Frontier Airlines Big 89

54. Who is the pilot flying on the ground?

CA

71. After landing when do we perform a residual ground speed check? What are the limits?

After each flight (parking checklist) If > or = 15 kts, second check req on next flight. If confirmed, IR considered failed. If > or = 21 kts, IR considered failed.

72. After landing when do we perform a drift check? What are the limits?

After each flight to Alaska, international flight, or when flown in class 2 navigation. IRU considered failed.

60. When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

Always

43. How must an approach be conducted when visibility is ½ m or RVR 2400 ft or less?

As a cat 2 or 3 autoland.

31. Why should the Captain wait to call for the "after start" checklist until after visually confirms that the tow bar has been disconnected?

Because the FO will turn on the yellow electric pump (nose wheel steering)

85. What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?

Blue and magenta

46. How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evac?

By using the normal call buttons.

62. What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?

CLIMBING: PF, "Pull standard" and state alt passing PM, "Standard pulled, altitude checked" DESCENDING: PF, "Push QNH, (setting)" and state alt passing PM. "QNH pushed (setting) altitude checked"

50. When is an exterior inspection required?

Every Preflight and post-flight (unless another crew is taking the aircraft)

83. When may a single engine autoland be done, and in what configuration?

F9 prohibits unless during emergency, it is the safest course of action.

58. When do we ue the flight path vector/director for approaches?

FD for all FULLY MANAGED non-precision approaches. TRK-FPA (flight path director) for MANAGED/SELECTED and SELECTED/SELECTED non-precision approaches.

39. What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?

FFAT PAD: FWC (Flight Warning Computer) FCU (Flight Control Unit-controls autopilot) Autopilot Transponder 2 PFDs (Primary Flight Display) 2 ADRs (ADR 1 reqd) (Air Data Reference) 2 DMCs (Display Management Computer)

57. Who normally performs the Engine fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?

FO normally, but could be CA

51. When is a crew briefing required?

First flight of the day and if crew changes are made.

52. When is a DDA required?

For any approach that specifies an MDA.

41. What is the required response to "SINK RATE" aural warning?

Go around

32. What color is the "NW STRG DISC"

Green when in towing position. Amber with one engine running.

What changes are made while in High speed Prot in Normal Law?

HIGH SPEED PROT (VMO+6) Bank limit 40 deg A/P disconnect Seeks wings level if stick released Nose up movement

26. In flight, when will the speed brakes automatically retract?

If an inhibition occurs when speedbrakes are extended. (SEAFAT) SEC 1 and 3 both have faults (Spoiler Elevator Computer) Elevator L or R fault Alpha Prot active Flaps full Alpha floor active Thrust lever > MCT

87. What action is taken at minimums, when landing from a non-precision approach?

If appropriate visual references in sight: A/P off FDs off If not, initiate missed approach

3. Exlain Flaps optimized between 3 and 4? Vol 1 20.32.6

If enroute icing is encountered, flaps 3 landing config may be required based on approach climb weight limits.

45. What is the required response to an "AUTOLAND" warning light during CAT II/III approach?

Immediate missed approach

88. What do you do if the acft starts to move with the parking brake on?

Immediately release the PARKING BRK handle to restore braking with pedals.

61. An RNAV GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums, which minimums can F9 use?

LNAV/VNAV

80. Flaps 3 is required in certain abnormal situations. Do you select Config 3 on the PERF APP page?

No (in order to keep the VLS CONF FULL value displayed on the MCDU).

30. Is alpha floor available in Alternate Law? Direct Law?

No and no.

28. If you loose the Blue Hyd system fluid, is the RAT available?

No because the RAT is powered by the blue hyd sys

79. If you were preparing for a CAT IIIB approach and the standby altimeter failed, would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?

No, as long as it didn't have ISIS. Only stanby attitude is required.

55. Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums ?

No. Yes, the higher of 1000 ft AGL/3 sm vis or the published circling altitude and weather mins

89. Is it OK to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?

No. (Only at discretion of maintenance if work is being performed)

38. If the pilot manually tunes a freq thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the auto tuning of the FMGC?

No. Any entry on 1 MCDU is sent to both FMGC in dual mode, or the remaining FMGC in single mode

29. What protections are available in Normal Law, Alternate Law, Direct Law?

Normal Law: Load, Bank, Pitch, AOA, and Overspeed Alternate Law: Load, and possibly high and low speed stability Direct Law: None

23. What is the time and distance for a TO alternate

Not more than 1 hr (single engine cruise in still wind) or 330 nm

6. Explain Ground Speed mini

On approach, the FMGS continuously calculates a speed based on ground speed to ensure a safe inertial margin in the event of abrupt wind changes. ie. microburst.

84. When do you select flaps Full on a single engine approach?

On final descent to an assured landing.

59. If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?

On the ground-not without coordination with MCC. In air-only if CA deems necessary for safe flight.

27. What does centering the beta target with the bank index do?

Optimizes aircraft performance during single engine operations.

37. What flight control is left when in mechanical back up law?

Pitch trim (THS) and rudder.

81. In case of a Dual Engine Failure, what action do you apply first: ECAM or QRH?

QRH, clear ECAM and check ECAM status page if time permits.

69. After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

Run engine at idle for 5 min. If leak continues, call MX

Bonus Question: When do we need an ARTR? (Amended Release To Read)

SHAFT Me Mi Capt: Supplemental (crew change) Hour past ETD Alternate added Fuel (>2000 lbs added or 400 lb discrepancy no AWP) Takeoff alternate added MeL added or subtracted Miles (reroute of > 100 mi) Captain change after signature

9. At the gate with engines off, you turn on the yellow elec hyd pump. Will this action pressurize the green hyd system?

Yes, because the green will get pressurized by the PTU driven by yellow system pressure.

33. Do you have A/Skid if you lose your normal braking?

Yes, if the BSCU is working.

65. Does bat 1 & 2 need to be in auto for bat start?

Yes. Batteries are either off or auto.

68. During engine start with the thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?

Yes. The engine will start and rapidly increase to throttle lever position.

63. How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

Zero

What changes are made while in a Prot in Normal Law?

a Prot Bank limit 45deg A/P disconnect Speedbrakes retract AOA instead of load Pitch trim inhibited

7. Preliminary Cockpit Prep a. What is the minimum batt voltage and what does that voltage ensure? b. What indications do you get when conducting an engine fire test with AC pwr? c. Reference b above what indication are lost when performing with DC pwr?

a. 25.5 ensures 50% charge min b. CRC, Fire push button lights, squib and disch lights, master warn lights, ECAM warning, and fire light on engine panel. c. Master warn lights, fire warn in ECAM, and CRC.

56. How long is the aircraft airworthiness signoff good for?

8 days

11. What is the minimum engine oil quantity for flight?

9.5 qt + .5 qt for each flight hour

82. For abnormal procedures during take-off, which checklist is read first: After Takeoff Checklist or the Abnormal checklist?

After Takeoff

Bonus Question: Can we take late bags if we are already pushed off the gate?

Yes, as long as the engines are not running (CA discretion)

40. What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

Error no more than .5 nm Flight Director or Autopilot SID or STAR must be in database Must be able to engage no later than 500 ft AGL.

35. What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the A/C to move on the ramp?

40% N1

74. What is the lowest RVR you could use for DEN 34R, assuming all lights are working?

500,500,500

48. What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

500/500/500 (must have HIRL and CLL)

8. If brake accumulator pressure is out of green band, how can it be charged?

Yellow electric hydraulic pump

1. Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility. Vol 1 20.20.2

...for the preflight planning of each flight. They determine the suitability of weather, field, traffic and airways. Either can delay a flight, but only SOC (Systems Operations Control) can cancel.

2. When is an alternate required? Vol 1: 20.20.3, 35.20.1, 40.10.6

123 rule for domestic 123++ for flag Method 2 (driftdown) Marginal weather Offline charters International Severe icing Thunderstorms Rnav only Supplemental 3585

13. During single engine taxi, the 2nd engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

2 min. To protect against thermal shock/engines last longer

67. During cockpit prep, setting QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 & 2?

20 ft

73. Which leading edge devices are ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?

3 outboard slats on each wing. No.

19. Wt and Bal (what ways can you get a valid W&B?)

ACARS via AWP, the TLR, or the CLP.

70. During engine start, elec power supply is interrupted, what is our action?

Abort start by switching off MASTER. 30 second dry motor

49. What should the settings be on RMP 3 (if installed)?

Check ON and STBY NAV lights out. Ensure HF and AM lights extinguished.

21. What do the FACs do?

Controls rudder, rudder trim, and yaw damper inputs. Computes data for flight envelope and speed functions. Provides warning for low energy and wind shear detection if these functions are installed.

44. What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

Dispatch or flight release Weight and balance Flight plan Weather and notams Performance (AWP or TLR)

34. What powers the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS Bus if both engine driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts?

Emergency generator. Above 100 kts RAT deploys powering blue hyd sys, which drives the emergency generator via a hydraulic motor.

4. Explain method one vs method two? Standard strategy vs Obstacle? Procedures for both? Where would we see it listed?

METHOD 1 = 1000 ft obstacle clearance 5nm either side from v1 to destination. METHOD 2 (driftdown) = 2000 ft clearance 5nm either side from cruise altitude to diversion airport. If engine failure occurs lower that normal cruise, the aircraft must be able to return to departure airport or departure alternate (if req.) STANDARD STRATEGY: (Used for method 1) OBSTACLE STRATEGY: (Used for method 2) Method of dispatch will be on the dispatch release.

Bonus Question: Holding Speeds in Mexico?

MHA - 6000-----200 kts 6,001 - 14,000---210 kts Above 14,000----230 kts

76. What does "RNAV 1" mean?

Maintain total system error not greater than 1 nm, 95% of the time.

36. How do you get out of "TOGA LOCK" is triggered by "A FLOOR"?

Match and Mash. Push throttles to match then mash the auto thrust off.

66. During cockpit preparation, when turning bat 1 & 2 off then on, what are we looking for?

Minimum 25.5v

5. Explain the following flight modes: a. Normal b. Alternate c. Direct d. Flare e. Pitch/bank protections f. High/low speed and high AOA protections, g. Alpha Lock Vol 3 27.20.1-6, 27.50

NORMAL LAW--"BYPALS" Bank--67 max, 45 lose a/p, 40 regain a/p, 33 normal bank Yaw--damping, turn coordination Pitch--30-25 up (fl 0-3), 25-20 up (fl full), 15 down all fl Aoa--VMAX, VLS, a prot, a Floor, a MAX Load--clean=-1 to +2.5, w/flaps=0-2.0 Speed--VMO+6 ALTERNATE LAW--"BYPALS" Bank--No protection Yaw--damping only Pitch--no protection Aoa--VLS, VSW Load--clean=-1 to +2.5, w/flaps=0-2.0 Speed--Varies...high speed, low spd stall warning replaces AOA DIRECT LAW--No protections! VLS/VSW is indicated, Aural overspeed "USE MAN PITCH TRIP" (amber) MECHANICAL BACKUP LAW--Power,Rudder,THS "MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY" (red) FLARE MODE is engaged as A/C passes 50ft RA. At 30ft A/C begins to pitch down toward 2 deg over 8 sec, requiring pilot to flare.

78. When may we fly to a published MDA?

Never. Use DDA by adding 50 ft to MDA.

64. First flight of the day, elec system is supplied with ac power, is the bat voltage check required?

No

14. What temp and conditions must the engine ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?

Temp +10 to -40 with visible moisture. All operations when icing conditions exist except in climb and cruise below -40c.

53. While conducting an ECAM procedure what are the 5 things the Pilot Flying is responsible for?

Thrust levers Control of flight path and speed Aircraft configuration Navigation Communications

10. How do you perform an alternate brake check?

Yellow pump must be off, plane chocked, parking brake off. Press and hold the brakes.... 2000-2700 psi.

12. When performing the brake check during taxi, the FO announces "pressure zero" indicates that green pressure has taken over yellow pressure. T or F

True

77. How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0?

Verify "NAV ACCUR HIGH" on MCDU.

24. When is the A/P required for an approach?

Vis less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 sm

75. What is the definition of marginal wx?

Weather that is within 100 ft or 1/2 mi of airport approach mins.

86. When is it appropriate to call "continuing" on an approach?

When approach lights are in sight. (CAT 1 only)

22. When is a TO alternate required?

When departure airport weather is below CAT 1 mins

25. When is an autoland required?

When vis is less than 2400RVR or 1/2 sm (A CAT II or CAT III runway must be available, the aircraft autoland capaple, and both crewmembers trained)

42. How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less that ¾ m, or RVR 4000?

With an autopilot