Finance 331 Final Exam Chapters 10,11,12

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

Foley Systems is considering a new investment whose data are shown below. The equipment would be depreciated on a straight-line basis over the project's 3-year life, would have a zero salvage value, and would require additional net operating working capital that would be recovered at the end of the project's life. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's life. What is the project's NPV? (Hint: Cash flows from operations are constant in Years 1 to 3.) Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Net investment in fixed assets (basis) $75,000 Required net operating working capital $15,000 Straight-line depreciation rate 33.333% Annual sales revenues $50,000 Annual operating costs (excl. depr.) $25,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $--16,559 b. $-20,368 c. $-18,380 d. $-19,043 e. $-17,221

a. $--16,559

Poulsen Industries is analyzing an average-risk project, and the following data have been developed. Unit sales will be constant, but the sales price should increase with inflation. Fixed costs will also be constant, but variable costs should rise with inflation. The project should last for 3 years, it will be depreciated on a straight-line basis, and there will be no salvage value. No change in net operating working capital would be required. This is just one of many projects for the firm, so any losses on this project can be used to offset gains on other firm projects. The marketing manager does not think it is necessary to adjust for inflation since both the sales price and the variable costs will rise at the same rate, but the CFO thinks an inflation adjustment is required. What is the difference in the expected NPV if the inflation adjustment is made versus if it is not made? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Net investment cost (depreciable basis) $200,000 Units sold 59,000 Average price per unit, Year 1 $25.00 Fixed op. cost excl. depr. (constant) $150,000 Variable op. cost/unit, Year 1 $20.20 Annual depreciation rate 33.333% Expected inflation 4.00% Tax rate 40.0% a. $16,034 b. $18,118 c. $19,080 d. $19,882 e. $13,308

a. $16,034

Sexton Inc. is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the higher IRR, how much value will be forgone? Note that under certain conditions choosing projects on the basis of the IRR will not cause any value to be lost because the one with the higher IRR will also have the higher NPV, so no value will be lost if the IRR method is used. WACC: 9.50% 0 1 2 3 4 CFS -$2,050 $750 $760 $770 $780 CFL -$4,300 $1,500 $1,518 $1,536 $1,554 a. $188.91 b. $145.46 c. $228.58 d. $226.70 e. $230.47

a. $188.91

Thomson Media is considering some new equipment whose data are shown below. The equipment has a 3-year tax life and would be fully depreciated by the straight-line method over 3 years, but it would have a positive pre-tax salvage value at the end of Year 3, when the project would be closed down. Also, additional net operating working capital would be required, but it would be recovered at the end of the project's life. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 3-year life. What is the project's NPV? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Net investment in fixed assets (depreciable basis) $70,000 Required net operating working capital $10,000 Straight-line depreciation rate 33.333% Annual sales revenues $77,000 Annual operating costs (excl. depreciation) $30,000 Expected pre-tax salvage value $5,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $26,238 b. $026,500 c. $020,728 d. $021,777 e. $028,861

a. $26,238

Kosovski Company is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and are not repeatable. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the higher IRR, how much value will be forgone? Note that under some conditions choosing projects on the basis of the IRR will cause $0.00 value to be lost. WACC: 6.25% 0 1 2 3 4 CFS -$1,050 $675 $650 CFL -$1,050 $360 $360 $360 $360 a. $29.26 b. $35.69 c. $34.82 d. $26.33 e. $31.31

a. $29.26

Liberty Services is now at the end of the final year of a project. The equipment originally cost $19,000, of which 75% has been depreciated. The firm can sell the used equipment today for $6,000, and its tax rate is 40%. What is the equipment's after-tax salvage value for use in a capital budgeting analysis? Note that if the equipment's final market value is less than its book value, the firm will receive a tax credit as a result of the sale. a. $5,500 b. $4,345 c. $5,995 d. $5,885 e. $6,710

a. $5,500

As assistant to the CFO of Boulder Inc., you must estimate the Year 1 cash flow for a project with the following data. What is the Year 1 cash flow? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. Sales revenues $12,500 Depreciation $4,000 Other operating costs $6,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $5,625 b. $4,275 c. $4,388 d. $5,456 e. $4,669

a. $5,625

Florida Car Wash is considering a new project whose data are shown below. The equipment to be used has a 3-year tax life, would be depreciated on a straight-line basis over the project's 3-year life, and would have a zero salvage value after Year 3. No change in net operating working capital would be required. Revenues and other operating costs will be constant over the project's life, and this is just one of the firm's many projects, so any losses on it can be used to offset profits in other units. If the number of cars washed declined by 40% from the expected level, by how much would the project's NPV change? (Hint: Note that cash flows are constant at the Year 1 level, whatever that level is.) Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Net investment cost (depreciable basis) $60,000 Number of cars washed 2,770 Average price per car $25.00 Fixed op. cost (excl. depr.) $10,000 Variable op. cost/unit (i.e., VC per car washed) $5.375 Annual depreciation $20,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. -$35,149 b. -$34,446 c. -$28,119 d. -$33,040 e. -$41,827

a. -$35,149

S. Bouchard and Company hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have obtained the following data: D0 = $0.85; P0 = $22.00; and g = 6.00% (constant). The CEO thinks, however, that the stock price is temporarily depressed, and that it will soon rise to $34.00. Based on the DCF approach, by how much would the cost of equity from retained earnings change if the stock price changes as the CEO expects? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. -1.45% b. -1.72% c. -1.11% d. -1.40% e. -1.36%

a. -1.45%

Barry Company is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that a project's projected NPV can be negative, in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 11.75% Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 Cash flows -$1,100 $400 $390 $380 $370 $360 a. 0$286.36 b. 0$294.95 c. 0$349.36 d. 0$309.27 e. 0$355.08

a. 0$286.36

Last month, Lloyd's Systems analyzed the project whose cash flows are shown below. However, before the decision to accept or reject the project, the Federal Reserve took actions that changed interest rates and therefore the firm's WACC. The Fed's action did not affect the forecasted cash flows. By how much did the change in the WACC affect the project's forecasted NPV? Note that a project's projected NPV can be negative, in which case it should be rejected. Old WACC: 10.00% New WACC: 9.50% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,000 $410 $410 $410 a. 0$9.04 b. 0$11.12 c. 0$10.22 d. 0$10.85 e. 0$10.13

a. 0$9.04

A. Butcher Timber Company hired your consulting firm to help them estimate the cost of equity. The yield on the firm's bonds is 6.75%, and your firm's economists believe that the cost of equity can be estimated using a risk premium of 3.85% over a firm's own cost of debt. What is an estimate of the firm's cost of equity from retained earnings? a. 10.60% b. 9.54% c. 12.19% d. 12.51% e. 7.95%

a. 10.60%

Ehrmann Data Systems is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's MIRR? Note that a project's projected MIRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 9.00% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,000 $450 $450 $450 a. 13.84% b. 14.53% c. 17.29% d. 13.28% e. 13.70%

a. 13.84%

Weaver Chocolate Co. expects to earn $3.50 per share during the current year, its expected dividend payout ratio is 65%, its expected constant dividend growth rate is 6.0%, and its common stock currently sells for $30.00 per share. New stock can be sold to the public at the current price, but a flotation cost of 5% would be incurred. What would be the cost of equity from new common stock? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 13.98% b. 16.36% c. 13.70% d. 11.33% e. 11.47%

a. 13.98%

Thorley Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's IRR? Note that a project's projected IRR can be less than the WACC or negative, in both cases it will be rejected. Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 Cash flows -$1,100 $325 $325 $325 $325 $325 a. 14.59% b. 15.18% c. 11.24% d. 16.20% e. 13.43%

a. 14.59%

Refer to Exhibit 10.1. Which of the following is the best estimate for the weight of debt for use in calculating the WACC? a. 16.56% b. 17.23% c. 17.57% d. 17.92% e. 18.64%

a. 16.56%

Taggart Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's payback? Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,125 $500 $500 $500 a. 2.25 years b. 2.41 years c. 2.07 years d. 1.87 years e. 2.50 years

a. 2.25 years

Susmel Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's payback? Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$475 $150 $200 $300 a. 2.42 years b. 1.96 years c. 2.88 years d. 2.47 years e. 2.85 years

a. 2.42 years

The CFO of Lenox Industries hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have obtained the following data: (1) rd = yield on the firm's bonds = 7.00% and the risk premium over its own debt cost = 4.00%. (2) rRF = 5.00%, RPM = 6.00%, and b = 1.50. (3) D1 = $1.20, P0 = $35.00, and g = 8.00% (constant). You were asked to estimate the cost of equity based on the three most commonly used methods and then to indicate the difference between the highest and lowest of these estimates. What is that difference? a. 3.00% b. 3.54% c. 2.61% d. 3.72% e. 2.67%

a. 3.00%

Sub-Prime Loan Company is thinking of opening a new office, and the key data are shown below. The company owns the building that would be used, and it could sell it for $100,000 after taxes if it decides not to open the new office. The equipment for the project would be depreciated by the straight-line method over the project's 3-year life, after which it would be worth nothing and thus it would have a zero salvage value. No change in net operating working capital would be required, and revenues and other operating costs would be constant over the project's 3-year life. What is the project's NPV? (Hint: Cash flows are constant in Years 1-3.) Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Opportunity cost $100,000 Net equipment cost (depreciable basis) $65,000 Straight-line depr. rate for equipment 33.333% Annual sales revenues $150,000 Annual operating costs (excl. depr.) $25,000 Tax rate 35% a. 55,915 b. 061,507 c. 054,238 d. 048,087 e. 043,614

a. 55,915

A company's perpetual preferred stock currently sells for $102.50 per share, and it pays an $8.00 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 5.00% of the issue price. What is the firm's cost of preferred stock? a. 8.22% b. 9.28% c. 6.90% d. 9.53% e. 7.97%

a. 8.22%

Daves Inc. recently hired you as a consultant to estimate the company's WACC. You have obtained the following information. (1) The firm's noncallable bonds mature in 20 years, have an 8.00% annual coupon, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $1,225.00. (2) The company's tax rate is 40%. (3) The risk-free rate is 4.50%, the market risk premium is 5.50%, and the stock's beta is 1.20. (4) The target capital structure consists of 35% debt and the balance is common equity. The firm uses the CAPM to estimate the cost of equity, and it does not expect to issue any new common stock. What is its WACC? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 8.48% b. 10.01% c. 7.80% d. 6.79% e. 7.63%

a. 8.48%

You were hired as a consultant to Giambono Company, whose target capital structure is 40% debt, 15% preferred, and 45% common equity. The after-tax cost of debt is 6.00%, the cost of preferred is 7.50%, and the cost of retained earnings is 12.00%. The firm will not be issuing any new stock. What is its WACC? a. 8.93% b. 7.59% c. 6.96% d. 7.68% e. 6.69%

a. 8.93%

Other things held constant, which of the following would increase the NPV of a project being considered? a. A shift from straight-line to MACRS depreciation. b. Making the initial investment in the first year rather than spreading it over the first three years. c. An increase in the discount rate associated with the project. d. An increase in required net operating working capital. e. The project would decrease sales of another product line.

a. A shift from straight-line to MACRS depreciation.

The relative risk of a proposed project is best accounted for by which of the following procedures? a. Adjusting the discount rate upward if the project is judged to have above-average risk. b. Adjusting the discount rate upward if the project is judged to have below-average risk. c. Reducing the NPV by 10% for risky projects. d. Picking a risk factor equal to the average discount rate. e. Ignoring risk because project risk cannot be measured accurately.

a. Adjusting the discount rate upward if the project is judged to have above-average risk.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR greater than the WACC, the project must also have a positive NPV. b. If Project A's IRR exceeds Project B's, then A must have the higher NPV. c. A project's MIRR can never exceed its IRR. d. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR less than the WACC, the project must have a positive NPV. e. If the NPV is negative, the IRR must also be negative.

a. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR greater than the WACC, the project must also have a positive NPV.

Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs. b. If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV. c. If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV. d. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV. e. Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's.

a. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs.

Safeco Company and Risco Inc are identical in size and capital structure. However, the riskiness of their assets and cash flows are somewhat different, resulting in Safeco having a WACC of 10% and Risco a WACC of 12%. Safeco is considering Project X, which has an IRR of 10.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Safeco project. Risco is considering Project Y, which has an IRR of 11.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Risco project. Now assume that the two companies merge and form a new company, Safeco/Risco Inc. Moreover, the new company's market risk is an average of the pre-merger companies' market risks, and the merger has no impact on either the cash flows or the risks of Projects X and Y. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate WACC, it will probably become riskier over time. b. If evaluated using the correct post-merger WACC, Project X would have a negative NPV. c. After the merger, Safeco/Risco would have a corporate WACC of 11%. Therefore, it should reject Project X but accept Project Y. d. Safeco/Risco's WACC, as a result of the merger, would be 10%. e. After the merger, Safeco/Risco should select Project Y but reject Project X. If the firm does this, its corporate WACC will fall to 10.5%.

a. If the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate WACC, it will probably become riskier over time.

A company is considering a proposed new plant that would increase productive capacity. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. In calculating the project's operating cash flows, the firm should not deduct financing costs such as interest expense, because financing costs are accounted for by discounting at the WACC. If interest were deducted when estimating cash flows, this would, in effect, "double count" it. b. Since depreciation is a non-cash expense, the firm does not need to deal with depreciation when calculating the operating cash flows. c. When estimating the project's operating cash flows, it is important to include both opportunity costs and sunk costs, but the firm should ignore the cash flow effects of externalities since they are accounted for in the discounting process. d. Capital budgeting decisions should be based on before-tax cash flows because WACC is calculated on a before-tax basis. e. The WACC used to discount cash flows in a capital budgeting analysis should be calculated on a before-tax basis. To do otherwise would bias the NPV upward.

a. In calculating the project's operating cash flows, the firm should not deduct financing costs such as interest expense, because financing costs are accounted for by discounting at the WACC. If interest were deducted when estimating cash flows, this would, in effect, "double count" it.

Projects A and B have identical expected lives and identical initial cash outflows (costs). However, most of one project's cash flows come in the early years, while most of the other project's cash flows occur in the later years. The two NPV profiles are given below: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. More of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years. b. More of Project B's cash flows occur in the later years. c. We must have information on the cost of capital in order to determine which project has the larger early cash flows. d. The NPV profile graph is inconsistent with the statement made in the problem. e. The crossover rate, i.e., the rate at which Projects A and B have the same NPV, is greater than either project's IRR.

a. More of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years.

LaPango Inc. estimates that its average-risk projects have a WACC of 10%, its below-average risk projects have a WACC of 8%, and its above-average risk projects have a WACC of 12%. Which of the following projects (A, B, and C) should the company accept? a. Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%. b. Project C, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%. c. Project A, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%. d. None of the projects should be accepted. e. All of the projects should be accepted.

a. Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%.

Projects C and D are mutually exclusive and have normal cash flows. Project C has a higher NPV if the WACC is less than 12%, whereas Project D has a higher NPV if the WACC exceeds 12%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Project D probably has a higher IRR. b. Project D is probably larger in scale than Project C. c. Project C probably has a faster payback. d. Project C probably has a higher IRR. e. The crossover rate between the two projects is below 12%.

a. Project D probably has a higher IRR.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have only one real IRR. b. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have two or more real IRRs. c. Projects with "normal" cash flows must have two changes in the sign of the cash flows, e.g., from negative to positive to negative. If there are more than two sign changes, then the cash flow stream is "nonnormal." d. The "multiple IRR problem" can arise if a project's cash flows are "normal." e. Projects with "nonnormal" cash flows are almost never encountered in the real world.

a. Projects with "normal" cash flows can have only one real IRR.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Sensitivity analysis as it is generally employed is incomplete in that it fails to consider the probability of occurrence of the key input variables. b. In comparing two projects using sensitivity analysis, the one with the steeper lines would be considered less risky, because a small error in estimating a variable such as unit sales would produce only a small error in the project's NPV. c. The primary advantage of simulation analysis over scenario analysis is that scenario analysis requires a relatively powerful computer, coupled with an efficient financial planning software package, whereas simulation analysis can be done efficiently using a PC with a spreadsheet program or even with just a calculator. d. Sensitivity analysis is a type of risk analysis that considers both the sensitivity of NPV to changes in key input variables and the probability of occurrence of these variables' values. e. As computer technology advances, simulation analysis becomes increasingly obsolete and thus less likely to be used than sensitivity analysis.

a. Sensitivity analysis as it is generally employed is incomplete in that it fails to consider the probability of occurrence of the key input variables.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The IRR method appeals to some managers because it gives an estimate of the rate of return on projects rather than a dollar amount, which the NPV method provides. b. The discounted payback method eliminates all of the problems associated with the payback method. c. When evaluating independent projects, the NPV and IRR methods often yield conflicting results regarding a project's acceptability. d. To find the MIRR, we discount the TV at the IRR. e. A project's NPV profile must intersect the X-axis at the project's WACC.

a. The IRR method appeals to some managers because it gives an estimate of the rate of return on projects rather than a dollar amount, which the NPV method provides.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. b. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the risk-free rate, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. c. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the risk-free rate. d. The NPV method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period. e. The IRR method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period.

a. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR.

The MacMillen Company has equal amounts of low-risk, average-risk, and high-risk projects. The firm's overall WACC is 12%. The CFO believes that this is the correct WACC for the company's average-risk projects, but that a lower rate should be used for lower-risk projects and a higher rate for higher-risk projects. The CEO disagrees, on the grounds that even though projects have different risks, the WACC used to evaluate each project should be the same because the company obtains capital for all projects from the same sources. If the CEO's position is accepted, what is likely to happen over time? a. The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too many low-risk projects. b. The company will take on too many low-risk projects and reject too many high-risk projects. c. Things will generally even out over time, and, therefore, the firm's risk should remain constant over time. d. The company's overall WACC should decrease over time because its stock price should be increasing. e. The CEO's recommendation would maximize the firm's intrinsic value.

a. The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too many low-risk projects.

Which of the following procedures does the text say is used most frequently by businesses when they do capital budgeting analyses? a. The firm's corporate, or overall, WACC is used to discount all project cash flows to find the projects' NPVs. Then, depending on how risky different projects are judged to be, the calculated NPVs are scaled up or down to adjust for differential risk. b. Differential project risk cannot be accounted for by using "risk-adjusted discount rates" because it is highly subjective and difficult to justify. It is better to not risk adjust at all. c. Other things held constant, if returns on a project are thought to be positively correlated with the returns on other firms in the economy, then the project's NPV will be found using a lower discount rate than would be appropriate if the project's returns were negatively correlated. d. Monte Carlo simulation uses a computer to generate random sets of inputs, those inputs are then used to determine a trial NPV, and a number of trial NPVs are averaged to find the project's expected NPV. Sensitivity and scenario analyses, on the other hand, require much more information regarding the input variables, including probability distributions and correlations among those variables. This makes it easier to implement a simulation analysis than a scenario or sensitivity analysis, hence simulation is the most frequently used procedure. e. DCF techniques were originally developed to value passive investments (stocks and bonds). However, capital budgeting projects are not passive investments - managers can often take positive actions after the investment has been made that alter the cash flow stream. Opportunities for such actions are called real options. Real options are valuable, but this value is not captured by conventional NPV analysis. Therefore, a project's real options must be considered separately.

a. The firm's corporate, or overall, WACC is used to discount all project cash flows to find the projects' NPVs. Then, depending on how risky different projects are judged to be, the calculated NPVs are scaled up or down to adjust for differential risk.

Schalheim Sisters Inc. has always paid out all of its earnings as dividends, hence the firm has no retained earnings. This same situation is expected to persist in the future. The company uses the CAPM to calculate its cost of equity, its target capital structure consists of common stock, preferred stock, and debt. Which of the following events would REDUCE its WACC? a. The market risk premium declines. b. The flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock increase. c. The company's beta increases. d. Expected inflation increases. e. The flotation costs associated with issuing preferred stock increase.

a. The market risk premium declines.

Which of the following should be considered when a company estimates the cash flows used to analyze a proposed project? a. The new project is expected to reduce sales of one of the company's existing products by 5%. b. Since the firm's director of capital budgeting spent some of her time last year to evaluate the new project, a portion of her salary for that year should be charged to the project's initial cost. c. The company has spent and expensed $1 million on research and development costs associated with the new project. d. The company spent and expensed $10 million on a marketing study before its current analysis regarding whether to accept or reject the project. e. The firm would borrow all the money used to finance the new project, and the interest on this debt would be $1.5 million per year.

a. The new project is expected to reduce sales of one of the company's existing products by 5%.

Currently, Powell Products has a beta of 1.0, and its sales and profits are positively correlated with the overall economy. The company estimates that a proposed new project would have a higher standard deviation and coefficient of variation than an average company project. Also, the new project's sales would be countercyclical in the sense that they would be high when the overall economy is down and low when the overall economy is strong. On the basis of this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The proposed new project would have more stand-alone risk than the firm's typical project. b. The proposed new project would increase the firm's corporate risk. c. The proposed new project would increase the firm's market risk. d. The proposed new project would not affect the firm's risk at all. e. The proposed new project would have less stand-alone risk than the firm's typical project.

a. The proposed new project would have more stand-alone risk than the firm's typical project.

"Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors. a. True b. False

a. True

A conflict will exist between the NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two equally risky but mutually exclusive projects, if the projects' cost of capital is less than the rate at which the projects' NPV profiles cross. a. True b. False

a. True

A firm that bases its capital budgeting decisions on either NPV or IRR will be more likely to accept a given project if it uses accelerated depreciation than if it uses straight-line depreciation, other things being equal. a. True b. False

a. True

Accelerated depreciation has an advantage for profitable firms in that it moves some cash flows forward, thus increasing their present value. On the other hand, using accelerated depreciation generally lowers the reported current year's profits because of the higher depreciation expenses. However, the reported profits problem can be solved by using different depreciation methods for tax and stockholder reporting purposes. a. True b. False

a. True

Any cash flows that can be classified as incremental to a particular project--i.e., results directly from the decision to undertake the project--should be reflected in the capital budgeting analysis. a. True b. False

a. True

Conflicts between two mutually exclusive projects occasionally occur, where the NPV method ranks one project higher but the IRR method puts the other one first. In theory, such conflicts should be resolved in favor of the project with the higher NPV. a. True b. False

a. True

Estimating project cash flows is generally the most important, but also the most difficult, step in the capital budgeting process. Methodology, such as the use of NPV versus IRR, is important, but less so than obtaining a reasonably accurate estimate of projects' cash flows. a. True b. False

a. True

Firms raise capital at the total corporate level by retaining earnings and by obtaining funds in the capital markets. They then provide funds to their different divisions for investment in capital projects. The divisions may vary in risk, and the projects within the divisions may also vary in risk. Therefore, it is conceptually correct to use different risk-adjusted costs of capital for different capital budgeting projects. a. True b. False

a. True

For a project with one initial cash outflow followed by a series of positive cash inflows, the modified IRR (MIRR) method involves compounding the cash inflows out to the end of the project's life, summing those compounded cash flows to form a terminal value (TV), and then finding the discount rate that causes the PV of the TV to equal the project's cost. a. True b. False

a. True

For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should assume that each dollar of capital is obtained in accordance with its target capital structure, which for many firms means partly as debt, partly as preferred stock, and partly common equity. a. True b. False

a. True

If a firm is privately owned, and its stock is not traded in public markets, then we cannot measure its beta for use in the CAPM model, we cannot observe its stock price for use in the DCF model, and we don't know what the risk premium is for use in the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. All this makes it especially difficult to estimate the cost of equity for a private company. a. True b. False

a. True

If a firm's marginal tax rate is increased, this would, other things held constant, lower the cost of debt used to calculate its WACC. a. True b. False

a. True

If a firm's projects differ in risk, then one way of handling this problem is to evaluate each project with the appropriate risk-adjusted discount rate. a. True b. False

a. True

If an investment project would make use of land which the firm currently owns, the project should be charged with the opportunity cost of the land. a. True b. False

a. True

If investors' aversion to risk rose, causing the slope of the SML to increase, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Other things held constant, this would lead to an increase in the use of debt and a decrease in the use of equity. However, other things would not stay constant if firms used a lot more debt, as that would increase the riskiness of both debt and equity and thus limit the shift toward debt. a. True b. False

a. True

If the expected dividend growth rate is zero, then the cost of external equity capital raised by issuing new common stock (re) is equal to the cost of equity capital from retaining earnings (rs) divided by one minus the percentage flotation cost required to sell the new stock, (1 - F). If the expected growth rate is not zero, then the cost of external equity must be found using a different formula. a. True b. False

a. True

In cash flow estimation, the existence of externalities should be taken into account if those externalities have any effects on the firm's long-run cash flows. a. True b. False

a. True

In theory, capital budgeting decisions should depend solely on forecasted cash flows and the opportunity cost of capital. The decision criterion should not be affected by managers' tastes, choice of accounting method, or the profitability of other independent projects. a. True b. False

a. True

It is extremely difficult to estimate the revenues and costs associated with large, complex projects that take several years to develop. This is why subjective judgment is often used for such projects along with discounted cash flow analysis. a. True b. False

a. True

One advantage of the payback method for evaluating potential investments is that it provides information about a project's liquidity and risk. a. True b. False

a. True

Opportunity costs include those cash inflows that could be generated from assets the firm already owns if those assets are not used for the project being evaluated. a. True b. False

a. True

Project S has a pattern of high cash flows in its early life, while Project L has a longer life, with large cash flows late in its life. Neither has negative cash flows after Year 0, and at the current cost of capital, the two projects have identical NPVs. Now suppose interest rates and money costs decline. Other things held constant, this change will cause L to become preferred to S. a. True b. False

a. True

Sensitivity analysis measures a project's stand-alone risk by showing how much the project's NPV (or IRR) is affected by a small change in one of the input variables, say sales. Other things held constant, with the size of the independent variable graphed on the horizontal axis and the NPV on the vertical axis, the steeper the graph of the relationship line, the more risky the project, other things held constant. a. True b. False

a. True

Small businesses make less use of DCF capital budgeting techniques than large businesses. This may reflect a lack of knowledge on the part of small firms' managers, but it may also reflect a rational conclusion that the costs of using DCF analysis outweigh the benefits of these methods for very small firms. a. True b. False

a. True

The NPV method is based on the assumption that projects' cash flows are reinvested at the project's risk-adjusted cost of capital. a. True b. False

a. True

The NPV method's assumption that cash inflows are reinvested at the cost of capital is generally more reasonable than the IRR's assumption that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. This is an important reason why the NPV method is generally preferred over the IRR method. a. True b. False

a. True

The component costs of capital are market-determined variables in the sense that they are based on investors' required returns. a. True b. False

a. True

The cost of capital used in capital budgeting should reflect the average cost of the various sources of investor-supplied funds a firm uses to acquire assets. a. True b. False

a. True

The cost of common equity obtained by retaining earnings is the rate of return the marginal stockholder requires on the firm's common stock. a. True b. False

a. True

The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the interest rate on new debt. a. True b. False

a. True

The cost of debt, rd, is normally less than rs, so rd(1 - T) will normally be much less than rs. Therefore, as long as the firm is not completely debt financed, the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) will normally be greater than rd(1 - T). a. True b. False

a. True

The cost of perpetual preferred stock is found as the preferred's annual dividend divided by the market price of the preferred stock. No adjustment is needed for taxes because preferred dividends, unlike interest on debt, are not deductible by the issuing firm. a. True b. False

a. True

The internal rate of return is that discount rate that equates the present value of the cash outflows (or costs) with the present value of the cash inflows. a. True b. False

a. True

The primary advantage to using accelerated rather than straight-line depreciation is that with accelerated depreciation the present value of the tax savings provided by depreciation will be higher, other things held constant. a. True b. False

a. True

The reason why retained earnings have a cost equal to rs is because investors think they can (i.e., expect to) earn rs on investments with the same risk as the firm's common stock, and if the firm does not think that it can earn rs on the earnings that it retains, it should pay those earnings out to its investors. Thus, the cost of retained earnings is based on the opportunity cost principle. a. True b. False

a. True

The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. Since we cannot be sure that the estimate obtained with any of these methods is correct, it is often appropriate to use all three methods, then consider all three estimates, and end up using a judgmental estimate when calculating the WACC. a. True b. False

a. True

Under certain conditions, a project may have more than one IRR. One such condition is when, in addition to the initial investment at time = 0, a negative cash flow (or cost) occurs at the end of the project's life. a. True b. False

a. True

When estimating the cost of equity by use of the CAPM, three potential problems are (1) whether to use long-term or short-term rates for rRF, (2) whether or not the historical beta is the beta that investors use when evaluating the stock, and (3) how to measure the market risk premium, RPM. These problems leave us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

a. True

When estimating the cost of equity by use of the DCF method, the single biggest potential problem is to determine the growth rate that investors use when they estimate a stock's expected future rate of return. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

a. True

When estimating the cost of equity by use of the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method, we can generally get a good idea of the interest rate on new long-term debt, but we cannot be sure that the risk premium we add is appropriate. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

a. True

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line would normally have no effect on a project's total projected cash flows but it would affect the timing of the cash flows and thus the NPV. b. Under current laws and regulations, corporations must use straight-line depreciation for all assets whose lives are 5 years or longer. c. Corporations must use the same depreciation method (e.g., straight line or accelerated) for stockholder reporting and tax purposes. d. Since depreciation is not a cash expense, it has no effect on cash flows and thus no effect on capital budgeting decisions. e. Under accelerated depreciation, higher depreciation charges occur in the early years, and this reduces the early cash flows and thus lowers a project's projected NPV.

a. Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line would normally have no effect on a project's total projected cash flows but it would affect the timing of the cash flows and thus the NPV.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation. b. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, companies must adjust for taxes, because dividends paid on preferred stock are deductible by the paying corporation. c. Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater effect on the after-tax cost of debt than on the cost of common stock as measured by the CAPM. d. If a company's beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity used to calculate the WACC, but only if the company does not have enough retained earnings to take care of its equity financing and hence must issue new stock. e. Higher flotation costs reduce investors' expected returns, and that leads to a reduction in a company's WACC.

a. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation.

A firm is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. The CEO wants to use the IRR criterion, while the CFO favors the NPV method. You were hired to advise the firm on the best procedure. If the wrong decision criterion is used, how much potential value would the firm lose? WACC: 6.75% 0 1 2 3 4 CFS -$1,025 $380 $380 $380 $380 CFL -$2,150 $765 $765 $765 $765 a. $214.44 b. $186.47 c. $218.17 d. $182.74 e. $220.03

b. $186.47

Yonan Inc. is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the shorter payback, some value may be forgone. How much value will be lost in this instance? Note that under some conditions choosing projects on the basis of the shorter payback will not cause value to be lost. a. $39.40 b. $33.11 c. $41.39 d. $28.47 e. $37.74

b. $33.11

Moerdyk & Co. is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the higher IRR, how much value will be forgone? Note that under certain conditions choosing projects on the basis of the IRR will not cause any value to be lost because the one with the higher IRR will also have the higher NPV, i.e., no conflict will exist. WACC: 6.75% 0 1 2 3 4 CFS -$1,025 $650 $450 $250 $50 CFL -$1,025 $100 $300 $500 $700 a. $62.75 b. $59.20 c. $53.28 d. $51.51 e. $65.71

b. $59.20

Cornell Enterprises is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that a project's projected NPV can be negative, in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 10.00% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,275 $450 $460 $470 a. -$106.10 b. -$132.63 c. -$139.26 d. -$125.99 e. -$165.78

b. -$132.63

Jazz World Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that a project's projected NPV can be negative, in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 9.75% Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$1,200 $400 $425 $450 $475 a. 0$222.13 b. 0$185.11 c. 0$157.34 d. 0$174.00 e. 0$198.07

b. 0$185.11

Eakins Inc.'s common stock currently sells for $15.00 per share, the company expects to earn $2.75 per share during the current year, its expected payout ratio is 70%, and its expected constant growth rate is 6.00%. New stock can be sold to the public at the current price, but a flotation cost of 8% would be incurred. By how much would the cost of new stock exceed the cost of retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 0.78% b. 1.12% c. 0.67% d. 1.45% e. 0.89%

b. 1.12%

Trahan Lumber Company hired you to help estimate its cost of capital. You obtained the following data: D1 = $1.25; P0 = $22.50; g = 5.00% (constant); and F = 6.00%. What is the cost of equity raised by selling new common stock? a. 8.84% b. 10.91% c. 11.78% d. 10.58% e. 11.35%

b. 10.91%

Masulis Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's discounted payback? WACC: 10.00% Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$925 $525 $485 $445 $405 a. 2.40 years b. 2.14 years c. 2.25 years d. 1.95 years e. 1.86 years

b. 2.14 years

Several years ago the Jakob Company sold a $1,000 par value, noncallable bond that now has 20 years to maturity and a 7.00% annual coupon that is paid semiannually. The bond currently sells for $875, and the company's tax rate is 40%. What is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 4.58% b. 4.97% c. 3.78% d. 4.92% e. 5.87%

b. 4.97%

Sorensen Systems Inc. is expected to pay a $2.50 dividend at year end (D1 = $2.50), the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5.50% a year, and the common stock currently sells for $37.50 a share. The before-tax cost of debt is 7.50%, and the tax rate is 40%. The target capital structure consists of 45% debt and 55% common equity. What is the company's WACC if all the equity used is from retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 9.41% b. 8.72% c. 7.58% d. 9.94% e. 8.80%

b. 8.72%

Assume that you are a consultant to Broske Inc., and you have been provided with the following data: D1 = $0.67; P0 = $45.00; and g = 8.00% (constant). What is the cost of equity from retained earnings based on the DCF approach? a. 7.59% b. 9.49% c. 11.10% d. 10.15% e. 8.63%

b. 9.49%

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 - T). This follows because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, and as such they can be deducted by the issuer for tax purposes. b. A cost should be assigned to retained earnings due to the opportunity cost principle, which refers to the fact that the firm's stockholders would themselves expect to earn a return on earnings that were paid out rather than retained and reinvested. c. No cost should be assigned to retained earnings because the firm does not have to pay anything to raise them. They are generated as cash flows by operating assets that were raised in the past, hence they are "free." d. Suppose a firm has been losing money and thus is not paying taxes, and this situation is expected to persist into the foreseeable future. In this case, the firm's before-tax and after-tax costs of debt for purposes of calculating the WACC will both be equal to the interest rate on the firm's currently outstanding debt, provided that debt was issued during the past 5 years. e. If a firm has enough retained earnings to fund its capital budget for the coming year, then there is no need to estimate either a cost of equity or a WACC.

b. A cost should be assigned to retained earnings due to the opportunity cost principle, which refers to the fact that the firm's stockholders would themselves expect to earn a return on earnings that were paid out rather than retained and reinvested.

Assume a project has normal cash flows. All else equal, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A project's IRR increases as the WACC declines. b. A project's NPV increases as the WACC declines. c. A project's MIRR is unaffected by changes in the WACC. d. A project's regular payback increases as the WACC declines. e. A project's discounted payback increases as the WACC declines.

b. A project's NPV increases as the WACC declines.

Which of the following is NOT a capital component when calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for use in capital budgeting? a. Long-term debt. b. Accounts payable. c. Retained earnings. d. Common stock. e. Preferred stock.

b. Accounts payable.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An externality is a situation where a project would have an adverse effect on some other part of the firm's overall operations. If the project would have a favorable effect on other operations, then this is not an externality. b. An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to decline. c. The NPV method automatically deals correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified, but the IRR method does not. This is another reason to favor the NPV. d. Both the NPV and IRR methods deal correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified. However, the payback method does not. e. Identifying an externality can never lead to an increase in the calculated NPV.

b. An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to decline.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An externality is a situation where a project would have an adverse effect on some other part of the firm's overall operations. If the project would have a favorable effect on other operations, then this is not an externality. b. An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to increase. c. The NPV method automatically deals correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified, but the IRR method does not. This is another reason to favor the NPV. d. Both the NPV and IRR methods deal correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified. However, the payback method does not. e. Identifying an externality can never lead to an increase in the calculated NPV.

b. An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to increase.

A basic rule in capital budgeting is that if a project's NPV exceeds its IRR, then the project should be accepted. a. True b. False

b. False

A firm should never accept a project if its acceptance would lead to an increase in the firm's cost of capital (its WACC). a. True b. False

b. False

Although it is extremely difficult to make accurate forecasts of the revenues that a project will generate, projects' initial outlays and subsequent costs can be forecasted with great accuracy. This is especially true for large product development projects. a. True b. False

b. False

An increase in the firm's WACC will decrease projects' NPVs, which could change the accept/reject decision for any potential project. However, such a change would have no impact on projects' IRRs. Therefore, the accept/reject decision under the IRR method is independent of the cost of capital. a. True b. False

b. False

Assuming that their NPVs based on the firm's cost of capital are equal, the NPV of a project whose cash flows accrue relatively rapidly will be more sensitive to changes in the discount rate than the NPV of a project whose cash flows come in later in its life. a. True b. False

b. False

Because "present value" refers to the value of cash flows that occur at different points in time, a series of present values of cash flows should not be summed to determine the value of a capital budgeting project. a. True b. False

b. False

Because of improvements in forecasting techniques, estimating the cash flows associated with a project has become the easiest step in the capital budgeting process. a. True b. False

b. False

Both the regular and the modified IRR (MIRR) methods have wide appeal to professors, but most business executives prefer the NPV method to either of the IRR methods. a. True b. False

b. False

Changes in net operating working capital should not be reflected in a capital budgeting cash flow analysis because capital budgeting relates to fixed assets, not working capital. a. True b. False

b. False

Conflicts between two mutually exclusive projects occasionally occur, where the NPV method ranks one project higher but the IRR method puts the other one first. In theory, such conflicts should be resolved in favor of the project with the higher IRR. a. True b. False

b. False

For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should always consider retained earnings as the first source of capital (i.e., use these funds first) because retained earnings have no cost to the firm. a. True b. False

b. False

Funds acquired by the firm through retaining earnings have no cost because there are no dividend or interest payments associated with them, and no flotation costs are required to raise them, but capital raised by selling new stock or bonds does have a cost. a. True b. False

b. False

If debt is to be used to finance a project, then when cash flows for a project are estimated, interest payments should be included in the analysis. a. True b. False

b. False

If expectations for long-term inflation rose, but the slope of the SML remained constant, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Therefore, the percentage point increase in the cost of equity would be greater than the increase in the interest rate on long-term debt. a. True b. False

b. False

If the IRR of normal Project X is greater than the IRR of mutually exclusive (and also normal) Project Y, we can conclude that the firm should always select X rather than Y if X has NPV > 0. a. True b. False

b. False

If you were evaluating two mutually exclusive projects for a firm with a zero cost of capital, the payback method and NPV method would always lead to the same decision on which project to undertake. a. True b. False

b. False

In general, firms should use their weighted average cost of capital (WACC) to evaluate capital budgeting projects because most projects are funded with general corporate funds, which come from a variety of sources. However, if the firm plans to use only debt or only equity to fund a particular project, it should use the after-tax cost of that specific type of capital to evaluate that project. a. True b. False

b. False

Normal Projects S and L have the same NPV when the discount rate is zero. However, Project S's cash flows come in faster than those of L. Therefore, we know that at any discount rate greater than zero, L will have the higher NPV. a. True b. False

b. False

Other things held constant, an increase in the cost of capital will result in a decrease in a project's IRR. a. True b. False

b. False

Since 70% of the preferred dividends received by a corporation are excluded from taxable income, the component cost of equity for a company that pays half of its earnings out as common dividends and half as preferred dividends should, theoretically, be Cost of equity = rs(0.30)(0.50) + rps(1 - T)(0.70)(0.50). a. True b. False

b. False

Since the focus of capital budgeting is on cash flows rather than on net income, changes in noncash balance sheet accounts such as inventory are not included in a capital budgeting analysis. a. True b. False

b. False

Superior analytical techniques, such as NPV, used in combination with risk-adjusted cost of capital estimates, can overcome the problem of poor cash flow estimation and lead to generally correct accept/reject decisions for capital budgeting projects. a. True b. False

b. False

Suppose Walker Publishing Company is considering bringing out a new finance text whose projected revenues include some revenues that will be taken away from another of Walker's books. The lost sales on the older book are a sunk cost and as such should not be considered in the analysis for the new book. a. True b. False

b. False

Suppose a firm's CFO thinks that an externality is present in a project, but that it cannot be quantified with any precision--estimates of its effect would really just be guesses. In this case, the externality should be ignored--i.e., not considered at all--because if it were considered it would make the analysis appear more precise than it really is. a. True b. False

b. False

Suppose the debt ratio is 50%, the interest rate on new debt is 8%, the current cost of equity is 16%, and the tax rate is 40%. An increase in the debt ratio to 60% would have to decrease the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). a. True b. False

b. False

Suppose you are the president of a small, publicly-traded corporation. Since you believe that your firm's stock price is temporarily depressed, all additional capital funds required during the current year will be raised using debt. In this case, the appropriate marginal cost of capital for use in capital budgeting during the current year is the after-tax cost of debt. a. True b. False

b. False

The IRR method is based on the assumption that projects' cash flows are reinvested at the project's risk-adjusted cost of capital. a. True b. False

b. False

The IRR of normal Project X is greater than the IRR of normal Project Y, and both IRRs are greater than zero. Also, the NPV of X is greater than the NPV of Y at the cost of capital. If the two projects are mutually exclusive, Project X should definitely be selected, and the investment made, provided we have confidence in the data. Put another way, it is impossible to draw NPV profiles that would suggest not accepting Project X. a. True b. False

b. False

The NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two equally risky but mutually exclusive projects, will lead to different accept/reject decisions and thus capital budgets if the cost of capital at which the projects' NPV profiles cross is greater than the crossover rate. a. True b. False

b. False

The NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two independent and equally risky projects, will lead to different accept/reject decisions and thus capital budgets if the projects' IRRs are greater than their costs of capital. a. True b. False

b. False

The before-tax cost of debt, which is lower than the after-tax cost, is used as the component cost of debt for purposes of developing the firm's WACC. a. True b. False

b. False

The change in net operating working capital associated with new projects is always positive, because new projects mean that more operating working capital will be required. a. True b. False

b. False

The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt. a. True b. False

b. False

The cost of equity raised by retaining earnings can be less than, equal to, or greater than the cost of external equity raised by selling new issues of common stock, depending on tax rates, flotation costs, the attitude of investors, and other factors. a. True b. False

b. False

The cost of external equity capital raised by issuing new common stock (re) is defined as follows, in words: "The cost of external equity equals the cost of equity capital from retaining earnings (rs), divided by one minus the percentage flotation cost required to sell the new stock, (1 - F)." a. True b. False

b. False

The cost of preferred stock to a firm must be adjusted to an after-tax figure because 70% of dividends received by a corporation may be excluded from the receiving corporation's taxable income. a. True b. False

b. False

The firm's cost of external equity raised by issuing new stock is the same as the required rate of return on the firm's outstanding common stock. a. True b. False

b. False

The higher the firm's flotation cost for new common equity, the more likely the firm is to use preferred stock, which has no flotation cost, and retained earnings, whose cost is the average return on the assets that are acquired. a. True b. False

b. False

The lower the firm's tax rate, the lower will be its after-tax cost of debt and also its WACC, other things held constant. a. True b. False

b. False

The phenomenon called "multiple internal rates of return" arises when two or more mutually exclusive projects that have different lives are being compared. a. True b. False

b. False

The primary advantage to using accelerated rather than straight-line depreciation is that with accelerated depreciation the total amount of depreciation that can be taken, assuming the asset is used for its full tax life, is greater. a. True b. False

b. False

The primary reason that the NPV method is conceptually superior to the IRR method for evaluating mutually exclusive investments is that multiple IRRs may exist, and when that happens, we don't know which IRR is relevant. a. True b. False

b. False

The regular payback method is deficient in that it does not take account of cash flows beyond the payback period. The discounted payback method corrects this fault. a. True b. False

b. False

The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. However, only the CAPM method always provides an accurate and reliable estimate. a. True b. False

b. False

The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. However, only the DCF method is widely used in practice. a. True b. False

b. False

The two cardinal rules that financial analysts should follow to avoid errors are: (1) in the NPV equation, the numerator should use income calculated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, and (2) all incremental cash flows should be considered when making accept/reject decisions for capital budgeting projects. a. True b. False

b. False

The use of accelerated versus straight-line depreciation causes net income reported to stockholders to be lower, and cash flows higher, during every year of a project's life, other things held constant. a. True b. False

b. False

Typically, a project will have a higher NPV if the firm uses accelerated rather than straight-line depreciation. This is because the total cash flows over the project's life will be higher if accelerated depreciation is used, other things held constant. a. True b. False

b. False

We can identify the cash costs and cash inflows to a company that will result from a project. These could be called "direct inflows and outflows," and the net difference is the direct net cash flow. If there are other costs and benefits that do not flow from or to the firm, but to other parties, these are called externalities, and they need not be considered as a part of the capital budgeting analysis. a. True b. False

b. False

When considering two mutually exclusive projects, the firm should always select the project whose internal rate of return is the highest, provided the projects have the same initial cost. This statement is true regardless of whether the projects can be repeated or not. a. True b. False

b. False

When evaluating mutually exclusive projects, the modified IRR (MIRR) always leads to the same capital budgeting decisions as the NPV method, regardless of the relative lives or sizes of the projects being evaluated. a. True b. False

b. False

Rowell Company spent $3 million two years ago to build a plant for a new product. It then decided not to go forward with the project, so the building is available for sale or for a new product. Rowell owns the building free and clear--there is no mortgage on it. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the building has been paid for, it can be used by another project with no additional cost. Therefore, it should not be reflected in the cash flows of the capital budgeting analysis for any new project. b. If the building could be sold, then the after-tax proceeds that would be generated by any such sale should be charged as a cost to any new project that would use it. c. This is an example of an externality, because the very existence of the building affects the cash flows for any new project that Rowell might consider. d. Since the building was built in the past, its cost is a sunk cost and thus need not be considered when new projects are being evaluated, even if it would be used by those new projects. e. If there is a mortgage loan on the building, then the interest on that loan would have to be charged to any new project that used the building.

b. If the building could be sold, then the after-tax proceeds that would be generated by any such sale should be charged as a cost to any new project that would use it.

You are considering two mutually exclusive, equally risky, projects. Both have IRRs that exceed the WACC. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the projects have normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. If the two projects' NPV profiles do not cross, then there will be a sharp conflict as to which one should be selected. b. If the cost of capital is greater than the crossover rate, then the IRR and the NPV criteria will not result in a conflict between the projects. One project will rank higher by both criteria. c. If the cost of capital is less than the crossover rate, then the IRR and the NPV criteria will not result in a conflict between the projects. One project will rank higher by both criteria. d. For a conflict to exist between NPV and IRR, the initial investment cost of one project must exceed the cost of the other. e. For a conflict to exist between NPV and IRR, one project must have an increasing stream of cash flows over time while the other has a decreasing stream. If both sets of cash flows are increasing or decreasing, then it would be impossible for a conflict to exist, even if one project is larger than the other.

b. If the cost of capital is greater than the crossover rate, then the IRR and the NPV criteria will not result in a conflict between the projects. One project will rank higher by both criteria.

Bankston Corporation forecasts that if all of its existing financial policies are followed, its proposed capital budget would be so large that it would have to issue new common stock. Since new stock has a higher cost than retained earnings, Bankston would like to avoid issuing new stock. Which of the following actions would REDUCE its need to issue new common stock? a. Increase the dividend payout ratio for the upcoming year. b. Increase the percentage of debt in the target capital structure. c. Increase the proposed capital budget. d. Reduce the amount of short-term bank debt in order to increase the current ratio. e. Reduce the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.

b. Increase the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV takes account of cash flows over a project's full life whereas IRR does not. b. One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, whereas IRR assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. The NPV assumption is generally more appropriate. c. One advantage of the NPV over the MIRR method is that NPV takes account of cash flows over a project's full life whereas MIRR does not. d. One advantage of the NPV over the MIRR method is that NPV discounts cash flows whereas the MIRR is based on undiscounted cash flows. e. Since cash flows under the IRR and MIRR are both discounted at the same rate (the WACC), these two methods always rank mutually exclusive projects in the same order.

b. One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, whereas IRR assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. The NPV assumption is generally more appropriate.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. The longer a project's payback period, the more desirable the project is normally considered to be by this criterion. b. One drawback of the payback criterion for evaluating projects is that this method does not properly account for the time value of money. c. If a project's payback is positive, then the project should be rejected because it must have a negative NPV. d. The regular payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period, but the discounted payback method overcomes this problem. e. If a company uses the same payback requirement to evaluate all projects, say it requires a payback of 4 years or less, then the company will tend to reject projects with relatively short lives and accept long-lived projects, and this will cause its risk to increase over time.

b. One drawback of the payback criterion for evaluating projects is that this method does not properly account for the time value of money.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The shorter a project's payback period, the less desirable the project is normally considered to be by this criterion. b. One drawback of the payback criterion is that this method does not take account of cash flows beyond the payback period. c. If a project's payback is positive, then the project should be accepted because it must have a positive NPV. d. The regular payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period, but the discounted payback method overcomes this problem. e. One drawback of the discounted payback is that this method does not consider the time value of money, while the regular payback overcomes this drawback.

b. One drawback of the payback criterion is that this method does not take account of cash flows beyond the payback period.

Which of the following rules is CORRECT for capital budgeting analysis? a. The interest paid on funds borrowed to finance a project must be included in estimates of the project's cash flows. b. Only incremental cash flows, which are the cash flows that would result if a project is accepted, are relevant when making accept/reject decisions for capital budgeting projects. c. Sunk costs are not included in the annual cash flows, but they must be deducted from the PV of the project's other costs when reaching the accept/reject decision. d. A proposed project's estimated net income as determined by the firm's accountants, using generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), is discounted at the WACC, and if the PV of this income stream exceeds the project's cost, the project should be accepted. e. If a product is competitive with some of the firm's other products, this fact should be incorporated into the estimate of the relevant cash flows. However, if the new product is complementary to some of the firm's other products, this fact need not be reflected in the analysis.

b. Only incremental cash flows, which are the cash flows that would result if a project is accepted, are relevant when making accept/reject decisions for capital budgeting projects.

When evaluating a new project, firms should include in the projected cash flows all of the following EXCEPT: a. Changes in net operating working capital attributable to the project. b. Previous expenditures associated with a market test to determine the feasibility of the project, provided those costs have been expensed for tax purposes. c. The value of a building owned by the firm that will be used for this project. d. A decline in the sales of an existing product, provided that decline is directly attributable to this project. e. The salvage value of assets used for the project that will be recovered at the end of the project's life.

b. Previous expenditures associated with a market test to determine the feasibility of the project, provided those costs have been expensed for tax purposes.

Suppose Tapley Inc. uses a WACC of 8% for below-average risk projects, 10% for average-risk projects, and 12% for above-average risk projects. Which of the following independent projects should Tapley accept, assuming that the company uses the NPV method when choosing projects? a. Project A, which has average risk and an IRR = 9%. b. Project B, which has below-average risk and an IRR = 8.5%. c. Project C, which has above-average risk and an IRR = 11%. d. Without information about the projects' NPVs we cannot determine which one or ones should be accepted. e. All of these projects should be accepted as they will produce a positive NPV.

b. Project B, which has below-average risk and an IRR = 8.5%.

Projects S and L both have an initial cost of $10,000, followed by a series of positive cash inflows. Project S's undiscounted net cash flows total $20,000, while L's total undiscounted flows are $30,000. At a WACC of 10%, the two projects have identical NPVs. Which project's NPV is more sensitive to changes in the WACC? a. Project S. b. Project L. c. Both projects are equally sensitive to changes in the WACC since their NPVs are equal at all costs of capital. d. Neither project is sensitive to changes in the discount rate, since both have NPV profiles that are horizontal. e. The solution cannot be determined because the problem gives us no information that can be used to determine the projects' relative IRRs.

b. Project L.

Project X's IRR is 19% and Project Y's IRR is 17%. The projects have the same risk and the same lives, and each has constant cash flows during each year of their lives. If the WACC is 10%, Project Y has a higher NPV than X. Given this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The crossover rate must be less than 10%. b. The crossover rate must be greater than 10%. c. If the WACC is 8%, Project X will have the higher NPV. d. If the WACC is 18%, Project Y will have the higher NPV. e. Project X is larger in the sense that it has the higher initial cost.

b. The crossover rate must be greater than 10%.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's NPV is generally found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the IRR to find its PV. b. The higher the WACC used to calculate the NPV, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPVs of relatively risky projects should be found using relatively low WACCs.

b. The higher the WACC used to calculate the NPV, the lower the calculated NPV will be.

For a typical firm, which of the following sequences is CORRECT? All rates are after taxes, and assume that the firm operates at its target capital structure. a. rs > re > rd > WACC. b. re > rs > WACC > rd. c. WACC > re > rs > rd. d. rd > re > rs > WACC. e. WACC > rd > rs > re.

b. re > rs > WACC > rd.

Nast Inc. is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the higher MIRR rather than the one with the higher NPV, how much value will be forgone? Note that under some conditions choosing projects on the basis of the MIRR will cause $0.00 value to be lost. WACC: 10.75% 0 1 2 3 4 CFS -$1,100 $375 $375 $375 $375 CFL -$2,200 $725 $725 $725 $725 a. $6.49 b. $9.40 c. $0.00 d. $7.66 e. $6.66

c. $0.00

Noe Drilling Inc. is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. The CEO believes the IRR is the best selection criterion, while the CFO advocates the MIRR. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the higher IRR rather than the one with the higher MIRR, how much, if any, value will be forgone, i.e., what's the NPV of the chosen project versus the maximum possible NPV? Note that (1) "true value" is measured by NPV, and (2) under some conditions the choice of IRR vs. MIRR will have no effect on the value lost. a. $73.38 b. $79.56 c. $0.00 d. $96.55 e. $78.01

c. $0.00

Tesar Chemicals is considering Projects S and L, whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive, equally risky, and not repeatable. The CEO believes the IRR is the best selection criterion, while the CFO advocates the NPV. If the decision is made by choosing the project with the higher IRR rather than the one with the higher NPV, how much, if any, value will be forgone, i.e., what's the chosen NPV versus the maximum possible NPV? Note that (1) "true value" is measured by NPV, and (2) under some conditions the choice of IRR vs. NPV will have no effect on the value gained or lost. WACC: 7.75% 0 1 2 3 4 CFS -$1,100 $550 $600 $100 $100 CFL -$2,700 $650 $725 $800 $1,400 a. $102.07 b. $118.25 c. $124.47 d. $95.84 e. $133.18

c. $124.47

Your company, CSUS Inc., is considering a new project whose data are shown below. The required equipment has a 3-year tax life, and the accelerated rates for such property are 33%, 45%, 15%, and 7% for Years 1 through 4. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 10-year expected operating life. What is the project's Year 4 cash flow? Equipment cost (depreciable basis) $70,000 Sales revenues, each year $47,000 Operating costs (excl. depr.) $25,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $12,332 b. $16,335 c. $16,015 d. $14,093 e. $13,132

c. $16,015

You work for Whittenerg Inc., which is considering a new project whose data are shown below. What is the project's Year 1 cash flow? Sales revenues, each year $62,750 Depreciation $8,000 Other operating costs $25,000 Interest expense $8,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $27,229 b. $24,573 c. $22,138 d. $21,473 e. $26,122

c. $22,138

Fool Proof Software is considering a new project whose data are shown below. The equipment that would be used has a 3-year tax life, and the allowed depreciation rates for such property are 33%, 45%, 15%, and 7% for Years 1 through 4. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 10-year expected life. What is the Year 1 cash flow? Equipment cost (depreciable basis) $90,000 Sales revenues, each year $60,000 Operating costs (excl. depr.) $25,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $34,802 b. $24,859 c. $33,145 d. $28,836 e. $27,179

c. $33,145

Lasik Vision Inc. recently analyzed the project whose cash flows are shown below. However, before Lasik decided to accept or reject the project, the Federal Reserve took actions that changed interest rates and therefore the firm's WACC. The Fed's action did not affect the forecasted cash flows. By how much did the change in the WACC affect the project's forecasted NPV? Note that a project's projected NPV can be negative, in which case it should be rejected. Old WACC: 8.00% New WACC: 9.75% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,000 $410 $410 $410 a. -$30.55 b. -$34.12 c. -$32.50 d. -$28.60 e. -$29.25

c. -$32.50

Warr Company is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's IRR? Note that a project's projected IRR can be less than the WACC or negative, in both cases it will be rejected. Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$1565 $400 $400 $400 $400 a. 0.85% b. 0.78% c. 0.88% d. 0.76% e. 0.91%

c. 0.88%

Harry's Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that if a project's projected NPV is negative, it should be rejected. WACC: 9.50% Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 Cash flows -$1,000 $300 $300 $300 $300 $300 a. 0120.01 b. 0135.20 c. 0151.91 d. 0179.26 e. 0133.68

c. 0151.91

Ingram Electric Products is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's MIRR? Note that a project's projected MIRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 7.00% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$800 $350 $350 $350 a. 14.93% b. 10.00% c. 12.04% d. 13.97% e. 9.15%

c. 12.04%

Refer to Exhibit 10.1. What is the best estimate of the firm's WACC? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 11.26% b. 11.74% c. 12.11% d. 12.59% e. 12.97%

c. 12.11%

Hindelang Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's MIRR? Note that a project's projected MIRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 12.50% Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$850 $300 $320 $340 $360 a. 15.00% b. 12.83% c. 16.67% d. 13.33% e. 20.66%

c. 16.67%

TexMex Food Company is considering a new salsa whose data are shown below. The equipment to be used would be depreciated by the straight-line method over its 3-year life and would have a zero salvage value, and no change in net operating working capital would be required. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 3-year life. However, this project would compete with other TexMex products and would reduce their pre-tax annual cash flows. What is the project's NPV? (Hint: Cash flows are constant in Years 1-3.) Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Pre-tax cash flow reduction for other products (cannibalization) -$5,000 Investment cost (depreciable basis) $80,000 Straight-line depr. rate 33.333% Annual sales revenues $66,500 Annual operating costs (excl. depr.) -$25,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. 2,477 b. 1,680 c. 2,211 d. 2,101 e. 2,742

c. 2,211

Sapp Trucking's balance sheet shows a total of noncallable $45 million long-term debt with a coupon rate of 7.00% and a yield to maturity of 6.00%. This debt currently has a market value of $50 million. The balance sheet also shows that the company has 10 million shares of common stock, and the book value of the common equity (common stock plus retained earnings) is $65 million. The current stock price is $22.50 per share; stockholders' required return, rs, is 14.00%; and the firm's tax rate is 40%. The CFO thinks the WACC should be based on market value weights, but the president thinks book weights are more appropriate. What is the difference between these two WACCs? a. 2.48% b. 2.25% c. 2.36% d. 2.95% e. 1.77%

c. 2.36%

To help finance a major expansion, Castro Chemical Company sold a noncallable bond several years ago that now has 20 years to maturity. This bond has a 9.25% annual coupon, paid semiannually, sells at a price of $1,025, and has a par value of $1,000. If the firm's tax rate is 40%, what is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 5.93% b. 5.93% c. 5.39% d. 6.09% e. 4.69%

c. 5.39%

Refer to Exhibit 10.1. What is the best estimate of the after-tax cost of debt? a. 5.62% b. 6.07% c. 6.39% d. 6.77% e. 7.11%

c. 6.39%

Rivoli Inc. hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: D0 = $0.80; P0 = $57.50; and g = 8.00% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 11.02% b. 10.17% c. 9.50% d. 10.07% e. 7.98%

c. 9.50%

Duval Inc. uses only equity capital, and it has two equally-sized divisions. Division A's cost of capital is 10.0%, Division B's cost is 14.0%, and the corporate (composite) WACC is 12.0%. All of Division A's projects are equally risky, as are all of Division B's projects. However, the projects of Division A are less risky than those of Division B. Which of the following projects should the firm accept? a. A Division B project with a 13% return. b. A Division B project with a 12% return. c. A Division A project with an 11% return. d. A Division A project with a 9% return. e. A Division B project with an 11% return.

c. A Division A project with an 11% return.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A sunk cost is any cost that must be expended in order to complete a project and bring it into operation. b. A sunk cost is any cost that was expended in the past but can be recovered if the firm decides not to go forward with the project. c. A sunk cost is a cost that was incurred and expensed in the past and cannot be recovered if the firm decides not to go forward with the project. d. Sunk costs were formerly hard to deal with, but once the NPV method came into wide use, it became possible to simply include sunk costs in the cash flows and then calculate the project's NPV. e. A good example of a sunk cost is a situation where Home Depot opens a new store, and that leads to a decline in sales of one of the firm's existing stores.

c. A sunk cost is a cost that was incurred and expensed in the past and cannot be recovered if the firm decides not to go forward with the project.

Langston Labs has an overall (composite) WACC of 10%, which reflects the cost of capital for its average asset. Its assets vary widely in risk, and Langston evaluates low-risk projects with a WACC of 8%, average-risk projects at 10%, and high-risk projects at 12%. The company is considering the following projects: Project Risk Expected Return A High 15% B Average 12% C High 11% D Low 9% E Low 6% Which set of projects would maximize shareholder wealth? a. A and B b. A, B, and C c. A, B, and D d. A, B, C, and D e. A, B, C, D, and E

c. A, B, and D

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because preferred stock dividends are deductible by the paying corporation. b. All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase its marginal cost of retained earnings, rs. c. All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase its marginal cost of new common equity, re. d. Since the money is readily available, the after-tax cost of retained earnings is usually much lower than the after-tax cost of debt. e. If a company's tax rate increases but the YTM on its noncallable bonds remains the same, the after-tax cost of its debt will fall.

c. All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase its marginal cost of new common equity, re.

Projects A and B are mutually exclusive and have normal cash flows. Project A has an IRR of 15% and B's IRR is 20%. The company's WACC is 12%, and at that rate Project A has the higher NPV. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The crossover rate for the two projects must be less than 12%. b. Assuming the timing pattern of the two projects' cash flows is the same, Project B probably has a higher cost (and larger scale). c. Assuming the two projects have the same scale, Project B probably has a faster payback than Project A. d. The crossover rate for the two projects must be 12%. e. Since B has the higher IRR, then it must also have the higher NPV if the crossover rate is less than the WACC of 12%.

c. Assuming the two projects have the same scale, Project B probably has a faster payback than Project A.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The discounted cash flow method of estimating the cost of equity cannot be used unless the growth rate, g, is expected to be constant forever. b. If the calculated beta underestimates the firm's true investment risk—i.e., if the forward-looking beta that investors think exists exceeds the historical beta—then the CAPM method based on the historical beta will produce an estimate of rs and thus WACC that is too high. c. Beta measures market risk, which is, theoretically, the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. This is true even if not all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified. d. An advantage shared by both the DCF and CAPM methods when they are used to estimate the cost of equity is that they are both "objective" as opposed to "subjective," hence little or no judgment is required. e. The specific risk premium used in the CAPM is the same as the risk premium used in the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach.

c. Beta measures market risk, which is, theoretically, the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. This is true even if not all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified.

Firm M's earnings and stock price tend to move up and down with other firms in the S&P 500, while Firm W's earnings and stock price move counter cyclically with M and other S&P companies. Both M and W estimate their costs of equity using the CAPM, they have identical market values, their standard deviations of returns are identical, and they both finance only with common equity. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. M should have the lower WACC because it is like most other companies, and investors like that fact. b. M and W should have identical WACCs because their risks as measured by the standard deviation of returns are identical. c. If M and W merge, then the merged firm MW should have a WACC that is a simple average of M's and W's WACCs. d. Without additional information, it is impossible to predict what the merged firm's WACC would be if M and W merged. e. Since M and W move counter cyclically to one another, if they merged, the merged firm's WACC would be less than the simple average of the two firms' WACCs.

c. If M and W merge, then the merged firm MW should have a WACC that is a simple average of M's and W's WACCs.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since debt capital can cause a company to go bankrupt but equity capital cannot, debt is riskier than equity, and thus the after-tax cost of debt is always greater than the cost of equity. b. The tax-adjusted cost of debt is always greater than the interest rate on debt, provided the company does in fact pay taxes. c. If a company assigns the same cost of capital to all of its projects regardless of each project's risk, then the company is likely to reject some safe projects that it actually should accept and to accept some risky projects that it should reject. d. Because no flotation costs are required to obtain capital as retained earnings, the cost of retained earnings is generally lower than the after-tax cost of debt. e. Higher flotation costs tend to reduce the cost of equity capital.

c. If a company assigns the same cost of capital to all of its projects regardless of each project's risk, then the company is likely to reject some safe projects that it actually should accept and to accept some risky projects that it should reject.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that all projects being considered have normal cash flows and are equally risky. a. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then, under all reasonable conditions, the project's NPV must be negative. b. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then under all reasonable conditions, the project's IRR must be negative. c. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then under all reasonable conditions the project's NPV must be zero. d. There is no necessary relationship between a project's IRR, its WACC, and its NPV. e. When evaluating mutually exclusive projects, those projects with relatively long lives will tend to have relatively high NPVs when the cost of capital is relatively high.

c. If a project's IRR is equal to its WACC, then under all reasonable conditions the project's NPV must be zero.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's MIRR is always greater than its regular IRR. b. A project's MIRR is always less than its regular IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be less than the IRR. d. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be greater than the IRR. e. To find a project's MIRR, we compound cash inflows at the IRR and then discount the terminal value back to t = 0 at the WACC.

c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be less than the IRR.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's NPV is found by compounding the cash inflows at the IRR to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC. b. The lower the WACC used to calculate it, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a project's NPV is less than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPV of a relatively low-risk project should be found using a relatively high WACC.

c. If a project's NPV is less than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC.

McCall Manufacturing has a WACC of 10%. The firm is considering two normal, equally risky, mutually exclusive, but not repeatable projects. The two projects have the same investment costs, but Project A has an IRR of 15%, while Project B has an IRR of 20%. Assuming the projects' NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Each project must have a negative NPV. b. Since the projects are mutually exclusive, the firm should always select Project B. c. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project B will have the higher NPV. d. Only one project has a positive NPV. e. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project A will have the higher NPV.

c. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project B will have the higher NPV.

Which of the following statement completions is NOT CORRECT? For a profitable firm, when MACRS accelerated depreciation is compared to straight-line depreciation, MACRS accelerated allowances produce a. Higher depreciation charges in the early years of an asset's life. b. Larger cash flows in the earlier years of an asset's life. c. Larger total undiscounted profits from the project over the project's life. d. Smaller accounting profits in the early years, assuming the company uses the same depreciation method for tax and book purposes. e. Lower tax payments in the earlier years of an asset's life.

c. Larger total undiscounted profits from the project over the project's life.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV, IRR, MIRR, and discounted payback (using a payback requirement of 3 years or less) methods always lead to the same accept/reject decisions for independent projects. b. For mutually exclusive projects with normal cash flows, the NPV and MIRR methods can never conflict, but their results could conflict with the discounted payback and the regular IRR methods. c. Multiple IRRs can exist, but not multiple MIRRs. This is one reason some people favor the MIRR over the regular IRR. d. If a firm uses the discounted payback method with a required payback of 4 years, then it will accept more projects than if it used a regular payback of 4 years. e. The percentage difference between the MIRR and the IRR is equal to the project's WACC.

c. Multiple IRRs can exist, but not multiple MIRRs. This is one reason some people favor the MIRR over the regular IRR.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The MIRR and NPV decision criteria can never conflict. b. The IRR method can never be subject to the multiple IRR problem, while the MIRR method can be. c. One reason some people prefer the MIRR to the regular IRR is that the MIRR is based on a generally more reasonable reinvestment rate assumption. d. The higher the WACC, the shorter the discounted payback period. e. The MIRR method assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the crossover rate.

c. One reason some people prefer the MIRR to the regular IRR is that the MIRR is based on a generally more reasonable reinvestment rate assumption.

Taussig Technologies is considering two potential projects, X and Y. In assessing the projects' risks, the company estimated the beta of each project versus both the company's other assets and the stock market, and it also conducted thorough scenario and simulation analyses. This research produced the following data: Project X Project Y Expected NPV $350,000 $350,000 Standard deviation ( NPV) $100,000 $150,000 Project beta (vs. market) 1.4 0.8 Correlation of the project cash flows with cash flows from currently existing projects. Cash flows are not correlated with the cash flows from existing projects. Cash flows are highly correlated with the cash flows from existing projects. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Project X has more stand-alone risk than Project Y. b. Project X has more corporate (or within-firm) risk than Project Y. c. Project X has more market risk than Project Y. d. Project X has the same level of corporate risk as Project Y. e. Project X has the same market risk as Project Y since its cash flows are not correlated with the cash flows of existing projects.

c. Project X has more market risk than Project Y.

A company is considering a new project. The CFO plans to calculate the project's NPV by estimating the relevant cash flows for each year of the project's life (i.e., the initial investment cost, the annual operating cash flows, and the terminal cash flows), then discounting those cash flows at the company's overall WACC. Which one of the following factors should the CFO be sure to INCLUDE in the cash flows when estimating the relevant cash flows? a. All sunk costs that have been incurred relating to the project. b. All interest expenses on debt used to help finance the project. c. The additional investment in net operating working capital required to operate the project, even if that investment will be recovered at the end of the project's life. d. Sunk costs that have been incurred relating to the project, but only if those costs were incurred prior to the current year. e. Effects of the project on other divisions of the firm, but only if those effects lower the project's own direct cash flows.

c. The additional investment in net operating working capital required to operate the project, even if that investment will be recovered at the end of the project's life.

Dalrymple Inc. is considering production of a new product. In evaluating whether to go ahead with the project, which of the following items should NOT be explicitly considered when cash flows are estimated? a. The company will produce the new product in a vacant building that was used to produce another product until last year. The building could be sold, leased to another company, or used in the future to produce another of the firm's products. b. The project will utilize some equipment the company currently owns but is not now using. A used equipment dealer has offered to buy the equipment. c. The company has spent and expensed for tax purposes $3 million on research related to the new product. These funds cannot be recovered, but the research may benefit other projects that might be proposed in the future. d. The new product will cut into sales of some of the firm's other products. e. If the project is accepted, the company must invest an additional $2 million in net operating working capital. However, all of these funds will be recovered at the end of the project's life.

c. The company has spent and expensed for tax purposes $3 million on research related to the new product. These funds cannot be recovered, but the research may benefit other projects that might be proposed in the future.

Cranberry Corp. has two divisions of equal size: a computer manufacturing division and a data processing division. Its CFO believes that stand-alone data processor companies typically have a WACC of 8%, while stand-alone computer manufacturers typically have a 12% WACC. He also believes that the data processing and manufacturing divisions have the same risk as their typical peers. Consequently, he estimates that the composite, or corporate, WACC is 10%. A consultant has suggested using an 8% hurdle rate for the data processing division and a 12% hurdle rate for the manufacturing division. However, the CFO disagrees, and he has assigned a 10% WACC to all projects in both divisions. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. While the decision to use just one WACC will result in its accepting more projects in the manufacturing division and fewer projects in its data processing division than if it followed the consultant's recommendation, this should not affect the firm's intrinsic value. b. The decision not to adjust for risk means, in effect, that it is favoring the data processing division. Therefore, that division is likely to become a larger part of the consolidated company over time. c. The decision not to adjust for risk means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing division and too few in the data processing division. This will lead to a reduction in the firm's intrinsic value over time. d. The decision not to risk adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the data processing business and too few projects in the manufacturing business. This will lead to a reduction in its intrinsic value over time. e. The decision not to risk adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing business and too few projects in the data processing business. This may affect the firm's capital structure but it will not affect its intrinsic value.

c. The decision not to adjust for risk means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing division and too few in the data processing division. This will lead to a reduction in the firm's intrinsic value over time.

Which of the following factors should be included in the cash flows used to estimate a project's NPV? a. All costs associated with the project that have been incurred prior to the time the analysis is being conducted. b. Interest on funds borrowed to help finance the project. c. The end-of-project recovery of any additional net operating working capital required to operate the project. d. Cannibalization effects, but only if those effects increase the project's projected cash flows. e. Expenditures to date on research and development related to the project, provided those costs have already been expensed for tax purposes.

c. The end-of-project recovery of any additional net operating working capital required to operate the project.

Assume that the economy is enjoying a strong boom, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively high. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 12%. Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L's IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 12% current WACC. However, you believe that the economy will soon fall into a mild recession, and money costs and thus your WACC will soon decline. You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has decreased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions. Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. You should reject both projects because they will both have negative NPVs under the new conditions. b. You should delay a decision until you have more information on the projects, even if this means that a competitor might come in and capture this market. c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. e. You should recommend Project L because it will have both a higher IRR and a higher NPV under the new conditions.

c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV.

You are on the staff of Camden Inc. The CFO believes project acceptance should be based on the NPV, but Steve Camden, the president, insists that no project should be accepted unless its IRR exceeds the project's risk-adjusted WACC. Now you must make a recommendation on a project that has a cost of $15,000 and two cash flows: $110,000 at the end of Year 1 and -$100,000 at the end of Year 2. The president and the CFO both agree that the appropriate WACC for this project is 10%. At 10%, the NPV is $2,355.37, but you find two IRRs, one at 6.33% and one at 527.01%, and a MIRR of 11.32%. Which of the following statements best describes your optimal recommendation, i.e., the analysis and recommendation that is best for the company and least likely to get you in trouble with either the CFO or the president? a. You should recommend that the project be rejected because its NPV is negative and its IRR is less than the WACC. b. You should recommend that the project be rejected because, although its NPV is positive, it has an IRR that is less than the WACC. c. You should recommend that the project be accepted because (1) its NPV is positive and (2) although it has two IRRs, in this case it would be better to focus on the MIRR, which exceeds the WACC. You should explain this to the president and tell him that that the firm's value will increase if the project is accepted. d. You should recommend that the project be rejected because (1) its NPV is positive and (2) it has two IRRs, one of which is less than the WACC, which indicates that the firm's value will decline if the project is accepted. e. You should recommend that the project be rejected because, although its NPV is positive, its MIRR is less than the WACC, and that indicates that the firm's value will decline if it is accepted.

c. You should recommend that the project be accepted because (1) its NPV is positive and (2) although it has two IRRs, in this case it would be better to focus on the MIRR, which exceeds the WACC. You should explain this to the president and tell him that that the firm's value will increase if the project is accepted.

Your company, RMU Inc., is considering a new project whose data are shown below. What is the project's Year 1 cash flow? Sales revenues $25,750 Depreciation $8,000 Other operating costs $12,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $10,329 b. $10,681 c. $13,029 d. $11,738 e. $11,151

d. $11,738

Temple Corp. is considering a new project whose data are shown below. The equipment that would be used has a 3-year tax life, would be depreciated by the straight-line method over its 3-year life, and would have a zero salvage value. No change in net operating working capital would be required. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 3-year life. What is the project's NPV? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. Risk-adjusted WACC 10.0% Net investment cost (depreciable basis) $65,000 Straight-line depr. rate 33.3333% Sales revenues, each year $63,000 Annual operating costs (excl. depr.) $25,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $14,825 b. $12,838 c. $18,340 d. $15,283 e. $17,729

d. $15,283

As a member of UA Corporation's financial staff, you must estimate the Year 1 cash flow for a proposed project with the following data. What is the Year 1 cash flow? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. Sales revenues, each year $49,000 Depreciation $10,000 Other operating costs $17,000 Interest expense $4,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $20,615 b. $20,398 c. $19,313 d. $21,700 e. $18,011

d. $21,700

Marshall-Miller & Company is considering the purchase of a new machine for $50,000, installed. The machine has a tax life of 5 years, and it can be depreciated according to the depreciation rates below. The firm expects to operate the machine for 4 years and then to sell it for $6,500. If the marginal tax rate is 40%, what will the after-tax salvage value be when the machine is sold at the end of Year 4? Year Depreciation Rate 1 0.20 2 0.32 3 0.19 4 0.12 5 0.11 6 0.06 a. $8,468 b. $5,986 c. $6,424 d. $7,300 e. $7,884

d. $7,300

Desai Industries is analyzing an average-risk project, and the following data have been developed. Unit sales will be constant, but the sales price should increase with inflation. Fixed costs will also be constant, but variable costs should rise with inflation. The project should last for 3 years, it will be depreciated on a straight-line basis, and there will be no salvage value. No change in net operating working capital would be required. This is just one of many projects for the firm, so any losses on this project can be used to offset gains on other firm projects. What is the project's expected NPV? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. WACC 10.0% Net investment cost (depreciable basis) $200,000 Units sold 58,000 Average price per unit, Year 1 $25.00 Fixed op. cost excl. depr. (constant) $150,000 Variable op. cost/unit, Year 1 $20.20 Annual depreciation rate 33.333% Expected inflation rate per year 5.00% Tax rate 40.0% a. 0$66,796 b. 0$75,339 c. 0$92,426 d. 0$77,669 e. 0$61,359

d. 0$77,669

Anderson Systems is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that if a project's projected NPV is negative, it should be rejected. WACC: 11.00% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,000 $500 $500 $500 a. 0259.57 b. 0257.35 c. 0241.82 d. 0221.86 e. 0195.23

d. 0221.86

Fernando Designs is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's discounted payback? WACC: 10.00% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$650 $500 $500 $500 a. 1.62 years b. 1.58 years c. 1.15 years d. 1.47 years e. 1.24 years

d. 1.47 years

Mansi Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's payback? Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$500 $300 $325 $350 a. 1.28 years b. 1.58 years c. 1.83 years d. 1.62 years e. 1.49 years

d. 1.62 years

You were hired as a consultant to Quigley Company, whose target capital structure is 35% debt, 10% preferred, and 55% common equity. The interest rate on new debt is 6.50%, the yield on the preferred is 6.00%, the cost of retained earnings is 14.75%, and the tax rate is 40%. The firm will not be issuing any new stock. What is Quigley's WACC? Round final answer to two decimal places. Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 12.19% b. 8.36% c. 9.17% d. 10.08% e. 8.87%

d. 10.08%

Refer to Exhibit 10.1. Based on the CAPM, what is the firm's cost of equity? a. 11.78% b. 12.18% c. 12.84% d. 13.24% e. 13.50%

d. 13.24%

Maxwell Feed & Seed is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's IRR? Note that a project's projected IRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 Cash flows -$6,750 $2,000 $2,025 $2,050 $2,075 $2,100 a. 15.45% b. 17.17% c. 13.74% d. 15.61% e. 12.96%

d. 15.61%

Stern Associates is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's payback? Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 Cash flows -$975 $300 $310 $320 $330 $340 a. 2.54 years b. 2.42 years c. 3.83 years d. 3.14 years e. 3.61 years

d. 3.14 years

You were recently hired by Scheuer Media Inc. to estimate its cost of capital. You obtained the following data: D1 = $1.75; P0 = $115.00; g = 7.00% (constant); and F = 5.00%. What is the cost of equity raised by selling new common stock? a. 9.98% b. 10.49% c. 8.52% d. 8.60% e. 7.05%

d. 8.60%

Which one of the following would NOT result in incremental cash flows and thus should NOT be included in the capital budgeting analysis for a new product? a. A firm has a parcel of land that can be used for a new plant site or be sold, rented, or used for agricultural purposes. b. A new product will generate new sales, but some of those new sales will be from customers who switch from one of the firm's current products. c. A firm must obtain new equipment for the project, and $1 million is required for shipping and installing the new machinery. d. A firm has spent $2 million on research and development associated with a new product. These costs have been expensed for tax purposes, and they cannot be recovered regardless of whether the new project is accepted or rejected. e. A firm can produce a new product, and the existence of that product will stimulate sales of some of the firm's other products.

d. A firm has spent $2 million on research and development associated with a new product. These costs have been expensed for tax purposes, and they cannot be recovered regardless of whether the new project is accepted or rejected.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An example of a sunk cost is the cost associated with restoring the site of a strip mine once the ore has been depleted. b. Sunk costs must be considered if the IRR method is used but not if the firm relies on the NPV method. c. A good example of a sunk cost is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office leads to a decline in deposits of the bank's other offices. d. A good example of a sunk cost is money that a banking corporation spent last year to investigate the site for a new office, then expensed that cost for tax purposes, and now is deciding whether to go forward with the project. e. If sunk costs are considered and reflected in a project's cash flows, then the project's calculated NPV will be higher than it otherwise would have been had the sunk costs been ignored.

d. A good example of a sunk cost is money that a banking corporation spent last year to investigate the site for a new office, then expensed that cost for tax purposes, and now is deciding whether to go forward with the project.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's regular IRR is found by compounding the initial cost at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC. b. A project's regular IRR is found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the present value (PV), then discounting the TV to find the IRR. c. If a project's IRR is smaller than the WACC, then its NPV will be positive. d. A project's IRR is the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the project's cost. e. If a project's IRR is positive, then its NPV must also be positive.

d. A project's IRR is the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the project's cost.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An NPV profile graph shows how a project's payback varies as the cost of capital changes. b. The NPV profile graph for a normal project will generally have a positive (upward) slope as the life of the project increases. c. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's risk varies with its life. d. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's contribution to the firm's value varies with the cost of capital. e. We cannot draw a project's NPV profile unless we know the appropriate WACC for use in evaluating the project's NPV.

d. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's contribution to the firm's value varies with the cost of capital.

Four of the following statements are truly disadvantages of the regular payback method, but one is not a disadvantage of this method. Which one is NOT a disadvantage of the payback method? a. Lacks an objective, market-determined benchmark for making decisions. b. Ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. c. Does not directly account for the time value of money. d. Does not provide any indication regarding a project's liquidity or risk. e. Does not take account of differences in size among projects.

d. Does not provide any indication regarding a project's liquidity or risk.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A change in a company's target capital structure cannot affect its WACC. b. WACC calculations should be based on the before-tax costs of all the individual capital components. c. Flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock normally reduce the WACC. d. If a company's tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital will decline. e. An increase in the risk-free rate will normally lower the marginal costs of both debt and equity financing.

d. If a company's tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital will decline.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If an asset is sold for less than its book value at the end of a project's life, it will generate a loss for the firm, hence its terminal cash flow will be negative. b. Only incremental cash flows are relevant in project analysis, the proper incremental cash flows are the reported accounting profits, and thus reported accounting income should be used as the basis for investor and managerial decisions. c. It is unrealistic to believe that any increases in net operating working capital required at the start of an expansion project can be recovered at the project's completion. Operating working capital like inventory is almost always used up in operations. Thus, cash flows associated with operating working capital should be included only at the start of a project's life. d. If equipment is expected to be sold for more than its book value at the end of a project's life, this will result in a profit. In this case, despite taxes on the profit, the end-of-project cash flow will be greater than if the asset had been sold at book value, other things held constant. e. Changes in net operating working capital refer to changes in current assets and current liabilities, not to changes in long-term assets and liabilities, hence they should not be considered in a capital budgeting analysis.

d. If equipment is expected to be sold for more than its book value at the end of a project's life, this will result in a profit. In this case, despite taxes on the profit, the end-of-project cash flow will be greater than if the asset had been sold at book value, other things held constant.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. In a capital budgeting analysis where part of the funds used to finance the project would be raised as debt, failure to include interest expense as a cost when determining the project's cash flows will lead to an upward bias in the NPV. b. In a capital budgeting analysis where part of the funds used to finance the project would be raised as debt, failure to include interest expense as a cost when determining the project's cash flows will lead to a downward bias in the NPV. c. The existence of any type of "externality" will reduce the calculated NPV versus the NPV that would exist without the externality. d. If one of the assets to be used by a potential project is already owned by the firm, and if that asset could be sold or leased to another firm if the new project were not undertaken, then the net proceeds that could be obtained should be charged as a cost to the project under consideration. e. If one of the assets to be used by a potential project is already owned by the firm but is not being used, then any costs associated with that asset is a sunk cost and should be ignored.

d. If one of the assets to be used by a potential project is already owned by the firm, and if that asset could be sold or leased to another firm if the new project were not undertaken, then the net proceeds that could be obtained should be charged as a cost to the project under consideration.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. In the WACC calculation, we must adjust the cost of preferred stock (the market yield) to reflect the fact that 70% of the dividends received by corporate investors are excluded from their taxable income. b. We should use historical measures of the component costs from prior financings that are still outstanding when estimating a company's WACC for capital budgeting purposes. c. The cost of new equity (re) could possibly be lower than the cost of retained earnings (rs) if the market risk premium, risk-free rate, and the company's beta all decline by a sufficiently large amount. d. Its cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firm's common stock. e. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 - T), because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, similar to the treatment of interest on debt.

d. Its cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firm's common stock.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. For a project to have more than one IRR, then both IRRs must be greater than the WACC. b. If two projects are mutually exclusive, then they are likely to have multiple IRRs. c. If a project is independent, then it cannot have multiple IRRs. d. Multiple IRRs can occur only if the signs of the cash flows change more than once. e. If a project has two IRRs, then the smaller one is the one that is most relevant, and it should be accepted and relied upon.

d. Multiple IRRs can occur only if the signs of the cash flows change more than once.

A company is choosing between two projects. The larger project has an initial cost of $100,000, annual cash flows of $30,000 for 5 years, and an IRR of 15.24%. The smaller project has an initial cost of $51,600, annual cash flows of $16,000 for 5 years, and an IRR of 16.65%. The projects are equally risky. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR, the two projects' NPV profiles cannot cross, and the smaller project's NPV will be higher at all positive values of WACC. b. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the larger project will look better based on the NPV at all positive values of WACC. c. If the company uses the NPV method, it will tend to favor smaller, shorter-term projects over larger, longer-term projects, regardless of how high or low the WACC is. d. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR but the larger project has the higher NPV at a zero discount rate, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the larger project will have the higher NPV if the WACC is less than the crossover rate. e. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR and the larger NPV at a zero discount rate, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the smaller project will look better if the WACC is less than the crossover rate.

d. Since the smaller project has the higher IRR but the larger project has the higher NPV at a zero discount rate, the two projects' NPV profiles will cross, and the larger project will have the higher NPV if the WACC is less than the crossover rate.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Although some methods used to estimate the cost of equity are subject to severe limitations, the CAPM is a simple, straightforward, and reliable model that consistently produces accurate cost of equity estimates. In particular, academics and corporate finance people generally agree that its key inputs—beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium—can be estimated with little error. b. The DCF model is generally preferred by academics and financial executives over other models for estimating the cost of equity. This is because of the DCF model's logical appeal and also because accurate estimates for its key inputs, the dividend yield and the growth rate, are easy to obtain. c. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of equity may not always be accurate, but it has the advantage that its two key inputs, the firm's own cost of debt and its risk premium, can be found by using standardized and objective procedures. d. Surveys indicate that the CAPM is the most widely used method for estimating the cost of equity. However, other methods are also used because CAPM estimates may be subject to error, and people like to use different methods as checks on one another. If all of the methods produce similar results, this increases the decision maker's confidence in the estimated cost of equity. e. The DCF model is preferred by academics and finance practitioners over other cost of capital models because it correctly recognizes that the expected return on a stock consists of a dividend yield plus an expected capital gains yield.

d. Surveys indicate that the CAPM is the most widely used method for estimating the cost of equity. However, other methods are also used because CAPM estimates may be subject to error, and people like to use different methods as checks on one another. If all of the methods produce similar results, this increases the decision maker's confidence in the estimated cost of equity.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm's tax rate increases. b. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it is simply unable to borrow any more money. c. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm is taking on investments that are so risky the firm is in serious danger of going bankrupt if things do not go exactly as planned. d. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must raise equity by issuing stock. e. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must begin to finance with preferred stock.

d. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must raise equity by issuing stock.

Norris Enterprises, an all-equity firm, has a beta of 2.0. The chief financial officer is evaluating a project with an expected return of 14%, before any risk adjustment. The risk-free rate is 5%, and the market risk premium is 4%. The project being evaluated is riskier than the firm's average project, in terms of both its beta risk and its total risk. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The project should definitely be accepted because its expected return (before any risk adjustments) is greater than its required return. b. The project should definitely be rejected because its expected return (before risk adjustment) is less than its required return. c. Riskier-than-average projects should have their expected returns increased to reflect their higher risk. Clearly, this would make the project acceptable regardless of the amount of the adjustment. d. The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rs, then it should reject the project. e. Capital budgeting projects should be evaluated solely on the basis of their total risk. Thus, insufficient information has been provided to make the accept/reject decision.

d. The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rs, then it should reject the project.

Which one of the following would NOT result in incremental cash flows and thus should NOT be included in the capital budgeting analysis for a new product? a. Using some of the firm's high-quality factory floor space that is currently unused to produce the proposed new product. This space could be used for other products if it is not used for the project under consideration. b. Revenues from an existing product would be lost as a result of customers switching to the new product. c. Shipping and installation costs associated with a machine that would be used to produce the new product. d. The cost of a study relating to the market for the new product that was completed last year. The results of this research were positive, and they led to the tentative decision to go ahead with the new product. The cost of the research was incurred and expensed for tax purposes last year. e. It is learned that land the company owns and would use for the new project, if it is accepted, could be sold to another firm.

d. The cost of a study relating to the market for the new product that was completed last year. The results of this research were positive, and they led to the tentative decision to go ahead with the new product. The cost of the research was incurred and expensed for tax purposes last year.

For a company whose target capital structure calls for 50% debt and 50% common equity, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The interest rate used to calculate the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the company's outstanding debt as shown on its balance sheet. b. The WACC is calculated on a before-tax basis. c. The WACC exceeds the cost of equity. d. The cost of equity is always equal to or greater than the cost of debt. e. The cost of retained earnings typically exceeds the cost of new common stock.

d. The cost of equity is always equal to or greater than the cost of debt.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The cost of capital used to evaluate a project should be the cost of the specific type of financing used to fund that project, i.e., it is the after-tax cost of debt if debt is to be used to finance the project or the cost of equity if the project will be financed with equity. b. The after-tax cost of debt that should be used as the component cost when calculating the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the firm's outstanding debt. c. Suppose some of a publicly-traded firm's stockholders are not diversified; they hold only the one firm's stock. In this case, the CAPM approach will result in an estimated cost of equity that is too low in the sense that if it is used in capital budgeting, projects will be accepted that will reduce the firm's intrinsic value. d. The cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity. e. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is the most sophisticated and objective method for estimating a firm's cost of equity capital.

d. The cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The internal rate of return method (IRR) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. b. The payback method is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. c. The discounted payback method is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. d. The net present value method (NPV) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. e. The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects.

d. The net present value method (NPV) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The regular payback method recognizes all cash flows over a project's life. b. The discounted payback method recognizes all cash flows over a project's life, and it also adjusts these cash flows to account for the time value of money. c. The regular payback method was, years ago, widely used, but virtually no companies even calculate the payback today. d. The regular payback is useful as an indicator of a project's liquidity because it gives managers an idea of how long it will take to recover the funds invested in a project. e. The regular payback does not consider cash flows beyond the payback year, but the discounted payback overcomes this defect.

d. The regular payback is useful as an indicator of a project's liquidity because it gives managers an idea of how long it will take to recover the funds invested in a project.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of common equity involves adding a risk premium to the interest rate on the company's own long-term bonds. The size of the risk premium for bonds with different ratings is published daily in The Wall Street Journal or is available online. b. The WACC is calculated using a before-tax cost for debt that is equal to the interest rate that must be paid on new debt, along with the after-tax costs for common stock and for preferred stock if it is used. c. An increase in the risk-free rate is likely to reduce the marginal costs of both debt and equity. d. The relevant WACC can change depending on the amount of funds a firm raises during a given year. Moreover, the WACC at each level of funds raised is a weighted average of the marginal costs of each capital component, with the weights based on the firm's target capital structure. e. Beta measures market risk, which is generally the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. However, this is not true unless all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified.

d. The relevant WACC can change depending on the amount of funds a firm raises during a given year. Moreover, the WACC at each level of funds raised is a weighted average of the marginal costs of each capital component, with the weights based on the firm's target capital structure.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of a company's before-tax cost of capital. b. The percentage flotation cost associated with issuing new common equity is typically smaller than the flotation cost for new debt. c. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of the cost of all the capital a company has raised to acquire its assets. d. There is an "opportunity cost" associated with using retained earnings, hence they are not "free." e. The WACC as used in capital budgeting would be simply the before-tax cost of debt if the firm plans to use only debt to finance its capital budget during the coming year.

d. There is an "opportunity cost" associated with using retained earnings, hence they are not "free."

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's regular IRR is found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting this TV at the WACC. b. A project's regular IRR is found by discounting the cash inflows at the WACC to find the present value (PV), then compounding this PV to find the IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than the WACC, then its NPV must be negative. d. To find a project's IRR, we must solve for the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the PV of the project's costs. e. To find a project's IRR, we must find a discount rate that is equal to the WACC.

d. To find a project's IRR, we must solve for the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the PV of the project's costs.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since depreciation is a cash expense, the faster an asset is depreciated, the lower the projected NPV from investing in the asset. b. Under current laws and regulations, corporations must use straight-line depreciation for all assets whose lives are 5 years or longer. c. Corporations must use the same depreciation method for both stockholder reporting and tax purposes. d. Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line normally has the effect of speeding up cash flows and thus increasing a project's forecasted NPV. e. Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line normally has the effect of slowing down cash flows and thus reducing a project's forecasted NPV.

d. Using accelerated depreciation rather than straight line normally has the effect of speeding up cash flows and thus increasing a project's forecasted NPV.

Assume that the economy is in a mild recession, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively low. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 8%. Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L's IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 8% current WACC. However, you believe that the economy is about to recover, and money costs and thus your WACC will also increase. You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has increased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions. Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. You should reject both projects because they will both have negative NPVs under the new conditions. b. You should delay a decision until you have more information on the projects, even if this means that a competitor might come in and capture this market. c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. e. You should recommend Project L because it will have the higher IRR at the new WACC.

d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV.

If a typical U.S. company correctly estimates its WACC at a given point in time and then uses that same cost of capital to evaluate all projects for the next 10 years, then the firm will most likely a. become riskier over time, but its intrinsic value will be maximized. b. become less risky over time, and this will maximize its intrinsic value. c. accept too many low-risk projects and too few high-risk projects. d. become more risky and also have an increasing WACC. Its intrinsic value will not be maximized. e. continue as before, because there is no reason to expect its risk position or value to change over time as a result of its use of a single cost of capital.

d. become more risky and also have an increasing WACC. Its intrinsic value will not be maximized.

Clemson Software is considering a new project whose data are shown below. The required equipment has a 3-year tax life, after which it will be worthless, and it will be depreciated by the straight-line method over 3 years. Revenues and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 3-year life. What is the project's Year 1 cash flow? Do not round the intermediate calculations and round the final answer to the nearest whole number. Equipment cost (depreciable basis) $62,000 Straight-line depreciation rate 33.333% Sales revenues, each year $60,000 Operating costs (excl. depr.) $25,000 Tax rate 35.0% a. $23,387 b. $33,881 c. $35,081 d. $29,684 e. $29,983

e. $29,983

Vang Enterprises, which is debt-free and finances only with equity from retained earnings, is considering 7 equal-sized capital budgeting projects. Its CFO hired you to assist in deciding whether none, some, or all of the projects should be accepted. You have the following information: rRF = 4.50%; RPM = 5.50%; and b = 0.98. The company adds or subtracts a specified percentage to the corporate WACC when it evaluates projects that have above- or below-average risk. Data on the 7 projects are shown below. If these are the only projects under consideration, how large should the capital budget be? Expected Project Risk Risk factor return Cost (millions) 1 Very low -2.00% 7.60% $25.0 2 Low -1.00% 9.15% $25.0 3 Average 0.00% 10.10% $25.0 4 High 1.00% 10.40% $25.0 5 Very high 2.00% 10.80% $25.0 6 Very high 2.00% 10.90% $25.0 7 Very high 2.00% 13.00% $25.0 a. $100 b. $125 c. $25 d. $50 e. $75

e. $75

Aggarwal Enterprises is considering a new project that has a cost of $1,000,000, and the CFO set up the following simple decision tree to show its three most-likely scenarios. The firm could arrange with its work force and suppliers to cease operations at the end of Year 1 should it choose to do so, but to obtain this abandonment option, it would have to make a payment to those parties. How much is the option to abandon worth to the firm? WACC = 11.5% Dollars in Thousands NPV this Prob t=0 t=1 t=2 t=3 State NPV Prob = 20% $750.0 $750.0 $750.0 $817.0 $163.4 Prob = 60% -$1,000 $520.0 $520.0 $520.0 $259.8 $155.9 Prob = 20% -$250.0 -$250.0 -$250.0 -$1,605.7 -$321.1 Exp. NPV= $-1.8 a. $77.8 b. $90.0 c. $64.8 d. $63.3 e. $76.3

e. $76.3

Warnock Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that a project's projected NPV can be negative, in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 10.00% Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,050 $500 $400 $300 a. -$47.38 b. -$39.09 c. -$29.61 d. -$40.27 e. -$39.48

e. -$39.48

Keys Printing plans to issue a $1,000 par value, 20-year noncallable bond with a 7.00% annual coupon, paid semiannually. The company's marginal tax rate is 40.00%, but Congress is considering a change in the corporate tax rate to 45.00%. By how much would the component cost of debt used to calculate the WACC change if the new tax rate was adopted? a. -0.36% b. -0.42% c. -0.44% d. -0.30% e. -0.35%

e. -0.35%

Tuttle Enterprises is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's NPV? Note that if a project's projected NPV is negative, it should be rejected. WACC: 11.50% Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$1,000 $350 $350 $350 $350 a. 084.03 b. 064.70 c. 059.49 d. 082.54 e. 074.36

e. 074.36

Bosio Inc.'s perpetual preferred stock sells for $85.00 per share, and it pays an $8.50 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 4.00% of the price paid by investors. What is the company's cost of preferred stock for use in calculating the WACC? a. 8.75% b. 12.81% c. 11.35% d. 8.44% e. 10.42%

e. 10.42%

Malholtra Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's MIRR? Note that a project's projected MIRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. WACC: 10.00% Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$975 $300 $320 $340 $360 a. 14.45% b. 12.92% c. 12.57% d. 11.28% e. 11.75%

e. 11.75%

Simms Corp. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's IRR? Note that a project's projected IRR can be less than the WACC or negative, in both cases it will be rejected. Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,025 $425 $425 $425 a. 9.64% b. 10.82% c. 12.58% d. 11.29% e. 11.76%

e. 11.76%

Teall Development Company hired you as a consultant to help them estimate its cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: D1 = $1.45; P0 = $19.00; and g = 6.50% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? a. 10.88% b. 15.26% c. 14.41% d. 13.00% e. 14.13%

e. 14.13%

Datta Computer Systems is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's IRR? Note that a project's projected IRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$1,050 $450 $470 $490 a. 12.69% b. 13.98% c. 15.58% d. 18.15% e. 16.07%

e. 16.07%

Resnick Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's payback? Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flows -$475 $200 $200 $200 a. 2.61 years b. 1.97 years c. 2.42 years d. 2.26 years e. 2.38 years

e. 2.38 years

Simkins Renovations Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's IRR? Note that a project's projected IRR can be less than the WACC (and even negative), in which case it will be rejected. Year 0 1 2 3 4 Cash flows -$625 $300 $290 $280 $270 a. 29.04% b. 32.63% c. 24.55% d. 30.83% e. 29.94%

e. 29.94%

Bolster Foods' (BF) balance sheet shows a total of $25 million long-term debt with a coupon rate of 8.50%. The yield to maturity on this debt is 8.00%, and the debt has a total current market value of $27 million. The balance sheet also shows that the company has 10 million shares of stock, and the stock has a book value per share of $5.00. The current stock price is $20.00 per share, and stockholders' required rate of return, rs, is 12.00%. The company recently decided that its target capital structure should have 35% debt, with the balance being common equity. The tax rate is 40%. Calculate WACCs based on book, market, and target capital structures, and then find the sum of these three WACCs. a. 27.81% b. 26.60% c. 36.27% d. 24.78% e. 30.22%

e. 30.22%

Assume that you are on the financial staff of Vanderheiden Inc., and you have collected the following data: The yield on the company's outstanding bonds is 7.75%, its tax rate is 40%, the next expected dividend is $0.65 a share, the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6.00% a year, the price of the stock is $17.00 per share, the flotation cost for selling new shares is F = 10%, and the target capital structure is 45% debt and 55% common equity. What is the firm's WACC, assuming it must issue new stock to finance its capital budget? a. 9.51% b. 6.65% c. 6.18% d. 5.80% e. 7.73%

e. 7.73%

Scanlon Inc.'s CFO hired you as a consultant to help her estimate the cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: rRF = 4.10%; RPM = 5.25%; and b = 0.70. Based on the CAPM approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? a. 9.25% b. 7.00% c. 8.47% d. 7.08% e. 7.78%

e. 7.78%

Assume that Kish Inc. hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have obtained the following data: D0 = $0.90; P0 = $47.50; and g = 7.00% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 8.85% b. 10.38% c. 10.02% d. 8.03% e. 9.03%

e. 9.03%

O'Brien Inc. has the following data: rRF = 5.00%; RPM = 6.00%; and b = 0.70. What is the firm's cost of equity from retained earnings based on the CAPM? a. 6.90% b. 9.02% c. 10.58% d. 11.41% e. 9.20%

e. 9.20%

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a firm is found guilty of cannibalization in a court of law, then it is judged to have taken unfair advantage of its competitors. Thus, cannibalization is dealt with by society through the antitrust laws. b. If a firm is found guilty of cannibalization in a court of law, then it is judged to have taken unfair advantage of its customers. Thus, cannibalization is dealt with by society through the antitrust laws. c. If cannibalization exists, then the cash flows associated with the project must be increased to offset these effects. Otherwise, the calculated NPV will be biased downward. d. If cannibalization is determined to exist, then this means that the calculated NPV if cannibalization is considered will be higher than the NPV if this effect is not recognized. e. Cannibalization, as described in the text, is a type of externality that is not against the law, and any harm it causes is done to the firm itself.

e. Cannibalization, as described in the text, is a type of externality that is not against the law, and any harm it causes is done to the firm itself.

Projects S and L both have normal cash flows, and the projects have the same risk, hence both are evaluated with the same WACC, 10%. However, S has a higher IRR than L. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Project S must have a higher NPV than Project L. b. If Project S has a positive NPV, Project L must also have a positive NPV. c. If the WACC falls, each project's IRR will increase. d. If the WACC increases, each project's IRR will decrease. e. If Projects S and L have the same NPV at the current WACC, 10%, then Project L, the one with the lower IRR, would have a higher NPV if the WACC used to evaluate the projects declined.

e. If Projects S and L have the same NPV at the current WACC, 10%, then Project L, the one with the lower IRR, would have a higher NPV if the WACC used to evaluate the projects declined.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the costs of internal and external equity are related, an increase in the flotation cost required to sell a new issue of stock will increase the cost of retained earnings. b. Since its stockholders are not directly responsible for paying a corporation's income taxes, corporations should focus on before-tax cash flows when calculating the WACC. c. An increase in a firm's tax rate will increase the component cost of debt, provided the YTM on the firm's bonds is not affected by the change in the tax rate. d. When the WACC is calculated, it should reflect the costs of new common stock, retained earnings, preferred stock, long-term debt, short-term bank loans if the firm normally finances with bank debt, and accounts payable if the firm normally has accounts payable on its balance sheet. e. If a firm has been suffering accounting losses that are expected to continue into the foreseeable future, and therefore its tax rate is zero, then it is possible for the after-tax cost of preferred stock to be less than the after-tax cost of debt.

e. If a firm has been suffering accounting losses that are expected to continue into the foreseeable future, and therefore its tax rate is zero, then it is possible for the after-tax cost of preferred stock to be less than the after-tax cost of debt.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then its IRR must be positive. b. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then its MIRR must be positive. c. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then it will have exactly two real IRRs. d. The definition of "normal" cash flows is that the cash flow stream has one or more negative cash flows followed by a stream of positive cash flows and then one negative cash flow at the end of the project's life. e. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then it can have only one real IRR, whereas a project with "nonnormal" cash flows might have more than one real IRR.

e. If a project has "normal" cash flows, then it can have only one real IRR, whereas a project with "nonnormal" cash flows might have more than one real IRR.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. If Project A has a higher IRR than Project B, then Project A must have the lower NPV. b. If Project A has a higher IRR than Project B, then Project A must also have a higher NPV. c. The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that all cash flows are reinvested at the WACC. d. The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that cash flows are withdrawn from the business rather than being reinvested in the business. e. If a project has normal cash flows and its IRR exceeds its WACC, then the project's NPV must be positive.

e. If a project has normal cash flows and its IRR exceeds its WACC, then the project's NPV must be positive.

Suppose a firm relies exclusively on the payback method when making capital budgeting decisions, and it sets a 4-year payback regardless of economic conditions. Other things held constant, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? a. It will accept too many short-term projects and reject too many long-term projects (as judged by the NPV). b. It will accept too many long-term projects and reject too many short-term projects (as judged by the NPV). c. The firm will accept too many projects in all economic states because a 4-year payback is too low. d. The firm will accept too few projects in all economic states because a 4-year payback is too high. e. If the 4-year payback results in accepting just the right set of projects under average economic conditions, then this payback will result in too few long-term projects when the economy is weak.

e. If the 4-year payback results in accepting just the right set of projects under average economic conditions, then this payback will result in too few long-term projects when the economy is weak.

Westchester Corp. is considering two equally risky, mutually exclusive projects, both of which have normal cash flows. Project A has an IRR of 11%, while Project B's IRR is 14%. When the WACC is 8%, the projects have the same NPV. Given this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the WACC is 13%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's. b. If the WACC is 9%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's. c. If the WACC is 6%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's. d. If the WACC is greater than 14%, Project A's IRR will exceed Project B's. e. If the WACC is 9%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's.

e. If the WACC is 9%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since depreciation is not a cash expense, and since cash flows and not accounting income are the relevant input, depreciation plays no role in capital budgeting. b. Under current laws and regulations, corporations must use straight-line depreciation for all assets whose lives are 3 years or longer. c. If they use accelerated depreciation, firms will write off assets slower than they would under straight-line depreciation, and as a result projects' forecasted NPVs are normally lower than they would be if straight-line depreciation were required for tax purposes. d. If they use accelerated depreciation, firms can write off assets faster than they could under straight-line depreciation, and as a result projects' forecasted NPVs are normally lower than they would be if straight-line depreciation were required for tax purposes. e. If they use accelerated depreciation, firms can write off assets faster than they could under straight-line depreciation, and as a result projects' forecasted NPVs are normally higher than they would be if straight-line depreciation were required for tax purposes.

e. If they use accelerated depreciation, firms can write off assets faster than they could under straight-line depreciation, and as a result projects' forecasted NPVs are normally higher than they would be if straight-line depreciation were required for tax purposes.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. For a project with normal cash flows, any change in the WACC will change both the NPV and the IRR. b. To find the MIRR, we first compound cash flows at the regular IRR to find the TV, and then we discount the TV at the WACC to find the PV. c. The NPV and IRR methods both assume that cash flows can be reinvested at the WACC. However, the MIRR method assumes reinvestment at the MIRR itself. d. If two projects have the same cost, and if their NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, then the project with the higher IRR probably has more of its cash flows coming in the later years. e. If two projects have the same cost, and if their NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, then the project with the lower IRR probably has more of its cash flows coming in the later years.

e. If two projects have the same cost, and if their NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, then the project with the lower IRR probably has more of its cash flows coming in the later years.

A firm is considering a new project whose risk is greater than the risk of the firm's average project, based on all methods for assessing risk. In evaluating this project, it would be reasonable for management to do which of the following? a. Increase the estimated IRR of the project to reflect its greater risk. b. Increase the estimated NPV of the project to reflect its greater risk. c. Reject the project, since its acceptance would increase the firm's risk. d. Ignore the risk differential if the project would amount to only a small fraction of the firm's total assets. e. Increase the cost of capital used to evaluate the project to reflect its higher-than-average risk.

e. Increase the cost of capital used to evaluate the project to reflect its higher-than-average risk.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of cash flows over a project's full life. b. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the time value of money. c. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the cost of capital. d. One defect of the IRR method is that it values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future. e. One defect of the IRR method is that it assumes that the cash flows to be received from a project can be reinvested at the IRR itself, and that assumption is often not valid.

e. One defect of the IRR method is that it assumes that the cash flows to be received from a project can be reinvested at the IRR itself, and that assumption is often not valid.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of cash flows over a project's full life. b. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the time value of money. c. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the cost of capital. d. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future. e. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take proper account of differences in the sizes of projects.

e. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take proper account of differences in the sizes of projects.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the firm is a publicly-owned corporation and is seeking to maximize shareholder wealth. a. If a firm has a beta that is less than 1.0, say 0.9, this would suggest that the expected returns on its assets are negatively correlated with the returns on most other firms' assets. b. If a firm's managers want to maximize the value of the stock, they should, in theory, concentrate on project risk as measured by the standard deviation of the project's expected future cash flows. c. If a firm evaluates all projects using the same cost of capital, and the CAPM is used to help determine that cost, then its risk as measured by beta will probably decline over time. d. Projects with above-average risk typically have higher-than-average expected returns. Therefore, to maximize a firm's intrinsic value, its managers should favor high-beta projects over those with lower betas. e. Project A has a standard deviation of expected returns of 20%, while Project B's standard deviation is only 10%. A's returns are negatively correlated with both the firm's other assets and the returns on most stocks in the economy, while B's returns are positively correlated. Therefore, Project A is less risky to a firm and should be evaluated with a lower cost of capital.

e. Project A has a standard deviation of expected returns of 20%, while Project B's standard deviation is only 10%. A's returns are negatively correlated with both the firm's other assets and the returns on most stocks in the economy, while B's returns are positively correlated. Therefore, Project A is less risky to a firm and should be evaluated with a lower cost of capital.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Sensitivity analysis is a good way to measure market risk because it explicitly takes into account diversification effects. b. One advantage of sensitivity analysis relative to scenario analysis is that it explicitly takes into account the probability of specific effects occurring, whereas scenario analysis cannot account for probabilities. c. Well-diversified stockholders do not need to consider market risk when determining required rates of return. d. Market risk is important, but it does not have a direct effect on stock prices because it only affects beta. e. Simulation analysis is a computerized version of scenario analysis where input variables are selected randomly on the basis of their probability distributions.

e. Simulation analysis is a computerized version of scenario analysis where input variables are selected randomly on the basis of their probability distributions.

Which of the following is NOT a relevant cash flow and thus should NOT be reflected in the analysis of a capital budgeting project? a. Changes in net operating working capital. b. Shipping and installation costs for machinery acquired. c. Cannibalization effects. d. Opportunity costs. e. Sunk costs that have been expensed for tax purposes.

e. Sunk costs that have been expensed for tax purposes.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method was once the favorite of academics and business executives, but today most authorities regard the MIRR as being the best indicator of a project's profitability. b. If the cost of capital declines, this lowers a project's NPV. c. The NPV method is regarded by most academics as being the best indicator of a project's profitability, hence most academics recommend that firms use only this one method and disregard other methods. d. A project's NPV depends on the total amount of cash flows the project produces, but because the cash flows are discounted at the WACC, it does not matter if the cash flows occur early or late in the project's life. e. The NPV and IRR methods may give different recommendations regarding which of two mutually exclusive projects should be accepted, but they always give the same recommendation regarding the acceptability of a normal, independent project.

e. The NPV and IRR methods may give different recommendations regarding which of two mutually exclusive projects should be accepted, but they always give the same recommendation regarding the acceptability of a normal, independent project.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC is calculated using before-tax costs for all components. b. The after-tax cost of debt usually exceeds the after-tax cost of equity. c. For a given firm, the after-tax cost of debt is always more expensive than the after-tax cost of non-convertible preferred stock. d. Retained earnings that were generated in the past and are reported on the firm's balance sheet are available to finance the firm's capital budget during the coming year. e. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after-tax cost of capital.

e. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after-tax cost of capital.

When working with the CAPM, which of the following factors can be determined with the most precision? a. The market risk premium (RPM). b. The beta coefficient, bi, of a relatively safe stock. c. The most appropriate risk-free rate, rRF. d. The expected rate of return on the market, rM. e. The beta coefficient of "the market," which is the same as the beta of an average stock.

e. The beta coefficient of "the market," which is the same as the beta of an average stock.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one cash outflow at t = 0 followed by a series of positive cash flows. a. A project's MIRR is always greater than its regular IRR. b. A project's MIRR is always less than its regular IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then its MIRR will be greater than the IRR. d. To find a project's MIRR, we compound cash inflows at the regular IRR and then find the discount rate that causes the PV of the terminal value to equal the initial cost. e. To find a project's MIRR, the textbook procedure compounds cash inflows at the WACC and then finds the discount rate that causes the PV of the terminal value to equal the initial cost.

e. To find a project's MIRR, the textbook procedure compounds cash inflows at the WACC and then finds the discount rate that causes the PV of the terminal value to equal the initial cost.


संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

Supply Chain Management (OM Ch15)

View Set

Physics-Unit 7-Lessons 7, 8 and 9 Dispersion, Colour and Looking at coloured objects

View Set

COBA CORE ACCT 2050 & 2060 - FALL 21

View Set

Prep U Chapter 34: Assessment and Management of Patients with Inflammatory Rheumatic Disorders

View Set

Accounting 2036 Chapter 10 Quiz solutions

View Set