and neither fecal urgency nor rectal bleeding is expected.

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with a suspected GI bleed. The nurse assesses the patient's stool after a bowel movement and notes it to be a tarry-black color. This finding is suggestive of bleeding from what location? A) Sigmoid colon B) Upper GI tract C) Large intestine D) Anus or rectum

B) Upper GI tract Feedback: Blood shed in sufficient quantities in the upper GI tract will produce a tarry-black color (melena). Blood entering the lower portion of the GI tract or passing rapidly through it will appear bright or dark red. Lower rectal or anal bleeding is suspected if there is streaking of blood on the surface of the stool or if blood is noted on toilet tissue.

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a suspected malabsorption disorder. The nurse knows that one of the accessory organs of the digestive system is the pancreas. What digestive enzymes does the pancreas secrete? Select all that apply. A) Pepsin B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Trypsin E) Ptyalin

B, C, D Feedback: Digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas include trypsin, which aids in digesting protein; amylase, which aids in digesting starch; and lipase, which aids in digesting fats. Pepsin is secreted by the stomach and ptyalin is secreted in the saliva.

A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The patient's care plan should include nursing actions relevant to what potential complications? Select all that apply. A) Dumping syndrome B) Clotted or displaced catheter C) Pneumothorax D) Hyperglycemia E) Line sepsis

B, C, D, E Feedback: Common complications of PN include a clotted or displaced catheter, pneumothorax, hyperglycemia, and infection from the venous access device (line sepsis). Dumping syndrome applies to enteral nutrition, not PN.

A client has vague symptoms that indicate an acute inflammatory bowel disorder. Which symptom is most indicative of Crohn's disease (CD)? A. Abdominal pain relieved by bending the knees B. Chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever C. Epigastric cramping D. Hypotension with vomiting

B. Chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever are symptoms more indicative of CD than of other acute inflammatory bowel disorders. Abdominal pain that is relieved by bending the knees is indicative of peritonitis or pancreatitis. Epigastric cramping is a symptom more indicative of appendicitis. Hypotension with vomiting is not characteristic of CD.

Which is a correct statement differentiating Crohn's disease (CD) from ulcerative colitis (UC)? A. Clients with CD experience about 20 loose, bloody stools daily. B. Clients with UC may experience hemorrhage. C. The peak incidence of UC is between 15 and 40 years of age. D. Very few complications are associated with CD.

B. Hemorrhage is commonly experienced by clients with UC. Five to six stools daily is common with CD. The peak incidences of UC are between 15 to 25 and 55 to 65 years of age. Fistulas commonly occur as a complication of CD.

Which client does the charge nurse assign to an experienced LPN/LVN? A. A 28-year-old who requires teaching about how to catheterize a Kock ileostomy B. A 30-year-old who must receive neomycin sulfate (Mycifradin) before a colectomy C. A 34-year-old with ulcerative colitis (UC) who has a white blood cell count of 23,000/mm3 D. A 38-year-old with gastroenteritis who is receiving IV fluids at 250 mL/hr

B. The LPN/LVN should be familiar with the purpose, adverse effects, and client teaching required for neomycin. Teaching about how to catheterize a Kock ileostomy, assessing the client with UC with a high white blood cell count, and monitoring the client with gastroenteritis receiving IV fluids present complex problems that require assessment or intervention by an RN.

A nurse is teaching a client about dietary methods to help manage exacerbations ("flare-ups") of diverticulitis. What does the nurse advise the client? A. "Be sure to maintain an exclusively low-fiber diet to prevent pain on defecation." B. "Consume a low-fiber diet while your diverticulitis is active. When inflammation resolves, consume a high-fiber diet." C. "Maintain a high-fiber diet to prevent the development of hemorrhoids that frequently accompany this condition." D. "Make sure you consume a high-fiber diet while diverticulitis is active. When inflammation resolves, consume a low-fiber diet."

B. The most effective way to manage diverticulitis is with a low-fiber diet while inflammation is present, followed by a high-fiber diet once the inflammation has subsided. Neither an exclusively low-fiber diet or an exclusively high-fiber diet will effectively manage diverticulitis. A high-fiber diet while diverticulitis is active will only worsen the disease and its symptoms.

The RN receives a change-of-shift report about four clients. Which client does the nurse assess first? A. A 20-year-old with ulcerative colitis (UC) who had six liquid stools during the previous shift B. A 25-year-old who has just been admitted with possible appendicitis and has a temperature of 102° F C. A 56-year-old who had a colon resection earlier in the day and whose colostomy bag does not have any stool in it D. A 60-year-old admitted with acute gastroenteritis who is reporting severe cramping and nausea

B. This client with possible appendicitis may have developed a perforation and may be at risk for peritonitis. Rapid assessment and possible surgical intervention are needed. The client with UC who had six liquid stools, the client whose colostomy bag does not have any stool in it, and the client who was admitted with acute gastroenteritis all need assessment and intervention by an RN, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications. The client with possible appendicitis has a life-threatening emergency.

After teaching a client who has alcohol-induced cirrhosis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I cannot drink any alcohol at all anymore." b. "I need to avoid protein in my diet." c. "I should not take over-the-counter medications." d. "I should eat small, frequent, balanced meals."

Based on the degree of liver involvement and decreased function, protein intake may have to be decreased. However, some protein is necessary for the synthesis of albumin and normal healing. The other statements indicate accurate understanding of self-care measures for this client

You are caring for a patient who was admitted to have a low-profile gastrostomy device (LPGD) placed. How soon after the original gastrostomy tube placement can an LPGD be placed? A) 2 weeks B) 4 to 6 weeks C) 2 to 3 months D) 4 to 6 months

C Feedback: An alternative to the PEG device is a low-profile gastrostomy device (LPGD). LPGDs may be inserted 2 to 3 months after initial gastrostomy tube placement.

A patient receiving tube feedings is experiencing diarrhea. The nurse and the physician suspect that the patient is experiencing dumping syndrome. What intervention is most appropriate? A) Stop the tube feed and aspirate stomach contents. B) Increase the hourly feed rate so it finishes earlier. C) Dilute the concentration of the feeding solution. D) Administer fluid replacement by IV

C Feedback: Dumping syndrome can generally be alleviated by starting with a dilute solution and then increasing the concentration of the solution over several days. Fluid replacement may be necessary but does not prevent or treat dumping syndrome. There is no need to aspirate stomach contents. Increasing the rate will exacerbate the problem.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this patient? A) The patient's bowel movements maintain a loose consistency. B) The patient is able to tolerate three large meals a day. C) The patient maintains or gains weight. D) The patient consumes a diet high in calcium.

C Feedback: Expected outcomes for the patient following gastric surgery include ensuring that the patient is maintaining or gaining weight (patient should be weighed daily), experiencing no excessive diarrhea, and tolerating six small meals a day. Patients may require vitamin B12 supplementation by the intramuscular route and do not require a diet excessively rich in calcium.

A patient who suffered a stroke had an NG tube inserted to facilitate feeding shortly after admission. The patient has since become comatose and the patient's family asks the nurse why the physician is recommending the removal of the patient's NG tube and the insertion of a gastrostomy tube. What is the nurse's best response? A) It eliminates the risk for infection. B) Feeds can be infused at a faster rate. C) Regurgitation and aspiration are less likely. D) It allows caregivers to provide personal hygiene more easily.

C Feedback: Gastrostomy is preferred over NG feedings in the patient who is comatose because the gastroesophageal sphincter remains intact, making regurgitation and aspiration less likely than with NG feedings. Both tubes carry a risk for infection; this change in care is not motivated by the possibility of faster infusion or easier personal care.

A nurse is participating in a patient's care conference and the team is deciding between parenteral nutrition (PN) and a total nutritional admixture (TNA). What advantages are associated with providing TNA rather than PN? A) TNA can be mixed by a certified registered nurse. B) TNA can be administered over 8 hours, while PN requires 24-hour administration. C) TNA is less costly than PN. D) TNA does not require the use of a micron filter.

C Feedback: TNA is mixed in one container and administered to the patient over a 24-hour period. A 1.5-micron filter is used with the TNA solution. Advantages of the TNA over PN include cost savings. Pharmacy staff must prepare both solutions.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse knows that the indications for starting parenteral nutrition (PN) for this patient are what? A) 5% deficit in body weight compared to preillness weight and increased caloric need B) Calorie deficit and muscle wasting combined with low electrolyte levels C) Inability to take in adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days D) Significant risk of aspiration coupled with decreased level of consciousness

C Feedback: The indications for PN include an inability to ingest adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days. Weight loss, muscle wasting combined with electrolyte imbalances, and aspiration indicate a need for nutritional support, but this does not necessary have to be parenteral.

Prior to a patient's scheduled jejunostomy, the nurse is performing the preoperative assessment. What goal should the nurse prioritize during the preoperative assessment? A) Determining the patient's nutritional needs B) Determining that the patient fully understands the postoperative care required C) Determining the patient's ability to understand and cooperate with the procedure D) Determining the patient's ability to cope with an altered body image

C Feedback: The major focus of the preoperative assessment is to determine the patient's ability both to understand and cooperate with the procedure. Body image, nutritional needs, and postoperative care are all important variables, but they are not the main focuses of assessment during the immediate preoperative period.

A nurse is providing preprocedure education for a patient who will undergo a lower GI tract study the following week. What should the nurse teach the patient about bowel preparation? A) "You'll need to fast for at least 18 hours prior to your test." B) "Starting today, take over-the-counter stool softeners twice daily." C) "You'll need to have enemas the day before the test." D) "For 24 hours before the test, insert a glycerin suppository every 4 hours."

C) "You'll need to have enemas the day before the test." Feedback: Preparation of the patient includes emptying and cleansing the lower bowel. This often necessitates a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the test; a clear liquid diet and a laxative the evening before; NPO after midnight; and cleansing enemas until returns are clear the following morning.

The nurse is providing health education to a patient scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should explain that she will be placed in what position during this diagnostic test? A) In a knee-chest position (lithotomy position) B) Lying prone with legs drawn toward the chest C) Lying on the left side with legs drawn toward the chest D) In a prone position with two pillows elevating the buttocks

C) Lying on the left side with legs drawn toward the chest Feedback: For best visualization, colonoscopy is performed while the patient is lying on the left side with the legs drawn up toward the chest. A knee-chest position, lying on the stomach with legs drawn to the chest, and a prone position with two pillows elevating the legs do not allow for the best visualization.

A client admitted with severe diarrhea is experiencing skin breakdown from frequent stools. What is an important comfort measure for this client? A. Applying hydrocortisone cream B. Cleaning the area with soap and hot water C. Using sitz baths three times daily D. Wearing absorbent cotton underwear

C. Clients with skin breakdown may use sitz baths for comfort 2 or 3 times daily. Barrier creams, not hydrocortisone creams, may be used. The skin should be cleaned gently with soap and warm water. Absorbent cotton underwear helps keep the skin dry, but is not a comfort measure.

A client has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC). What does the nurse teach the client about diet and lifestyle choices? A. "Drinking carbonated beverages will help with your abdominal distress." B. "It's OK to smoke cigarettes, but you should limit them to ½ pack per day." C. "Lactose-containing foods should be reduced or eliminated from your diet." D. "Raw vegetables and high-fiber foods may help to diminish your symptoms."

C. Lactose-containing foods are often poorly tolerated and should be reduced or eliminated from the diet of clients with UC. Carbonated beverages are GI stimulants that can cause discomfort and should be used rarely or completely eliminated from the diet. Cigarette smoking is a stimulant that can cause GI distress symptoms; nurses should never advise clients that any amount of cigarette smoking is "OK." Raw vegetables and high-fiber foods can cause GI symptoms in clients with UC.

A home health client has had severe diarrhea for the past 24 hours. Which nursing action does the RN delegate to the home health aide (unlicensed assistive personnel [UAP]) who assists the client with self-care? A. Instructing the client about the use of electrolyte-containing oral rehydration products B. Administering loperamide (Imodium) 4 mg from the client's medicine cabinet C. Checking and reporting the client's heart rate and blood pressure in lying, sitting, and standing positions D. Teaching the client how to clean the perineal area after each loose stool

C. Obtaining the client's blood pressure and heart rate is included in the education of home health aides and other UAP. Client teaching and medication administration are complex skills that should be performed by licensed nurses who have the education and scope of practice needed to safely implement these actions.

A client with ulcerative colitis is prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) and corticosteroid therapy. As the disease improves, what change does the nurse expect in the client's medication regimen? A. Corticosteroid therapy will be stopped. B. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) will be stopped. C. Corticosteroid therapy will be tapered. D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) will be tapered.

C. Once clinical improvement has been established, corticosteroids are tapered over a 2- to 3-month period. Stopping corticosteroid therapy abruptly is unsafe—steroids must be gradually decreased in clients. Usually the amount that they have been taking dictates how quickly or slowly they can be stopped. Sulfasalazine therapy will be taken on a long-term basis. It may be increased or decreased, depending on the client's symptoms, but will likely never be stopped. These decisions are made over a long period of therapy.

An obese client is discharged 10 days after being hospitalized for peritonitis, which resulted in an exploratory laparotomy. Which assessment finding by the client's home health nurse requires immediate action? A. Pain when coughing B. States, "I am too tired to walk very much" C. States, "I feel like the incision is splitting open" D. Temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C).

C. The client feeling like the incision is splitting open is at risk for poor wound healing and possible wound dehiscence; the nurse should immediately assess the wound and notify the health care provider. Reports of pain when coughing, being too tired to ambulate, and a temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C) all require further assessment or intervention, but are not as great a concern as the possibility of wound dehiscence for this client.

A client returns to the unit after having an exploratory abdominal laparotomy. How does the nurse position this client after the client is situated in bed? A. High Fowler's B. Lateral Sims' (side-lying) C. Semi-Fowler's D. Supine

C. The client is maintained in semi-Fowler's position to facilitate the drainage of peritoneal contents into the lower region of the abdominal cavity after an abdominal laparotomy. This position also helps increase lung expansion. High-Fowler's position would be too high for the client postoperatively; it would place strain on the abdominal incision(s), and, if the client was still drowsy from anesthesia, this position would not enhance the client's ability to rest. Sims' position does not promote drainage to the lower abdomen. The supine position does not facilitate drainage to the abdomen or increased lung expansion; the client would be more likely to develop complications (wound drainage stasis and atelectasis) in this position.

A patient with dysphagia is scheduled for PEG tube insertion and asks the nurse how the tube will stay in place. What is the nurse's best response? A) Adhesive holds a flange in place against the abdominal skin. B) A stitch holds the tube in place externally. C) The tube is stitched to the abdominal skin externally and the stomach wall internally. D) An internal retention disc secures the tube against the stomach wall.

D Feedback: A PEG tube is held in place by an internal retention disc (flange) that holds it against the stomach wall. It is not held in place by stitches or adhesives.

A patient with a peptic ulcer disease has had metronidazole (Flagyl) added to his current medication regimen. What health education related to this medication should the nurse provide? A) Take the medication on an empty stomach. B) Take up to one extra dose per day if stomach pain persists. C) Take at bedtime to mitigate the effects of drowsiness. D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

D Feedback: Alcohol must be avoided when taking Flagyl and the medication should be taken with food. This drug does not cause drowsiness and the dose should not be adjusted by the patient.

A nurse is preparing to administer a patient's scheduled parenteral nutrition (PN). Upon inspecting the bag, the nurse notices that the presence of small amounts of white precipitate are present in the bag. What is the nurse's best action? A) Recognize this as an expected finding. B) Place the bag in a warm environment for 30 minutes. C) Shake the bag vigorously for 10 to 20 seconds. D) Contact the pharmacy to obtain a new bag of PN.

D Feedback: Before PN infusion is administered, the solution must be inspected for separation, oily appearance (also known as a "cracked solution"), or any precipitate (which appears as white crystals). If any of these are present, it is not used. Warming or shaking the bag is inappropriate and unsafe.

A patient has experienced symptoms of dumping syndrome following bariatric surgery. To what physiologic phenomenon does the nurse attribute this syndrome? A) Irritation of the phrenic nerve due to diaphragmatic pressure B) Chronic malabsorption of iron and vitamins A and C C) Reflux of bile into the distal esophagus D) A sudden release of peptides

D Feedback: For many years, it had been theorized that the hypertonic gastric food boluses that quickly transit into the intestines drew extracellular fluid from the circulating blood volume into the small intestines to dilute the high concentration of electrolytes and sugars, resulting in symptoms. Now, it is thought that this rapid transit of the food bolus from the stomach into the small intestines instead causes a rapid and exuberant release of metabolic peptides that are responsible for the symptoms of dumping syndrome. It is not a result of phrenic nerve irritation, malabsorption, or bile reflux.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of GI bleed. During shift assessment, the nurse finds the patient to betachycardic and hypotensive, and the patient has an episode of hematemesis while the nurse is in the room. In addition to monitoring the patient's vital signs and level of conscious, what would be a priority nursing action for this patient? A) Place the patient in a prone position. B) Provide the patient with ice water to slow any GI bleeding. C) Prepare for the insertion of an NG tube. D) Notify the physician.

D Feedback: The nurse must always be alert for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis, which include hematemesis (vomiting of blood), tachycardia, and hypotension. If these occur, the physician is notified and the patient's vital signs are monitored as the patient's condition warrants. Putting the patient in a prone position could lead to aspiration. Giving ice water is contraindicated as it would stimulate more vomiting.

A nurse is caring for a patient with recurrent hematemesis who is scheduled for upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy (UGF). How should the nurse in the radiology department prepare this patient? A) Insert a nasogastric tube. B) Administer a micro Fleet enema at least 3 hours before the procedure. C) Have the patient lie in a supine position for the procedure. D) Apply local anesthetic to the back of the patient's throat.

D) Apply local anesthetic to the back of the patient's throat. Feedback: Preparation for UGF includes spraying or gargling with a local anesthetic. A nasogastric tube or a micro Fleet enema is not required for this procedure. The patient should be positioned in a side-lying position in case of emesis.

A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an older adult patient. When collecting and analyzing data, the nurse should be cognizant of what age-related change in gastrointestinal structure and function? A) Increased gastric motility B) Decreased gastric pH C) Increased gag reflex D) Decreased mucus secretion

D) Decreased mucus secretion Feedback: Older adults tend to secrete less mucus than younger adults. Gastric motility slows with age and gastric pH rises due to decreased secretion of gastric acids. Older adults tend to have a blunted gag reflex compared to younger adults.

A patient with a recent history of intermittent bleeding is undergoing capsule endoscopy to determine the source of the bleeding. When explaining this diagnostic test to the patient, what advantage should the nurse describe? A) The test allows visualization of the entire peritoneal cavity. B) The test allows for painless biopsy collection. C) The test does not require fasting. D) The test is noninvasive.

D) The test is noninvasive. Feedback: Capsule endoscopy allows the noninvasive visualization of the mucosa throughout the entire small intestine. Bowel preparation is necessary and biopsies cannot be collected. This procedure allows visualization of the entire GI tract, but not the peritoneal cavity.

An 80-year-old client with a 2-day history of myalgia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Which health care provider request does the nurse implement first? A. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. B. Draw blood for a complete blood count and serum electrolytes. C. Obtain a stool specimen for culture and sensitivity. D. Start an IV solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45 normal saline at 125 mL/hr.

D. Fluid therapy is the focus of treatment for clients with gastroenteritis. Older clients are at increased risk for the complications of dehydration such as hypovolemia and acute kidney failure. Acetaminophen 650 mg should be rapidly administered rectally, and blood draws and stool specimen collection should be implemented rapidly, but prevention and treatment of dehydration are the priorities for this client.

A client who had surgery for inflammatory bowel disease is being discharged. The case manager will arrange for home health care follow-up. The client tells the nurse that family members will also be helping with care. What information is critically important for the nurse to provide to these collaborating members? A. A list of medical supply facilities where wound care supplies may be purchased B. Proper handwashing techniques to avoid cross-contamination of the client's wound C. The amount of pain medication that the client is allowed to take in each dose D. Written and oral instructions regarding symptoms to report to the health care provider

D. It is most important to provide the client and case manager with both written and oral instructions on reportable symptoms to avoid the development of complications. Although instruction on proper handwashing and the client's medication regimen are important, they are not the highest priority. It will be the home health nurse's responsibility to bring supplies to the client's home.

A client newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) is started on sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). What does the nurse tell the client about why this therapy has been prescribed? A. "It is to stop the diarrhea and bloody stools." B. "This will minimize your GI discomfort." C. "With this medication, your cramping will be relieved." D. "Your intestinal inflammation will be reduced." Correct

D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) is one of the primary treatments for UC. It is thought to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and thereby reduce inflammation. Although it is hoped that reduction of inflammation will cause the diarrhea and bloody stools to stop, this is not the way that the drug works. Antidiarrheal drugs "stop" diarrhea. The drug's action as an anti-inflammatory will diminish the client's pain as the inflammation subsides, but this is not the purpose of the drug—it is not an analgesic.

An intensive care unit (ICU) RN is "floated" to the medical-surgical unit. Which client does the charge nurse assign to the float nurse? A. A 28-year-old with an exacerbation of Crohn's disease (CD) who has a draining enterocutaneous fistula B. A 32-year-old with ulcerative colitis (UC) who needs discharge teaching about the use of hydrocortisone enemas C. A 34-year-old who has questions about how to care for a newly created ileo-anal reservoir D. A 36-year-old with peritonitis who just returned from surgery with multiple drains in place

D. The ICU nurse is familiar with the care of a client with peritonitis, including monitoring for complications such as sepsis and kidney failure. The client with CD who has a draining enterocutaneous fistula, the client with UC who needs discharge teaching, and the client with questions about an ileo-anal reservoir are best assigned to a medical-surgical nurse who is more familiar with the care and teaching needed for clients with their respective disorders.

A nurse assesses clients at a community health fair. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of hepatitis B? a. A 20-year-old college student who has had several sexual partners b. A 46-year-old woman who takes acetaminophen daily for headaches c. A 63-year-old businessman who travels frequently across the country d. An 82-year-old woman who recently ate raw shellfish for dinner

Hepatitis B can be spread through sexual contact, needle sharing, needle sticks, blood transfusions, hemodialysis, acupuncture, and the maternal-fetal route. A person with multiple sexual partners has more opportunities to contract the infection. Hepatitis B is not transmitted through medications, casual contact with other travelers, or raw shellfish. Although an overdose of acetaminophen can cause liver cirrhosis, this is not associated with hepatitis B. Hepatitis E is found most frequently in international travelers. Hepatitis A is spread through ingestion of contaminated shellfish.

A patient's health decline necessitates the use of total parenteral nutrition. The patient has questioned the need for insertion of a central venous catheter, expressing a preference for a "normal IV." The nurse should know that peripheral administration of high-concentration PN formulas is contraindicated because of the risk for what complication? A) Chemical phlebitis B) Hyperglycemia C) Dumping syndrome D) Line sepsis

A Feedback: Formulations with dextrose concentrations of more than 10% should not be administered through peripheral veins because they irritate the intima (innermost walls) of small veins, causing chemical phlebitis. Hyperglycemia and line sepsis are risks with both peripheral and central administration of PN. PN is not associated with dumping syndrome.

A nurse is preparing to administer a patient's intravenous fat emulsion simultaneously with parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following principles should guide the nurse's action? A) Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y-connector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. B) The nurse should prepare for placement of another intravenous line, as intravenous fat emulsions may not be infused simultaneously through the line used for PN. C) Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y-connector close to the infusion site after running the emulsion through a filter. D) The intravenous fat emulsions can be piggy-backed into any existing IV solution that is infusing.

A Feedback: Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y-connector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. The patient does not need another intravenous line for the fat emulsion. The IVFE cannot be piggy-backed into any existing IV solution that is infusing.

The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client who underwent surgery for gastric cancer. Which of the nurse's assessments most directly addresses a major complication of TPN? A) Checking the patient's capillary blood glucose levels regularly B) Having the patient frequently rate his or her hunger on a 10-point scale C) Measuring the patient's heart rhythm at least every 6 hours D) Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness each shift

A Feedback: The solution, used as a base for most TPN, consists of a high dextrose concentration and may raise blood glucose levels significantly, resulting in hyperglycemia. This is a more salient threat than hunger, though this should be addressed. Dysrhythmias and decreased LOC are not among the most common complications.

A nurse reviews the chart of a client who has Crohn's disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 d. Client's weight decreased by 3 pounds

ANS: A Fistulas place the client with Crohn's disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and should cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1184 KEY: Crohn's disease| electrolyte imbalance MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Analysis NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

A nurse cares for a client who has a Giardia infection. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) d. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

ANS: A Metronidazole is the drug of choice for a Giardia infection. Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone are antibiotics used for bacterial infections. Sulfasalazine is used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 1190 KEY: Parasitic infection| medication MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

ANS: A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 1169 KEY: Inflammatory bowel disorder| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

A nurse assesses a client with Crohn's disease and colonic strictures. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Distended abdomen b. Temperature of 100.0° F (37.8° C) c. Loose and bloody stool d. Lower abdominal cramps

ANS: A The presence of strictures predisposes the client to intestinal obstruction. Abdominal distention may indicate that the client has developed an obstruction of the large bowel, and the client's provider should be notified right away. Low-grade fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of Crohn's disease. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1179 KEY: Crohn's disease| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Analysis NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

A nurse prepares to discharge a client with chronic pancreatitis. Which question should the nurse ask to ensure safety upon discharge? a. "Do you have a one- or two-story home?" b. "Can you check your own pulse rate?" c. "Do you have any alcohol in your home?" d. "Can you prepare your own meals?"

ANS: A A client recovering from chronic pancreatitis should be limited to one floor until strength and activity increase. The client will need a bathroom on the same floor for frequent defecation. Assessing pulse rate and preparation of meals is not specific to chronic pancreatitis. Although the client should be encouraged to stop drinking alcoholic beverages, asking about alcohol availability is not adequate to assess this client's safety.

To promote comfort after a colonoscopy, in what position does the nurse place the client? a. Left lateral b. Prone c. Right lateral d. Supine

ANS: A After colonoscopy, clients have less discomfort and quicker passage of flatus when placed in the left lateral position.

A client has a large oral tumor. What assessment by the nurse takes priority? a. Airway b. Breathing c. Circulation d. Nutrition

ANS: A Airway always takes priority. Airway must be assessed first and any problems resolved if present.

A nurse cares for an older adult client who has Salmonella food poisoning. The client's vital signs are heart rate: 102 beats/min, blood pressure: 98/55 mm Hg, respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation: 92%. Which action should the nurse complete first? a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Provide perineal care with a premedicated wipe. d. Teach proper food preparation to prevent contamination.

ANS: B Dehydration caused by diarrhea can occur quickly in older clients with Salmonella food poisoning, so maintenance of fluid balance is a high priority. Monitoring vital signs and providing perineal care are important nursing actions but are of lower priority than fluid replacement. The nurse should teach the client about proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection, and preparation of food and beverages to prevent contamination. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1173 KEY: Inflammatory bowel disorder| hydration MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

After teaching a client with perineal excoriation caused by diarrhea from acute gastroenteritis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll rinse my rectal area with warm water after each stool and apply zinc oxide ointment." b. "I will clean my rectal area thoroughly with toilet paper after each stool and then apply aloe vera gel." c. "I must take a sitz bath three times a day and then pat my rectal area gently but thoroughly to make sure I am dry." d. "I shall clean my rectal area with a soft cotton washcloth and then apply vitamin A and D ointment."

ANS: B Toilet paper can irritate the sensitive perineal skin, so warm water rinses or soft cotton washcloths should be used instead. Although aloe vera may facilitate healing of superficial abrasions, it is not an effective skin barrier for diarrhea. Skin barriers such as zinc oxide and vitamin A and D ointment help protect the rectal area from the excoriating effects of liquid stools. Patting the skin is recommended instead of rubbing the skin dry. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1179 KEY: Bowel care| inflammatory bowel disorder MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

A nurse cares for a client with hepatic portal-systemic encephalopathy (PSE). The client is thin and cachectic in appearance, and the family expresses distress that the client is receiving little dietary protein. How should the nurse respond? a. "A low-protein diet will help the liver rest and will restore liver function." b. "Less protein in the diet will help prevent confusion associated with liver failure." c. "Increasing dietary protein will help the client gain weight and muscle mass." d. "Low dietary protein is needed to prevent fluid from leaking into the abdomen."

ANS: B A low-protein diet is ordered when serum ammonia levels increase and/or the client shows signs of PSE. A low-protein diet helps reduce excessive breakdown of protein into ammonia by intestinal bacteria. Encephalopathy is caused by excess ammonia. A low-protein diet has no impact on restoring liver function. Increasing the client's dietary protein will cause complications of liver failure and should not be suggested. Increased intravascular protein will help prevent ascites, but clients with liver failure are not able to effectively synthesize dietary protein.

A nurse cares for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which action should the nurse take to decrease the presence of ascites? a. Monitor intake and output. b. Provide a low-sodium diet. c. Increase oral fluid intake. d. Weigh the client daily.

ANS: B A low-sodium diet is one means of controlling abdominal fluid collection. Monitoring intake and output does not control fluid accumulation, nor does weighing the client. These interventions merely assess or monitor the situation. Increasing fluid intake would not be helpful.

A nurse is aware of the high incidence of catheter-related bloodstream infections in patients receiving parenteral nutrition. What nursing action has the greatest potential to reduce catheter-related bloodstream infections? A) Use clean technique and wear a mask during dressing changes. B) Change the dressing no more than weekly. C) Apply antibiotic ointment around the site with each dressing change. D) Irrigate the insertion site with sterile water during each dressing change.

B Feedback: The CDC (2011) recommends changing CVAD dressings not more than every 7 days unless the dressing is damp, bloody, loose, or soiled. Sterile technique (not clean technique) is used. Irrigation and antibiotic ointments are not used.

A nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place for gastric decompression. What risk nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate component of the care plan? A) Risk for Excess Fluid Volume Related to Enteral Feedings B) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to the Presence of NG Tube C) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Related to Enteral Feedings D) Risk for Impaired Verbal Communication Related to Presence of NG Tube

B Feedback: NG tubes can easily damage the delicate mucosa of the nose, sinuses, and upper airway. An NG tube does not preclude verbal communication. This patient's NG tube is in place for decompression, so complications of enteral feeding do not apply.

A patient's physician has determined that for the next 3 to 4 weeks the patient will require parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should anticipate the placement of what type of venous access device? A) Peripheral catheter B) Nontunneled central catheter C) Implantable port D) Tunneled central catheter

B Feedback: Nontunneled central catheters are used for short-term (less than 6 weeks) IV therapy. A peripheral catheter can be used for the administration of peripheral parenteral nutrition for 5 to 7 days. Implantable ports and tunneled central catheters are for long-term use and may remain in place for many years. Peripherally inserted central catheters (PICCs) are another potential option.

A nurse is initiating parenteral nutrition (PN) to a postoperative patient who has developed complications. The nurse should initiate therapy by performing which of the following actions? A) Starting with a rapid infusion rate to meet the patient's nutritional needs as quickly as possible B) Initiating the infusion slowly and monitoring the patient's fluid and glucose tolerance C) Changing the rate of administration every 2 hours based on serum electrolyte values D) Increasing the rate of infusion at mealtimes to mimic the circadian rhythm of the body

B Feedback: PN solutions are initiated slowly and advanced gradually each day to the desired rate as the patient's fluid and glucose tolerance permits. The formulation of the PN solutions is calculated carefully each day to meet the complete nutritional needs of the individual patient based on clinical findings and laboratory data. It is not infused more quickly at mealtimes.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a subclavian central line who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). In preparing a care plan for this patient, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A) Risk for Activity Intolerance Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter B) Risk for Infection Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter C) Risk for Functional Urinary Incontinence Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter D) Risk for Sleep Deprivation Related to the presence of a Subclavian Catheter

B Feedback: The high glucose content of PN solutions makes the solutions an idea culture media for bacterial and fungal growth, and the central venous access devices provide a port of entry. Prevention of infection is consequently a high priority. The patient will experience some inconveniences with regard to toileting, activity, and sleep, but the infection risk is a priority over each of these.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition. When writing this patient's plan of care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should be included? A) Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction Related to Catheter Placement B) Ineffective Role Performance Related to Parenteral Nutrition C) Bowel Incontinence Related to Parenteral Nutrition D) Chronic Pain Related to Catheter Placement

B Feedback: The limitations associated with PN can make it difficult for patients to maintain their usual roles. PN does not normally cause bowel incontinence and catheters are not associated with chronic pain or neurovascular dysfunction.

A patient's enteral feedings have been determined to be too concentrated based on the patient's development of dumping syndrome. What physiologic phenomenon caused this patient's complication of enteral feeding? A) Increased gastric secretion of HCl and gastrin because of high osmolality of feeds B) Entry of large amounts of water into the small intestine because of osmotic pressure C) Mucosal irritation of the stomach and small intestine by the high concentration of the feed D) Acid-base imbalance resulting from the high volume of solutes in the feed

B Feedback: When a concentrated solution of high osmolality entering the intestines is taken in quickly or in large amounts, water moves rapidly into the intestinal lumen from fluid surrounding the organs and the vascular compartment. This results in dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is not the result of changes in HCl or gastrin levels. It is not caused by an acid-base imbalance or direct irritation of the GI mucosa.

A patient's NG tube has become clogged after the nurse instilled a medication that was insufficiently crushed. The nurse has attempted to aspirate with a large-bore syringe, with no success. What should the nurse do next? A) Withdraw the NG tube 3 to 5 cm and reattempt aspiration. B) Attach a syringe filled with warm water and attempt an in-and-out motion of instilling and aspirating. C) Withdraw the NG tube slightly and attempt to dislodge by flicking the tube with the fingers. D) Remove the NG tube promptly and obtain an order for reinsertion from the primary care provider.

B Feedback: When a tube is first noted to be clogged, a 30- to 60-mL syringe should be attached to the end of the tube and any contents aspirated and discarded. Then the syringe should be filled with warm water, attached to the tube again, and a back-and-forth motion initiated to help loosen the clog. Removal is not warranted at this early stage and a flicking motion is not recommended. The tube should not be withdrawn, even a few centimeters.

The nurse is assessing placement of a nasogastric tube that the patient has had in place for 2 days. The tube is draining green aspirate. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Inform the physician that the tube may be in the patient's pleural space. B) Withdraw the tube 2 to 4 cm. C) Leave the tube in its present position. D) Advance the tube up to 8 cm.

C Feedback: The patient's aspirate is from the gastric area when the nurse observes that the color of the aspirate is green. Further confirmation of placement is necessary, but there is likely no need for repositioning. Pleural secretions are pale yellow.

A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after telling a family member that he deliberately took an overdose of NSAIDs a few minutes earlier. If lavage is ordered, the nurse should prepare to assist with the insertion of what type of tube? A) Nasogastric tube B) Levin tube C) Gastric sump D) Orogastric tube

D Feedback: An orogastric tube is a large-bore tube inserted through the mouth with a wide outlet for removal of gastric contents; it is used primarily in the emergency department or an intensive care setting. Nasogastric, Levin, and gastric sump tubes are not used for this specific purpose.

A nurse has obtained an order to remove a patient's NG tube and has prepared the patient accordingly. After flushing the tube and removing the nasal tape, the nurse attempts removal but is met with resistance. Because the nurse is unable to overcome this resistance, what is the most appropriate action? A) Gently twist the tube before pulling. B) Instill a digestive enzyme solution and reattempt removal in 10 to 15 minutes. C) Flush the tube with hot tap water and reattempt removal. D) Report this finding to the patient's primary care provider.

D Feedback: If the tube does not come out easily, force should not be used, and the problem should be reported to the primary provider. Enzymes are used to resolve obstructions, not to aid removal. For safety reasons, hot water is never instilled into a tube. Twisting could cause damage to the mucosa.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube for feeding. During shift assessment, the nurse auscultates a new onset of bilateral lung crackles and notes a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. The patient's oxygen saturation is 89% by pulse oximetry. After ensuring the patient's immediate safety, what is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Perform chest physiotherapy. B) Reduce the height of the patient's bed and remove the NG tube. C) Liaise with the dietitian to obtain a feeding solution with lower osmolarity. D) Report possible signs of aspiration pneumonia to the primary care provider.

D Feedback: The patient should be assessed for further signs of aspiration pneumonia. It is unnecessary to remove the NG tube and chest physiotherapy is not indicated. A different feeding solution will not resolve this complication.