genomic test 3

In a DNA fingerprinting-based paternity analysis, the tested child should share about _____ of the fingerprint bands with his or her father. A) 1/4 B) 1/16 C) 1/2 D) 1/8 E) All of the above

...

A microbiome consists of A) the community of microorganisms in a particular environment. B) the transcriptome from a particular microorganism under different environments. C) the proteome from different microorganisms in a particular environment. D) the proteome from a particular microorganism under different environments. ) E) all the microorganisms on Earth.

B

Explain how so many proteins could be made from so few genes? A) The one-gene-one-peptide hypothesis proved that the number of genes equals the number of proteins. B) Many of these proteins are produced by alternative intron/exon splicing. C) These splice variants typically are likely to have overlapping functions. D) When each gene is chemically modified, a new protein results. none of the above are correct.

B

Fusing a gene with a gene for green florescent protein can be utilized to A) identify the protein in a cell. B) localize the place in a cell where the protein normally functions. C) overcome a number of technical barriers. D) all of the above E) none of the above

B

The human genome contains approximately _________ genes. A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 40,000 D) 80,000 E) 100,000

B

Proteomics is: A) the characterization of all of the genes of an organism. B) the characterization of all of the proteins made by an organism. C) the sequence of all genes in an organism. D) the primary structure of all of the proteins found in a particular tissue or organ. E) none of the above

B) the characterization of all of the proteins made by an organism.

A genetic map shows A) the location of genes on chromosomes. B) the relative distance between genes on chromosomes. C) the genetic component of key phenotypic traits. D) A and B E) A, B, and C

D

Genetic testing is generally done for A) newborn screening. B) prenatal diagnosis. C) carrier (heterozygote) detection. D) all of these reasons. E) B and C only

D

The human genome consists of approximately _________ base pairs. A) 4.2 million B) 30 million C) 123 million D) 3.2 billion E) 9 billion

D

A genomic region can rapidly become very common in a population due to A) negative selection. B) specific selection. C) homologous recombination. D) linkage equilibrium. E) positive selection.

E

Expressed sequence tags, or ESTs, A) are genetic markers generated from cDNA. B) pertain to expressed genes only. C) oligonucleotides derived from mRNA. D) A and C E) A, B, and C

E

If you are setting up a PCR reaction, how much extension time per cycle should you allocate for the Taq DNA polymerase to amplify a 5-kb DNA fragment from a 10-kb template? A) 10 minutes B) 1 minute C) 20 minutes D) 2.5 minutes E) 5 minutes

E

In a microarray A) mRNA molecules are separated on the basis of size using agarose gel electrophoresis. B) the mRNA molecules are transfered in relative position onto a membrane such as nitrocellulose. C) the blot is probed with a DNA probe complementry to a specific mRNA. D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct.

E

In a sequenced genome, candidate protein-encoding genes are identified by searching for A) STRs. B) RFLPs. C) ESTs. D) SNPs. E) ORFs.

E

Prenatal genetic tests cannot determine A) if a fetus has a specific mutation. B) the gender of a fetus. C) if chromosomal abnormalities exist in a fetus. D) the DNA fingerprint for certain VNTR loci in a fetus. E) All of these can be determined.

E

RFLPs arise by A) changes in the number of tandem repeats. B) base changes that add or delete restriction enzyme recognition sites. C) addition or deletion of bases between restriction enzyme recognition sites. D) A, B, and C E) B and C only

E

Why is the Taq DNA polymerase well-suited for PCR? A) Taq DNA polymerase is a heat-stable enzyme that was isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. B) It can maintain function and structure at very high temperatures C) PCR can run without having to inject a new enzyme after each heat denaturation cycle. D) Both A and B are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

E

ASO probes are used for the molecular testing of A) single-nucleotide changes in a DNA region. B) RFLP fragments in a DNA region. C) defective proteins implicated in disease. D) successfully cloned Ti plasmids. E) chromosomal rearrangements.

A

Candidate open reading frames of a genome are identified by searching for A) a start codon "in frame" with a stop codon. B) a start codon. C) introns and exons. D) a promoter. E) all of the above.

A

Choose the correct statement. A) Using microarrays all genes in the genome can be measured at the same time. B) Northern blots detect the location of a probe DNA molecule in the genome. C) Both A and B are correct D) none of the above are correct.

A

Chromosome walking involves A) cloning a gene in stepwise fashion using partially overlapping subclones. B) G-Staining and labeling the banding series of each chromosome. C) constructing a cDNA library. D) use of PCR to generate fragments of chromosomes. E) none of the above.

A

Genetic distances associated with genetic maps are generally obtained A) by an analysis of the frequency of recombination between genes. B) by counting the number of base pairs between restriction sites. C) by assessing the location of chromosomes in the nucleus. D) by determining the number of chromosomes in the genome. E) by sequencing the genome.

A

How can we explain the fact that the human genome contains far fewer genes than was predicted would be necessary for our survival? A) The microorganisms that reside within our bodies help us by synthesizing chemicals, like vitamins, that we then use. B) Mitochondrial genes replace nuclear genes in many cases. C) microRNAs are naturally occuring RNAi's so the number of functional genes are multiplied. D) Both B and C are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

A

How do we know that some of the microbes in our gut are beneficial to us? A) Individuals lacking normal intestinal microbes have defects in the function of the immune system and in wound healing B) Gut microbes are absolutely essential to meet our nutritional needs. C) Expression of native genes is regulated by bacterial promoters and catabolite repression. D) Both A and B are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

A

Imagine that you are using random PCR primers to amplify fragments of DNA. Would you expect to get more amplification products if you set the PCR machine at a higher or lower annealing temperature? A) Higher annealing temperatures increase "stringency," so fewer transcripts would be expected. B) Lower annealing temperatures increase "stringency," so fewer transcripts would be expected. C) Higher annealing temperatures decrease "stringency," so fewer transcripts would be expected. D) Lower annealing temperatures decrease "stringency," so fewer transcripts would be expected.

A

In order to prove that an enzyme functions in a specific metabolic pathway A) standard methods of biochemical analysis are utilized to determine the reaction catalyzed by the enzynme. B) the metabolites found inside cells are analyzed in cells making the enzyme. C) both A and B are correct D) neither A or B are correct.

A

Polymorphic tandem repeats are called A) VNTRs. B) STRs. C) PTRs. D) A and B E) A, B, and C

A

The first gene to be cloned using only positional cloning was for which disease? A) Cystic fibrosis B) Huntington disease C) Sickle-cell disease D) Muscular dystrophy E) Tay-Sachs disease

A

The representational oligonucleotide microarray analysis (ROMA) represents A) a comparative genomics approach. B) a metagenomics approach. C) a structural genomics approach. D) a functional genomics approach. E) a pharmacogenomics approach.

A

To locate the CF gene, people in the pedigree were screened with __________ to detect any genetic markers associated with the disease. A) RFLPs B) ASOs C) antibodies D) PCR E) all of the above

A

Using Spotted microarrays: A) 2 mRNA samples can be compared. B) mRNA must be used in excess of the DNA probe to compare multiple mRNA's. C) DNA probles hybridize with genomic DNA. D) All or the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct.

A

Which of the following is a critical difference between microarrays and northern blots? A) In a microarray many genes can be analyzed at the same time. B) northern blots cannot be used for comparative gene expression analysis but microarrays are designed to do this effectively. C) In a northern blot only the expression of mRNAs is determined while a microarray determines nucleotide sequence as well. D) All of the above E) None of the above

A

Which of the following is not a Hybridization-based techniques for measuring the expression of genes. A) Southern Blot B) Northern Blot C) Microarray D) Real Time PCR E) All of the above are hybridization based techniques for measuring gene expression.

A

Which of the following is not a type of protein modification regulating the activity of the protein. A) formylation to make N-formyl-methionine B) proteolytic cleavage C) phosphorylation D) acetylation E) glycosylation

A

Which of the following triggers the RNAi pathway? A) shRNA B) rRNA C) mRNA D) tRNA E) snRNA

A

Gene Chip microarrays are made using a photochemical process A) that involves using a computer to generate the sequence to be made. B) requiring at least 4 times more cycles than the length of the sequence. C) having a cDNA probe for the appropriate mRNA. D) involving cy3 and cy5. E) none of the above.

B

How many samples can be compared in a Northern blot? A) One sample for each lane in the electrophoresis apparatus. B) Depends on the number of time points taken after treatment with a hormone. C) Two samples can be compared using different color fluroescent dyes. D) All of the above E) None of the above

B

In order for the yeast galactose metabolizing gene, GAL1, to be transcribed, the regulatory protein produced by the GAL4 gene binds to A) RNA polymerase. B) upstream activator sequence G (UASG) region. C) a ribosome. D) the operator sequence. E) the repressor protein.

B

RNA interference functions by A) degrading the RNA strand that is encoded by the Slicer gene. B) degrading the RNA complementary to the short, double-stranded RNA. C) transcribing double-stranded RNA into protein. D) disrupting the chromosomal copy of the gene. E) degrading the protein encoded by a specific mRNA

B

The ________ method was used by the Celera Genomics corporation to sequence the human genome. A) FISH B) direct shotgun C) clone contig D) radiation hybrid E) pedigree analysis

B

The drug ________ is added to mouse cell cultures to select against transformants that do not have the desired gene knockout. A) kanamycin B) ganciclovir C) G418 D) neomycin E) ampicillin

B

What is a transgene? A) Small noncoding human RNA B) Artificially introduced DNA C) Searches for sequence matches D) Fluorescent dye E) Transcript that has a stem and loop

B

When green Cy3 and red Cy5 are used to label 2 RNA samples from different tissues, mRNAs hybridizing that are not differentially expressed in the 2 samples will produce ___________ spots in the final image that is produced by the combination of the red and green laser immages.Green A) Red B) Yellow C) Green D) No spots E) None of the above

B

Which of the following sequences is considered an STR? A) CGTATTATGC B) TACGTACGTACG C) CCCCCGGGGG D) TATTACGCCG E) A and B

B

____________________ is a method that systematically examines the interaction between 2 proteins. A) Mass spectrometry B) Yeast 2-hybrid C) Gene cloning D) Recombinant DNA cloning E) none of the above.

B

A sensitive way of measuring gene expression that relies on primers specifically binding to cDNA sequences and amplifying the sequence between the primers is: A) Northern Blot B) GeneChip microarray C) real-time PCR D) Spotted microarrays E) None of the above

C

Announcement of the first draft sequence of the complete human genome was a monumental moment in the history of genetics. This announcement was made A) April 1953. B) February 1997. C) February 2001. D) April 2003. E) August 2000.

C

Choose the 1 best answer. A) BLAST is a software that searches for similarities between DNA sequences only. B) Both strands of the short, double-stranded regulatory RNA molecules are required by the Slicer protein in order to target the complementary RNA for degradation. C) Sequence similarity between genes plays an important role in assigning gene function. D) Both A and C are correct. E) All of the above are correct

C

Choose the correct answer. A) Humans possess approximately 25,000 genes, but are estimated to have between 200,000 and 2 million unique proteins. B) The exact proteins that are expressed at any given moment in a particular cell type or tissue depend on a person's age, health, and environmental stimuli. C) Both A and B are correct. D) neither A nor B is correct.

C

Choose the correct answer. A) Microarrays have been used to analyze gene expression during the cell cycle. B) Microarrays have been used to "genotype" cancer cells. C) Both A and B are correct. E) None of the above are correct

C

Choose the correct answer. A) The end result of 2-D gel electrophoresis is that each protein will have a unique x-y position on the 2-D gel. B) Proteins that are identified by their unique position on a 2-D gel can be removed for further experimental analysis. C) Both A and B are correct. D) Neither A or B are correct

C

Choose the correct statement. A) Real-time PCR has replaced Northern blotting as the standard method of determining the expression level of one or a few genes. B) Real-time PCR involves the determination of how many cycles of PCR are required to obtain a given amount of DNA. C) Both A and B are correct. D) None of the above are correct

C

In yeast, expression of galactose utilization genes is induced when there is ________ in the culture medium. A) glucose B) lactose C) galactose D) maltose E) Any of the above

C

Massively Parallel Signature Sequencing A) is a non hybridization based method of determining gene expression. B) determines how many times a given mRNA is represented in each cell by sequencing massive numbers of individual mRNAs. C) Both A and B are correct. D) None of the above are correct

C

More than 2000 peptides can be separated on the basis of molecualr size and charge using A) agarose gel electrophoresis. B) DNA sequencing. C) 2 dimentional gel electrophoresis. D) mass spectrometry. E) none of the above.

C

Northern blots A) are the oldest hybridization-based technique for measuring the expression B) measure the expression of one gene at a time. C) Both A and B are correct D) none of the above are correct

C

Serial Analysis of Gene Expression A) is a non hybridization based method of determining gene expression. B) is based on sequencing a series of short sequences from mRNAs. C) Both A and B are correct. D) None of the above are correct

C

The Alu family is an example of A) intermediate repeat elements. B) long interspersed repeat elements. C) short interspersed repeat elements. D) terminal sequences. E) gene-flanking sequences.

C

The goal of genome-wide expression analysis is: A) to measure all of the genes in the genome of an organism. B) to determine the protein made by all of the genes in the genome of an organism. C) to measure the RNA level for all genes in the genome of an organism. D) develop a use for microarrays. E) none of the above

C

When yeast cells are cultured in the presence of both glucose and galactose, the GAL genes are A) transcribed and translated. B) transcribed but not translated. C) neither transcribed nor translated. D) translated but not transcribed. E) none of the above

C

Which of the following best describes BLAST? A) BLAST is a small noncoding human RNA. B) BLAST is an artificially introduced DNA. C) BLAST searches for sequence matches in a nucleotide or prottein database. D) BLAST is a fluorescent dye? E) Transcripts that have a stem and loop are BLASTS.

C

Which of the following does not occur during PCR? A) Annealing of oligonucleotide primers B) Extension of primers by DNA polymerase C) Synthesis of oligonucleotide primers D) Denaturation at high temperatures E) Changes in the reaction temperature by a thermocycler

C

Which of the following is an archaean that has been identified in the human gut? A) Caenorhabditis elegans B) Bifidobacterium longum C) Methanobrevibacter smithii D) Enterobacter aerogenes E) Escherichia coli

C

_____________ is a technique that can be utilized to identify specific peptide fragment sequences in proteins extracted from 2-D gels. A) MALDI B) Time of flight spectrometry C) Mass spectrometry D) Electrospray ionization E) all of the above.

C

_______________ is a statistical technique that can be used to determine the subset of genes that are differentially expressed in a large microarray experiment. A) Clustal alignment B) Chi-square C) cluster analysis D) Both 1 and 2 E) Both 2 and 3

C

Choose the correct answer. A) Characterizing a proteome is considerably more complex than sequencing a genome. B) There are far more proteins than genes in a eukaryotic organism. C) Both A and B are correct. D) neither A nor B is correct.

C) Both A and B are correct. -->A) Characterizing a proteome is considerably more complex than sequencing a genome. -->B) There are far more proteins than genes in a eukaryotic organism.

Allelic variants differing by a single nucleotide are called A) monomorphic alleles (MMAs). B) uninucleotidic variants (UNVs). C) monoallelic polymorphisms (MAPs). D) single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). E) none of the above

D

Choose the 1 best answer. A. Cy3 and Cy5 are radioactive tags used in microarrays. B. The 16S rRNA gene from human gut microflora was amplified and sequenced to understand how the gut microbes are related. C. The genome of cancer cells tends to become unstable. D. Both B and C are correct. E. All of the above are correct

D

Choose the 1 best answer. A) "Knockout" mutants have had the activities of certain genes eliminated, which can aid the researchers in determining the effects of those genes on physiology, development, and other functions. B) Bioinformatics is a relatively new field that combines elements of genomics with computer science and mathematics. C) The transcriptome is the complete set of polypeptides produced by an organism. D) Both A and B are correct. E) All of the above are correct

D

Genetic tests primarily tell investigators the genetic cause(s) of a disease. A) if there is a mutation known to be associated with a disease. B) if an individual is likely to express disease alleles. C) how to cure a genetic disease. D) all of the above.

D

Spotted microarrays can be made using which of the following methods: A) Photochemic synthesis of a DNA probe in place. B) Spotting of DNA using a robot and pins that deliver a nanodrop of DNA to a specific location on a solid support C) Spotting of DNA using inkjet printing technology. D) B and C are both correct. E) All of the above are correct

D

Successful cotransformation in the yeast two-hybrid system will result in the binding of proteins produced by each yeast expression vector. These fusion proteins function by A) binding to the lacZ operator, preventing transcription. B) binding to RNA polymerase, preventing transcription. C) binding to the lacZ repressor, enabling transcription. D) binding to the lacZ upstream activator sequence, enabling transcription. E) changing color in the presence of X-gal.

D

The first complete genome sequenced was that of A) Escherichia coli. B) Methanococcus. C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae. D) the human mitochondrion. E) Mus musculus.

D

The polymerase chain reaction has revolutionized genetics because A) it is capable of making copies of DNA with very little starting material. B) it is capable of making large numbers of DNA copies very quickly. C) it is capable of making virtually unlimited copies of DNA for study. D) All of these E) A and B only

D

The subfield of genomics that deals with gene expression and interaction is A) comparative genomics. B) expression genomics. C) hypothetical genomics. D) functional genomics. E) structural genomics.

D

Ti plasmids are approximately _______ the related pUC19 plasmids. A) twice as large as B) 10 times smaller than C) half the size of D) 10 times larger than E) 100 times larger than

D

To study how protein interactions affect cellular function, ________ is the most appropriate method. A) PCR B) the two-hybrid system C) restriction mapping D) RT-PCR E) Southern blotting

D

What does a large haplotype block suggest about a genomic region? A) A large haplotype block usually indicates a recent origin, because the older a block, the greater the chances that it would have undergone genetic recombination at some point in the past. B) That some mutation within the haplotype block imparted a fitness advantage and has therefore been selected for (positive selection). C) Large blocks of haplotypes define the promoters of genes. D) Both A and B are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

D

When DNA probes for many genes are immobilized on a solid support, and mRNA's or cDNA's are hybridized with the immobilized probes, this is A) A Southern Blot B) A Western Blot C) A northern Blot D) A microarray E) None of the above.

D

Which of the following is not used in PCR amplification of DNA? A) Oligonucleotide primers B) Buffer C) Double-stranded DNA template D) ddNTPs E) DNA polymerase

D

Which of the following statements about genomes is false? A) Genomes show a general trend of increasing complexity with complexity of organism. B) Genes make up most of the DNA of prokaryotes. C) Eukaryotes generally have far lower gene density than prokaryotes. D) Most of the human genome consists of coding DNA. E) The human genome contains several genes of bacterial origin.

D

Why are the number of proteins in the eukaryotic proteome so much greater than the number of eukaryotic genes? A) Eukaryotic translation is characterized by transcript processing, e.g. exons are differentially spliced to yield different polypeptide products. B) Many functional proteins have quaternary structure, the subunits of which are provided by different genes. C) Combinatorial gene regulation. D) Both A and B are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

D

__________________ are defined as any changes to the covalent bonds of a protein after it has been fully translated. A) Translational modifications B) Transcriptional modifications C) Chemical protein modifications D) Posttranslational modifications E) none of the above

D

in a Northern Blot A) mRNA molecules are separated on the basis of size using agarose gel electrophoresis. B) the mRNA molecules are transfered in relative position onto a membrane such as nitrocellulose. C) the blot is probed with a DNA probe complementry to a specific mRNA. D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above are correct.

D

mRNA levels for a specific gene can varry in response to which of the following: A) Cell type B) Developmental stage C) External stimuli D) All of the above are correct E) None of thte above are correct

D

Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of repetitive DNA? A) 3 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 85 percent E) 97 percent

E

In a clone-contig mapping experiment, four clones were obtained with the following STS markers: Clone 1: O P G EClone 2: A C D MClone 3: X O PClone 4: D M N X O The order of the markers in this part of the genome is: A) O P G E A C D M X P. B) X O P A C G E D M N. C) A C D M N X O P G E. D) D M N X O A C D P G E. E) A C D M O P G E N X.

E

Variable-number tandem repeats can differ in A) base sequence in repeat motif. B) length of repeat motif. C) number of units repeating in tandem. D) A and C E) A, B, and C

E

What are the different methods by which we can assign function to particular genes? A) By searching for sequence homology with genes of other organisms whose functions are known. B) By interfering with the gene by making knockouts and studying the phenotypes produced.. C) By interfering with the gene through gene silencing by RNA interference and studying the phenotypes produced.. D) Both A and C are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

E

What is one advantage that an RNAi screen may have over a screen for gene knockouts? A) A screen for gene knockouts usually does not yield deletions of essential genes because they are nonviable and do not live. B) An RNAi screen, however, may often lead to a knockdown, rather than a knockout, of an essential gene, which may be viable. C) A and B may lead to better understanding of the function of the gene that may otherwise be difficult to determine. D) Both A and C are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

E

Which of the following statements correctly describes reverse genetics? A) A gene is identified by bioinformatics. B) A transcript is used to make a protein encoded by a gene. C) A mutated phenotype in an organism leads to the associated gene. D) A gene is studied to understand the protein it encodes. E) A mutated gene is introduced into an organism to determine the phenotype.

E

Which of the following steps is NOT involved in constructing a knockout mutant in yeast? A) A "deletion module" is constructed with a selectable marker (such as an antibiotic resistance gene). B) Transformants are selected using an antibiotic resistance gene. C) The module recombines with the target knockout gene D) Successful gene replacements can be confirmed with PCR. E) All of the above are steps involved in constructing a knockout mutant.

E

Which type of cloning vector is commonly used in the construction of contig maps? A) Plasmids B) BACs C) Viruses D) YACs E) B and D

E

Why are BLAST comparisons based on protein sequences often easier to interpret than those based on DNA sequences? A) DNA sequences often have greater mismatches because of the degeneracy of the genetic code. B) Protein matches involve 1 of 22 amino acids at each position while DNA only has 1 of 4 nucleotides possible. C) Three nucleotides are required to make a single amino acid, but changes in some positions can be meaningless. D) Both A and C are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

E

Why does the transcriptome differ within an organism's cell types? A) All the genes of a multicellular organism are not expressed in every cell type. B) The various cell types express different subsets of the genome, C) The makeup of the transcripts (the transcriptome) differs depending on which genes are expressed at a given time. D) Both A and B are correct. E) All of the above are correct.

E

_______ were the first class of genetic marker developed by geneticists. A) SNPs B) microsatellites C) VNTRs D) STRs E) RFLPs

E

A SNP represents a change in A) a three-nucleotide sequence. B) the number of nucleotides between restriction sites. C) the number of restriction sites. D) the number of tandem repeats. E) none of the above.

E- they are a single base pair deletion

f ?-globin DNA from a normal individual is cut with the restriction enzyme DdeI, transferred to a membrane, and probed with a labeled ?-globin probe, ________ restriction fragments would be detected. A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six

a

The Human Genome Project was launched in _____, and the complete working draft was announced in_____. A) 1953, 1985 B) 1953, 2001 C) 1990, 2001 D) 1990, 1997 E) 1997, 2001

c

Phosphorylation is provides a reversible mechanism for activating enzymes by attaching phosphate groups to which of the following amino acids? A) tyrosines B) threonines C) serines. D) All of the above E) None of the above

d