Fle2 review.

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

Aromaticity

4n + 2pi. Can use this equation to decide when something is aromatic or not.

Aggregation

A large group or collection of people, animals, or things.

Latent variables vs manifest variable

Are not directly observed but are rather inferred. Manifest variable: is a variable or factor that can be directly measured or observed. Manifest variables is like working memory where you can directly measure it. Latent variable is a measurement where you can't directly measure it.

Suppose researchers want to determine how physical activity impacts positive affect. To examine physical activity as a second independent variable in this study, which of the following additional components is necessary?

By adding a independent variable you must had a experimental group and a control group to test the effects of the independent variable. Adding a new measure of physical activity would be useless because we do not need a scale or other method to measure physical activity.

Enzymes

Catalysts for chemical reactions in living things. It also acts on a substrate to make it a product. EX: lactate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that acts on lactate.

Biological predisposition is important in explaining some forms of assciative learning, such as the phenomenon that taste stimuli are particularly easy to associate with

Feelings of nausea, but not with electric shock. classical conditioning.

Which conclusion about healthcare delivery can be drawn from the research in the passage?

In addition to approaching obesity as a clinical problem, there is a need to approach it as a social and cultural issue. Basically understand what they author wanted to also include or can more benefit the research study.

Byproduct

Is a substance that leaves from a reaction.

Planar molecule

It contains sp2 carbons around makes it planar and conjugated.

Eating a large simple carbohydrates, the primary metabolic process at work?

It would be glycogenesis.

Kinase and phosphatase

Kinase adds a phosphate Phosphatase removes a phosphate

Impurities

Lowers melting point and makes it broad.

As an NAD+-dependent enzyme, SIRT1 is most likely activated by ResV in the

Mitochondrial Matrix becuase thats where the nucleotide is at.

Two vertical forces on the movable load are shown in Figure 1, R and mg. The force labeled R represents the:

Normal force = the line moving up from the weight.

Institutional discrimination

Research shows that banks reject minorities home mortgage applications at a higher rate than those from whites.

The phenomenon exemplified in the equilibrium equation below is called: Solution: The correct answer is C. The equation shows the migration of a hydrogen atom from an α-carbon atom to an oxygen atom. The hybridization of the α-carbon atom and oxygen atom change during the process. This is a description of tautomerism, answer choice C; the other three answer choices are terms for distinctly different processes. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

Tauterimization = Keto to enol form

Which carotenoid will absorb the longest wavelength of visible light.

The most conjugated, longest will absorb light the most.

When 2.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH(aq) is added to 100 mL of a solution containing 0.1 M HClO(aq) and 0.1 M NaClO(aq), what type of change in the pH of the solution takes place? Solution: The correct answer is A. The pH will increase because a strong base is added. The increase will be small because the base is being added to a buffer solution. Thus, A is the best answer.

Think buffer concept. It would have a slight increase because you're titrating the solution with a strong base.

Based on its molecular structure, NAPQI most likely damages proteins through which process?

This can be deduced by looking at the carbonyl groups. Becuase of the unique nature of the ring with two double bonds

According to the passage, which of the following compounds can the worker use to catalyze the cleavage of a triglyceride? A HCl(aq) B NaCl(aq) C NaOH(aq) D Na2SO4(aq)

To determine if something is a salt is when they contain an ionic compound.

Do the results of this study support the idea that parental behaviors influence the relationship between exposure to media violence and adolescent aggression?

Yes, because exposrue to media violence significantly increased aggression for adolescents living in high conflict families, but not for adolescents living in low conflict families.

signal detection theory

a theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus (signal) amid background stimulation (noise). Assumes there is no single absolute threshold and that detection depends partly on a person's experience, expectations, motivation, and alertness.

umami taste

amino acids glutamate and aspartate. Bitter, sour, salty.

Lipase

breaksdown fats and lipids. Thus it hydrolysis them in the stomach by this reaction and breaks down ester linkages because of triglycerides.

Social Conflict Theory, symbolic interactionism

human behavior is shaped by interpersonal conflict, and those who maintain social power use it to further their own interests. sym: Sees society as the product of everyday interactions among people. Because the impact on obesity described in the passage is largely the result of interactions between individual members of society. Structural functionalism: Because structural functionalism sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to promote stability. Social exchange theory: Sees society as a system made up of individuals engaging in basic hedonistic calculations: Rewards -costs = outcome.

Analyte

is substance being analyzed

A married medical student with young children has a high likelihood of experiencing?

role conflict

pessimistic

seeing the worst side of things; no hope

Native proteins

which are in their folded and/or assembled form.

Acyetylation

A reaction that introduces acetyl functional group CH3CO. Adding a acyl group.

The conjugate acid of the anion in strontium acetate. CH3COO. What is the empirical weight?

CH2O

The lipid that produce the most ATP upon complete oxidative metabolism

Is triacylglycerides becuase it contains 3 fatty acids and it upon oxidation. The body would be able to use to this for energy. Fatty acids prouduce the most ATP/carbon of any lipid.

Charge molecule, polar

Is used through facilitated diffusion. By using a channel.

Bernoulli effect

It only relates velocity and pressure. Density = weight.

Slow brain wave activity is an indicator of sleep deprivation. Sleep deprivation can be identified using?

An electroencephalogram. CT or NMR scan would provide images of the brain, but do not provide information about brain wave activity. OE: Measures oxygen uptake by the brain, an indication of metabolic activity, but not electrical activity.

Suppose the results of this study are known to be caused by sleep deprivation disruptions in the normal functioning of the prefrontal cortex. Subjects in sleep-deprivation groups would likely have which cognitive tasks disrupted.

Executive function. Frontal lobe. The only cognitive tasks associated with the pre-frontal cortex.

The study method used to evaluate mother-child attachment is best described as?

Experimental group: Requires a random assignment to study grouops and manipulation of the independent variable. Observational: The passage states that researchers completed the AQS using observation of the mother-child-pairs in their homes by trained psychologists.

Intermediate

Is between a reactant and a product. Enolate ion is formed as an intermediate when through aldol condensation

Aldol addition

Is quite similar to the step of gluconeogenesis which uses an aldolase enzyme to form fructose-1,6-bisphosphate out of two precursors.

How many dietary calories does a 1-g sample of Olestra contribute to a human consumer? A 0 Cal B 4 Cal C 5 Cal D 9 Cal Solution: The correct answer is A. The passage states that Olestra is not metabolized because digestive enzymes are blocked from cleavage sites. If a molecule is not metabolized, it can provide no energy and thus no calories. Choice A, 0 Cal, is the correct answer.

It can provide no energy or calories if a molecule is not mobilized.

Given the properties of VEGF described in the passage, and in Table 1, which graph depicts the most likely relationship between VEGF levels and the number of senile plaques.

It would be inversely related. As the plaques are increasing the VEGF-positive Capillaries are decreasing. The line graph would start at the top and reach the bottom. Exponential if the variable was squared and not the other or linear growth if the variable was squared squared or not squared not squared. The line means that both of the variables are not related.

Which of the following is the dependent variable in the obesity study cited in the passage?

It would be obesity of the Ego because that is the one that is getting effected.

Enveloped viruses do not infect cells surrounded by a cell wall. Given this information, an enveloped RNA virus is most likely to infect which host range?

It would infect an animal because these envelope virus does not infect the cell wall. Animals do not have a cell wall.

What prediction can be made about the entropy change during the proposed synthesis of solid nitrogen? Solution: The correct answer is C. In the synthesis of the more ordered solid nitrogen, the entropy of the system decreases and therefore ΔS is negative. Thus, C is the best answer.

Its becoming a solid thus entropy is negative and a decrease entropy.

first ionization energy trend

increases up and to the right. Second ionization contians a greater amount of energy compared to ionization 1. A noble gas would contains a greater first ionization because it would require a greater amount of energy to remove an electron.

Dewlaps that reflect UV light would evolve by natural selection only if: Solution: The correct answer is A. Although many different types of adaptations may help an individual organism survive, they will not be passed on to the next generation unless the organism produces offspring, passing on the genes that cause the advantageous phenotype. To evolve by natural selection and become a general characteristic of the species, the genes that cause dewlaps to reflect UV light must become a significant portion of the gene pool, which will most likely occur if individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps produce more offspring than do individuals without them. Thus, A is the best answer.

natural selection: Is the species that creates the most evolutionary fitness and offsprings.

Fluid Intelligence vs. Crystallized Intelligence

processing speed vs acquired knowledge. Fluid intelligence declines as you get older. Acquired knowledge stays constant as you get older.

The germ cells of a newly discovered diploid organism divide without the DNA replication step that normally occurs prior to meiosis. For this organism, which type of chromosome is found at the metaphase plate during Meiosis I?

since there is replication then you woudn't have a tetrad at the start but a monad sister chromatids because replication usually duplicate but since its inhibited then replication will not occur.

Girls participating in these studies were aware of cultural stereotypes that suggest girls are not as good at math as boys, female performance on tests of quantitative reasoning is likely to

suffer because of the effects of stereotype threat.

Study findings suggest that ResV and CR have similar effects on: Overall heart function, insulin response, SIRT1 levels in muscle tissue

the answer is overall heart function because that is the only graph that shows ResV and CR statistically significant. Creating similar performances. 2 was not being tested. 3 was was only significant for 3 but nowhere else matches the result.

Where X represents the conjugate base which of the acids listed is expected to have the smallest H-X bond dissociation energy? Bond dissociation energy

the energy required to break the bond between two covalently bonded atoms. High bond dissociation means stronger the bond for the energy to break it. low bond dissociation means least amount of energy to break a bond. It would require least amount of energy for a strong acid to dissociate because it can dissociate completely without needing energy. Its easier to break a strong acid because a strong acid can easily dissociate into solution. You would need a great amount of energy to break a bond that can not dissociate easily into solution. Acid A, pka = 4.10 Acid B, pka = 4.75 Acid C, pkb = 9.63 Acid D, pkb = 10.90

Erickson's stages

trust vs mistrust autonomy vs shame and doubt initiative vs guilt industry vs inferiority identity vs role confusion intimacy vs isolation generativity vs stagnation integrity vs despair

Diagnostic expansion

when a medical diagnosis is expanded to include a larger group

Codons

Codons are ready by 3 nucleotides. It said that the mutation was at positive 12 and 13. Must look at the 12 and 13 and make a decision and if there's something different than its a mutation but if there isn't than there is no mutation.

The synthesis of glucagon in pancreatic a-cells is most closely associated with which cellular organelle?

Endoplasmic reticulum

Boiling point

Increase hydrogen bonding.

Transcription factor

Is part of the nucleus that binds the DNA.

Molecules shown are mixed together in a single solution, which species will participate in hydrogen bonding?

Methane does not have any of the important electronegative species to hydrogen bond but CH2O and CH3OH does thus these can hydrogen bond.

Final electron acceptor

Bacteria: Acetyladehyde Anaerobic human cells: Pyruvate Areobic human cell: Oxygen

Which mutation will have the largest effect on the activity of AdH?

Basically what amino acid is dissimilar that would cause a significant change? H47K R369H H51F K228R H to F would cause a significant change because they are not in the same family of amino acids.

Which statement best explains these two observations?

Basically which of the answers will best support these two statements. Don't have to go to the passage to answer this question.

The results of this study suggest that individuation training reduced ORE. If one of the researchers is strongly persuaded by these results and refuses to reconsider this believe in spite of future studies that suggest ORE cannot be manipulated in this manner, this researcher may be experiencing?

Belief perserverance occurs when an individual refuses to alter a belief even if faced with evidence challenging that belief. Confirmation bias: Refers to a tendency to attend to information that confirms one's belief. Availability heuristic: Tendency to rely on readily available examples that are relevant to the topic or decision at hand, neglecting information that is less readily available. Fundamental attribution error: Tendency to overestimate dispositional factors in explaining the behavior of others.

The primary mRNA transcript for dystrophin contains 300,000 fewer nucleotides than the DMD gene from which it is transcribed. The primary mRNA transcript is shorter because

DNA sequence will be longer than the primary sequence because Regulatory sequences were not transcribed into pri-MRNA. Transcription to pre-mrna to mrna. This question is asking from Transcription to Pre-mrna and this would occur. Poly-A tail is not transcribed but added to mRNA and cap to add protection of the mRNA. The answer is that regulatory sequences were not transcribed

NADH exhibits a characteristic UV absorbance of 340 nm. This absorbance is the result of photons causing the:

Excitation of NADH pi (n) electrons. This would occur because exciting the electrons will cause it to go to a higher energy state. Relaxation would emitt the photons. Vibration is IR Cleavage is the presented in the passage

Exothermic and Endothermic

Exothermic (-) contains a lower activation energy because it takes less energy to make a bond compared to breaking one (endothermic (+))

In its native form, B-A is a soluble protein with extensive a-helical domains. Misfolding of B-A causes an a-helix-to-b-sheet transition that decreases solubility. B-A aggregation is likely the result of which interaction between B-sheet motifs (small regions of protein three-dimensional structure or amino acid sequence on misfolding B-A proteins

Meaning that the molecule must be non-polar or hydrophobic

Observing bands in a diagram.

The parkin protien band is not larger in PINK-/- treatments with CCCP, and the size of the band indicates how much protein is present. PINK1 expresion has no effect on Parkin expression levels Parkin interacts with CCCP in the cytoplasm. This is incorrect because there is nowhere in the experiment that shows this. ASk is it testing expression or interactions.

PH and pka concept.

The pH is 7.4 meaning a basic solution. The pka is 2.16, 9.06, and 10.54. Since the solution is basic it would deprotonate the lower pka number making it a negative 1 charge. If the pka is larger then the pH then the solution would be acidic meaning that we would have to protonate the pka making a positive 1 charge.

Exitation. The fluorescent light emitted from the B-isoindole fluorophore must:

-increases activity/response -potential increase (action). Release of energy. Since in the passage it says that the light is excited at 420 nm. It means that it must be 420 or higher for B-isoindole fluorophore to be excited.

A simple motor task such as tying one's shoes utilizes which form of memory?

Implicit, no conscious awareness. thus is the answer. Explicit: memory occurs with intentional recall of past experiences and information. C: Episodic memory is long term declarative memory is long term, declarative D: Semantic memory is long term declarative memory for informtaion learned conceptually.

In order to attain an optimal increase in longevity, mice should be subjected to treatments that include?

CR and ResV. Based on the graph it shows both of their results as being significant positive effects. Thus we can assume that this is highly reliable and valid. If showed that it were to cancel each other out then it woudn't be both.

A patient reports having eaten a pineapple from which she developed food poisoning. The patient now experiences nausea at the sight of pineapple. This patient has an aversion to pineapple because she has been?

Classically conditioned to have a taste aversion. Tendency to avoid or make negative associations with a food that you ate just before getting sick.

How many hours after transfer to the nutrient poor medium are required for Meiosis I to be complete in S. Cerivisiae?

G1 started out as 24 then it passed S phase to G2 where it is 48. Then during meiosis there is reduction of splitting 48 to 24 cells. Its asking for meiosis 1 thus find a cell with a time having 8hrs to it.

Most stabilizing molecular interaction between celastrol and the binding site of sidA is the result of:

Hydrogen bonding is the most stable. ionic bonding: Is only the answer if there is a formal charge positive or negative.

Deletion of the genes coding for which of the following proteins is likely to prevent biofilm formation in S. aureus?

If theres a cascade of activation. If you inhibit one of them then product will not work unless theres another activation somewhere else within the cascade. STK1 activates LuxS then produces AI-2 Thus if you inhibit all three of them then it will be beneficial of not creating a biofilm.

The average protein is composed of apporoximately 500 amino acids. This suggests that the average mature mRNA polymer contians approximately:

The stem indicates that the average length of a protein is about 500 amino acids. This requires the translation of approximately 500 codons. However, each codon is composed of three nucleotides, so approximately 1500 nucleotides are required to form 500 codons. Nucleotides that create base pairs to codons to proteins. It must be greater than 1500 nucleotides because its including the stop and start codons.

Researchers wondered if ResV could improve age-related decreases in heart function to mimic the level of function observed in young mice. To explore this possibility, they administered high doses of ResV to old mice. For this study, researchers most likely used mice from which group as a control?

They would have to use OC. A control group should be as an identical condition as the experiment group but not be tested on. It would not make sense to use YC or CR because they are not in the same conditions as the old control.

At maximum contraction, the length of the PAM decreases by 50% from 32nm to 16 mm and its radius increases by 100% from 6mm to 12 mm. The ratio of the number of moles of gas inside the PAM at max contraction to the initial moles of gas inside the PAM is closest to: Pv= nRT. Ratio question.

Volume = piR^2 (L). Increases by 100% = that it doubles. Increase by 50% = 1/2. initial starting out is 1.

jurkat cells were used as a control in figure 1 because they were the only cell that was not?

Was not transfected with HTLV-1 because the others were transfected with it. Control that similar to the experiment but does not get the tested drug.

Percent yield

actual yield/theoretical yield x 100

During completion of the AQS, psychologits note that one child is visibly upset when her mother leaves the room, but is not comforted when the mother returns and attempts to comfort her. This child is exhibiting which attachment type?

Ambivalent attachement.

Early-onset familial Alzheimer's Disease (EOFAD) is a rare autosomal dominant form of Alzheimer's that causes symptoms as early as age 15. EOFAD is accompanied by typical senile plaques and is nearly indistinguishable from AD in elderly patients. How does this information relate to the two theories proposed to explain AD?

Amyloid Cases theory states that its linked to autosomal dominant mutations. Vascular Disease Theory: States that its linked to B-A flux disease. This the passage stem supports Amyloid but does not support Vascular Disease

The following bacterial cells were grown in a nutritive environment. Following 24 hours of incubation, which bacterial population will include the greatest number of bacteria?

10 cells with a doubling time of 8 hours? 100 cell with a doubling time of 12 hours? 1 cell with a doubling time of 2 hours? 1000 cells with a doubling time of 24 hours? Prove this.

In humans, the product formed by the third step of ethanol metabolism can be fed into which metabolic pathway?

Acetyl-CoA would be fed into citrate acid cycle.

The chemical valinomycin inserts into membranes and causes the movement of K+ into the mitochondria. Based on Figure 1, if mitochondria are treated with valinomycin, the rate of ATP synthesis in the mitochondria will most likely: Solution: The correct answer is B. Any disruption of mitochondria is likely to decrease ATP production since they are a major cellular source of that molecule. Answer choices C and D can not be right because they propose an increase in ATP production. There is no information in the question to suggest that valinomycin will cause K+ to compete with H+ for an active site on ATP synthetase. Furthermore, one would suspect that ATP or precursor molecules such as phosphate and ADP would occupy the active site on the ATP synthase molecule. Answer choice A, therefore, does not seem plausible. The question does provide the information that valinomycin increases the flow of K+ across the membrane. An influx of another positively charged ion into the compartment would disrupt the electrochemical gradient responsible for the necessary flow of protons. Answer B, therefore, seems more plausible than any other choice. A decrease, because the K+ will compete with protons at the active site on ATP synthetase. B decrease, because movement of K+ into the mitochondrial compartments will disrupt proton movement into the intermembrane space.

Adding k+ into the membrane would most likely cause Proton diffusion then competing for an active site of ATP synthase.

George Herbert Mead developed a theory explaining how a person's self-concept is developed as a result of social experience. A modern proponent of Meads reseaerch could be expected to make any of the following assertions about socialization

Agents of socialization create expectations that become part of the "me" which is the social self, but must be approved by the I. The ost creative and independent self.

An effective therapeutic drug designed for ATL patients should be an: Antagonist and agonist

Agonists work in lieu of the protien of interest, the ligand, to activate a receptor. Antagonists block the receptor from binding the ligand, rendering it non-functional. It may also be imortant for student to clearly understand thatIL-25 is the ligand in this scenario, and IL-17RB is the receptor to which IL-25 binds. Antagonist or agonist will bind to the receptor, not the ligand. Therapeutic drug is something that can activate and initiate a benefit for the body.

Which method for assessing a childs attachment to his or her caregiver could serve as an alternative to the AQS?

Ainsworth's strange situation.

One resonsonance contributor to the phosphate ion is shown. When phosphate is protonated to form HPO42-, the likelihood of any of the four oxygen molecules receiving the hydrogen is equal. Which statement best explains this observation?

All four of the phosphate-oxygen bonds have equivalent double-bond character. This type of question is asking you to support the question statement.

Aqua running is a form of cardiovascular condition in which a person runs while partially submerged in water. If an aqua runner (mass 80 kg, weight 784 N) is exactly 50% submerged in water, what is the apparent weight of the runner? (Assume the density of both the water and the runner is 1.0g/cm^3

Apparent weight = Actual weight - buoyant force. Actual weight is above the water and the apparent weight is the weight that is submerged under water. Since the person is specific density is 1 that means they are half submerged and above water. Thus we would need to devide the actual weight by half to find the apparent weight. Which it is 392.

If Anolis lizards have X-Y chromosomal sex determination, the locus of a gene for the UV reflectance pigment: Solution: The correct answer is D. Based on the information presented, the gene encoding UV-reflectance pigment could be on a sex chromosome or an autosome. The fact that the pigment is expressed in the dewlap, a structure found only in males, is not sufficient to eliminate any chromosome as the location of this gene. Thus, D is the best answer. A must be on the X chromosome. B must be on the Y chromosome. C must be on an autosome. D could be on a sex chromosome or on an autosome.

Autosomes are all the chromosomes except the X or Y chromosome, and they do not differ between males and females, so autosomal traits are inherited in the same way regardless of the sex of the parent or offspring. Traits controlled by genes on the sex chromosomes are called sex-linked traits.

Most bacterial cells and human cells are alike in: Solution: The correct answer is A. The question asks the examinee to identify a characteristic common to most bacterial and human cells. Of the options listed, only A, the ability to produce ATP via ATP synthase is common to both bacterial and human cells. Both types of cells possess a membrane-embedded electron transport chain capable of generating a H+ gradient, which drives synthesis of ATP via ATP synthase. This ATP synthesis takes place on the plasma membrane of bacteria and on the inner mitochondrial membrane in human cells. The chemical composition of prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes (B), although similar, is distinct enough that several types of antibiotics are able to preferentially target prokaryotic ribosomes over eukaryotic ribosomes. Of human and bacterial cells, only bacterial cells have cell walls (C), and most bacterial chromosomes are circular whereas human chromosomes are linear (D). Thus, A is the best answer.

Bacteria and humans contains ATP synthase that are similar. But ATP synthase is in our mitochondria but their ATP synthase is their plasma membrane.

Aldol Condensation

Base deprotonates a alpha carbon hydrogen then then it acts as nucleophile by attacking a central carbon-carbon carbonyl groups. It would be a ketone or aldehyde in the reaction containing the alpha negative charge.

Which conclusion about the relationship between gratitude and affect is best supported by the results of study2?

Basically understand study and make a logical conclusion based off of interpretation and observation.

Which statement about the potential consequences of the official diagnosis of ADHD is most dirctly related to the concept of inernal vs. External locus of control? ADHD diagnosis creates a ?

Biological explanation of behavior. A person with an internal locus of control assumes that they are primarily in control of their own decisions and future success. A person with an external locus of control feels they are a victim of external factors outside of their control. While the stem asks for soemthing that relates to internal vs. external locus of control, the diagnosis of ones behavior isas a medical condition is llikely to lead one to attribute said behavior to an external cause therefore the correct answer to this question should reflect an external locus of control , not an internal locus of control.

The in-home visits used to complete the AQS should be conducted by researchers who are?

Blind to both the hypothesized relationship and to the risk factors identified in the mother. Using a blind observer reduces the chance of bias in the AQS scoring that favors the hypothesized relationships. Ideally, the observer should not know the risk factors under study, or the hypothesized relationships. You never want bias from an experiment because it will do more harm then good.

The two primary factors that normally determine the level of blood pressure are: Solution: The correct answer is B. Two factors that normally determine the blood pressure are the cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow. Cardiac output (stroke volume x heart rate) determines the amount of blood pumped into the system by the heart per unit time. The resistance to blood flow is primarily determined by the caliber of the small arteries, arterioles, and precapillary sphincters. Thus blood pressure equals total peripheral resistance times cardiac output, a relationship analogous to Ohm's law for electrical circuits. L-NMMA is not normally present, as implied in the passage by the statement that this substance was developed for use as an inhibitor for NO synthase. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

Cardiac output and resistance to flow. Determines blood pressure.

Which one of the following general characteristics is shared by all catalysts? Solution: The correct answer is C. In general, catalysts lower the activation energy of the slowest step in a reaction. Thus, they increase the rate of the reaction without increasing the number of collisions, the kinetic energy of the reactants, or the Keq of a reversible reaction. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

Catalyst increases the rate of reaction without increasing the number of collisions. They increase the rate of reaction but does not change the Keq of a reversible reaction.

Prions

Cause pathology outside the central nervous system.

In almost all vertebrates, when the optic cup fails to develop in the embryo, the lens also fails to form. This constitutes evidence that: Solution: The correct answer is C. The optic cup develops from a bulge on the side of the developing brain, which influences the overlying ectoderm to produce the lens. It is therefore an example of cells inducing neighboring cells to differentiate, so option C is the correct answer. The other response choices are irrelevant to the question, so they are not good answers. The absence of the optic cup and lens has no influence on timing of neurulation relative to gastrulation (choice A). The presence or absence of the optic cup and lens has no effect on the timing of eye development (choice B). Cell differentiation is not an "all or none" phenomenon (choice D). In most cases, cells progressively differentiate to achieve their final specification.

Cell differentiation.

In addition to the skin and circulatory systems, which of the following organ systems is most likely to be affected by TSS? Solution: The correct answer is C. The symptoms mentioned in the passage suggest involvement of the circulatory system (hypotension) and skin (rash, desquamation), so the question is asking what other bodily system might be involved in toxic shock syndrome. The other system that is most prominently discussed is the lymphatic system, so choice C must be correct. The other systems are not discussed in the passage and there is no other reason to think they might be involved, so the musculoskeletal system (answer A), digestive system (answer B), and respiratory system (answer D) can be eliminated from consideration.

Ciculatory system was discussed thus the conclusion you would need to make is the lymphatic system.

Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the fact that the saponification of the triacylglycerol in the passage resulted in four different fatty acid salts? A The triacylglycerol molecule consisted of four different fatty acid units. B Glycerol was transformed into a fatty acid salt under the reaction conditions. C One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and it completely isomerized under the reaction conditions. D One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and a small percentage isomerized under the reaction conditions. Solution: The correct answer is D. If one of the R groups in the triacylglycerol contained a carbon-carbon double bond and if isomerization of the double bond occurred during the saponification reaction, four fatty acids would be obtained instead of three. Thus, D is the best answer.

Complete isomerized would remain 3 but if it was partial then it would make it seem that it was 4 fatty acids instead of 3.

What is the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in a solution that is prepared by mixing 10 mL of a 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution with 10 mL of a 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution? A 0.010 mole/L B 0.015 mole/L C 0.020 mole/L D 0.030 mole/L Solution: The correct answer is B. Since 1 equivalent of NaHCO3 provides 1 equivalent of Na+, the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution is also 0.010 M = 0.010 mole/L. The molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution is 0.020 mol/L since 1 equivalent of Na2CO3 provides 2 equivalents of Na+. When equal volumes of these two solutions are mixed, the resulting molar concentration is equal to their average, (0.010 mol/L + 0.020 mol/L)/2. Thus, B is the correct answer.

Concept with mixing solutions.

Weber's Law suggests that the difference threshold from study 1 will be a

Constant ratio of the original stimulus for all stimulus magnitudes. WEber's Law (change (I)/I) = constant) predicts that the difference threshold, or the just-noticeable difference, will be a constant ratio of the original stimulus for all stimulus magnitudes. In other words, if the minimum noticeable difference between two weights is 0.05kg and the original wieght was 1.0kg, then this ration is 0.005/1.0 = 5%. This indicates that for a 100kg weight the just noticeable difference in mass will be different, but it will maintain the same ratio.

One of the participants from Study 2 was already in a heightened state of arousal when the study began. If the cold pressor task resulted in hyper-arousal beyond the optimum level descried by the Yerkes-Dodson law, for this participant only?

Contrast threshold is increasing from baseline means that its getting worse since its harder the person to tell the difference. Contrast threshold is closer means that its easier for the person to tell the difference because its closer together.

According to the passage, which of the following parts in the frozen body of a freeze-tolerant frog would contain ice? (Formation of ice within the cell disrupts structural organization, metabolic function and causes cell death. So only extracellular water freezes.)

Correct answer is CII onlyIII onlyI and II onlyII and III onlyThe passage said that there would only be ice in the extracellular locations of fluid. Lymph and blood plasma are extracellular. Anything that includes the cytoplasm is wrong because the passage explicitly states that this would cause cell death. The lymph is where drainage occurs for circulating fluids and the blood plasma consists of the liquid portion of the blood. There is a liquid and cellular portion. The plasma being the liquid consists of nutrients, salts, gases, hormones, proteins.The cellular portion consists of the different types of cells. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. All of these originate in the bone marrow from hematopoietic stem cells.

Sociologists believe that members of all cultures exhibit ethnocentrism. Ethnocentrism may be nearly universal because

Cultural systems prefer things that are familiar and are wary of things that are different.

Which of the following changes in state functions occurred during the dissolution shown in Equation 1? ΔH < 0 ΔG > 0 ΔS > 0 Solution: The correct answer is C. The passage states that the temperature increased during the preparation of the NaOH solution. Because heat is liberated, the dissolution of solid NaOH is an exothermic process for which the enthalpy change ΔH < 0. As NaOH dissolves, the system becomes more random (disordered), which corresponds to a positive entropy change, and ΔS > 0. The free energy change is given by ΔG = ΔH - TΔS and must be less than zero when the value of ΔH is negative and that of ΔS is positive, because the absolute temperature T is always a positive value. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

Delta G concept.

The structure and bonding of diamond, which is formed from graphite at extreme pressures, should be similar to that of elemental: Solution: The correct answer is B. The passage states that at extreme pressures an elemental solid assumes the structure and bonding characteristics of a heavier element in the same column of the periodic table. The structure and bonding of diamond, which is a form of carbon, would therefore be most like other elements in the same group of the periodic table as carbon. This group contains silicon and germanium. Thus, B is the best answer.

Diamond is made out of carbons thus similar characteristics must be within the group.

What is the energy content in kcal of one peanut, if the temperature of 1 kg of water in a calorimeter increases by 50oC upon the combustion of 10 peanuts? A 0.5 kcal B 1 kcal C 5 kcal D 10 kcal Solution: The correct answer is C. This is an example of a dimensional analysis problem, in which a number of values and conversion factors are multiplied to obtain the desired answer. The requested value is the energy of one peanut, if it takes ten peanuts to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water 50o. This value is obtained by multiplying the mass of water by the heat capacity by the temperature increase, and dividing the result by ten. The process is represented by the following equation: (1 kg) × (1000 g/kg) × (1 cal/g oC) × (1 kcal/1000 cal) × (50oC) = 50 kcal which gives the energy provided by the combustion of ten peanuts. One peanut therefore provides 5 kcal. Note the use of conversion factors. In this or any other calculation it is important to make sure the units are correct in the calculation and that the units in the equation cancel out to give the answer in the correct units. If the units do not cancel, it is likely that there is a mistake somewhere in the set-up of the problem. The correct value here is represented by answer choice C.

Dimensional equation concept.

Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for the greater severity of Duchenne muscular dystrophy compared to Becker muscular dystrophy?

Duchenne MD involves a frame-shift mutation, while Becker MD does not. Duchenne MD could not be a somatic mutation because this disease is heritable. Becker MD is a germ-line mutation because it is heritable.

A compound was analyzed and found to contain 12.0 g carbon, 2.0 g hydrogen, and 16.0 g oxygen. What is the empirical formula for this compound? A CH2O B C6HO8 C C6H12O6 D C12H2O16 Solution: The correct answer is A. The empirical formula shows the lowest whole number ratio of moles of each element in a mole of the compound, or the corresponding number of atoms per molecule. The number of moles of each element is found by dividing its mass in grams by its atomic weight. From the periodic table, the atomic weights of C, H, and O are 12.0, 1.0, and 16.0, respectively. The number of moles of carbon in 12.0 g C is 12/12 = 1; of hydrogen in 2 g H = 2/1 = 2; and of oxygen in 16 g O = 16/16 = 1. Therefore, the compound contains a 1:2:1 molar ratio of C:H:O, giving the formula C1H2O1, or simply CH2O. This formula is the empirical formula because the subscripts cannot be further reduced by a division by two. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

Finding the empirical weight.

The fluorescent light emitted from the B-isoindole fluorophore must:

For energy to be emitted and also based on the data. It must have a larger wavelength that will equal lower energy. and you can use the equation E = hc/nm it shows that the greater the wavelength the lower the energy meaning light is getting emitted. If wavelength was smaller then energy would be great and light would be absorbed with increase energy.

Static friction

Friction that acts on objects that are not moving. Larger friction. Its larger than the kinetic friction force.

How many sodium ions are in the initial 50.00-mL solution of Na2CO3? A 1.50 × 1022 B 3.00 × 1022 C 6.02 × 1023 D 12.0 × 1023 Solution: The correct answer is B. The solution contains 7.15 g Na2CO3×10H2O. Dividing by the molar mass will give the number of moles: (7.15 g)/(286.14 g/mol) = 0.0250 mol. Because each mole of Na2CO3×10H2O contains 2 mol Na+, there is 0.0500 mol Na+. Using Avogadro's number, the number of sodium ions is (0.0500 mol)(6.02 × 1023 ions/mol) = 3.01 × 1022 ions. Thus, B is the best answer.

Good mole to moles concept.

Hepatic cells

Hepatic cells is in the liver.

The largest estimates of heritability for any given trait result from?

High degrees of genetic variability within a group of individuals raised in similar environments. Because your controling the environment while observing the heretible genes getting expressed. No confounding variables can occur. Heritability = GV/TV

How many dietary calories does a 1-g sample of Olestra contribute to a human consumer? Solution: The correct answer is A. The passage states that Olestra is not metabolized because digestive enzymes are blocked from cleavage sites. If a molecule is not metabolized, it can provide no energy and thus no calories. Choice A, 0 Cal, is the correct answer.

If a molecue is not metabolized it can not provide energy for the body.

Aldosterone function:

Increases resorption of sodium from DCT, leading to increased water retention and plasma volume

Which of the following atoms has the largest first ionization energy? Solution: The correct answer is D. The first ionization energy is the energy required to remove an electron from the outer shell of an atom. For any given period, it is lowest when the removal of the electron results in a complete shell or subshell, and highest when the removal of the electron disrupts a complete shell or subshell. Krypton, a noble gas, has a complete outer shell of electrons and therefore has an extremely high ionization energy. Potassium, with only one electron in its outermost shell, has a low ionization energy. Choice D is the correct answer.

Krypton, a noble gas, has a complete outer shell of electrons and therefore has an extremely high ionization energy. Which one would have the most amount of energy to remove an electron.

A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25°C. Its Ksp value is: A S2. B 2S2. C 2S3. D 4S3. Solution: The correct answer is D. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. The Ksp for M(OH)2 = [M][OH-]2. If the solubility of M(OH)2 is S mol/L, then [M] = S mol/L and [OH-] = 2S mol/L. The Ksp = S(2S)2 = S(4S2) = 4S3. Thus, D is the best answer.

Ksp concept.

Delayed ovulation, as a cause of tubal pregnancy, would most likely be associated with delayed secretion of which of the following hormones? Solution: The correct answer is D. The question requires the examinee to identify that luteinizing hormone (D) is the hormone responsible for triggering ovulation. While the sex hormones progesterone (A) and estrogen (B) are either secreted in response to the luteinizing hormone surge or actually trigger the luteinizing hormone surge, respectively, they are not directly involved in triggering ovulation. HCG (C) is the pregnancy hormone, but it doesn't have a role in the typical ovulatory cycle. Thus, D is the best answer.

LH is what causes ovulation. The release of the egg into the follopian tube. Luteinizing hormone surge cause estrogen and progesteron release.

Resting membrane

Large potassium inside cell and Na outside.

If the dose of Streptococcus Strain A required to cause infection is 1 x 105 bacteria and that of Streptococcus Strain B is 5 x 104 bacteria, which of the following statements describes the relative potencies of these strains? Solution: The correct answer is D. Since it takes fewer strain B bacteria to cause an infection than strain A (50,000 versus 100,000, respectively), then strain B is more potent. How much more potent is it? Since 100,000 is twice 50, strain B is twice as potent. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, which states that the strain A is half as potent as strain B. A Strain A is five times as potent as Strain B. B Strain A is one-fifth as potent as Strain B. C Strain A is twice as potent as Strain B. D Strain A is half as potent as Strain B.

Lower number means you're more potent compared to a higher number.

Ba2+(aq) is an ion that is very toxic to mammals when taken internally. Which of the following compounds, mixed in water, would be the safest if accidentally swallowed? Solution: The correct answer is A. The lower the value of Ksp is, the lower the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and the lower the solubility of the compound in water. If mixed with water and accidentally swallowed, the Ba salt with the lowest value of Ksp would be the safest. Thus, A is the best answer.

Lower the Ksp the lower the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and the lower the solubility of the compound in water. If mixed with water and accidentally swallowed, the Ba salt with the lowest value of Ksp would be the safest.

How could the researchers use the foot-in-the-door technique to increase the participants' likelihood of adopting a diet diary? Solution: The correct answer is A. The foot-in-the-door technique refers to convincing individuals to make a small commitment toward a cause, because this small commitment increases the likelihood of a larger commitment toward the same cause in the future. Option A is an example of this. If the participants make a small commitment toward diet diaries (signing a petition), according to the foot-in-the-door technique, they will be more likely to adopt a diet diary in the future. This is incorrect. It describes a situation that can plausibly increase the likelihood of adopting a diet diary but is not an example for the foot-in-the-door technique. This is incorrect. It gives an example of how the peripheral route to persuasion can be used to increase the participants' likelihood of adopting a diet diary. This is incorrect. It suggests that compliance can be used to increase the likelihood of adopting a diet diary.

Make a small commitment toward a cause, because this small commitment increases the likelihood of a larger commitment toward the same cause in the future.

Which finding, if true, most weakens the theory that the human appendix is an evolutionary remnant without a current functional purpose?

Many people suffer from diarrhea following appendectomy, which is the surgical removal of the appendix.

Which aspect of equality is considered a requirement in a meritocracy? Solution: The correct answer is A. A meritocracy is when societal rewards, status, and positions are awarded to individuals based on their own ability and work (that is, merit). In order for a meritocracy to operate, everyone within the society would need the same opportunity to succeed, so that rewards are actually based (primarily) on merit. This is incorrect because a meritocracy is not when everyone has the same level of talent. This is incorrect because a meritocracy is not when everyone has the same level of skill. This is incorrect because a meritocracy is not when everyone experiences the same outcome.

Meritrocacy is when societal rewards, status, and positions are awarded to individuals based on their own ability and work (that is merit)

How would theorist Albert Bandura most likely explain the results presented in Figure 1? Adolescents learn aggressive behaviors through?

Modeling the aggressive behavior observed in family members and media characters. Bandura is a social learning theorist who conducted the famous 1961 Bobo doll experiment. He would likely explain aggression in adolescents in terms of modeling or social learning theory generally.

What mass of CDP (403 g mol−1) is in 10 mL of the buffered solution at the beginning of Experiment 1? A 6.4 × 10−4 g B 6.4 × 10−3 g C 6.4 × 10−2 g D 6.4 × 10−1 g Solution: The correct answer is C. The solution in Experiment 1 was formed by dissolving 16 mmol of CDP in 1 L of buffer. Thus, the solution is 16 mM in the diphosphate CDP. Since each mole of CDP weighs 403 g, then 16 mmol (or 16 × 10−3 mol) weighs (403 g/mol) × (16 × 10−3mol) = 6.4 g That amount was dissolved in 1 L of solution. The mass in 10 mL (0.010 L) of solution would be proportionate: (6.4 g/L) × (0.010 L) = 0.064 g This mass corresponds to 6.4 × 10−2 g; the correct response is C.

Mole to liters concept.

It has been suggested that MD may exhibit a high intragenerational mutation rate. Which finding would best support the conclusion that, within a population of patients afflicted with MD, a large proportion of the DMD mutations are new mutations rather than inherited mutations.

Most of the mothers of female MD patients are not carriers for MD. This proves this because the mother isn't a carrier would only show in the punnett square that the daughters were carriers if the father was infected. Since the daughters does have the infected disease and the mother is not a carrier that means that the disease occurred randomly. Mothers to son (x) but only dad y to son.

A large positive value on the y-axis of either graph in figure 1 indicates?

Must make a decision based off of observation from the y-axis on the graph.

In Figure 1 is activated (contracted), the PAM pulls to the left on the force sensor and the force sensor pulls to the right on the PAM. What is the relationship between these two forces?

Newtons Third law. Fpam on sensor = Fsensor on PAM. Syas that the force of object 1. on object 2 is always equal and opposite to the force of object 2 on object 1.

Do the data cited in the correlational study support the assertion that there is no causal link between personality traits and political attitudes.

No correlation proves that its a casual. Theres not a casual link because the variables were not statistically significant. Thus this is the best answer and it helps explain the experiment at hand. Yes, because the correlations are not large enough to prove causality: Its hard to prove causality in a experiment. No, because several statistically significant correlations were observed: Sure but it doesn't answer the question stem about personality traits and political attitudes. No, because the correlations accounted for enough variance to prove causality: Its hard to prove causuality within a experiment especially since there is no control group. A correlation how large cannot speak to causality in and of itself.

Based on the results of this study alone, for an adolescent currently living in a family environment low in conflict, which of the following changes is likely to result in increased aggression ?

Since there were no significant increase in aggression as the result of increased exposure to media violence. Thus trend is not appropriate in answering the question.

Making test-retest comparisons every five years provided the researchers with a measure of:

Reliability: Test-retest comparisons provide information about reliability. D: Because validity refers to the degree to which an instrument measures what its supposed to measure. Retesting using the same instrument cannot change or demonstrate the validity of the instrument, but it can establish that the instrument is reliably generating the same results.

If the graph below represents protein levels when the GPCR is unbound, which graph best represents the expected protein levels in a healthy cell following ligand-GPCR binding?

Observe the x-axes and y-axis. You know that the graph would have to increase compared to normal levels. Thus make sure you observe the graph and make a conclusion based off that.

Based on the research discussed in the passage, which conclusion about institutional involvement in the medicalization of ADHD is LEAST supported?

Official recognition in the DSM was a minor contributor to the medicalization of ADHD. This was least contributed because it was the opposite of what the passage was saying. It said that although the sum of the other contributing factors caused linear increases in ADHD case reports, listing in the DSM caused an exponential growth in case reports.

Overestimate vs underestimate

Overestimate means when the estimate is higher than the actual value, its called an overestimate. When the estimate is lower than the actual value, its called an underestimate

What is the oxidation number of aluminum in Na[Al(OH)4](aq)? Solution: The correct answer is C. The oxidation number of Na is +1, and the charge on a hydroxide ion is -1. For the compound to be neutral, aluminum would have to have an oxidation number of +3. Thus, C is the best answer.

Oxidation state with a complex one.

What are the oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, in the reaction below? 2HCl + H2O2 + MnO2 → O2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O Solution: The correct answer is D. In the reaction pictured, Mn is reduced from +4 to +2; therefore, MnO2 is the oxidizing agent. O is oxidized from -1 in H2O2 to 0 in O2; therefore, H2O2 is the reducing agent. Thus, D is the best answer.

Oxidizing and reducing concept.

How might the concept of demand characteristics impact the results of studies 1 and 2?

Participants may identify the hypothesis, which could elicit behaviors that support the hypothesis. Demand characteristics: Phenomenon by which study participants pick up on subtle or overt cluse about the purpose of the study, the hypothesis, or the epectations of the experimenters, and alter their behavior as a result.

In Table 1, which cation allowed for the greatest number of soluble compounds? Solution: The correct answer is B. According to Table 1, Ag+ had one soluble compound, Ca2+ had three soluble compounds, and Cu2+ and Fe3+ each had two soluble compounds. Ca2+ had the greatest number of soluble compounds. Thus, B is the best answer.

Precipitate (becoming a solid) does not equal solubility. The ones that doesn't precipitate would be the ones that are soluble. The ones that does precipitate are the ones that are not soluble.

Stereotyping

Process by which people draw inferences about others based on the category to which others belong Attribution: Is also incorrect because attribution is an inference about the cause of someones behavior. Discrimination: Observe behaviors Correspondence bias: The tendency to make dispositional attributions whne we should make a situational attribution

Quorum sensing in S. aureus most likely does NOT include communication between which two entities?

Quorum protein AI-2 secreted by one bacterium and chemoreceptor neurons in another bacterium. Bacteria does not have neurons. They are prokaryotes which are single-celled organisms with a simple internal structure that lacks a nucleus, membrane bond organelles, and does contain DNA and plasmid. Ribosomes makes proteins. Transcription and translation occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm.

If DDT accumulates in the liver, all of the following bodily functions may be significantly impaired EXCEPT: Solution: The correct answer is D. The question asks the examinee to identify the bodily function that would NOT be significantly impaired by DDT accumulation in the liver. DDT would be expected to affect all liver functions, and, therefore, all options associated with a major liver function are incorrect. The detoxification of poisons and the production of bile, which facilitates fat absorption in the small intestine by breaking large fat droplets into smaller ones, are major liver functions. Therefore, A, B, and C are not correct. The production of factors involved in blood pressure regulation (D) is not a major function of the liver. Thus, D is the best answer.

Regulation of blood pressure is not a major function of the liver.

DNA polymerase catalyzes the replication of chromosomal DNA in bacteria as shown below. A double-stranded DNA molecule contains bases with a ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) = 3:1. This molecule is replicated with DNA polymerase in the presence of the four deoxynucleoside triphosphates with a molar ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) = 1:1. What is the expected ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) in the double-stranded daughter DNA molecule? Solution: The correct answer is D. The double stranded daughter DNA molecule would be an exact duplicate of the parent molecule. It would have the same (A + T)/(G + C) ratio. The correct answer is therefore 3:1, choice D. A 1:3 B 1:1 C 2:1 D 3:1

Replication creates an identical DNA.

Which of the following mixtures, with each component present at a concentration of 0.1 M, has a pH closest to 7? Solution: The correct answer is A. When the acid and conjugate base concentrations are equal, the pH of a buffer equals the pKa of the acid. The pKa's of the acids can be estimated on the basis of the Ka values in Table 1. The pKa of HClO is closest to 7. Thus, A is the best answer.

Since both concentration equals the same then log of 1 would just be 0. Thus HCLO is closest to 7.

The ion responsible for the color of the solutions is: Solution: The correct answer is C. The solution containing nickel(II) ions is green-colored. The color arises because nickel(II) ion has partially filled d orbitals and the electrons in the lower energy d orbitals absorb visible light to move to the higher energy d orbitals. Thus, C is the best answer.

Since contains partially filled d orbital and the electrons in the lower energy d orbitals absorb visible light to move to the higher energy d orbitals.

Researchers have discovered the Pfs gene in P. aeruginosa, a bacteria that cuases opportunistic infections in patients with Cystic Fibrosis (CF). If CF is an autosomal recessive condition, is it reasonable to conclude that treatment with a small interfering RNA (siRNA) that blocks translation of the Pfs gene transcript will cure a patient with CF?

Since cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive its purely an genetic inheratible trait. If you stop the bacteria there's no way to cure CF because bacteria can never be a germ line cell. Also autosomal recessive conditions are not caused by bacterial infections they result form inheritance patterns. Thus the bacteria could make the situation worse, but it is a separate process and preventing the bacterial infection can never change the genes of the person with CF. Therefore, blocking any pathways in P. aeruginosa would not result in a cure for cystic fibrosis. siRNAs are successful at inhibiting gene activation in vivo.

Research supports gender differences with respect to aggression, with males tending to be more aggressive than females. Combining this information with passage findings suggests that which adolescent is LEAST likely to exhibit high levels of aggression?

Since high levels of aggression is high with 12hrs of violent media per week then females in this atmosphere would be less violent compared to males within this environment.

Which of the following properties is associated with the existence of glycine as a dipolar ion in aqueous solution? Solution: The correct answer is A. The problem states that glycine exists "as a dipolar ion in aqueous solution" and asks which of four properties is associated with this fact. Polarity in neutral molecules results from an uneven distribution of electron density, which can arise from separation of unlike charges. This occurs in zwitterions and in ylides. In addition, molecules that contain strongly electron-withdrawing or electron-donating substituents are highly polar and possess correspondingly high dipole moments. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

Since it contains a dipolar ion then it would have a high dipole moment in solution.

Based on passage information what is the likely mass of DNA present in each S.cerivisiae cell at G2.

Since it started at G1 phase at 24mass thus it would have to pass G2 phase which does replication making the DNA duplicate. Thus at G2 the mass would be greater. making it 48fg

Which plot correctly portrays free blood cyanide concentration over time for treatment with oxygen therapy? The initiation of treatment is indicated by a dotted vertical line. Liver concept.

Since its in the liver you will have to see the line the graph decrease because its metabolized. Since you're placing oxygen as a therapeutic drug then you will see the graph increase then decrease since its still occurring in the liver.

If a women who is a heterozygous carrier for Duchenne MD has a son with a normal man, what is the probability this son will suffer form Duchenne MD?

Since its specifying son then you must find the ratio of the sons. If it specified children then you must find the percentage of the children. This would mean that its 50%.

K-Ras -/- is a common Ras mutation that results in the following change to the MAPK cascade. How does K-Ras -/- effect the MAPK pathway following binding of a ligand to the GPCR?

Since on the diagram it shows a positive sign then that implies that it would be a positive feedback

As an airplane accelerates down runway during take-off, which expression represents the relationship between the magnitudes of the force due to air resistance and the thrust force generated by the engines?

Since the airplane is moving in a taking off in one direction that implies newtons second law. The thrust would be greater than the air resistance. air resistance <thurst

Determine a rate graph

Since the graph does not what its suppose to have. Ex: the graph of 1st order does not have "ln" then it would effect it in some way by making the line exponential.

When the environmental temperature is 45° C, which of the following organisms will have the highest body temperature? Solution: The correct answer is D. The question asks the examinee to identify the organism with the highest body temperature in response to elevated external temperatures. This organism will be the organism that is least able to utilize the cooling mechanisms of vasodilation and sweating. A lizard (D) has an impermeable integument, thereby eliminating vasodilation and sweating as options for cooling. Thus, D is the best answer.

Since the lizard isn't able to vasodialate then that means it will have an increase amount of heat because you're not able to vasodialate to release heat out.

Kidney failure during severe dehydration is most likely due to: Solution: The correct answer is A. This question asks the examinee to identify the cause of kidney failure during times of extreme dehydration. As the passage states, severe dehydration greatly reduces the volume of filtrate moving through the nephrons of the kidney. If fluid volume is too drastically reduced, the kidney will be unable to effectively do its job of filtering and maintaining homeostasis within bodily fluids. Thus, A is the best answer.

Since there's low levels of water fluid then the kidney would not be able to do its function.

B-actin

Since this wasn't mentioned anywhere within the passage. Theres no way you could make a logical conclusion to answer the question stem. Read the questions carefully which will lead you to the answer on the question stem.

Two ideal solutions are separated by a synthetic biological membrane which mimis plasma membrane physiology. As the solutions proceed toward equilibrium?

Solution A 100 mM Na3PO4 Solution 200 mM NaCL Semi-Permeable Membrane pi = iMRT Solution A contians 400 and solution B contains 400. Answer no net movement will occur.

When glycerol reacts with three different fatty acids, how many stereogenic centers does the product triacylglycerol contain? Solution: The correct answer is B. When glycerol reacts with three different fatty acids, only carbon 2 in the resulting triacylglycerol is attached to four different groups. Thus, B is the best answer.

Sterieogenic

Na2CO3 + HCl → CO2 + H2O + NaCl Consider the above unbalanced equation. For this reaction, how many mL of a 2 M solution of Na2CO3 are required to produce 11.2 L of CO2 at STP? A 125 mL B 250 mL C 375 mL D 500 mL Solution: The correct answer is B. This question deals with stoichiometry, which examines the quantities of reactants and products associated with a chemical reaction. The first step in working stoichiometry problems is to balance the equation. For this reaction, the balanced equation is: Na2CO3 (aq) + 2 HCl (aq) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) + 2 NaCl (aq) The problem seeks the volume of 2 M Na2CO3 solution which, when reacted with HCl solution, will produce 11.2 L of CO2 gas at STP (standard temperature and pressure). It is an important fact that one mole of an ideal gas, at STP, will occupy a volume of 22.4 L. Therefore, 11.2 L of CO2 gas, at STP, must represent 0.5 mole of CO2. (Virtually all gases can be approximated as ideal gases at common temperatures and pressures.) According to the balanced chemical equation, one mole of CO2 is produced when one mole of Na2CO3 reacts. Therefore, the amount of Na2CO3 required to produce 0.5 mole of CO2 gas must also be 0.5 moles. We must find the volume of 2 M Na2CO3 solution which contains the required 0.5 moles of reactant: Working through the numbers for this problem, we find that the answer is 250 mL. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer. In problems of this sort, it is crucial to enter the proper units for each number. When the units in the equation cancel out to leave the result in the correct units, it is an important indicator that the problem has been set up correctly.

Stp concept.

What is the sum of the protons, neutrons, and electrons in strontium-90? Solution: The correct answer is C. The number of protons in the nucleus of an element is given by the atomic number. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. The number of neutrons can be found by subtracting the atomic number from the mass number. The atomic number of strontium (Sr) is 38; so the number of neutrons is 90 - 38 = 52. The sum of protons, neutrons, and electrons in strontium is 38 + 38 + 52 = 128. This value is given as answer choice C.

Strontium was an isotope thus contain two more electrons. If it said that the mass was 88 then it would mean that it wasn't an isotope thus you can use the concept of positive and negative charge.

Would deviations from the ideal gas law be observed for gaseous nitrogen at 180 GPa and room temperature? Solution: The correct answer is C. According to the passage, the solid form of nitrogen is predicted to be stable above 65 GPa. At 180 GPa, deviations from the ideal gas law would be observed for gaseous nitrogen. The ideal gas law assumes that molecular volumes and intermolecular attractive forces are negligible. At a pressure at which solid nitrogen is predicted to be stable, neither of these assumptions would be valid. Thus, C is the best answer.

The answer is yes, because you expect deviations from ideal gas behavior at high pressure and low temp.

KLF6 mRNA from which cell line has the longest half-life?

The one that would have the longest half-life would be the one that is surviving longer without being degraded. Since the control group Hela is surviving a longer time than that means that it would have a longer half-life if you would split it in half until the beginining. It was the most stable toward degradation so it has the longest half-life. Hep3B mRNA had the shortest half-life (degraded the fastest).

If Reactants X and Y are atoms, what is the shape of the product molecules? Solution: The correct answer is D. The shape of a molecule depends on the number of valence electrons at the central atom since lone pairs of electrons exert stereochemical effects. Without the group numbers of the reactant atoms, it is impossible to determine the molecular shape of the product. If X = C, and Y = O, then the molecular geometry would be linear. If X = O and Y = H, however, the molecular geometry would be bent. Thus, D is the best answer.

The shape depends on the valence electrons exert stereochemical effects. Without the group numbers of the reactant atoms, it is impossible to determine the molecular shape of the product.

The ability of the BBB to regulate flux into and out of the CNS relies heavily on tight junctions. Tight junctions are important in the BBB because

They seal off extracellular pathways, requiring passage through highly-selective cell membranes.

Based on the amount of KLF6 mRNA expressed after treatment with Acinomycin D, cell lines derived from liver carcinomas exhibit?

They showed enhanced degradation of KLF6 mRNA because that was different then the others that weren't derived from liver carcinomas. It could not be inhibited because all of them were inhibited. The question stem was asking specifically for liver carcinomas. You would have to infer that its compared to controls

Rh+ and Rh-

This protein is also often called the D antigen. When it comes to blood transfusion, anyone who is Rh positive can receive blood from someone who is Rh negative, but those with negative blood types cannot receive from anyone with a positive blood type. Rh+ = can receive blood from a Rh+ and Rh- Rh- = can receive blood from a Rh-

Which graph correctly illustrates the interaction between age and gender with regard to memory performance?

Two independent variables are said to interact if the effect of one of the variale on the dependent variable differs depending on the other variable. When two interacting variables are plotted, with one variable on the x-axis (age in this case) and the other variable represented by multiple functions graph on that same plot (male and female in thsi case), the two function s will not be paralle. In this example if age and gender do interact iwth respect to their effect on memory, then the two line s representing male and female cannot be parallel.

Small molecule that inhibits CYPs once APAP is bound in the active site. This would illustrate which type of inhibition

Uncompetitive inhibitors only inhibits substrate enzyme complex.

Improved visual acuity demonstrated by participants in the arousal group is most likely the result of post-treatment changes to which structure?

Visual acuity: The information in the passage suggests reduced thresholds for stereopsis, or depth perception, using binocular disparity. This effect cannot be traced to physiological changes or differences in any part of the eye. Logically it can be deduced that arousal would not change the actual structure of the retina in a way that could improve acuity.

A drug that increases the risk of a tubal pregnancy is most likely to inhibit which one of the following actions? Solution: The correct answer is D. The question asks the examinee to identify the action if inhibited is most likely to lead to an ectopic pregnancy. The main reason for the occurrence of ectopic pregnancies is the failure of the fertilized egg to be transported from the oviducts to the uterus. When the transport system fails, the embryo implants in the oviduct, rather than in the uterus. Accordingly, a drug that inhibits the transport of the ovum from the ovary to the uterus (D) is most likely to increase the risk of tubal pregnancy. Thus, D is the best answer.

What directly correlates to the passage.

dehydrogenase enzymes

What enzymes transfer electrons to NAD+. An enzyme that catalyzes the removal of hydrogen atoms from a particular molecule.

Which stem of the SAM pathway is most likely catalyzed by Pfs?

What kind of enzyme is Pfs? Nucleosidase basically cleave a bond and connects it to a nucleoside. Nucleoside is adenosine, cytidine, uridine, and guanosine

Which conclusion is Not compatible with the masking hypothesis?

When Gf does not show gender differences, it hides true differences in cognitive ability When Gf does not show gender differences, it underestimates differences in latent abilities True differences in verbal and quantitative reasoning are not always reflected in Gf A lack of differences in verbal and quantitative reasoning obscures true differences in Gf. The masking hypothesis is saying that GF is masking the variables that are observed within the experiment.

When the environmental temperature is 33° C, vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels helps to regulate the body temperature of a human by: Solution: The correct answer is C. This question asks the examinee to identify the impact of vasodilation on the maintenance of body temperature. When vasodilation occurs, the walls of blood vessels relax, allowing more blood to enter the area. The presence of increased blood within dilated vasculature in cutaneous tissue allows heat to escape from the surface of the body into the environment (C). Vasodilation increases, not decreases, bloodflow to the skin (A). This process does not produce an even distribution of heat, but rather facilitates the disproportionate movement of blood (and heat) to the surface of the body so that heat can be released (B). Vasodilation typically functions to facilitate, and not to prevent, heat loss (D). Thus, C is the best answer. A slowing blood flow through the skin. B maintaining an even distribution of heat throughout the body. C radiating excess body heat into the environment. D preventing needed body heat from being lost to the environment.

When its cold outside then you would vasodialate to increase blood towards the skin. This provides heat within your body. By radiating heat out.

After conjugation, the four sexually produced progeny divide by binary fission. Each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the micronuclear DNA and an uneven (but approximately equal) amount of DNA from the amitotic macronucleus. To minimize fluctuations in DNA content, small macronuclei undergo an additional S phase before division, and large macronuclei eliminate an S phase.The macronuclei of the asexual progeny in Tetrahymena and the cytoplasm of the ova-producing cells of female vertebrates share a common feature in that both:A. undergo uneven division.B. contain uneven amounts of nuclear material.C. regulate their contents by adding or skipping an S phase.D. are apportioned at mitosis.

When oocyte divides in meiosis, the cytoplasm is distributed to 2 daughter cells. Most of it goes to the daughter cell destined to be the ovum. The other daughter cell will become the polar bodies & be cast off with little cytoplasm. The amount of nuclear material in each however is the same. The distribution of macronucelar DNA during amiotic cell division in Tetrahymena. The common feature btwn Tetra & ovum mitosis is that both cytoplasmic division in ova & nuclear material of tetra are both uneven.:. answer is A

rate of reaction

When something is not changing, not in the rate equation in excess or zeroth order it means that its not effecting the rate of reaction. But the concentration is in the rate of reaction than that means it is effecting the rate.

Oxidation and reduction

Whenever presented with oxidized or reduction then there will be something oxidized and reduced.

What is the best explanation for the fact that a solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic? Solution: The correct answer is A. The NO2- reacts with water, forming OH- ions. Thus, A is the best answer.

Write the dissociation out. It wouldn't be lowering the Ka because it would still be an acid but as acidic. It also could not lower it because only temperature can. Thus Na would form a OH with the water making solution more basic.

In a laboratory population of Drosophila, all the males are XsY. Among the females, 15% are XiXi, 50% are XiXs, and 35% are XsXs. Assuming random mating, what proportion of male flies in the next generation will be XiY? Solution: The correct answer is C. All the males in the next generation will acquire a Y chromosome from their male parent, so the contribution of the male can be ignored in solving this problem. All the XiXi females will have XiY sons, so 15% of the XiY flies in the next generation will come from this type of female. Half of the sons the XiXs females produce will be XiY. Since XiXs females make up 50% of the population, 25% of the males in the next generation will come from this type of female. None of the sons of XsXs females will be XiY. The total number of male flies that are XiY is 40%; therefore, answer choice C is correct.

X-linked concept

Considering the data in figure 3, is it reasonable to conclude that there is a difference between KLF6 expression in normal liver cells and KLF6 expression in cells derived from liver carcinomas?

Yes, because in Figure 3 between the two carcinoma cell lines (Hep3B and HepG2) and the normal liver cell line (IHH) are both statistically significant . also the p< 0.001 is significantly small meaning that it is highly unlikely that the differences observed are due to random variability. If it wasn't statistically significant then we could make the decision and say that it may have been random or can't make the decision since its not statistically significant. Also statistically significant means that between two or more variables i caused by a finding that is real, reliable, and not due to chance. Yes, because KLF6 expression is measurable using luciferase? This does not answer the question stem. It does not logically answer the stem. KLF6 expression is measurable using luciferase, but that alone does not demonstrate a statistically significant difference between expression in normal and carcinoma cell lines.


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