giles part II

___ involves using high frquency sound waves non invasively to evaluate the functioning of the heart via real time images. it can provide info on the size and function of the ventricles, thickness of the septums, and function of the walls, valves, and chambers of the heart

echocardipcraphy

Which of the following is an example of a class I drug? antidiarrheal sedative oxycodone heroin

heroin Class I drugs have no accepted medical use in the United States and have a high potential to be abused. Examples of class I drugs include heroin and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD).

The hypothalamus links the __ __ to the __ __ through the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus functions to regulate the autonomic nervous system (e.g., stress response, sleep, appetite, body temperature, fluid balance and emotions).

nervous system endocrine system

finger adduction (1)

palmar interossei

____ is a condition in which food is trapped in the esophagous because the lower esophageal sphincter does not relax

achalasia

radial deviation (3)

extensor carpi radialis longus and previs, flexor carpi radialis, extensor pollicis longus and brevis

ulnar deviation (2)

extensor carpi ulnaris flexor carpi ulnaris

retraction (2)

middle trap rhomboids

noble compression test (YT vid) tests for __ __ syndrome

IT band

A physical therapist assistant uses a 3.0 MHz ultrasound beam at 1.5 W/cm2 to treat a patient diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. The majority of ultrasound energy will be absorbed within a depth of: 1.1-2 centimeters 2.2-3 centimeters 3.4-5 centimeters 4.5-6 centimeters

1-2 cm

cadence: the __ __ __ an indiv. will walk over a period of time. the avg value for an adult is __to__ steps per minute

110-120

A patient with ST segment depression of 1 mm on their electrocardiogram would be classified as moderate risk for increased morbidity and mortality. A patient with marked ST-segment depression for example greater than__ mm would be classified as high-risk however would not be excluded from exercise

2

things to consider when performing an MMT with an isometric contraction, there is a __ second build of tension, __ second hold of maximum contraction, then a __ second diminishing of tension.

2 6 2

how many degrees of freedom exist at the tibiofemoral joint?

2 flexion/extension rotation

how many stages of lymphedema are there?

3

Failure to prevent the pelvis from anterior tilting when measuring hip extension will result in an exaggerated hip extension range of motion value. Normal hip extension range of motion is___ degrees.

30

Menisci function to deepen the articular surfaces of the tibia where they articulate with the femoral condyles. The limited vascularity present in the menisci require a period of __-__ months to allow for adequate healing time. Meniscal repairs typically involve the outer third of the menisci due to enhanced vascularity.

4-6

a frequency set to 1 MHz will penetrate the tissue __ cm a frequency set to 3 MHz will penetrate the tissue __-__ cm

5 1-2

loose packed position on GH joint close packed position capsular pattern

55 degrees abduction 30 degrees horizontal adduction abduction and lateral rotation lateral rotation, abduction, medial rotation

normal arterial blood has a pH of __

7.4

when measuring cmc abduction of the thumb, the axis is over the anatomical snuff box (lateral aspect of radial styloid process). the stationary arm is lateral midline of the 2nd metacarpal and the movable arm is lateral midline of the 1st metacarpal cmc abduction is __ degrees

70

How many inches above the seat should the top of the armrest be positioned in a standard wheelchair? 5 inches 7 inches 9 inches 11 inches

9 inches

normal O2 sat in adults is __-__. for individuals with chronic lung disease, activity should be stopped when oxygen reaches __ or lower

96-100 86

Postural Strategies are known as automatic motor responses used to maintain the __ __ __ over the __ __ __

CoG BoS

eye discoloration characteristic of Wilson's Disease:

Kayser-Fleischer

Cauda equina injuries occur below the __ spinal level where the long nerve Roots transcend. There is full innervation of the abdominal and intercostals, and minimal hip flexion present at this level. Characteristics include flaccidity areflexia and impairment of__ and ___ function. For Recovery is not typically due to the distance needed for axonal regeneration

L1 bowel and bladder

Which of the following medications would benefit a patient that recently suffered a grade 2 inversion ankle sprain? acetaminophen disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs oxycodone nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

NSAIDS

The sacroiliac joint is located at the __-__ spinal level.

S1-S3

True leg length discrepancy test

The patient is positioned in supine with the hips and knees extended, the legs 15 to 20 cm apart, and the pelvis in balance with the legs. Using a tape measure, the therapist measures from the distal point of the anterior superior iliac spines to the distal point of the medial malleoli. A positive test is indicated by a bilateral variation of greater than one centimeter and may be indicative of a true leg length discrepancy.

The saddle joint gets its name because the bone forming one part of the joint is ___ at one end and looks like a saddle. The other bone's end is ____, and looks like a rider in a saddle. example:

concave convex carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

The large, myelinated __ __ fibers are all myelinated while the __ fibers are unmyelinated. The C fibers transmit information to the brain regarding the __ of tissue damage and ___.

a alpha c location pain

forearm supination (2)

biceps supinator

as the speed of a contraction ____, the maximal force generated by a muscle increases

decreases

the ___ muscle may be used as a graft for an ACL repair

gracilis

hyperalgesia

increased sensitivity to pain caused by a noxious stimulus

the body produces endogenous opioids that ___ the transmission of pain signals

inhibit

which joint would most likely be measured using a long arm goniometer? wrist ankle forearm knee

knee

muscles that protrude the jaw: (3)

masseter lateral pterygoid medial pterygoid

__ are at a greater risk of developing ankylosing spondylitis

men

glucocorticoid agents can cause side effects such as ___ __ and __ __

muscle atrophy cushings syndrome

A therapist monitors his patients respiratory rate as 18 breaths per minute. This respiratory rate is considered Dyspnea Normal Bradypnea Tachypnea

normal

cranial nerve I name: motor or sensory?

olfactory sensory

anti parkinson's agents therapy should be scheduled roughly __ __ __ levodopa administration

one hour after

closed chain exercises typically involve greater ___ feedback

proprioceptive

Which device evaluates saturation of oxygen in the blood by analyzing the light absorption of hemoglobin? pH electrode sphygmomanometer PO2 electrode pulse oximeter

pulse oximeter The concentration of oxyhemoglobin is determined by quantifying the amount of light absorbed by the solution. Pulse oximetry is used for monitoring a person's oxygen saturation.

An excessively wide manual wheelchair increases the risk of which of the following for a young male patient with paraplegia? sacral pressure ulcer cervical strain phantom limb effect repetitive strain injuries to bilateral upper extremities

repetitive strain injuries to bilateral upper extremities

protraction (2)

serratus per minor

the majority of available glycogen is stored in ___ ___ and the ___

skeletal muscle liver

Which of the following is not a layer of the epidermis? stratum basale stratum spinosum stratum papillae stratum granulosum

stratum papillae The layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial are: stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum.

elbow extension (2)

triceps anconeus

A candidate for total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) will typically exhibit impaired shoulder range of motion and strength, limited independence with ADLs, and severe pain. The elective decision to have a TSA is most heavily influenced by the presence of ___ ___

unremitting pain

__ __ consists of meylinated axons and contains nerve fibers without dendrites

white matter

MCP abduction of digits 2-5: axis over the dorsal aspect of the MCP joint stationary arm over the dorsal midline of the metacarpal movable arm over the dorsal midline of the proximal phalanx normal PIP flexion is __ degrees normal DIP flexion is __ degrees hyperextension is __ degrees

0-100 90 degrees 10

A patient is seen in an outpatient cardiac rehabilitation facility for complaints of claudication. Which ankle-brachial index value would be MOST consistent with complaints of claudication symptoms that only occur during fairly intense exercise? 1.0.35 2.0.55 3.0.75 4.1.10

0.75

A patient attending her third physical therapy session transitions from a hospital bed to standing in preparation for ambulation activities. Which blood pressure response would BEST support the physical therapist assistant's decision to return the patient to a recumbent position? 1.decrease in systolic blood pressure of 5 mm Hg and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 12 mm Hg 2.increase in systolic blood pressure of 18 mm Hg and an increase in diastolic blood pressure of 5 mm Hg 3.increase in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 7 mm Hg 4.decrease in systolic blood pressure of 13 mm Hg and an increase in diastolic blood pressure of 2 mm Hg

1

small sample patient testing to identify toxicity and safe dosage is phase __ small sample patient testing to identify drug effectiveness is phase __ large patient testing to identify drug effectiveness is phase __ post marketing surveillence is phase ___

1 2 3 4

Which of the following ultrasound parameters is the most appropriate when attempting to increase the elasticity of the biceps muscle in a slightly overweight individual? 3 MHz, pulsed 3 MHz, continuous 1 MHz, pulsed 1 MHz, continuous

1 MHz, continuous A 1 MHz frequency is preferred since the patient is slightly overweight and the targeted muscle is the biceps which requires deeper heating. A continuous mode is preferred over a pulsed mode since the goal is to increase muscle elasticity.

specific gravity: of water is equal to __. the human body baries based on size and somatotype, but typically it has a specific gravity of __ __ 1.0. therefore, a person will generally __ when submerged in water it also stands for ratio of density of a substance to the density of the standard

1.0 less than float

The ankle-brachial index is a measure of perfusion of the lower extremities. Abnormal ABI values indicate the presence of Peripheral arterial disease which also indicates a high risk for hypertension coronary artery disease and stroke. A patient's ABI can be assessed by comparing the systolic blood pressure in the arm with the systolic blood pressure in the leg. A normal ABI value is typically defined as falling between __-__

1.0-1.30

To treat the posterior segment of the right upper lobe, the patient is turned__ __ __ on the left side with the __ __ in the head and shoulders raised on a pillow. Percussion and vibration are performed around the medial border of the right scapula

1/4 from prone bed horizontal

The Timed Get Up and Go test is a functional performance screening tool used to assess a person's level of mobility and balance. The person initially sits in a supported chair with a firm surface, transfers to a standing position, and walks approximately 10 feet. The patient must then turn around without external support, walk back towards the chair, and return to a sitting position. The patient is scored based on amount of postural sway, excessive movements, reaching for support, side stepping or other signs of loss of balance. Patients who are independent can complete the multi-task process in __ seconds or less. Patients that require 30 seconds or more are at a high risk for a fall.

10

Tidal volume refers to the total volume inspired and expired with each breath during quiet breathing. Tidal volume is approximately __% of total lung volume.

10

pre diabetic blood sugar levels include a fasting plasma glucose level of __to__ mg/dL and an oral glucose toerance test level of __to__ mg/dL.

100-125 140-199

diabetic blood sugar levels include a fasting plasma glucose level of __mg/dL or higher and an oral glucose tolerance test of __mg/dL or higher

126 200

An increase in heart rate of 18 beats per minute above resting heart rate is acceptable. Most guidelines for phase I cardiac rehabilitation recommend that heart rate not exceed __ beats per minute or a heart rate more than __ beats above resting for post myocardial infarction patients or a heart rate more than 30 beats above resting forpost-surgical patients.

130 20

Normal blood pressure is considered to be 120 /80. Hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure greater than ____and or diastolic blood pressure greater than ___

140 90

dosing is typically based on a __lb person

150

the lower trap is tested with the shoulder abducted to __ degrees

150

A hot pack must be stored in hot water between __-__ degrees Fahrenheit (70 to 75 degrees Celsius). Six to eight towel layers should be applied between the hot pack and the treatment surface. The size and shape of the hot pack varies depending on the size and contour of the treatment area.

158-167

A physical therapist assistant monitors the blood pressure of a patient walking on a treadmill at 3.0 mph. Prior to initiating the exercise, the physical therapist assistant recorded the patient's resting blood pressure as 136/81 mm Hg. Which blood pressure value obtained during the exercise session would be the MOST concerning? 1.148/79 mm Hg 2.158/93 mm Hg 3.167/77 mm Hg 4.173/85 mm Hg

158/93 mm Hg

The seat depth is measured from the patient's posterior buttock, along the lateral thigh to the popliteal fold, then subtracting approximately two inches to avoid pressure from the front edge of the seat against the popliteal space. The average seat depth is __ inches.

16

The seat width is measured by obtaining the widest aspect of the patient's buttocks, hips or thighs and adding approximately two inches. The average seat width is __ inches.

18

what would be the estimated percetage of involved surface area if an adult patient sustained burns to the anterior portion of each LE and genital area? 19% 36% 37% 45%

19%

The seat height is measured from the user's heel to the popliteal fold; two inches should be added to allow clearance of the footrest. The average seat height is __-__ inches.

19.5-20.5

Descending stairs requires nearly __ degrees of dorsiflexion. The remaining activities require significantly less dorsiflexion range of motion.

20

Physical therapist assistants should closely monitor the response to exercise of patients in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program. A drop in the systolic blood pressure of __ mm Hg or greater is indicative of exercise hypotension and is an indication to stop exercise.

20

for the 90 90 SLR test for HS tightness, if the knee is flexed __degrees or more

20

a T cell count (CD4) of less than or = to __ indicates acquired immunodicifiancy syndrome (aids)

200 cells/mm 3

A patient sustains a deep partial-thickness burn to the anterior surface of the right upper extremity and a superficial partial-thickness burn to the anterior surface of the trunk. According to the rule of nines, the patient has burns over: 1.13.5 percent of the body 2.22.5 percent of the body 3.27.0 percent of the body 4.36.0 percent of the body

22.5%

What percentage of the total body surface area would be affected with a burn that covers the anterior portions of the bilateral lower extremities and the anterior portion of the right arm? 13.5% 18.0% 22.5% 23.0%

22.5% According to the rule of nines, the total surface area of the anterior portions of the bilateral lower extremities is 18% and the total surface area of the anterior portion of the right arm is 4.5%. The total surface area affected by the burn is equivalent to 22.5%.

A brace can be applied to prevent the progression of scoliosis in the spine. Specific wearing patterns vary depending on the type of brace. The types of braces vary based on the region of the spine, however, in general scoliosis braces should be worn ___ hours a day and can be removed to participate in physical activities or for hygiene.

23

Which value best represents normal thoracolumbar extension range of motion? 25 degrees 45 degrees 65 degrees 85 degrees

25

the loose-packed position for the tibiofemoral joint is __degrees of __ flexion the loose-packed position for the hip joint is __ degrees __, __ degrees __, and slight __ __ the loose packed position for the talocrural joint is __ degrees of ___ __ the loose packed position of the GH joint is __-__ of __ and __ degress of ___ __

25 knee 30 30 external rotation 10 plantar flexion 55-70 abduction 30 horizontal abduction

loose packed position of the knee loose packed position of metacarpal phalengeal loose packed position of acromioclavicular loose packed position of distal radioulnar

25 degrees flexion slight flexion arms resting at side 10 degrees supination

A systolic pressure of 200 maybe a normal response to exercise however a measure Greater than __ mmhg would be considered a relative indication for terminating a graded exercise test

250

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the body would be affected by burns covering the anterior surface of the arms and legs bilaterally? 18.0% 22.5% 27.0% 36.0%

27% According to the rule of nines, each arm is approximately 9% of the total body surface area and each leg is 18%. Therefore the bilateral, anterior surfaces of all four extremities would represent 27.0% of the total body surface area.

Which of the following ultrasound settings would result in the fastest rate of superficial tissue heating over a period of 5 minutes? 1 MHz at 1.0 W/cm2 1 MHz at 2.0 W/cm2 3 MHz at 1.0 W/cm2 3 MHz at 2.0 W/cm2

3 MHz at 2.0 W/cm2 An ultrasound frequency of 3 MHz will be absorbed more superficially than 1 MHz and an intensity of 2.0 W/cm2 will result in more vigorous heating than 1.0 W/cm2. Therefore, the fastest rate of superficial heating will occur at a setting of 3 MHz at 2.0 W/cm2.

Sustained ventricular tachycardia is an absolute indication for terminating a graded exercise test. Ventricular tachycardia lasting greater than __ __ is considered to be life threatening

30 seconds

what is the frequency of falls in individuals age 65 and older? 50% 30% 10% 15%

30%

a pressure of __-__ mmhg is used to control edema in ambulatory patients

30-40

The normal resting curvature of the lumbar spine is __-__ degrees of lordosis. Lordosis refers to an anterior curvature of the spine. Common causes of excessive lordosis include weak abdominal muscles, pregnancy, excessive weight in the abdominal area, and hip flexion contractures.

30-50

the appropriate rate to move the transducer head is ___cm/second

4

a burn to the anterior upper extremity (1) is __% a burn to one entire LE is __% head and neck __% genital __%

4.5 18 9 1

individuals with high density lipoprotein levels less than __mg/dl increases the relative risk for developing CAD

40

Which value is most representative of normal depression of the mandible? 20 millimeters 40 millimeters 60 millimeters 80 millimeters

40 Depression of the mandible (i.e., mouth opening) is measured by asking a patient to open their mouth slowly and as far as possible without pain. Normal depression of the mandible is 35-55 millimeters.

anaerobic glycolysis this energy system is a major supplier of ATP during high intensity, short duraction activities such as sprinting __ or __ meters. stored ___ is split into glucose, and through glycolysis, split again into pyruvic acid. the energy released furing this process forms ATP. anaerobic glycolysis results in the formation of __ __, which causes __ __ this system is nearly 50% slower than the phosphocreatine system and can provide a person with __to__ seconds of muscle contraction. this energy system is able to function i the described manner since: 1) it does not require the presence of oxygen 2) it only uses carbohydrates (glycogen and glucose) 3) it releases enough energy for the resynthesis of only small amounts of ATP

400-800 glycogen lactic acid muscle fatigue 30-40

Rheumatoid arthritis affects women more than men (ratio, 3:1). The prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis increases with age, with peak onset in the late __ and early ___. The clinical presentation is typically _____ and often involves the joints of the hands, wrists, knees, feet and ankles.

40s 50s symmetrical

for diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome, a patient must have symptoms for __ months

6

degree of toe-out the angle formed by each foot's line of progression and a line intersecting the center of the heel and second toe. the avg degree of toe out for an adult is __ degrees

7

The hamstrings / quadriceps strength ratio should be greater than __% prior to returning to high demand competitive Athletics, meaningf the hamstrings should possess a minimum of 70% of the strength of the quadriceps. And hamstrings / quadriceps strength ratio of 50% is less than the recommended level and may result in the patient being susceptible to re-injury quadriceps strength of 90% of the contralateral side is an acceptable level of strength to possess prior to returning to high demand competitive Athletics. Eighty-five to ninety percent quad strength compared to the contralateral side is the generally accepted minimum range. Many patients may not regain all of their previous strength until well after they've returned competition

70

A physical therapist assistant checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several patients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures would be acceptable? 1.64 degrees Celsius (147 degrees Fahrenheit) 2.71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees Fahrenheit) 3.83 degrees Celsius (181 degrees Fahrenheit) 4.94 degrees Celsius (201 degrees Fahrenheit)

71 degrees C (160 degrees F)

Myocardial infarction has four major complications: arrhythmias, heart failure, thrombolytic complications, and damage to the heart structures. 1.Heart failure is a syndrome that reflects an inability of the heart to maintain a cardiac output sufficient to meet the oxygen and nutritional needs of the tissues. Heart failure is not as common as arrhythmias. 2.Arrhythmias are caused by abnormalities in cardiac impulse generation, conduction, or both and occur in __% of individuals who have experienced a myocardial infarction . 3.Venous or mural thrombi can occur due to venous stasis after myocardial infarction. Thrombus formation is not as common as arrhythmias. 4.Damage to the papillary muscle, ventricle wall, and intraventricular septum can occur after a myocardial infarction. Heart structural damage is not as common as arrhythmias.

90

when measuring MCP flexion and extensio of digits 2-5, the axis is over the dorsal aspect of the MCP joint, the stationary arm is over the dorsal midline of the metacarpal and the movable arm is over the dorsal midline of the proximal phalanx normal mcp flexion is __ degrees hyperextension is __ degrees

90 45

PTA is working with patient with COPD. the patient has O2 sat readings between 95-96% during low intensity strengthening. the PTA should discontinue treating patient and notify PT if O2 is below ____

90%

The semitendinosus is not typically used as a tendon graft for lateral ankle reconstruction surgery. However the semitendinosus is commonly used for ___ reconstruction surgery the gracilis is not typically used as a tendon graft for lateral ankle reconstruction surgery. However the gracilis is commonly used often in conjunction with the semitendinosus for ___ reconstruction surgery the flexor halicus longus is not typically used as a tendon graft for lateral ankle reconstruction surgery however the flexor pollicis longus is commonly used for __ __ repair surgery

ACL ACL achilles tendon

lateral pivot shift test tests for injury to the ___. patient is supine. the therapist has the patients hip flexed to 20-30 degrees and __ __ the tibia while the knee is slowly ___. a positive test is indicated by a shift or clunk occurring between 20-40 degrees of flexion and is indicative of anterolateral rotatory instability.

ACL medially rotates flexed

A patient with a legion at the L5 level has innervation of the extensor digitorum, low back muscles, medial hamstrings, posterior tibialis, quadriceps, and tibialis anterior. Patients at this level with typically use bilateral ___ for household and Community ambulation with an appropriate assistive device

AFO's

which degenerative disease of the CNS is characterized as a progressive upper and lower motor neuron disease in which there is muscle fiber atrophy as well as degeneration and scarring of the motor neuron in part of the spinal cord, brainstem, and cerebral cortex? ALS MS meningitis parkinsons

ALS

Which of the following conditions is described as "sensory-sparing?" T10 spinal cord injury multiple sclerosis amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Guillain-Barre syndrome

ALS Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a chronic degenerative disease that produces both upper and lower motor neuron impairments. Significant loss of anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and the motor cranial nerve nuclei in the lower brainstem produces weakness and muscle atrophy. Sensory function is typically unaffected.

The energy required for actin and myosin cross-bridging inside a sarcomere is produced through the breakdown of which substance? calcium adenosine triphosphate glycogen acetylcholine

ATP

Erosive Gastritis ____ gastrictis often caused by bleeding from the gastric mucosa secondary to stress, NSAIDS, alcohol, viral infection or direct trauma causes __ of the gastric mucosa

Acute bleeding

What type of muscle response is noted in a d innervated muscle when utilizing electric stimulation modality? Asynchronous or vermicular There is no contraction Brief muscle twitch Tetanic or sustained

Asynchronous or vermicular An asynchronous or vermicular (worm-like) Muscle response is noted In deinnervated muscle. Low frequency pulse stimulation produces a brief muscle twitch with each stimulus. Increasing the frequency of the Pulse produces a tetanic or sustained muscle contraction in innervated muscles

Which biological energy system is the primary source of adenosine triphosphate at rest? glycolysis oxidative system phosphagen system Krebs cycle

B The oxidative system is the primary source of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) at rest and with low-intensity activity. The oxidative system uses primarily carbohydrates (approximately 70%) and fats (approximately 30%) as substrates. Protein is not normally metabolized to any meaningful extent except during long bouts of exercise and extreme conditions such as starvation.

Which type of sensory receptor is located in the subcutaneous tissue? Merkel's discs Meissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini endings

C Pacinian corpuscles are located in the subcutaneous tissue of the skin and in deep tissues of the body. The remaining options are located in the epidermis or dermis.

Where does the majority of rotation occur in the cervical spine? C1-C2 C3-C4 C5-C6 C7-C8

C1-C2 C1 is termed the atlas and C2 is termed the axis. C2 has a superior projection called the dens that articulates with the anterior arch of the atlas forming the atlantoaxial joint. The majority of rotation of the skull on the spinal column occurs at the atlantoaxial joint.

The blunt tooth-like dens is part of which cervical vertebrae?

C2

The degree to which a drug becomes available to the target tissue after administration is known as: absorption bioavailability clearance half-life

Correct Answer: bioavailability Bioavailability denotes the fraction of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation. It takes into consideration the amount of drug that is absorbed and bypasses any first-pass elimination, especially by the liver.

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with helicobacter pylori? gastroesophageal reflux disease dysphagia gastric ulcers inflammatory bowel disease

Correct Answer: gastric ulcers Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative bacterium found in the stomach. The bacterium is associated with chronic gastritis and gastric ulcers, and is linked to the development of duodenal ulcers and stomach cancer.

Which adrenal disorder is characterized by a moon face, buffalo hump, and fat pads on the chest and abdomen? Cushings sydrome Hyperthyrodiism Addison's disease Diabetes mellitus

Cushings syndrome

The physical therapist incorporates PNF diagonals into treatment in order to improve shoulder range of motion for bringing the hand-to-mouth in order to sell feet. Which PNF pattern follows this pattern? D1 extension D1 flexion D2 extension D2 flexion

D1 flexion

the three spinal extensor muscles named from lateral to medial

I Love Spaghetti

A patient with gastritis should avoid which type of medication? Proton pump inhibitors NSAIDS Acetaminophen Antacids

NSAIDS Gastritis is a condition in which the stomach mucosa is inflamed. It can be an acute occurrence or a chronic condition. Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can cause acute gastritis. There for patients taking these medications need to be monitored for stomach bleeding and Pain. Management of gastritis involves in avoiding NSAIDs

what is the capsular pattern of the talocrural joint?

PF>DF

LMN lesions include lesions located in the ___. the structures involved may include the anterior horn cells, spinal roots, peripheral nerves, and cranial nerves

PNS

two types of total knee arthropasty's a cememnted total knee allows for either __ or ___ post surgery based on the individual physicans decision and remains the most common form non-cemmented requires ___ for up to __ weeks to allow for the bone to grow and affix to the prosthesis

PWB WBAT TTWB 6

Increased osteoblast activity is not typically observed as a part of normal aging or in relation to postmenopausal hormone changes. Pathologic increases in osteoblast activity are, however, associated with ___ disease and some forms of metastasis.

Paget's

allodynia

Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain such as touching of the skin or brushing your hair

Osgood-Schlatter disease is characterized by a painful bump over the tibial tubercle and pain with athletic activities. The disease is most common in children and adolescents who are very active in sports. Symptoms typically resolve when the individual becomes skeletally mature.

Plantar fasciitis is typically associated with pain at the anterior portion of the calcaneus. Many patients with plantar fasciitis experience significant pain with the first steps each day after getting out of bed, although the pain gradually diminishes in intensity with continued movement.

The focus of management during the Subacute phase of rehab post total knee arthroplasty is to control pain and swelling achieve independence of ambulation and transfers with an assistive device prevent postoperative complications such as deep vein thrombosis and minimize the adverse effects of postoperative immobilization. Early ambulation training is encouraged in order to avoid deconditioning and deep vein thrombosis. Walking and activity level are key factors in determining when to discontinue compression garments

Postoperative time frame provides a general guideline for interventions used in each phase of Rehabilitation post PKA however patient presentation and functional levels are the best indicators for progression of interventions. Although the length of time recommended for wearing compression garments may vary such as two weeks by surgeon there is General consensus that increase activity level is the main Criterion for discontinuation.

Oxygen saturation rate indicates that saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen. Normal oxygen saturation is not related to total blood volume

Prothrombin time is most commonly used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy or to screen for selected bleeding disorders

A physical therapist and a physical therapist assistant monitor a patient with a single lead electrocardiogram. After examining the obtained data, the rhythm is classified as sinus bradycardia. Which description is MOST indicative of this condition? 1.R-R interval is irregular with a rate between 100 and 200 beats per minute 2.R-R interval is irregular with a rate between 40 and 100 beats per minute 3.R-R interval is regular with a rate greater than 100 beats per minute 4.R-R interval is regular with a rate less than 60 beats per minute

R-R interval is regular with a rate less than 60 beats per minute

Humira is a disease modifying anti-rheumatic agent (immunosupressive dug) and is commonly prescribed for chronic inflammatory autoimmune diseases such as __ __, __ __, and ___ ____

RA crohn's disease ankylosing spondylitis

Inspiratory Reserve volume is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired after normal tidal volume inspiratory station and it accounts for approximately 50% of total lung volume. The IRV is the lung volume with the largest difference between male and female values. I r v for males is typically 3000ml while IRB for females is typically 1900 ml Expiratory Reserve volume is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a normal tidal exhalation and it accounts for approximately 15% of total lung volume. Expiratory Reserve volume for males is typically 1200ml while Erv for females is typically 800 ml

Residual volume is the volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration and it accounts for approximately 25% of total lung volume. Residual volume for males is typically 1200ml while residual volume for females is typically 1000ml

muscles that perform cervical flexion: (3)

SCM longus colli scalenes

pulmonary artery catheter (also called __ __ catheter) soft, flexible catheter that is inserted through a vein into the __ __. the device is used to provide continueous measurements of __ __ __. the patient should avoid excessive movement of the __, ___, and ___ to avoid disrupting the line at the insertion site

Swan-Ganz pulmonary artery pulmonary artery pressure head neck extremities

The majority of sources indicate that the superior angle of the scapula is at the __ spinal level while the inferior angle of the scapula is at the __ spinal level. The spine of the scapula is at the __ spinal level.

T2 T7 T3

hip medial rotation (5)

TFL, glute med, glute min, pectineus, adductor longus

A wheelchair designed for a patient with paraplegia should include which of the following? reclining frame 4 inch front casters handrims with 12 vertical projections removable desk top arms

The presence of removable desk top arms will significantly increase the ease of transfers for a patient with paraplegia. This occurs since the patient is unable to utilize their lower extremities to assist with the transfer.

Which of the following conditions would be considered a contraindication to aquatic therapy? edema muscle strain muscle spasm urinary tract infection

UTI A urinary tract infection (UTI) occurs when the urinary tract becomes infected from an infectious organism. Common symptoms of a UTI include a strong and persistent urge to urinate, as well as a burning sensation with urination. A urinary tract infection is considered an absolute contraindication to aquatic therapy.

Bell's palsy results from injury to which cranial nerve? cranial nerve V cranial nerve VII cranial nerve X cranial nerve XII

VII (facial) Bell's palsy results from damage to the facial nerve, cranial nerve VII. Symptoms will include drooping of the eyelid and mouth along with dryness of the eye and inability to close the eyelid.

cranial nerve VIII name: hearing: ear balance: ear sensory or motor? to test: hear __ __ ___ tests __ and __ tests

Vestibulocochlear (acoustic) sensory watch ticking hearing balance and coordination

work power torque acceleration

Which of the following terms describes the application of force over a specified distance? work power torque acceleration Correct Answer: work Work results when a force acts on an object and moves it some distance. The formula to determine work is force multiplied by distance (W=FxD).

spinal accessory nerve crania nerve ___ innervates the ___ and __. commonly tested with __ __ inability to __ __ beyond __ __ is characteristic of a lesion of the spinal accessory nerve

XI SCM trap shoulder shrugs abudct shoulder 90 degrees

A physical therapist assistant uses a tilt table as part of an established plan of care for a patient rehabilitating from abdominal surgery. After explaining the procedure and receiving informed consent the physical therapist assistant begins to elevate the tilt table. Which finding would NOT necessarily warrant termination of the intervention? 1.sudden loss of consciousness 2.nausea accompanied by vomiting 3.a drop in systolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg 4.diaphoresis and nausea

a drop in systolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg A loss of consciousness is a significant change in status and is not an anticipated response to the intervention. Loss of consciousness when using a tilt table is typically indicative of a significant and potentially dangerous drop in blood pressure and would therefore warrant termination of the intervention. 2.Nausea accompanied by vomiting is not an anticipated response to the intervention and would warrant termination due to the choking risk associated with vomiting in a semireclined, supine position. Slight nausea in response to tilt table elevation is considered a normal response. 3.A drop in systolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg is not considered a significant enough objective finding to warrant termination without additional signs and symptoms. A more significant drop in blood pressure (e.g., greater than 20 mm Hg signaling orthostatic hypotension) would warrant termination of the intervention. 4.Diaphoresis and nausea are not anticipated responses to the intervention. The onset of these symptoms may be indicative of a significant drop in blood pressure which would warrant termination of the intervention.

To treat the apical segments of the left upper lobe, the patient is in __ __ position, __ __ 30 to 40 degrees. Percussion and vibration are performed above the left clavicle

a sitting leaning back

Assisted cough is performed when the patient lack __ __ to generate an effective cough such as a patient with a spinal cord injury. The patient is Supine and the therapist applies pressure at the __ with the heel of the hand and thrust upward when the patient __

abdominal strength navel exhales

Dysesthesia means "___ ____." It's usually a painful burning, prickling, or aching feeling. You typically get it in your legs or feet. But you also can have it in your arms. Sometimes the pain feels like you're being squeezed around your chest or abdomen.

abnormal sensation

Analgesia is defined as the __ __ __ in response to stimulation that should normally be painful. Patients with analgesia would not sense pain as a result of contact with bed sheets

absense of pain

A physical therapist assistant applies a transparent film dressing to a superficial wound on a patient's lower leg. Which therapeutic objective is LEAST likely based on the type of dressing? 1.permit autolytic debridement 2.prohibit entry of bacteria 3.absorb drainage in the wound bed 4.reduce friction over bony prominences

absorb drainage in the wound bed Transparent film dressings are thin membranes made from transparent polyurethane with water-resistant adhesives. They are highly elastic, conform to a variety of body contours, and allow for easy visual inspection of the wound since they are transparent.

standard gait terminology used to describe the swing phase includes __, __, and ___

acceleration midswing deceleration

The presence of food in the stomach can slow the rate of absorption of a drug. Drugs may be taken on an empty stomach to speed their absorption into the bloodstream while other drugs may be taken in combination with food to avoid gastric irritation. Specific food to drug interactions are generally insignificant though there are several examples of foods that affect the bioavailability of a drug. Foods or beverages that are __ such as __ may affect the absorption of some drugs within the gastrointestinal tract. __ __ is a commonly identified drink that affects enzymatic activity within the gastrointestinal tract and thus changes the metabolism of certain drugs

acidic soda grapefruit juice

The unidirectional movement of fluids Along the boundaries of cell membranes Caused by ultrasound Describes which of the following terms? Cavitation Beam nonuniformity ratio Acoustic microscreaming Diathermy

acoustic microstreaming

A patient 10 days following total knee arthroplasty return to physical therapy after a follow-up visit with their surgeon. The patient reports being excited since they were told to prematurely discontinue use of the compression garments shown in the image. Which variable would most likely have influence the surgeon's decision? Activity level knee range of motion Use of pain medication Postoperative time frame

activity level Compression garments provide varying degrees of resting pressure and working pressure through elasticity. Off the shelf garments provide a compression force of 16-18 mm Hg and are used to prevent DVT in patients on bed rest and provide support to lower extremity venous circulation. Compression garments should be worn at all times during the day unless bathing

What condition would be most commonly associated with a sudden respiratory failure due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli? asthma bronchial carcinoma bronchitis acute respiratory distress syndrome

acute respiratory distress syndrome Acute respiratory distress syndrome is a severe life threatening medical condition characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs. The condition is fatal in 25 to 40 percent of the individuals who develop it.

the femoral triangle consists of:

adductor longus inguinal ligament sartorious

hip adduction (4)

adductor longus, adductor magnus, adductor brevis, gracilis

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient with known cardiovascular pathology. The patient's past medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which activity would potentially be the MOST problematic for the patient? 1.performing diaphragmatic breathing exercises in a semi-Fowler position 2.initiating a progressive ambulation program on a treadmill 3.administering percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes 4.assessing tactile fremitus while palpating the chest wall in sitting

administering percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes

which component of the endocrine system controls the release of mineral corticosterioids, glucocorticoids, adrena androgens and androstenedione? posterior pituitary gland adrenal medulla adrenal cortex anterior pituitary gland

adrenal cortex

Addison's disease is a disorder characterized as failure of ____ function. Signs include weakness, limited endurance, weight loss, anxiety, and low stress tolerance Hyperthyroidism is a condition of hyperactivity of the thyroid gland and symptoms include nervousness, weight loss, tachycardia, and fatigue

adrenocortical

the energy system that yields the majority of ATP

aerobic metabolism

Which of the following statements about rheumatoid arthritis is generally true? affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are asymmetrical affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are symmetrical affects joints asymmetrically, but deformities are asymmetrical affects joints asymmetrically, but deformities are symmetrical

affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are asymmetrical Rheumatoid arthritis affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are typically asymmetrical. This asymmetry is attributed to increased use of a dominant extremity or protection of a painful extremity.

which two cranial nerve pathways are associated with the corneal reflex? afferent trigeminal efferent optic afferent oculomotor efferent facial

afferent trigeminal efferent facial

A physical therapist assistant reads in the medical chart that a patient is taking digitalis. The patient is MOST likely taking this medication to treat: 1.angina 2.atrial fibrillation 3.hypertension 4.thrombus formation

afib Digitalis is a cardiac glycoside that is generally used in the management of arrhythmias, though it is also commonly used to treat congestive heart failure. Digitalis works by either enhancing parasympathetic activity or depressing sympathetic activity, thus slowing the heart rate and depressing electrical conductivity. Atrial fibrillation is an arrhythmia characterized by erratic electrical conductivity within the Atria. By depressing electrical conductivity, digitalis can effectively prevent the conduction of atrial arrhythmias into the ventricles

A common cause of acquired cerebellar disorders is

alcoholism

knee flexion (4)

all three hamstrings sartorius

naproxen is the genereic name for ____ diclofenac is the genereic name for ___

alleve voltaren both are NSAIDS

A physical therapist assistant treat the patient with fibromyalgia. The patient reports that contact with the bed Sheets produces pain when he tried to sleep at night. This is an example of Allodynia Hyperalgesia Hypesthesia Analgesia

allodynia

Why is a slight anterior pelvic tilt important when positioning a patient in a wheelchair? allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities provides flexion in the low back and extension in the hips provides a stable base of support for control of the lower extremities allows for decreased lumbar lordosis

allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities A slight anterior pelvic in sitting allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities. The ischial tuberosities refer to the bony broadening on the posterior portion of the superior ramus of the ischium.

A patient with acute back pain is given a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit to use at home. The physical therapist assistant provides detailed instructions on the care and use of the unit. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of the patient? 1.modulate the current intensity 2.application of new electrodes 3.change the battery 4.alter the pulse rate and width

alter the pulse rate and width

Which of the following conditions would serve as the largest obstacle to using a power wheelchair? stage 1 pressure ulcer hypotonicity with poor trunk control 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremity Alzheimer's disease

alzheimers disease Cognitive impairments are absolute contraindications to power wheelchair use. If the patient has Alzheimer's disease, memory and other central processing functions are likely affected which would potentially impact the patient's ability to safely utilize a power wheelchair.

cartilaginous joints also known as: these joints have __ __ and ___ that connects one bone to another. these are __ __ joints an example of this kind of joint is: another example is called:

amphiarthroses hyaline cartilage fibrocartilage slightly movable synchondrosis (such as between the sternum and true rib articulation) symphysis (pubic symphysis) generally located at the midline of the body slight motion

which type of amputation describes a syme's amputation amputation through the tibia, below the knee amputation of the entire lower limb amputation through the ankle joint amputation through the knee

amputation through the ankle joint

the __ is involved in fear, pleasure responses, arousal, processing memory and the formation of emotional memories

amygdala

What is the small, almond shaped nucleus located within the temporal lobes of each hemisphere of the brain? hippocampus basal ganglia amygdala diencephalon

amygdala The amygdala lies adjacent to the hippocampus and is responsible for emotional and social processing. It is also involved with fear, pleasure responses, arousal, processing of memory, and the formation of emotional memories.

A patient reports significant discomfort in the lower leg during ultrasound treatment. The physical therapist assistant believes the discomfort is caused by periosteal pain from the ultrasound. Which scenario is MOST likely associated with the patient's subjective report of discomfort? 1.an ultrasound unit with a high beam nonuniformity ratio 2.an ultrasound unit with a low beam nonuniformity ratio 3.a transducer with a large effective radiating area 4.a transducer with a small effective radiating area

an ultrasound unit with a high beam nonuniformity ratio

the three energy systems humans use are...

anaerobic metabolism anaerobic glycolysis aerobic metabolism

A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. A physical therapist assistant documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with: 1.cor pulmonale 2.anemia 3.hypertension 4.diaphoresis

anemia

arterial insufficiency ulcer are wounds that occur secondary to inadequate circulation of oxygenated blood such as ischemia often do to complicating factors such as atherosclerosis. The __-__ __ is a non-invasive tests commonly used to assess for peripheral artery disease. The ankle-brachial index compares the__ __ __at the ankle and __ to check for PAD

ankle-brachial index systolic blood pressures arm

The ligaments in the lateral ankle consist of the __ __ __, __ __ __, and ____ ligament. The calcaneofibular ligament is an extracapsular ligament that restricts inversion of the talus with in the mid-range of talocrural motion

anterior talofibular posterior talofibular calcaneofibular

this ligament is the one that is most often injured during an inversion ankle sprain. it can also be palpated through the sinus tarsi

anterior talofibular ligament

A physical therapist assistant selects a therapeutic ultrasound generator with a frequency of 3.0 MHz. Which condition would MOST warrant the use of this frequency? 1.lumbar paravertebral muscle spasm 2.hip flexion contracture 3.quadriceps strain 4.anterior talofibular ligament sprain

anterior talofibular ligament sprain

A physical therapist assistant reviews a physical therapy examination which indicates diminished sensation in the L3 dermatome. The MOST appropriate location to confirm the finding is: 1.dorsum of the foot 2.anterior thigh 3.groin 4.lateral calf

anterior thigh

the detloid ligament is formed by the __ __ __, __ __, __ __ __, and __ __. this ligament provides ___ ligamentous support by resisting ___ of the talus

anterior tibiotalar ligament tibiocalcaneal ligament posterior tibiotalar ligament tibionavicular ligament medial eversion

sequence the following measurements from smallest to largest for an adult standard wheelchair seat depth (__ in) armrest height( __inches above seat height) seat width(___in) seat height (__ in)

armrest height (9 inches above seat height) seat deth (16 inches) seat width (18 incehs) seat height (19.5-20.5)

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a 52-year-old male status post myocardial infarction. The patient is currently in the coronary care unit and is scheduled to begin cardiac rehabilitation tomorrow. Which potential complication of a myocardial infarction is the patient MOST susceptible to? 1.heart failure 2.arrhythmias 3.thrombus formation 4.heart structural damage

arrhythmias

the three types of peripheral vascular disease:

arterial venous lymphatic

A physician suspects a patient diagnosed with pulmonary disease is suffering from hypercapnia. Which laboratory test would be the MOST appropriate to confirm the physician's suspicions? 1.pulmonary function tests 2.arterial blood gas analysis 3.pulmonary exercise stress test 4.bronchoscopy

arterial blood gas analysis

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The medical record indicates that the patient's current condition is consistent with chronic respiratory acidosis. Which testing procedure was likely used to identify this condition? 1.arterial blood gas analysis 2.pulmonary function testing 3.graded exercise testing 4.pulse oximetry

arterial blood gas analysis Arterial blood gas Analysis provides information on the functioning of the lungs such as oxygenation and elimination of carbon dioxide. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by elevated PaCO2 and below normal pH do to hypoventilation

Which arterial disease is marked by chronic occlusive arterial disease of medium and large-sized vessels? Diabetic angiopathy arteriosclerosis obliterans Raynaud's disease thromboangiitis obliterans

arteriosclerosis obliterans

A physical therapist assistant completes a sensory assessment on a male patient rehabilitating from a peripheral nerve injury. As part of the assessment the physical therapist assistant attempts to quantify the patient's two-point discrimination at different locations on his right hand. The MOST appropriate instruction for the patient is: 1.ask the patient to indicate the specific location where he identifies a stimulus 2.ask the patient to indicate when he feels two points 3.ask the patient to indicate when he first identifies a stimulus 4.ask the patient to indicate if he feels one or two points

ask the patient to indicate if he feels one or two points Typical two-point discrimination values for the hand include 2 to 4 mm on the fingertips, 4 to 6 mm on the dorsum of the fingers, 8 to 12 m m on the palm, and 20 to 30 m m on the dorsum of the hand. Two point discrimination is often and paired with a peripheral nerve injury, parietal lobe lesion or Central pathway lesion. Testing is reliable with children older than 7 years of age

the effetiveness of a drug may be altered when it is taken in combination with other drugs. These drug-to-drug interactions can be antagonistic or synergistic. Example taking ___ May reduce the effectiveness of a diuretic causing those two medications to be antagonistic, or taking a sedative while also drinking alcohol may result in excessive Central Nervous depression causing these two medications to be synergistic

aspirin

A patient begins to cry in the middle of a treatment session. The physical therapist assistant attempts to comfort the patient, however, eventually has to discontinue treatment. Which section of a S.O.A.P. note would be the MOST appropriate to document the incident? 1.subjective 2.objective 3.assessment 4.plan

assessment inability to continue treatment due to a patient's emotional state should be documented in the assessment section of the SOAP note. this type of entry serves to justify the decision to terminate treatment the assessment allows the PTA to express their opinion. short and long term goals are often expressed in this section as well as changes in the treatment program

which airway clearance technique is most appropriate to use for a patient with a SCI unable to generate enough force to produce an effective cough? assisted cough huffing tracheal stimulation endotracheal suctioning

assisted cough

What condition would be most commonly associated with chronic inflammation of the airways caused by an increased airway hypersensitivity to various stimuli? acute respiratory distress syndrome atelectasis asthma bronchitis

asthma Chronic inflammation of the airways caused by an increased airway hypersensitivity is commonly associated with asthma. Factors that trigger asthma include respiratory infections, allergens, cold exposure or sudden temperature change, cigarette smoke, exercise, excitement, and stress.

exercises is a factor that may cause a ____ __

asthma attack

A physical therapist assistant uses repeated contractions to strengthen the quadriceps of a patient that fails to exhibit the desired muscular response throughout a portion of the range of motion. This proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique should be applied: 1.with the extremity placed into a shortened range within the pattern 2.at the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish 3.at the end of the available range of motion 4.with a maximal contraction of the antagonistic muscle group

at the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminsh

antiepileptic agents __ is common drugs may cause ___

ataxia dermatitis

The loss of energy as ultrasound waves are transmitted through tissue best describes which term? effective radiating area attenuation duty cycle temporal average intensity

attenuation Attenuation is a term that describes the inevitable decrease in energy intensity as the ultrasound travels through various tissues. Tissues that are high in water content, such as blood plasma, have a low rate of absorption while more dense tissues high in protein, such as bone, have a high rate of absorption.

carryover of newly acquired tasks is a characteristic of __ __ level

automatic appropriate

acute lymphangitis is an acute __ infection spreading throughout the lymph system. usually ____

bacterial streptococcal

When working with a client the therapist notices a raised irregularity on her patients face which she is concerned may need further evaluation by Dermatology. Which form of malignant tumor is characterized by a raised patch with Ivory appearance and rolled border with an indented Center? Basal cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Kaposi's sarcoma Malignant melanoma

basal cell carcinoma

When working with a client the therapist notices a raised irregularity on her patients face with she is concerned may need further evaluation by dermatologist. Which form of malignant tumor is characterized by raised patch with Ivory appearance and rolled border with an indented Center? Basal cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma Kaposi's sarcoma malignant melanoma

basal cell carcinoma

In the preprosthetic phase, elastic wraps should be worn for 24 hours a day, except when ___. 2.Use of six-inch wraps is more suitable when wrapping a ____ residual limb. With a transtibial residual limb, __inch wraps should be used 3.A figure-eight pattern should be used when wrapping the residual limb. Use of a circumferential pattern can result in an undesired tourniquet effect. 4.More pressure should be applied distally than proximally when wrapping a residual limb. Applying more pressure proximally can result in pooling of fluid in the distal limb. This may delay healing and result in prosthetic fitting difficulties.

bathing transfemoral 4

Which term is used to describe the uniformity of therapeutic ultrasound intensity? beam nonuniformity ratio effective radiating area megahertz watts per square centimeter square

beam nonuniformity ratio Beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR) refers to the ratio of intensity of the highest peak to the average intensity of all peaks. The BNR is determined by the intrinsic biophysical properties of the piezoelectric transducer.

When is the most effective time for a patient to take elective pain medication post-operatively before the pain begins before the pain becomes severe after the pain becomes severe at predetermined intervals

before the pain becomes severe A healthcare provider should educate patients about pain management. Specifically, they should be instructed to take elective pain medication before the pain becomes too severe. Failure to take the pain medication early enough can result in the pain being difficult to control. In contrast, taking the medication too early (i.e., prior to the onset of pain) can result in the overtreatment of pain. A patient should only take elective pain medications at predetermined intervals if instructed by the physician.

For patients with diabetes, hypoglycemia is the most common issue when exercising. What is the threshold level of blood glucose in which exercise should be avoided? Below 120 below 70 below 50 Below 90

below 70 mg/dL Exercise should not be performed if blood glucose is less than 70 due to the risk of hypoglycemia with exercise. Clinics should have carbohydrate snacks available in patients with diabetes or exercising. Early signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness sweating tachycardia feeling faint dizziness fatigue and walking instability

Between which two muscles does the brachial plexus emerge from the cervical area to advance into the upper extremity? between the anterior and middle scalenes between the middle and posterior scalenes between the sternocleidomastoid and the anterior scalene between the posterior scalene and the levator scapulae

between the anterior and middle scalenes

Luddington's Test tests for ___ pathology watch YT vid

bicep

elbow flexion (3)

biceps brachialis brachioradialis

at the nerve root level of C5, the __ and __ remain intact. The patient has __ __, shoulder __ __, and shoulder ___ to ___ __ intact. therefore, the patient is able to self feed and perform some self care with UE assistive devices

biceps deltoid elbow flexion external rotation abduction 90 degrees

Yergason's Test tests for ___ ___

bicipital tendonitis

What substance contributes to the formation of gallstones? bile insulin pepsin hydrochloric acid

bile Gallstones are usually composed of cholesterol that has crystalized from bile. Bile is especially important for digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine.

a device used to improve alignment with TMD

bite plate

when a wound is described as having sanguineous drainage, it means it contains ___ purulent drainage contains ___ eshcar is dried necrotic tissue

blood pus

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient with an arthritic condition. Which piece of information would be MOST useful to definitively diagnose rheumatoid arthritis? 1.pain profile 2.joint symptoms 3.blood tests 4.age of onset

blood tests Rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed based on the clinical presentation of involved joints, the presence of blood rheumatoid factor, and radiographic changes A description of the joint symptoms can provide the therapist with information that can assist in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Relevant information may include joints affected, stiffness, erosion, pain, size of joint and duration of symptoms

Which objective finding is not one of the diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome? elevated blood glucose body mass index >30 elevated blood pressure decreased high density lipoproteins

body mass > 30 Metabolic syndrome is characterized by at least three of the following five objective findings: elevated blood glucose, elevated blood pressure, elevated triglycerides, decreased high density lipoproteins (HDL), abdominal obesity. Abdominal obesity is based on waist circumference, not body mass index (BMI).

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on vertical positioning using a tilt table. During the session, the patient suddenly begins to demonstrate signs of intolerance to being upright. Which symptom would be LEAST anticipated? 1.bradycardia 2.dizziness 3.nausea 4.syncope

bradycardia

the PT eval describes a patient that sustained a spinal cord injury due to a traumatic knife injury at T6, resulting in hemisection of the spinal cord. what is this spinal cord injury syndrome known as? brown sequard syndrome central cord lesion anterior cord syndrome posterior cord syndrome

brown sequard

gait speed is a product of...

cadence and step length

endogenous opioids pain regulation is also controlled by endogenous opioids known as opiopeptins (also known as endorphins) these substances bind to opioid receptors which are located throughout the nervous system, resulting in inhibition of pain signals. opiopeptins have a direct effect on nerve signals by controlling the amount of __ and ___ that move into and out of the cell during depolarization. they also have an indirect effect on nerve signals by inhibiting the release of __, a substance that normally inhibits the activity of structures that help to control pain such as ___ (watch youtube video over this)

calcium potassium GABA a delta

A rescuer should use a finger sweep only when they __ __ solid material obstructing the airway of an ___ patient. If The Rescuer were to do this without seeing the blockage it may the patient are rescuer. This technique would not be appropriate for a person is coughing an attempt to clear an obstruction

can see unresponsive

Which two carpal bones do not make up the carpal tunnel? Scaphoid Capitate Trapezium Trapezoid Hamate pisiform

capitate trapezoid

the surgical procedure for patients with chronic shoulder instability is called a __ __. the procedure involves tightening of the joint capsule by cutting the capsule and overlapping the ends to reduce capsular redundancy. there is also an elecrtothermally assisted capsular shift procedure in which thermal energy is used to shrink and tighten the capsular tissue. the portion of the capsule that is tightened is dependent upon the direction of the instability. since __ __ is the most common form of shoulder instability, the anterior capsule is the portion that is most often tightened. following the surgery, __ __, __ ___ and ___ should be avoided

capsular shift anterior instability external rotation horizontal abduction extension

the muscles in the anterolateral neck surround an area known as the __ __. This contains ___ that are responsible for controlling blood pressure. Electrical stimulation to this area may cause a rapid Fallen blood pressure and heart rate that may cause a patient to faint

carotid sinus baroreceptors

Phalen's test patient stands with shld abducted to 90 degrees and back of hands pushed together with fingers pointing down. the patient holds this for up to 60 seconds. a positive test is inidcated by tingling in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and lateral half of the ring finger and may be indicative of __ __ __ due to __ nerve compression

carpal tunnel syndrome median

a characteristic of confused appropriate is __ of __ __

carryover relearned tasks

a __ __ __ is a retrospective (backward in time) study where a group of indiv. with a similar condition is compared with a group that does not have the condition to determine factors that could have played a role in the condition

case control study

a __ __ is a type of descriptive research in which only one patient is studied in depth, and a retrospective report is written about the case

case study

responsible for the fine tuning of movement and assists with maintaining posture and balance

cerebellum

As cerebral spinal fluid leaves the third ventricle it travels through the ___ ___to enter the fourth ventricle. Obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct may lead to ___

cerebral aquaduct hydrocephalus

a scissor gait is one in which the legs cross midline when advancing forward. often seen in patients with __ __

cerebral palsy

intra arterial Intra-arterial Administration involves injection of a medication into an artery so that it can travel directly to the Target tissue. This type of injection is difficult to perform that may be necessary and instances where the drugs intended to act at a specific site without affecting other tissues such as ___

chemotherapy

__ __ is used to visualize the location, size, and shape of the heart, lungs, blood vessels, ribs, and bones of the spine. they can slo reveal fluid in the lungs or pleural space, spneumonia, emphysema, cancer

chest radiography

a __ is used on a wheelchair for a patient that requires trunk support to correct anterior listing

chest strap

Which of the following herbs or natural products is typically used to treat arthritis? aloe vera chondroitin echinacea ginkgo biloba

chondroitin Chondroitin is a naturally occurring or manufactured substance that is used to treat arthritis, typically in conjunction with glucosamine. Chondroitin acts as a flexible matrix between protein filaments within cartilage.

What condition is defined by premature degradation of the patellar cartilage? chondromalacia patella patellofemoral pain syndrome osteoarthritis genu recurvatum

chondromalacia patella Chondromalacia patella(patella femoral syndrome) refers to softening of the articular cartilage of the patella. Signs and symptoms associated with this condition include anterior knee pain, pain with prolonged sitting, swelling, crepitus, and pain when ascending and descending stairs.

Signs of __ __ ___ include severe muscle pain intermittent claudication resting pain muscle fatigue and pain in the calf and lower leg. There is decreased or absent pulses and the skin is dry pale and shiny. There is loss of hair and nail changes

chronic arterial insufficiency

hep C is one of the primary etiologies for __ __ __ and eventual __ __ contraction of the virus is the same as with hep ___. there is __ __ Healthcare workers that are at risk for contact with hepatitis should receive all immunizations for HBV, and if exposed to blood or bodily fluids of an infected person must receive immunoglobulin therapy immediately

chronic liver disease liver failure B no vaccine

non erosive gastritis also known as __ __ __ __ typically the result of a __ __ infection patient is likely asymtommatic but will show sx if the gastritis progresses H. pylori is a __ and must be treated aggressively. pharmacological intervention is most common and typically includes __ __ __ and antibiotics educate each patient to take medications with food and avoid certain types of food and drink the patient should avoid all __ containing compounds

chronic type B gastritis H pylori carcinogen proton pump inhibitors aspirin

Which of the following is characterized by progressive, chronic inflammation of the liver with loss of normal tissue that is replaced by fibrosis? cirrhosis hepatitis jaundice hepatic encephalopathy

cirrhosis Cirrhosis of the liver is a condition where healthy tissue is replaced by scar tissue that blocks the flow of blood through the organ and prevents proper functioning. The onset of cirrhosis is typically the result of alcoholism or hepatitis C.

In order to promote postural drainage of the anterior segments of the upper lobes, the patient is on her back with a pillow under his or her knees. The therapist performs percussion and vibrations between the __ and __ on each side

clavicle

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following clinical findings would the physical therapist assistant expect to identify? 1.aphasia 2.ballistic movements 3.severe muscle atrophy 4.cogwheel rigidity

cogwheel rigidity Cogwheel rigidity refers to a jerky ratchet like resistance to passive movement as muscles sequentially tense and relax. The condition is most often associated with Parkinson's disease A hypokinetic disorder characterized by the inflexibility or stiffness of the limb that is maintained equally throughout the passive flexion

a __ __ is a prospective (forward-in-time) study in which a cohort (group of participants) with a similar condition is followed for a defined amount of time and compared to a matched group without that condition

cohort study

A ___ fracture refers to a fracture that breaks into fragments at the site of injury. The fragments may be in the form of several different pieces, splintered pieces or crushed pieces.

comminuted

A patient rehabilitating from a spinal cord injury informs a physical therapist assistant that he will walk again. Which type of injury would make functional ambulation the MOST unrealistic? 1.complete T9 paraplegia 2.posterior cord syndrome 3.Brown-Sequard's syndrome 4.cauda equina injury

complete T9 paraplegia

atelectasis: bronchiectasis:

complete or partial collapse of a lung or a section of a long abnormal dilation of a bronchus

many cases of __ __ __ __ resolve spontaneously

complex regional pain sydrome

a break in the bone that protrudes through the skin is classified as a ___ fracture

compound

What type of fracture is most commonly associated with osteoporosis? compound compression greenstick avulsion

compression Patients with osteoporosis are at an increased risk for compression fractures. Fractures typically occur secondary to the vertebral bodies assuming a wedged shape structure and an increased kyphosis of the thoracic spine.

Which of the following is not a part of phase one of complete decongestive therapy? Short stretch compression bandages compression pumps manual lymphatic drainage patient education for self massage

compression pumps

Which of the following refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between two materials at different temperatures? Evaporation Conversion Radiation conduction

conduction

____ is the process by which heat is transferred from a warmer object to a cooler object through direct physical contact. Examples include hot pack and paraffin

conduction

Which stage of the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale is characterized by the patient showing goal-directed behavior dependent on external cues and the ability to relearn simple tasks? Level III - Localized Response Level IV - Confused-Agitated Level V - Confused-Inappropriate Level VI - Confused-Appropriate

confused appropraite Level VI - Confused-Appropriate is characterized by goal directed behavior that is dependent on external input or direction. The patient follows simple commands consistently and demonstrates the ability to relearn simple tasks. Past memories show more depth and detail than recent memories.

sequence the level of cognitive funcitoning from lowest to highest function purposeful-approriate confused-appropriate automatic-apprpriate confused-inappropriate

confused inappropriate confused appropriate automatic appropriate purposeful appropriate

Which of the following settings is most appropriate when treating a patient with chronic lateral epicondylitis? pulsed mode, 1 MHz pulsed mode, 3 MHz continuous mode, 1 MHz continuous mode, 3 MHz

continuous mode, 3 MHz Chronic injuries often require thermal effects in order to increase blood flow and promote healing. Due to the superficial layering of the involved structures, a frequency of 3 MHz would be the most appropriate.

patients with amputations are at most risk of ___ at the most __ joint of the remaining limb

contractures distal

following a CVA, irradiation (overflow) techniques may be utilized to increase activity in weakened musculature. this is facilitated by providing maximal resistance to the ___ muscle group to recruit active mvmt of the weaker musculature

contralateral

The spinal cord is a component of the central nervous system and a direct continuation of the brainstem. The spinal cord runs from the foramen magnum to the __ ___ (between the first and second lumbar vertebrae).

conus medularis

Which of the following categories of heat transfer occurs through a moving medium? Conversion Conduction Convection radiation

convection

_____ occurs when air or liquid moves from a warmer area to a cooler area. Whirlpools Hubbard tanks and saunas utilize convection

convection

Blood circulating within the body to control changes in tissue temperature would be an example of: convection conversion conduction evaporation

convection Convection refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving across a material of a different temperature. As blood circulates in the body, it carries away heat (if the body part is being heated) and carries in cooler blood to control the temperature of the local tissue, thus lessening the effect of superficial heating modalities.

wilson's disease: excessive __ accumulation in the organs An inherited disorder that causes too much copper to accumulate in the organs. In Wilson's disease, copper isn't eliminated properly and instead accumulates, possibly to a life-threatening level. Symptoms typically begin between the ages of 12 and 23. Symptoms include swelling, fatigue, abdominal pain, and uncontrolled or poorly coordinated movements. Treatment often includes medications that can prompt the organs to release copper into the bloodstream. Once it's in the bloodstream, it can then be eliminated from the body through the kidneys.

copper

What muscle would be strength tested by placing the elbow in maximal flexion and the forearm in maximal supination to minimize activation of the biceps brachii? anterior deltoid coracobrachialis triceps brachii pectoralis minor

coracobrachialis

Which of the following conditions would least likely be diagnosed with a chest radiograph? cancer pneumonia coronary artery disease rib fracture

coronary artery disease A chest radiograph, or chest x-ray, can be used to visualize the shape, size, and location of the heart, lungs, blood vessels, ribs, and bones of the spine. While it can visualize some blood vessels, an x-ray would not provide the level of detail needed to diagnose atherosclerosis within the coronary arteries. Chest x-rays can reveal fluid in the lungs or pleural space, pneumonia, emphysema, and cancer.

a ___ __ Insert is for a patient that requires moderate Trump supporter do to tone, strength or deformity related postural concerns

curved back

A patient with hip joint pain is referred to physical therapy for direction and weight bearing strengthening exercises. The physician's referral notes that recent bone density testing revealed the patient has osteopenia. Which of the following comorbidities would most likely be part of the patient's medical history? Cushing's syndrome Gillian Beret syndrome spinal stenosis hypo parathyroidism

cushings syndrome Osteopenia is a condition presenting with low bone mass that is not severe enough to qualify as osteoporosis. Bone mineral density is used to diagnose osteoporosis and other low bone mass disorders. Individuals with osteopenia may not have actual bone loss but he naturally lower bone density than established Norm. A decrease in bone mass may be caused by prolonged drug therapies of Heparin or corticoid use, endocrine disorders, malnutrition, and other disease processes

Which type of seed insert would be the most appropriate for a patient that needs support to correct a pelvic obliquity or a fixed asymmetrical deformity?

custom molded seat

power grips (4)

cylindrical fist grasp spherical grasp hook graso

mutation of chromosome 7 is the most likely cause of __ __

cystic fibrosis

A urinary tract infection is an infection of the urinary tract with microorganisms. Which of the following describes an infection of the bladder? Pyelonephritis Cystitis upper UTI Urethritis

cystitis

kids with duchanne muscular dystrophy are likely to develop contractures due to muscle cell destruction occurring as a result of abnormal or missing dystrophin and replacement by connective tissue. Muscles most commonly affected by contractures include hip flexors, knee flexors, and plantar flexors. a physical therapy POC to manage contractures in a patients with DMD should include: general manual stretching of the extremities daily standing program contract/relax of tight muscles progression of walking activities

daily standing program contract relax stretching would not be appropriate since the activity requires maximal isometric cntraction which may produce additional muscle breakdown in patients with DMD

Which term describes the volume of air which is inhaled that does not take part in gas exchange? dead space empty space negative space pleural space

dead space Dead space refers to the volume of air which is inhaled that does not take part in gas exchange. This occurs either because the air remains in the conducting airways or it reaches alveoli that are not perfused or poorly perfused.

metabolic acidosis involves a decrease in pH and a: increase in HCO3- decrease in HCO3- increase in PaCO2 decrease in PaCO2

decrease in HCO3-

Hypesthesia is defined as a ___ sensitivity to sensory stimuli. A patient that presents with a diminished capacity for physical sensation, especially on the skin, would not perceive pain as a result of contact with bed sheets

decreased

A physical therapist assistant works on positioning with a 78-year-old female in a skilled nursing facility. Which physiologic change would contribute to an increased incidence of skin breakdown in this population? 1.increased elasticity of the dermis 2.decreased pain threshold 3.decreased subcutaneous adipose tissue 4.increased sensory perception

decreased subcutaneous adipose tissue

as gait speed increases, base of support ___ and the percentage of single support time ___

decreases increases

The axillary nerve C5 to C6 originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus at the level of the axilla. The nerve innervates the __, __ __, and long head of the ___ brachii muscles The long thoracic nerve C5 to C7 descendants behind the brachial plexus and the axillary muscles. The nerve innervates the __ __ the spinal accessory nerve C3 to C4 innervates the ___ and ___ muscles. The nerve is the 11th of 12 cranial nerves the suprascapular nerve C5 to C6 originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. The nerve innervates the __ and __ muscles

deltoid, teres minor, long head of the triceps serratus anterior sternocleidomastoid trapezius infraspinatus supraspinatus

reduction in resting membrane potential is called: repolarization pulse duration depolarization hyperpolarization

depolarization Depolarization is a reduction in the resting membrane potential. An action potential is generated when the influx of sodium causes a reduction in resting membrane potential. During depolarization a positive charge is generated inside the cell and a negative charge outside the cell is produced due to the flow of ions Repolarization is when the potassium channels are fully open at the same time the sodium channels are closed and potassium Rush is rapidly out of the cell. This makes the transmembrane potential progressively more negative hyperpolarization is when the potassium channels remain open long enough to re polarize the membrane pulse duration is a characteristic of electrical stimulation mod modality that describes the length of time the electrical stimulus is present. Short pulse duration stimulate sensory nerves and longer pulse duration stimulate motor nerves

Which of the following is not a sign of metabolic acidosis? Nausea and vomiting depressed respirations muscular twitch weakness

depressed respirations Metabolic acidosis is when the blood pH Falls below 7.35 due to an excessive amount of acids or insufficient amount of bases. It is caused by diabetes renal insufficiency and diarrhea. Signs of metabolic acidosis include hyperventilation, deep respirations, weakness, muscular twitching, malaise, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, dry skin for skin turgor and coma

Which layer of skin is made up of dense connective tissue with projections called papillae? dermis hypodermis stratum corneum stratum lucidum

dermis The dermis is the middle layer of skin and is the thickest of the three layers. It provides strength and elasticity to the skin through its matrix of collagen and elastin fibers. The dermis is subdivided into two separate layers: the papillary and reticular layers.

in regards to iontophoresis, which medium is indicated for musculoskelatal inflammatory conditions? copper sulface calcium chloride lidocaine dexamethasone phosphate

dexamethasone phosphate

an individual receives his results from an oral glucose tolerance test, and it is determined his reading is 220 mg/dL. this result indicates: diabetes normal reading pre diabetes metabolic syndrome

diabetes

Neuropathic ulcers are a secondary complication usually associated with a combination of ischemia and neuropathy. Neuropathic ulcers are most often associated with ___ however any form of peripheral neuropathy poses an increased risk of development. The __ __ grade classification scale is commonly used to categorize neuropathic ulcers based on wound depth and presence of infection

diabetes wagner ulcer

the ___ consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, subthalamus

dienchephalon

Dyspraxia refers to__ __ a __ __ __ and is often caused by difficulty integrating and modulating tactile input.

difficulty planning new motor act

A stroke affecting the left hemisphere will typically be characterized by: impulsive behavior impaired abstract reasoning impaired perception of body image difficulty processing verbal commands

difficulty processing verbal commands Patients with damage to the left hemisphere typically have difficulties with communication and processing information in a sequential, linear manner. They are usually described as cautious, anxious, and disorganized.

precision grips: 3

digital prehension (three finger pinch) lateral prehension tip prehension

Atrial flutter is a type of cardiac arrhythmia characterized by rapid contraction rate of the Atria. ___ is an example of a medication that may be used to treat atrial flutter Hyperlipidemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids within the blood. ___ is an example of a medication that may be used to treat hyperlipidemia

digoxin lipitor

so with a lower motor neuron lesion, reflexes are : ___ is present ____ are present the patient will also display ___ and ___

diminished or absent atrophy fasiculations (involuntary muscle twitch) hypotonia falccidity

Joint pain and swelling is not an expected side effect of anticonvulsant Agents. __ __ __ drugs such as Methotrexate are the most common class of medications that have a primary side effect of joint pain and swelling

disease modifying anitrheumatic

A subluxation occurs when a joint begins to ___, however, the joint surfaces do not completely lose contact. A subluxation can occur from an acute injury, such as trauma, or from generalized joint laxity.

dislocate

A patient with heart failure has been prescribed digoxin lanoxin as part of the pharmacological management of an exacerbation of the disease. Which of the following adverse signs or symptoms should the assistant be most alert for during exercise based on the prescribed medication? Bradycardia and hemorrhage dizziness and weakness headache and myalgias involuntary movements and tremors

dizziness and weakness Common side effects associated with digoxin include dizziness weakness blurred vision cardiac arrhythmias and GI distress. Digitalis toxicity is a potentially fatal adverse effect of high blood levels of this medication and therefore health professional should be alert for the side effects or any change in patient symptoms

a ___ is used in the diagnoses of fibromyalgia. it is reliable because it applies a consistant pressure (4 kg/cm2) when tesint the tender points.

dolorimeter

Where is somatosensory information processed? ventral horn lateral horn anterior horn dorsal horn

dorsal horn

What condition is characterized by stomach pain that occurs repetitively several hours after a meal? duodenal ulcer appendicitis gastroesophageal reflux disease gastric ulcer

duodenal ulcer The duodenum is the most proximal segment of the small intestine, where food empties from the stomach. A patient with a duodenal ulcer will typically report pain two to three hours after a meal. In contrast, a patient with a gastric ulcer will typically report pain shortly after eating.

cardiac catheterization uses __ to test for __ of coronary arteries and meausre blood pressure in the heard and oxygen in the blood

dye narrowing

a venography uses __or __ to detect a __ or __

dye xray clot blockage

Which of the following forms of stretching is most appropriate for the period prior to engaging in an athletic activity? static dynamic ballistic proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

dynamic Static, ballistic, and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation forms of stretching have been shown in multiple studies to either decrease performance, strength, and/or power. Dynamic stretching has not been shown to have the same detrimental effects on performance as the other options and conversely, has been shown to improve performance in several athletic activities.

nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia occur with cerebellar disorders. ____ is defined as the inability to perform rapid alternating movements

dysdiadochokinesia

which of the following is a sign of left sided heart failure? edema dyspnea jugular venous distention cyanosis

dyspnea

___ is the ability of soft tissue to return to its previous length after a stretch is no longer applied

elasticity

The medical history reveals that a patient has sustained a first degree burn on his back. What layer or layers are affected in a first degree burn? Epidermis, dermis, nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat glands the epidermis epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue epidermis and upper layers of dermis

epidermis In a first degree burn, superficial burn, the layer affected is the epidermis. This type of burn usually results in blisters, inflammation, and severe pain and takes 3 to 7 days to heal In a second-degree burn, superficial partial thickness burn, the layers affected include the epidermis and upper layers of the dermis in a second-degree, deep partial thickness burn, the layers affected include the epidermis, dermis, nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat glands In a third degree, full thickness burn, Bellaire is affected include the epidermis dermis and subcutaneous tissue in a fourth-degree subdermal burn wound, the layers affected include the epidermis dermis subcutaneous tissue muscle and bone

Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes? epidermis dermis hypodermis subcutaneous

epidermis The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin that acts as a protective barrier to the environment. The epidermis contains keratinocytes, Langerhans cells, melanocytes, and Merkel cells.

A physical therapist assistant utilizes a manual assisted cough technique on a patient with a mid thoracic spinal cord injury. When completing this technique with the patient in supine the most appropriate location for the physical therapist assistants hand placement is Manubrium epigastric area xiphoid process umbilical region

epigastric area

ober's test the the patient is in sidelying. the therapist passively __ and __ the leg and then slowly lets it fall toward the table. inability of the test leg to __ and touch the table maybe indicatibe of an __ __ __ or __ __ __ contracture

extension abduction adduct IT band TFL

Middle cerebral artery syndrome is characterized by contralateral sensory motor loss with __ and ___ extremity affected more than ___ extremity. These patients can have perceptual deficits, HH, broca's aphasia, Wernicke's aphasia, and Global Aphasia. The middle cerebral artery supplies the ____ cerebral hemispheres including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. the vertebrobasilar artery syndrome have a wide variety of symptoms. they can have __ __ involvement, ataxia, wallenberg's syndrome, and __-__ syndrome

face upper lower lateral cranial nerve locked-in

The middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral cerebal hemispheres including the frontal temporal and parietal lobe. Patients with middle cerebral artery Syndrome have contralateral sensorimotor loss with __ and __ __ affected more than __ __. Additionally they can have a perceptual deficits HH, Broca's and Wernicke's aphasia, and Global aphasia

face upper extremities lower extremities

autonomic innervation to the lacrimal gland is via the __ nerve

facial

taste on the anterior tongue is the sensory component of the __ nerve

facial

cranial nerve VII name: taste to __ __ voluntary motor: facial muscles autonomic:lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual glands to test: close eyes tight smile and show teeth whistle and puff cheeks (mimic facial expressions) indentify familiar tastes such as sour and sweet sensory or motor?

facial anterior tongue both

Which cranial nerve is responsible for voluntary control of the muscles of facial expression? trigeminal facial accessory glossopharyngeal

facial The facial nerve innervates the anterior tongue for taste, the facial muscles for expression, and the lacrimal, submandibular and sublingual glands for autonomic functions.

What is the earliest clinical marker of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? pain fasciculations difficulty sleeping radiculopathy

fasiculations The earliest clinical marker of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is fasciculations (especially unequivocal fasciculations in the tongue), muscle cramps, fatigue, weakness, and atrophy. By the time most individuals report weakness, they have lost approximately 80% of their motor neurons in the areas of weakness.

assuming typical progression of ALS, list the sx from earliest to latest dysarthria respiratory failure fasiculations loss of dexterity

fasiculations loss of dexterity dysarthria respiratory failure

A physical therapist assistant prepares to use an intermittent compression device to treat a patient with lower extremity edema. The therapist would like to carefully monitor the patient during the session due to a history of mixed arterial and venous disease. Which of the following assessment procedures would be LEAST beneficial to ensure that the patient is safely tolerating compression treatment? 1.observation of lower leg skin color 2.figure eight measurement at the ankle 3.capillary refill time of the great toe 4.palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery

figure 8 measurement at the ankle Observing for changes in skin color would be an appropriate method for determining is circulation is impaired. When circulation becomes impaired the skin typically becomes pale and cyanotic. This method though acceptable would not be the primary choice for assessing circulation since it is more of an indirect assessment a figure 8 measurement is a specific girth measurement for the ankle that is used to quantify edema. This measurement may be used to assess the effectiveness of compression therapy. However it would not be used to assess the relative safety of the intervention since it is not an assessment of circulation capillary refill is an assessment procedure in which the nail bed is compressed and then released. The time that it takes for color to return to the nail bed is recorded. Decrease capillary refill time is indicative of poor circulation and may signify that the intervention is unsafe palpation of peripheral pulses is an appropriate method for assessing circulation in the distal lower extremities. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial arteries are the two most commonly assessed arteries in the lower leg. A diminished or absent pulse is indicative of poor circulation and may signify that the intervention is unsafe

The physical therapist performs an evaluation for a 70 year old woman who endured a stroke. She is classified as stage 1 on the brunnstrom stages of motor recovery scale. What motor presentation can a physical therapist assistant expect? Control and coordination near normal voluntary movement possible but only in synergies, Peak spasticity flacidity, no voluntary movement emergence of spasticity, synergies, hyperreflexia

flacitidy, no voluntary movement

The symmetrical tonic neck reflex normally occurs in infants from 6 to 8 months of age and is fully integrated by 8 to 12 months of age. It is stimulated by placing the head in either flexion or extension. When the head is in flexion, the upper extremities will ___ while the lower extremities ___. When the head is extended, the upper extremities will ___ while the lower extremities ___.

flex extend extend flex

When performing the Bunnel-Littler test, what is done to rule out capsular restriction? flex the metacarpophalangeal joint extend the metacarpophalangeal joint flex the wrist extend the wrist

flex the MCP joint

Swan neck deformity includes ___ of the MCP and DIP joints with ____ of the PIP joints.

flexion extension

acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a condition in which __ collects in the lungs' air sacs, depriving organs of oxygen. it is fatal in about __-__% of cases

fluid 25-40

hydrocolloids- adhesive wafers that contain absorptive properties that interact with wound __ for form a __ __ over the wound bed. they are indicated for __ of __ __ wounds and wounds with __ exudate, maintaining a __ wound environment

fluid gelatinous mass protection partial thickness mild moist

Which anti-bacterial medication is most likely to contribute to Achilles tendinopathy? fluoroquinolones (e.g., Cipro) sulfonamides (e.g., Silvadene) penicillin (e.g., Amoxil) aminoglycosides (e.g., Neomycin)

fluoroquinolones (e.g., Cipro)

parkinsonian gait pattern a gait pattern marked by increased __ __ of the trunk and knees, giat is shuffling with quick and __ __, festinating may occur

forward flexion small steps

Which physical therapy intervention for urinary incontinence aims to re-educate pelvic floor muscles if a patient cannot initiate active contractions? Functional electrical stimulation Biofeedback behavioral training progressive strengthening

functional electrical stimulation

Which physical therapy intervention for urinary incontinence aims to re-educate pelvic floor muscles if a patient cannot initiate active contractions? Functional estim Biofeedback Behavioral training Progressive strengthening

functional estim Urinary incontinence is a common disorder often resulting from both acute and persistent causes. Functional electrical stimulation is used for muscle re-education if a patient is unable to initiate active contractions in the pelvic floor

the PTA is working with a patient who has dementia. his genitourniary anatomy is intact, yet he has urinary incontinence. which type of urinary incontinence is described? overflow incontinence stress incontinence urge incontinence functional incontinence

functional incontinence

the ______ have their peak muscle activity late in the stance phase of gait

gastroc-soleus

asthenia refers to __ __, typically secondary to cerebellar pathology

generalized weakness

__ ___ is a condition that increases compression on the lateral tibial condyle and increases stress on the medial structures

genu valgum

hip extension

glute max and med hamstrings

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a 22 year old athlete rehabilitating from an ACL reconstruction. Which piece of objective data would serve as a barrier to the patient returning to high demand competitive Athletics? 0 to 135 degrees knee range of motion hamstrings and quadriceps strength ratio of 50% quadriceps strength of 90% of the contralateral limb negative lateral pivot shift test

hamstrings and quads strength ratio of 50%

a __ end feel is anticipated in full plantar flexion

hard

fracture osteoarthritis and oteophyte formation are all examples of __ abnormal end feel

hard

What is the safest way for a patient in a wheelchair to descend a curb? self-propel the chair off the curb while facing forward self-propel the chair off the curb while facing backward have an assistant control the chair off the curb while facing forward have an assistant control the chair off the curb while facing backward

have an assistant control the chair off the curb while facing backward

The pons is part of the brainstem and regulates respiration rate as well as orientation of the ___ in relation to visual and auditory stimuli.

head

oxygen tent canopy placed over the __ and __ or the entire body for the purpose of delivering oxygen at __ __ __ levels

head shoulders higher than normal

When using the rule of nines for a young child, which part of the body makes up a larger percentage as compared to an adult? head and neck trunk upper extremity lower extremity

head and neck

a PET scan is used to detect__ __ and __

heart disease cancer

Which clinical finding is not a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis? ulnar deviation of the fingers swan neck deformity Boutonniere deformity Heberden's nodes

heberdens nodes

exaggerated knee flexion most noticeable during __ __ and __ __. increased knee flexion at heel strike would also commonly result in initial contact with the midfoot or forefoot rather than the heel. exaggerated knee flexion at initial contact is often caused by impairments such as __ __, insifficient extension range of motion, or __ __. exaggerated knee flexion at terminal stance is often associated with __ of the hip and or knee. when this impairment is bilateral, it is commonly referred to as a __ gait.

heel strike heel off weak quads hamstring spasticity contractures crutch

A patient sustained Burns to over 25% of total body surface area and now exhibits hypovolemia. Which of the following laboratory values should the physical therapist assistant expect to be the most significantly affected? Hematocrit Erythrocyte sedimentation rate Oxygen saturation rate Prothrombin time

hematocrit

A health care provider is struck in the face with a sudden involuntary movement of a patient's upper extremity. This finding is MOST characteristic of: 1.athetosis 2.chorea 3.hemiballism 4.rigidity

hemiballism

a gait pattern in which the patient abducts the paralyzed limb, swings the leg around, and advances the foot

hemipalegic

A patient in an acute care hospital has a catheter inserted into the internal jugular vein. The catheter travels through the superior vena cava and into the right atrium. The device permits removal of blood samples, administration of medication, and monitoring of central venous pressure. The device is best termed atrial line central venous pressure catheter Hickman catheter Swan Ganz catheter

hickman catheter A Hickman catheter also known as a indwelling right atrial catheter inserts into the right atrium of the heart. The catheter permit removal of blood samples administration of medication and monitoring of central venous pressure. Potential complications associated with the use of a Hickman catheter include sepsis and blood clots

A ___ ___ nonuniformity ratio produces a less uniform beam and therefore places the patient at greater risk for undesirable side effects such as periosteal pain or hot spots.

high beam

pre eclampsia is a rapidly progressing condition characterized by _ _ _ and protein in the urine. swelling, sudden weight gain, headaches, and changes in vision are common sx's. this is a medical emergency with high risk to both the mother and baby

high blood pressure

tabetic gait pattern a __ __ ataxic gait pattern in which the feet slap the ground

high stepping

equine gait pattern: characterized by __ __, usually involves excessive activity of the ____

high steps gastrocs

Which goniometric measurement would require stabilization of the pelvis to prevent anterior tilting? hip flexion hip extension hip medial rotation hip abduction

hip extension

the __ is involved in storing and processing new memories and important for learning languages

hippocampus

ambulatory electrocardiography also known as ___ monitoring ECG electrodes are placed on the chest and attached to a small __ __ recoding monitor carried in a pocket or in a small puch around the neck. recorded for __-__ hours to evaluate cardiac rhythym, efficacy of medicaitons, and pacemaker function. it is then correlated with a diary of the patient symptoms and activities

holter monitoring battery operated 24-48

The physics related to heat transmission for utilization of The Superficial thermotherapy modalities include conduction and convection. Which of the following is an example of heat transmission through conduction? Sauna Hubbard tank hot pack Whirlpool

hot pack

Hematocrit is used in the identification of abnormal states of __, ___, and ___. A low hematocrit may result in a feeling of weakness, chills are dyspnea. A high hematocrit may result in an increased risk of thrombus hemoglobin is used to assess__, __ and __ __ __. Low hemoglobin May indicate anemia or recent Hemorrhage while elevated hemoglobin suggest hemoconcentration caused by polycythemia or dehydration

hydration polycythemia anemia blood loss anemia bone marro suppression

another medication used with iontophoresis for inflammatory conditions is __ __ ___ calcium chloride is used for __ __ copper sulfate is used for __ __

hydrocortisone sodium succinate muscle spasm fungal infections

Osteogenesis imperfecta's clinical presentation may include all of the following impairments except: bowing of long bones weak muscles diffuse osteoporosis hypomobile joints

hypomobile joints Osteogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal disorder of collagen synthesis that affects bone metabolism. Children with osteogenesis imperfecta often possess hypermobility of joints and are unable to produce strong bone. Clinical features of the disease vary by person and by which type of the disorder is present.

Which structure in the brain regulates the autonomic nervous system? hypothalamus thalamus frontal lobe medulla oblongata

hypothalamus

patients diagnosed with down syndrome are typically ___ and often present with vertebral instability especially at the __ joint (__-__)

hypotonic atlantoaxial (C1-C2)

Which of the following would be a contraindication to the application of phonophoresis? impaired sensation joint contracture subacute inflammation muscle spasm

impaired sensation Phonophoresis describes the use of ultrasound for the transdermal delivery of medication. Contraindications to the application of phonophoresis are similar to those for ultrasound therapy. An area without sensation is susceptible to unintended tissue damage because the patient cannot alert the therapist to symptoms of pain or overheating.

a common cause of rotator cuff tendonitis is ____ the impingement is caused by an inability of a weak ___ muscle to ___ the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa during elevation of the arm.

impingement supraspinatus depress

A physical therapist assistant employed in a home health setting treats a patient following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following Physical Therapy goals would be the most essential to avoid long-term complications? Decrease inflammation Improve range of motion prevent deep vein thrombosis Improve strength

improve range of motion

analgesia:

inability to feel pain

A patient with mallet finger admits to being noncompliant with the recommended splinting regimen. The patient was instructed to wear the prescribed splint continuously for six weeks. Which impairment would be MOST likely based on the described scenario? 1.inability to fully extend the distal interphalangeal joint 2.inability to fully flex the distal interphalangeal joint 3.inability to fully extend the proximal interphalangeal joint 4.inability to fully flex the proximal interphalangeal joint

inability to fully extend the distal IP joint Mallet finger refers to an injury of the extensor digitorum tendon of the distal interphalangeal joints. The injury most often occurs in the finger is abruptly forced into flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint. The injury is relatively common and baseball-softball volleyball and basketball when the ball hits and outstretched finger. Mount finger is commonly treated by using a splint for six to eight weeks that maintains the distal interphalangeal joint in Flight extension. Conservative management using a splint can be effective however it is critical that the splint is worn consistently

A physical therapist assistant attempts to prevent alveolar collapse in a patient following thoracic surgery. Which breathing technique would be the MOST beneficial to achieve the established goal? 1.inspiratory muscle trainer 2.mechanical percussors 3.incentive spirometer 4.flutter valve

incentive spirometer

Thrombocytosis is defined as an ___ in the __ __ of the blood. Blood ___ becomes increased due to the high platelet count with results in an increase risk for thrombosis. Despite the increase in blood viscosity this condition is not associated with an increase in blood pressure

increase platelet count viscosity

when working with a child who has down syndrome with hypotonia, the goal of intervention is to: decrease motor output increase motor output provide appropriate wheelchair positioning promote relxation

increase motor output for a child with low muscle tone, the goal is to increase motor output. this can be done through handling techniques of tapping, brushing, vibrating, quick movements, deep pressure, spinning, swinging, and bouncing.

A physical therapist assistant would like to minimize the likelihood of a burn when using iontophoresis. Which action would be the MOST consistent with the physical therapist assistant's objective? 1.increase the size of the cathode relative to the anode 2.decrease the space between the electrodes 3.increase the current intensity 4.decrease the moisture of the electrodes

increase the size of the cathode relative to the anode current density (mA/cm2) is calculated by taking the current amplitude (mA) and dividing by the surface area (cm2) greater current density will result in an increased risk of an electrochemical burn

Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include low glucose less than 70 mg, pale or shakiness sweating tachycardia fainting dizziness weakness fatigue and poor coordination. __ __ is another early sign of hypoglycemia. If the patient is awake he should be given sugar from juice candy or glucose tablets. If the patient is unresponsive immediate emergency medical treatment is needed. Decreased appetite nausea and abdominal pain can be signs of ___

increased appetite hyperglycemia

Which effect would be characteristic of ultrasound utilizing thermal effects? increased skin membrane permeability increased facilitation of tissue repair increased intracellular calcium levels increased tissue extensibility

increased tissue extensibility

Which modification would increase the resistance experienced by a patient when performing horizontal abduction and adduction with paddles while standing in chest deep water? increased velocity and increased paddle size decreased velocity and decreased paddle size increased velocity and decreased paddle size decreased velocity and increased paddle size

increased velocity and increased paddle size Water molecules tend to attract to each other and provide resistance to movement of the body in water. Increasing velocity will increase the resistance experienced when performing horizontal abduction and adduction in the pool. The larger paddles will also serve to increase resistance.

the posterior alignment of the wheel axle ____ the turning radius of the wheelchair since the distance from the wheel axle to the Caster's increases. An increase turning radius reduces the _____ of the wheelchair.

increases maneuverability

when doing a research study, the ___ variable is the one that you change while the ___ variable is the one that is being measured

independent dependent

A physical therapist assistant instructs a patient diagnosed with C6 tetraplegia in functional activities. Which of the following activities would be LEAST appropriate? 1.independent raises for skin protection 2.manual wheelchair propulsion 3.assisted to independent transfers with a sliding board 4.independent self-range of motion of the lower extremities

independent self range of motion of the LEs

the leading cause of death for patients with alzheimers disease is __ and __

infection dehyration

Sulcus Sign watch YT video tests for ___ __ instability

inferior shoulder

the three phases of burn healing include the __ phase, __ phase, and __ phase the maturation phase is characterized by Scar Tissue Remodeling and lasts up to __ years

inflammatory proliferative maturation 2

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a non specific test for __ __ often associated with conditions such as cancer, autoimmune diseases, and infection. The test is based on how quickly red blood cells sink to the bottom of a test solution containing anticoagulated blood

inflammatory disorders

proximal humerus fractures are commonly associated with falls, particularly in older adult females due to decreased bone density. a hematome occurs in the fracture site soon after injury. this occurs in the ___ ___ of bone healing and would therefore be too early to inittiate active assisted exercise diminished pain often Accompanies the initiation of more Dynamic therapeutic activities following fracture, however the finding By itself does not provide the necessary information to determine the patient's current stage of healing

inflammatory stage

A patient prepares for discharge from a rehabilitation hospital after completing three months of therapy. The patient has made significant progress in his Rehabilitation however expresses concern that his previous employer may not want him to return to work due to his injury. The most appropriate action is to Explain to the patient that to return to work after a serious injury is very difficult inform the patient of his rights according to the Americans with Disabilities Act request that the patient considered vocational retraining refer the patient to a psychologist to assist with the transition back to work

inform the patient of his rights according to the ADA The Americans with Disabilities Act is a federal legislation designed to eliminate discrimination against individuals with disabilities. Healthcare Providers have an ethical obligation to make patients aware of their rights according to the ADA

A physical therapist assistant initiates gait training with a patient one day status post lumbar laminectomy and spinal fusion surgery. During the session, the patient reports that the numbness and tingling they experienced in the leg prior to surgery is still present. The MOST immediate physical therapist assistant action is: 1.inform the patient that this is common post-operatively 2.instruct the patient in the use of a rolling walker 3.discontinue ambulation 4.contact the patient's surgeon

inform the patient that this is common post operatively Following spinal surgery, symptoms such as radiating pain and sensory changes may persist secondary to edema at the surgical site. However, the patient should be informed to remain alert to any changes in bowel or bladder function or significant increases in pain.

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the primary ____ neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. GABA contributes to motor control, vision, and many other cortical functions.

inhibatory

rancho los amigos terminology

initial contact, loading response, midstance, terminal stance, pre-swing; initial swing, midswing, and terminal swing

lachman is a test that tests for __ of the ___. the patient is supine with the involved knee flexed to __-__ degrees. the therapist stabilizes the distal femur and with the other hand applies an anterior translation of the tibia. if there is excessive anterior movement it may be indicative of an ACL tear

injury ACL 20-30

inracranial pressure monitor monitor measures the pressure exerted against the skull using pressure sensing devices placed __ __ __. excessive pressure can be produced by a closed head injury, cerebral hemorrhage, overproduction of __ __ __ or a __ __.

inside the skull CSF brain tumor

wound dressing: hydrogels- water or glycerine based gels __ in water. they are used for __ and __ __ wounds and those with __ and __.

insoluble partial full thickness necrosis slough

A physical therapist assistant reviews differences in lung volumes based on gender. Which lung volume would the assistant anticipate to have the greatest difference between males and females Functional residual capacity inspiratory Reserve volume expiratory Reserve volume residual volume

inspiratory reserve volume

__ __ __ is the additional volume of air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal inhalation. It varies, however, should represent approximately 55% to 60% of total lung capacity.

inspiratory reserve volume

__ measures the quantity of energy delivered per unit area

intensity

The __ __ serves to stabilize against axial forces at the wrist. It consists of a dense band of fibrous connective tissue that runs obliquely from the radius to the ulna. The structure spans from the proximal radioulnar joint to the distal radioulnar joint.

interosseous membrane

__ __ refers to any currently flow that is stopped for at least one second at a time. __ __ is the gradual increase of a current which is maintained over a period of time before the current is decreased __ __ is a type of interrupted flow in which a current of the same intensity is applied in short bursts

interruped flow ramped mode pulsed mode

the ___ ____ are located between the spinous processes and serve to limit __ flexion and rotation of the spine

interspinous ligaments

hip ORIF proximal hip fractures occur in the femoral neck or in the inertrochanteric region.femoral necks fractures are ____ and may lead to a disruption of the blood supply to the femoral head. because of this, __ and ____ are more common with these fractures

intracapsular nonunion osteonecrosis

Which common route of medication administration involves delivering medication through the skin and subcutaneous tissues into muscle? intradermal injection subcutaneous injection intramuscular injection intravenous injection

intramuscular Intramuscular injections deliver medication through the skin and subcutaneous tissues into muscle. Muscles have a larger and greater number of blood vessels which allow for faster onset of action, compared to subcutaneous injections. This route is used to administer drugs such as antibiotics, hormones, and vaccines.

Patient-controlled analgesia delivers analgesics through all of the following routes except: intravenous route intramuscular route subcutaneous route epidural route

intramuscular route Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) may be used to manage acute or chronic pain in a healthcare facility or at home. This device is most commonly used to deliver analgesics intravenously, subcutaneously, or via the epidural route. It consists of a computerized, portable infusion pump containing a chamber for a syringe that is prefilled with the prescribed opioid analgesic. The most frequently prescribed drugs for PCA administration are morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone.

______ reliability is a measure of how consistent an individual is at measuring a constant phenomenon, ____ reliability refers to how consistent different individuals are at measuring the same phenomenon, and instrument reliability pertains to the tool used to obtain the measurement.

intrarater interrater

Spondylolisthesis is a defect with forward slippage of one vertebra on the one below it. Excessive motion with spinal extension could cause further damage. The patient should avoid extension, ____ side bending and ___ rotation because these motions Place excess stress on the affected structures. Instead, exercise to focus on Dynamic stabilization of the trunk. Transverse abdominis activation and isometric multifidus exercises are both appropriate and indicated stretching of the hamstring is it indicated as there is often Associated hamstring tightness in patients with spondylolisthesis

ipsilateral contralateral

A physical therapist assistant administers ultrasound to a patient using cushion contact. This method of ultrasound application would be MOST useful over: 1.thickened or callused skin 2.irregular shaped or bony areas 3.tissue with relatively high fat content 4.areas of absent or diminished sensation

irregular shaped or bony areas Ultrasound can be administered using direct or indirect contact. Direct contact uses a coupling agent such as gel, mineral oil, water, and lotion. Coupling agents are designed to decrease acoustical impedance by eliminating as much air as possible between the transducer and the target area. Indirect contact is attained through the use of water immersion, water-filled bladders, and gel pads. Indirect coupling is often employed when the treatment area is irregularly shaped, bony, excessively small or unable to tolerate direct pressure from the transducer.

burns occur following exposure to chemical, thermal, electrical, or radioactive agents. the three zones of a burn wound include the zone of coagulation, in which cells are __ __ and __ __ occurs. zone of stasis, in which cells are injured and may __ within __-__ hours zone of hyperemia which is characterized by ___ cell ___ and cells should ___

irreversibly injured cell death die 24-48 minimal injury recover

abnormal end feels empty(cannot reach end feel, usually due to pain) 1 2 3

joint inflammation fracture bursitis

grade I uses small amplitude oscillation at the beginning of the range of distraction, increased joint nutrition, and pain relief. grade II uses large amplitude oscillation that pushes into tissue resistance for __ __, __ __ and preparation of the joint capsule for ___. grade 4 uses small amplitude oscillation near the end of passive range, with the intent to increase capsular mobility

joint nutrition pain relief stretching

a __ fracture is one that involves the base of the 5th metatarsal

jones

A physical therapist assistant covering for a colleague on vacation reviews a physical therapist's note in the medical record of a 27-year-old male patient. The note indicates that the patient achieved a maximum grip strength force output of 55 using a hand held dynamometer. The MOST likely units utilized during this type of testing would be: 1.foot pounds 2.Newtons 3.kilograms 4.grams

kilograms Grip strength measurements are typically measured in kilograms of force. Average combined right and left hand grip strength for males between 20-29 years of age would be 106-112 kilograms and for females between 20-29 years of age would be 61-64 kilograms.

The physical therapist assistant is testing sensation in her patient. She moves the patient's limb in various directions up down left right and ask the patient to identify the direction of motion. Which sensory test is being performed Graphesthesia Stereognosis Barognosis Kinesthesia

kinestheisa

a laminectomy is usually performed in the presence of a disc protrusion or spinal stenosis. A complete laminectomy involve the removal of the entire __ the __ __ and the associated __ __. A partial laminectomy involves the removal of only one lamina

lamina spinous process ligmentum flavum

the axis for measuring wrist flexion and extension is:

lateral aspect of the wrist over the triquitrum

A prosthesis that is too long can cause all of the following gait deviations in a patient with an above-knee amputation except for which deviation? Abduction in stance phase lateral bending in stance phase circumduction in swing phase vaulting in swing phase

lateral bending in stance phase Lateral bending in stance phase is caused by a short prosthesis not long. Additionally it can be caused by inadequate lateral wall adduction or a sharp and high medial wall. A long prosthesis can cause abduction and swing phase, circumduction and swing phase, voting and hip hike in swing phase

mills test tests for __ __ therapist ___ the forearm, __ the wrist, and extends the elbow while palpating the lateral epicondyle. positive sign is pain or weakness

lateral epicondylitis proates flexes

what is the capsular pattern of the cervical spine? the close packed position is __ __ the loose packed position is halfway between flexion and extension

lateral flexion and rotation equally limited extension full extension

muscles that depress the jaw: (3)

lateral pterygoid suprahyoid infrahyoid

what is the capsular pattern of the GH joint from most restrictive to least? __ __ is a common diagnosis that presents with this capsular pattern

lateral rotation abduction medial rotation

muscles that perform scapular depression (4)

lats pec major pec minor lower trap

diverticular disease Diverticulosis is a benign condition characterized by the presence of outpocketing of the colon wall. The condition develops secondary to increase pressure within the colon. Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation or infection of the diverticula Pain is often felt in the __ __ quadrant __ is the most commonly used tool to identify the presence of diverticulitis

left lower CT

which pediatric disorder is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance in blood supply?

legg-calve-perthes disease

the diaphragm is the primary muscle of inspiration. it is a dome shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. forward leaning with arm support optimizes the __-__ relationship of the diaphragm and allows the pec minor and major to assist in __ the ribs during inspiration. this is the optimal position for a patient attempting to __ from __ __

length-tension elevating wean mechanical ventialtion

A physical therapist assistant attempts to secure a wheelchair for a patient with an incomplete spinal cord injury. The patient is a 28-year-old female that is very active and relies on a wheelchair as her primary mode of transportation. Which type of wheelchair design would be the MOST appropriate for the patient? 1.standard chair with a rigid frame 2.lightweight chair with a rigid frame 3.standard chair with a folding frame 4.lightweight chair with a folding frame

lightweight chair with a rigid frame A lightweight wheelchair will be significantly easier for the patient to propel and maneuver while a rigid frame provides the necessary durability and strength required for an active individual

headache and myalgia other common side effects associated withl__ __ or __ ___ agents. Other common side effects include GI distress and rash. The most common lipid modifying agents are the statins, such as Lipitor and Zocor

lipid modifying anti hyperlipidemia

A gastric tube is inserted through a small incision in the abdomen into the stomach. The tube can be used for __-__ feeding in the presence of difficulty with __ due to an anatomic or neurologic disorder or to avoid the risk of __.

long term swallowing aspiration

grade III a concussion the results from head injury with any form of __ __ __. A patient should require transport to the emergency room for full neurological evaluation. Hospitalization is warranted if altered Consciousness or mental status percent. An athlete should be withheld from competition after a grade 3 concussion one symptom-free for a minimum of __ __. This form of concussion is secondary to diffuse axonal injury and it's severe can result in a coma

loss of consciousness 1 month

Motor stimulation requires sufficient phase charge to elicit a muscle contraction. This is accomplished by using a ___ frequency and ____ phase duration. Sensory stimulation also called conventional tens required a sufficient phase-change to achieve a sensory response but is below the motor threshold. This is accomplished by using __-frequency and ___ phase duration

low long high short

Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which you have a __ __ __ count. Platelets (thrombocytes) are colorless blood cells that help blood clot. Platelets stop bleeding by clumping and forming plugs in blood vessel injuries. common side effect of ___ agents

low blood platelet antithrombolytic

aerobic metabolism used during __ __, __ __ exercises such as __ a __. the oxygen system yields by far the most ATP, but it requires several series of complex chemical reactions. this system provides energy through the oxidation of ___. the combination of fatty acids, amino acids, and glucose with oxygen releases energy that forms ATP. this system will provide energy as long as there are nutrients to utilize.

low intensity long duration running marathon food

Beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR) is the ratio between the spatial peak intensity and spatial average intensity. The higher the quality of the crystal, the ___ the BNR. The BNR is derived from the intrinsic factors and quality of the piezoelectric crystal.

lower

in a trendelenburg position, the patients head is __ than their feet.

lower

Which of the following special tests is used to identify the presence of a biceps tendon rupture? Neer impingementtest empty can test Roos test Ludington's test

ludingtons

UV exposure is an environmental factor that people diagnosed with __ should avoid

lupus

the difference between a make test and a break test is

make test- patient is asked to apply a force against the dynamometer break test- a patient is asked to hold a contraction against pressure that is applied in the opposite direction to the contraction

sarcoma is a type of __ tumor that originates in __ __ such as __, __ and ___.

malignant connective tissue bone fat muscles

a dark, raised area with an irregular border and asymmetrical presentation, which may need further evaluation by a dermatologist. which form of malgnant tumor is characterized by asymmetry, irregular borders, variations in color, diameters larger than 6 mm, and elevation? kaposi's sarcoma malignant melanoma squamous cell carcinoma basal cell carcinoma

malignant melanoma

which two bony surfaces make up the temperomandibular joint

mandibular fossa of the skull; condylar process of the mandible The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is classified as a condylar, hinge, and synovial joint.

Midswing begins with ___ __ __ during swing and ends when the tibia is ___ with the ____. It is preceded by initial swing and is followed by terminal swing.

maximal knee flexion perpindicular ground

A physical therapist assistant designs a home exercise program for a patient with cardiovascular disease. Which measure would be the LEAST appropriate for the patient to utilize when determining the intensity of exercise? 1.heart rate 2.maximum oxygen consumption 3.perceived exertion 4.perceived dyspnea

maximum oxygen consumption

A physical therapist assistant reviews a data set that is heavily influenced by extreme scores. Which measure of central tendency would be most affected by this type of data? mean Median Mode Range

mean

pes anserine bursitis is an inflammatory condition of the __ knee as a result of inflammation of the answer on bursa patella Alta is a patellar ____ in which the patella tracks superiorly in the femoral intercondylar notch patella Baja is a patellar ____ in which the patella tracks inferiorly in the femoral intercondylar notch

medial malalignment malalignment

what are the two attachment sites of the MCL? injury to the MCL is commonly associated with a __ force to the knee

medial femoral condyle medial tibial condyle valgus

characteristics of a venous ulcer include location over the __ __, typically __ __ in depth, shaggy and __ edges, a base with __ fibrous covering with ___, and little to no ___.

medial malleolus partial thickness irregular yellow granulation pain

muscles that move the jaw side to side: (4)

medial pterygoid lateral pterygoid masseter temporalis

screw home mechanism in a closed chain position (the femur is moving on a stationary tibia) during the last 20-30 degrees of knee extension, the femur rotates ___ to lock the knee joint during the first 20-30 degrees of knee flexion, the femur rotates __ to unlock the knee joint

medially laterally

popliteus muscle that __ rotates the __ on the __ and flexes the knee joint in __-__ __. this muscle __rotates the __ on the __ and flexes the knee joint in __ __

medially tibia femur non-weight bearing laterally femur tibia weight bearing

The __ __ is the most caudal part of the brainstem. it contains the pyramidal tracts as well as cardiac, respiratory, vomiting and vasomotor centers.

medulla oblangata

A physical therapist assistant instructs the patient to perform scar massage. Which type of lotion and frequency would be the most appropriate giving the scar depicted in the image? Massage with vitamin E and fuse lotion for 5 minutes 4 times a day massage with vitamin E infused lotion for 10-minutes two times a day massages vitamin-a infused lotion for 5 minutes 4 times a day massage with vitamin A infused lotion for 10-minutes two times a day

message with vit E infused lotion for 10 minutes two times a day A small amount of lubrication is often used during scar massage and a lotion fuses vitamin E may be beneficial since vitamin E is an antioxidant in cell membranes and can help build collagen. However a duration of 5 minutes is too short given the length of the scar depicted in the image and two Times daily rather than four times really is a typical frequency of Scar massage

often casues compensatory hyperventilation __ __

metabolic acidosis

the __ cerebral artery is the most common form of CVA

middle

shoulder abduction (2)

middle delt supraspinatus

PNF contract-relax good for __ this is a technique used to increase __ __ __. as the extremity reaches the pint of limitation, the patient performs a maximal contraction of the ___ muscle. the therapist resists movement for __-__ seconds with relaxation to follow. this technique repeated until not further gains in range of motion are noted during the session

mobility range of motion antagonistic 8-10

Which of the following would be a criterion for terminating an exercise stress test? blood pressure of 170/80 mm Hg first-degree heart block sinus tachycardia moderate angina

moderate angina Criteria for terminating a maximal exercise stress test include increasing premature ventricular complexes, ventricular tachycardia, rapid atrial arrhythmias, second- or third-degree heart block, 2.0 mm of ST-segment depression, hypotensive blood pressure response, extremely elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressure, moderate to severe angina, extreme shortness of breath, dizziness, mental confusion, lack of coordination, pale and clammy skin, claudication pain, and a patient's request to stop.

which type of training strategies are used to improve coordination and balance and to assist the central nervous system in adaptation for movement control? motor learning strategies redmedial strategies compensatory strategies environmental adaptations

motor learning strategies

Regarding electrical stimulation, which term describes the area of greatest excitability on the skin surface in which a small amount of current generated for muscle response muscle pump sensory point muscle origin motor point

motor point

Enteral Administration of drugs involves the __, __, __, __ and __ __. The most common routes of enteral administration are __, __, and __. All methods of medication administration that do not use the GI tract are termed parenteral

mouth esophagous stomach small and large intestine oral sublingual rectal

at C1-C3 SCI level, they key movements are only the __ and __ including __, ___, ___, and blowing.

mouth head talking chewing sipping

Pain that is musculoskeletal in origin is usually aggravated with ___, where as pain caused by a systemic pathology is difficult to ___. Though the site of the movement such as the cervical spine does not match the site of the pain such as the shoulder it is possible that a nerve in the cervical spine is being compressed during rotation and causing radicular pain in the shoulder Pain that has a systemic cause is difficult to ___. Symptoms are usually unrelieved by rest or a change in position

movement reproduce reproduce

Purulent sputum tends to be yellowish greenish in color and is most often indicative of infection asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the Airways. Sputum associated with asthma is most often described as ____ a lung abscess refers to necrosis of pulmonary tissue and formation of cavities containing necrotic debris or fluid caused by infection. You don't associated with a lung abscess is most often described as purulent pulmonary edema refers to an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the alveolar spaces of the lungs. Sputum associated with pulmonary edema is most often described as ___ tuberculosis refers to a highly contagious infectious disease spread via Airborne transmission. sputum associated with tuberculosis is often __-__ due to damage to the respiratory tract caused by excessive coughing

mucoid frothy blood-tinged

which of the following is not a contraindication or precaution for joint mobilization? joint hypermobility joint effusion muscle spasm and guarding bone disease

muscle spasm and guarding joint mobilization is an intervention for patients with musculoskeletal system dysfunction. muscle spasm and guarding is an idication for joint mobilization. other indications include pain, joint hypomobility, and functional limitation in joint ROM contraindications for joint mobs include hypermobility, joint effusion, and inflammation. precautions include malignancy, unhealed fracture, bone disease, hyper mobility in adjacent joints, system connective disease, and if the patient is on blood thinning medication

The Modified Ashworth Scale is an instrument that is used to assess__ __. It uses ordinal scoring with a grade of 0 indicating the__ __ __ and a grade of 4 indicating the presence of rigidity

muscle spasticity absence of spasticity

Which type of nerve injury is characterized as an injury to the nerve that causes a transient loss of function such as a compression injury? Neurotmesis Neurapraxia Axonotmesis

neuropraxia A class one traumatic nerve injury causes a temporary loss of function due to a nerve injury that typically resolves without intervention. Compression is a common cause of class 1 injuries

Which type of leukocyte functions within 24 hours of an injury to rid the wound site of bacteria and debris via phagocytosis? neutrophils basophils eosinophils mononuclear cells

neutrophils Neutrophils are leukocytes with multiple lobed nuclei that contain cytoplasmic granules. Neutrophils have the highest concentration in the blood and are able to release proteolytic enzymes (proteases) and collagenolytic enzymes (collagenases), which begin the debridement process.

When applying electrodes to a patient, the space between the active and dispersive Electrode should be how large? They should always be one inch apart at least twice the diameter of the active electrode half the diameter of the active electrode no less than the diameter of the active electrode

no less than the diameter of the active electrode The electrodes should be placed so that the space between the active and dispersive electrodes is at least the diameter of the active electrode. The further apart the electrodes are placed, the lesser the density of the electrical current in The Superficial tissue. This reduces the risk of Burns and skin irritations. However, electrodes should be moved closer together if undesired muscles are Contracting due to deep penetration

the dose-response relationship is __ __

non linear

cerebellar disorders can be Congenital, hereditary, spinocerebellar, and acquired. Congenital malformations manifest early in life and are __-__. Manifestations vary depending on the structures involved ataxia is usually present Acquired ataxia may result from non hereditary neurodegenerative system disorders, toxin exposure or can be idiopathic. System disorders include alcoholism hypothyroidism and vitamin E deficiency. Toxins include carbon monoxide heavy metals and lithium

non progressive

the type of effect that produces increased cell and skin membrane permeability, increased intracellular calcium levels, and facilitation of tissue repair

non thermal

a fracture that has not healed within 9-12 months is considered a ___ fracture

non union

Lumbar traction techniques are the preferred treatment approach for a patient with a __ __ __ bias as in this scenario. The typical presentation for the traction approach is intolerance for upright positions, movement testing exacerbate symptoms, and traction or other non-weight-bearing procedures relieves symptoms.

non weight bearing

A patient is evaluated and physical therapy one week following a lateral ankle reconstruction. Which of the following weight-bearing limitations would be most appropriate for this patient? Non weight-bearing with bilateral axillary crutches partial weight-bearing with a single axillary crutch weight-bearing as tolerated with bilateral axillary crutches weight-bearing as tolerated with a single axillary crutch

non weight bearing with bilateral axiallary crutches Protocols for the surgery may vary however it is expected that the patient will be in a hard cast and non-weight-bearing for at least a short. Of time such as two weeks or more following the surgery. The patient would need to use bilateral axillary crutches in order to maintain their non weight-bearing status

Which term refers to abnormal healing of a bone fracture resulting in a fibrous union or pseudarthrosis? delayed union malunion nonunion cancellous

nonunion Nonunion results in a fibrous union, which may be caused by complications such as infection or inadequate fixation. A fracture that heals in an unsuitable position is termed a malunion and a fracture that takes longer than normal to heal is termed a delayed union. Cancellous bone or "spongy bone" is found at the end of long bones, as well as in the pelvis, ribs, skull, and vertebrae.

Selective debridement involves removing only ___ tissues from a wound. Non-selective debridement involves removing both __ and __ tissues from a wound.

nonviable viable nonviable

length at which a muscle can generate maximal tension:

normal resting length

Coughing indicates that the airway is __ __ __. As a result, the physical therapist assistant should continue to monitor the patient, however should not formally intervene. Usually a patient is coughing will independently dislodge the object causing the obstruction

not completely obstructed

A researcher expect to find no statistical significance difference between a geriatric population and an adolescent population in the outcomes of a new functional outcome tool. This is an example of what kind of hypothesis? This is not an appropriate hypothesis for a research design Experimental hypothesis Null hypothesis Directional hypothesis

null hypothesis A directional or sometimes called experimental hypothesis predicts there will be a relationship between the variables in an experiment

Which condition results in the greatest risk for developing osteoarthritis? osteoporosis diabetes mellitus obesity osteomyelitis

obesity Obesity is a significant risk factor for developing osteoarthritis later in life. The knee is the joint most susceptible to osteoarthritis due to obesity followed by the hip and hands.

A physician orders a nasogastric tube for a patient on an acute rehab unit. Which of the following does not accurately describe a potential use of the nasogastric tube? Administer medications directly into the GI tract obtain gastric specimens remove fluid or gas from the stomach obtain venous blood samples from the stomach

obtain venous blood samples from the stomach

testing pupillary reaction to light would assess the function of the __ nerve

occulomotor

which two cranial nerves originate from the midbrain? facial trigeminal occulomotor trochlear

occulomotor trochlear

the surgery for a meniscus tear is performed arthroscopically. the first option is a partial meniscectomy which the torn piece of the meniscus is removed. this option is usually chosen for ___ indiiduals or when the tear occurs in the inner third of the meniscus where the healing capacity is poor. the other surgical option is to perform a repair of the meniscus in which the tear is sutured back together. this option is chosen for ___ individuals or when the tear is in the outer third of the meniscus. the recovery time of a meniscectomy is typically __ than a meniscal repair ___ chain exercises should be avoided after a meniscal repair as well as ____

older younger shorter closed flexion

A physical therapist assistant reads a recent entry in a patient's medical record that indicates aspiration was performed in the elbow region. This scenario is MOST commonly associated with: 1.dorsal ganglion cyst 2.lateral epicondylitis 3.medial epicondylitis 4.olecranon bursitis

olecranon bursitis

which two cranial nerves require the patient's eyes to be closed during testing? olfactory oculomotor trigeminal abducens vestibulocochlear

olfactory trigeminal

lateral flexion of the lumbar spine is coupled with rotation to the ___ side

opposite

When the convex surface is moving on the concave surface (which is fixed), the roll and glide are in the a. same direction b. opposite direction

opposite direction

____ is difficulty breathing in the supine position.

orthopnea

patients taking opioid agents are at high risk of developing __ __

orthostatic hypotension

Hypoparathyroidism is a condition that occurs due to the decreased secretion or low-level production of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid gland. Symptoms may include hypokalemia neurological symptoms such as seizures cognitive defects short stature tetany muscle pain and cramps. ___ is more likely to be observed in patients with hyperparathyroidism

osteopenia

a pathologic bony growth is known as an ___

osteophyte

A physical therapist assistant plans to use a TENS device for a patient with chronic pain. Which of the following situations would be considered an absolute contraindication for use of this device? Use on the periphery of an open wound use over the muscles of the anterolateral neck use on a patient with premature atrial contractions use in the presence of arteriosclerosis.

over the muscles of the anterolateral neck Skin irritation or open wounds are precautions for the use of electrotherapy. Electrons should not be placed directly over a braved skin or an open wound, though this is sometimes done with electrical currents are being used to treat a wound

a gradual increase in task demand will reduce the __ deficit and prevent the accumulation of __ __

oxygen lactic acid

high frequency vibration, acceleration, and high velocity changes in joint position pacinian corpuscles golgi ligament endings ruffini endings golgi-mazzoni corpuscles free nerve endings

pacinian corpuscles

a patient has a CVA with right sided weakness. if the PTA is assisting the patient to perform a stand pivot transfer from her wheelchair to the bed, how should the wheelchair be aligned? perpindicular to the surface on the uninvovled side parallel to the surface on the patient's uninvolved side parallel to the surface on the patient's involved side perpindicular to the surface on the patients invovled side

parallel on the patient's uninvolved side

secondary (acquired lymphedema) is caused by damage to one or more components of the lymph system. typically result surgery, crush injurgy, radiation, chronic venous insufficiency, complications of paralysis, and disuse secondary to coplex regional pain syndrome. filariasis is a __ ___ carried by an insect through a bite and can cause secondary lymphedema

parasitic infection

Constraint induced movement therapy is intended to increase the functional use of the __ __. It is performed by ___ the sound limb and forcing the __ limb to perform functional movement tasks

paretic limb restraining involved

which lobe would most likely be affected if a patient exhibits impaired language comprehension and contralateral sensory deficits

parietal

foams and hydrogels are meant to dress __ and __ __ wounds with some ___. hydrogels are either __ or ___ based. hydrocolloids are designed to protect __ __ wounds and wounds with __ exudate

partial full thickness exudate glycerine water partial thickness mild

Which of the following would not be considered an example of negligence The patient was sitting in his wheelchair in the rehab Department waiting for his therapist for 1 hour A cognitively impaired patient fell and broke his hip after he was left unsupervised in his room without any alert system in place A patient was injured after a therapist failed to use a gait belt when performing stair training Patient was harmed when he fell due to a slippery floor

patient was sitting in his wheelchair in the rehab department waiting for his therapist for 1 hour

__ __ __ is the maximum flow of air during the beginning of a forced expiratory maneuver

peak expiratory flow

What term describes the highest level of a drug that can be obtained in the blood? onset of action peak plasma concentration elimination half-life plateau

peak plasma concentration Peak plasma concentration refers to the highest level of a drug that can be obtained in the blood. The onset of action refers to the immediate body reaction to the drug administration. The elimination half-life is a synonymous term for drug half-life which indicates the time required for the body to reduce the drug concentration by half of its initial strength at administration. Maintaining a certain plasma concentration of a drug with a series of scheduled drug doses is called a plateau.

shoulder adduction (3)

pec major lats teres major

What muscle would be strength tested in supine by applying pressure against the anterior aspect of the shoulder, downward toward the table? posterior deltoid pectoralis major pectoralis minor upper trapezius The pectoralis minor muscle originates on ribs three to five and inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula. The muscle is tested by positioning the patient in supine. Pressure is applied against the ____ aspect of the shoulder, downward toward the table.

pec minor anterior

A physical therapist assistant implements an aerobic exercise program using a treadmill with an athlete preparing to return to competitive activity. Which measure would the physical therapist assistant likely utilize to formally measure the training intensity during the activity? 1.metabolic equivalent level 2.percentage of maximal heart rate 3.miles per hour 4.maximal oxygen consumption

percentage of maximal heart rate

When performing the Hoover test, what patient action is required after the therapist grasps each calcaneus? perform a straight leg raise perform a bridge actively abduct the hip dorsiflex the ankle

perform a straight leg raise The Hoover test is performed by the therapist grasping each calcaneus and then asking the patient to perform a straight leg raise. A positive test would result if the therapist was unable to detect pressure from the patient's contralateral heel into their hand as the opposing leg performs the straight leg raise. The test is designed to identify if the patient is malingering.

In order to ascend and descend a curb, an individual in a wheelchair must first learn how to: ascend and descend a ramp perform a wheelie independently enter a wheelchair from the ground perform pressure relief techniques

perform a wheelie Learning how to safely execute and maintain a wheelie are important prerequisites for curb negotiation. The individual should face forward while ascending and descending curbs.

A patient complaining of a sharp burning pain while receiving continuous ultrasound over the acromion may most likely be experiencing: a normal response tetanic muscle contraction periosteal irritation cavitation

periosteal irritation

when using ultrasound modality, excessively high tems may produce a strong ache casued by overheating of which type of tissue?

periosteal tissue

a greenstick fracture is a break on one side of a bone with the ___ on the opposite side remaining intact. fracture typically seen in ___

periosteum children

arteriosclerosis obliterans, also known as __ __ __ is a form of peripheral vascular disease that produces thickening, hardening, and eventual narrowing and occlusion of the arteries. a patient that requires transtibial amputation secondary to arteriosclerosis obliterans is over __ and ___ (75-90%) primarily affects ___ blood vessels

peripheral arterial disease 45 smokes small

A physical therapist assistant assesses the deep tendon reflexes of a patient as part of a lower quarter screening. The physical therapist assistant determines that the right and left patellar tendon reflex and the left Achilles tendon reflex are 2+, while the right Achilles tendon reflex is absent. The clinical condition that could BEST explain this finding is: 1.cerebral palsy 2.multiple sclerosis 3.peripheral neuropathy 4.intermittent claudication

peripheral neuropathy Deep tendon reflexes elicit a muscle contraction when the muscles tendon is stimulated. A grade of 2+ would be a normal response Peripheral neuropathy is a broad term that describes a lesion to a peripheral nerve. Patients with peripheral neuropathy make the motor sensory and autonomic changes including extreme sensitivity to touch loss of sensation muscle weakness and loss of vasomotor tone. Deep tendon reflexes maybe asymmetrical based on the location of being bald peripheral nerve and usually present as diminished or absentDeep tendon reflexes elicit a muscle contraction when the muscles tendon is stimulated.

A physical therapist assistant provides pre-operative instructions to a patient scheduled for lower extremity amputation. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of lower extremity amputation? 1.tumor 2.trauma 3.peripheral vascular disease 4.cardiac disease

peripheral vascular disease

skeletal traction: balanced suspension: requires __, __, and __ to be surgically inserted into bone for the purpose of applying a traction force using an externally applied weight. often utilized with __ __ fractures. requires __ __ and therefore increases the incidence of complications such as __ and __ __

pins screws wires comminuted femure prolonged immobilization contractures skin breakdown

stage I presents with accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the affected area, resulting in __ edema. in stage I, the edema decreases with ___ of the limb overnight and increases with ___, __ or ___.

pitting elevation heat activity humidity

Which of the following cells and cellular components do not play a role in asthma? neutrophils mast cells platelets macrophages

platelets Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways in which many cells and cellular elements play a role, specifically mast cells, eosinophils, T lymphocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils.

Which pharmacological agent would not be considered a bronchodilator? albuterol plavix levalbuterol corticosteroids

plavix Bronchodilators dilate the bronchi and bronchioles which decreases resistance in the airway and increases airflow to the lungs. Plavix is not a bronchodilator, but rather a blood thinner utilized to prevent stroke and heart attacks.

The physical therapist assistant assesses the vital signs of a patient with a blood disorder. Physical therapist assistant record the patient's blood pressure as 150 / 85 mm of mercury. Which condition is most likely to cause of the abnormal blood pressure measurement? Anemia Thrombocytosis Leukopenia Polycythemia

polycythemia

three structures that make up the brainstem

pons medulla midbrain

the inner one third of the miniscus has ___ __ __ while the outer edges of the miniscus has __ __ __

poor blood supply good blood supply

vibration proprioception ( __ __) kinesthsia (__ __) stereognosis ( recongzining __ through ___ ) graphesthesia ( recongnizing __/__ __ on ___ ) two-point discrimination all of these sensations run along the __ __ pathway

position sense movement sense objects touch letters/numbers traced skin dorsal column

Physical therapists use iontophoresis to transport medication through skin or mucous membranes using a direct current. Iontophoresis is used for a variety of conditions, including ulcers on the skin, fungal infections, and muscle spasms. Lidocaine has a ___ polarity and is utilized when the treatment indication is analgesia dexamethasone phosphate is indicated for ___ conditions copper sulfate is used for __ __ magnesium sulfate is used for __ __

positive inflammatory fungal infections muscle spasms

What classification of drugs functions to increase the force of myocardial contraction? calcium channel blocker agents beta blockers positive inotropic agents nitrate agents

positive inotropic agents Positive inotropic agents increase the force of myocardial contraction and are typically prescribed to individuals with congestive heart failure.

cervical and lumbar laminectomies are usually performed using a ___ approach

posterior

glenohumeral medial rotation joint mobilization the humerus is moving anteriorly causing a posterior glide of the humural head. in order to increase medial rotation, a __ glide is needed

posterior

posterior talofibular ligament: resists __ translation of the talus

posterior

The patient should sit and leaned over a folded pillow at 30° to promote postural drainage of the ___ segment of the __ lobes.

posterior upper

during glenohumeral flexion, the humerus is moving (rolling) anteriorly and the glide occurs in a posterior direction. the mobilizing force should be a __ __ of the humerus to improve GH flexion

posterior glide

When measuring subtalar inversion using a goniometer, where should the stationary arm be placed? posterior midline of the lower leg anterior midline of the lower leg posterior midline of the calcaneus along the second metatarsal

posterior midline of the lower leg When measuring subtalar inversion using a goniometer, the stationary arm should be aligned with the posterior midline of the lower leg. The axis should be placed at the posterior aspect of the ankle midway between the malleoli. The moveable arm should be aligned with the posterior midline of the calcaneus.

Which component of the endocrine system controls the release of antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin? Posterior pituitary gland Adrenal medulla Adrenal cortex Anterior pituitary gland

posterior pituitary gland

A patient's oral glucose tolerance test value is 150 mg per deciliter which indicates Normal value Diabetes Prediabetes Metabolic syndrome

pre diabetes

power mobility controls on wheelchairs: a proportional control allows user to modulate speed of device based on the displacement of the joystick a non-proportional device moves at a __ __ speed regardless of joystick displacement

pre set

abnormal forces on joints should be avoided during ___ due to hormonally induced laxity

pregnancy

diastasis recti refers to separation of the two halves of the rectus abdominus muscle at the linea alba. this condition is often associated with __ during the __ and __ trimesters. this does not place a pregnancy at __ __ the etiology is unknown with separation greater than __cm considered significant. This can produce __ __ __ due to a limited ability of the abdominal muscles to stabilize the pelvis and lower spine

pregnancy 2nd 3rd high risk 2 low back pain

A physical therapist assistant implements an exercise program that includes a five minute cool down period. The inclusion of a cool down period assists with: 1.increasing mitochondrial number and size 2.dilatation of constricted capillaries 3.increasing maximum oxygen consumption 4.preventing pooling of the blood in the extremities

preventing pooling of the blood in the extremitities The cool down period prevents pooling of the blood within the extremities by continuing to use the muscles and maintaining venous return. The cool down period can also assist in preventing myocardial ischemia, arrhythmias, and other cardiovascular complications.

which category of lyphedema is thought to be the result of malformations of lymph nodes or lymph vessels at birth secondary (aquired) primary filariasis

primary

The precentral gyrus is also known as the __ __ __. Clenching a fist would be a representative example of a motor function regulated by this structure.

primary motor cortex

__ ___ MS progresses from onset with no or limited plateaus. These patients may experience temporary, minor improvements along their course of progression without marked periods of remission or relapse. In regards to MS symptoms, a relapse is a worsening of symptoms while a remission is a period Of decreased or no symptoms __ ___ Ms is characterized by cycles of exacerbation / remission with long periods of stability. These patients may have minimal long-term impairment. ___ ___ MS begins as relapsing-remitting Ms and turns into progressive MS. __ __ follows a progressive course with periodic acute relapse has. In this type there is a loss of function and Progressive worsening with each exacerbation

primary progressive relapsing-remitting secondary progressive progressive relapsing

which type of MS is characteized by progression of symptoms from onset with no or minimal epsodes of plateau? progressive-relapsing primary-progressive relapsing-remitting secondary progressive

primary progressive MS

Which of the following is not one of the three primary sources from which the motor cortex receives information? somatosensory cortex cerebellum basal ganglia primary visual cortex

primary visual cortex The primary visual cortex is not one of the three primary sources from which the motor cortex receives information. The thalamus acts as a conduit through which information from the somatosensory cortex, cerebellum, and basal ganglia is sent to the motor cortex.

with upper motor neuron lesions, __ __ will be present such as a positive __ sign with a lower motor neuron lesion, there will be a __ __ sign

primitive reflexes babinski negative (meaning toes will curl in)

A physical therapist assistant prepares to work with a two-month-old infant diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta. Prior to beginning the session, the physical therapist discusses the plan of care with the physical therapist assistant. The PRIMARY goal of therapy should be: 1.improve muscle strength and diminish tone 2.facilitate protected weight bearing 3.promote safe handling and positioning 4.diminish pulmonary secretions

promote safe handling and positioning osteogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal disorder of collagen synthesis that affects bone metabolism. children with OI often have delayed developmental milestones secondary to ongoing fractures with imoblization, hypermobility of joints, and porrly develped muscles. the disorder is classified into 4 types that result in diverse clinical presentations ranging from normal appearance with midl sx to severe involvement that can be fatal during infancy

which is incorrect regarding the emergency care for a patient who has sustained a burn? immersion in cold water use of cold compresses cover burns with sterile bandage prompt application of ointment

prompt application of ointment

plantar fasciitis is associated with an acute injury from excessive loading of the foot or chronic irritation from an excessive amount of ___ during the __ phase of gait. pain is worse in the ___.

pronation loading morning

To treat the superior segment of the right lower lobe, the patient is in __ with the bed ___. Percussion and vibration are performed below the inferior border of the right scapula

prone horizontal

Alternating isometrics are primarily used to improve isometric strength and stability. Isometric contractions are performed alternating from muscles on one side of the joint to the other side without rest. Since no joint movement occurs, this PNF technique would be more appropriate for impairments in ___, which is the ability to identify a static position of an extremity or body part

proprioception

Rhythmic stabilization is a PNF techniques used as a progression of alternating isometrics and is also designed to primarily promote stability. The technique requires isometric contractions of all muscles around a joint against progressive resistance. Rhythmic stabilization is often performed in weight-bearing positions to incorporate joint approximation to further facilitate co-contraction. Since rhythmic stabilization primarily focuses on stability it would be more appropriate to address impairments in __ rather than kinesthesia

proprioception

A weighted vest can provide ____ input and can be worn by a child with a sensory processing disorder. The proprioceptive input provides the child with an improved sense of position and understanding of where joints and muscle are in space. Proprioceptive input contributes to the ability to plan movement and would directly address the child's dyspraxia

proprioceptvie

nonopioid agents provide analgesia and pain relief, produce anti-inflammatory effects, and reduce fever. they promote a reduction of ____ formation which decreases the __ __, decreases uterine contractions, lowers fever, and minimizes impulse formation of pain fibers indications include mild to moderate pain of various origins, fever, headache, muscle ache, inflammation, reduction of MI (aspirin only) patients are at increased risk for __ __ that would allow for movement beyond limitation or false understanding of their level of mobility. complaints of __ __ should be take seriously with a referral to a physician. examples: __ and ___, ___

prostaglandin inflammatory process masked pain stomach pain tylenol aspirin celebrex (celecoxib)

Which of the following inflammatory mediators is responsible for causing pain in an acute wound? histamine prostaglandins phagocytes renin

prostaglandins Prostaglandins promote local vasodilation that increases the permeability of local capillaries and induce pain. Prostaglandins are a part of the inflammation cascade following tissue injury.

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient 24 hours status post total hip arthroplasty. A recent entry in the medical record indicates that the patient was placed on anticoagulant medication. Which of the following laboratory values would be MOST affected based on the patient's current medication? 1.hematocrit 2.hemoglobin 3.prothrombin time 4.white blood cell count

prothrombin time Prothrombin time is often used as a screening procedure to examine extrinsic coagulation factors and to determine the effectiveness of oral anticoagulant therapy. And abnormal Prothrombin time is most often caused by liver disease, injury or by treatment with blood thinners. Abnormal values can place patients at risk for side effects ranging from a high likelihood of bleeding to a high likelihood of developing a clot

What is the most appropriate approach to use when treating a patient who is at the Confused-Agitated level on the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale? verbally quiz the patient on the previous treatment force the patient to adhere to the therapy plan administer random practice activities provide the patient with choices of treatments

provide the patient with choices of treatments During the Confused-Agitated level, the patient will likely have a limited attention span and may not be able to concentrate on an activity for a long time. At this level, it is important to provide some control to the patient while maintaining safety. This can be done by giving the patient treatment options.

The progression of weakness related to Duchenne muscular dystrophy is most accurately described as: caudal to cephalic cephalic to caudal distal to proximal proximal to distal

proximal to distal The typical progression of weakness in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is symmetrical and proximal to distal. Marked weakness of the pelvic and shoulder girdle musculature typically precedes marked weakness in the distal extremity muscles. Bladder and bowel function is typically spared.

muscles that perform thoracic rotation and sidebending (8)

psoas major QL external oblique internal oblique multifidus longissimus thoracis iliocastalis thoracis rotatores

Which of the following is not a pressure tolerant area of the typical transfemoral residual limb? Lateral sides of residual limb Ishcial tube Gluteals Pubic symphysis

pubic symphysis

the ___ ligament extends from the pubic portion of the rim of the acetabulum to the neck of the femur. the structure serves to prevent excessive ___ of the femur and limits __ __

pubofemoral abduction hip extension

Ventilation and perfusion scans are generally indicated to help rule out which of the following conditions? stroke pulmonary embolism pleural effusion chronic bronchitis

pulmonary embolism Ventilation and perfusion scans are diagnostic procedures that can be used to measure gas distribution within the lungs. These scans are often indicated to rule out a pulmonary embolism. A normal ventilation scan combined with an abnormal perfusion scan is a strong indication that a pulmonary embolism may be present.

Increasing cell membrane permeability is a primary goal of: sensory electrical stimulation motor electrical stimulation continuous ultrasound pulsed ultrasound

pulsed ultrasound Pulsed ultrasound produces non-thermal effects from the alternating compressions and rarefaction cycles of sound waves. Nonthermal effects of ultrasound include increased cell and skin membrane permeability, increased intracellular calcium levels, facilitation of tissue repair, and promotion of normal cell function.

patella femoral syndrome patients often have an increase __ __ described by pain in the ___ __ this condition may cause ___ atrophy pain is noted when:

q anglel anterior knee quadricep ascending and descending stairs

Which test of the lumbar spine involves overpressure in lumbar extension while the patient laterally flexes and rotates to the side of pain? Ober test quadrant test of the lumbar spine Milgram's test Yeoman's test

quadrant test of the lumbar spine Lumbar extension, lateral flexion, and rotation causes maximum narrowing of the intervertebral foramen and stress on the facet joint to the side on which the rotation occurs.

the decision to unlock a hinged knee immobilizer following ligament repair most often occurs when the patient has sufficient ___ muscle control

quadricep

What is a commonly used treatment for an acute pulmonary embolism? antihyperlipidemia agent angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor agent rapid acting fibrinolytic agent alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

rapid acting fibrinolytic agent A fast acting anticoagulant, typically heparin, is often used directly following a pulmonary embolism. Tissue plasminogen activator is used acutely in non-hemorrhagic strokes and is also a treatment option for a pulmonary embolism.

A physician analyzes the results of a magnetic resonance imaging study to determine the extent of a patient's lung cancer. When staging the patient's cancer using the TNM system, which of the following factors would NOT be considered? 1.size of the tumor 2.involvement of the lymphatic system 3.rate of growth of the cancer cells 4.presence of metastasis

rate of growth of cancer cells The TNM system is one of the most commonly used methods for staging cancer. The system describes a malignancy based on the size and extent of the primary tumor, lymph node involvement, and presence of metastasis. For most cancers the TNM combination will correspond to a stage designation that further defines the severity of the disease.

Temporarily diminished blood flow to the working muscles during a set of a resistance exercise, which then increases during the rest period following the completion of the set is known as: reactive hyperemia vascular claudication hyperperfusion erythema

reactive hyperemia Muscular contractions greater than approximately 20% of the maximal voluntary contraction impede blood flow during a set, however, blood flow increases during the rest period after the set has been completed. This is known as reactive hyperemia and is a potent stimulus for muscle growth.

Muscles active during forced exhalation include __ __, __ __, __ __, __ __

rec abdominis TA external oblique internal oblique

muscles that perform trunk flexion (3)

rec abdominis internal oblique external oblique

squamous cell carcinomas have a poorly defined margin and present as a flat __ area, ulcer, or nodule

red

Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone produced primarily by the kidneys. It plays a key role in the production of __ __ __ which carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. This test measures the amount of erythropoietin in the blood.

red blood cells

Folic acid or folate vitamin B9 is involved in the formation of __ __ __ and is also an important supplement during early pregnancy to reduce the risk of __ __ of the brain and spine. Folic acid supplements would not be indicated for patients taking opioids

red blood cells birth defects

when using US modality, ecessively high temps may produce a strong ache caused by overheating of the periosteal tissue. what should the therapist do?

reduce the intensity or increase the surface area of the treatment site

What term refers to a perception of pain at a site other than the site where the pathology occurs? radicular pain referred pain perceptual pain sensory pain

referred pain Referred pain is a stimulus that reaches certain cells in the sensory cortex relaying pain information that damage has been inflicted on a certain area of the skin. The perception of pain is perceived at a site other than the site where the pathology actually occurs.

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) a skeletal muscle __ used for relief of __ __. muscle relaxants decrease __ excitability which lead to skeletal muscle relaxation

relaxant muscle spasms CNS

The primary advantage of the posterolateral surgical approach is that the hip abductors __ ___. As a result it would be unlikely that hip abductor weakness would be associated with instability following total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral approach

remain intact

lateral prehension grip contact between the thumb and lateral side of the index finger. this type of grip may be used when using a ___

remote

Aspiration also known as arthrocentesis refers to a technique using a sterile needle to __ __ __ __ __t. A local anesthetic is typically utilize prior to the needle puncture to minimize discomfort. The obtain fluid is often sent to a laboratory for further analysis

remove fluid from a joint

motor learning strategies are important to assist the CNS in adaptation for movement control. motor learning requires __ and __ __ and feedback to enhance motor performance remedial strategies focus on the __ of a ___ __ such as a __ __ in a patient with a ___

repetition sensory cues use involved extremity paretic limb stroke

A researcher states that she expects there will be a statistic statistically significant difference between the hamstring length of individuals who participated in a 12-week hamstring stretching program using static stretching technique versus those who participated in the yoga program. What kind of hypothesis is used here? Null hypothesis Non directional hypothesis There is no hypothesis Research hypothesis

research hypothesis A research hypothesis, also known as a directional hypothesis, is a generalization that predicts an expected relationship between variables. Here, the researcher is predicting that those who participated in a static stretching program will have different outcomes in comparison to those who participated in a yoga program.

Which pulmonary function test value refers to the volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration? expiratory reserve volume anatomic dead space volume residual volume vital capacity

residual volume The volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration is known as the residual volume. Residual volume is approximately 25% of total lung volume.

A physical therapist assistant working on a pulmonary rehabilitation unit works with a patient on therapeutic positioning. The patient has experienced a lengthy inpatient hospitalization and was only recently referred to physical therapy. The patient has significant weakness of the diaphragm and is hypertensive. The MOST appropriate patient position to initiate treatment is: 1.prone 2.supine 3.Trendelenburg 4.reverse Trendelenburg

reverse trendelenburg Recommended to reduce hypertension and facilitate movement of the diaphragm by using gravity to reduce the weight of the abdominal contents on the diaphragm

___ is a surgical procedure to sever nerve roots in the spinal cord. The procedure effectively relieves chronic back pain and muscle spasms. For spinal joint pain, a facet rhizotomy may provide lasting low back pain relief by disabling the sensory nerve at the facet joint.

rhizotomy

muscles that perform downward rotation (3)

rhomboids levator scap pec minor

What disease is characterized by extreme bowing of bones, especially affecting the legs of children? Paget's disease osteoporosis osteopenia rickets

rickets Rickets is the softening and weakening of bones in children, usually because of an extreme and prolonged vitamin D deficiency. Adding vitamin D or calcium to the diet generally corrects any resulting bone problems in children.

decreased spatial orientation is characteristic following a CVA with __ hemisphere involvement

right

Anemia refers to a reduction in the number of circulating red blood cells or a reduction in hemoglobin. Anemia is the most common disorder of the blood. The three main categories of anemia include excessive blood loss (i.e., hemorrhage), excessive blood cell destruction (i.e., hemolysis), and deficient red blood cell production (i.e., hematopoiesis). .A decrease in the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen in the blood results in a variety of symptoms including pallor, cyanosis, cool skin, vertigo, weakness, headache, and malaise. Cor pulmonale is __-__ heart failure arising from disease of the ____. Signs of right ventricular failure are elevated central venous pressure with distention of the neck veins. Ascites (accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity) and peripheral edema of the feet and ankles are common. Individuals with heart failure often experience fatigue and exercise intolerance. Diaphoresis refers to profuse ____ and is often associated with shock or other emergent medical conditions.

right-sided lungs perspiration

the suck-swallow reflex occurs when an object touches the __ of the ___, the baby begins sucking. the moro reflex is elicited with rapid __ __. the baby's arms __ and ___ followed quickly by arms ___ as if grasping for parent and crying. the babinski reflex is elicited with stroking to the __ plantar surace of the foot. the great toe should __ and other toes __ __

roof mouth neck extension abduct extend flexing lateral extend fan out

the __ reflex occurs when the infant is stroked on the cheek and the infant turns their head toward the stimulus. it is used to assist the mother when feeding the infant

rooting

Which condition has an increased incidence in middle-aged males? acromioclavicular sprain anterior shoulder dislocation thoracic outlet syndrome rotator cuff tear

rotator cuff tear Rotator cuff tears can occur due to acute injuries or chronic injuries. Chronic injuries are more common and the incidence increases significantly with age due to extended use with poor biomechanics or muscular imbalance. Diminished circulation to the rotator cuff tendons with aging may also contribute to an increased risk of injury.

stretching of joint capsule; amplitude and velocity of joint position pacinian corpuscles golgi ligament endings ruffini endings golgi-mazzoni corpuscles free nerve endings

ruffini endings

a fracture involving the epiphyseal growth plate

salter harris

lateral flexion of the cervical spine (below C2) is coupled with rotation to the ___ side

same

which of the following is not a movment pattern associated with an extension synergy? scapula retraction and elevation shoulder adduction and IR forearm pronation ankle plantarflexion

scapula retraction and elevation

upper extremity extensor synergy pattern

scapular protraction, shoulder adduction and internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, and wrist and finger flexion

upper extremity flexor synergy pattern:

scapular retraction and elevation, shoulder abduction and external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, and wrist and finger flexion

piriformis syndrome result of compression or irritation to the proximal __ __ due to piriformis muscle inflammation, spasm or contracture this can be caused by activities that involve a lot of __ and __ __. pain is reproducible with __, ___, and __ __ piriformis syndrome is often misdiagnosed because it has a similar presentation of __-___ ___, which is due to either a herniated disk or stenosis

sciatic nerve adduction internal rotation flexion adduction medial rotation L5-S1 radiculopathy

An 85 year old female patient was recently diagnosed with osteoporosis after a fall and which she sustained a femoral neck fracture. The patient reports that her lifestyle has become much more sedentary over the past five years. Which type of osteoporosis is most consistent with the presented scenario Idiopathic Senile Postmenopausal secondary

senile Osteoporosis is a metabolic condition that presents with a decrease in bone mass that subsequently increases the risk of fracture. Primary osteoporosis can include idiopathic postmenopausal and senile osteoporosis. Secondary osteoporosis can occur as a result of another primary condition or with the use of certain medications

a spherical grasp is characterized by the entire hand wrapping around a spherical object. it differs from a cylindrical grasp in that the fingers are ___ from one another and there is a greater amount of __ ___. used when gripping a ___

seperated thumb opposition baseball

__ drainage is a watery serum ____ drainage contains pus Eschar is dried necrotic tissue

serous purulent

A physical therapist assistant reads in the medical record that a patient with cardiovascular pathology is placed on a diuretic. Which type of laboratory test would be the MOST essential to monitor based on the patient's prescribed medication? 1.cardiac biomarkers 2.prothrombin time 3.serum electrolytes 4.serum cholesterol

serum electrolytes

Which clinical presentation is the most common indication for a total shoulder arthroplasty? dislocation loss of range of motion loss of strength severe pain

severe pain

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient with a suspected injury to the thoracodorsal nerve. Which objective finding would be consistent with this injury? 1.shoulder medial rotation weakness 2.shoulder extension weakness 3.paralysis of the rhomboids 4.paralysis of the diaphragm

shoulder extension weakness

Irregular R to R intervals with a heart rate between 100 and 200 beats per minute is characteristic of atrial tachycardia. Atrial tachycardia is defined as three or more consecutive premature atrial complexes, where an ectopic focus in either Atria initiates an Impulse before the SA node Irregular R to R intervals with a heart rate between 40 and 100 beats per minute is characteristic of ___ ___. Sinus arrhythmia is an irregularity and Rhythm where the cardiac impulse is initiated at the SA node with a variable quickening and slowing of the impulse formation Regular R to R intervals with a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute is sinus tachycardia regular R to R intervals with a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is sinus bradycardia

sinus arrhythmia

Which wheelchair component would most likely be utilized with a high cervical spinal cord injury? toggle brakes planar back insert rim projections sip and puff controls

sip and puff controls Sip and puff controls describe a switch based system often used for patients with high level spinal cord injuries. The patient controls the direction based on the force of inhalation/exhalation directed into a small tube positioned near the patient's mouth.

What activity should be avoided immediately following a total knee replacement? quadriceps sets sitting with the knee flexed for prolonged periods lying in bed with the knee extended sitting in a firm chair

sitting with the knee flexed for prolonged periods Patients following a total knee replacement should limit the amount of time the knee is maintained in a static flexed position to prevent stiffness and promote the return of knee extension.

The T in the tnm system refers to the __ and __ of the primary tumor. Tumors that are larger in size will generally result in a poor prognosis for the patient the N refers to the extent of __ __ __ Cancer that involves the lymph nodes generally results in a poor prognosis for the patient The M refers to the presence of ____ of the cancer cells. Cancer that involves metastasis to other areas of the body generally results in a poorer prognosis for the patient

size and extent lymph node involvement metastisas

epidural hematoma: a hemorrhage that forms between the __ and __ __ subdural hematome: a hemorrhage that forms due to __ rupture between the __ and ___

skull dura mater venous dura arachnoid

active compression test (watch YT) tests for __ lesion

slap

The line of gravity acting on a standing person with ideal posture will fall directly through the external auditory meatus. The line of gravity will fall __ ___ to the coronal suture, __ __ to the hip joint, and ___ ___to the lateral malleolus.

slightly posterior slightly posterior slightly anterior

Glucosamine has been shown to have a small to moderate effect of __the rate of joint cartilage ___ and is often taken as a supplement by individuals with ___. Although destruction of articular cartilage secondary to osteoarthritis is the most common indication for total knee arthroplasty, glucosamine supplements would not be indicated for a patient taking opioids

slowing degeneration osteoarthritis

ostomy device method for collection of waste from a surgically produced opening in the abdomen. the removal of waste occurs through a stoma extending into the __ ___

small intestine

Which of the following is used to treat cardiac arrhythmia? sodium channel blockers nitroglycerin digitalis glycosides benzodiazepines

sodium channel blockers Sodium channel blockers are a class 1 antiarrhythmic drug often used to treat arrhythmia. Others possible drugs to treat arrhythmia include beta blockers, drugs that prolong repolarization, and calcium channel blockers. Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina and acts as a vasodilator. Digitalis glycosides are used to treat cardiovascular pump failure by increasing myocardial contractile force. Benzodiazepines are used as an antianxiety/sedative drug.

edema synovitis ligament instability/tear are all examples of __ abnormal end feel

soft

all 5 senses are influenced by the __ nervous system

somatic

which metabolic hormone is secreted by the delta cells of the pancreatic islets? amylin insulin somatostatin glucagon

somatostatin acts locally to depress secretion of both insulin and glycogen, and decreases the motility, secretion, and absorption of the GI tract. it is secreted by the delta cells

A selective dorsal rhizotomy is commonly performed to treat spasticity in which condition? multiple sclerosis transverse myelitis myelomeningocele spastic cerebral palsy

spastic cerebral palsy A selective dorsal rhizotomy involves the selective severing of dorsal rootlets to alleviate lower extremity spasticity and improve function.

Botox and baclofen are used to treat ____

spasticity

turgor: the relative ___ with which the skin resumes its normal appearance after being __ __. turgor is an indicator of skin elasticity and __ and normally occurs more slowly is older adults

speed lightly pinched hydration

in regards to arthorkinemtics, what is the movement between the joint surfaces of the radial head with the humerus? spin roll glide extension

spin spin consist of a rotation of the movable component of a joint glide consists of a pure translatory motion of one surface gliding on another surface roll consists of one joint surface rolling on another such as a tire rolling over a road (watch youtube video)

talipes equinovarus also known as club foot it is characterized by the heel pointing downward and the forefoot turning inward. this condition accompanies other neuromuscular abnormalitities such as ___ __ and arthrogryposis the clinical presentation includes ___ of the forefoot, ___ positioning at the hindfoot, and equinus at the ankle immediate medical management includes __ and __ __ This is a congenital abnormality which can be corrected surgically.

spina bifida addution varus splinting cereal casting

a cerebellar disorder such as Friedreich's ataxia is a rare genetic disease that causes difficulty walking, a loss of sensation in the arms and legs, and impaired speech. It's also known as __ ___. The disease causes damage to parts of your brain and spinal cord and can also affect your heart. "Ataxia" means lack of order. it does not affect __ __ and is an __ __ inherited condition

spinocerebellar degeneration congnitive functioning autosomal recessive

the spinal tract that is involved in pain transmission

spinothalamic

a __ fracture is caused by torsion. it is a break in a bone shaped like an S due to the twisting

spiral

muscles that perform cervical extension (6)

splenius cervicis semispinalis cervicis iliocostalis cervicis longissiums cervicis multifidus traps

A physical therapist assistant inspects a sacral pressure ulcer on a 68-year-old female. The depth of the ulcer permits visualization of several exposed tendons. This type of ulcer is BEST classified as: 1.stage II 2.stage III 3.stage IV 4.unstageable

stage IV A stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness tissue loss of the dermis and presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red or pink wound bed. 2.A stage III pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss in which subcutaneous fat may be exposed. The depth of a stage III pressure ulcer may vary widely depending on the location of the injury. 3.A stage IV pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle that is visible or directly palpable. Slough or eschar may be present on some parts of the wound bed. Undermining and tunneling may be present. Stage IV ulcers can extend into muscle and supporting structures (e.g., fascia, tendon, joint capsule).

a cerebellar gait pattern is described as a ___ gait with wide __ __ __ caused by damage to the cerebellum

staggering base of support

a temporal value of gait is one that is measured using time. this includes: (7)

stance time single and double limb support time cadence cycle time step duration and velocity

A patient four days status post transtibial amputation is transported to physical therapy for a scheduled treatment session. Assuming an uncomplicated recovery, the MOST appropriate patient transfer to utilize from a wheelchair to a mat table is: 1.two-person lift 2.hydraulic lift 3.stand pivot 4.sliding board

stand pivot

A 12-month-old child with cerebral palsy demonstrates an abnormal persistence of the positive support reflex. During therapy this would MOST likely interfere with: 1.sitting activities 2.standing activities 3.prone on elbows activities 4.supine activities

standing acitvities

osteomyelitis an infection that occurs within the bone, most commonly secondary to the ___ ___ ___ fever and chills are common systemic complains with localized complaints of pain edema and erythema

staphylococcus aureus microbe

tracheostomy mask placed over a __ or __ for administering supplemental oxygen. the mask is hel i place by an elastic strap placed around the patient's . neck

stoma tracheostomy

Which layer of the epidermis is only found in areas of the skin that are very thick, such as the palms of the hands and soles of the feet? stratum spinosum stratum granulosum stratum lucidum stratum corneum

stratum lucidum The epidermis consists of 5 layers from deep to superficial: stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. Stratum lucidum, found in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, consists of a thin, clear layer of dead skin cells named for its translucent appearance under a microscope.

a ___ fracture is a break in a bone due to repeated forces to a particular portion of the bone

stress

Rating on a perceived exertion scale is a __ measure that attempts to quantify exercise intensity. One of the most common scales used in physical therapy is Borg's rating of perceived exertion scale. The 20-point rpe scale ranges from a minimum value of 6 to a maximum value of 20. The scale is designed to assess intensity and not necessarily endurance Respiration rate is an objective measure that can be used as a gross method to assess endurance. Normal respiration in an adult is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Respiration rate tends to increase proportionately with increases in exercise intensity

subjective

A physical therapist assistant reads in a medical chart that a patient is taking a medication via enteral Administration. Which of the following methods of medication administration would be considered a type of enteral Administration? Intrathecal Subcutaneous Sublingual Transdermal

sublingual

A 73-year-old male patient receiving outpatient physical therapy begins to experience acute angina. The patient indicates he uses nitroglycerin to alleviate the angina. The MOST appropriate mode of administration is: 1.oral 2.buccal 3.sublingual 4.topical

sublingual Sublingual Administration occurs when placing drugs under the tongue. Sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is the most appropriate mode of administration with acute angina due to the rapid absorption into the systemic circulation

lift off sign (watch YT video) tests for weakness of the ____

subscapularis

shoulder medial rotation (5)

subscapularis, teres major, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, anterior deltoid

Which of the following would be the best indicator that the amount of weight used is excessive in a progressive resistive exercise? red flushed color in the face substitute motions are required increase in measured respiratory rate increase in systolic blood pressure

substitute motions are required An excessive amount of weight often requires a patient to use a variety of substitutions to successfully complete a progressive resistive exercise. The use of substitutions can jeopardize patient safety and in many cases can be avoided by decreasing the amount of resistance used.

chest tube tube uses __ to remove __, __, or __ from the intrathoracic space

suction air pus

The patient should be prone on the abdomen with two pillows under the hips to promote postural drainage of the ___segments of the ___ lobes

superior lower

capsular pattern of proximal radioulnar joint

supination>pronation

a semi-fowler position consists of lying in bed in a __ position with the head of bed __ to __ degrees. this position is often used for __ patients or other cardiac conditions

supine elevated 30 CHF

To treat the anterior basal segment of the left lower lobe, the patient is in ___ with the __ of the __ __ __. Percussion and vibration are performed over the lower ribs on the left side. Because the patient is in a trendelenburg position with this treatment procedure they would be at an increased risk for GERD reflux

supine foot bed elevated 18 inches

a type of humerus fracture:

supracondylar

A physical therapist assistant notices possible atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle while treating a patient with shoulder pathology. This finding is MOST consistent with an injury to the: 1.axillary nerve 2.long thoracic nerve 3.spinal accessory nerve 4.suprascapular nerve

suprascapular nerve

A physical therapist assistant is asked to assist in administering A graded exercise test to a patient referred to a phase 2 cardiac rehab program. Which of the following objective findings would most warrant the termination of the test? Diastolic blood pressure rising to 100 mm of Mercury systolic blood pressure Rising to 200 mm of Mercury multifocal premature ventricular contractions sustained ventricular tachycardia

sustained ventricular tachycardia

A patient with osteomyelitis would be least likely to present with: localized pain systemic fever systemic edema localized erythema

systemic edema Osteomyelitis is an infection within the bone most commonly caused by the staphylococcus aureus microbe. Osteomyelitis is caused by a direct exposure or secondary exposure via an infection in the blood stream or surrounding soft tissues. Common characteristics include systemic fever and chills and localized pain, erythema and edema.

A physical therapist assistant employed in an acute care hospital prepares to work on standing balance with a patient rehabilitating from abdominal surgery. The patient has been on extended bed rest following the surgical procedure and has only been out of bed a few times with the assistance of the nursing staff. The MOST important objective measure to assess after assisting the patient from supine to sitting is: 1.systolic blood pressure 2.diastolic blood pressure 3.perceived exertion 4.oxygen saturation rate

systolic blood pressure Orthostatic hypotension results from an inability to compensate quickly for changes in blood pressure. When a person stands up Suddenly gravity tends to cause blood to pool in the veins of the legs and lower body. As a result the amount of blood returned to the heart is reduced and blood pressure Falls. Dizziness or lightheadedness is the most common symptom. Normally the body quickly responds to a decrease in blood pressure however compensatory mechanisms May malfunction or function to slowly in patients who have been on extended bed rest

Which lobes of the cerebrum are most closely associated with Wernicke's area? frontal and temporal lobes occipital and frontal lobes parietal and occipital lobes temporal and parietal lobes

temporal and parietal lobes Damage to Wernicke's area (left hemisphere) impairs the comprehension of spoken language. The area encircles the auditory cortex on the lateral sulcus which is where the temporal lobe and the parietal lobes meet.

the posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe medial and inferior __ __, __, and ___. With posterior cerebral artery syndrome the patient can experience contralateral sensory and motor loss HH visual agnosia oculomotor nerve palsy involuntary movement Pusher syndrome and thalamic pain syndrome

temporal lobe midbrain thalamus

muscles that elevate the jaw: (3)

temporalis masseter medial pterygoid

A patient rehabilitating from greater trochanteric bursitis completes active range of motion exercises. Which of the following BEST describes the movement of the femoral head in the acetabulum during hip flexion? 1.the femoral head slides superiorly on the acetabulum 2.the femoral head slides inferiorly on the acetabulum 3.the femoral head slides anteriorly and superiorly on the acetabulum 4.the femoral head slides posteriorly and inferiorly on the acetabulum

the femoral head slides posteriorly and inferiorly on the acetabulum

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is defined as: a fungal infection a rare blood cancer caused by human immunodeficiency virus a group of diseases caused by human immunodeficiency virus the final stage of human immunodeficiency virus

the final stage Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is the last or final stage of human immunodeficiency virus. With AIDS, the immune system is so compromised that opportunistic infections occur. Individuals with AIDS require lifelong medical treatment.

What does the term therapeutic effect mean? the intended or predicted response to a medication the predictable, but unintended response to a medication the unintended and unpredictable response to a medication the response to a medication due to a buildup over time

the intended or predicted response to a medication The therapeutic effect of a medication is the body's intended or predictable response. Side effects are predictable, but often undesired responses to a medication. Adverse effects are unpredictable and undesired responses to a medication. Toxic effects are the body's response to a buildup of medication over time.

regarding referred GI patterns, visceral pain from the esophogous most often refers to: the scapular region the shoulder the midback the pelvis

the midback

A physical therapy clinic manager discusses methods to protect patient health information. Which of the following actions would be acceptable according to the health insurance portability and accountability Act? The patient identifiers information is not removed from documentation sent to the insurance company the therapist discusses the patient's plan of care with the receptionist the therapist speaks to an employer about the patient's ability to return to work the therapist we use the patient's medical chart on their desk at the end of the work day

the patient identifiers info is not removed from documetation sent to the insurance company

In which of the following scenarios would a pharmacologic stress test most likely be used to diagnose a cardiovascular condition? the patient is unable to exercise the patient has medication allergies the patient has food allergies the patient has a sedentary lifestyle

the patient is unable to exercise A pharmacologic stress test is a procedure used for diagnosing cardiovascular conditions. Stress to the cardiovascular system is induced with the use of pharmacologic agents. This type of test is usually performed when a routine exercise stress test is contraindicated because the patient is unable to exercise.

the ratio of a drugs effectiveness to its letha effects is called ___ ___

therapeutic index

In patients with congestive heart failure, prolonged use of Lasix may lead to: thiamine deficiency vitamin C deficiency renal disease anemia

thiamine deficiency Prolonged use of Lasix has been shown to cause thiamine deficiency in patients with congestive heart failure. Thiamine deficiency is particularly concerning in this patient population because levels of thiamine correlate to the force of myocardial contraction and cardiac performance in general.

digital clubbing is a deformity of the fingers and nails characterized by ___ of the ___ fingers. It is associated with disease of the __ and or __ and is often the result of chronic tissue hypoxia. This condition is not associated with Raynaud's disease. As a vasospasm ends during an episode of Raynaud's disease there is a period Of hyperemia where oxygenated blood rushes back into the capillaries of the digits. This results in an intense redness and throbbing of the digits

thickening distal lungs heart

lateral epicondylitis test patient seated. the patient is asked to extend the __ digit against resistance. a positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region or muscle weakness and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis

third

a ___ is a procedure that includes removal of gluid from the pleural space with aneedle for microbiologic and cytologic studies

thoracentesis

Aspiration of fluid from the lung performed by the insertion of a needle is known as: thoracentesis lumbar puncture hemothorax decompression

thoracentesis A thoracentesis refers to aspiration of fluid from the pleural space using a needle. This procedure is typically performed when large amounts of fluid are present. The placement of a chest tube is also a method by which fluid can be removed from the pleural space.

wright test: tests for __ __ __ and compression in the ___ space therapist moves patients arm overhead in the frontal plain while monitoring the radial pulse an absence of the radial pulse is a positive test

thoracic outlet syndrome costoclavicular

cylindrical grasp: the entire hand wrapping around an object with the ___ on one side and the four fingers on the ____ side of the object. this type of grasp is used for cylindrical shaped objects, such as a __ __

thumb opposite soda can

tip prehension (tip pinch) __ __ so that the tip of the thumb contacts the tip of __ __. this type of grip may be used when holding a ___

thumb opposition another finger needle

the __ __ has its peak muscle activity just after heel strike

tib anterior

dorsiflexion (4)

tib anterior extensor hallucis longus extensor digitorum longus peroneus tertius

plantar flexion (7)

tib posterior gastroc soleus peroneus longus peroneus brevis plantaris flexor hallucis

inversion (3)

tib posterior tib anterior flexor digitorum longus

__ __ is the volume of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal resting breath __ __ is the greatest volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs after taking the deepest breath possible __ __ __ the volume of air contained in the lungs at the end of a maximal inspiration

tidal volume vital capacity total lung capacity

A physical therapist assistant transfers a patient in a wheelchair down a curb with a forward approach. Which of the following actions would be the MOST appropriate? 1.have the patient lean forward 2.have the wheelchair brakes locked 3.tilt the wheelchair backwards 4.position yourself in front of the patient

tilt the wheelchair backward

osteporosis primarily affects __ and __ bone where the rate of bone resorption accelearates while th rate of bone formation declines primary osteoporosis can be ___, __ __, or ___ secondary osteoparosis can occur as a result of another primary condition or with use of certain medications a __ __ __ test accounds for 70% of bone strength and is the easiest way to determine osteoporosis risks for osteoporosis includes increased alcohol intake, smoking, caucasion race and prolonged corticosteroid use

trabecular cortical idiopathic post menopausal senile (involutional) bone mineral density

Osgood-Schlatter disease also known as __ __ results from repetitive traction on the __ __ the condition is caused by repetitive tension to the patellar tendon over the tibial tuberosity in young athletes. signs and symptoms include point tenderness over the patella tendon at the insertion on the tibial tubercle and antalgic gait the age of onset is typically associated with periods of rapid growth during puberty

traction apophysitis tibial tuberosity

which wound dressings are best indicated for a stage one pressure ulcer? foams transparent films hydrocolloids hydrogels

transparent films

The tubercles of the ribs articulate with which structure of the thoracic vertebrae?

transverse process

Gastroesophageal reflux disease is the result of an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter that allows reflux of gastric contents. This backwards movement of stomach acids and contents can cause esophageal tissue injury overtime as well as other pathology. Considerations for a patient that presents with GERD would include avoiding certain exercises, avoiding exercising in a recumbent position, avoiding ____ position and the ___ sidelying position, and avoiding tight clothing.

trendelenburg right

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury. Which muscle would NOT be innervated based on the patient's level of injury? 1.biceps 2.deltoid 3.triceps 4.diaphragm

triceps The biceps muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C6). 2.The deltoid muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve (C5-C6). 3.The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve (C7-C8). 4.The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5).

Antidepressant medications are classified into groups according to function or chemical criteria. As a group, there are broad range of side effects including sedation, sexual dysfunction, overstimulation, anxiety, seizure activity, arrhythmias, and orthostatic hypotension. ___ antidepressants are particularly inherent to producing sedation Sedation is the primary side effect with ___ antidepressant however other side effects can include confusion even delirium secondary to the medication anticholinergic properties. Tricyclic antidepressants have been associated with __ __ and therefore should be used with great caution

tricyclic tricyclic fatal overdoses

an inability to clench the teeth may be indicative of ___ nerve damage

trigeminal

an inability to protrude the amdible may be indicative of __ nerve damage

trigeminal

cranial nerve tested by assessing sharp vs dull sensation

trigeminal

What are the two phases of movement that should occur in sequence during the analysis of trunk raising from a supine position? trunk curl phase and hip flexion phase trunk curl phase and neck flexion phase hip flexion phase and pelvic tilt phase hip flexion phase and vertebral flexion phase Kendall's trunk raising progression consists of a trunk curl phase and a hip flexion phase. The trunk curl phase occurs as the abdominals curl the spine with the upper back rounding and the lower back flattening. The hip flexion phase occurs as the trunk and pelvis are lifted off the table as a result of hip flexion.

trunk curl phase and hip flexion phase

aerobic red tonic slow twitch slow oxidation what type of muscle fiber is this?

type I

Which nerve is situated in the sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process of the elbow joint? median musculocutaneous radial ulnar

ulnar Tapping of the finger in the sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process of the elbow joint can create a tingling sensation in the ulnar nerve distribution of the forearm, hand, and fingers (Tinel's sign). This finding may be indicative of ulnar nerve compression or ulnar nerve compromise.

All of the following methods of heat transfer would be considered examples of radiation except: infrared lamp ultrasound laser ultraviolet light

ultrasound Ultrasound transfers heat through conversion. Radiation refers to the direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of cooler temperature.

phonophoresis is ___ that helps with the absorption of ___ into the skin and __ __. local pain relievers and anti inflammatory drugs are often used with phonophoresis such as ___, __, and ___.

ultrasound medication deeper tissues lidocaine dexamethasone salicylates

cerebral palsy hydrocephalus ALS (both upper and lower) CVA birth injuries MS Huntington's chorea TBI pseudobulbar palsy brain tumors are all examples of a __ __ neuron lesion

upper motor

muscles that perform scapular elevation (2)

upper trap levator scap

the righting reflex is a general term used to describe a group of reflexes that are responsible for the development of __ __ and smooth transitional movements. __ __ occur in response to a change in body position or surface support to maintain body alignment.

upright posture equilibrium reactions

what training protocol is appropriate to gain muscle hypertrophy and strength?

using 80% of 1 RM and performing 3 sets of 10 reps using 70% of 1 RM and performing 3 sets of 12 reps

if a goal is to achieve maximum muscular strength, what resistive training protocol is most appropriate?

using 95% of i RM and performing 1 set of 8 reps

Which structure(s) provides information about body position with reference to the force of gravity and linear acceleration? vestibular nuclei utricle and saccule semicircular canals ear canal

utricle and saccule The utricle and saccule are otolith organs located in the inner ear. The structures are part of the balancing apparatus located within the vestibule of the bony labyrinth. If the head is tilted or accelerates, the hair cells in these organs respond accordingly and send necessary information to the brain.

ulnar collateral ligament instability test the patient is seated. the therapist holds the patient's thumb in extension and applies a __ force to the ___ joint of the thumb. a positive test is indicated by excessive __ movement and may be indicative of a tear of the ulnar collateral and accessory collatreal ligaments. this type of injury is referred to as gamekeeper or skier's thumb

valgus MCP valgus

What is the most common cause associated with transtibial amputation? infection trauma tumors vascular disease

vascular disease

__ __ is the most common cause of transfemoral amputation

vascular disease

All of the following are considered indications for ultrasound use except: vascular insufficiency calcium deposits pain dermal ulcers

vascular insufficiency Vascular insufficiency is considered a contraindication for ultrasound therapy. Other contraindications include malignancy, infection, over areas of decreased temperature sensation, and over the eyes, heart, genitals or breast implants.

A patient status post CVA presents with symptoms on both the right and left sides of the body. She has diplopia, dysphagia, and vertigo. She has a taxia, balance impairment, and nystagmus. Which CVA syndrome is likely? Middle cerebral artery syndrome anterior cerebral artery syndrome posterior cerebral artery syndrome vertebral basilar artery syndrome

vertebral basilar artery syndrome The vertebral basilar artery supplies the medulla, pons, and cerebellum. Patients with vertebral basilar artery Syndrome have a wide variety of symptoms I can be on the same side or opposite side of infarct. There is cranial nerve involvement diplopia dysphagia dysarthria definition vertigo as well as a taxia. They can have Wallenberg syndrome deficits and visual disturbances balance and gait deficits for locked-in syndrome.

Swings are used for children with sensory integration disorders in order to provide ___ input. The vestibular system plays a role in the development of body posture, muscle tone, ocular motor control, integration of reflexes, and equilibrium reactions. Addressing the vestibular system would not directly address the child's dyspraxia

vestibular

potential side effects nonopioid agents

vetigo nausea vomitting abdominal pain GI distress or bleeding ulcer formation reye syndrome in children (aspirin only)

What origin of pain can be referred superficially, but typically has a deep aching quality? cutaneous musculoskeletal visceral central

visceral Visceral pain often refers superficially, but is marked by a deeper, more aching quality than cutaneous pain. Determining the correct origin of pain is essential when selecting appropriate interventions.

__ __ is the volume change that occurs between maximal inspiration and maximal expiration. it is = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume. it is 75% of total lung volume

vital capacity

Which of the following is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis? diarrhea vomiting hyperventilation renal failure

vomitting Metabolic alkalosis occurs when excess bicarbonate accumulates in the body or acid is lost. The most common cause is loss of stomach acid from prolonged vomiting or excess gastric suction. Diarrhea and renal failure would be more likely to cause metabolic acidosis, while hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis.

if bilateral hip abductor weakness exists, it is known as a __ __

waddling gait

__ __, __ __, and ankle plantar flexion __ can all be caused of knee hyperextension during stance loading response phase of gait. hamstring spasticity would most likely cause excessive _ __ during loading response

weak quads quad spasticity contracture knee flexion

MRSA is a bacteria found on healthy human skin and poses an infection concern for those with __ __ __. it can appear as a __ at the site of visible skin trauma and areas covered by hair. transmission occurs via contact and people who work in these facilities are susceptible

weakened immune systems postule

bronchiectasis disease that causes __ and ___ of the bronchial walls

weakness expansion

Which of the following pieces of equipment we support an environment with a minimal lift guideline for the employees? slideboard sit to stand mechanical lift Hoyer lift Wheelchair

wheelchair Many facilities now have minimal lift guidelines in place to minimize injuries to the worker especially for the back neck or shoulders. Additionally minimalist guidelines are meant to minimize injury to the patients. Lift equipment should be used when a patient with minimal assistance for transfers. My boards wear lifts and sit-to-stand mechanical lifts are all examples of equipment that is sit with lifting and transfers. A wheelchair does not assist with transfers as it does not offer any lifting assist

A physical therapist assistant discusses the plan of care for a 61-year-old male diagnosed with spinal stenosis with the referring physician. During the discussion the physician shows the physical therapist assistant a picture of the patient's spine obtained through computed tomography. What color would vertebrae appear when using this imaging technique? 1.black 2.light gray 3.dark gray 4.white

white

TMD is most common in ___ in their __ __ years

women childbearing

Heberden's nodes consist of palpable osteophytes in the distal interphalangeal joints and are usually seen in ___, but not ___. This finding is a characteristic of osteoarthritis which is a chronic disease that causes degeneration of articular cartilage, primarily in weight bearing joints.

women men

muscle group that is affected by median nerve pathology this nerve is also involved in __ __ __

wrist flexors carpal tunnel syndrome

diagnostic imaging arteriography such as an angiography: uses __ imaging and an injected contrast dye to visualize blood vessels. this technique can visualize the major systemic __ as well as the arterial systems that perfuse the major organs. a catheter is inserted into an artery, either at the __ or __ and is guided up to the heart. the test can be used to identify arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformations, tumors or blockages advantages: useful in the diagnosis of vascular deformities disadv: __ procedure contrast dye may cause __ __

xray arteries groin arm invasive allergic reaction

arthrography is a procedure that uses __ imaging and an injected contrast dye to visualixe __ sturctures. a long needle is injected directly into the joint ( __ arthrography) or it can be injected into a blood vessel and then absorbed into the joint space ( ___ arthrography) xrays are then taken with the joint in __ __. these are useful in identifying ___ of joint structures. page 609

xray joint direct indirect different positions pathology

which is not one of the three zones of a burn wound? zone of healing zone of hyperemia zone of coagulation zone of stasis

zone of healing

healing of specific tissue types: ligaments- _____ sprain grades I- ___ tear without __ __ II- __ __ with __ __ __ III- __ __ with profound __ of __ IV- __ with avulsion with __ of __ takes __ __ __ to fully heal tensile strength __-__% of normal after __ __

"sprains" microscopic joint laxity partial tear moderate joint laxity full tear instability joint tear profound instability joint over one year 50-70% one year

the amount of degrees each joint needs during gait: ankle dorsiflexion- knee flexion- ankle plantarflexion- hip flexion-

0-10 0-60 0-20 0-30

Normal elbow ROM normal knee ROM

0-150 0-135

wrist extension is __-__ degrees wrist flexion is __-__ degrees wrist radial deviation is __-__ degrees wrist ulnar deviation is __-__ degrees

0-70 0-80 0-20 0-30

quadriplegia involves all four extremities and trunk and occurs with an injury between __and __. paraplegia involves both LE and varying levels trunk and occurs with an injury between levels __and __to__

C1-C8 T1 T12 L1

dermatome: shoulder area, clavicular area, upper scapula area myotome: upper trap, levator scapulae reflexes: none what nerve root is this?

C4

dermatome: deltoid area, anterior aspect of the entire arm to the base of the thumb myotome: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, deltoid, biceps reflexes: biceps, brachialis what nerve root is this?

C5

A physical therapist assistant develops a chart detailing expected functional outcomes for a variety of spinal cord injuries. Which is the highest spinal cord injury level at which independent transfers with a sliding board would be feasible? 1.C4 2.C6 3.T1 4.T3

C6

dermatome: anterior arm, radial side of thumb and index finger myotome: biceps, supinator, wrist extensors reflexes: bicpes, brachioradialis what nerve root is this?

C6

dermatome: lateral are and forearm to index, long, and middle fingers myotome: triceps, wrist flexors, (rarely wrist extensors) reflex: triceps what nerve root is this?

C7

What condition best describes a group of lung diseases that block airflow due to narrowing of the bronchial tree? acute respiratory distress syndrome bronchopulmonary dysplasia chronic obstructive pulmonary disease restrictive lung disease

COPD Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is commonly associated with a group of lung diseases that block airflow due to narrowing of the bronchial tree. Progression of the disease includes alveolar destruction and subsequent air trapping. Patients have an increased total lung capacity with a significant increase in residual volume.

Huffing is an airway clearance techniques more effective in patients with collapsible Airways such a ___ performed by taking a moderate or deep __ and forcibly ___ the air tracheal stimulation is used with patients unable to __ on ___ by placing a finger of of the suprasternal notch in a quickly applying inward and downward pressure on the trachea. Endotracheal suctioning requires that a catheter be fed into an artificial Airway oral Airway or the Nares to the Carina

COPD breath expelling cough command

deformities seen with osteoarthritis include heberden nodes and bouchard nodes heberden nodes affect the __ bouchard nodes affect the ___

DIP PIP

thromboangiitis obliterans is a chronic inflammatory vascular occlusive disease a small arteries and also veins.

Diabetic angiopathy is an inappropriate elevation of blood glucose levels and accelerated atherosclerosis

Congenital hip dysplasia is a condition characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within the acetabulum. The condition develops during the last trimester in utero and is often treated with the use of a harness, bracing, splinting or traction. The malalignment does not resolve with skeletal maturity, although it can be effectively treated through conservative or surgical methods.

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance in the blood supply (i.e., avascular necrosis). This type of structural condition does not resolve with skeletal maturity.

A patient with cardiac arrhythmias has been prescribed beta-blockers. What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's activity tolerance? Rate of perceived exertion visual analog scale palpation of radial heart rate assessment of telemetry strip

RPE Beta blockers are pharmacological agents that are prescribed to address cardiac ischemia, hypertension, and cardiac arrhythmias. Beta blockers decrease the myocardial oxygen demand. Decreasing sympathetic input to the heart tissue. As a result, heart rate and contractility decrease

dermatome: lateral and plantar aspect of foot myotome: calf and hamstrings, wasting of gluteals, peroneals, plantar flexors reflexes: SLR limited, achilles reflex weak or absent what nerve root is this?

S1

When measuring lateral trunk flexion using a goniometer, the axis of the goniometer should be placed directly over the spinous process of which vertebrae? L1 L3 L5 S2

S2

The electrocardiogram is composed of a number of different waves PRT sometimes U and the terms irregular and regular usually refer to the rhythm of the heart rate such as the distance between similar waves. A sinus rhythm indicates that the cardiac impulse originates in the __ __. Sinus bradycardia is a sinus rhythm with a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute

SA node

overload principle: the stimulus provided must be above the typical demands for adaptation to occur

SAID principle: adaptations will be specific to imposed demands. the body will adapt according to the specific type of training that is utilized

muscles that perform cervical rotation and sidebending (7)

SCM scalenes splenius cervicis longissimus cervicis levator scap multifidus

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient that sustained a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and a medial meniscus tear. Which scenario would result in the GREATEST likelihood of a successful surgical meniscus repair? 1.a tear involving the inner third of the meniscus with reconstruction of the ACL 2.a tear involving the inner third of the meniscus with conservative management of the ACL 3.a tear involving the outer third of the meniscus with reconstruction of the ACL 4.a tear involving the outer third of the meniscus with conservative management of the ACL

a tear involving the outer third of the meniscus with recontruction of the ACL

an upper extremity condition that presents with a deep aching pain that may spread down the anterior arm often associated with repetitive overhead movements special tests that are used __ and ___

bicipital tendonitis speed's and yeargasons

Posterior alignment of the wheel axle is often utilized for patients with ___ ____ to increase stability and compensate for the change in center of gravity. This type of adaptation may also be utilized in a recliner or tilt wheelchair the posterior alignment of the wheel axle increases the amount of rolling resistance which serves to decrease the mechanical efficiency of the wheelchair the posterior alignment of the wheel axle decreases the ability of the patient to ___ a ____ Patients with spinal cord injuries may have a wheel axle move ____ to make it easier to perform a wheelie the disposition moves axle closer to the patient center of gravity

bilateral amputation perform wheelie forward

A 28-year-old patient with bilateral transtibial amputations secondary to a motor vehicle accident works on ambulation activities prior to being discharged from a rehabilitation hospital. Which type of assistive device would be the MOST appropriate to utilize during the training session assuming an unremarkable recovery? 1.cane 2.bilateral canes 3.bilateral forearm crutches 4.walker

bilateral forearm crutches Forearm crutches also known as lofstrand crutches can be used with all levels of weight bearing. Lofstrand crutches can be used with two point, three point, four point, swing to and swing through gait patterns. Foster in crutches would be the most appropriate assistive device since they allow for a more normal gait pattern while providing the necessary level of stability A walker offers a substantial base of support good stability and can be used with all levels of weight bearing. The Walker is used with a three-point gait pattern but does not allow for adequate biomechanics during gait and would not typically be necessary for the patient giving their medical diagnosis and age

a fracture involving the lateral and medial malleolus is a __ fracture

bimalleolar

The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex is present from __ to __ months The moro reflex is present from __ __ __ to __ months The landau reflex is an equilibrium response that occurs when a child responds to prone suspension by aligning their head and extremities in line with the plane of the body. It is not fully integrated until the child's __ year The normal age of the response is from __-__ months

birth 6 28 weeks gestation 5 2nd 6-8

Cerebrospinal fluid would appear as ___ using computed tomography since it is Radiolucent Soft tissue structures would appear as various Shades of Grey depending on their relative ___ a structure that is darker gray has less relative density than a structure that appears as a lighter shade of grey

black density

Which group of individuals is most at risk for systemic lupus erythematosus? African-American men African-American women Caucasian men Caucasian women

black women Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is more common among women than men. African-American women are three times more likely to acquire SLE than are Caucasian women. SLE is also more common among women who are Asian, Hispanic, or of certain American-Indian backgrounds.

bone stages of fracture healing: ____ occurs followed by formation of hematoma in the first __to__ __ generally, bone healing takes __to__ __ factors influencing bone healing: previous __ of bone proper maintenance of immobilization and alignment for appropriate period of time amount of __ of __ (severity of fracture and whether fracture is displaced) site of fracture (__ bone heals more quickly than __ bone) more vascular regions heal more quickly bones surrounded by significant muscle bulk heal more quickly extent of trauma (# of bone fragments, open vs. closed) age (elderly heal slower than children type of fracture (__ and __ fractures heal more quickly than __ fractures

bleeding 24-48 hours 4-12 weeks integrity disruption periosteum cancellous cortical oblique spiral transverse

The physical therapy evaluation details that a patient suffered a superficial partial thickness second degree burn. What can the physical therapist assistant expect to see in the patient? Blisters, inflammation, and severe pain blisters, inflammation, no pain red or white appearance, edema, blisters, and severe pain white, gray, or black appearance, dry surface, edema eschar little pain

blisters, inflammation, and severe pain A superficial partial thickness burn is a second degree burn. The skin layers affected include the epidermis and upper layers of the dermis. It is characterized by blisters inflammation and severe pain. Feeling typically occurs in 7 to 21 days A deep partial thickness burn is also a second degree burn. The skin layers affected include the epidermis dermis nerve endings hair follicles and sweat glands. It is characterized by a red or white appearance edema blisters and severe pain and healing typically occurs in 21 to 28 days a full thickness burn is classified as a third degree burn. The skin layers affected include the epidermis dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by white gray or black appearance dry surface edema eshcar and little pain

angotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor agents are used to decrease __ __ they do this by suppressing the enzyme that converts __ __ to __ __ used in patients with __ and __ __ __

blood pressure angiotensin I angiotensin II hypertension congestive heart failure

What condition is the drug digitalis commonly used to treat? arteriosclerosis cardiac arrhythmias chronic obstructive pulmonary disease pulmonary stenosis

cardiac arrhythmias Digitalis is a cardiac glycoside that is generally used in the management of arrhythmias, though it is also commonly used to treat congestive heart failure. Digitalis works by either enhancing parasympathetic activity or depressing sympathetic activity, thus slowing the heart rate and depressing electrical conductivity.

Regarding neoplasms, which type of malignant tumor originates from the epithelial tissues? Sarcoma Leukemia Lymphedema carcinoma

carcinoma A carcinoma is a malignant tumor that originates from epithelial tissues such as the skin stomach: breast and rectum

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient diagnosed with epilepsy who is taking carbamazepine tegretol. Which of the following potential adverse effects should the assistant recognized as a primary side effect of this medication? Muscle wasting or atrophy cardiac arrhythmias joint pain and swelling respiratory depression

cardiac arrhythmias Anticonvulsant medications generally attempt to inhibit firing of certain cerebral neurons through various channels. There are many potential adverse side effects for anticonvulsants including dizziness drowsiness fatigue sedation nausea and cardiac arrhythmias

Which category of drug acts to strengthen the myocardium? cardiac glycosides beta blockers diuretics nitrates

cardiac glycosides Cardiac glycosides are prescribed to maintain a normal heart rhythm and rate. They also act to strengthen the myocardium and result in an increased cardiac output.

What is the term used to describe the point at which a drug no longer produces an additional increase in response? floor effect ceiling effect potency toxic

ceiling effect The ceiling effect, or maximal efficacy, of a drug refers to the point at which there is no further increase in response, even with additional increases in the dosage of the drug. Potency refers to which dosage amount will produce a given response with a specific amplitude.

A patient with osteoporosis is referred to physical therapy following the diagnosis of a healing T10 vertebral compression fracture. Which of the following exercises should be avoided as part of the patient's plan of care? Seated shoulder horizontal abduction with a resistance band push-ups from a countertop planks from the knees and forearms abdominal crunches on the floor

abdominal crunches on the floor Vertebral compression fractures in the most common type of fracture in patients with osteoporosis. Vertebral compression fractures occur when the vertebral body collapses in on itself which can result in pain and spinal deformity such as kyphosis. Patients with osteoporosis and or vertebral compression fractures should avoid movements that involve excessive flexion of the spine

class one lever: the __ is between the __ and __. a class 1 lever is illustraed with the ___ force on the olecranon with an external counterforce pusing on the forearm. another example of a class one lever is a __

axis (fulcrum) effort (force) (muscle) resistance (load) (object) (gravity) seesaw

The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex normally occurs in infants from birth to 6 months of age when the head is rotated to one side. This reflex causes ___ of the extremity toward the side of rotation.

extension

The positive support reflex is characterized by rigid ___ of the lower extremities. The reflex begins at birth and is integrated at six months of age. The stimulus for the positive support reflex is weight placed on the balls of the feet in an upright standing position.

extension

MMT of the TFL should apply resistance in the direction of __ and ___

extension adduction

Boutonniere deformity includes ___ of the MCP and DIP joint with __ of the PIP joint

extension flexion

the __ or __ configuration Is a common technique used for application of kinesiology tape when the goal is to decrease swelling. Some Studies have shown that kinesiology tape can improve blood flow in the skin and improve circulation of lymphatic fluids

fan web

a lower motor neuron sign that is present in patients with ALS

fasiculations

duchanne muscular dystrophy is a progressive disorder which causes ___ and ___ ___ to replace muscle the patient is born with a mutation in the ____ gene ___

fat connective tissue dystrophin Xp21

body composition is defined as the relative percentage of body weight that is comprised of __ and __-__ tissue. There are multiple methods for testing the percentage of body fat including __ __, __ measurements, plethysmography, and BMI, and bioelectrical impedance analysis

fat fat-free hydrostatic weighing skinfold

with left sided heart failure, oxygenated blood will not be able to pump to the body adepquately. because of this, the patient will be ___ and have __ __. there will be a backflow of blood into the pulmonary vein/arteries and cause ___ upon exertion. the last symptom will be __ dysfunction

fatigued muscle weakness dyspnea kidney

Pacinian corpuscles location

fibrous layer of joint capsule high frequency vibration, acceleration, and high velocity changes in joint position respond to deep pressure and vibration

Chorea is a form of hypokinesia that presents with brief irregular contractions that are rapid but not to the degree of myoclonic jerks. Chorea is typically secondary to damage of the caudate nucleus. the condition is often equated to ____ and therefore would be unlikely to contribute to the describe scenario

fidgeting

an oximeter can be placed on the __, __, nose, and even the __

finger toe ear

A physical therapist assistant attempts to assess the extent of ataxia in a patient's upper extremities. The preferred method to assess and document ataxia is through a: 1.manual muscle test 2.sensory test for light touch 3.functional assessment of rolling in bed 4.finger to nose test

finger to nose test Ataxia refers to the inability to perform coordinated movements usually as a result of cerebellar pathology. A taxia can affect gait, patterns of movement, and posture. The condition increases the incidence of errors in the rate Rhythm and timing of responses a finger to nose test requires the patient to perform coordinated and controls voluntary movement. A patient with Ataxia may have difficulty completing the activity in an accurate and fluid manner

The most common sites for osteoarthritis are the ___, ___, ___ and ___ because they are weight bearing joints. Less common sites include the ankle, wrist, and elbow. Pain from osteoarthritis is typically described as deep, poorly localized, and aching which is exacerbated by activity and relieved by rest.

fingers knees hips spine

a normal end feel for knee extension would we

firm

increased tone tightening of the capsule ligament shortening are all examples of __ abnormal end feel

firm

wrist flexion (3)

flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, palmaris longus

A physical therapist assistant completes a series of manual muscle tests on a patient diagnosed with C6 quadriplegia. Based on the patient's level of injury, which muscle would NOT typically be innervated? 1.pectoralis major 2.flexor digitorum superficialis 3.serratus anterior 4.extensor carpi radialis

flexor digitorum superficialis

finger flexion (4)

flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digiti minimi (5th digit), interossei, lumbricals

stride length is defined as the distance measured between __ __ and the following __ __ of the __ __. the avg stride length for an adult is __ inches. step length is defined as the distance measured between __ __ and subsequent __ __ of the __ __. the avg step length for an adult is __ inches

heel strike heel strike same limb 56 heel strike heel strike opposite limb 28

stride length the distance measured between right __ __ and the following __ __ __. avg is __ inches

heel strike right heel strike 56

the sharpened (or ___) Romberg position is when the patient is standing with __to __ __ stance. The patient folds his arms across the chest and stands statically for 30 seconds. Then the patient is asked to repeat this stands for 30 seconds with __ __ __. The test assesses and challenges static balance in standing

heel to toe tandem his/her eyes closed

common anthropometric measurements used for adults include __, __ , ___, waist-to-hip ratio, and percentage of body fat. these measurements are then compared to reference standards to assess items such as weight status and the risk of various diseases

height weight BMI

Which type of wheelchair would possess a seat that is significantly lower than a traditional wheelchair? "amputee" wheelchair "hemiplegic" wheelchair one-hand drive wheelchair ultralight wheelchair

hemiplegic The seat of a "hemiplegic" wheelchair is lowered approximately two inches to allow the patient to use the lower extremities to assist with wheelchair propulsion.

Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication to aquatic therapy? osteoarthritis rheumatoid arthritis hepatitis A cerebral palsy

hep A Hepatitis A is a virus that affects the liver and its function. Transmission occurs by close personal contact with an individual that has the infection or through the fecal-oral route. This form of hepatitis does not progress to a chronic disease or cirrhosis of the liver, instead patients usually recover in six to ten weeks. Treatment is supportive and the virus is self-limiting.

examples of anticoagulants are __ and ___

heparin coumadin

which muscle group functions to decelerate the lower leg during late swing phase? Peak activity of the hamstrings during the gait cycle occurs during the late swing phase when the hamstrings decelerate the unsupported limb.

hamstrings

arteriosclerosis refers to ____ of the artery walls that is typically associated with aging. ___ is a contraindication for electrotherapy however arteriosclerosis would not be

hardening phlebitis

Acetaminophen is an appropriate pain management medication for patients with gastritis, as it is processed through the ____ and does not exacerbate gastritis symptoms. Both antacids and proton pump inhibitors are medications that may be prescribed to manage gastritis symptoms

liver

Mechanical percussors are electronically or pneumatically powered devices employed as a substitute for manual percussion with the hands. They can be used to help __ __ __ after thoracic surgery, but only if the patient was retaining secretions

manual percussion mobilize bronchial secretions

Actin and myosin are the proteins that compose ____ These myofilaments form ____, which are the contractile units of the muscles. Actin is the thin filament composed of troponin and tropomyosin. Actin and myosin use cross-bridge cycling to contract the muscle fibers.

myofilaments sarcomeres

a fist grasp involves grasping around a ___ object so that the thumb and fingers ___. this is seen when grasping a ___

narrower overlap hammer

autolytic debridement: __ intervention that uses dressings to ___ ___ tissue

natural solubilize necrotic

apyphositis refers to inflammation of an apiphysis which is a __ ___from a bone. An apyphysis is a secondary ossification Center that functions as an attachment site for the musculotendinous unit. The site is highly susceptible to injury from repetitive stress or an acute injury

natural protuberance

specificity is a measure of the tests ability to give a true ___ that accurately reflects the proportion of those who truly have the condition being measured. sensitivity is a measure of the same tests ability to give a true ___

negative positive

structures that are affected by foraminal stenosis are __ __

nerve roots

A patient involved in a motor vehicle accident sustains a proximal fibula fracture. The fracture damaged the motor component of the common peroneal nerve. Ankle dorsiflexion and eversion are tested as 2/5. The MOST appropriate intervention to assist the patient with activities of daily living would be: 1.electrical stimulation 2.orthosis 3.exercise program 4.aquatic program

orthosis The use of an orthosis would ensure adequate foot clearance and stability during activities of daily living. This form of intervention would have an immediate impact on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living Electrical stimulation can be used to facilitate motor activity within the affected muscle, however, the effectiveness of this intervention may be limited depending on the severity of the damage to the nerve. In addition the intervention would not immediately assist the patient with activities of daily living

selected tricyclic antidepressants can increase the likelihood of __ __, however this is not nearly as common as sedation

orthostatic hypotension

antianginal agents some patients will ahve an increase in exercise tolerance since they will not be limited by episodes of angina other patients especially on beta blockers or calcium channel blockers will have a diminshed heart rate resonse to exercise and therefore may not be able to tolerate higher workloads these patients are also at risk for __ __ because these agents are also ___

orthostatic hypotension vasodilators

Which of the following special tests would only be administered to infants? Finkelstein test Froment's sign Ortolani's test Murphy sign

ortolani's test During Ortolani's test the patient lies supine with the hips flexed to 90 degrees. The therapist abducts the patient's hips and gentle pressure is applied to the greater trochanters until resistance is felt at approximately 30 degrees. A positive test is indicated by a click or a clunk and may be indicative of a dislocation being reduced.

a pediatric test for hip dysplasia

ortolani's test (watch YT video)

Which condition of the knee is commonly referred to as Jumper's knee and is a mechanical dysfunction resulting in traction epiphysitis of the tibial tubercle at the patellar tendon insertion? Osgood-Schlatter patella Alta patella Baja Pes anserine bursitis

osgood-schlatter Osgood-Schlatter Jumper's knee is a mechanical dysfunction resulting in traction epiphysitis of the tibial tubercle at the patellar tendon insertion. Physical Therapy goals include modification of activities to reduce stress

A physical therapist assistant educates a patient about their medical condition during a physical therapy session. During the discussion, the physical therapist assistant mentions that most patients experience resolution of symptoms when they stop growing. This scenario is MOST consistent with: 1.congenital hip dysplasia 2.Osgood-Schlatter disease 3.patellofemoral syndrome 4.Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

osgood-schlatter disease

An adolescent presenting with pain over the tibial tubercle most likely has: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease chondromalacia patella Osgood-Schlatter disease pes anserine bursitis

osgood-schlatter disease

An entry in a patient's medical record indicates that the patient has recently received viscosupplementation. This type of procedure is MOST commonly performed to treat: 1.arrhythmias 2.bursitis 3.osteoarthritis 4.spasticity

osteoarthritis viscosupplementation Is a technique in which hyaluronan is injected into a patient's joint. Hyaluronan is a polysaccharide that restores the normal viscosity of the synovial fluid and helps to restore the lubricating properties of synovial fluid within that joint

paget's disease is caused by heightened ___ activity

osteoclast

paget's disease: metabolic condition characterized by heighteined ___ activity. this praocess of excessive Bone formation lacks true structural Integrity. The bone appears ___, but lacks __ due to the high turnover of bone secondary to abnormal osteoclastic proliferation has a ___ componenet and affects patients over __ years of age Symptoms include musculoskeletal pain accompanied by bone deformities such as ___, coxa varus, Boeing of the long bones, and vertebral compression. The skull, clavicle, pelvis, femur, spine and tibia are common sites that will exhibit bony changes

osteoclast large strength genetic 50 kyphosis

Recurring fractures are a leading concern in individuals with what disorder? osteogenesis imperfecta Down syndrome cystic fibrosis asthma

osteogenesis imperfecta Osteogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal disorder of collagen synthesis that affects bone metabolism. Children with osteogenesis imperfecta often have delayed developmental milestones secondary to ongoing fractures.

oronasal mask facepeice designed to cover the nose and mouth with small vent holes to expel exhaled air along with a breathing connector. the device is used for __ __, but can be used to administer __, mucolytic detergents, or __.

oxygen therapy medications humidity

A physical therapist assistant instructs a patient with pulmonary pathology in energy conservation techniques. Which of the following techniques would be the MOST effective when assisting a patient to complete a selected activity without dyspnea? 1.diaphragmatic breathing 2.pacing 3.pursed-lip breathing 4.ventilatory muscle training

pacing Pacing is an integral component of energy saving techniques used by patients who present with dyspnea during activity. Pacing refers to dividing an activity into component parts so that the patient does not exceed the limits of their breathing capacity throughout each portion of the task. For example climbing up stairs is performed only on exhalation and by taking only one or two steps at a time

A patient diagnosed with fibromyalgia syndrome reports difficulty with managing flare-ups of their symptoms. Which of the following interventions should the physical therapist assistant most emphasized in order to address the patient's complaint? Lumbar stabilization exercises Desensitization Instruction in pacing activities General flexibility training

pacing activities Fibromyalgia syndrome is classified as a Rheumatology syndrome or a non articular rheumatic condition. Pain is the primary symptom caused by tender points within muscles, tendons, and ligaments. FMS is best treated with a multidisciplinary approach including education, medical management, and exercise. This population should not work through pain and often requires short exercise sessions initially due to a low tolerance for exertion

type II tonic or phasic? ___ fatiguability ___ capillary density ___ myoglobin content ____ fibers ___ blood supply fewer amounts of ____ examples:

phasic high low low large less mitochondria high jump, sprinting

pathology effectively controlled with dietary restriction

phenylketonuria

___ creates a graphic record of the sounds produced by the heart and great vessels

phonocardiography

the use of ultrasound for the transdermal delivery of medication is called __

phonophoresis

cranial nerve XI name: voluntary motor: SCM and trap to test: __ __ __

accessory resisted shoulder shrug

the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball is innervated by the __ nerve

trochlear

malignancy originating from the epithelium cells of organs

carcinoma

the __ is located at the base of the brain above the spinal cord

midbrain

Which ultrasound parameters would be most likely used to produce nonthermal effects? 0.5 W/cm2 with a 20% duty cycle 2.0 W/cm2 with a 20% duty cycle 0.8 W/cm2 1.5 W/cm2

0.5 W/cm2 with a 20% duty cycle Pulsed ultrasound is normally set between 0.5 to 0.75 W/cm2 with a 20% duty cycle for nonthermal effects. Intensity for continuous ultrasound is normally set between 0.5 to 2.0 W/cm2 for thermal effects.

transparent film is indicated for stage __ and __ pressure ulcers. it is a clear, adhesive, semipermeable membrane dressing. it is permeable to oxygen and moisture vapor but impermeable to water, bacteria, and environmental contaminants

1 and II

achilles tendon rupture typically occurs ___to__ inches about the insertion on the calcaneous achilles tendon rupture occurs most frequently when pushing off of a weight bearing extremity with an __ __, through unexpected _____ while weight bearing or with a forceful ___ contraction of the plantar flexors

1-2 extended knee dorsiflexion eccentric

the Braden scale is a scoring system commonly used to assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries. The Braden scale is comprised of six risk factors: sensory perception, level of Mobility, exposure to moisture, activity level, nutrition status, and exposure to friction and Shear. risk factors are scored on a scale from __-__ though exposure to __and __ is scored on a scale from 1 to 3 with a total possible score of 23. The lower the score the ___ the risk for developing a pressure injury

1-4 friction and shear higher

What percentage of total lung capacity is accounted for by tidal volume? 10% 25% 40% 50%

10% Tidal volume is the total volume of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing. Normal tidal volume is approximately 10% of total lung capacity.

What percentage of body weight would be borne through the lower extremities when walking in water immersed up to the neck? 10% 30% 70% 90%

10% The deeper the body is immersed in water the greater the buoyant force exerted on the body. As a result, with near full body immersion the actual weight bearing forces are extremely minimal.

what is the loose packed position of the distal radioulnar joint? what is the loose packed position of the radiohumeral joint? what is the closed packed position of the radiocarpal joint?

10* supination full elbow extension and full supination extension with radial deviation

Which of the following represents a normal carrying angle of the elbow? 0-5 degrees 10-15 degrees 20-25 degrees 30-35 degrees

10-15 In full extension, the elbow has a natural valgus angle that approximates 10-15 degrees.

normal blood sugar levels include a fasting plasma glucose level of __mg/dL or less and an oral glucose tolerance test of __mg/dL or less.

100 140

Normal blood sugar levels include a fasting plasma glucose level of __ mg per deciliter or less and an oral glucose tolerance test of __ mg per deciliter or less

100 mg/dL 140 mg/ dL

IV An advantage of IV Administration is that the drug can enter the circulation and reach the target tissue rapidly so this can become dangerous if an inaccurate dosage is given. IV Administration is a more accurate method of administering a drug since it is considered __ ___

100% bioavailable

Pre diabetic blood sugar levels indicate a fasting plasma glucose level of __-__ mg per deciliter and an oral glucose tolerance test level of __-__ ml per deciliter

100-125 140-199

grade II concussion a concussion that results from a moderate head injury with transient confusion that will last longer than __ __. The patient may exhibit poor concentration, retrograde and anterograde Amnesia. An athlete should be removed immediately from the competition and receive a medical evaluation. CT scan is indicated if symptoms worsen and return to play should be deferred until the athlete is asymptomatic for __ __ at rest and with exertion

15 mintues two weeks

A diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmhg may be indicative of a hypertensive response. However diastolic blood pressure readings greater than __ are considered relative, not absolute indications for terminating a graded exercise test

115 mm Hg

What is the minimum required testing interval for electrical equipment?

12 months

A typical child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy will lose the ability to walk at around __-__ years of age and need to transition to a wheelchair for mobility. Weakness induced changes in gait patterns typically begin to develop at approximately __-__ years of age. the gait abnormality you will see with these patients is __ __

12-13 3-6 waddling gait

normal resp rate for adult is __-__ breaths per minute tachypnea is an increase in rate of breathing greater than ___ breaths per minute bradypnea is a decreased rate of breathing less than __ breaths per minute dyspnea is a term used for __ __ __

12-20 20 12 shortness of breath

A physical therapist assistant conducts a goniometric assessment of a patient's glenohumeral joint to differentiate this motion from full motion of the shoulder complex. Which of the following values is most indicative of normal passive glenohumeral abduction 60° 120° 155 degrees 180 degrees

120 degrees shoulder complex emotion consists of a combination of motion occurring at the glenohumeral joint and the scapulothoracic articulation. When observing shoulder complex induction there is approximately a 2: 1 ratio of movement of the humerus to scapula

diabetic blood sugar levels include a fasting plasma glucose level of __ mg per deciliter or higher and an oral glucose tolerance test of __ mg per deciliter or higher.

126 mg/dL 200 mg/dL

When measuring carpometacarpal flexion of the thumb using a goniometer, the axis should be placed over the palmar aspect of the first carpometacarpal joint. The stationary arm should be aligned with ventral midline of the radius using the ventral surface of the radial head and radial styloid process for reference. The moveable arm should be aligned with the ventral midline of the first metacarpal. (watch youtube video) normal CMC flexion is __ degrees cmc extension is __ degrees

15 20

If the patient's blood pressure is already established, the therapist can use the known systolic measurement as the baseline value. The blood pressure cuff should then be inflated to __-__ mm Hg above the baseline value. If the patient's blood pressure is unknown, the therapist can estimate the baseline value by determining the amount of pressure needed to occlude the radial artery (i.e., the pressure at which the artery becomes occluded).

15-25

Which age would be most appropriate to decrease the wearing period of a scoliotic brace? 5 years old 7 years old 11 years old 16 years old A brace is often worn to prevent the progression of a spinal curvature. A ___ year-old would most likely have a decreased wearing period since the majority of skeletal growth has already occurred. Braces do not have an effect on scoliotic curves greater than degrees.

16 45

Seat depth is determined by measuring from the patient's posterior buttock, along the lateral side of the popliteal fold, then subtracting approximately 2 in to avoid pressure from the front edge of the sea against the public seal space. Normal seat depth in an adult size wheelchair is ___ in

16 inches

Back height in a standard wheelchair would typically be measured as: 14 inches 15 inches 16 inches 17 inches

16 inches Back height in a standard wheelchair is typically 16-16.5 inches. When measuring back height for a wheelchair, the therapist measures from the seat of the chair to the base of the axilla. The therapist then subtracts four inches from the obtained measure.

A physical therapist assistant prepares to use iontophoresis with a dosage of 40 mA-min to treat a patient with lateral epicondylitis. What is the expected duration of treatment if the therapist elects to use a current amplitude of 2.5 mA? 1.12 minutes 2.16 minutes 3.20 minutes 4.24 minutes

16 minutes

The back height is measured from the seat of the chair to the floor of the axilla with the patient's shoulder flexed to 90 degrees and then subtract approximately four inches. This will allow the final back height to be below the inferior angles of the scapulae. The average back height is __-__ inches.

16-16.5

a pressure of __-__ mmhg its characteristic of "off the shelf" stocking used to prevent deep vein thrombosis in patients who are in bed

16-18

A physical therapist assistant prepares to measure a patient's blood pressure prior to beginning a treatment session. The physical therapist assistant has taken the patient's blood pressure prior to the start of the last three sessions and on each occasion the patient's blood pressure was within a few mm Hg of 140/85 mm Hg. The MOST appropriate value to inflate the blood pressure cuff to is: 1.150 mm Hg 2.160 mm Hg 3.180 mm Hg 4.190 mm Hg

160

According to the rule of nines, 36% of the body is made up of the trunk, 18% for each lower extremity, 9% for each upper extremity, 9% for the head and neck, and 1% for the genitals. When using this method for a child, the head and neck make up __% of the body and the lower extremities each make up __%.

18 14

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the total body surface area would be allocated to the posterior surface of the bilateral legs and feet? 9% 18% 27% 36%

18% According to the rule of nines, an entire leg is 18% of the total body surface area. As a result, two (i.e., bilateral) posterior surfaces of the legs would also be 18%.

When administering the Rinne test, what is the normal expected ratio of bone conduction to air conduction? 1:1 1:2 1:3 1:4

1:2 When performing the Rinne test, the examiner holds the vibrating tuning fork against the mastoid process until sound is no longer heard, then it is placed 1-2 cm from the auditory canal until sound is no longer heard. The normal expected ratio of bone conduction to air conduction is 1:2.

A physical therapist assistant attempts to determine if a wheelchair is the appropriate size for a patient recently admitted to a rehabilitation program. As part of the assessment, the physical therapist assistant measures the distance from the front edge of the seat to the popliteal fold. If the seat depth is appropriate, how much space should exist between these two landmarks? 1.1 inch 2.2 inches 3.4 inches 4.6 inches

2 inches

Agility activities are demanding functional activities involving rapid change of Direction. The most appropriate frequency of agility activities is _ or _ days per week moderate-intensity aerobic activities should occur at least five days per week muscular strengthening activities are demanding physical activities that plays large amounts of stress on the body and often require __Hours of recovery between sessions involving the same muscle group. As a result __ to ___ days per week is a recommended frequency for muscle strengthening vigorous-intensity aerobic exercises should occur at least __ days per week. A frequency of 5 days per week would typically the excessive for the general population given the vigorous-intensity

2 or 3 48 2 or 3 3

A patient who recently had a total knee arthroplasty plans to ask the surgeon about their ability to drive at an upcoming visit. Which patient would be the best candidate to begin driving one week post TKA currently taking Tylenol 2 weeks post TKA currently taking Tramadol 2 weeks post TKA currently taking Tylenol 3 weeks post left TKA currently taking Tramadol

2 weeks post TKA currently taking tylenol

normal tissue pressure within the carpal tunnel is approximately __to__ mm Hg with the wrist at rest. but patients with carpal tunnel syndrome have a pressure greater than __ mm Hg which produces ischemia within the nerve

2-10 30

achilles tenonditis is a repetitive overuse disorder resulting in microscopic tears of collagen fibers on the surface or in the substance of the achilles tendon. the tendon is most often impacted in an avascular zone located __to__ centimeters above the insertion A patient with Achilles tendonitis will typically experience a gradual onset of pain and swelling localized 2-3 centimeters above the tendon's insertion on the calcaneus. Morning stiffness or pain at the start of activity are also classic signs associated with Achilles tendonitis.

2-6

lateral rotation lag sign (youtube) therapist moves shoulder into __ degrees of scaption and full lateral rotation and asks patient to hold that position. if the patient isnt able to, it may be indicative of teres minor/infraspinatus/supraspinatus tear

20

Orthostatic hypotension, or postural hypotension, occurs due to a loss of sympathetic control of vasoconstriction in combination with absent or severely reduced muscle tone. This condition commonly occurs in a hospital setting during positional changes due to venous pooling. A decrease in systolic blood pressure greater than __ mm Hg after moving from a supine position to a sitting or standing position or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure greater than __ mm Hg is typically indicative of orthostatic hypotension.

20 10

the normal amount of the gait cycle spent in double support phase is approx. __% and ___ with increasing gait speed

20 decreases

a pressure of __-__ mmhg is used to control Scar Tissue formation

20-30

According to the rule of nines, a burn affecting the posterior trunk and posterior left arm, forearm and hand, would constitute what percentage of the total body surface area? 9% 13.5% 18% 22.5%

22.5% The posterior trunk constitutes 18% of the total body surface area. The posterior surface of one arm, forearm and hand constitutes 4.5%.

When assessing a patient's ability to open their mouth fully, what distance between the top and bottom rows of teeth is considered functional? 10 millimeters 15 millimeters 20 millimeters 25 millimeters

25 mm

A drug with a half-life of 8 hours would be at what concentration percentage after 16 hours? 100% 75% 50% 25%

25% The half-life of a drug is the time that is required for the drug concentration in the body to be one-half of the original concentration due to the elimination process of the body. In this example, a drug with an 8 hour half-life would be at a 25% concentration after 16 hours.

Which age group is most likely to develop rotator cuff tendonitis? 5-20 year olds 25-40 year olds 45-60 year olds 65-80 year olds

25-40years old

A standard wheelchair supports how much weight? 150-200 lbs. 200-250 lbs. 250-300 lbs. 300-350 lbs.

250-300 lbs. Wheelchair frames are made out of tubular steel and are relatively heavy and difficult to handle. The standard chair can support up to 250-300 lbs of weight. Heavy-duty frames are usually wider and are required to support weights over 300 pounds.

A bathroom sink should have a minimum of ___ inches of clearance (height) under the sink to accommodate a wheelchair. doorway with a width of 28 inches would not be wide enough for a patient to safely propel a wheelchair through the doorway. The minimum width required for a doorway is ___ inches.

29 32

The shoulder complex consists of motion available from the glenohumeral joint and the scapulothoracic articulation. The glenohumeral joint and the scapulothoracic articulation contribute to shoulder complex range of motion in roughly a __:__ ratio. As a result, the glenohumeral joint contributes approximately __ degrees (___%) of shoulder complex abduction and the scapulothoracic articulation contributes approximately ___degrees (__%)

2:1 120 (67%) 60 (33%)

the ausculation landmark for the pulmonic valve is at the ___ ___ intercostal space at the sternal border the landmark for the aortic valve is at the ___ ___ intercostal space at the sternal border the landmark for the mitral valve is at the __ __ intercostal space at the midclavicular line

2nd left 2nd right 5th right

What ultrasound frequency should be used to heat tissues 1-2 centimeters in depth? 1 MHz 3 MHz 1.0 W/cm2 1.5 W/cm2

3 MHz A frequency of 3 MHz is best for heating more superficial tissues 1-2 cm deep, while 1 MHz is used to heat tissues up to 5 cm deep. W/cm2 is a measure of intensity.

any ramp with more than __ consecutive feet of horizontal run would require more than one section and a transitional landing area

30

Anteversion of the hip is measured by the angle made by the femoral neck with the femoral condyles and is commonly assessed using Craig's test. At birth, the mean angle is approximately __ degrees. In adults, the mean angle is __-__ degrees.

30 8-15

for medicare patients, what is the minimum requirement for completion of reevaluation by the supervising PT?

30 days

A physical therapist assistant serves as an accessibility consultant for a local retail store. What is the MINIMUM width required for a patient using a wheelchair to safely traverse through a doorway? 1.24 inches 2.30 inches 3.32 inches 4.36 inches The seat width in an average adult size wheelchair is ___ inches

32 inches 18

Which weather condition would be most likely to exacerbate edema in the limb of a patient with Stage 1 lymphedema? 73 degrees and sunny lymphedema is not affected by climate 95° humid day 30 degrees snowy day

95 degree humid day

What percentage of shoulder complex abduction occurs at the scapulothoracic articulation? 20 percent 33 percent 67 percent 80 percent

33%

A physician orders compression garments for an ambulatory patient who has significant difficulty with lower extremity edema. How much pressure would typically be necessary to control lower extremity edema? 10 mm of mercury 18 mm of mercury 20 mm hg 35 mm hg

35 mm Hg Compression garments are available in different thickness and different levels of pressure. The garments offer varying levels of pressure ranging from 10 mm HG to 50 mm HG. The amount of pressure selected must be determined based on the intended goals of the therapeutic intervention

Maximal tension on the S1 nerve root occurs in which range during a straight leg raise test? 0-35 degrees 35-70 degrees 70-90 degrees 90-100 degrees

35-70 Slack in the sciatic nerve is taken up in the first 35 degrees of movement and no further deformation occurs after about 70 degrees. This results in maximal tension during a straight leg raise from 35-70 degrees.

Which portion of tidal volume is typically involved in respiratory exchange? 50 mL 150 mL 250 mL 350 mL

350 mL 350 mL out of the 500 mL of tidal volume typically reaches the distal respiratory unit and takes part in gas exchange. The remaining 150 mL of the inhaled tidal breath remains in the conducting airways, or anatomic dead space, and does not participate in gas exchange.

what would be the estimated percentage of involved surface area if an adult sustained burns to their head and neck, anterior trunk, and entire L UE 18 9 45 36

36

A ramp should have a minimum width of __ inches in order for a patient to ascend and descend the ramp using a wheelchair. A ramp with a grade of __% reflects the maximum grade of a ramp. This grade indicates that for each inch of rise there will be 12 inches of run (i.e., 1/12 = 0.083 x 100 = 8.3%).

36 8.3%

Using the rule of nines, what percentage of the body is affected if there is a burn to the posterior trunk, posterior left lower extremity, and the entire left upper extremity? 31.5% 36.0% 40.5% 45.0%

36% The rule of nines is a method used to approximate the percentage of the body affected by a burn. The posterior trunk constitutes 18% of the total body surface area, the posterior portion of the left lower extremity constitutes 9%, and the entire left upper extremity constitutes 9% (4.5% for each side). 18%+9%+9% = 36%

A physical therapist assistant inspects the sole of a patient's foot with a neuropathic ulcer. Which region of the sole would MOST likely be affected? The ___ metatarsal head followed by the ___ metatarsal head are most commonly affected.

3rd 1st

the FDA monitors the safety of a drug with patients in real life scenarios during phase __ of testing

4

According to the American College of Rheumatology, how many of the 7 criteria must be satisfied for a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis to be confirmed? 3 4 5 6

4 https://www.uptodate.com/contents/diagnosis-and-differential-diagnosis-of-rheumatoid-arthritis#H10758726

A physical therapist assistant performs a sensory assessment on the sole of a patient's foot with a series of monofilaments.Which monofilament would be the least likely to be detected in a patient with a suspected sensory impairment 4.17 gauge 5.07 gauge 6.10 gauge 10.0 gauge

4.17 gauge Monofilament testing is a reliable method of assessing and documenting changes in protective sensation. Monofilament testing kids contain a variety of filament thicknesses which are applied perpendicular to the skin and held in place for approximately one second with enough Force to bend the filament into a c shape A 4.17 gauge monofilament would be the most difficult to detect since it bends with the smallest amount of force. As the value of the monofilament increases the testing instrument becomes progressively stiffer and more difficult to bend

What is the normal resting curvature of the lumbar spine? 10 degrees of lordosis 20 degrees of lordosis 40 degrees of lordosis 80 degrees of lordosis

40 degrees

Functional residual capacity accounts for approximately what percentage of the total lung capacity? 30% 40% 50% 60%

40% Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the sum of the residual volume (RV) and expiratory reserve volume (ERV). RV accounts for approximately 25% of total lung volume and ERV accounts for approximately 15% of total lung volume.

A patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure is referred to a cardiac rehabilitation program. Before treating the patient, the physical therapist assistant reviews the results of the patient's recent cardiac testing. Which of the following objective findings is MOST anticipated based on the patient's medical diagnosis? 1.40% left ventricular ejection fraction 2.54 beats per minute resting heart rate 3.100/59 mm Hg resting blood pressure 4.12 breaths per minute with exertion

40% left ventricular ejection fraction

what training protocol is appropriate to improve muscular endurance?

40% of 1 rep max performing 3 sets of 20 reps

At what angle of knee flexion is the quadriceps femoris capable of producing a maximum force contraction? 15 degrees 45 degrees 90 degrees 135 degrees

45 The range of 30-70 degrees of knee flexion is consistent with the maximum force production of the quadriceps femoris. As a result, many functional tasks occur with the knee positioned within this range.

When using compression pumps in Phase 2 of complete decongestive therapy what is the threshold pressure at which the pumpkin cause lymphatic collapse? 10 mm of Mercury 25 mm of Mercury 30 mm of mercury 45 mm of mercury

45 mmHg

a patient in the hospital following surgery set the target indicatior on an icentive spirometer. which individual would most likely have the highest target value when using the device? 35 year old female, 68 inches tall, post transmyocardial revasuclarization 45 yr old male, 72 incehs tall, post TKR 55 yr old female, 64 in tall, post cardiac valve replacement 55 yr old male, 70 inches tall, post CABG

45 year old male, 72 in tall, post TKR In a sustained maximal inspiration, a maximal inspiratory effort is held for three or more seconds at the point of Maximum inspiration before exhalation. SMI is also called incentive spirometry when using a device that provides a visual or other feedback to encourage the patient to take long slow deep inhalations. Appropriate and regular use of an incentive spirometer can help prevent or reverse atelectasis. Height gender and age can influence lung volumes. Males typically have larger lungs and females increased height correlates positive lead to increased Target incentive capacity and age has a negative impact on inspiratory capacity due to loss of elasticity in lung tissue

A physical therapist assistant attempts to assess a patient's relative risk for developing coronary artery disease. Which patient scenario would result in the patient being at the greatest risk? 1.a 51-year-old female with a sedentary lifestyle 2.a 53-year-old female with a high-density lipoprotein level of 60 mg/dl 3.a 48-year old male with total serum cholesterol of 224 mg/dl 4.a 55-year-old male with a body mass index of 26 kg/m2

48 yr old male with total serum cholesterol of 224 mg/dl Males are at more risk than females for developing coronary artery disease. The established risk threshold for males is equal to or greater than 45 years. Individuals with a total serum cholesterol of greater than 200 increases the relative risk of developing coronary artery disease

Which general rule best determines the length of treatment when using ultrasound? 2 minutes for every area that is 2-3 times that size of the transducer face 5 minutes for every area that is 2-3 times the size of the transducer face 5 minutes is the maximum treatment time regardless of the treatment area 10 minutes is the maximum treatment time regardless of the treatment area

5 minutes for every area that is 2-3 times the size of the transducer face Duration of ultrasound is determined based on a number of variables including the size of the treatment area. An area two to three times the size of the transducer typically requires a duration of five minutes.

when using underwater US the intensity should be increased by at least __%, the basin should be made of __ or __, and the transducer should be held __-__ cm away from the treatment area

50% rubber plastic 0.5-3.0 cm

Although both medical and nonmedical factors contribute to the decision to return to work after a cardiac event, the patient's performance on a graded exercise test can help assess their prognosis. Most patients can return to work as long as the average demand of their job is no greater than: 1.25% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test 2.50% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test 3.75% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test 4.100% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

50% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

Which value best approximates normal tidal volume in an adult? 100 ml 500 ml 1,000 ml 1,500 ml

500 mL

According to the rule of nines, at what age does a child reach the same body proportions as an adult? 9 12 15 18

9 A child under one year has 9% taken from the lower extremities and added to the head and neck region. Each year of life, 1% is distributed back to the lower extremities until the age of nine when the head is considered to be the same proportion as an adult.

How much extension of the first metatarsophalangeal joint would be necessary for a patient to stand on tiptoe? 10 degrees 30 degrees 40 degrees 55 degrees

55 Standing on tiptoe requires a patient to possess full plantar flexion range of motion and a minimum of 55 degrees of extension at the first metatarsophalangeal joint.

Normal ejection fraction is between __% and __%. A patient with an ejection fraction of 45% would be considered at moderate risk for increased morbidity and mortality. Though this patient may have decreased exercise tolerance due to a reduced ejection fraction they still would be allowed to engage in an exercise program

55-70

there are __ stages in the brunnstrom's stages of motor recovery

6

A physical therapist assistant completes a developmental assessment on an infant. At what age should an infant begin to sit with hand support for an extended period of time? 1.6-7 months 2.8-9 months 3.10-11 months 4.12-15 months

6-7 months

class I is mild CHF and the max amount of physical activity should be __ mets class II is slight CHF and physical activity should be limited up to __ mets class III is marked CHF and physical activity should be limited to a max of __ mets

6.5 4.5 3

The stance phase of a normal gait pattern is approximately __% of the gait cycle, leaving the remaining __% occurring in the swing phase.

60 40

_ degrees occurs at the scapulothoracic articulation

60 degrees

A normal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ranges between __-__%. A LVEF of less than 40% is typically indicative of heart failure. The normal resting adult heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. Patients with CHF typically present with a ____ heart rate (tachycardia) as opposed to a depressed heart rate (bradycardia) A diastolic blood pressure of __ mm Hg or less is considered hypotensive. Patients with CHF are more likely to be hypertensive or, if pharmaceutically managed, have a normal resting blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension may be noted as a side effect of common pharmaceutical agents..

60-70 elevated 60

A physical therapist assistant presents an in-service on the risk factors associated with developing osteoporosis. Which of the following patients would be the most at risk for developing osteoporosis? A 67 year old female with malabsorption syndrome a 70 year old female with metabolic alkalosis a 68 year old male with fibromyalgia a 72 year old male with cauda equina syndrome

67 year old female with malabsorption syndrome Risk factors associated with the development of osteoporosis include inadequate dietary calcium, smoking, excessive caffeine, high intake of alcohol or salt, small stature, Caucasian race, female gender, inactive lifestyle, a family history or a history of chronic disease. Secondary osteoporosis may be caused by prolonged drug therapies of Heparin or corticosteroid use, endocrine disorders malnutrition and other disease process The age and gender of this patient are consistent with an increased risk for osteoporosis. Additionally patients with malabsorption syndrome are at an increased risk for osteoporosis due to the reduced absorption of nutrients from the intestine, which may include calcium and vitamin D

the therapist is assessing the heart rate of a newborn infant and finds it to be 120 beats per minute. what is the normal range for heart rate in a pediatric patient? 60-100 70-170 40-60 150-210

70-170 the newborn average heart rate is 120 bpm

What percentage of the vital capacity is a patient typically able to exhale during the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)? 25% 50% 75% 100%

75% FEV1 is the percentage of the vital capacity which is expired in the first second of a maximal expiration. This value is typically greater than 75% of vital capacity, but would not approach 100%. FEV1 is significantly reduced in obstructive lung disease due to increased airway resistance.

What percentage of total lung capacity is accounted for by vital capacity? 25% 50% 60% 75%

75% Normal vital capacity is approximately 75% of total lung capacity. Vital capacity = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume. It is approximately 75% of total lung volume.

Which value would best reflect the intrapleural pressure during the resting phase of ventilation? 660 millimeters of mercury 760 millimeters of mercury 860 millimeters of mercury 960 millimeters of mercury

760 mm Hg During the resting phase of ventilation, there is no air exchange actively occurring between the lungs and the atmosphere. This is due to the pressure inside the lungs and the pressure of the atmosphere being roughly equal. Therefore, since atmospheric pressure is generally 760 mm Hg, the intrapleural pressure would be roughly the same.

Craig's test The patient is positioned in prone with the test knee Flex to 90 degrees. The therapist palpates the posterior aspect of the greater trochanter and medially and laterally rotates the hip until the greater trochanter is parallel with the table. The degree of femoral anteversion corresponds the angle formed by the lower leg with the perpendicular axis of the table. Normal anteversion for an adult is __-__ degrees

8-15

At what age can a physical therapist assistant first expect a pediatric patient to creep on hands and knees? 8-9 mo 10-11 mo 6-7 mo 12-15 mo

8-9 mo At age 8 to 9 months infants in typically creep on a hands and knees position. At this age the infant is also able to move from hands and knees to sitting position, without him support, pull to stand, walk alone furniture, and stand briefly without support

Normal thoracolumbar extension range of motion is 0-25 degrees. Normal thoracolumbar flexion range of motion is ___ degrees.

80

A physical therapist assistant measures passive forearm pronation and concludes that the results are within normal limits. Which measurement would be classified as within normal limits? 1.60 degrees 2.80 degrees 3.100 degrees 4.120 degrees

80 degrees

A patient reports experiencing pain with active shoulder range of motion testing. The physical therapist assistant hypothesizes that the pain may be associated with anterior glenohumeral instability. Which portion of the shoulder range of motion would the physical therapist assistant expect the pain to be MOST pronounced? 1.70-80 degrees of lateral rotation 2.80-90 degrees of lateral rotation 3.60-70 degrees of medial rotation 4.70-80 degrees of medial rotation

80-90 degrees lateral rotation 80-90 degrees of lateral rotation places the greatest amount of pressure on the anterior structures there for any level of inflammation irritation or structural damage may be likely to produce pain with active motion

rule of nines head and neck __% anterior trunk __% posterior trunk __% bilateral anterior arm, forearm, and hand __% bilateral posterior arm, forearm, and hand __% genital region __% bilateral anterior leg and foot __% bilateral posterior leg and foot __% children under one year has __% taken from the LEs and added to the __and__ region. each year of life, _% is distributed back to the LEs until the age of nine when the head is considered to be the same proportion as an adult

9 18 18 9 9 1 18 18 9 head neck 1

A physical therapist assistant prepares to measure the amount of femoral anteversion present in a patient referred to physical therapy. Which patient would the physical therapist assistant expect to exhibit the GREATEST amount of anteversion? 1.a 42-year-old female status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction surgery 2.a 32-year-old male with trochanteric bursitis 3.a 9-year-old female with patellofemoral syndrome 4.a 23-year-old male with anterior compartment syndrome

9 year old female with patellofemoral syndrome A 9-year-old female would have the greatest amount of anteversion. At this adolescent age the bones are still growing, so the amount of anteversion would not yet have reached adult values.

According to the rule of nines, a burn affecting the anterior right leg and foot would constitute what percentage of the total body surface area? 1.0% 9.0% 13.5% 18.0%

9.0% According to the rule of nines, the bilateral anterior legs and feet constitute 18% of the total body surface area. The anterior leg and foot of one leg therefore would constitute only 9%.

rotator cuff tears are graded according to depth (partial vs full) and according to width a small tear has a width of ___cm a medium tear has a width of __to __cm a massive tear has a width ___cm small partial thickness tears may only require ___ while all others recquire surgical repair in which the tear is reapproximated and fixated using sutures, anchors, tacks, or staples. after a rotator cuff repair, the arm will likely be placed in a sling with an ___ ___

<1 1-3 >5 debridement abduction pillow

Which receptor protects the body by limiting structural damage to the muscle in situations of extreme tension? Golgi tendon organ Merkel's discs muscle spindles free nerve endings

A Golgi tendon organs limit structural damage to the muscle by inhibiting the agonist and facilitating the antagonist.

Which sensory receptor is responsible for responding to mechanical deformation of the receptor by touch, pressure, stretch or vibration? mechanoreceptors chemoreceptors thermoreceptors proprioceptors

A Sensory receptors are located at the distal ends of peripheral neurons. Each type of receptor is specialized, responding only to a specific type of stimulus. Examples of mechanoreceptors include free nerve endings, Merkel's disks, Ruffini endings, hair follicle endings, Meissner's corpuscles, and Pacinian corpuscles.

The designation of a muscle fiber as fast-twitch or slow-twitch is primarily determined by which factor? the amount of time it takes the fiber to develop force and relax the amount of time it takes the fiber to reach a full contraction the amount of time it takes the fiber to relax from a full contraction the speed of transmission of an action potential

A The twitch classification of a muscle is determined by the time it takes for the fiber to develop force and then relax. A fast-twitch fiber develops force quickly and then quickly relaxes resulting in a short "twitch" time. A slow-twitch fiber develops force slowly and then takes longer to relax resulting in a long "twitch" time.

Hepatitis comes in all forms from __ to __ the most common types are __to ___ hepatits is __ in nature. other reactions include chemical, drug, or alcohol reaction Other viruses that can cause hepatitis include Epstein-Barr virus, herpes virus 1 and 2, chicken pox virus, and measles Signs of hepatitis include fever flu symptoms abrupt onset of fatigue anorexia headache jaundice dark in the urine lighter stool enlarged spleen and liver Acute hepatitis resolves with medical treatment whereas chronic hepatitis may result in the need for a liver transplant

A G A B viral

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient with a degenerative central nervous system disorder. The pathology primarily consists of destruction of the motor neurons in the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The patient's MOST likely diagnosis is: 1.Parkinson's disease 2.Huntington's disease 3.amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 4.multiple sclerosis

ALS The pathology of Parkinson's disease consists of destruction of the dopamine-producing cells within the basal ganglia the pathology of Huntington's disease is not definitive however often consists of tissue changes within the brain including atrophy of the basal ganglia and enlargement of the ventricles the pathology of ALS primarily consists of destruction of the motor neurons in the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. Degeneration of motor cells may I also present in the brainstem and cerebral cortex the pathology of multiple sclerosis consists of axonal demyelination and sclerotic plaques found throughout the brain and spinal cord

Which type of sensory receptor is most susceptible to light touch? Golgi tendon organs Meissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini endings

B

A physical therapist assistant reviews the chart of a patient diagnosed with a traumatic spinal cord injury. The patient's motor level was determined to be C7 in the sensory level was determined to bch. The neurological level of injury for this patient would be best described as C6 C7 C8 T1

C7 The C6 spinal level would be intact for this patient however it is not the most caudal spinal segment with normal innervation and therefore this would not be the neurological level of injury The c7 spinal level is the neurological level of injury for the described patient. This level represents the most caudal spinal segment with both normal motor and sensory function The c8 spinal level represents the sensory level for the described patient since this is the last caudal spinal segment with normal sensory innervation. Since the patient does not have normal motor innervation at the c8 level, this cannot be used to specify the neurological level of injruy

when measuring thoracolumbar flexion and extension, a tape measure is placed between __ and __

C7 S2

What is the name of the disk that is located between the C7 and T1 vertebrae? there are only __ cervical disks

C7 disk 7

dermatome: medial arm and forearm to long, ring, and little finger myotome: ulnar deviation, thumb extensors, thumb adductors reflex: none what nerve root is this?

C8

A physical therapist assistant employed in an acute care hospital observes that a patient appears to have recently gained weight. Which medical condition would MOST likely be associated with this type of scenario? 1.Addison's disease 2.Crohn's disease 3.congestive heart failure 4.Graves' disease

CHF

A note in the medical record indicates that a patient was recently prescribed Lasix. Which condition is MOST commonly associated with the use of this medication? 1.atrial flutter 2.deep vein thrombosis 3.hyperlipidemia 4.chronic heart failure

CHF Lasix is a loop diuretic that is often used in the treatment of Edema or hypertension. Lasix increases the excretion of sodium and chloride in the kidneys thereby increasing urination and decreasing the volume of fluid that is retained within the body

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter found in many areas of the brain as well as in the periphery. In general, acetylcholine synapses in the __ __ __ are excitatory.

CNS

UMN lesions are lesions in the __. the sturctures involved may include the cortex, brainstem, corticospinal tracts, and spinal cord

CNS

Tinel's sign the therapist taps over the volar aspect of the patient's wrist. a positive test is indicated by tingling in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and lateral half of the ring finger distal to the contact site at the wrist. a positive test may be indicative of __ __ __ due to __ nerve compression

CPS median

Which diagnostic test is used to diagnose a pulmonary embolism? chest x-ray computed tomography angiogram echocardiography stress test

CT angiogram A computed tomography angiogram is used to look for a pulmonary embolism or a blood clot that may cause a pulmonary embolism.

There are four classes of congestive heart failure. Generally patients with all stages of congestive heart failure demonstrates significant ventricular dysfunction, decreased cardiac output, and low functional capacities. Patients with class to congestive heart failure should be limited and physical activity up to 4.5 Mets. These patients are typically comfortable at rest, and ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or angina pain

Class one is mild congestive heart failure and the maximum amount of physical activity should be 6.5 Mets. Class 3 is marked congestive heart failure and physical activity should be limited to a maximum of three Mets. Class for patients are unable to carry out any physical activity over 1.5 Mets without discomfort

The ability of the body to bypass slow-twitch motor units and recruit fast-twitch motor units when performing an explosive movement is referred to as: size principle cross-education specificity selective recruitment

D Normally, slow-twitch motor units are recruited initially with fast-twitch motor units being recruited only when needed. When powerful, explosive movements are performed, there is not enough time to go through the normal process since speed is a major factor. In this situation, the body bypasses recruitment of the slow-twitch motor units and instead almost immediately activates the fast-twitch motor units

gastritis Inflammation of the gastric mucosa or inner layer of the stomach. Symptoms are similar to ___ however they tend to have a __ ___. Gastritis is classified as erosive or non erosive based on the level and zone of injury

GERD higher intensity

there are two basic methods for the administration of drugs enteral administration- invovles the use of the __ __ for administration of a drug parenteral administration- involves any form of drug administration that does not involve the __ __

GI tract GI tract

cranial nerve IX: touch, pain: __ tongue, pharynx taste: ___ tongue voluntary motor: select muscles of pharynx autonomic: parotid gland sensory or motor? to test: __ reflex ability to ___

Glossopharyngeal posterior posterior both gag swallow

A physical therapist assistant assesses the posture of a patient from a lateral view using a plumb line. Which medical condition would be LEAST likely to result in the external auditory meatus being anterior to the plumb line? 1.ankylosing spondylitis 2.Graves' disease 3.osteoporosis 4.Parkinson's disease

Graves' disease

peptic ulcer disease A condition where there is a disruption or erosion in the gastrointestinal mucosa. There is an imbalance between the protective mechanisms of the stomach and the secretion of acids within the stomach Many ulcers are caused by the __ __ infection and chronic __ use. Irritants that increase risk of ulcers stress alcohol particular medications foods and smoking A sign or symptom includes pain that comes in waves that is relieved by ___

H pylori NSAID eating

Which of the following types of hepatitis is transmitted via a fecal-oral route? hepatitis A hepatitis B hepatitis C hepatitis D

Hep A Hepatitis A (as well as hepatitis E) is spread by feces, saliva, and contaminated food/water. A large risk factor for contracting hepatitis A is visiting or living in an underdeveloped country.

cranial nerve XII name: voluntary motor: muscles of the ___ to test: __ __

Hypoglossal tongue tongue protusion

type __ fibers rely primarily on aerobic metabolism type I muscle fibers are generally considered ___ ___

I postural muscles

a PTA is delivering joint mob at a pt's shld. the therapist delivers 30 seconds of continueous small apmplitude oscillation at the beginning of the range, which grade of joint mob is this? I II III IV

I grade II uses large amplitude oscillation that pushes into tissue resistance. grade III uses large amplitude oscillation that pushes into tissue resistance. grade IV uses small amplitude oscillation near end of passive range

Homonymous hemianopsia could be associated with a lesion involving cranial nerve: II IV IX X

II (optic)

automatic perscriptions can be used for schedule __ drugs schedule II drugs can be persribed for __ __ anabolic steroids are a schedule __ drug methamphedimine is a schedule ___ drug

III medical purposes III II

Which route of drug delivery would be absorbed at the fastest rate? oral pill oral liquid intramuscular injection intravenous injection

IV Intravenous injection is the fastest route of drug delivery due to the direct access to the blood. Intramuscular injection is the second fastest route of drug delivery due to the high vascularity of muscle tissue. Oral drug delivery is the slowest route of drug delivery due to the absorption process in the gastrointestinal tract.

Which federal act mandates that eligible students receive free related services such as physical occupational and speech therapy services to meet their educational needs? Individuals with disabilities Education Act HIPAA Joint Commission on the accreditation of healthcare organizations American Disabilities Act

Individuals with Disabilites Education Act (IDEA) IDEA was originally enacted in 1975 and allows children with disabilities from birth to 21 years to receive Fury appropriate education in the least restrictive environment. Additionally it mandates that eligible students receive related services such as physical occupational and speech therapy in order to meet their educational needs. The services must be provided by qualified Personnel. Services such as physical therapy are intended to allow the student to me their educational needs and allow access to the school environment JCAHO is responsible for evaluating healthcare organizations that wish to be accredited

Posterior cord syndrome refers to a relatively rare incomplete lesion caused by compression of the posterior spinal artery. The condition is characterized by loss of proprioception, two point discrimination, and stereognosis. Motor function is preserved brown-sequard syndrome refers to an incomplete lesion usually caused by a stab wound, which produces Hemi section of the spinal cord. The condition is characterized by paralysis and loss of vibratory and position sensor on the same side as the legion and loss of pain and temperature sensors on the opposite side of the lesion cauda equina injury occurs below the __ spinal level where the long nerve Roots transcend. Cauda equina injuries can be complete, however, are frequently incomplete due to the __ __ of __ __ in the area. The condition is characterized by flaccidity, a reflexia, and impairment of bowel and bladder function. full Recovery is not typical due to the distance needed for axonal regeneration

L1 large number nerve roots

dermatome: back, front of thigh to knee myotome: psoas, hip adductors reflexes: none what nerve root is this?

L2

dermatome: back, upper buttock, anterior thigh and knee, medial lower leg myotome: psoas, quads, thigh atrophy reflexes: knee jerk sluggish, PKB positive, pain on full SLR (watch YT vid) what nerve root is this?

L3

A physical therapist assistant reporting at a discharge team meeting indicates that a patient rehabilitating from a spinal cord injury should be able to perform household ambulation using knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) and crutches upon discharge. The patient's quadriceps strength is currently 2+/5. The MOST likely spinal cord injury level is: 1.L1 2.L3 3.L5 4.S1

L3 A patient diagnosed with L-3 paraplegia is typically the highest level of injury that may allow for household ambulation using kafo or kafo/ afo combination and an assistive device. Household ambulation would not typically be possible for patients with a lesion above the L3 level due to the lack of quadriceps innervation and the high energy costs associated with household ambulation

The prone knee bend test places maximal tension on which nerve root? L1 L3 L5 S1

L3 The prone knee bend is a test for neural tension and involves flexion of the hip and knee in a prone position. The test stresses the femoral nerve and the L2-L4 nerve roots.

dermatome: medial buttock, lateral thigh, medial leg, dorsum of foot, big toe myotome: tib anterior, extensor hallicus reflexes: SLR limited, neck flexion pain, weak or absent knee jerk, side flexion limited (watch YT vdi) what nerve root is this?

L4

A physical therapist assistant observes a patient attempt to walk on their heels as part of a lower quarter screening. This activity would BEST assess the: 1.L4 myotome 2.L5 myotome 3.S1 myotome 4.S2 myotome

L4 myotome The L4 myotome provides innervation for muscles such as the tibialis anterior

what is the most common site for degenerative sponylolisthesis

L4-L5

dermatome: buttock, posterior and lateral thigh, lateral aspect of the leg, dorsum of foot, medial half of sole, 1st, 2nd and 3rd toes myotome: extensor hallicus, peroneals, glute med, dorsiflexors, hamstrings, and calf atrophy reflex: SLR limited one side, neck flexion painful, ankle decreased, crossed-leg raising pain what nerve root is this?

L5

Which standard method of assessing pain is the most widely used? Brief pain inventory Verbal descriptor scale McGill pain questionnaire Wong-Baker pain rating scale

McGill pain questionnaire The McGill pain questionnaire is a pain assessment tool that is divided into four parts with a total of 70 questions. The parts include marking the location of pain on a body diagram, choosing the word from a list of 20 that best describes their pain, describing the pattern of pain including factors that increase or decrease pain, and rating the intensity of pain from zero to five.

there are three diagnostic categories of TMJ dysfunction. the most common is myofascial pain which is discomfort or pain in the muscles that control the jaw function. the second most common cause is __ or __ the third most common cause is __ __ which refers to a dislocated jaw, displaced articular disc, or injury to the condyle

OA RA internal derangement

A physical therapist assistant works with a 26-year-old female whose subjective complaints include morning stiffness of her hands and visible swelling. The patient indicates that the stiffness seems to diminish with activity. This description BEST describes: 1.carpal tunnel syndrome 2.osteoporosis 3.rheumatoid arthritis 4.osteoarthritis

RA Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include morning stiffness, limited range-of-motion, effusion, pain with movement, and low grade fever. Smaller peripheral joints are initially affected however symptoms May progress to larger synovial joints osteoarthritis is a chronic disease that is characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage typically and weight-bearing joints. Subsequent deformity and thickening of subchondral bone results in impaired functional status. The most commonly affected sites include the hands spine hips and knees

The Functional Reach test is a single task screening tool used to assess standing balance and risk of falling. A person is required to stand upright with a static base of support. A yardstick is positioned to measure the forward distance that a patient can reach without moving the feet. Three trials are performed and averaged together. A patient that falls below the age appropriate range for functional reach has an increased risk for falling.

The first section of the Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment (POMA) assesses balance through sit to stand and stand to sit from an armless chair, immediate standing balance with eyes open and closed, tolerating a slight push in the standing position, and turning 360 degrees. The second section assesses gait at normal speed and at a rapid, but safe speed. Items scored in this section include initiation of gait, step length and height, step asymmetry and continuity, path, stance during gait, and trunk motion.

An athlete is referred to physical therapy after being diagnosed with apophysitis of the ischial tuberosity. Which mechanism of injury is MOST consistent with this condition? 1.a soccer player kicking a soccer ball 2.a runner competing in the hurdles 3.a tennis player rapidly changing direction 4.a sprinter coming out of the starting blocks

a runner completing in the hurdles

For which patient is the use of sliding board Fest indicated to perform an independent transfer from a wheelchair to bed? A patient with a grade 3 ulcer over left side buttock a patient with level C6 complete spinal cord injury a patient with a level C to complete spinal cord injury a patient with Stage 2 Parkinson's disease

a patient with level C6 complete SCI A transfer or sliding board is used for assisted transfers for patients with good sitting balance who can lift most but not all of the weight of the buttocks. Patients with complete level C5 spinal cord injury are able to use a board with assistance. Patients with complete level C6 spinal cord injury are able to utilize their upper extremities to assist in an independent slide board transfer

gate control theory: helps explain the regulation of pain, specifically how other stimuli can help to decrease the sensation of pain. A delta and C fibers synapse with a secondary neuron, which sends the pain signal to the brain. however, they also synapse with an inhibitory interneuron at this same junction. ____ and ___ fibers provide input to these inhibitory interneurons. therefore, nerve transmission through the a alpha and a beta fibers can stimulate these interneurons to inhibit pain signals to the brain (closing the gate) The Gate control theory asserts that non-painful input closes the "gates" to painful input, which prevents pain sensation from traveling to the central nervous system. Touch has an inhibitory effect on pain signals. (watch youtube video over this)

a-alpha a-beta

Intrathecal administration of baclofen requires the subcutaneous implantation of a pump into the: upper arm chest wall abdominal wall thigh

abdominal wall Intrathecal administration of baclofen requires the subcutaneous implantation of a pump into the abdominal wall, with the tip of the catheter placed in the subarachnoid space. The catheter is usually placed between T12 and L1. Upper extremity spasticity may require the catheter to be placed higher up in the spinal column.

cranial nerve VI name: sensory or motor? ____ rectus muscle of the eyeball innervates the __ __ muscle test __ __

abducens motor lateral lateral rectus lateral gaze

the moro reflex is a primitive reflex that is normally present at 28 weeks gestation through five months of age. the reflex is stimulated by the head suddendly dropping into extension for a few inches. the response is ___ of the arms with __ open, followed by the arms __ the trunk into adduction, and initiation of ___

abduction fingers crossing crying

total hip arthroplasty a THA that uses a posterolateral approach allows the ___ muscle to remain intact, however, there may be a higher incidence of post op joint instability due to the interruption of the __ __. an anterolateral approach should avoid __ __ and __ __ a direct lateral approach leaves the posterior portion of the __ __ attached to the greater trochanter and the __ __ is left intact. this method is preferred for patients that may be ____ in order to avoid posterior dislocation

abductor posterior capsule hip flexion lateral rotation glute med posterior capsule noncompliant

Which two tendons are associated with deQuervain's tenosynovitis in severe cases of this, edema may cause the ___ nerve to become entrapped

abductor pollicis longus extensor pollicis brevis radial

reflex results- 0= 1+= 2+= 3+= 4+= which are considered normal? compare all results bilaterally asymmetry may indicate an underlying pathology diminished or absent reflexes may indicate __ __ __ __ hyper-reflexia and clonus may indicate _ __ __ __

absent reflex hyporeflexive ; decreased response or seen only with reinforcement normal response hyperreflexive; brisk response clonus 1,2, and 3 lower motor neuron lesions upper motor neuron lesions

Which term is most synonymous with the short period of time following an action potential when sodium channels cannot be reactivated? repolarization period relative refractory period depolarization period absolute refractory period

absolute refractory period Once sodium channels have closed they cannot be reopened by another action potential for a short period of time. This period is known as the absolute refractory period.

Which central neurotransmitter is primarily regarded as an excitatory transmitter at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle? serotonin dopamine acetylcholine gamma-aminobutyric acid

acetylcholine

neurotransmitter used in the parasympathetic nervous system to produce an inhibitory response

acetylcholine

Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is often utilized following myocardial infarction? acetylsalicylic acid ibuprofen naproxen acetaminophen

acetylsalicylic acid Acetylsalicylic acid (i.e., aspirin) is commonly prescribed to decrease the risk of myocardial infarction for at risk individuals.

Which condition is described when the lower esophageal sphincter does not relax, causing food to be trapped in the esophagus? Obstipation gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) Anorexia achalasia

achalasia Achalasia is a condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter does not relax, resulting in food trapped in the esophagus. This is one type of dysphagia which refers to difficulty swallowing.

in regards to metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, H+is a __ and HCO3- is a ___

acid base

secondary lymphatic disease is ___ and can be due to __ or ___. lymphandenopathy is a condition of ___ of nodes with or without ___. primary lymphatic disease is ___

acquired surgery trauma enlargement tenderness congenital

What is the thin protein of the myofilament called? sarcomere sarcolemma myosin actin

actin

Which lymphatic disease is marked by an acute bacterial infection that spreads throughout the lymph system? Primary lymphatic disease Acute lymphangitis Lymphadenopathy Secondary lymphatic disease

acute lymphangitis

Which lymphatic disease is marked by an acute bacterial infection that spreads throughout the lymph system? Primary lymphatic disease acute lymphangitis Lymphadenopathy secondary lymphatic disease

acute lymphangitis Acute lymphangitis is an acute bacterial infection spreading through the lymph system usually strptococal Secondary lymphatic disease is acquired and can be due to trauma surgery radiation or disease. Linphone did not busy is a condition of enlargement of nodes with or without tenderness. Primary lymphatic disease is congenital

Froment's sign patient is asked to hold a piece of paper between the thumb and index finger. the therapist attempts to pull the paper away from the patient. a positive test is indicated by the patient flexing the distal phalanx of the thumb due to __ __ muscle paralysis. this may be indicative of __ nerve compromise

adductor pollicis ulnar

cohesion is the tendency of water molecules to __ to each other, and the ___ that is felt while moving through water is due to cohesion. in order to seperate the water molecules, force must be used. this creates resistance for exercise purposes buoyancy creates a decrease in __ __ and __ __ due to the upward force of water on an immersed body part hydrostatic pressure is the circumferential __ __ exerted on an __ __ or body part. which reduces edema and enhances peripheral circulation.

adhere resistance body weight joint unloading water pressure immersed body

What is the primary site for drug storage in the body? organs muscle bone adipose

adipose The primary site for drug storage in the body is adipose tissue. Lipid-soluble drugs can readily penetrate fat stores and therefore tend to have longer lasting effects compared to water-soluble drugs which can be quickly eliminated from the body.

A stage 3 pressure injury refers to full thickness loss of skin, in which __ is visible in the ulcer and granulation tissue and rolled edges are often present. seropurulent drainage presents as cloudy or opaque with a yellow or tan color and a thin watery consistency. seropurulent exudate. Maybe an early warning sign of wound infection and is always considered an __ __

adipose abnormal finding

the hypodermis layer of the skin contains mostly _ __

adipose tissue

__ __ is the type of footrest used for a patient that has some degree of deformity in the feed and/or ankles

adjustable angle

What type of drug binds to a specific receptor and initiates a maximal response within the body? agonist competitive antagonist partial agonist noncompetitive antagonist

agonist An agonist drug binds to a receptor and initiates a change within the body. Agonists are defined as both having affinity (attraction) and efficacy (activate a receptor). Antagonists have only affinity and partial agonists do not promote a maximal response when bound to a receptor.

The goals for a patient status post total knee arthroplasty include general conditioning and independent household mobility. Which component of the patient's treatment would be the MOST appropriate to delegate to a physical therapy aide? 1.stair training 2.progressive gait training with a straight cane 3.patient education regarding the surgical procedure 4.ambulation with a walker for endurance

ambulation with a walker for endurance A physical therapist and in some jurisdictions a physical therapist assistant May delegate ambulation activities to a physical therapy aide if they seal the AIDS training is adequate to complete the activity. This decision would be heavily influenced by the patient's current status and competence with ambulation. Ambulation for endurance implies that the patient already possesses basic competence with the activity

Holter monitoring is a procedure used for diagnosing cardiovascular problems that may alternatively be called: ambulatory electrocardiography echocardiography chest radiography phonocardiography

ambulatory electrocardiography Holter monitoring is also known as ambulatory electrocardiography. Electrodes are placed on the chest and attached to a small recording monitor that can be carried in a pocket so that a patient's cardiac rhythm can be recorded over a long duration of time (e.g., 24-48 hours).

__ is a radiologic examination that requires injection of a contrast medium into blood vessels they can show the location of plaques in the coronary arteries and the extent of occlusion

angiography

A radiologic examination that injects a contrast medium into blood vessels is called a/an: venography invasive hemodynamic monitoring echocardiography angiography

angiography Angiography is a radiologic examination that injects a contrast medium into blood vessels. Venography is a procedure in which a radiopaque dye is injected into a vein.

Which pharmacological classification works by limiting vasoconstriction and stimulation of vascular tissue? Anti hyperlipidemia agents Angiotensin II receptor antagonist agents thrombolytic agents Alpha adrenergic antagonist agents

angiotensin II receptor antagonist agents

Terminal stance requires the greatest amount of __ __ range of motion ( __ degrees) during the gait cycle. During midstance, the ankle is dorsiflexed 5 degrees. During initial swing, the ankle is plantar flexed 5 degrees. During initial contact, the ankle is in neutral.

ankle dorsiflexion 10

end feel is the type of resistance that is felt when passively moving a joint through the end range of motion. certain tissues and joints have a consistent end feel and are described as firm, hard, and soft. pathology can be identified through noting the type of abnormal end feel within the particular joint firm (stretch) 1 2 3 4 hard (bone to bone) 1 soft (soft tissue approximation) 1 2

ankle dorsiflexion finger extension hip medial rotation forearm supination elbow extension elbow flexion knee flexion

Humira would likely be included in the medical management of which diagnosis? ankylosing spondylitis grade III ankle sprain chronic liver disease carpal tunnel syndrome

ankylosing spondylitis

The elbow ligament that allows the head of the radius to rotate and retain contact with the radial notch of the ulna is known as:

annular ligament

Protrusion refers to the ___ motion of the mandible in relation to the maxilla. Normal protrusion is less than __ __

anterior 10 mm

glenohumeral lateral rotation: during lateral rotation, the humerus is moving posteriorly and the glide occurs in an __ direction. the mobilizing force should be an __ glide of the humerus to improve lateral rotation a ___ glide can also be beneficial when wanting to gain external rotation

anterior anterior

arthrokinematics of closed chain knee extension: ___ roll and ___ slide of the femur

anterior posterior

A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient with cystic fibrosis in an outpatient setting. The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease is currently being treated with Prevacid. When performing postural drainage, the treatment of which lung segment would be the most problematic for this patient Anterior basal segment of the left lower lobe apical segment of the left lower lobe Superior segment of the right lower lobe posterior segment of the right upper lobe

anterior basal segment of the left lower lobe

shoulder flexion (4)

anterior delt coracobrachialis pec major (clavicular head) bicpes

horizontal adductors (2)

anterior delt pec major

special tests used to examine integrity of the ACL

anterior drawer test lachman lateral pivot test slocum

What mechanism of injury would be most likely to produce a Hill-Sachs lesion? anterior glenohumeral dislocation biceps tendon rupture posterior glenohumeral dislocation rotator cuff tear

anterior glenohumeral dislocation

a bankart lesion involves detachment of the __ __ __ __ due to anterior ___ __. a bankart repair is a surgical procedure to reattach and repair the torn labrum and joint capsule. anterior dislocation is the __ __ __ of shoulder instability

anterior inferior glenoid labrum shoulder dislocation most common direction

What artery provides blood supply to the anterior portion of the spinal cord? posterior spinal artery anterior spinal artery vertebral artery basilar artery

anterior spinal artery The anterior spinal artery arises from the branches of the vertebral arteries and courses along the anterior aspect of the spinal cord. The blood vessel supplies the anterior portion of the spinal cord

anterior drawer test of the ankle tests for tear of the ____ ligament The patient is positioned in supine. The therapist stabilizes the distal tibia and fibula with one hand while the other hand holds the foot in 20 degrees of plantar flexion and draws the talus forward in the ankle mortise. A positive test is indicated by excessive anterior translation of the talus away from the ankle mortise and may be indicative of an anterior talofibular ligament sprain

anterior talofibular

lateral ankle reconstruction: pepair of the lateral ankle ligaments is commonly performed secondary to a complete tear of the __ ___ ligament or the ____ ligament. they can repair by either suturing the ligaments back to where they need to go or harvesting an autograft (usually the __ __) to replace the torn ligaments. caution should be taken when ranging the ankle into ___ since this will stress the repaired tissues.

anterior talofibular calcaneofibiular peroneous brevis inversion

anterior talofibular ligament: resists __ __ of the talus

anterior translation

According to the rule of nines which body segment would occupy the greatest percentage of the total body surface area? anterior trunk arm leg posterior leg

anterior trunk The rule of nines allows for a gross approximation of the percentage of the body affected by a burn. The anterior trunk represents approximately 18% of the total body surface area. The rule of nines does not account for severity.

pain beginning as either umbilical or gastric pain that migrates to the right lower quadrant is a common symptom of which pathology? diverticulitis erosive gastirtis appendicitis crohn's disease

appendicitis

Which of the following wheelchair features would make it easiest to perform a wheelie? anteriorly placed axle posteriorly placed axle heavy frame wide wheelchair base

anteriorly placed axle The more anterior the axle is in relation to the patient's center of mass, the easier it would be to perform a wheelie. The patient and therapist must be aware that although the modification would make it easier to perform a wheelie, the wheelchair design also increases the relative risk of tipping backward

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are nonopioid agents which are indicated for mild to moderate pain while also helping to reduce inflammation. While acetaminophen may also be a nonopioid agent it lacks ___ ____ properties.

anti inflammatory

crohns disease A specific form of inflammatory bowel disease in which the lining of the gastrointestinal tract becomes abnormally inflamed. The etiology of Crohn's disease is idiopathic but likely the result of an imbalance between __ and ___ mediators within the GI tract Children with crohn's disease typically experiences ___ in normal ___ and ____

anti inflammatory pro inflammatory delays normal growth development

Which pharmacological agent would be most likely prescribed to treat pericarditis? anti-inflammatory agents nitrate agents calcium channel blockers aspirin

anti inflammatory agents Anti-inflammatory agents would be most likely prescribed to treat pericarditis. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardial sac that surrounds the heart and may result in decreased cardiac output.

non-opioid agents provide anti-inflammatory and __-___ effects in addition to analgesia

anti-pyretic

the posterior pituitary gland controls the release of __ __ and __ the anterior pituitary controls the release of grwoth hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin. the adrenal medulla controls the release of __ and ___

antidiuretic hormone oxytocin epinepherine norepinephrine

Which type of medication is given prophylactically to prevent thrombus formation? antiplatelet agents calcium-channel blockers nitrates thrombolytic agents

antiplatelet agents

Involuntary movements and tremors are side effects commonly associated with traditional ___ agents such as Haldol. Extra pyramidal symptoms often include tardive dyskinesia, and movement of the extremities and dystonia of the neck and trunk

antipsychotic

A physical therapist assistant prepares to assess the balance of a patient with a neurological disorder. The MOST appropriate method to assess the vestibular component of balance would be: 1.assess cutaneous sensation 2.apply a perturbation to alter the body's center of gravity 3.assess proprioception in a weight bearing posture 4.quantify visual acuity and depth perception

apply a perturbation to alter the body's centor of gravity The vestibular system reports information to the brain regarding the position and movement of the head with respect to gravity and movement. Assessment of the vestibular system often includes perturbation that require the body to make automatic adjustments that restore normal alignment The somatosensory system provides information about the relative orientation and movement of the body in relation to the support service. Examining proprioception in a weight-bearing cost-share would be a common method used for the assessment of the somatosensory system.

A patient with a C6 complete spinal cord injury should control their wheelchair descent on a ramp by: squeezing the rims with their hands applying a downward pressure on the rims applying a medially directed pressure to the rims placing the feet in contact with the ramp

applying a medially directed pressure to the rims A patient with a C6 complete spinal cord injury would lack innervation of the triceps and finger flexors. For this reason applying a medially directed force to the rims is the safest and most appropriate method to control the decent of a wheelchair on a ramp.

__ __ is a chronic, occlusinve arterial disease of medium and large vessels.

arteriosclerosis obliterans

Which of the following conditions would most warrant the use of aquatic therapy as part of the plan of care? arthritis gangrene maceration sepsis

arthritis Aquatic therapy is often a desirable treatment option for individuals with arthritis due to the diminished joint compressive forces encountered in this therapeutic medium. The remaining options would be considered contraindications to aquatic therapy.

which pediatric disorder is characterized by multiple joint contractures at birth? arthrogryposis multiplex congenita legg-calve-perthes disease slipped capital femoral epiphysis osteogenesis imperfecta

arthrogryposis multiplex congenita Characterized by severe joint contractures and absence of muscle development and causes multiple joint contractures at Birth. There is variability in clinical picture but typically include severe joint contractures and absence of muscle development. Children will utilize splinting surgery and assistive devices to compensate and correct for deformities

sitting flexion test tests for __ __ Patient is seated at the edge of a table with the knees flexed to 90 degrees and the feet on the floor, the hips should be abducted to allow the patient to Bend forward. Therapist places their thumbs on the inferior margin of the posterior superior iliac spines and monitors movement of the Bony structures as a patient bends forward toward the floor. A positive test will include one posterior superior iliac spine moving farther in a cranial Direction than the other which may indicate an articular restriction

articular restriction

A physical therapist assistant has just completed instructing a caregiver on how to transfer a patient from a bed to wheelchair and back to bed using a slide board. The assistant should document the caregivers performance and ability to complete the task safely in which section of the soap note Plan Objective Subjective Assessment

assessment The remaining answers are incorrect. Subjective information is provided by a caregiver or patient. Objective data includes measurements distances and objective description of technique. Plan includes identification of further training needed or plan for upcoming sessions

Which transfer technique is most appropriate for an individual with a complete C5 spinal cord injury? Dependent lift transfer assisted stand pivot transfer dependent stand pivot transfer assisted sliding board transfer

assisted sliding board transfer This transfer is used for patients with good sitting balance who can lift most but not all of the weight off the buttocks such as this individual with a complete C5 spinal cord injury. The sliding board is placed well under the patient's buttocks. The patient performs transfer by doing a series of push-ups and lives across the board. The therapist assistants in the list. Patients with complete C6 spinal cord injury can be independent with slide board transfer on level surfaces

the epidermis layer of the skin is ____ while the dermis of the skin is __ __ nerve endings are located in the __ __ __ (__) layer of the skin

avascular well vascularized subcutaneous fatty tissue hypodermis

a __ fracture occurs when a portion of a bone becomes fragmented at the site of tendon attachment due to a traumatic and sudden stretch of the tendon

avulsion

A physical therapist assistant identifies that an infant is unable to roll from prone to supine. Which reflex could interfere with the infant's ability to roll? 1.asymmetrical tonic neck reflex 2.Moro reflex 3.positive support reflex 4.symmetrical tonic neck reflex

asymmetrical tonic neck reflex The onset of the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex is at Birth. When the infant turns its head to one side the upper extremity on the face side will extend while the upper extremity on the skull side will Flex. Without integration the child will be unable to roll The moro reflex is stimulated by a sudden change in position of the head when the head Drops into extension. There is immediate abduction and extension of the upper extremities and displaying of the fingers followed by a deduction of the upper extremity across the chest. This will normally cause an infant to cry the positive support reflex is stimulated as weight is placed on the balls of the feet when the infant is upright. This produces an extension response within the lower extremities and trunk. Be a symmetrical tonic neck reflex is stimulated by movement of the head. With flexion the upper extremities flex and lower extremities extend. With extension the effort Chinese extend in lower extremities Flex

a gait pattern often associated with cerebellar pathology

ataxic

which of the following diagnoses typically result in a normal FEV1/FCV ration? atelctasis asthma emphysema cystic fibrosis

atelctasis

Collapse of previously expanded lung tissue is known as: asthma atelectasis ptosis pulmonary hypertension

atelectasis Atelectasis is a complete or partial collapse of a lung or lobe of a lung which develops when the tiny air sacs (alveoli) within the lung become deflated.

A 13-year-old female diagnosed with cerebral palsy is referred to physical therapy. The patient exhibits slow, involuntary, continuous writhing movements of the upper and lower extremities. This type of motor disturbance is MOST representative of: 1.spasticity 2.ataxia 3.hypotonia 4.athetosis

athetosis Ataxia is a generalized term used to describe motor impairments of cerebellar origin. It is characterized by the inability to perform coordinated movement and may affect gait posture and patterns of movements. Hypotonia refers to decreased or absent tone wear resistance to passive movement is decreased, stretch reflexes are diminished, and limbs are easily moved. Hypotonicity in children is often associated with motor delays apoptosis refers to involuntary movement characterized as slow irregular and twisting. Peripheral movements occur without central stability. This type of motor disturbance makes it extremely difficult to maintain a static body position

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient diagnosed with cerebellar degeneration. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT typically associated with this condition? 1.athetosis 2.dysmetria 3.nystagmus 4.dysdiadochokinesia

athetosis athetosis is characterized by extraneous and involuntary movements, slowness of movement, and alterations in muscle tone. athetoid movements may look wormlike with a rotatory component evident

__ describes the decrease in energy intensity as ultrasound travels through various tissues

attenuation

A patient with a colostomy who expresses apprehension about participating in aquatic therapy should be educated by: explaining that aquatic therapy is contraindicated for individuals with a colostomy explaining that aquatic therapy is appropriate for individuals with a colostomy explaining that the patient should participate in a different mode of exercise explaining that there is a high risk of the colostomy bag contaminating the pool

auatic therapy is approprite for individuals with a colostomy It is common for patients whom have had a colostomy to express concern and apprehension about participating in aquatic activities. As long as the patient is continent there is no reason for them to abstain from aquatic exercise. Patients should be educated to empty their bag and assess adhesiveness of the flange to the skin before entering the pool as a precaution.

Which is not a function of the area of the frontal lobe of the brain? auditory processing executive function personality self-awareness

auditory processing

Graves disease is caused by an __ __in which certain antibodies produced by the immune system stimulate the __ __ causing it to become overactive. Symptoms are consistent with ___ presentation. Graves disease is not typically associated with postural changes and therefore would not result in the external auditory meatus being anterior to the stationary plumb line

autoimmune disease thyroid gland hyperthyroid

Which level of the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale is characterized by appropriate orientation to situations within the home and hospital settings, but continues to demonstrate impaired judgment? Level VI - Confused-Appropriate Level V - Confused-Inappropriate Level VII - Automatic-Appropriate Level VIII - Purposeful-Appropriate

automatic appropriate Level VII - Automatic-Appropriate is characterized by the patient appearing appropriate and oriented within the hospital and home settings. The patient shows little to no confusion and has some recall of activities. Judgment remains impaired, but the patient is able to initiate social or recreational activities with structure.

Which type of traumatic nerve injury is a crush injury? Entrapment Neurotmesis Neurapraxia Axonotmesis

axonotmesis A class to traumatic nerve injury, is when injury to the nerve causes loss of function and degeneration. It often occurs due to a crush injury the Regeneration is possible. Neuropraxia Is a Class one traumatic nerve injury, causes a temporary loss of function due to a nerve injury that typically resolved without intervention. Neurotmesis Is the Complete Cutting of the nerve resulting in total loss of function, is a class three traumatic nerve injury. Surgical intervention is usually required for reinnervation to occur

plantar flexor paralysis may be a cause of foot slap T or F T or F flexor withdrawl reflex may cause excessive flexion during swing phase

false dorsiflexion paralysis true

The initial evaluation notes that a patient has significant weakness in the glute Max. How will this weakness demonstrated self in a gait deviation? Forward trunk lean Lateral trunk lean to the same side Lateral trunk lean to the opposite side Backward trunk lean a lateral trunk lean to the opposite side is associated with a weak __ __ a forward trunk lean is associated with weakness in the ___ or a hip/knee _ __

backward trunk lean hip flexor quads flexion contracture

Due to the complication of diabetic polyneuropathy, which physical therapy intervention should be included to reduce patient fall risk? Education regarding Foot Care balance training cardiovascular endurance training pain management

balance training Diabetic polyneuropathy it's a condition of impaired nerves and sensations, paresthesia, and shooting pain that can lead to motor weakness particularly in the Foot and Ankle musculature. These symptoms can lead to balance and gait impairment. While all interventions noted are appropriate for a patient with diabetes, the intervention that will most directly assist with reducing fall risk is balance training

Which medication or medications are typically used to control cerebral edema for an individual with a traumatic brain injury? Botox oxycodone Baclofen barbiturates

barbiturates Barbiturates Are used to control cerebral edema and increased interest reroll pressure with severe traumatic brain injury. They are a group of medications that act as a central nervous system depressant

arrhytmias are typically treated with __ __ or __ __ __

beta blocker calcium channel blocker

What temperature are hot packs generally heat into in a water immersion tank? Between 100 and 105 degrees between 125 and 130 degrees between 145 and 150 degrees between 165 and 170 degrees

between 165-170 degrees the skin should be checked within 5 minutes to prevent burns

Which upper extremity condition may lead to pain in the anterior aspect of the shoulder and difficulty with resisted lifting motions below shoulder level? Bicipital tendinitis impingement syndrome adhesive capsulitis thoracic outlet syndrome

bicipital tendinitis bicipital tendinitis is an inflammation of the long head of the biceps. It results from mechanical impingement of the proximal tendon between the anterior Crown man in the bicipital groove of the humerus. This patient description involves pain with muscle activity which would impact the biceps as well as pain in anterior aspect of the shoulder which is where the bicep tendon inserts. remaining answers are incorrect. Adhesive capsulitis is also referred to as frozen shoulder, and restriction fall is a capsular pattern of limitation with the greatest limitation in external rotation followed by abduction and flexion. Impingement syndrome is characterized by soft tissue inflammation of the shoulder from impingement against the acromion with repetitive overhead mode. Thoracic outlet syndrome is compression of the neurovascular bundle in the thoracic outlet between bony and soft tissue structures. The bundle includes the brachial plexus subclavian artery and vein vagus and phrenic nerves

An arterial line is a monitoring device consisting of a catheter that is inserted into an artery and attached to an electronic monitoring system. An arterial line is used to measure __ __ or to obtain __ __. The device is considered to be __ __ than traditional measures of blood pressure and does not require repeated needle punctures

blood pressure blood samples more accurate

Which unit of measure is used to help determine medication dosage? body fat percentage body mass index body weight body temperature

body weight Body weight, expressed in kilograms, is commonly used when determining dosage of medications. One kilogram equals approximately 2.2 pounds.

intramuscular Intramuscular Administration involves injection of a drug into skeletal muscle. Intramuscular injections are often used when treating localized muscular problems such as __ __ for spasticity. Absorption of a drug via intramuscular injection is __ __then subcutaneous injection, while still allowing for a study release of the drug into the systemic circulation. A disadvantage of intramuscular injections is that they tend to cause localized muscle soreness and pain at the site of injection

botulinum toxin more rapid

Which osteoarthritic related deformity is found at the proximal interphalangeal joints? Bouchard's nodes Heberden's nodes ulnar drift boutonniere deformity

bouchards nodes

which of the following hand deformitities is a result of rupture a digit's central tendinous slip of the extensor hood? boutonniere deformity mallet finger swan neck deformity ape hand deformity

boutonniere deformity

A patient today's status post C-section delivery complains of incisional pain with coughing and sneezing. What is the most appropriate initial physical therapy intervention? Brace the incision with a pillow when coughing or sneezing contract the pelvic floor muscles perform desensitization techniques over the incision initiate postural awareness activities

brace the incsion with a pillow when coughing or sneezing A C-section delivery is considered major abdominal surgery with numerous inherent risks and potential complications. Postoperative pain and discomfort May develop due to adhesions at the side of the incision, poor posture, abdominal weakness, and or pelvic floor dysfunction Bracing and abdominal incision with a pillow during a cough or sneeze supports healing tissues by limiting the abdominal pressure associated with the activity. Instructing the patient in this technique provides an appropriate and immediate method of improving overall comfort contraction of the pelvic floor muscles may be helpful to limit the pain associated with postpartum pelvic floor dysfunction, but it is unlikely to relieve the abdominal incision pain associated with coughing or sneezing friction massage May assist in limiting the future Pain by minimizing adhesion formation however it will not specifically influence the patient's immediate complaints. Patients May begin friction massage once the incision is sufficiently healed to improve circulation and limit adhesions Pregnancy-related faulty posture is frequently the result of muscle imbalance in the trunk. Postural correction and strengthening May assist in preventing future pain due to muscle imbalance but they will not specifically influence the patient's immediate complaints

phenylketonuria a syndrome that consists of intellectual disability as well as behaioral and cognitive issues secondary to an elevatio of serum phenylalanine. the __ is the primary organ affected children in the US are tested __ __ and treated if necessary . it is an __ __ trait and ismost common in ___ populations Symptoms will typically present within a few months of birth as they accumulate. If left untreated severe intellectual disability will occur. These children may also experience gait disturbances, hyperactivity, psychosis, abnormal body odor, and display features that are lighter and coloring when compared to other family members. Treated through __ __ phenylketonuria of throughout the person's lifetime. Adequate prevention will avoid all manifestations of the disease

brain at birth autosomal recessive caucasion dietary restriction

Huntington's disease is a progressive hereditary condition caused by tissue changes in the ___. Symptoms include abnormalities of ____ (i.e., chorea), ___ disturbances, and ___. Patients diagnosed with Huntington's disease typically die 15-20 years after the onset of the disease. Multiple sclerosis is the demyelination of white matter in the central nervous system. Symptoms include focal weakness, fatigue, diplopia, blurred vision, vertigo, paresthesias, and urinary incontinence. Multiple sclerosis is a progressive disease characterized by remissions and exacerbation. Patients with the disease do not experience a full recovery. Myasthenia gravis is a disorder of neuromuscular transmission. Symptoms include fluctuating weakness and fatiguability of skeletal muscles. Myasthenia gravis is a progressive disease characterized by remissions and exacerbations. Patients with the disease do not experience a full recovery.

brain movement personality dementia

What condition would be considered a progressive obstructive lung disease that produces abnormal dilation of the bronchus? bronchitis bronchiectasis chronic obstructive pulmonary disease cystic fibrosis

bronchiectasis Bronchiectasis is a progressive obstructive lung disease that produces abnormal dilation of the bronchus. Bronchiectasis is typically associated with chronic infections, aspiration, cystic fibrosis or immune system impairment.

class of drugs including beta-adrengic agonists and anticholinergics

bronchodilators

__ is a diagnostic procedure that uses a fiberoptic instrument that transmits an image to an eyepeice or video camer to identiy tumors

bronchoscopy

The bronstrom Procedure is a surgical procedure that is performed to repair torn ankle ligaments primarily the anterior talofibular ligament in a patient with chronic ankle instability. The surgery involves direct repair of the torn ligaments in which they are sutured back together. The __ ___ procedure is a variation of the Bronson procedure that involves the use of a tendon graft to serve as extra support to the lateral ankle

bronstrom evans

What skin color change can be expected in the lower legs for an individual with chronic venous insufficiency? Brown Yellow skin color changes do not occur with venous insufficiency Liver spots

brown when performing a physical examination therapist should inspect skin tissue for various skin conditions including discoloration. A brown color is due to increased pigmentation that can be associated with venous insufficiency.

What type of meniscal tear is described as a vertical longitudinal tear displaced into the intercondylar notch? bucket handle horizontal cleavage flap radial

bucket handle

which is not a desired shape for a residual limb? smooth end conical bulbous end cylindrical

bulbous end

In regards to physics related to Aquatic exercise, what is the upward force of water on an immersed or partially immersed body or body part? Density Hyrostatic pressure Bouyancy Cohesion

buoyancy Buoyancy is helpful in that it creates an apparent decrease in body weight in joint unloading due to the upward force of water on an immersed body part. This decrease in body weight is equal to the weight of the water that it displaces

What is the best method to facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia? by turning the head to the affected side by turning the head to the uninvolved side by extending the lower extremities by flexing the lower extremities

by turning the head to the affected side The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex produces extension of the affected upper extremity when the patient's head is turned toward the affected side. This reflex may be present following a CVA and can assist to extend the affected elbow.

rectal Rectal Administration is advantageous for patients who cannot take drugs orally such as patients who are unconscious or vomiting. As with sublingual medications these drugs also __ __ __. However drugs are __ __ __ __ through the rectal cavity when compared to sublingual and oral Administrations

bypass the liver not absorbed as well

sequence the following structures involved in transmission of a pain signal from first to last dorsal horn cortex c fiber thalamus

c fiber dorsal horn thalamus cortex

The sustentaculum tali is located on the medial aspect of the ___ and is the site of attachment for the spring ligament which is responsible for supporting the __ __ __ and the head of the talus which bears a large percentage of the __ __

calcaneuous medial longitudinal arch body's weight

the __ __ seperates the occipital lobe into superior and inferior portions

calcarine sulcus

causes of osteomalacia includes ___ lost secondary to inadequate__ ___ and the ___ is lost secondary to an increase in __ __. A deficiency in vitamin _ will also cause osteomalacia

calcium intestinal absorption phosphorus renal excretion D

A patient with a stage 3 pressure injury over the issue tuberosity presents with copious amounts of seropurulent drainage from the wound. The physical therapist assistant is concerned about maceration of the periwound tissues. Based on this information which of the following wound dressing to be the most appropriate for this patient? Transparent films impregnated gauze Hydrocolloid calcium alginate

calcium alginate

amlodipine (norvasc) a __ __ __ agent calcium channel bloccers are a class IV antiarrhythmic agen that depress depolarization and slow __ through the __ __. calcium channel blockers decrease the entry of calcium into vascular smooth muscle cells resulting in dimished __ __, ___, and decreased __ __ of the heart.

calcium channel blocker conduction atrioventricular node myocardial contraction vasodilation oxygen demand

A patient experiences a proximal humerus fracture that is non-displaced. Which clinical finding would provide the BEST support for the patient being cleared to perform active-assisted exercise? 1.hematoma formation 2.diminished pain 3.callus formation 4.remodeling

callus formation

A physical therapist assistant observes a patient running on a treadmill at an intensity of approximately 75% of their estimated maximum oxygen consumption. What is the PRIMARY source for the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced during this activity? 1.amino acids 2.carbohydrates 3.fats 4.proteins

carbohydrates

Hypercapnia is an abnormally large amount of __ __ in the blood. Normal range for this in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 35 - 45 mm Hg.

carbon dioxide

a patient with respiratory acidosis has __ __ retention and impaired alveolar ventilation. signs include dyspnea, hyperventilation, cyanosis, restlessness, headache, and it can lead to disorientation, stupor or coma, and death.

carbon dioxide

The brainstem conveys information between which structures? cerebellum and spinal cord cerebrum and spinal cord cerebellum and cerebrum spinal cord and spinal nerves

cerebrum and spinal cord The midbrain acts as a pathway for communication between the cerebrum and spinal cord. The midbrain is also a reflex center for visual, auditory, and tactile responses.

central cord syndrome cavitation of central cord in ___ section, loss of spinothalamic tracts with bilateral loss of pain and temp, loss of ventral horn with bilateral loss of motor function, preservation of proprioceptive and discriminary sensation anterior cord syndrome is a loss of lateral corticospinal tracts with bilateral loss of motor function, spastic paralysis below level of lesion, as well as loss of spinothalamic tracts with bilateral loss of pain and temp. there is preservation of dorsal columns with proprioception, kinesthesia, and vibratory sense posterior cord syndrome is a loss of dorsal columns bilaterally with bilateral loss of proprioception, vibration, pressure. there is preservation of motor funciton, pain, and light touch.

cervical

A positive foraminal compression (Spurling) test is most indicative of: atlantoaxial instability cervical radiculitis vertebral artery compromise thoracic outlet syndrome

cervical radiculitis Spurling test is considered positive if pain radiates into the arm toward which the cervical spine is laterally flexed during compression. Radiating pain is caused by pressure on the nerve root (cervical radiculitis).

the increase in pressure associated with pregnancy may cause the __ to open prematurely. an incompetent cervix may lead to miscarriage or premature delivery and results in a __ __ pregnancy.

cervix high risk

A physical therapist assistant inspects a patient's wound prior to applying a dressing. When documenting the findings in the medical record, the physical therapist assistant classifies the exudate from the wound as serous. Based on the documentation, the MOST likely color of the exudate is: 1.clear 2.pink 3.red 4.yellow

clear

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with a lower motor neuron disorder. Which finding would be LEAST likely based on the presented information? 1.diminished deep tendon reflexes 2.clonus 3.hypotonia 4.fasciculations

clonus Diminished deep tendon reflexes (i.e., hyporeflexia) are characteristic of lower motor neuron disorders. 2.Clonus is characterized by cyclical, spasmodic alternation of muscular contraction and relaxation in response to a sustained stretch of a spastic muscle. This sign is characteristic of upper motor neuron disorders. 3.Hypotonia (i.e., decreased muscular tone) is characteristic of lower motor neuron disorders. 4.Fasciculations are random, spontaneous twitches in a muscle group which may be visible through the skin. They are characteristic of lower motor neuron disorders.

hep A is caused by __ __ with ___ who has the infection such as through contaminated food and water sources. sx include flu like and patients recover in _to_ weeks

close contact someone 6 10

Hematocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells in a volume of blood. Hematocrit may be decreased with anemia, nutritional deficiency, and leukemia. Hematocrit may be increased with dehydration, polycythemia, and burns. Hemoglobin is the iron containing pigment in red blood cells that functions to carry oxygen in the blood. Low hemoglobin may indicate anemia or blood loss; elevated hemoglobin suggests polycythemia or dehydration. platelet count identifies the number of platelets present in whole blood. Platelets are small blood cells that are necessary for _____. If the platelet level is high, it indicates increased risk of thrombosis and if the level is low, it indicates increased risk of bruising and bleeding.

clotting

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient who has Raynaud's disease. When experiencing an acute episode of this condition which of the following symptoms would the patient least likely experience? Cyanosis of the digits pain in the digits clubbing of the digits intense redness of the digits

clubbing of the digits Due to constriction of small arteries and arterioles of the extremities, pale ore and cyanosis of the digits are generally the initial symptoms seen with an episode of Raynaud's disease due to the lack of blood flow to the distal extremities patients experiencing an episode of Raynaud's disease may experience pain in the digits

A physical therapist assistant reads a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following clinical findings would the assistant expect to identify? Aphasia ballistic movement severe muscle atrophy cogwheel rigidity

cogwheel ridigity Aphasia is an acquired neurological communication impairment caused by damage to the brain. The condition is most commonly associated with brain injury head trauma CVA tumor or infection ballistic movements refer to large amplitude involuntary movements affecting the proximal limb musculature manifesting and jerking flinging movements of the extremity. Polysemous usually results from a lesion in the sub the lamech nucleus. Often only one side of the body is involved, resulting in hemiballismus severe muscle atrophy is an expected clinical finding in diseases that affect the nerves that control muscles such as poliomyelitis, ALS, Gillian Beret syndrome and disease is affecting the muscles directly such as Muscular Dystrophy and myotonia congenita cogwheel rigidity refers to a jerky ratchet like resistance to passive movement as muscle sequentially tense and relax the condition is most often associated with Parkinson's disease

___ Is the tendency of water molecules to adhere to each other, and the resistance that is spelled while moving through water is due to this Hydrostatic pressure is the circumfererential water pressure exerted on an immersed body or body part which reduces ____ and enhances ___ _____

cohesion edema peripheral circulation

Which type of research study is one in which a group of participants with a similar condition has followed for a defined period of time in comparison is made to a mashed group that does not have the condition? Case report cohort study systematic review randomized control study

cohort study A cohort study is a prospective (forward in time) studying in which a cohort group of participants who have received the same intervention has followed for a defined amount of time and is sometimes compared to a match group without that condition. It is generally a type of observational study

A physical therapist assistant works for the patient to days post total knee arthroplasty. The patient is currently taking oxycodone for acute pain control following surgery. Based on the prescribed medication which of the following supplements would most likely also be given to the patient? Niacin Glucosamine folic acid colace

colace

true or false fibromyalgia is an uncommon musculoskelatal disorder

false it is the most common

osteogenesis imperfect a connective tissue disorder that affects the formation of ___ during bone development classified into 4 types type I- the mildest form where a child has a near normal growth and sppearance with frequency of fractures usually ceasing after puberty. the patient experiences mild or moderate fragility, but most times without deformity. the patient will usually present with blue sclera, easy brusising, triangular face, and possible hearing loss type II- the most severe form where a child dies in utero or by early childhood. this child has significant fragility of connective tissue, experiences multiple fractures with extreme deformities, and has a soft skull type III- is severe but these children present with greater ossification of the skull. type III characteristics include significant growth retardation, progressive deformities, ongoing fractures, severe osteoporosis, triangular face, blue sclera, and significant limitations with functional mobility. type IV- may or may not have a shorter stature, will have bowing of long bones, a barrel shape of their rib cage, possible hearing loss, brittle teeth, and will present with near normal sclera. these children have a near normal life expectancy

collagen

Which level of the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale is characterized by the ability to respond purposefully to simple commands, but verbalization is often inappropriate with confabulation? Level III - Localized Response Level IV - Confused-Agitated Level V - Confused-Inappropriate Level VI - Confused-Appropriate

confused inapproriate Level V - Confused-Inappropriate is characterized by the ability to respond to simple commands rather consistently. Responses to more complex commands become non-purposeful, random or fragmented. Verbalization is often inappropriate and confabulatory. The patient is still unable to learn new information at this stage.

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity present in individuals with Down syndrome? cerebral palsy diabetes congenital heart defect congenital hip dysplasia

congental heart defect Congenital heart defects are present in approximately half of all children with Down syndrome. Congenital heart problems, respiratory infection, and leukemia are the most common factors associated with morbidity and mortality in childhood. Increased tendency for premature cellular aging and Alzheimer's disease may account for higher mortality rates in adulthood.

Oxycodone is an opioid medication used to treat moderate to severe pain following injury or surgery. Opioid agents provide analgesia for acute pain management however have well-known side effects that include sedation respiratory depression ,___,mood swings intolerance. Opioid-induced constipation can cause significant gastrointestinal discomfort

constipation

The physical therapist assistant is performing gait training with a 75 year old male who was just discharged home after undergoing a total knee replacement. The patient is complaining of new discomfort in the groin anterior hip and low back regions. The PTA should recognize that this tenderness could be related to : Diarrhea Constipation IBS Appendicitis

constipation The PTA should recognize that this patient has a decreased level of activity and is likely taking pain medications that can both contribute to constipation

In regards to wound assessment, what are the characteristics of wound exudate described as sanguineous? Containing blood Containing eschar Watery serum Containing pus

containing blood

A patient in the physical therapy gym suddenly grasps their throat and begins to cough. The physical therapist assistant, recognizing the signs of an airway obstruction should: 1.attempt to ventilate 2.administer abdominal thrusts 3.perform a quick finger sweep of the mouth 4.continue to observe the patient, but do not interfere

continue to ovserve the patient, but do not interfere if a mild obstruction is present in the patient's coughing, The Rescuer would not interfere with the patient spontaneous coughing and breathing efforts. The Rescuer should attempt to relieve the obstruction only a symptoms of severe obstruction develop such as the coffee coming silent respiratory difficulty increasing or the patient becoming unresponsive

Photopheresis describes the use of ultrasound for the transdermal delivery of medication. Ultrasound enhances the distribution of medication into skin, provide to high concentration of the drug directly to the treatment site, and avoids risks that may be associated with the injection medication. Medications regularly used in phonophoresis include anti-inflammatory agents and analgesics. It can be used with __and ___ techniques. phonophoresis is not likely to produce Burns or damaged skin sensitive needs transport whole molecules and set up ions into the body's tissue. Such as iontophoresis.

continueous pulsed

Which type of heat transfer is not affected by the temperature of the thermal agent? conduction convection conversion direct contact

conversion Conversion refers to heating that occurs when nonthermal energy (e.g., mechanical, electrical) is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat. Heating by conversion is not affected by the temperature of the thermal agent as it is with conduction and convection. Direct contact is synonymous with conduction.

A rib hump associated with scoliosis is located on the ___ side of the scoliotic curve. In patients with scoliosis, the spinous processes of the affected vertebrae deviate to the concave side of the curve forcing the ribs on the convex side to push posteriorly, resulting in the rib hump.

convex

the metacarpalphalangeal joints refer to the articulation between the __ distal end of the metacarpal bones and the __ base of the proximal phalanges of the fingers. the movable arm of the goniometer is placed over the ___ midline of the ___ phalanx when measuring MCP abduction

convex concave dorsal proximal

The anterior pituitary gland controls the release of growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, Follicle-stimulating hormone, luitenizing hormone, and prolactin. The adrenal __ controls the release of minerals corticosteroids glucocorticoids adrenal androgens and adrenal gland known. The Adrenal ___ controls the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

cortex medulla

a patient presents with a LMN lesion. which is not a structure that would be involved in a condition of a lower motor neuron lesion? cranial nerve peripheral nerve corticospinal tract spinal root

corticospinal tract

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient rehabilitating from a stroke. The patient exhibits paralysis and numbness on the side of the body contralateral to the vascular accident. Which descending pathway is MOST likely damaged based on the patient's clinical presentation? 1.corticospinal tract 2.vestibulospinal tract 3.tectospinal tract 4.rubrospinal tract

corticospinal tract The corticospinal tract is the largest descending pathway where 80% of the fibers decussate and descend on the opposite side, 20% continue to descend ipsilaterally. The corticospinal tract carries information from the motor cortex directly to the spinal cord the corticospinal tract is concerned with skilled fine motor control primarily of the distal limbs

Cushing's syndrome is a condition resulting from abnormally high levels of ___ due to endogenous overproduction of cortisol or excessive exogenous use of ____. High levels of cortisol in the body for a prolonged period Of time changes the way in which bones are remodeled. It will decrease bone formation and it will increase bone reabsorption. (just like osteoporosis) These changes ultimately lead to osteopenia or osteoporosis for many of these patients

cortisol corticosteriod

Cushing's syndrome is a metabolic disorder that occurs due to excessive production of ___. It can occur from toxicity of glucocorticoids but is most commonly due to a ___ tumor, symptoms include low glucose tolerance, moon face, and obesity with a buffalo hump

cortisol pituitary

a PTA is treating a young girl in a wheelchair with severe scoliosis. the PTA wants to recommend a low maitenance cushion that is easy for the girl's parents to reposition when needed. which of the following is the best option? fabric cushion air cushion controured foam cushion gel cushion

countoured foam cushion

general anesthesia sx can last up to a __ __ post surgery. confusion and muscle weakness are the two most common side effects. anestheisa can result in __ __ __, so the therapist may need to initiate breathing exercises or postural drainage with the patient

couple days retained pulmonary secretions

Integrity of which cranial nerve would be best assessed with a Snellen chart? cranial nerve I cranial nerve II cranial nerve III cranial nerve IV

cranial nerve II The optic nerve, cranial nerve II, would be assessed using a Snellen chart. To administer a test of the optic nerve using a Snellen chart, the patient stands 20 feet from the chart and proceeds to read the letters on the chart. The patient's score is reported as 20 over the size of type the patient can read comfortably (e.g., 20/40).

Which nerve is commonly affected when a patient presents with nystagmus? cranial nerve IV cranial nerve V cranial nerve VII cranial nerve VIII

cranial nerve VIII Nystagmus refers to rapid involuntary movements of the eyes. The presence of nystagmus can be identified by administering vestibuloocular reflex testing. Nystagmus can present in certain head positions with selected medical conditions such as benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

Which method of heat transfer would be considered a form of conduction? whirlpool ultrasound Cryo Cuff vapocoolant spray

cryo cuff The Cryo Cuff transfers heat through conduction. Conduction refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between two materials at different temperatures.

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with subjective complaints of aching in the medial forearm and ulnar side of the hand. The patient indicates that repetitive elbow flexion seems to exacerbate symptoms. Testing reveals a positive Tinel's sign. The patient's MOST likely diagnosis is: 1.carpal tunnel syndrome 2.cubital tunnel syndrome 3.lateral epicondylitis 4.radial tunnel syndrome

cubital tunnel syndrome

myofacial pain syndrome is similar to ___ but only affects a __ __

fibromyalgia single muscle

A physical therapist assistant working in a wound clinic presents an inservice on the aging process and its effect on the skin. Which of the following skin changes is MOST likely to occur as a person ages? 1.increase in skin elasticity 2.decrease in skin turgor 3.increase in sebaceous gland activity 4.decrease in skin dryness

decrease in skin turgor As a person ages skin elasticity will decrease. Collagen and elastin fibers shrink leading to a reduction in the elastic response of the skin. These changes result and skin that is more fragile and prone to damage as a person ages, skin turgor will decrease. 3rd War refers to the resistance of skin to deformation. This can be assessed by pinching the skin and observing how quickly it returns to its resting position. The aging process results in thinning of the epithelial layers and results in a loss of turgor.

Which of the following is not a potential therapeutic effect produced by continuous ultrasound? increased tissue extensibility decrease muscle spasm increased tissue metabolism decreased nerve conduction velocity

decrease nerve conduction velocity Thermal effects of continuous ultrasound include acceleration of metabolic rate, modulation of pain, reduction of muscle spasm, decreased joint stiffness, increased nerve conduction velocity, increased circulation, and increased soft tissue extensibility. The extent of the thermal effects are dependent on the intensity, duration, and frequency selected.

A physical therapist assistant works on ambulation with a patient rehabilitating from a CVA with right hemisphere involvement. Based on the presented image, the physical therapist assistant is attempting to: (refer to picture in camera roll) 1.increase weight bearing through the upper extremity 2.decrease synergy in the upper extremity 3.increase tone in the upper extremity 4.decrease subluxation of the upper extremity

decrease synergy in the upper extremity

Sharp pain, especially over bony prominences, may indicate periosteal irritation. The periosteum can absorb excessive sound energy when ultrasound is applied over areas with minimal soft tissue covering. A patient complaint of sharp burning pain requires the therapist to immediately __ the __.

decrease the intensity

A patient rides a stationary bike at 50 revolutions per minute following knee surgery. The physical therapist assistant would like to provide more of a stretch to the patient's knee while cycling to facilitate flexion range of motion. Which of the following modifications to the cycling parameters would be the most appropriate to achieve the assistance objective? Decrease the seat height and increase the revolutions per minute increase the seat height and increase the revolutions per minute decrease the seat height and decrease the revolutions per minute increase the seat height and decrease the revolutions per minute

decrease the seat height and decrease the revolutions per minute Although decreasing the seat height would help increase the amount of knee flexion, increasing the revolutions per minute would make it more difficult to accommodate to the change in range of motion demands and facilitate the quality of the stretch. Decreasing both the seat height and revolutions per minute would be the most appropriate of the presented options. A lower seat height enhance his knee flexion and a lower cycling Cadence would make it easier to accommodate to the change in range of motion demands and facilitate the quality of the stretch

for patients in a hyperglycemic state, there is often ___ appetite, __ and __, and __ __. hyperglycemia is when glucose is greater than __mg/dL and has a gradual onset over days

decreased nausea vomitting abdominal tenderness 300

Which is not a sign or symptom of hypoglycemia? Pallor decreased appetite Sweating weakness

decreased appetite

Which is not a physiological effect of General large surface area code application? Increased arterial blood pressure in increase cardiac output increased stroke volume decreased blood flow to internal organs

decreased blood flow to internal organs

A patient with atrial flutter suddenly becomes extremely lightheaded while exercising and appears to lose consciousness. Which scenario would BEST explain the change in the patient's status? 1.increased filling of the ventricles 2.increased system congestion 3.decreased atrial depolarization 4.decreased blood traveling to the brain

decreased blood traveling to the brain

Hypovolemia refers to a state of __ __ __ most often related to a decrease in blood plasma. The reduction of blood volume often occurs following a burn due to the shift in fluid to the interstitium which reduces plasma and intravascular fluid volume. This regulates in a variety of hemodynamic and circulatory changes however hematocrit would likely be the laboratory value most affected

decreased blood volume

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient who has experienced a lengthy hospitalization. Which cardiovascular system change is LEAST likely with prolonged bed rest? 1.decreased stroke volume 2.decreased cardiac output 3.decreased maximal heart rate 4.decreased maximal oxygen consumption

decreased maximal heart rate Maximal and submaximal heart rate increases with prolonged bed rest. The increase is believed to be a result of increased sensitivity of beta-adrenergic cardiac receptors and increased sympathetic secretion of norepinephrine Maximum oxygen consumption is generally considered the best indicator of cardiorespiratory endurance and aerobic fitness. Maximum oxygen consumption decreases with prolonged bed rest however the magnitude of the change is dampened because of the compensatory increase in maximal and submaximal heart rate

Which of the following correctly states the expected blood gas measurements in a patient with uncompensated metabolic acidosis? decreased pH, decreased HCO3, and decreased PCO2 elevated pH, elevated HCO3 and elevated PCO2 elevated pH and elevated HCO3, normal PCO2 decreased pH and decreased HCO3, normal PCO2

decreased pH and decreased HCO3, normal PCO2 Uncompensated metabolic acidosis presents with decreased pH and bicarbonate (HCO3). The condition occurs when the body produces excessive quantities of acid or when the kidneys are not removing enough acid from the body.

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with end-stage renal disease for general deconditioning. Which other symptoms would this patient MOST likely demonstrate? 1.increased urine output and polycythemia 2.increased urine output and anemia 3.decreased urine output and polycythemia 4.decreased urine output and anemia

decreased urine output and anemia With renal failure the kidneys have a decreased ability to adequately filter fluid there for urine output is significantly decreased or absent. Due to the kidneys role in the production of erythropoietin Patients with end-stage renal disease often display signs of anemia

Which of the following is not an effect of hydrostatic pressure potentially experienced by a patient in an aquatic environment? decreased edema decreased weight bearing decreased venous return decreased heart rate for a given workload

decreased venous return Hydrostatic pressure acts on any submerged object and increases with increasing depth. Hydrostatic pressure enhances venous return, which decreases heart rate if the workload is held constant.

double support phase: when both feet are on the ground does not occur when running time of double support increases as cadence __

decreases

beta blocker agents beta blocker agents decrease the myocardial oxygen demand by __ __ __ and contractility by blocking beta adrenergic receptors good for treating hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, heart failure, migraines, essential tremor tenormin and lopressor

decreasing heart rate

wound management: surgical debridement: indicated for patients with __ or ____ pressure ulcers stage __ and __. it is performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments and sometimes anesthesia. surgical debridement is recommended in ____ individuals or in __-__ situations

deep complicated III IV immunocompromised life-threatening

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient referred to physical therapy who was diagnosed with anterior compartment syndrome. The patient presents with an inability to dorsiflex the foot and a mild sensory disturbance between the first and second toes. The nerve MOST likely involved is the: 1.deep peroneal nerve 2.medial plantar nerve 3.tibial nerve 4.lateral plantar nerve

deep peroneal nerve The deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, lumbricals, and Geraci I, extensor digitorum brevis, and peroneus tertius muscles the medial plantar nerve is the larger of the two branches of the tibial nerve. The nerve supplies cutaneous branches to the medial 3 1/2 digits, and motor branches to the abductor pollicis, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and the most medial lumbrical muscles the tibial nerve innervates the tibialis posterior, abductor and adductor pollicis, flexor pollicis longus and brevis, flexor digitorum longus and brevis, quadratus plantae, Soleus, gastroc, plantaris, and popliteus muscle the lateral plantar nerve is the smaller of the two branches of the tibial nerve. The nerve supplies cutaneous branches to the lateral 1 and 1/2 toes and motor branches to the muscles of the sole of the foot that are not supplied by the medial plantar nerve

Which of the following is considered a contraindication to the use of local superficial thermotherapy? Demyelinating nerves deep vein thrombophlebitis Pregnancy Cardiac insufficiency

deep vein thrombophlebitis The ways in which body tissue responds to superficial heat can vary significantly and caution should be taken when using thermotherapy. Contraindications to the use of local superficial thermotherapy include deep vein thrombophlebitis, acute traumatic and inflammatory conditions, decreased sensation, impaired cognitive function, malignant tumors, very young and very old patients, tendency toward edema or Hemorrhage, and decreased circulation Precautions for the use of superficial thermotherapy include cardiac insufficiency edema impaired circulation pregnancy metal and treatment sight impaired thermoregulation the myelinated nerves open wounds in areas where a topical counter-irritant have been recently applied

Which functional activity would require the greatest amount of dorsiflexion range of motion? gait on level surfaces gait on a treadmill with a 3.0 percent grade ascending stairs descending stairs

descending stairs

pain transmission: nociceptors are free nerve endings present in most types of tissue that are activated by thermal, mechanical, or chemical stimuli. They are the terminal portions of two type of afferent neurons. A-delta fibers and C fibers. A- detla fibers trasmit ___ information ____ from peripheral cutaneous structures. C fibers transmit info from ___ tissues such as __ and ___ and do so more ___ than A delta fibers. because of these differences, A delta fibers are more likely to trasmit pain signals that are __ and ___, while C fibers transmit pain signals that are ___, ___, and diffuse. these nerve fibers send their impulses to the __ __ of the spinal cord where the impulses are then carried to the thalamus via the spinothalamic tracts. the nerve signal is then projected to the sensory cortex to be interperated and become a conscious pain sensation

detailed rapidly deeper joints viscera slowly sharp localized dull aching dorsal horn

__ __ is an inappropriate elevation of blood glucose levels and accelerated atherosclerosis

diabetic angiopathy

What is the primary muscle or muscle group for inspiration? Abdominal muscles Diaphragm sternocleidomastoid and scalene Trapezius

diaphragm the primary muscle of inspiration is a diaphragm which is made of two hemidiaphragms. When the diaphragm is at rest the hemidiaphragms are arched High into the thorax when the diaphragm contracts the diaphragm flattens as it is pulled downward by the central tendon. The scalenes and sternocleidomastoid are considered accessory muscles of inspiration needed when a person is taking a more rapid or deeper breath or in a disease State. The trapezius can also become an accessory muscle of inspiration when the shoulder girdle is fixed. The abdominal muscles are muscles of forced expiration

at the level C4 SCI, the __ and ___ remain intact, and the patient still has __ and __ __ available.

diaphragm traps respiration scapular elevation

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient that is 7 months pregnant. The assistant position is the patient and a hook lying position and ask the patient to raise her head from the plant. The assistant knows a bulge in the central abdominal area. This observation should be noted as de Quervain's disease diastasis recti thoracic outlet syndrome piriformis syndrome

diastasis recti Pregnant women are encouraged to continue with exercise activity at a moderate rate during a low risk pregnancy. Guidelines permit women to remain at 50 to 60% of their maximum heart rate for approximately 30 minutes per session. Loose clothing is advised to allow for adequate heat loss and adequate fluids are required during exercise

Which physical agent functions to deliver heat to tissues through conversion? diathermy hot packs Hubbard tank paraffin

diathermy Conversion refers to heating that occurs when nonthermal energy (e.g., mechanical, electrical) is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat.

All of the following are used frequently to treat temporomandibular joint dysfunction except: postural training diathermy electrical stimulation ultrasound

diathermy Diathermy is a deep heating agent that converts high frequency electromagnetic energy into therapeutic heat. Electrical energy produces a molecular vibration within tissue that generates heat and elevates tissue temperature. Diathermy is rarely used around the mouth area since fillings or any other metal compound would be a contraindication.

diverticulitis Condition of having inflamed or infected diverticula. This occurs in approximately 20 to 25% of the population that has diverticulosis. Diverticulosis is the condition of having diverticula. These are pouch like protrusions occurring in the colon. Approximately 80% of individuals with diverticulosis are asymptomatic however those with symptoms may experience bloating mild cramping and both diarrhea and constipation Treatment includes an increased amount of __ __ (__to__ g per day) Typically results from a low fiber diet Treatment includes diet modification controlling the underlying infection and lowering internal colonic pressure through increase fiber intake Physical activity assists the bowel function is and is extremely important during periods of remission breathing techniques will assist in stress reduction and with breath-holding patterns avoid any increase in entropy dominal pressure with exercise or activity

dietary fiber

Which of the following types of medication would not be used to treat hypertension? thiazide diuretics beta blockers angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors digoxin

digoxin Digoxin is a positive inotropic agent that increases the force and velocity of myocardial contraction. The medication is commonly used to treat chronic heart failure. Thiazide diuretics, beta blockers, and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension.

alpha adrenergic antagonistic agents reduce vascular tone by blocking alpha 1 adrenergic receptors which causes __ of the arterioles and veins and decreases __ __ reasons for taking this medication include __ and benign __ __

dilation blood pressure hypertension prostatic hyperplasia

Which action on the heart or vascular system results from utilization of a cholinergic drug? dilation of innervated vessels increased venous return decreased internodal delay increased force of contraction

dilation of innervated vessels A cholinergic drug activates the parasympathetic nervous system which causes relaxation of vessels and decreases the work load on the heart.

A patient diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis is referred to physical therapy. The physical therapist assistant treats the patient using iontophoresis over the lateral epicondyle. Which type of current would the physical therapist assistant use to administer the treatment? 1.direct 2.alternating 3.pulsatile 4.interferential

direct Direct current is characterized by an uninterrupted flow of electrons toward the positive pole. This type of current is necessary to move the charged ions across the dermal barrier. Polarity remains constant and is determined based on treatment goals and the polarity of the chosen ion

Conduction refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from __ __ between two materials at different temperatures. Heat transfer continues until the temperature and speed of molecular movement of both materials become equal. The rate of heat transfer will accelerate when there is a large temperature difference between a heating or cooling agent and the body part being treated. Materials with high thermal conductivity transfer heat faster than those with low thermal conductivity. Examples of modalities that utilize conduction include hot pack, cold pack, paraffin, ice massage, and cryo cuff

direct contact

Transdermal Administration is a parenteral form of medication administration where the drug is applied __ to the __ of the __ to allow for absorption through the dermal layers and into the subcutaneous tissues or the peripheral circulation. This method allows for a __ __ __ of the drug into the body

directly surface skin slow cotrolled release

What is the most useful diagnostic test to determine the severity of heart failure? echocardiography angiography electrocardiography electroencephalography

echogardiography Echocardiography (including Doppler flow studies) is the most useful diagnostic test for evaluation of anatomy, possible etiology, and severity of heart failure. The test can be used to assess ejection fraction, left ventricle structure, the pericardial sac, and the structural integrity of the valves and chambers of the heart.

subcutaneous Subcutaneous Administration involves injection of a drug __ __ the ___ into the subcutaneous fat or connective tissue. This form of administration can be useful in a __ __of medication into the systemic circulation is required such as ____. Patients have the ability to self administer these medications if they are trained. However the rate of absorption of these drugs can be affected by a variety of factors. Some factors such as immobility of the limb or the application of cold may slow the absorption rate while other factors such as massage or application of heat may speed absorption

directly under skin slow release insulin

A physical therapist assistant documents in the medical record that a patient has moved from stage 5 to stage 6 of Brunnstrom's Stages of Recovery. This type of transition is characterized by: 1.absence of associated reactions 2.disappearance of spasticity 3.voluntary movement begins outside of synergy patterns 4.normal motor function

disappearance of spasticity (look those up)

A physical therapist assistant inspects the skin of a patient during an iontophoresis treatment using dexamethasone and concludes the patient is having an adverse skin reaction. The MOST appropriate action is: 1.select an alternate therapeutic ion 2.decrease the duration of the treatment session 3.decrease the current intensity 4.discontinue the intervention

discontinue the intervention The most common sensitivity reaction with iontophoresis is a chemical burn which usually occurs as a result of the direct current. Reactions to the ion itself are relatively rare. The skin of the patient should be checked before, during, and after treatment to ensure that no adverse reactions are occurring.

The therapist is treating a pregnant woman who is 30 weeks in gestation. The patient complains of a headache and lower energy. The therapist assesses her blood pressure is 145/90 and notes edema in the lower legs. What is the best treatment intervention? Discontinue the session and initiate an immediate referral to her physician educate the patient in the role of lower extremity elevation to reduce edema and review her medication list give the patient water and a seated rest break

discontinue the session and initiate an immediate referral to her physician

A physical therapist assistant completes a cognitive function test on a patient status post stroke. As part of the test, the physical therapist assistant assesses the patient's abstract ability. Which of the following tasks would be the MOST appropriate? 1.orientation to time, person, and place 2.copy drawn figures of varying size and shape 3.discuss how two objects are similar 4.identify letters or numbers traced on the skin

discuss how two objects are similar Abstract ability is commonly tested using two specific methods. The first method is by asking a patient to describe how two items such as a cat and a mouse are similar. The other method is by asking a patient to interpret the meaning of a proverb such as a rolling stone gathers no Moss. Patients with difficulty in abstract thinking May provide answers that tend to be literal or concrete

A patient in a rehabilitation hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the possibility of committing suicide. The MOST appropriate action is: 1.suggest the patient be placed on a locked unit 2.ask nursing to check on the patient every 15 minutes 3.discuss the situation with the patient's case manager 4.review the patient's past medical history for signs and symptoms of mental illness

discuss the situation with the patient's case manager The case manager would likely contact the attending physician or appropriate mental health provider for direct intervention

spinal laminectomy usually performed in the presence of a __ __ or __ __ a complete laminectomy involves the removal of the entire ___, the __ __, and the associated __ _ while a partial requires only the removal of the lamina. the surgeon may place restrictions on active motions, especially ____.

disk protrusion spinal stenosis lamina spinous process ligamentum flavuum extension

murphy sign tests for a ___ ___ patient is asked to make a fist. if the __rd metacarpal is __ with the 2nd and 4th metacarpal it will be a positive sign

dislocated lunate 3rd level

A pulmonary patient has developed respiratory acidosis. What should the therapist monitor for Disorientation Dizziness Convulsions numbness and tingling

disorientation

A patient with a transtibial amputation is performing gait training. After 15 minutes of training, the patellar-tendon bearing prosthesis is removed and the skin is inspected. Redness is noted on multiple areas of the residual limb. Which area of redness would be the GREATEST concern? 1.patellar tendon 2.fibular shaft 3.gastrocnemius muscle 4.distal anterior tibia

distal anterior tibia

ALS is a progressive upper and lower motor neuron disease in which the muscle fibers atrophy from peripheral nerve involvement. degeneration and scarring of the motor neurons occur in the lateral aspect of the spinal cord, brainstem, and cerebral cortex. patients with ALS display ___ ___ weakness with atrophy facial weakness with difficulty swallowing, as well as hyperactive tendons and reflexes. They have normal cognitive function

distal asymmetrical

the structure that should be stabilized when measuring forearm pronation and supination is

distal humerus

Cryotherapy is often used to treat which of the following? Edema muscle guarding muscle weakness tissue extensibility

edema

with right sided heart failure, there will be a backflow of de oxygenated blood back into the body. because of this backflow of fluid, ___ will be present as well as __ __ __ and ___.

edema jugular venous distention cyanosis

A physical therapist assistant utilizes the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying endurance for a patient rehabilitating from a lengthy illness. Which variable would be the MOST appropriate to measure when determining the patient's endurance level with this objective test? 1.perceived exertion 2.heart rate response 3.elapsed time 4.distance walked

distance walked The patient is instructed to walk as quickly as they can and attempt to cover as much ground as possible within the 6-minute period. The therapist is not attempt to record the patient's perceived exertion however the patient must let the therapist know if they experienced chest pain or dizziness the heart rate response will likely increase as the intensity and duration of the test increases however the test is not designed to examine the heart rate response. Heart rate blood pressure oxygen saturation and dyspnea score are typically assess prior to and after the administration of the test. The task requires a therapist to measure the distance the patient walks with an a six minute period With rest periods Permitted as necessary

which of the following pathologies causes pouch-like protusions occurring in the colon? gastritis diverticulitis IBS peptic ulcer disease

diverticulitis

Which disorder is characterized by the formation of pouch-like protrusions within the colon? irritable bowel syndrome peritonitis intestinal tumors diverticulosis

diverticulosis Diverticulosis involves the formation of diverticula, which are pouch-like protrusions occurring in the colon. Symptoms of this condition include abdominal pain, bloating, mild cramping, and constipation. Treatment usually includes an increased amount of dietary fiber.

finger abduction (remember pad and dab)

dorsal interossei abductor digiti minimi (5th digit)

Information from the periphery enters the spinal cord at which location? lateral column dorsal column dorsal root ventral horn

dorsal root

What is the term given to the kyphotic deformity resulting from postmenopausal osteoporosis? round back hump back gibbus deformity Dowager's hump

dowager's hump A Dowager's hump is characterized by a kyphotic curvature of the thoracic spine secondary to the osteoporotic process that occurs in postmenopausal women. Compression of the anterior portion of the vertebrae due to osteoporosis leads to the forward bending (i.e., kyphosis) posture.

an amputee wheelchair is modidfied to accommodate for patients with BLE amputations and altred CoG. were are the drive wheels positiioned? drive wheels are anterior to the vertical back supports drive wheels are positioned in the same line as the vertical back supports drive wheels positioned posterior to the vertical back supports there is no modification required for the drive wheels

drive wheels are posterior to the vertical back supports typically 2 inches backward

Metabolic acidosis- A condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acids due to an acid gain or bicarbonate loss. As a result the pH __ __ __ Metabolic acidosis commonly occurs with conditions such as renal failure, lactic acidosis, starvation, diabetic or alcoholic ketoacidosis, severe diarrhea or poisoning by certain toxins Symptoms include compensatory _____. Vomiting. Diarrhea. Headache, weakness and malaise, hyperkalemia, and cardiac arrhythmias. ____ Is often observed as the body tries to regulate its acid-base balance by inducing respiratory alkalosis through hyperventilation tretment includes administration of __ __

drops below 7.35 hyperventilation tachypnea sodium bicarbonate

A patient presents with a flexion contracture of the elbow after sustaining deep partial thickness and full-thickness burns to the antecubital region. Which of the following explains would be the most appropriate to address this impairment? Static splint applied at the end range of elbow extension with forearm pronation Dynamic splint with low load stress into elbow extension with forearm supination static splint applied at the end range of elbow flexion with the forearm in a neutral position Dynamic splint with Lola's dress into elbow flexion with forearm supination

dynamic splint with low load stress into elbow extension with forearm supination

The quadriceps exhibit two periods of peak activity during the gait cycle. They occur in periods of single support during ___ ___ phase and just before __ __ to initiate swing phase.

early stance toe off

Which of the following types of contraction has the potential for the highest force production? eccentric isotonic isometric concentric

eccentric An eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle lengthens while developing tension. This type of contraction involves dynamic loading of a muscle beyond its typical force producing capacity.

A physical therapist assistant assesses the functional strength of a patient's hip extensors while observing the patient move from standing to sitting. What type of contraction occurs in the hip extensors during this activity? 1.concentric 2.eccentric 3.isometric 4.isokinetic

eccentric concentric contractions require a shortening of the involved muscle. the hip extensors would lengthen when moving from standing to sitting and therfore the contraction would not be labeled concentric. eccentric contractions require a lengthening of the involved msucle. the contraction generally occurs when there is a need to decelerate a body part. the hip extensors would lengthen when movig from standing to sitting

Which of the following would most likely be used to evaluate valvular function of the heart? cardiac catheterization magnetic resonance imaging electrocardiography echocardiography

echocardiography Echocardiography is a non-invasive procedure which involves using a handheld ultrasound transducer to produce images of the structures underneath such as the valves of the heart.

what is the capsular pattern of restriction of the ulnohumeral joint and knee joint?

flexion>extension

Which of the following is most critical to include in the plan of care of a patient recovering from a hernia? upper extremity strengthening lower extremity strengthening aerobic walking program education on proper lifting techniques

education on proper lifting techniques It is important that patients recovering from a hernia are educated on proper lifting techniques. This would include an orientation to proper body mechanics when lifting and breathing instructions to avoid increasing intra-abdominal pressure because increases in intra-abdominal pressure will likely exacerbate the condition.

class 3 lever: the __ is between the __ and ___ the length of the effort arm is always __ than the length of the resistance arm. example: __ __ usually permit large movements at rapid speeds and are the most common type of lever in the body

effort axis resistance less shoulder abduction

___ ___ is the percentage of blood emptied from the ventricle during systole __ __ is the amount of blood ejected with each myocardial contraction which is approximately 70 mL __ __ is the volume of blood discharged from the left or right ventricle per minute, which is approximately 4-6 L

ejection fraction stroke volume cardiac output

a flexion contracture of the elbow refers to the inability to fully straighten or extend the elbow. The most anticipated deformity associated with Burns to the antecubital region would be __ __ with __ __. Positioning and splinting should therefore be an __ __ with __ __. Evidence based practice for treatment of contractures recommends use of __ __, __ __.

elbow flexion forearm pronation elow extension forearm supination low load prolonged stretch

Which segment of the population has the greatest risk of experiencing potentially adverse drug interactions? infants teenagers young adults elderly

elderly Healthcare providers should be aware of this type of potential drug interaction in all individuals, however, the elderly population is most at risk. This occurs since many elderly individuals take numerous drugs at a time (polypharmacy) and therefore, have an increased likelihood of experience drug interactions.

Which of the following best explains why individuals with fibromyalgia experience pain with normal stimuli? elevated levels of substance P sensitivity to light resistance to pain medications compromised immune system

elevated levels of substance P Normal stimuli often cause pain in individuals with fibromyalgia. This is likely due to elevated levels of substance P, a neurotransmitter responsible for sending pain signals to the brain.

Which finding is not consistent with the typical clinical presentation of Down syndrome? transverse palmar crease elf-like facial features epicanthic folds hypotonia

elf like facial features Elf-like facial features are not a common physical characteristic of Down syndrome and instead are characteristic of Williams syndrome. The other options are common with Down syndrome in addition to a flat nasal bridge, small mouth, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and excessive skin at the nape of the neck.

half life The half life of a drug refers to the rate of _____ of the drug. If a drug has a half life of 2 hours and 4,000 units of the drug are administered initially, then only ___ units will remain after 2 hours, and only ____ units will remain after 4 hours

elimination 2000 1000

What condition would be most commonly associated with a gradual destruction of the alveolar walls which increases dead space within the lungs? atelectasis pleural effusion emphysema pneumonia

emphysema Emphysema is commonly associated with a gradual destruction of the alveolar walls which increases dead space within the lungs. Smoking is the leading cause of emphysema. Symptoms include dyspnea, wheezing, chronic coughing, orthopnea, barrel chest, increased use of accessory muscles, increased respiratory rate, fatigue and reduced exercise capacity.

joint inflammation fracture bursitis are all examples of __ abnormal end feel

empty

a fracture can result as a __ end feel or a __ end feel

empty hard

bursitis = ___ end feel osteophyte formation = __ end feel increased tone = __ end feel edema = __ end feel

empty hard firm soft

glucocorticoid agents (corticosteroids) provide hormonal, anti-inflammatory, and metabolic effects including supression of articular systemic diseases. these agents reduce inflammation in chronic conditions that can damage healthy tissue through a series of reactions. vasoconstriction results from stabilizing lysosomal membranes and enhancing the effects of catecholamines. indications: replacement therapy for __ __, anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects; treatment of rheumatic, respiratory, and various other disorders a therapist must __ a __ when working with patients since their __ __ is weakened. a therapist must be aware of signs of ___ such as moon face, buffalo hump, and personality changes. treatment of an injected joint will require __ __ due to ligament and tendon laxity or weakening examples: ___ and ___, ___

endocrine dysfunction wear mask immune system toxicity special care dermacort, cordrol, decadrol (dexamethasone)

A jejunostomy tube is inserted through __ into the jejunum. The tube can be used for long-term feeding for patients that are unable to receive food by mouth. An endoscope is introduced into the body through a __ __ (e.g., mouth, anus), rather than through an __ __

endoscopy natural opening abdominal incision

deltoid ligament: resists ___ of the talus

eversion

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Based on the diagnosis, which of the following tests would MOST likely be abnormal? 1.coordination testing 2.sensory testing 3.deep tendon reflex testing 4.endurance testing

endurance testing Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that one disrupts neuromuscular transmission and results in weakness and fatigue ability. The condition is characterized by weakness with repetitive activity that is restored quickly after a period Of rest . A patient with myasthenia gravis could demonstrate normal strength with manual muscle testing since it only requires a single muscle contraction. However the patient would demonstrate significant weakness if required to perform repeated contractions. Endurance testing such as treadmill testing or cycletry would likely be abnormal for the patient

foraminotomy is a surgical procedure that is performed to ___ the foraminal space thereby decreasing compression on the exiting spinal nerve root. Tissue that is impinging on the nerves such as bone spurs, intervertebral disc material or ligaments, may be removed to help increase the size of the foraminal space

enlarge

What is the goal of therapeutic intervention associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip? internal fixation enlarging and deepening the acetabulum replacing the femoral head compensating for a leg length discrepancy

enlarging and deepening of the acetabulum Developmental dysplasia of the hip is characterized by malalignment of the femoral head in the acetabulum. Enlarging and deepening the acetabulum can allow for a more stable articulation between the two structures. If conservative treatment for this condition is not successful, surgical management may be indicated.

inhalation Drugs can be inhaled for administration if they're in a gaseous or aerosol form. Inhalation is advantageous since the lungs have a large surface area for absorption and therefore the drug can __ the __ __ __. A potential disadvantage of inhalation is that the respiratory tract can become irritated

enter systemic circulation rapidly

sequence the following body regions from greatest to least percentage of the total surface area posterior upper extremity of an adult entire trunk of a child LE of a child head and neck of an adult

entire trunk of a child LE of a child head and neck of an adult posterior UE of an adult

A patient coverage form indicates selective debridement is to be performed on a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity burn. Based on the coverage form, the MOST likely intervention would be: 1.whirlpool 2.wet-to-dry dressings 3.enzymatic debridement 4.wound irrigation

enzymatic debridement

What is the proper order of skin layers from superficial to deep? epidermis, papillary dermis, reticular dermis, subcutaneous epidermis, reticular dermis, papillary dermis, subcutaneous reticular dermis, papillary dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous epidermis, subcutaneous, papillary dermis, reticular dermis

epidermis, papillary dermis, reticular dermis, subcutaneous The epidermis is the most superficial layer of the skin followed by the papillary dermis, reticular dermis, and subcutaneous. A superficial burn would involve only the epidermis, a superficial partial-thickness burn would extend to the papillary dermis, a deep partial-thickness to the reticular dermis, and a full thickness extends through the dermis to the subcutaneous tissue.

Which term best describes non-contractile tissue that envelops the entire muscle creating a fascial sheath? epimysium perimysium endomysium sarcomere

epimysium

An example of an adrenergic drug is: acetylcholine nicotine epinephrine choline

epinepherine Adrenergic drugs relate to nerve cells in which epinephrine, norepinephrine or a similar substance act as a neurotransmitter. Epinephrine is produced by the adrenal glands and plays an important role in the fight-or-flight response.

which brain structure is involved in the body's circadian rhythms and internal clock? epithalamus pons medulla oblangata subthalamus

epithalamus

carcinoma is a malignant tumor that originates from ___ tissue such as __, __, __, __ and ___

epithelial skin stomach breast colon rectum

Which of the following is not considered a skin appendage? hair follicles finger nails erector pili sweat glands

erector pili Along with the skin, the integumentary system includes "appendages" such as hair follicles, hair, nails, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands. Erector pili are the muscles responsible for raising individual hairs off the skin.

muscles that perform trunk extension (3)

erector spinae quadratus lumborum multifidus

Treatment of scoliosis less than 25 degrees should be monitored __ __ __. ___ extercises and strengthening program for the trunk and pelvic muscles are indicated scoliosis ranging from 25-40 degrees requires a __ __ and PT intervention for posture, felxibility, strengthening, respiratory function, and proper utilization of the __ __. scoliosis greater than 40 degrees will usually require ___ for __ __. they will do this through a posterior spinal fusion and stabilization with a ___ rod

every three months breathing spinal orthosis spinal orthosis surgery spinal stabilization harrington

Hyperalgesia differs from allodynia in that hyperalgesia is an __ __ to a stimulus that is normally found to be painful. The described Scenario refers to pain that results from contact with bed sheets which is a non noxious stimulus

exaggerated reaction

A physical therapist assistant classifies the gait of a patient with hemiplegia as equinus. Which finding is MOST likely to promote this type of gait pattern? 1.excessive activity of the gastrocnemius 2.weakness of the tibialis posterior 3.excessive activity of the tibialis anterior 4.weakness of the flexor digitorum longus

excessive activity of the gastroc An equinus gait pattern is characterized by excessive plantar flexion of the ankle. This type of gait pattern is often caused by excessive activity of the gastroc, a plantar flexion contracture or weak dorsiflexors. The gastrocnemius acts to play their Flex the ankle and therefore excessive activity of the muscle would contribute to an equine escape. The gastroc is innervated by the tibial nerve S1 S2

A patient recently diagnosed with deep vein thrombophlebitis is placed on Heparin. What is the primary side effect associated with heparin? Hypertension Depression excessive anticoagulation thrombocytopenia

excessive anticoagulation Anticoagulant agents delay or prevent blood coagulation or clotting. Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent and treat disorders such as pulmonary embolism which result from vascular thrombosis. Heparin inhibits coagulation by preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and by preventing the release of thromboplastin from platelets

a patient lacking dorsiflexion ROM past neutral may compensate with

excessive ipsilateral toe out

chronic fatigue syndrome is often considered a disease of ___

exculsion

obstructive ventilatory impairment characterized by decreased expiratory flows airway narrowing during ___ causes a disproportionate reduction of maximal air flow compared to the maximal volume displaced in the lungs FEV1/FVC < ___% is the primary indicator of an obsturctive impairment pathologies include __, __ and ___

exhalation 70% asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis

glands affected in cystic fibrosis are __ glands

exocrine

What type of drug is commonly used to remove mucus from the lungs? antitussives analgesics bronchodilators expectorants

expectorants Expectorant agents increase respiratory secretions which help to loosen mucus. Reducing the viscosity of secretions and increasing sputum volume improves the efficiency of the cough reflex and of ciliary action in removing accumulated secretions. anittussives are cough suppressors

restrictive ventilatory impairment characterized by redcued lung volumes (total lung capacity, FCV, FEV1) and relatively normal ___ flow rates pathologies include interstitial lung disease, pleural diseases, chest wall deformities, obesity, pregnancy, neuromuscular disease, and tumor

expiratory

Which pulmonary function test value refers to the maximal volume of air that can be exhaled after a normal tidal exhalation? expiratory reserve volume inspiratory reserve volume peak expiratory flow vital capacity

expiratory reserve volume

Broca's area Controls language ____ - an area of the ___ lobe, usually in the ___ hemisphere, that directs the muscle movements involved in speech.

expression frontal left

Broca's aphasia, also known as ___ aphasia, occurs with a lesion to the frontal lobe in the dominant (typically left) hemisphere that results in impairment of speech and expression.

expressive

tripod sign patient is seated with knees flexed to 90 over the edge of the table. therapist passively ___ one knee. positive test indicates __ in the ___ or extension of the trunk in order to limit the effect of the tight hamstrings.

extend tightness hamstrings

T or F Lower extremity extension synergy may cause exaggerated hip flexion during swing phase

false *lower extremity flexion synergy

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with lower extremity weakness due to a laceration injury to the tibial nerve. Which movement would MOST likely be unaffected by the nerve injury? 1.plantar flexion of the ankle 2.extension of the great toe 3.flexion of the great toe 4.flexion of toes 2-5

extension of the great toe The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that supplies innervation to the muscles of the posterior leg. In the foot the tibial nerve branches into the medial and lateral plantar nerves Extension of the great toe is performed by the extensor hallucis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve which is a branch of the common peroneal nerve.

what muscle is most commonly associated with lateral epicondylitis this injury is often casued by repeated ____ loading of the extensor muscles

extensor carpi radialis brevis eccentric

wrist extension (3)

extensor carpi radialis longus extensor carpi radialis brevis extensor carpi ulnaris

Which muscle actively contributes to producing a tenodesis grip? A tenodesis grip is a method of grasping used by patients with C6 and C7 tetraplegia who have paralysis of the finger and thumb flexor muscles, but active wrist extensors. The grip is most effective with shortened wrist and finger flexors.

extensor digitorum

finger extension (3)

extensor digitorum communis, extensor indicis(2nd digit) , extensor digiti minimi (5th digit)

the three muscles that make up the anatomical snuff box are....

extensor pollicis brevis extensor pollicis longus abductor pollicis longus

Which two structures do not pass through the carpal tunnel? Extensor pollicis longus tendon median nerve radial nerve flexor digitorum profundus tendon flexor digitorum superficialis tendons

extensor pollicis longus tendon radial nerve

screw home mechanism in an open chain position (the tibia is moving on a stationary femur) during the last 20-30 degrees of knee extension, the tibia rotates ____ in order to lock the knee joint during the first 20-30 degrees of knee flexion, the tibia rotates ___ in order to unlock the knee joint

externally internally

Which cranial nerve conveys taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? facial nerve trigeminal nerve glossopharyngeal nerve hypoglossal nerve

facial The facial nerve is tested by asking a patient to distinguish between sweet and salty substances placed on the anterior portion of the tongue. A positive test for the sensory component may be identified by an inability to accurately identify sweet and salty substances. The facial nerve also provides motor innervation to the facial muscles of expression.

which 3 cranial nerves sense taste? trigeminal facial glossopharyngeal hypoglossal vagus

facial vagus glossopharyngeal

cranial nerve tested by have the paient close their eyes tightly

facial (VII)

Which of the following is not a contraindication to Aquatic exercise intervention? Bowel or bladder incontinence fear of water water and Airborne infections severe epilepsy

fear of water Contraindications to Aquatic therapy include bowel or bladder incontinence, severe kidney disease, severe epilepsy, severe cardiac disease, severe peripheral vascular disease, large open wounds, bleeding or Hemorrhage, and water and Airborne infections precautions to Aquatic therapy include fear of water, and ability to swim, patients with heat and tolerances, and use of waterproof dressings over small wounds

APTA is providing initial gait training for a patient learning to walk with a Hemi Walker after a stroke. What is the appropriate feedback? Verbal feedback is not given verbal feedback summed after 4 trials verbal feedback after every trial verbal feedback sound after 10 trials

feeback after every trial Feedback given frequently after every trial and proves initial performance. In this example frequent feedback is necessary to ensure proper sequencing and safety with ambulation. Feedback given less frequently some doctor and given number of Trials or fading with decreasing frequency improves retention of skills

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient using a flotation device position vertically in the deep end of the pool. What area of the patient's body would experience the greatest amount of hydrostatic pressure Pressure? Shoulders Torso Head Feet

feet hydrostatic pressure refers to the pressure exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in the fluid. Hydrostatic pressure increases as the depth of immersion increases

IBS The etiology is unknown but one Theory believes that the colon or large intestine may be sensitive to certain foods or stress. Other theories hypothesize that the immune system, serotonin, and bacterial infections may all be positive factors. IBS typically occurs in as many as 20% of adults more commonly in___ and begins prior to the age of __ and 50% of patients. ___ have a slightly higher rate of incidents which may be triggered by food sensitivities, stress, anxiety, caffeine, smoking, alcohol or high fat intake one of the sx includes passing of __ in the stool

females 30 females mucus

A cardiac catheterization procedure gains access to the body through which vessel? femoral artery carotid artery jugular vein subclavian vein

femoral artery a thin catheter is inserted into an artery in the leg or arm and is advanced to the coronary arteries Cardiac catheterization is an invasive technique used to examine cardiac function, blockage in coronary arteries, and the integrity of cardiac valves and structures. It most often involves feeding a catheter from the femoral artery back through the arterial system to the coronary sinus. The radial or brachial arteries can also be used for this procedure. Radioactive dye is injected to visualize the flow of blood and other structures.

Femoroacetabular impingement, a mechanical incongruence between the femoral head and the acetabulum, may result in osteoarthritis. There are two types of femoroacetabular impingement; cam in which the ___ ___ is misshapen, and pincer in which there is an overgrowth of the ___ ____.

femoral head acetabular rim

congenital hip dysplasia malalignment of the __ __ within the ___. the condition develops during the __ ___ in utero. clinical presentation inluces asymmetircal __ __ with tighness and aparent femoral ___ on the involved side. testing for this condition may include ortolani's test, barlow's test, and diagnostic ultrasound.

femoral head acetabulum last trimester hip abduction shortening

leg calve perthes diseas is characteried by degeneration of the __ __ due to a disturbance in __ __. (__ __) the disease is self limiting and has four stages __ __ __ ___ if your patient has a positive __ __, or an ___ gait, they may have this condition Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is a pediatric condition of the hip that results from which of the following? congenital dislocation of the hip slipping of the femoral epiphysis disruption of blood supply to the femoral head high birth weight the condition is more common in ___

femoral head blood supply (avasuclar necrosis) condensation fragmentation re-ossification remodeling trendelenburg sign antalgic disruption of blood supply to the femoral head boys

the trochanteric bursa is located between the __ __ __, __ __ and __ __. the classic symptom of this is pain at the lateral hip which may radiate to the lateral aspect of the thigh. point tenderness and reproduction of pain are typical with palpation. symptoms are exacerbated by weight bearing. passive hip movement involving __ __ and __ or resisted __ __ and __ are likely to reproduce symptoms

femoral trochanteric process glute med IT band lateral rotation abduction hip flexion abduction

Which bony deformity is most likely to result in the development of osteoarthritis of the hip? femoral retroversion coxa varum coxa vara femoroacetabular impingement

femoralacetabular impingement

other pressure sensitive areas include the disterolateral end of the ____ and the __ area.

femur perineal

What bone when fractured is often associated with the use of skeletal traction? femur humerus tibia fibula

femur Balanced suspension traction requires pins, screws, and wires to be surgically inserted into bone for the purpose of applying a traction force using an externally applied weight. This type of traction is most often utilized with a comminuted fracture of the femur.

Which of the following is not a common symptom associated with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis? pain joint swelling joint stiffness fever

fever Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is the most common type of arthritis in children under the age of 17. This condition is commonly associated with pain, joint swelling, and stiffness. In some cases, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis affects an individual's entire body causing swollen lymph nodes, rash, and fever.

norovirus, rotavirus and clostridium difficile are all infections associated with sings and sx of __, __, and ___ __

fever, diarrhea, abdominal pains

callus formation is one of the __ ___ that healing has occurred. The presence of a callus identified through Diagnostic Imaging allows the patient to progress to active assistant exercise Remodeling is the __ __ of bone healing where the fracture has solidly United with woven bone. A patient would begin active assisted exercise far earlier in the rehabilitation process

first indications final stage

A___ is a muscle that stabilizes the origin of the agonist and the joint that the origin spans to allow the agonist to function most effectively. A fixator is a stabilizer in one part of the body during movement in another part of the body. In the bicep curl the fixator would be the rotator cuff muscles.

fixator

stage 1: initial ___, no __ __ stage 2: emergence of ___, __ and ___ stage 3: __ __ possible but only in ___, ___ is at its peak

flacidity voluntary movement spasticity hyperreflexia synergies voluntary movement synergies spasticity

When performing the Bunnel-Littler test, the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is flexed followed by the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint to rule out a capsular restriction of the involved digit. If the range of motion is unrestricted at both joints, the capsule is likely unaffected. The test begins with the MCP in slight extension. If the PIP joint does not flex with the MCP joint extended, there may be a tight intrinsic muscle or capsular tightness. When performing the Bunnel-Littler test, what is done to rule out capsular restriction? flex the metacarpophalangeal joint extend the metacarpophalangeal joint flex the wrist extend the wrist

flex the MCP joint

A pronated foot is a ___, ___ foot, and a supinated foot is a ___ foot. At Heel-Strike, the foot is ____ for support of the body weight. After Heel-Strike, the foot begins to _____, allowing shock-absorption and preparation for push-off. By Toe-Off, the foot is again ____ to allow a firm lever for push-off.

flexible springy solid supinated pronate supinated

A physical therapist assistant complete say gonia metric assessment of a patient's risk. Assuming normal range of motion which of the following motions would have the greatest available range question Extension Flexion Radial deviation Ulnar deviation

flexion

after a PCL repair, repetitive knee ___ should be avoided. in general, the rehab protocol is the same as with ACL surgery. The progression with weight bearing and exercises just tends to be more gradual.

flexion

mallet finger is caused by rupture or avulsion of the extensor tendon at its insertion into the distal phlanx of a digit showing __ at the DIP joint

flexion

radiocarpal capsular pattern

flexion = extension

extension synergy patterns include protraction of the scapula, shld adduction and IR, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist extension, hip extension, ankle plantarflexion, and inversion and toe plantarflexion

flexion synergy patterns include retraction and elevation of the scapula, shld abduction and ER, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion, hip flexion/abudction/ER, knee flexion, ankle DF and inversion, and toe DF

capsular pattern of the hip

flexion, abduction, medial rotation

All prosthetic devices contain a socket and terminal device with varying components in between. What is the terminal device of a lower limb prosthesis? Foot Hand Hook sock

foot The terminal device of a prosthesis provides an interface between the amputees prosthesis with the external environment. For a lower limb prosthesis the terminal device is a foot The remaining answers are incorrect. For an upper extremity prosthesis the terminal device is a hook for hand. A sock is used for providing a soft interface between the residual limb and the socket

positive inotropic agents increase the ___ and ___ of myocardial contraction, ___ the heart rate, decrease conduction velocity through the AV node, and decrease the degree of activation of the sympathic nervous system used to treat __ __ and __ __

force velocity slow heart failure atrial fibrillation

Which term describes two muscles on opposite sides of a joint that act synergistically to produce a shared motion? cocontraction force couple antagonist group synergist

force couple A force couple is a term used in mechanics to describe two force vectors on opposite sides of an axis that create a collective moment. An example of this in the human body is the serratus anterior and upper trapezius muscles during shoulder abduction.

Which pulmonary function test value refers to the maximal volume of air exhaled in a specific period of time? expiratory reserve volume forced expiratory volume functional residual capacity peak expiratory flow

forced expiratory volume

__ __ __ is the maximal volume of air exhaled in a specific period of time. The specific period of time is usually the 1st, 2nd or 3rd second of a forced vital capacity maneuver.

forced expiratory volume

a hook grasp (such as when carrying a bucket) is created by the use of the 2nd and 3rd IP joints. it is controlled by the ___ flexors and extensors.

forearm

Which goniometric measurement would require stabilization of the distal end of the humerus to prevent medial rotation and abduction of the humerus? forearm pronation forearm supination wrist flexion wrist extension

forearm pronation Failure to prevent medial rotation and abduction of the humerus when measuring forearm pronation will result in an exaggerated forearm pronation range of motion value. Normal forearm pronation is 80 degrees.

when first instructing a patient to walk with a new prosthesis, the _ __ gait is the most stable pattern because there are always three pints of contact with the ground.

four point

Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to ultrasound use? pregnancy fracture pacemaker cancer

fracture Low dose ultrasound has been shown to accelerate fracture healing whereas high dose ultrasound will cause increased pain. As a result, ultrasound over a fracture site is classified as a precaution.

joint receptor sensitivity one type is sensitive to non noxious mechanical stress; other type is sensitive to noxious mechanical or boimechanical stimuli pacinian corpuscles golgi ligament endings ruffini endings golgi-mazzoni corpuscles free nerve endings

free nerve endings

___ is the primary determinant in the depth of penetration with ultrasound

frequency

A physical therapist assistant employed in a busy outpatient orthopedic clinic attempts to determine a schedule for calibration and maintenance of an ultrasound unit. The MOST important factor for the physical therapist assistant to consider when determining an appropriate schedule is: 1.beam nonuniformity ratio 2.frequency of use 3.cost associated with calibration and maintenance 4.availability of qualified personnel to inspect the unit

frequency of use The frequency of use of an ultrasound device is extremely important when determining a schedule for collaboration and maintenance. Ultrasound units are used frequently maybe collaborated several times a year while a unit used sparingly would likely warrant a longer interval

The physical therapist assistant is treating a patient 8 months after suffering third degree burns to the upper extremity with a treatment focus on improving an elbow flexion contracture. What is the most appropriate soft tissue technique to relieve soft tissue adhesions? Effleurage Friction Vibration petrissage

friction This patient has high risk for developing hypertrophic scarring, and shortening of the tissue has caused the elbow contracture to form. Therefore massage needs to improve how Supple the tissue is in order to improve the range of motion. Friction massage is performed by compressing the tissue using small circular or long stroking movements and effectively breaks up scar tissue. Petrissage and effleurage are relaxation forms a massage that address muscle tightness. Vibration is primarily used for chest wall mobilization to excrete secretions

Which lobe of the brain includes Broca's area? frontal parietal temporal occipital

frontal

The anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial part of the __ and ___ lobe, __ __ ,and __ __. Patients with anterior cerebral artery Syndrome have contralateral sensory and motor loss with __ more effective than __ __ .They have mental impairment, urinary incontinence, apraxia, slow delayed movement, and behavioral changes.

frontal parietal basal ganglia corpus collosum legs upper extremity

loosed packed position of the radiohumeral joint the loose packed position of the facets are midway between __ and __ the closed packed position should be avoided except when to ___ an adjacent joint

full extension and full supination flexion and extension stabilize

close packed position of the hip close packed position of the glenohumeral joint close packed position of acromioclavicular joint close packed position of sternoclavicular joint

full extension and medial rotation abduction and lateral rotation abduction to 90 degrees full shoulder elevation

what is the closed back position of the hip joint?

full extension, abduction, and IR

An 86 year old male has moved into a large assisted living facility due to decreasing ability to ambulate and loss of independence with self care. He has experienced a sudden onset of urinary incontinence which he did not experience when he lived by himself and his small apartment. There have been no medication changes and his urinalysis has come back negative for urinary tract infection. What type of intervention is most appropriate by the treating therapist? Functional mobility training and modification of the environment functional electrical stimulation of the pelvic floor biofeedback training intermittent catheterization

functional mob training and modification of the environment The patient has had a decline in his ambulation and nip independence with self-care. Therefore he will require functional mobility training to improve ambulation Cadence and safety as well as efficiency with transfers. The bed should be moved closer to his bathroom so there is less distance to travel to reach the bathroom. The environment could also Be modified to include a bedside commode or urine also there is less distance to reach a commode. It is likely that due to this patient having a decline and his speed and movement and moving into a large assisted living facility there is a functional and environmental reason he has urinary incontinence. The other options are not appropriate because there has not been any indication of anatomical dysfunction of pelvic floor muscles or bladder

The __ __ __ refers to the volume of air in the lungs after normal exhalation. FRC is approximately 40% of total lung volume. FRC represents the point at which the forces tending to collapse the lungs are balanced against the forces tending to expand the chest wall.

functional residual capacity

A physical therapist assistant is treating an 82-year-old female that lives independently in a single story house. The therapist uses the Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment as a screening tool to determine if the patient is at an increased risk for falling. This tool primarily assesses fall risk by examining: 1.static standing reach 2.gait and balance 3.activities in sitting and standing 4.timed mobility

gait and balance

cholecystitis and cholelithiasis also known as ___ often caused by ____ of the gallbladder Many times gallstones are asymptomatic however the most common symptom is __ __ __ pain, muscle guarding tenderness and rebound pain following a __ __ __ can help decrease gallbladder stimulation if mild sx are present

gallstones hypomobility right upper quadrant low fat diet

Upper right quadrant pain with radiation to the right scapula is most consistent with: appendicitis kidney stones aortic aneurysm gallstones

gallstones Gallstones (cholelithiasis) can refer pain to the upper right quadrant, although are often asymptomatic. Kidney stones refer pain to the lower right or lower left quadrant; appendicitis refers pain to the lower right quadrant; aortic aneurysm refers pain to the upper left quadrant.

tay sachs disease accumulation of ___ within the brain A rare, inherited disorder that destroys nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. Tay-Sachs disease is typically found in people with certain ancestry, such as Eastern European Jews. A fatty substance in the brain destroys nerve cells. Symptoms of slowed development usually appear around six months of age. Symptoms progress until they lead to death, often around age __. There is no cure for Tay-Sachs disease, but research is ongoing.

gangliosides 4

A patient complains of pain surrounding a small incision in her abdomen. The incision was created following insertion of a feeding device earlier in the day. The MOST likely device used was a: 1.gastric tube 2.Hickman catheter 3.jejunostomy tube 4.nasogastric tube

gastric tube

Acetaminophen is an example of a: chemical name trade name generic name brand name

generic The three categories when naming pharmacological compounds are chemical, generic, and trade/brand name. Acetaminophen is the generic name of the brand name Tylenol, whose chemical name is N-acetyl-p-aminophenol.

Which wheelchair frame would be the best choice for a patient who is unable to self-propel or operate a power wheelchair safely? hemi Geri chair tilt-in-space power wheelchair

geri chair The Geri chair is designed for long-term use and is durable enough to accommodate morbidly obese patients. The chair can fully recline and can be used as a transportable hospital bed if needed. The chair also can be fitted with accessories such as trays, restraints and elevating foot rests.

synonym for hinge joint

ginglymus

A clinician is establishing a community-based strengthening and physical conditioning program for adults of all ages. The clinician must recognize the musculature changes typical for an aging individual. Which of the following statements is false regarding muscle strength? Size of muscle fibers and number of muscle fibers decreases with advancing age girth measurements are a reliable measurement of improvements in muscle strength after 50 years of age strength is lost at 15 to 20% per decade up to the seventh decade of life Strength typically Peaks at age 30

girth measurements are a reliable measurement of improvements in muscle strength

total shoulder arthorplasty replaces both the ___ and ___ components while a shoulder ____ replaces only one of those components

glenoid humeral hemiarthroplasty

a bankart lesion is an injury of the anterior (inferior) __ ___ of the shoulder due to anterior shoulder dislocation. therefore a bankart repair involves a repair of the anterior labrum. after a bankart repair, patients should avoid __ __ of the shoulder

glenoid labrum external rotation

what is the movement between the metacarpal of the hand and the proximal phalanx> roll spin glide extension

glide

Which nerve is tested with the gag reflex? hypoglossal facial glossopharyngeal abducens

glossopharyngeal Cranial nerve IX is synonymous with the glossopharyngeal nerve. The nerve is most often assessed along with the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) by examining the gag reflex.

Muscle wasting or atrophy is not an expected side effect of anticonvulsants. ___ agents (__) such as prednisone (deltasone) are the most common class of medications to have a primary side effect of muscle wasting or atrophy with weakening of supporting tissues such as bone ligament and tendon

glucocorticoid (corticosteroids)

Muscle atrophy is most often associated with which drug classification? nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents glucocorticoid agents opioid agents disease modifying anti-rheumatic agents

glucocorticoid agents

Access to the hip during total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral surgical approach occurs by splitting the ___ ____ muscle in line with the muscle fibers. The short external rotators are then released and the hip abductors are retracted anteriorly. This approach maintains the integrity of the gluteus medius and vastus lateralis muscles.

glute max

posterior trunk lean gait pattern due to weakness of the __ __. at heel strike, hip extension begins to occur under the concentric control of the hip extensors. the person will lean posteriorly at heel strike to produce an extension moment at the hip in an attempt to maintain hip extension on the stance leg. the individual may also lean posteriorly during acceleration (initial swing) in an effort to pull the femur anteriorly and advance the sing leg as a compensation for weakness of the hip flexors.

glute max

during late swing phase, the ___ exhibit peak activity as they are working to decelerate the unsupported limb

hamstrings

the ___ have their peak muscle activity late in the swing phase of gait

hamstrings

A physical therapist assistant prepares to treat a patient 2 days following total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral surgical approach. Which muscle experience is the greatest drama with this surgical procedure? Gluteus maximus gluteus medius Piriformis vastus lateralis

glute max Access to the hip using a posterolateral surgical approach occurs by splitting of the gluteus maximus muscle in line with the muscle fibers. This type of surgical approach penetrates the posterior capsule resulting in potential post-operative joint instability.

hip lateral rotation (6)

glute max obturator externus obturator internus piriformis gemelli sartorius

hip abduction (5)

gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, TFL, piriformis, obturator internus

compression of joint capsule pacinian corpuscles golgi ligament endings ruffini endings golgi-mazzoni corpuscles free nerve endings

golgi mazzoni corpuscles hey are located primarily in the joint capsule of the knee.

tension or stretch on ligaments pacinian corpuscles golgi ligament endings ruffini endings golgi-mazzoni corpuscles free nerve endings

golgi tendon ligaments

A bucket handle tear often occurs in an area of __ __ __ and are often associated with anterior cruciate ligament injuries.

good blood supply

deschenes muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked neurologic condition. The patient with this condition has lower extremity weakness so it have difficulty rising to stand from the floor. To stand up from a floor the patient must have enough strength in the hip and knee musculature. To compensate for this the patient will use the upper extremity is to push on the lower extremities and walk the arms up the legs until standing upright. This is referred to as ___ sign. The other conditions would not use this compensatory strategy

gowers

the PTA is delivering joint mob intervention at a patient's shoulder. the therapist delivers 3 sets of 20 seconds of continuous large-amplitude oscillation that pushes into tissue resistance. which grade of joint mob is being performed grade I grade II grade III grade IV

grade III grade III uses large amplitude oscillation that pushes into tissue resistance intended for stretching the joint capsule and increasing mobility

the spinal cord consists of inner core of __ matter and outer core of __ matter

gray white

A physical therapist assistant reviews the parameters of several pain modulation theories using transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). When comparing sensory stimulation to motor stimulation, sensory stimulation requires: 1.greater phase duration 2.greater frequency 3.stronger amplitude 4.shorter treatment time

greater frequency

when utilizing locomotor training with body weight support and a motorized treadmill, which percentage of body weight support is contraindicated? 40% less than 10% less than 20% greater than 55%

greater than 55%

A physical therapist assistant documents that the Neer impingement test is positive after a patient reports marked pain during the testing procedure. The MOST likely source of the pain is compression of the: 1.greater tuberosity against the anterior acromion 2.greater tuberosity against the posterior acromion 3.lesser tuberosity against the anterior acromion 4.lesser tuberosity against the posterior acromion

greater tuberosity against the anterior acromion

What area of the brain and spinal cord contain the aggregation of nerve cell bodies? grey matter white matter axons microglia

grey matter Grey matter consists of neuronal cell bodies neuropil, glial cells, synapses and capillaries.

dynamometry the process of measuring forces that are doing work handheld dynamometers measure __ __ and strength of ___ through ___ contractions a dynamometer is used to measure strength through ____ contraction

grip strength extremities isometric isokinetic

Pain from osteoarthritis of the hip is most commonly experienced in which location? trochanteric region buttock knee groin

groin

Which test would be appropriate to use on a child with cerebral palsy? Albert Infant Motor Scale Romberg Test Berg Balance Test Gross Motor Function Measure

gross motor funciton measure The Gross Motor Function Measure is a standardized observational instrument designed and validated to measure change in gross motor function over time in children with cerebral palsy.

Which of the following activities is most likely to increase an individual's bone mineral density at the hips and spine? baseball swimming gymnastics golf

gymnastics Research indicates that high-impact loading exercises for the lower body, such as gymnastics, volleyball or basketball, selectively increase bone mineral density at the hips and spine as compared to low-impact activities. Bone mineral density is regulated by what is known as "specificity of loading". Specificity of loading states that increases in bone mineral density will occur only at sites of the body that are exposed to the minimal essential strain threshold needed to spur bone growth.

disease-modifying antirheumatic agents have potential side effects such as __ __, __ __, and ___

hair loss joint pain swelling

anaerobic metabolism this energy system is used for ATP production during __ __, __ __ exercise such as sprinting ___ meters. ______ decomposes and releases a large amount of energy that is used to construct ATP. There is 2-3x more ____ in cells of muscles than ATP. this process occurs almost _____, allowing for ready and available energy needed by the muscles . the system provides energy for muscle contraction for up to __ seconds the phosphogen system represents the most rapidly available source of ATP for use by the muscle. The energy system is able to function in the described manner since: 1) it does not depend on a long series of chemical reactions 2) it does not depend on transporting the oxygen we breathe to the working muscles 3) both ATP and and PC are stored directly within the contractile mechanisms of the muscle

high intensity short duration 100 phosphocreatine phosphocreatine instantaneously 15

the remaining options are incorrect muscle contraction is achieved with __ __, ___, and __ joint ROM can be achieved with __ Wound healing is achieved with __ __

high volt IFC russion IFC high volt

The quadrilateral socket is the most commonly prescribed above knee prosthetic socket. Which is not true regarding the quadrilateral socket? Release provided for the adductor longus tendon, hamstring tendons, sciatic nerve, gluteus maximus, and rectus femoris contains a broad horizontal posterior shelf for seating of the ischial tuberosity and gluteals higher medial and posterior walls in comparison to anterior and lateral walls posterior directed Force provided by anterior and lateral walls to ensure proper seating

higher medial and posterior walls in comparison to anterior and lateral walls

Arthroplasty of which joint has the best post surgical outcomes? ankle shoulder knee hip

hip Arthroplasty of the hip is associated with the best post surgical outcomes compared to the other presented options. Patients following total hip arthroplasty typically demonstrate increases in walking speed, daily activity, and functioning to approximately 80 percent of their healthy age-matched peers at 6-8 months post surgery.

The Barlow test is used to test the stability of which joint? shoulder hip knee ankle

hip The Barlow test can be used to detect congenital hip dysplasia. This condition, also known as developmental dysplasia, is characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within the acetabulum. A positive Barlow test is indicated by a click or a clunk and may be indicative of a hip dislocation being reduced.

steppage gait patterns the feet and toes are lifted through __ and __ flexion to excessive heights usually secondary to __ weakness. the foot will slap at initial contact with the ground secondary to the decreased control

hip knee dorsiflexion

circumduction during swing gait is often used to compensate for insufficient __ and or __ flexion or ___. can also be used when the swing leg is __ __ causes include weak __ __, __ and ___

hip knee dorsiflexion too long hip flexors dorsiflexors hamstrings

The gluteus medius muscle remains largely functional following a total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral surgical approach. The primary advantage of the posterolateral approach is that the __ __ __ __. An ___ surgical approach would be more likely to compromise the hip abductors since a portion of the abductors are released from the greater trochanter and the hip is dislocated anteriorly

hip abductors remain intact anterolateral

Trochanteric bursitis refers to inflammation of the trochanteric bursa, which is a pad-like sac that protects the soft tissue structures that cross the posterior portion of the greater trochanter. The patient is often extremely sensitive to palpation over the bursa and may experience increased pain with resisted __ __ and __ __

hip abudction lateral rotation

Which resisted movements of the hip would be the most provocative in the presence of greater trochanteric bursitis? hip adduction and internal rotation hip flexion and external rotation hip extension and internal rotation hip abduction and external rotation

hip abudction and external rotation

A manual muscle test of the gluteus maximus requires the test leg to be positioned in: hip extension and knee flexion hip extension and knee extension hip flexion and knee flexion hip flexion and knee extension A muscle test of the gluteus maximus is performed with the patient in prone with the hip extended and the knee flexed to 90 degrees. Knee flexion is necessary to eliminate the hamstrings from assisting in hip extension.

hip extension and knee flexion

lower extremity extensor synergy pattern

hip extension, adduction and internal rotation, knee extension, ankle plantar flexion and inversion, and toe plantar flexion

lower extremity flexor synergy pattern

hip flexion, abduction and external rotation, knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion and inversion and toe dorsiflexion

At initial contact the stance lower extremity is nearly fully extended, if a patient's __ __ were shortened on the stance limb this would limit their ability to fully extend their stance leg, resulting in contact with the forefoot rather than the heel of the swing leg.

hip flexors

A physical therapist assistant instructs a patient in a self-stretching activity using the FABER position. This position would be MOST useful to stretch the: 1.hip abductors 2.hip flexors 3.hip external rotators 4.hip internal rotators

hip internal rotators

Which goniometric measurement would require stabilization of the distal end of the femur? hip flexion hip extension hip abduction hip medial rotation

hip medial rotation Failure to stabilize the distal end of the femur when measuring hip medial rotation will result in an exaggerated hip medial rotation range of motion value. Normal hip medial rotation range of motion is 45 degrees.

Which types of wound dressings are characterized as water or glycerin based gels that are insoluble in water, use for partial and full-thickness wounds, and those with necrosis and slough Foams Hydro colloids Hydrogels alginates

hydrogels

wound dressings: foam- they are semipermeable membranes that are either __ or __. they vary in thickness, absorptive capacity, and adhesive properties. they are indicated for __ and __ __ wounds with __ to __ exudate.

hydrophilic hydrophobic partial full thickness minimal moderate

With an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion, reflexes are : atrophy is __ from ___ are there fasiculations? tone?

hyperactive mild disuse no hypertonic

deformities seen in the hands with RA are a swan neck deformity (which consists of PIP ___ and DIP ___) and a boutonniere deformity (which consists of PIP ___ and DIP ___) a duck bill deformity will affect only the ___

hyperextension flexion flexion hyperextension thumb

For patients with Burns it is important that the therapy team work to prevent or reduce complications of immobilisation through positioning and splinting to prevent contractures. Which is the correct position to place a patient with an anterior neck burn ? Emphasize hyperextension and position with plastic cervical orthosis Emphasize flexion and position with chin to chest Positioning does not matter Emphasize neutral spine with plastic cervical orthosis

hyperextension and position with plastic orthosis In an anterior neck burn the common deformity is neck flexion contracture due to shortening of scar tissue in the anterior neck. For this reason the patient should be positioned in a way to emphasize neck hyperextension. Positioning with a firm cervical orthosis made of plastic is indicated The remaining answers are incorrect. Positioning and neck flexion or neutral spine is not appropriate as both could promote soft tissue shortening. As stated above positioning is important in order to prevent contracture development

The therapist sees he is taking an ACE inhibitor. What other medical condition does this patient likely have? Hypertension Congestive heart failure Diabetes Atrial fibrillation

hypertension

There are several different types of peripheral vascular disease including arterial disease venous disease and lymphatic disease. Arteriosclerosis obliterans is a chronic occlusive arterial disease of medium and large-sized vessels. It is a result of peripheral atherosclerosis and is associated with __ and __

hypertension and hyperlipidemia

Which of the following is not a sign of metabolic alkalosis? Irritability Hyperventilation Muscle twitching Dysrhythmias

hyperventilation Metabolic alkalosis occurs when the blood pH rises above 7.45 due to an increase in basis or a reduction in acids. It is caused by excessive vomiting, excess diuretics, hypokalemia, peptic ulcers, and excessive antacid intake. Signs of metabolic alkalosis include hypoventilation depressed respirations dysrhythmias prolonged vomiting diarrhea weakness muscle twitching irritability agitation convulsions and coma Metabolic acidosis is when there is depletion of bases or an accumulation of acids and can be caused by diabetes renal insufficiency and diarrhea. Send a metabolic acidosis include hyperventilation deep respirations weakness vascular twitching malaise nausea vomiting diarrhea headache dry skin poor skin turgor and coma

Asking the patient to stick out their tongue could be used to assess the: trigeminal nerve facial nerve hypoglossal nerve vagus nerve

hypoglossal nerve A bilateral lesion involving the hypoglossal nerve will result in impaired ability to stick out the tongue. If the impairment is unilateral, the tongue will deviate to the affected side.

excessive hunger is a sign of ___

hypoglycemia

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient that is currently taking diuretic medication. Which side effect associated with diuretics would be MOST relevant with exercise? 1.ecchymosis 2.sedation 3.hypokalemia 4.hypoglycemia

hypokalemia Hypokalemia is a condition of decreased levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is a necessary electrolyte since it facilitates nerve impulse conduction and the contraction of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles. It also facilitates cell membrane function and proper enzyme activity. A low blood potassium level may be life-threatening. Diuretic agents increase the excretion of sodium and urine. This causes a reduction in plasma volume which decreases blood pressure. Classifications of diuretics include thiazide, loop, and potassium sparing agents. Hypokalemia can occur with exercise along with arrhythmias, muscle cramping, and thermoregulatory disturbances.

receives and integrates information from the autonomic nervous system and assists in regulating hormones

hypothalamus

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient rehabilitating from an Achilles tendon repair using cryotherapy. Which cryotherapeutic agent would provide the GREATEST magnitude of tissue cooling? 1.frozen gel packs 2.ice massage 3.Fluori-Methane spray 4.cold water bath

ice masssage

Spinal fusion is indicated in the presence of axial pain with unstable spinal segments Advanced arthritis or uncontrolled peripheral pain. Phone is harvested from the patient's body often from the __ __ and used to help fuse two vertebrae together. Generally the surgeon will use instrumentation such as pinochle screws to immobilize the segments while a bony callus forms between the segments

iliac crest

with a spinal fusion, bone is harvested from the patient's body often from the ___ ___

iliac crest

the ___ ligament extends from the AIIS to the intertrochanteric line of the femur. the structure is considered to be the ___ ligament in the body and serves to prevent excessive __ __ and assist to maintain upright posture.

iliofemoral strongest hip extension

FABER (patrick) The patient is positioned in supine with the test leg flexed, abducted, and laterally rotated at the hip onto the opposite leg. The therapist slowly lowers the leg through abduction toward the table. A positive test is indicated by failure of the test leg to abduct below the level of the opposite leg and may be indicative of ___, ___ or hip joint abnormalities

iliopsoas SI

hip flexion (4)

iliopsoas sartorius rectus fem pectineus

The side effects of all remaining answer options can include nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy is administered systemically and can also cause hair loss fatigue and sterilization. Biotherapy can also have effects on the CNS and bone marrow transplants can lead to ____

immunosuppression

___ cushions are heavier, but serve to limit shear forces

liquid shear

A therapist is performing a sit-to-stand training for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia who requires max assist to stand. Where's that the therapist be positioned for safeguarding? To the right side and slightly behind the patient In front of the patient and slightly to the right side to the left side and slightly behind the patient in front of the patient and slightly to the left side

in front of the patient and slighly to the right side

A physical therapist assistant reviews the medical record of a patient recently admitted to an inpatient rehabilitation hospital. The patient sustained a traumatic head injury in a motor vehicle accident five weeks ago. The medical record indicates that the patient is often disoriented and can frequently become agitated with little provocation. The MOST appropriate location for the physical therapist assistant to make initial contact with the patient is: 1.in the patient's room 2.in the physical therapy gym 3.in a private treatment room 4.in the physical therapy waiting room

in the patient's room

If the back height of a patient's wheelchair is too high, what complication will most likely occur? decreased trunk stability increased difficulty with propelling the wheelchair skin irritation to the nape of the neck increased difficulty with pressure relief activities

increased difficulty with propelling the wheelchair If the back of a wheelchair is too high, the patient may experience difficulty propelling the wheelchair since the shoulders and scapulae will not be able to move as easily. Other complications include excessive irritation to the skin over the inferior angles of the scapulae and difficulty with balance secondary to forward inclination of the trunk.

A physical therapist assistant inspects a patient's wheelchair and identifies that the wheel axle is aligned further posterior than it typically would be in a standard wheelchair. This type of alignment would likely result in: 1.decreased rolling resistance 2.increased ability to perform a "wheelie" 3.decreased turning radius 4.increased energy required for propulsion

increased energy regquired for propulsion The posterior alignment of the wheel axle increases the amount of energy required for propulsion which serves to decrease the patient's ability to propel the wheelchair

Which of the following is not commonly associated with Down syndrome? intellectual disability increased susceptibility to infection vision or hearing impairments increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate Signs and symptoms of Down syndrome (i.e., trisomy 21) vary widely in severity, but typically include intellectual disability, abnormal facial features, cardiac defects, vision or hearing impairments, intestinal malformations, and increased susceptibility to infection. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a non-specific test for inflammatory disorders often associated with conditions such as cancer, autoimmune diseases, and infection.

Which of the following is characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? increased residual volume decreased functional residual capacity decreased tidal volume increased forced expiratory volume

increased residual volume Lung volumes and capacities such as residual volume and functional residual capacity are typically increased in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease due to air trapping. Expiratory flow rates including forced expiratory volume and ratio of forced expiratory volume to forced vital capacity are typically decreased.

What is the most common type of shoulder subluxation in patients with hemiplegia? posterior subluxation anterior subluxation superior subluxation inferior subluxation

inferior Injury or paralysis of muscles around the shoulder complex may lead to subluxation of the glenohumeral joint following stroke. Inferior subluxation caused by the lack of muscular support results in downward rotation of the scapula.

this ligaments supports the glenohumeral joint, limiting inferior translation of the humeral head when above 90 degrees of abduction: located inferior to the glenohumeral joint and is thus __ when the upper extremity is __ __ __ __, limiting inferior translation of the humeral head. This ligament consists of an anterior band, posterior band, and axillary pouch.

inferior glenohumeral ligament taut abducted over 90 degrees

ankylosing spondylitis: a systemic condition that is caracterized by ____ of the spine and larger peripheral joints. sx include recurrent and insidious onset of __ __, __ __, and impaired __ __. the tendency of a patient with ankylosing spondylitis to exhibit a forward head posture would result in the external auditory meatus being anterior to the plumb line. patients typically exhibit __ _ __

inflammation back pain morning stiffness spinal extension forward flexed posture

Ankylosing Spondylitis is a systemic condition that is characterized by___ of the ___ and larger peripheral joints. Symptoms include recurrent and Insidious onset of back pain, morning stiffness, and if __ __ __. This type of posture would result in the external auditory meatus being anterior to the stationary plum line

inflammation spine forward flexed posture

Which pulmonary function test value is greatest in a typical adult? expiratory reserve volume inspiratory reserve volume residual volume tidal volume

inspiratory reserve volume Inspiratory reserve volume refers to the maximal volume of air that can be inspired after normal tidal volume inspiration. This value can approximate 50% of total lung capacity.

Excessive space between the acromion and the head of the humerus while at rest may be an indication of: impingement instability labral tear humeral fracture

instability Increased space between the head of the humerus and the acromion process at rest may indicate some form of instability is present within the shoulder. The increased space between the head of the humerus and the acromion process may result from a previous injury impacting structures (e.g., ligaments, capsule, muscles, bones) that assist to support the shoulder.

the patient may experience periosteal pain as a result of high temps over a directed surface area of treatment. the clinician may reduce the __ of the US or __ the sureace area of the treatment

intensity increase

After palpating several peripheral pulse sites a physical therapist assistant concludes that a patient has a strong pulse at the popliteal artery, but a weak pulse at the dorsalis pedis artery. This finding suggests that during exercise the patient may experience: 1.orthopnea 2.deep vein thrombophlebitis 3.intermittent claudication 4.venous thrombosis

intermittent claudication

A physical therapist assistant reviewing a patient's medical record identifies an order for Doppler ultrasonography. The patient is MOST likely presenting with: 1.peripheral neuropathy 2.intermittent claudication 3.cardiac arrhythmias 4.bursitis

intermittent claudication Doppler ultrasound is a non-invasive instrument used to assess arterial blood flow. Doppler ultrasonography measures how sound waves are reflected off of moving blood cells. As the velocity of the blood flow changes the pitch of the sound changes. This change in Pitch gives the therapist important information about the blood flow through a vessel

A physical therapist assistant completes a series of resisted movements on a patient with a lower extremity injury. The patient denies pain initially, but complains of increasing pain after performing a number of repetitions. This scenario is MOST consistent with: 1.complete rupture of a tendon 2.intermittent claudication 3.ligamentous laxity 4.emotional hypersensitivity

intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication occurs as a result of insufficient blood supply and ischemia in active muscles. Symptoms most commonly include pain and cramping in muscles distilled to be excluded vessel. Pain tends to progressively worse in with increasing activity

Palpation of peripheral arteries is used to assess perfusion of the extremities in addition to pulse rate. Patients with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease often have diminished blood flow to the hands and feet and may experience __ __ __ when the circulation is inadequate to meet the metabolic demands of the tissues.

intermittent claudication pain

injection into the spinal canal or subarachnoid space is an example of ____ administration

intrathecal

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient who has one week post calcaneofibular ligament sprain. The patient reports experiencing a similar injury multiple times over the past five years. When performing examination, which motion of the ankle and foot complex would likely be the most provocative for this patient? Plantar flexion Dorsiflexion E-version Inversion

inversion

calcaneofibular ligament: resists ___ of the talus

inversion

nitrate agents decrease ___ through smooth muscle relaxation and dilation of peripheral vessels used to treat __ __ nitrostat

ischemia angina pectoris

in a transfemoralresidual limb, which is not a pressure sensitive area? perineal area disterolateral end of the femur ischial tuberosity pubic symphysis

ischial tube

Which is the most common type of stroke? hemorrhagic ischemic transient ischemic attack thrombotic

ishemic An ischemic stroke occurs when a clot blocks or impairs the flow of blood to the brain, depriving the brain of essential nutrients and oxygen. Ischemic strokes account for a very high percentage of all strokes.

pressure tolerant areas of a typical transfemoral residual limb include __ __, ___, lateral sides of the limb, and the __ end

ishial tubes gluteals distal

stage 4: voluntary control in __ __ __ emerging with a corresponding ___ of spasticity and synergies stage 5: ___ voluntary control stage 6: control and coordination __ __

isolated joint movements decline increasing near normal

golgi mazzoni corpuscles location: sensitivity: primary distribution

joint capsule compression of joint capsule knee joint, joint capsule

free nerve endings: location: sensitivity: one type is sensitve to non noxious mechanical stress; other type is sensitive to noxious mechanical or biomechanical stimuli primary distribution:

joint capsule ligaments synovium fat pads all joints

the five characteristics that all synovial joints have are:

joint cavity articular cartilage synovial membrane synovial fluid fibrous capsule

Which of the following conditions or presentations is joint mobilization not indicated? Joint pain joint effusion muscle spasm and guarding joint hypermobility

joint effusion Joint mobilization is an intervention for patients with musculoskeletal system dysfunction. Joint effusion is a contraindication for joint mobilization. Other contraindications include joint hypermobility and inflammation. Precautions include malignancy unhealed fracture bone disease hypermobility and adjacent joints systemic connective tissue disease and if the patient is on blood thinning medications

A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient dependent for mobility and primarily bed-bound with high muscle tone in areas of muscle spasm around the shoulder complex and hips. Which sensory facilitation technique would be best indicated to improve joint awareness while relieving muscle spasm around a joint Inhibitory pressure Quick stretch, tapping of muscle belly Resistance Joint traction

joint traction Joint traction is a facilitation technique that enhances joint awareness and actions of flexors. Joint traction can also relieve muscle spasms Inhibitory pressure also decreases muscle tone and inhibits muscle but is it is an inhibitory technique and not a facilitation technique the other two options are facilitation techniques, but they do not increase joint awareness and decrease muscle spasm. A quick stretch and tapping a muscle belly facilitates Agonist muscle and inhibit the antagonist muscle. Resistance recruits motor units and facilitates and strengthens The Agonist contraction

bone that is affected by a march fracture

metatarsal

the ___ consists of the cerebellum and pons

metenchephalon

When performing soft tissue mobilization to the gastrocnemius Soleus complex, the therapist notices several dark purple lesions, which the patient reports itching. Which form of malignant tumor is characterized by lesions of endothelial cell origin that present as dark purple or red and are associated with itching and pain? Basal cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma Kaposi's sarcoma malignant melanoma

kaposi's sarcoma Squamous cell carcinomas have a poorly-defined margin and present as a flat red area, ulcer, or nodule. A basal cell carcinoma is a low-growing epithelial basal cell tumor characterized by a raised ivory color patch with a rolled border and indented Center

The physical therapist assistant should educate patients with lymphedema in management strategies. Which of the following is not a strategy to manage lymphedema where compressive garments when traveling maintain water intake keep limbs in dependent position for easier circulation avoid sitting cross-legged

keep limbs in dependent position for easier circulation The limbs should not be placed in a dependent position as gravity promotes edema. Strategies for Lymphedema management include avoiding dependent positions for extended periods of time avoiding sitting cross-legged taking breaks when traveling keeping hydrated maintaining ideal body weight performing muscle pumping exercises regularly avoiding lifting and carrying heavy loads avoiding wearing restrictive clothing wearing compressive garments when traveling and monitoring sodium intake

A patient four weeks following anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using a patellar tendon autograft informs a physical therapist assistant that she is going on vacation for a week in a tropical location. Which advice would be the MOST beneficial for the patient to protect her scar from the sun? 1.keep the scar covered when outside in the sun 2.apply sunscreen with a minimum of 15 SPF directly to the scar 3.apply sunscreen with a minimum of 30 SPF directly to the scar 4.apply sunscreen with a minimum of 50 SPF directly to the scar

keep the scar covered when outside in the sune Keeping the scar covered when outside in the sun provides the best form of protection. This is particularly important in the presented scenario since it has only been 4 weeks since surgery and the scar is still maturing. Scars it should be covered with clothing or a bandage that allows air to circulate. Plastic or other bandages that allow moisture to build up should not be used. As scars mature they typically fade in color and become softer flattered and less sensitive. Scars are considered to be mature in 12 to 18 weeks

The process by which epithelial cells die and produce a protective outer layer is called: epithelialization keratinization granulation necrotizing

keratinization Keratinization refers to the development of or conversion to keratin. Keratinocytes are cells located in the epidermal layer that produce keratin, a strong protein that makes up the rigid structure of the skin, hair, and nails.

which component of the endocrine system controls the release of 1,25- dihydroxy- vtiamin D? kidney thyroid parathyroid glands pancreatic islet cells

kidney they also filter waste from the blood and control the body's pH level

__ _ is a common complication of AIDS due to long term drug therapies

kidney failure

Which of the following is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus? glaucoma kidney inflammation lung cancer dislocated shoulder

kidney inflammation Kidney inflammation (nephritis) is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus which can interfere with kidneys function. Other complications include inflammation of the chest cavity (pleuritis), pneumonia, stroke, memory problems, blood vessel inflammation, and inflammation of the heart (myocarditis).

bone-patellar tendon-bone graft is considered the gold standard for ACL repair range of motion interventions should place an emphasis on achieving full __ __ early in the rehab process. strengthening exercises can occur soon after surgery and typically include isometric quads strengthening, hamstrings strenghtening, and closed chain exercises. open chain exercises between __to__ degrees of __ should be avoided since they place excess stress on the graft site. it is important for the therapist to remember that the graft tissue is most vulnerable at __to__ weeks after surgery. as the tendon transform into ligmentous tissue it actually becomes weaker before it gets stronger. graft maturation has been shown to be at 100% by __to__ months post op however most protocols allow for return to sports closer to 6 months. functional bracing is __ __ following ACL repair

knee extension 0-45 flexion 6to8 12-16 not required

A patient presents to physical therapy following surgery for a T10 vertebral compression fracture. The physical therapist assistant views the patient's X-ray and notes that instrumentation such as Hardware was not used as part of the surgery. Which of the following surgical procedures was most likely performed? Spinal fusion Laminectomy Kyphoplasty Foraminotomy

kyphoplasty Vertebral compression fractures are the most common type of fracture in patients with osteoporosis. Vertebral compression fractures occur when the route iravani collapses in on itself which can result in pain and spinal deformity such as kyphosis. Kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty are two procedures that are commonly performed in the presence of a vertebral compression fracture

Ultrasound should not be applied over the site of a: tenotomy laminectomy tenodesis synovectomy

laminectomy Applying ultrasound over the site of a laminectomy, especially in the acute phase, may be potentially dangerous due to the risk of cavitation occurring in the cerebrospinal fluid.

A physical therapist assistant completes a developmental assessment on a seven-month-old infant. Assuming normal development, which of the following reflexes would NOT be integrated? 1.asymmetrical tonic neck reflex 2.Moro reflex 3.Landau reflex 4.symmetrical tonic neck reflex

landau reflex

What are the units associated with maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV)? millimeters liters milliliters per minute liters per minute

liters per minute MVV refers to the maximum amount of air a subject can breathe in 12 seconds. The obtained value is expressed in liters per minute (L/min).

The physical therapist assistant is assisting in selecting wheelchair positioning components for a child with spastic cerebral palsy. Which component functions to provide upper extremity positioning and support to assist with trunk extension? Butterfly strap pelvic belt chest strap lap tray

lap tray A pelvic belt maintains pelvic positioning in the chair and helps reduce falls from the chair. A chest strap maintains trunk positioning and prevents falling forward. He butterfly strap provides a broad surface to promote anterior chest support for upright sitting

Which of the following principles of conduction would result in a higher rate of heat transfer? materials with low thermal conductivity smaller area of contact between materials large temperature difference between materials high ambient humidity

large temperature difference between materials The rate of heat transfer that occurs via conduction is affected by the temperature difference between the two materials, the thermal conductivity of the materials, and the area of contact between the materials. When the temperature difference between two materials is larger, heat will transfer between them more quickly.

hallux valgus is an abnormal ___ deviation of the first metatarsal with or without rotation of the hallux. This is a common finding with rheumatoid arthritis and can lead to painful motion of the joint as well as difficulty wearing specific Footwear

lateral

the primary restriction noted with adhesive capsulitis is __ __ (think of the capsular patterns) peak incidence is between __and__ years of age it is associated with conditions such as ___, thyroid abnormalities, and _____ conditions Stage 1 is characterized by the gradual onset of pain with decreased movement and night pain. The patient typically presents with a loss of external rotation motion with intact rotator cuff strength. The duration of this stage is usually less than three months.

lateral rotation 40-60 diabetes cardiopulmonary

sharp/dull discrimination runs along the __ __ tract light touch discrimination runs along the ___ __ tract hot/cold discrimination runs along the __ __ tract

lateral spinothalamic anterior spinothalamic lateral spinothalamic

A patient with right hemiplegia is observed during gait training. The patient performs side stepping towards the hemiplegic side. The physical therapist assistant may expect the patient to compensate for weakened abductors by: 1.hip hiking of the unaffected side 2.lateral trunk flexion towards the affected side 3.lateral trunk flexion towards the unaffected side 4.hip extension of the affected side

lateral trunk flexion towards the unaffected side

shoulder extension (4)

lats posterior delt teres major triceps (long head)

A PTA is working with a patient that required mechanical ventilation during an acute care hospitalization. the most desirable position for the patient when attemting to wean from mechanical ventilation is:

leaning forward in sitting with UE support

right hemianopsia (HH) is characteristic following a CVA of the __ side

left

tenderness over the __ side of the lower abdomen is a common sign of sigmoid diverticulitis

left

gait: base of support: the distance measured between the __ and __ __ during progression of gait. the distance ___ as cadence increases. the avg base of support for an adult is __to__ inches

left right foot decreases 2-4

A child with right torticollis would most likely present with plagiocephaly (a flat spot on a baby's head from spending too much time on) in the area of the: right frontal bone left frontal bone left occipitoparietal bone right occipitoparietal bone

left occipitoparietal bone Right torticollis results from shortening of the right sternocleidomastoid causing the head to bend to the right and rotate to the left. With the child lying supine, pressure is placed on the left occipitoparietal bone.

Which of the following treadmill test scenarios would be most suggestive of lumbar spinal stenosis? leg pain that increases when the treadmill incline decreases leg pain that decreases when treadmill incline increases leg pain that increases when treadmill incline both increases and decreases leg pain that decreases when the treadmill speed decreases

leg pain that decreases when treadmill incline increases Walking on a level treadmill causes closure of the intervertebral foramen resulting in compression of the nerve. Walking on an incline causes an opening of the intervertebral foramen since the patient's spine assumes a more flexed position. As a result, the patient experiences diminished symptoms.

A physical therapist assistant informs a patient that a ramp needed to assist the patient to enter their house with a wheelchair will require two separate sections with a landing area. What variable would have MOST likely influenced this decision? 1.slope of the ramp 2.angle of inclination of the ramp 3.length of the ramp 4.width of the ramp

length of the ramp

primary lymphedema (idiopathic) is thought to be the result of malformation of lymph nodes or lymph vessels at birth, primary is __ __ than secondary and is more common in females than in males

less common

A physical therapist assistant prepares to work with a patient diagnosed with a dorsal scapular nerve injury. Which muscles would you expect to be MOST affected by this condition? 1.serratus anterior, pectoralis minor 2.levator scapulae, rhomboids 3.latissimus dorsi, teres major 4.supraspinatus, infraspinatus

levator scapulae, rhomboids

Which level of the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale would be characterized by non-purposeful reactions to stimuli? Level I - No Response Level II - Generalized Response Level III - Localized Response Level IV - Confused-Agitated

level II-generalized response Level II - Generalized Response is characterized by the patient reacting inconsistently and non-purposefully to stimuli in a nonspecific manner. Responses are limited and often the same regardless of the stimulus presented.

Which level on the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale would be most appropriate for a patient who responds specifically, but inconsistently to stimuli? Level II Level III Level V Level VII

level III Patients who respond specifically but inconsistently to stimuli would be considered Level III - Localized Response on the Rancho Los Amigos Scale. These patients are able to respond directly to the type of stimulus and may follow simple commands inconsistently.

Using the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale, a patient with a heightened state of activity, confusion, disorientation, aggressive behavior, inability to perform self-care, and lack of awareness of present events would be classified as: Level III Level IV Level V Level VI

level IV Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale will also assist to classify the level of injury based on where the patient best meets the criteria of each level. Level IV - Confused-Agitated is defined as: Patient is in a heightened state of activity. Behavior is bizarre and non-purposeful relative to the immediate environment. Does not discriminate among persons or objects; is unable to cooperate directly with treatment efforts. Verbalizations frequently are incoherent and/or inappropriate to the environment; confabulation may be present. Gross attention to environment is very brief; selective attention is often nonexistent. Patient lacks short and long-term recall.

in utilization of iontophoresis, which agent is indicated for pain relief? copper sulfate magnesium sulfate lidocaine dexamethasone phosphate

lidocaine

golgi ligament endings: location: sensitivity: primary distribution:

ligaments, adjacent to the ligaments' bony attachment tension or stretch on ligaments majority of joints

non contractile structure that limits cervical flexion:

ligamentum nuchae posterior longitiudinal ligament

Meissner's corpuscles, located in the dermis, are a type of mechanoreceptor responsible for detecting ____ ____

light touch

A physical therapist assistant observes a male patient during gait training. The patient has normal strength and equal leg length. As the patient passes midstance he slightly vaults and exhibits early toe off. The MOST likely cause of this deviation is: 1.weakness of the dorsiflexors 2.weakness of the hip abductors 3.limited plantar flexion 4.limited dorsiflexion

limited dorsiflexion

oral: Absorption by the gastrointestinal tract allows for a gradual increase in drug levels within the body. A disadvantage to oral administration is that the compound must be __ ___ so that the intestinal tract can absorb it. Other disadvantages include gastric irritation from the drug, metabolism and degradation of a drug by the liver before reaching its Target tissue, and factors that affect intestinal absorption and dust make bioavailability unpredictable

lipid soluble

the temporal lobe is reslonsible for auditory functions, comprehension of spoken word, __ __ memory, ___ perception. the parietal lobe functions for primary ___ cortex, integrating ____, __ ___ memory, perception of ___, proprioception, pain, and temperature the frontal lobe functions for the primary __ cortex for __ __, motor components of ___, cognition, judgement, attention, abstract thinking, and emotional control

long term visual sensory sensation short term touch motor voluntary movements speech

The serratus anterior is innervated by the __ __ nerve and the pectoralis minor is innervated by the __ __l nerve the levator scapulae and rhomboids are innervated by the __ __ nerve the latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve and the teres major is innervated by the __ ___ nerve the supraspinatus and infraspinatus are innervated by the ___ nerve

long thoracic medial pectoral dorsal scapular thoracodorsal lower subscapular suprascapular nerve

congenital limb deficiencies are classified as either ___ or ___. a longitudinal deficiency refers to a reduction or absence of an element or elements within the __ __ of the bone a transverse deficiency refers to a limb that has developed to a particular level beyond which skeletal elements ___ The majority of congenital limb deficiencies are ____ or ____ in origin with the most common being genetics.

longitudinal transverse long axis exists idiopathic genetic

the __ __ position should be used when performing an assessment of the joint

loose packed

Expectorant agents Increase respiratory secretions which help to __ __ Reducing the viscosity of secretions and increasing sputum volume improves the efficiency of the cough reflex and of ciliary action in removing accumulated secretions Indications include cough associated with respiratory tract infections and related conditions such as sinusitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis, and Asthma, when Complicated by tenacious mucus or mucus plugs and congestion therapists should exploit the effects of expectorant agents by performing Airway clearance interventions within 1 hour after Drug Administration. Therapists should encourage the patient to take the medication with a glass of water Examples: mucinex

loosen mucus

sensation: anesthesia- __ of __ paresthesia- __ sensations such as __, ___, and ___

loss sensation abnormal tingling burning pricking

GERD there is an upper esophogeal spincter and lower esophogeal spincter. with GERD, the __ esophogeal sphincter is the one that does not close properly __ sidelying is perferred

lower left

suspensory strategy is used to ___ CoG during standing or ambulation in order to __ __ the CoG

lower better control

Which areas of the spine are most susceptible to osteoarthritis? mid-thoracic and upper cervical upper cervical and lower lumbar lower cervical and lower lumbar upper cervical and upper lumbar

lower cervical and lower lumbar The areas of the spine most susceptible to osteoarthritis are the lower lumbar and lower cervical regions. Degeneration of the facet joints and the presence of osteophytes may combine with osteoarthritis to reduce the size of the intervertebral foramen leading to stenosis.

poliomyelitis ALS (both upper and lower) guillian barre tumors involving the spinal cord trauma progressive muscle atrophy infection bell's palsy carpal tunnel syndrome muscular dystrophy spinal muscular atrophy are all examples of a __ __ neuron lesion

lower motor

A physical therapist assistant employed in an acute care hospital works on vertical positioning with a patient who experienced complications from surgery and has been on bed rest for 10 days. Shortly after raising the tilt table 30 degrees the patient complains of nausea and severe dizziness. The physical therapist assistant checks the patient's systolic blood pressure and determines that it is 15 mm Hg less than the value recorded at the beginning of the treatment session. The MOST IMMEDIATE action is: 1.reassure the patient that the response is not unusual 2.document the incident in the patient's chart 3.lower the tilt table 4.contact the patient's physician to discuss the findings

lower the tilt table

Which muscle would be tested in prone with the shoulder in the greatest amount of abduction? rhomboids upper trapezius middle trapezius lower trapezius

lower trap

Lumbar flexion exercises in supine or used for patients with a flexion bias. The typical presentation for a patient with a flexion bias is reduction of symptoms when in a flexed posture or position and extension tests exacerbate or peripheral eyes symptoms. Diagnosis that require a flexion approach may include spondylosis, stenosis, extension load injuries, and synovitis of the facet joints

lumbar extension exercises in prone are used for patients with an extension bias. The typical presentation for a patient with an extension bias is often a lateral shift posture and standing an extension test decrease or centralized symptoms. Diagnosis that require an extension approach may include disc lesions and impaired flexed posture. Although the symptoms are consistent with a disc herniation the current presentation of a preference for non weight-bearing positions make a traction approach the preferred treatment to initially address the patient's positional preferences

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with a recent onset of low back pain consistent with a disc herniation. Pain increases with standing, lumbar motion, and coughing. Positions that are non weight-bearing alleviate the patient's symptoms. Based on the patient's clinical presentation which of the following interventions would the assistant most likely utilize initially to address the patient's positional preferences Lumbar stabilization exercises Lumbar traction techniques Lumbar flexion exercises in supine Lumbar extension exercise in prone

lumbar traction techiques Clinical practice guidelines for low back pain recommend using repeated movements, exercises, and procedures that promote centralization of symptoms. The movement system impairment based classification model is a commonly used evidence-based model to direct interventions based on directional preference. In this treatment based classification system, the categories include traction approach, extension approach, flexion approach, stabilization approach, mobilization approach, and exercise approach.

during wrist flexion and extension, the convex __ is moving on the concave radius at the radiocarpal joint during wrist flexion and extension, the convex ___ moving on the concave part of the ___ at the midcarpal joint

lunate capitate lunate

A physical therapist assistant classifies an obtained sputum sample as purulent. Which medical condition would MOST likely be associated with this type of sputum? 1.asthma 2.lung abscess 3.pulmonary edema 4.tuberculosis

lung abscess

A patient presents with chronic back pain that wakes him up at night and does not follow typical musculoskeletal patterns. He has a history of prostate cancer so the therapist refers him to his physician for further work-up, as prostate cancer is known to metastasize to the Bone. Which form of cancer is also known to metastasize to the bone? Lung cancer pancreatic cancer ovarian cancer stomach cancer

lung cancer Lung cancer metastasizes to the Bone, and can sometimes be detected following fractures or muscle spasms with unclear causes. Breast, prostate, thyroid, and lymphatic cancer is also commonly metastasize to the Bone. Pancreatic, ovarian, and stomach cancer all metastasized to the liver, lung, and peritoneum

A 35-year-old female is admitted to the hospital following a recent illness. Laboratory testing reveals a markedly high platelet count. This finding is typical with: 1.emphysema 2.metabolic acidosis 3.renal failure 4.malignancy

malignancy Thrombocytosis refers to an increased number of blood platelets. This condition is usually temporary and can occur as a compensatory measure after severe Hemorrhage, surgery, iron deficiency, and as a manifestation of certain cancers Emphysema is defined as an abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles. Blood values will include an increase in red blood cells to carry the oxygen and abnormal carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide levels. Pulmonary function test will show an increase in total lung capacity, functional residual capacity, and residual volume. The vital capacity is decreased metabolic acidosis is an acid-base disorder defined as an accumulation of acids or a deficit of bases within the blood. Causes may include renal failure, starvation, and diabetic or alcoholic ketoacidosis. Blood values will show a decrease in serum pH due to a decrease in HCO3- or an increase in H+ ions. An arterial pH less than 7.35 in the presence of an elevated PaCO2 is considered metabolic acidosis renal failure is defined as an Abrupt or rapid decline in renal filtration and function. There are three categories prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. Typical causes include hypovolemia, congestive heart failure, dehydration, sepsis, and autoimmune diseases. Blood values include hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, an elevated blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, magnesium, and uric acid Malignancy is defined as cells that have the ability to spread invade and Destroy tissue. A tumor that is malignant may or may not respond to treatment or may return after removal. Blood values vary based on type degree and location of the malignancy however are often increased as a manifestation of an occult neoplasm such as lung cancer

A physical therapist assistant uses a manual wheelchair during a training session with a patient with C5 quadriplegia. Which wheelchair would be the MOST appropriate based on the patient's level of injury? 1.manual wheelchair with sip and puff controls 2.manual wheelchair with handrim projections 3.manual wheelchair with friction surface handrims 4.manual wheelchair with standard handrims

manual wheelchair with handrim projections A patient with C5 tetraplegia would typically be able to utilize a manual wheelchair with hand Rim projections to assist with propulsion. The projections are typically angled at 30° and may have friction surfaces for greater ease of movement sip-and-puff controls are used only on power wheelchairs. These types of controls are most often use on patients with C4 tetraplegia. Innervation at the C4 level includes a diaphragm trapezius face and neck muscles

A physical therapist assistant reads in the medical record that a patient exhibits asthenia. Which test would be the MOST useful to identify the presence of this condition? 1.manual resistance to assess muscle strength 2.marching in place 3.alternating finger to nose 4.placing the feet on floor markers while walking

manuel resistance to assess muscle strength marching in place is used to test for cerebellar movement disorder alternating finger to nose is used to test for dysdiadochokinesia

muscles that retrude the jaw: (3)

masseter temporalis digastric

primary efferent function of cranial nerve V is ___

mastication

A physical therapist assistant attempts to assess the integrity of the vestibulocochlear nerve by administering the Rinne test on a patient with a suspected upper motor neuron lesion. After striking the tine of the tuning fork to begin vibration, which bony prominence should the physical therapist assistant utilize to position the stem of the tuning fork? 1.midline of the skull 2.occipital protuberance 3.inion 4.mastoid process

mastoid process

A physical therapist assistant assesses the pulse rate of a patient exercising on a treadmill. The assistant notes that the rhythm of the pulse is often are regular. What is the most appropriate action to ensure an accurate measurement of pulse rate? Select a different pulse site measure the pulse rate for 60 seconds use a different stethoscope document The Irregular pulse rate in the patient's medical record

measure the pulse rate for 60 seconds If your regular pulse rate is characterized by beats occurring at varying intervals. The lack of predictability will increase measurement error particularly when the time used to assess the pulse is relatively small such as 15 seconds Pulse site will not have an impact on the regularity or irregularity of the pulse the longer the duration of the measurement the closer the obtained measure will be to the patient's actual pulse rate. Although 60 seconds may seem excessive to assess the pulse in a patient with a regular heart rhythm it is often necessary in the presence of an irregular Rhythm to ensure a valid measure of pulse rate

Phonophoresis typically administers all of the following medications transdermally except: lidocaine methotrexate dexamethasone hydrocortisone

methotrexate Phonophoresis describes the use of ultrasound for the transdermal delivery of topical medication. Medications regularly used in phonophoresis include anti-inflammatory agents and analgesics. Methotrexate is a cancer medication and would not be administered using phonophoresis.

A physical therapist assistant completes a sensory assessment on a 61-year-old female diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. As part of the assessment the physical therapist assistant tests stereognosis, vibration, and two-point discrimination. What type of receptor is primarily responsible for generating the necessary information? 1.deep sensory receptors 2.mechanoreceptors 3.nociceptors 4.thermoreceptors

mechanoreceptors Mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to Mechanical deformation of the area surrounding a receptor. They are cutaneous sensory receptors that are located at the terminal end of the afferent fibers. Certain areas of the body have a higher density of mechanoreceptors than others. their response or four sensations of touch pressure itch tickle vibration and discriminative touch

the ___ meniscus is injured more frequently due to it being more firmly attached to the tibia. the injury will often involve twisting of the knee when it is in a ___ position with the foot planted on the ground. menisci are __ on their outer edges and become progressively ___ the more internal you go.

medial semiflexed thicker thinner

What are the units associated with ultrasound frequency? cm2 W/cm2 Hertz Megahertz

megahertz Frequency is the primary determinant in the depth of ultrasound penetration and is measured in megahertz (MHz). A frequency setting of 1 MHz is used for deeper tissues while a setting of 3 MHz is used for more superficial tissues (one to two centimeters).

McMurray Test tests for ___ tear. patient is supine with the knee in full flexion while the therapist medially rotatoes the tibia(to test for the __ meniscus) and brings the knee into full extension. the therapist will laterally rotate the tibia and bring the knee into full extension when testing the ___ meniscus. a positive sign is clicking or popping

meniscal lateral medial

bounce home test tests for __ lesion therapist maximally __ the knee and then passively ___ the knee. ___ __ or a rubbery end feel may indicate a meniscal lesion

meniscal flexes extends incomplete extension

thin fibrous cartilage between joint surfaces is called..

meniscus

which surgical procedure would have the most significant weight bearing restrictions? meniscus repair spinal fusion hip open reduction, internal fixation total hip replacement

meniscus repair following a meniscus repair there will likely be a period of restricted weight bearing in addition to bracing.

Clicking or catching in knee range of motion may be indicative of pathology of the: meniscus semitendinosus anterior cruciate ligament medial collateral ligament

mensicus Often caused by a compression and rotation mechanism, a meniscus tear can impede knee range of motion and may present with a springy end feel.

one of the signs of advanced paget's disease is __ __

mental deterioration

General cold application over a large surface area has physiological effects on the body including increased blood flow to internal organs, increased cardiac output, increased stroke volume, and increased arterial blood pressure, as well as shivering. Physiological effects of General quote application also include decreased __, __, and __ __ along with decreased venous blood pressure

metabolic pulse respiratory rate

__ __ occurs with an increase in bicarbonate accumulation

metabolic alkalosis

a bone affected in a boxers fracture

metacarpal

internal fixation common types of internal fixation include __ __, rods, wires, screws, and __. often employed with __ or __ fractures. the procedure provides needed stability to healing joints which allows __ __ and less __ __

metal plates nails comminuted displaced earlier mobility post op complications

basal cell carcinomas Rarely ____ and is common on the face in fair skinned people. It is associated with prolonged sun exposure

metastasizes

An individual with speech impairments has likely sustained a stroke in which artery? anterior cerebral artery middle cerebral artery posterior cerebral artery vertebrobasilar artery

middle cerebral artery A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery may affect Broca's and Wernicke's areas located in the left hemisphere (which are responsible for speech production). The middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral cerebral cortex including areas of the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes.

Contralateral spastic hemiparesis and sensory loss of the face and upper extremities more than the lower extremities are the main characteristics of a stroke in which artery? anterior cerebral artery posterior cerebral artery cerebellar artery middle cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery The middle cerebral artery is the most common site of occlusion resulting in stroke. It is also often associated with speech deficits, apraxia, perceptual deficits, and contralateral homonymous hemianopsia.

Broca's area is affected by a CVA that occurs in which of the following vessels? anterior cerebral artery middle cerebral artery posterior cerebral artery basilar artery

middle cerebral artery Bilateral occlusion of the middle cerebral artery at the stem will produce contralateral hemiplegia and sensory impairment. Dominant hemisphere impairment includes global, Wernicke's or Broca's aphasia. Since the middle cerebral artery supplies the larger portion of the cortex, other impairments are lobe dependent.

Q angle the degree of angulation present when measuring from the ___ to the __ __ __ __ and to the __ __ normal for men is __ degrees normal for women is __ degrees an excessive q angle can lead to pathology and abnormal tracking usually measured using a ___

midpatella asis tibial tubercle 13 18 goniometer

the unit of measure used to identify TMJ motion is in ___ used with a __ __

milimeters tape measure

An individual with phenylketonuria should be most cautious to avoid which food? honey milk spinach apples

milk Individuals with phenylketonuria should avoid foods that contain phenylalanine since they do not have the ability to break down the amino acid. Foods that are high in phenylalanine include meats, dairy, eggs, nuts, legumes, seeds, some breads, and foods that contain aspartame.

A physical therapist assistant recommends that a patient engage in a prescribed exercise program 5 days per week. based on the recommended frequency, the exercise program most likely consist of agility activities moderate-intensity aerobic activities muscular strengthening activities vigorous-intensity aerobic activities

moderate intensity aerobic activities

.During a family meeting in an acute rehabilitation hospital a 26-year-old male with complete C7 tetraplegia asks a variety of questions about self care and mobility expectations. With an uncomplicated recovery, the patient can expect lower extremity dressing to be performed with what level of assist in bed? 1.dependent 2.minimal assist 3.modified independence 4.independent

modified independent

A physical therapist assistant completes a developmental assessment on an infant. Which position would typically be the LAST to occur assuming normal development? 1.modified plantigrade 2.quadruped 3.ring sitting 4.bridging

modified plantigrade quadruped: 7-9 months ring sitting 5-7 months bridging 5-7 months

Whirlpool uses a turbine to produce agitation and aeration which creates movement of the water in the tank. The movement of the water results in the softening and loosening of adherent necrotic tissue. The inability to isolate necrotic tissue using whirlpool makes the intervention a form of non-selective debridement. Wet-to-dry dressings refer to the application of a ___ gauze dressing placed in an area of necrotic tissue. The dressing is then allowed to dry completely and is later removed along with the necrotic tissue that has adhered to the gauze. This type of debridement should be used sparingly on wounds with both necrotic tissue and viable tissue since granulation tissue will be traumatized in the process. As a result, a wet-to-dry dressing is a form of nonselective debridement. Enzymatic debridement is considered to be selective since the topical preparation of the enzymes used (collagenolytic, proteolytic) will greatly influence the treatment outcome. Wound irrigation removes necrotic tissue from the wound bed using pressurized fluid. Most devices permit varying pressure settings and provide suction for removal of the exudate and debris. Wound irrigation is a form of nonselective debridement.

moistened

symptoms of chronic bronchitis are worse in the ___ and in ___ environments

morning damp

the startle reflex is similar to the __ reflex but the elbows remain __ and the hands are __

moro flexed closed

Which of the following is an example of a class II drug? heroin lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) morphine sedative

morphine Class II drugs have the potential for high abuse with severe physical or psychological dependence. Examples of class II drugs include morphine, oxycodone, and amphetamines.

viscerogenic pain results from pathology of an internal organ, which can often refer to a site distanct from the organ and mimic common patterns of musculoskeletal pain. viscerogenic pain differs from musculoskeltal pain in many ways. viscerogenic pain does not change based on __ or __ of the body part, as would musculoskelatal pain. because organs have innervation from multiple spinal cord levels and a low density of nerve receptors, the pain is often ___ and __ __. also, viscerogenic pain may be accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as nausea, vomitting, weight loss, palor, profuse sweating, fever, and abnormal vital signs. common sites for referred viscerogenic pain include the shoulder, scapula, back, chest, pelvis, SI joint, groin, or hip.

movement positioning diffuse poorly localized

A patient is scheduled to undergo a transtibial amputation secondary to gangrene of their left foot. In addition, the patient is one month status post right total knee arthroplasty due to osteoarthritis. Given the patient's past and current medical history, the physical therapist assistant can expect which of the following tasks to be the MOST difficult for the patient following their amputation? 1.rolling from supine to sidelying 2.moving from supine to sitting 3.moving from sitting to standing 4.ambulating in the parallel bars

moving from sitting to standing Transferring from sitting to standing would be the most difficult for the patient since the activity requires adequate strength and dynamic balance. The patient strength will be decreased in the right lower extremity secondary to the recent total knee arthroplasty and balance will be altered due to the left transtibial amputation ambulating in the parallel bars requires greater strength and balance them performing bed Mobility however the patient is able to use the parallel bars to provide a stable base of support. The patient can use upper extremity strength to decrease some of the demand on the right lower extremity and to maintain balance during the activity

matching Mucolytic agents Hypotension Expectorant agents Hemorrhage Anticoagulant agents Gastrointestinal distress Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor agents Pharyngitis

mucolytic agents ----> pahryngitis expectorant agents -----> GI distress anticoagulant agents ----> hemorrhage ACE inhibitors ----> hypotension

Flutter valves are ___ ___ devices that can find positive expiratory pressure with high-frequency oscillations at the airway opening during ___

mucus clearance exhalation

patients with __ __ are intolerant to heat

multiple sclerosis Patients with MS are known to have transient worsening of their symptoms and conditions of increased Heat.

Which material has the largest specific heat? air fat bone muscle

muscle specific heat is the heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of a given substance by a given amount (usually one degree).

Diazepam (i.e., valium) is a common drug used to treat which condition? multiple sclerosis cardiac abnormalities muscle spasms epilepsy

muscle spasms Diazepam, commonly known as valium, is often the first line of defense in treating muscle spasms associated with musculoskeletal injuries such as a low back strain. Diazepam can also be used in life-saving situations by inhibiting spasms of the larynx and other muscles.

When Rising 2 standing from the floor which patient will likely display use of the upper extremities to push on the knees and walk up the legs? A patient with deschenes muscular dystrophy a patient with osteogenesis imperfecta a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip a patient with cerebral palsy

muscular dystrophy

A physical therapist assistant identifies significant weakness in the muscles of the face and proximal limbs of a 48-year-old female. Based on the patient's diagnosis, the physical therapist assistant concludes the cause of the weakness is neurogenic, specifically related to the neuromuscular junction. The MOST likely patient diagnosis is: 1.amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2.poliomyelitis 3.spinal muscular atrophy 4.myasthenia gravis

myasthenia gravis

the __ consists of the medula oblangata

myelencephalon

sequence the peripheral nerve layers from innermost to outermost epineurium myelin endoneurium perineurium

myelin endo peri epi

which is the most common form of TMJ dysfuction? RA OA myofascial pain internal derangement of the joint

myofascial pain

The ability of an individual to use greater resistance with an exercise during their second session as compared to their first session is most likely due to which of the following? neuromuscular adaptation muscle hypertrophy increases in muscle fiber strength muscular atrophy

neuromuscular adaptation The most immediate response to resistance training is an increase in the amount of motor units activated during a particular movement. Muscular hypertrophy and true muscular strength gains take approximately four weeks or more to be realized.

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects the ___ ____. The clinical presentation includes skeletal muscle weakness and fatiguability, commonly affecting the proximal limb and ___ muscles.

neuromuscular junction facial

which traumatic nerve injury is characterized by cutting of the nerve with severance of all structures and complete loss of function? entrapment neurotmesis neurapraxia axonotmesis

neurotmesis

Which finding would most likely require physician consultation when treating a patient diagnosed with osteoarthritis currently taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent? morning stiffness and pain increased soreness with increased activity fluctuating pain levels correlated with weather changes newly occurring stomach pain

newly occurring stomach pain Reports of newly occurring stomach pain should be taken seriously with subsequent referral to a physician. The other options are typical symptoms of osteoarthritis, and although relevant, would not typically require physician consultation.

Which of the following agents raises an individual's blood pressure at rest and increases the blood pressure response to exercise? calcium channel blockers nitrates nicotine diuretics

nicotine Nicotine increases resting blood pressure and the blood pressure response to exercise. Nicotine may also provoke ischemia and arrhythmias. The other options either decrease blood pressure at rest and with exercise or have no effect.

Which substance facilitates endothelial vasodilation? insulin epinephrine caffeine nitric oxide

nitric oxide Nitric oxide is a potent endothelial vasodilator. Nitric oxide promotes smooth muscle relaxation, however, atherosclerosis may interfere with the availability of nitric oxide and therefore result in a decreased vasodilation of the coronary arteries.

Which of the following statements is true regarding medical management of lymphedema? Diuretics work to reduce edema in lymphedema diuretics can decrease fibrosis and reduce extracellular protein no clear pharmaceutical management is available surgical procedures can be largely effective in reducing lymphedema

no clear pharm mngmnt is available There is research in the study of medications that will lies protein accumulation and stimulate macrophage activity, but there is concerned about health risks to the liver. They're mating answer options are incorrect regarding medical management of Lymphedema. Diuretics work if the edema is due to sodium retention, but ineffective in treating lymphedema as they can add to increase exercise Allure protein and increase fibrosis. Surgical procedures are mostly ineffective and are only typically used to treat severe involvement

grade I concussion A concussion that results from head injury where there was __ __ of __ but typically some transient Confusion by the patient. Symptoms will typically resolved within __ minutes of the event. The patient may exhibit full memory of the event. An athlete should be removed from the competition and return onliest symptom-free after __ __ of rest

no loss consciousness 15 1 week

What is not a typical characteristic of an arterial ulcer? Well demarcated lesion no pain Pale Base without granulation located over toes, dorsum of foot, lateral malleolus

no pain Characteristics of an arterial ulcer include location over the toes, dorsum of the foot, and lateral malleolus. Often full fitness depth, edges that are well demarcated, a pale base without granulation, decreased pulses, and often significant pain. And also without pain is characteristic of a venous ulcer or diabetic ulce

Which of the following statements is true regarding medical management of lymphedema? Diuretics work to reduce edema and lymphedema diuretics can decrease fibrosis and reduce extracellular protein no clear pharmaceutical management is available Surgical procedures can bu largely effective in reducing lymphedema

no pharmaceutical management is available

A null hypothesis is one that states there is __ __ or ____ between variables. A non-directional hypothesis means that a direction of change cannot be predicted

no relationship difference

sequence the level of congnitive funcitoning from lowest to highest function localized response no response confused agitated generalized response

no response generalized response localized response confused agitated

structures involved in pain sensation are called ____

nociceptors

A physical therapist assistant employed in an inpatient rehabilitation center works with a patient rehabilitating from a total knee arthroplasty. Which treatment activity would be the MOST appropriate to delegate to a physical therapy aide? 1.monitoring vital signs 2.measuring knee range of motion with a goniometer 3.observing a patient complete a mat exercise program 4.recording modality parameters in the medical record

observing a patient complete a mat exercise program Monitoring vital signs is a skilled activity and therefore would be inappropriate for a physical therapy aide. Failure to accurately monitor vital signs can jeopardize patient safety. 2.Performing goniometric measurements is a skilled activity taught to physical therapists and physical therapist assistants as part of their academic training. A physical therapy aide would therefore not be permitted to perform this type of activity. 3.Observing a patient complete a mat exercise program could be considered an unskilled activity and therefore appropriate for the physical therapy aide. It would be inappropriate for the physical therapy aide to expand their duties beyond an observational role (i.e., modify, interpret, progress) since this would require clinical decision making. 4.Physical therapy aides should not make entries in the medical record. Recording parameters associated with a specific intervention should be completed by the physical therapist or the physical therapist assistant who performed the intervention.

the three types of enteral administration are __, ___, and ___ the four types of parenteral administration are __, __, __, and ___

oral sublingual rectal inhalation, topical, transdermal, and injection

A droopy eyelid, also called ptosis occurs when the muscle that elevates the eyelid (the levator palpebrae superioris muscle) is weak from various reasons. this occurs from damage to the __ nerve

oculomotor

cranial nerve III name: voluntary motor: Levator of eyelid, Superior, medial, and inferior rectus. Inferior oblique muscle of the eyeball autonomic : smooth muscle of eyeball innervates the __ ___ muscle sensory or motor? How to test: ___, ___, and ___ gaze and reaction to ___

oculomotor medial rectus motor upward, downward, and medial gaze light

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of therapeutic ultrasound using non-thermal effects? over the knee on a woman has had a total knee arthroplasty over closed epiphyseal plates on the left shoulder of a patient with a cardiac pacemaker over a region of acute swelling

on the left shoulder of a patient with a cardiac pacemaker Ultrasound waves have the potential to interfere with the electrical circuitry of cardiac pacemakers. As a result, the modality is contraindicated in patients with cardiac pacemakers.

The duty cycle of an ultrasound treatment denotes the ratio of: on time to total time highest to lowest intensity size of the crystal to the size of the sound head the effective radiating area to the peak intensity

on time to total time Duty cycle refers to the portion of the treatment time that ultrasound is generated during the entire treatment. Specifically, the duty cycle of ultrasound is calculated by dividing the time during which sound is delivered (on time) by the total time (on time + off time) and multiplying the result by 100.

a randomized controlled trial is an experimental study in which participants are randomly assigned to either an experimental or control group receiving the variable intervention or placebo. A case report is a type of descriptive research in which __ __ patient is studied in depth and a retrospective report is written about the case. A systemic review is a review in which the primary studies are combined and summarized

only one

Allen Test for Vascular Insufficiency the patient is seated or standing. the patient is asked to __ and ___ the hand several times in succession and then maintain the hand in a closed position. the therapist then compresses the __ and __ arteries. the patient is then asked to relax the hand and the therapist releases the pressure on one of the arteries while observing the color of the hand and fingers. a positive test is indicated by delayed or absent flushing of the radial or ulnar half of the hand and may be indicative of an occlusion in the radial or ulnar artery

open close radial ulnar

what is the difference between an open and closed brain injury?

open injury occurs through direct penetration through the skull to the brain. examples linclude gunshot wound, knife or sharp object penetration, skull fragments, and direct trauma closed injuries are injry to the brain without benetration through the skull. examples include a concussion, contusion, hematoma, hypoxia, drug overdose, near drowning, and acceleration or deceleration injuries

Respiratory depression is not an expected side effect of anticonvulsant. __ agents such as __ Are the most common class of medications to have a primary side effect of respiratory depression

opioid narcotics

opioid agents (narcotics) provide analgesia for acute severe pain management. the medication stimulates __ __ within the CNS to prevent pain impulses from reaching their destination. certain drugs are also used to assist with dependency and withdrawal symptoms indications include moderate to severe pain of various origins, induction of conscious sedation prior to diagnostic procedure, and relief of severe pain and persistent cough a therapist must monitor the patient for potential side effects especially signs of __ _. treatment that is painful should be scheduled two hours after administration to maximize the affect examples: __, ___ and ___

opioid receptors respiratory depression demerol, OxyContin, (sublimaze) fentanyl

talocrural (ankle) dorsiflexion joint mobilization: a convex talus is moving on a concave tibia, so roll and glide occur in the ___ direction. during dorsiflexion, the talus is moving (rolling) ____ and the glide occurs in a ___ direction. the mobilizing force should then be a ___ glide of the talus to improve ankle dorsiflexion

opposite anteriorly posterior posterior

cranial nerve II name: sensory or motor? this is the cranial nerve that is involved in ___

optic sensory sight

which two cranial nerves are not responsible for movement of the eyes abducens optic oculomotor trigeminal trochlear

optic trigeminal

A lack of or inability to use vitamin D is often associated with: osteoporosis osteopenia osteomalacia chondromalacia

osteomalacia Osteomalacia refers to a softening of the bones, often caused by a vitamin D deficiency or an inability to use vitamin D. Soft bones are more likely to bow and fracture than are harder, healthier bones. Osteomalacia results from a defect in the bone-building process, while osteoporosis develops due to a weakening of previously constructed bone.

Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis affecting the hands? Boutonniere deformity ulnar drift of metacarpophalangeal joints osteophyte formation swan neck deformity

osteophyte formation Rheumatoid arthritis is a common connective tissue disease that results in inflammation of the synovial membrane and erosion of articular cartilage bone ligaments and the joint capsule. Bilateral symmetrical deformities in the hands are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. Morning stiffness is also common with lasting stiffness joint arrhythmia swelling and honor drift of the metacarpal phalangeal joints. Deformities of the hand include swan neck deformity boutonniere deformity and thumb deformities. Osteophyte formation is typical for osteoarthritis not rheumatoid arthritis

Trabecular bone is synonymous with cancellous or spongy bone. Trabecular bone is typically found at the end of long bones, proximal to joints, and within the interior of vertebrae. Trabecular bone erosion is not typically associated with instability following total hip arthroplasty, rather it is characteristic of conditions such as ____

osteoporosis

___ is the most commonly diagnosed metabolic bone disease

osteoporosis

Bone densitometry testing would be most commonly utilized with a patient diagnosed with: osteomyelitis osteoporosis spinal fracture spondylolisthesis

osteoporosis Bone densitometry uses x-rays to measure the density of bone. The test is used most often to detect osteopenia or osteoporosis since in these conditions bone mineralization and density are low and the risk of fracture is increased.

Which of the following conditions would not be a contraindication to passive range of motion? vertebral basilar insufficiency cauda equina lesion fracture osteoporosis

osteoporosis Passive range of motion should be performed with caution on a patient with osteoporosis, but should be avoided with patients showing signs and symptoms of vertebral basilar insufficiency, cauda equina lesion, and fracture.

after peripheral vascular disease, ___ is the second leading cause of transfemoral amputation osteosarcome is a highly malignant cancer that begins in the medullary cavity of a bone and leads to the formation of a mass. it usually affects bones with an active __ __ such as the femur or tibia and is often located in the metaphysis.

osteosarcoma growth plate

The epimysium is the ____ layer of non-contractile tissue of a muscle. The epimysium envelops the muscle, the perimysium envelops the __ __, and the endomysium separates individual myofibrils and muscle fibers. A ______ is the contractile component of a muscle.

outermost fiber bundles sarcomere

where would the stethoscope be placed to listen for the heart sounds of the tricuspid valve? over the 2nd left intercostal space at the sternal border over the fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border over the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the second rigth intercostal space at the sternal border

over the fourth intercostal space at the sternal border

When listening for heart sounds, where should the stethoscope be placed to locate the aortic valve? Over the second left intercostal space at the sternal border over the fourth left intercostal space at the sternal border over the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the second right intercostal space at the sternal border

over the second right intercostal space at the sternal border

where should the therapist position her hands when instructing a patient to perform diaphragmatic breathing? over the subcostal angle of the thorax over the lateral chest wall bilaterally over the sternum over the posterior aspect of the thoracic ribs

over the subcostal angle of the thorax

Dysmetria refers to an inability to modulate movement where patients will either __ or ___ their targets. The cerebellum is normally responsible for the timing Force extent and direction of the limb movement in order to correctly reach a Target

overestimate underestimate

which type of urinary incontinence is described when the bladder continuously leaks secondary to urinary retention and an over-distended bladder? overflow incontinence stress incontinence urge incontinence functional incontinence

overflow incontinence

A physical therapist assistant discusses common cognitive and behavioral changes associated with stroke with family members of a patient with right hemisphere damage and resultant left hemiplegia. Which term does NOT accurately describe the typical patient presentation? 1.poor judgment 2.impulsive 3.quick 4.overly cautious

overly cautious Patients with right hemisphere damage often have difficulty in grasping the whole idea of a task or activity and therefore may have difficulty with reasoning and judgment. 2.Patients with right hemisphere damage are often impulsive and tend to overestimate their abilities and underestimate their limitations. This combination makes the patient a greater safety risk compared to a patient with left hemisphere damage. 3.Patients with right hemisphere damage often are quick when performing mobility or tasks. Feedback must be given to encourage the patient to slow down and focus on each of the sequential steps of the activity. 4.Patients with left hemisphere damage often are described as cautious, anxious, and disorganized. They often have difficulties communicating and in processing information in a sequential manner.

A physical therapist assistant reviews the current pain management protocol of a patient 3 days post total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely have been prescribed for breakthrough pain as needed? Acetaminophen 1000mg Meloxicam (15 milligrams) Oxycodone (5 milligrams) Tramadol (100 milligrams)

oxycodone (5 mg)

Apparent enlargement (or thickening) of long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, or skull would be most characteristic of: Paget's disease osteoporosis osteopenia rickets

paget's disease Paget's disease (osteitis deformans) is a chronic bone disease of unknown etiology where there is thickened, spongy, and abnormal bone formation. Progression of the disease includes bowing of long bones, an increase in skull size, bone deformities, and fractures (especially of the vertebrae).

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is designed to provide a ferret stimulation with the goal of achieving what? Muscle contraction pain management joint range of motion wound healing

pain management

A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of left shoulder impingement. During the session, the physical therapist assistant begins to suspect a systemic cause for the patient's pain. Which of the following symptoms would BEST support this hypothesis? 1.pain has been present for years 2.pain is alleviated with the use of cryotherapy 3.pain is aggravated by cervical rotation 4.pain remains unrelieved with rest

pain remains unrelieved with rest In some instances, diagnosis that appear to have a musculoskeletal origin may actually have a more systemic cause. Asking appropriate questions about pain will assist the physical therapist assistant to delineate between musculoskeletal and systemic causes of pain Pain caused by a systemic pathology tends to be more recent and sudden in onset. Musculoskeletal pain can have a sudden onset or be present intermittently for years

flexion at the midcarpal joint will have the convex capitate rolling in a ___ direction and sliding in a ___ direction extension at the midcarpal joint will have the convex capitate rolling in a __ direction and sliding in a __ direction

palmar dorsal dorsal palmar

flexion at the radiocarpal joint will have the convex lunate rolling in a ___ direction and sliding in a ___ direction extension at the radiocarpal joint will have the convex lunate rolling in a __ direction and sliding in a ___ direction

palmar dorsal dorsal palmar

When measuring carpometacarpal flexion of the thumb using a goniometer, where should the axis be placed? proximal interphalangeal joint of the first digit over the scaphoid bone lateral aspect of the radial styloid process palmar aspect of the first carpometacarpal joint

palmar aspect of the 1st cmc joint

the division of pharmacology that deals with the use of drugs for preventing, treating, and diagnosing diseases

pharmacotherapeutics

What component of the dermis prevents shearing of the skin layers against themselves? papillary layer Meissner's corpuscles flexure lines melanin

papillary layer The papillary layer is composed of interlacing collagen with peg-like projections called papillae. These features prevent shearing of the skin layers to aid in maintaining skin integrity.

Which layer of the skin creates the folds that make up a fingerprint? papillary layer of the dermis reticular layer of the dermis hypodermis stratum lucidum

papillary layer of the dermis The dermis is separated into a papillary region and a reticular region. The papillary region interfaces with the epidermis and contains fingerlike projections called papillae. This creates a bumpy appearance that makes up fingerprints.

stage III presents with very tough skin and ___ and ___ are present. the edema is __ __ with elevation and the patient is __ to __

papillomas hyperkeratosis not reversible prone infections

A physical therapist assistant uses the Modified Ashworth Scale when assessing a patient status post stroke. Which of the following assessment procedures would be the MOST appropriate when using the Modified Ashworth Scale? 1.strength testing 2.deep tendon reflex testing 3.active range of motion 4.passive range of motion

passive range of motion

special tests: clarke's sign indicates ___ ___ which is a common condition amongst athletes and runners. the examiner places the patient in long sitting with approximately __ degrees knee flexion. the examiner presses down on the ___ and asks the patient to __ the __. positive test is pain or ___ to __ __ lachman's test is for indetifying the integrity of the __ __ __ posterior drawer examines integrity of __ __ __ McMurray's test identifies __ __

patellafemoral syndrome 30 patella contract quads inability hold contraction ACL PCL meniscal tears

A patient has known impairment of sensation Over The L4 dermatome. Which area will have impaired sensation to touch? Thoracic region groin region gastrocsoleus area patellar region

patellar region The gastroc Soleus region is the S1 and S2 dermatomes. The groin area includes The L1 and L2 As well as S2 and S3 dermatomes. The thoracic region includes the thoracic dermatomes

full knee flexion is the close packed position for which joint? patellofemoral joint hip joint talocrural joint tibiofemoral joint

patellofemroal joint

In what position should a patient be placed to promote draining of the anterior segment of the upper lobes? Patient is flat on back with a pillow under knees patient sets, leaning over a folded pillow at 30 degrees patient is on abdomen in a head down position with a pillow under the hips patient is prone on abdomen with two pillows under hips

patient is flat on back with a pillow under knees

Which scenario would provide the most appropriate justification for a wheelchair with a reclining frame? patient is unable to self-propel the wheelchair patient frequently experiences autonomic dysreflexia patient is unable to perform weight shifting tasks patient has excessive lower extremity spasticity

patient is unable to perform weight shifting tasks A reclining frame can be used to help alter weight bearing in a patient that is wheelchair dependent. Other uses of a reclining frame include when a patient is unable to sit upright for an extended period of time and when a patient has moderate to severe trunk involvement.

the ___ is where the screws are placed during a spinal fusion

pedicle

Which of the following interventions is best indicated for a patient immediately following a a C-section delivery Cardiovasuclar training Pelvic floor strengthening exercises Straight leg raises Abdominal curl ups

pelvic floor For patients after pregnancy and C-section the patient will benefit from pelvic floor exercises to strengthen the musculature of the pelvic floor. After pregnancy the patient will likely have decreased muscle tone and decreased muscle strength and control. Pelvic floor exercises will help to prevent or reverse incontinence The remaining answers are incorrect. Cardiovascular training is too intense right after a c-section. Abdominal curl-ups and straight leg raises are contraindicated due to the surgery and location of the incision as the patient will require time for healing

New bone formation in response to resistance training occurs primarily in which area of the bone? periosteum endosteum epiphysis undefined

periosteum Bone formation occurs with resistance training due to the body's response to mechanical loading. Forces against the longitudinal axis of bone cause the bone to bend. This bending of the bone signals the body that there is weakness in the areas that experience the greatest amount of deformation. The body responds through the application of new bone cells (osteoblasts) in the periosteum of those areas of the bone experiencing the greatest amount of deformation.

A patient with recurrent lateral ankle instability undergoes and Ankle reconstruction procedure. As part of the procedure the surgeon feels that the ankle needs to be reinforced with a tendon autograft. Which of the following muscles would most likely serve as the source of the autograft tissue? Semitendinosus Gracilis flexor hallucis longus Peroneus brevis

peroneus brevis

eversion (3)

peroneus longus peroneus brevis peroneus tertius

which form of massage technique describes a grasping and lifting of tissues, meant to loosen adhesions and increase venous return? effleurage tapotment vibration petrissage

petrissage

the study of how a drug exerts its therapuetic effect on the body at the cellular or organ level

pharmacodynamics

the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body

pharmacokinetics

Application of a topical medication using ultrasound is known as: iontophoresis phonophoresis fluidotherapy diathermy

phonophoresis Phonophoresis describes the use of ultrasound for the transdermal delivery of topical medication. Ultrasound enhances the distribution of medication through the skin, provides a high concentration of the drug directly to the treatment site, and avoids risks that may be associated with the injection of medication.

mechanical debridement: uses __ __ to remove contaminated tissue or foreign material

physical forces

serosanguineous (_____) can be a normal exudate in a healthy healing wound sanguineous (_____) indicated a bloody dishcarge which may be indicative of either new blood vessel growth or a disruption of blood vessels

pink red

A 22-year-old male status post traumatic brain injury receives physical therapy services in a rehabilitation hospital. The patient is presently functioning at Rancho Los Amigos level VI. The patient has progressed well in therapy, however, has been bothered by diplopia. Which treatment strategy would be the MOST appropriate to address diplopia? 1.provide non-verbal instructions within the patient's direct line of sight 2.place a patch over one of the patient's eyes 3.ask the patient to turn his head to one side when he experiences diplopia 4.instruct the patient to carefully focus on a single object

place a patch over one of the patient's eyes

A physical therapist assistant performs prosthetic training with a patient status post transfemoral amputation. Which initial instruction would be the MOST appropriate when ascending the stairs? 1.utilize the handrail to propel your legs to the next step simultaneously 2.place your body weight on the prosthetic side and lead with your uninvolved leg 3.place your body weight on the uninvolved side and lead with your prosthetic leg 4.avoid using stairs with your prosthesis

place your body weight on the prostheti side and lead with your uninvolved leg

which type of trunk support would be the most appropriate for a patient requiring mild to moderate lateral support due to listing or scoliosis? curved back support chest straps planar lateral supports

planar lateral supports

the joints between the carpal bones are considered __ joints as movement occurs in multiple different directions

plane

A physical therapist assistant attempts to palpate the tibialis posterior tendon. To facilitate palpation of this structure the therapist should: 1.ask the patient to invert and plantar flex the foot 2.ask the patient to evert and dorsiflex the foot 3.ask the patient to invert and dorsiflex the foot 4.passively evert and plantar flex the foot

plantar flex and invert the foot The tendon of the tibialis posterior can be palpated posterior and inferior to the medial malleolus.

after an achilles tendon repair, the ankle will be casted in slight __ __. however, in the past few decades, there has been a push for more aggressive rehab following this surgery in which the ankle is casted in ___ and PWB is allowed much sooner in the recovery process. researches have found that this leads to less restricted ROM long term. during the healing process, take caution with exercises that ___ the achilles tendon or requice active __ ___ until the tendon is well healed.

plantar flexion neutral stretch PF

vaulting gait when the swing leg advances by compensating through the combination of elevation of the pelvis and __ __ of the stance leg. excessive plantar flexion during and after midstance helps to clear a swing limb that is too long and is often associated with elevation of the pelvis on the __ __. causes of this gait is similar to the causes of circumduction gait such as weak __ or __ __ other causes include __ __ __ or knee or hip extensor spasticity. both vaulting during stance and circumduction giat during swing are compensating to improve ground clearance during the swing phase.

plantar flexion swing side dorsiflexors hip flexors plantar flexion contracture

Cardiac biomarkers are biomarkers measured to evaluate heart function. Cardiac enzymes studies measure the levels of creatine phosphokinase in the protein troponin in the blood. Ck-mb is a relatively specific test for myocardial infarction Prothrombin time is the amount of time it takes __ __ __ after the addition of tissue Factor. Patients on ___ such as Warfarin may require frequent monitoring of Prothrombin time

plasma to clot anticoagulants

thrombolytic agents facilitate clot dissolution thorugh converson of __ to __. plasmin breaks down clots and allows occluded vessels to repoen to maintain blood flow used to treat MI, PE, ischemic stroke, and arterial and venous thrombosis

plasminogin plasmin

mechanical ventilator produces a controlled flow of gas into the patient's airways. the flow of gas provides __ __ that produces __ _. patients with acute illness, trauma, and severe chronic illness may require. the most common type of ventilators include __ __ and __ __ volume cycled: deliver a ___ amount of gas based on the patient's needs during the __ phase. most commonly used for patients that require __ __ support pressure cycled: deliver a predetermined __ __ of gas during respirtation. when the established pressure is reached, the inspiratory phase __. the expiratory phase is passive with both of these ventilators

positive pressure lung inflation volume cycled pressure cycled predetermined inspiratory long term maximum amount ends

the thoracodorsal nerve originates from the __ cord of the brachial plexus and innervates the __ _. this muscle __, __ __, __, and __ the scapula.

posterior lat dorsi extends IR adducts depresses

A physical therapist assistant assesses a patient's lower extremity circulation. Which location would be most appropriate for the assistant to palpate if they want to assess the posterior tibial artery pulse? Anterior aspect of the medial malleolus posterior aspect of the medial malleolus anterior aspect of the lateral malleolus posterior aspect of lateral malleolus

posterior aspect of the medial malleolus

A physical therapist assistant performs a circulatory screening on the lower extremities. In order to assess the posterior tibial artery pulse, the physical therapist assistant must palpate the: 1.medial aspect of the arm midway between the shoulder and elbow 2.posterior aspect of the medial malleolus 3.posterior aspect of the knee 4.dorsal aspect of the foot between the first and second metatarsals

posterior aspect of the medial malleolus The brachial artery is found in the upper extremity and is assessed by palpating the medial aspect of the arm between the shoulder and elbow. It is a major artery of the upper extremity supplying the majority of blood flow and is closely position to the median nerve. The brachial artery is also used frequently to obtain blood pressure due to its superficial and palpable pulse the dorsalis pedis artery is found in the lower extremity and is assessed by palpating over the dorsal aspect of the foot between the first and second metatarsal bones. If anterior compartment syndrome is suspected this pulse should be assessed and compared to the uninvolved foot however this process is normally absent and approximately 10% of the population

The patient should be on the abdomen and a head down position with a pillow under the hips to promote postural drainage of the __ __ segments of the ___ lobes watch yt vid or look in giles book

posterior basal lower lobes

Damage to which structure during a total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral approach often contributes to an increased risk of subsequent dislocation? gluteus maximus posterior capsule sciatic nerve tensor fasciae latae

posterior capsule A total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral approach allows the abductor muscles to remain intact, however, there is a relatively high incidence of post-operative joint instability due to the interruption of the posterior capsule. This type of surgical approach requires a patient to avoid excessive hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip adduction, and hip medial rotation.

A patient following total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral surgical approach experiences hip instability. Which finding would best explain the reason for the instability? Trabecular bone erosion femoral nerve paralysis posterior capsule damage Hip abductor weakness

posterior capsule damage

A patient with a recent stroke affecting the right hemisphere displays signs consistent with Pusher syndrome. What's cerebral artery was most likely affected. Also while practicing seated balance reactions, this patient would most likely lean: Forward Backward To the right To the left

posterior cerebral artery to the left Pusher syndrome also known as if the lateral pushing is an abnormal motor Behavior sometimes encountered in patients who have had a stroke. The condition is characterized by the patient pushing with the stronger extremities towards the hemiparetic side. Pusher syndrome is caused by a misconception of body orientation in relation to gravity

A patient status post CVA presents with right-sided motor and sensory loss, HH, visual agnosia, involuntary movement, oculomotor nerve palsy, thalamic pain syndrome, and Pusher syndrome (pushing toward the involved side) Which CVA syndrome is likely? Middle cerebral artery syndrome Anterior cerebral artery syndrome Posterior cerebral artery syndrome Vertebrobasilar artery syndrome

posterior cerebral artery syndrome

horizontal abductors (3)

posterior delt infraspinatus teres minor

A physical therapist assistant works with a 52-year-old female with T8 paraplegia resulting from a motor vehicle accident one month ago. After assessing the patient's wheelchair the physical therapist assistant determines that the standard sling seat does not provide enough support to ensure the patient's comfort and function. Which position would this type of seating option tend to promote? 1.anterior pelvic tilt with adduction and medial rotation of the hips 2.posterior pelvic tilt with adduction and medial rotation of the hips 3.anterior pelvic tilt with abduction and lateral rotation of the hips 4.posterior pelvic tilt with abduction and lateral rotation of the hips

posterior pelvic tilt with adduction and medial rotation of the hips Many wheelchairs come with a fabric or sling seat. This type of seating surface reinforces a poor pelvic position since the patient tends to slide forward in the chair. Additionally, because the surface is not firm, the seat sags and the position of the hips is also affected.

A physical therapist assistant obtains a gross measurement of hamstrings length by passively extending the lower extremity of a patient in short sitting. The MOST common substitution to exaggerate hamstrings length is: 1.weight shift to the contralateral side 2.anterior rotation of the pelvis 3.posterior rotation of the pelvis 4.hiking of the contralateral hip

posterior rotation of the pelvis

In a quadrilateral socket the media wall is the same height as the __ __ while the anterior and lateral walls are 2.5 to 3 in ___. The anterior and lateral walls provide a posterior directed Force for proper seating. Additionally the socket has relief for the adductor longus tendon hamstring tendons sciatic nerve gluteus maximus and rectus femoris. __ __ is an area in the anterior wall built up to distribute forces across the femoral triangle. Quadrilateral socket provides excellent stability while accommodating for sensitive components of the upper thigh and buttocks

posterior walls higher scarpas bulge

A PTA is teaching a patient with a spinal cord injury at L1 to manage Curves in his wheelchair. The best way to instruct the patient is to have him: Grab the hand rims ___ and then pull them forward abruptly and forcefully

posteriorly

talocrural (ankle) plantar flexion a convex talus is moving on a concave tibia, so roll and glide occur in ___ direction. during plantar flexion, the talus is moving (rolling) ___ and the glide occurs in an ___ direction. the mobilizing force should be an ___ glide of the talus to improve ankle plantar flexion

posteriorly anterior anterior

The piriformis muscle is released from its insertion on the greater trochanter during a THA using a___surgical approach, however, it is later reattached. The muscle does not play a critical role in maintaining hip stability

posterolateral

muscle spindle located in the muscle belly very sensitive to muscle length and more importantly rate of muscle length and tension. When the length of a muscle changes rapidly, the muscle spindle will send a signal to the brain to cause a contraction of that muscle in order to protect it. this is called the stretch reflex. this is what doctors are testing when they test our reflexes. the hitting of the tendon causes a quick stretch of the tendon which then causes the muscle to contract quickly (reflex). the muscle spindle is important in the the control of __ and __ __. this will also cause recipricol inhibition. if the biceps are stretched quickly and then contract, it will cause the triceps to relax

posture involuntary movements

there are two types of grips: ___ grip ___ grip

power precision

__ __ are at an increased risk for hypoglygemia when exercising

pregnant women

Which of the following will increase the absorption of topical medication when using phonophoresis on the forearm? dehydration thick callous preheating the skin elevating the extremity

preheating the skin Heat increases the kinetic energy of molecules in the skin, which increases the transportation and transmission of medications through the skin into the capillary system. Other factors that may increase absorption include thinner skin, increased metabolism, and increased hydration.

Which factor is most commonly related to cerebral palsy? maternal smoking maternal alcohol intake premature birth inadequate folic acid intake by the mother

premature birth Premature birth is the most common factor in occurrences of cerebral palsy. When an infant is born premature, the blood vessels in the brain are not fully developed and therefore are susceptible to damage from gravitational forces. This may lead to blood vessel rupture and resultant death of brain tissue.

A physical therapist assistant is working in a rehabilitation hospital completes the Braden scale as a component of patient examination. The Braden scale is most often used as a risk assessment tool for which of the following integumentary conditions? Neuropathic ulcers arterial insufficiency ulcers venous insufficiency ulcers pressure injuries

pressure injuries Pressure injuries result from sustained or prolonged pressure on tissue at levels greater than that of capillary pressure. Skin covering bony prominences are particularly susceptible to localized ischemia and tissue necrosis due to pressure. Factors contributing to pressure injuries include shearing forces moisture heal friction medications and muscle atrophy malnutrition and debilitating medical conditions. The Braden scale is an advance based tool commonly used to assess the risk for developing pressure injuries

Which phase of burn healing is characterized by Scar Tissue formation by fibroblasts and wound contraction? Inflammatory phase Maturation phase Emergency phase Proliferative phase

proliferative phase

apley's compression test patient is __ with knee flexed to __ degrees. therapist places hand on patients heel. the therapist medially and laterally rotates the tibia while applying a compressive force through the tibia. a positive test is indicated by pain or clicking and may be indicative of a meniscal lesion

prone 90

A physical therapist assistant observe the patient completing a low-level exercise test on a treadmill. Which of the following measurement methods would provide the assistant with an objective measurement of endurance? Facial color facial expression expressions rating on a perceived exertion scale respiration rate

respiration rate

A physical therapist assistant reviews an examination completed on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Results of the examination include 4/5 strength in the lower extremities, 10 degree flexion contracture at the hips, and exaggerated forward standing posture. The patient has difficulty initiating movement and requires manual assistance for gait on level surfaces. The MOST appropriate activity to incorporate into a home program is: 1.prone lying 2.progressive relaxation exercises 3.lower extremity resistive exercises with ankle weights 4.postural awareness exercises in standing

prone lying Prone lying is a commonly employed positional technique designed to stretch the hip flexors in patients with Parkinson's disease. Increased flexibility of the hip muscles will improve standing posture and enable the body's center of gravity to remain within the base of support. Although some of the other options are appropriate they would not provide the same degree of benefit for the patient based on the described clinical presentation

which pulmonary condition is characterized by excessive seepage of fluid from the pulmonary vasuclar system into the interstitial space? atelectasis pleural effusion pulmonary emboli pulmonary edema

pulmonary edema

Which level of the Rancho Los Amigos scale is characterized by the patient no longer requiring supervision once tasks have been learned? Level V - Confused-Inappropriate Level VI - Confused-Appropriate Level VII - Automatic-Appropriate Level VIII - Purposeful-Appropriate

purposeful appropriate Level VIII - Purposeful-Appropriate is characterized by the patient's ability to recall past and recent events and responsiveness to the environment. The patient no longer requires supervision once a task is learned. The patient may continue to have impairments with abstract reasoning, tolerance for stress, and judgment in emergencies or unusual circumstances.

What sputum characteristic would be most commonly associated with a patient who is experiencing an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis? purulent nonspecific frothy hemoptysis

purulent Purulent sputum is commonly associated with a patient who is experiencing an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis. Purulent sputum is also common in patients with bronchiectasis.

exaggerated knee flexion at initial contact knee hyperextension at stance may be present if there is a weakness in what muscle group?

quadriceps

the ___ have their peak muscle activity during early stance phase and just before toe off

quadriceps

anterior trunk lean gait pattern a gait abnormality during early stance due to weakness of the ___. Just after heel strike, in normal gait, knee flexion occurs under the eccentric control of the quadriceps. if the quads are weak, a person may __ __ to produce a knee extension moment diminshing the need for the quads to control knee flexion. this results in locking the knee in extension or hyperextension in stance to compensate for the weak quads

quadriceps lean forward

Which of the following is not a socket used for patients with a transtibial amputation? patella tendon bearing socket quadrilateral socket supracondylar patella tendon socket supracondylar-suprapatellar socket

quadrilateral socket Patella tendon bearing socket, supracondylar patella tendon socket, and supracondylar-suprapatellar socket are the three commonly used socket types for transtibial amputations. A quadrilateral socket or ischial containments socket would be used for a transfemoral amputation.

A therapist is working in a home health setting with many patients undergoing Cancer Treatments. Therefore, he must be aware of the side effects of Cancer Treatments. Which type of cancer treatment would be least likely to cause nausea vomiting and or anorexia? Chemo Biotherapy Radiation Bone marrow transplant

radiation Radiation is a site-specific treatment and common side effects include fatigue radiation sickness hair loss localized Burns and fibrosis. A GI side effect can include diarrhea. This treatment does not typically cause nausea vomiting or anorexia

condyloid joint: The oval-shaped condyle of one bone fits into the elliptical cavity of the other bone. These joints allow biaxial movements—i.e., forward and backward, or from side to side, but not rotation. ____ joint and ____ joint are examples of condyloid joints.

radiocarpal MCP

an experimental study in which participants are randomly assigned to either an experimental or control group, receiving the variable intervention or placebo. This is considered level 1a evidence when utilizing research for evidence-based practice and is the __ level of evidence that should be used to guide clinical practice when possible

randomized control trial highest

A physical therapist assistant treats an infant with a number of sensorimotor impairments. The therapist observes that in supine the patient exhibits excessive extensor tone which inhibits the ability of the flexors to contract. This finding likely results from a loss of: 1.irradiation 2.reciprocal inhibition 3.successive induction 4.rhythmic initiation

reciprocal inhibition Reciprocal inhibition describes when a muscle on one side of a joint is stimulated while the muscle on the opposing side of the joint is inhibited. Stated differently, facilitation of the agonist results with simultaneous inhibition of the antagonist. In the presented scenario, the presence of the extensor tone does not allow the extensors to relax or lengthen which inhibits the ability of the flexors to contract.

A physical therapist assistant treating a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis identifies the presence of hallux valgus. The patient reports pain and tenderness in the area of the great toe. Which of the following actions would be the most beneficial to address this condition? Recommend a shoe with a wide toe box improve alignment of the great toe by using a metatarsal bar Increase flexion range of motion of the great toe use a heel cup to redistribute forces

recommend a shoe with a wide toe box Hallux valgus cannot be relined through conservative management. A metatarsal bar would be more appropriately used to redistribute pressure with MTP joint dislocation or improve alignment of the toes as part of treatment for hammer or clawed toes a heel cup would not serve to redistribute the weight bearing stress has found with hallux valgus. A heel cup would be more appropriately used to diminish pressure with a painful heel particularly in the presence of a bone spur

Polycythemia is defined as an increase in the number of __ __ __ and concentration of ____. This condition results in increased blood ____ and increased __ __ thus resulting in elevated blood pressure measurements. Other signs and symptoms include fatigue dyspnea headache dizziness irritability blurred vision decreased mental acuity and sensory disturbances

red blood cells hemoglobin viscosity blood volume

cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor- ___ due to increased __ __ to area calor- ___, due to __ of __ to area dolor- __ __ __, due to pressure from __ on surrounding tissue tumor- ____, due to accumulation of __ to area

redness blood flow heat heat of blood pain at rest edema swelling

leukopenia is defined as a _____ in the number of white blood cells. This condition can result from ___ or ____ therapy, dietary deficiencies, infectious diseases, and autoimmune diseases. Signs and symptoms include fever chills sweating mucous membrane alterations and infections. Patients with leukopenia will not typically experience abnormalities in blood pressure without other relevant Medical conditions

reduction chemo radiation

A 31-year-old female athlete confides in the physical therapist assistant that she has been using anabolic steroids. Which side effect of steroid use would the patient MOST likely experience? 1.rapid weight loss 2.reduction in breast size 3.increased high density lipoprotein levels 4.diminished facial hair

reduction in breast size Anabolic steroids are the synthetic derivatives of the naturally occurring male anabolic hormone testosterone. Testosterone is the primary hormone in humans that produces male secondary sex characteristics. Steroids can be taken orally or are more often injected in cycles. 1.Anabolic steroids are most often associated with rapid weight gain primarily due to an increase in muscle mass. 2.Females using anabolic steroids often experience "masculinization effects" from anabolic steroid use which includes reduction in breast size. Males, however, experience breast formation due to the increased levels of circulating estrogens. 3.Anabolic steroids most often produce an increase in low density lipoproteins (LDL) and a decrease in high density lipoproteins (HDL). This is undesirable since HDL cholesterol is referred to as the "good" cholesterol because it helps carry away LDL cholesterol. LDL cholesterol is referred to as the "bad" cholesterol since it is associated with the buildup of fatty plaques within the arteries which reduce blood flow. 4.Females using anabolic steroids would most likely experience increased facial hair due to the "masculinization effects" from anabolic steroid use. Males, however, may experience alterations in hair growth including an acceleration of male pattern baldness

regarding to ventilation, what is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled? residual volume total lung capacity tidal volume vital capacity

residual volume residual volume is a useful way of measuring how well the lungs are functioning overall

class 2 lever: has the ___ betwen the __ and __. the length of the effort (force) arm is always __ than the length of the resistance arm. example: ___

resistance axis force greater wheelbarrow

A physical therapist assistant attempts to strengthen the lumbricals on a patient with a low metatarsal arch. Which exercise would be the MOST appropriate? 1.resisted extension of the metatarsophalangeal joint 2.resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint 3.resisted abduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint 4.resisted adduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint

resisted flexion of the MTP joint The lumbricals ACT to flex the metatarsal phalangeal joints and assist an extension of the interphalangeal joints of the second through fifth digits. The lumbricals are innervated by the tibial nerve

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient utilizing a peripherally inserted central catheter line in the right arm following surgery. Which postoperative activity would MOST likely be restricted? 1.resistive right shoulder exercises using a dumbbell weight 2.passive left shoulder range of motion exercises 3.showering after wrapping and securing the right arm in plastic wrap 4.active-assisted left shoulder range of motion exercises

resistive right shoulder exercises using a dumbbell weight

A physical therapist assistant observes a patient completing a low-level exercise test on a treadmill. Which of the following measurement methods would provide the physical therapist assistant with an objective measurement of endurance? 1.facial color 2.facial expression 3.rating on a perceived exertion scale 4.respiration rate

respiration rate Facial color is a subjective measure that can be easily accessed through observation. Prolonged exercise often results in a gradual reddening or flushing of the face facial expression is a subjective measure that can be used effectively by physical therapist assistants to gain Insight on a patient's endurance and activity tolerance. As patients become more fatigued it is often a parent by simply watching for changes in facial expression rating on a perceived exertion scale is a subjective measure that attempts to quantify exercise intensity. One of the most common scales used in physical therapy is Borg rating of perceived exertion scale. The 20-point rpe scale ranges from a minimum value of 6 to a maximum value of 20. The scale is designed to assess intensity and not necessarily endurance respiration rate is an objective measure that can be used as a gross method to assess endurance. Normal respiration in an adult is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Respiration rate tends to increase proportionately with increases in exercise intensity

the other options are signs of __ __ which is diminished carbon dioxide and alveolar hyperventilation. other signs include tachypnea, dizziness, anxiety, numbness and tingling, blurred vision, diaphoresis, muscle cramps, twitching, weakness, arrhythmias and convuslions (watch yt vid comparing the two)

respiratory alkalosis

A patient post-stroke presents with significant impairment in kinesthesia during sensory testing of the involved extremities. Based on this finding which of the following proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques would be the most appropriate intervention? Rhythmic initiation alternating isometrics rhythmic stabilization hold relax

rhythmic initiation Kinesthesia refers to the ability to identify the direction and extent of movement of a joint or body part. PNF techniques typically involve movement patterns that followed diagonals that possesses a flexion extension and Rotator e component and are directed toward or away from midline. PNF techniques can be used to develop muscle strength endurance stability Mobility neuromuscular control and coordination. The appropriate technique is dependent on the goal of treatment

emotional lability is characteristic of a CVA involving the ___ hemisphere

right

step length the distance measured between the __ heel strike and left __ __ avg step length is __ inches

right heel strike 28

A Hickman catheter, or indwelling __ __catheter, is inserted through the cephalic or internal jugular vein and threaded into the __ __ __and right atrium. The catheter is used for long-term administration of substances into the venous system such as chemotherapeutic agents, total parenteral nutrition, and antibiotics.

right atrial superior vena cava

A central venous pressure catheter is a plastic intravenous tube used to measure pressure in the __ __ or the __ __ __. specifically the device measures pressure associated with the ___ of the right ventricle (diastolic pressure)

right atrium superior vena cava filling

A physical therapist assistant inspects the abdomen of a patient with an ascending colostomy. Which description BEST describes the location of this colostomy? 1.upper portion of the abdomen 2.lower portion of the abdomen 3.left side of the abdomen 4.right side of the abdomen

right side of the abdomen A colostomy is a surgical opening in the colon created for the elimination of feces. This type of procedure can be required when an injury or pathology prohibits the colon from functioning properly. Examples of conditions associated with the potential need for a colostomy includes cancer, IBS, congenital anomalies, and Trauma to the abdomen. The ascending colon is the beginning portion of the large intestine located on the right side of the abdomen. the eighth inning colon extends upward to a bend in the colon called the hepatic flexure The transverse: located across the upper portion of the abdomen follows the eighth inning colon and the hepatic flexure. The transverse: and they've been in the colon called the splenic flexure The descending: located on the left side of the abdomen follows the transverse colon and the splenic flexure the sigmoid colon is a portion of the large intestine and serves as a connection to the rectum. This structure is located in the lower portion of the abdomen.

common blood pressure medications will have the suffix:

ril enalapril ramipril catapril lisinopril

Which of the following types of handrims would be the most appropriate for a patient that has significant grip deficits resulting in difficulty propelling the wheelchair? Small diameter large diameter Rim projections Covered rims

rim projections

Hematocrit is the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. The hematocrit ___ immediately after a severe burn and gradually decreases with fluid replacement

rises

which two scnaries would warrent the use of a carotid ultrasound? assess an identified cardiac arrhythmia screen for blockages that increase stroke risk evaluate the placement of a stent identify the presence of pericardial perfusion examine airflow and blood flow within the lungs

screen for blockages evaluate stent

Metabolic alkalosis is a condition that occurs when there is an increase in bicarbonate accumulation or an abnormal loss of acids. As a result the pH __ __ __ Metabolic alkalosis commonly occurs when there has been a continuous vomiting, ingestion of antacids or other alkaline substances or a diuretic therapy. It may also be associated with hypokalemia or ____ ___ Symptoms include nausea, diarrhea, prolonged vomiting, confusion, muscle fasciculations, muscle cramping, neuromuscular hyperexcitability, convulsions, paresthesias, and hypoventilation. ___ Is typically observed as the body tries to regulate its acid-base balance by inducing respiratory acidosis through hypoventilation Treatment includes administration of __ __ to the patient

rises above 7.45 nasogastric suctioning bradypnea potassium chloride

CT scan uses an x-ray machine that __ around a patient lying on a __

rotates table

A physical therapist assistant instructs a patient to make a fist. The patient can make a fist, but is unable to flex the distal phalanx of the ring finger. This clinical finding can BEST be explained by: 1.a ruptured flexor carpi radialis tendon 2.a ruptured flexor digitorum superficialis tendon 3.a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon 4.a ruptured extensor digitorum communis tendon

ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon The flexor digitorum profundus muscle originates on the anterior and medial surfaces of the proximal portion of the ulna, interosseous membrane, and deep antebrachial faccia. The muscle inserts via for tendons into the anterior surface of the basis of the distal phalanges. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle acts to flex the proximal interphalangeal joints of the second through fifth digits and assist in flexion of the metacarpal phalangeal joints and flexion of the wrist the flexor digitorum profundus muscle acts to flex the distal interphalangeal joints of the index middle ring and little fingers and assists in flexion of the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpal phalangeal joints. A ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon would therefore make it impossible to flex the distal phalanx

Which of the following planes divides the body into medial and lateral segments? transverse sagittal frontal coronal

sagittal The sagittal plane runs vertically through the body and divides the body into right and left segments. Body parts that are closer to the midline of the body are termed "medial" and body parts that are further from the midline of the body are termed "lateral".

Congenital torticollis, also known as wry neck, is characterized by a unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The clinical presentation includes lateral cervical flexion to the __ __ as the contracture, rotation toward the __ __, and facial asymmetries.

same side opposite side

regarding neoplasms, which time of malignant tumor arises from the connective tissues? sarcoma carcinoma lymphoma leukemia

sarcoma

a ___ is considered the contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber

sarcomere

loss of muscle size and performace due to age is known as ____

sarcopenia

Which bone is most susceptible to necrosis following a fracture? it is supplied by the palmar branch of the radial artery and the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. If the scaphoid is fractured, the disrupted blood supply can significantly inhibit the ability of the bone to heal which can result in necrosis.

scaphoid

avascular necrosis is a common complication of a __ fracture

scaphoid

a similar condition to lupus is ___

scleraderma

A physical therapist assistant attempts to locate a wheelchair for a patient that is of average height and weight. The therapist identifies a wheelchair with the following dimensions: seat height = 20 inches, seat width = 18 inches, seat depth = 13 inches, back height = 16.5 inches. Which measurement would be the MOST problematic for the patient? 1.seat height 2.seat width 3.seat depth 4.back height

seat depth

Which of the following wheelchair measurements is obtained by measuring from the patients heal to the popliteal fold and then adding 2 incehs Seat depth Seat height Back height Seat width

seat height

for both the varus stress test and valgus stress test, the patient is __ with the elbow __ to __-__ degrees

seated flexed 20-30

wound dressings: alginates- soft, absorbent, nonwoven dressings derived from ___ and often used for wounds with __ to __ amounts of exudate. These react with wound exudate to form a viscous hydrophilic __ __ over the wound area. they are able to absorb up to __x their weight in drainage.

seaweed moderate large gel mass 20

which of the following injuries causes mod to severe pain with isometric contraction? third degree sprain third degree strain second degree sprain second degree strain

second degree strain Injuries including strains and sprains occur when excessive force is applied to muscle or tendon. Patients with second-degree strains typically experience moderate to significant pain when performing isometric contractions. This is in contrast to first-degree strains that cause minimal pain and third-degree strains which also caused minimal pain due to a complete severing of the muscle fibers

A physical therapist assistant reviews a patient's medical record prior to beginning a physical therapy session. The record indicates the patient was recently placed on amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant medication. The MOST common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants is: 1.sedation 2.dysarthria 3.seizures 4.blood pressure variability

sedation

A variety of antidepressant medications can cause ___ activity however this is not a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants

seizure

which condition is considered a contraindication for estim? hypertension malignant tumors bleeding disorders seizure disorder

seizure disorder

____ disease (i.e., calcaneal apophysitis) is a painful bone disorder that results from inflammation of the growth plate in the heel. The disease most commonly occurs during adolescence and rarely occurs once an individual reaches skeletal maturity. The pain is typically located on the posterior surface of the calcaneus. 3.Tarsal tunnel syndrome is a compression neuropathy where the tibial nerve is compressed as it travels through the tarsal tunnel which is located posterior to the medial malleolus. Pain is typically located in and around the ankle region and may extend into the toes. 4.Morton's neuroma is a benign neuroma most commonly affecting the third interdigital nerve between the the third and fourth metatarsal heads. The condition is often characterized by burning or cramping pain, tingling, and numbness. Symptoms are sometimes relieved by removing footwear.

sever's

There are four classes of congestive heart failure. Generally, patients with all stages of congestive heart failure demonstrates significant ventricular dysfunction, decreased cardiac output, and low functional capacities. Class IV is __ congestive heart failure in patients are unable to carry out any physical activity over 1.5 Mets without discomfort. Symptoms of fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or angina pain are typically present even when at rest

severe

An ankle-brachial index value of 0.35 indicates that the patient has __ __ __ __. A patient with severe Peripheral arterial disease would have pain both at __ and ___. There may also be Associated tissue necrosis secondary to poor perfusion to the lower extremities an ABI value of 0.55 indicates that the patient has __to __ Peripheral arterial disease. A patient with moderate to severe Peripheral arterial disease will have pain both with __ and ___ an ABI value of 0.75 indicates that the patient has __to__ Peripheral arterial disease. A patient with mild to moderate Peripheral arterial disease would likely only have symptoms with __ __. Some patients with mild Peripheral arterial disease are asymptomatic and ABI value of 1.10 is considered to be normal. This patient would not have Peripheral arterial disease and would not present with any claudication symptoms

severe peripheral arterial disease activity and rest moderate to severe activity and rest mild to moderate physical activity

hep B is caused by trasmission though __ of __, ___, or exposure to an infected person's ___, semen, or maternal-fetal approximately 10% of HBV progresses to __ because the body cannot fight off the virus treatment includes hep B immunoglobulin for the unvaccinated patient within 24 hours of exposure. the patient should then recieve the vaccine at __ and __ months

sharing needles intercourse blood chronic 1 6

spastic gait pattern stiff movement, toes seeming to catch and drag, legs held together, and hip and knee joints flexed. commonly seen in __ __

spastic paraplegia

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient diagnosed with chronic arterial disease. The patient exhibits cool skin, decreased sensitivity to temperature changes, and intermittent claudication with activity. The primary treatment goal is to increase the patient's ambulation distance. The MOST appropriate ambulation parameters to facilitate achievement of the goal are: 1.short duration, frequent intervals 2.short duration, infrequent intervals 3.long duration, frequent intervals 4.long duration, infrequent intervals

short duration, frequent intervals Treadmill and track walking are the most effective modes of exercise to reduce claudication. The initial workloads are set to elicit claudication symptoms within 3 to 5 minutes. This is followed by a period Of standing or sitting to allow symptoms to resolve. The exercise rest exercise pattern is repeated throughout the exercise session. Due to the short duration of each bout of exercise before the onset of symptoms, frequent exercise bouts are indicated

Proteins consist of long chains of amino acids. The contribution of amino acids to the production of ATP is minimal during__ __ exercise but increases during__ __

short term prolonged activity

A nasogastric tube is a plastic tube inserted through a nostril that extends into the stomach. The device is commonly used for __ __ __feeding, medication administration or to remove gas from the stomach.

short term liquid

visceral pain from the liver, diaphragm, or pericardium can refer to the ____ visceral pain from the gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, or small intestine can refer to the __ and __ regions. visceral pain from the colon, appendix, or pelic viscera can refer to the pelvis, low back, or sacrum.

shoulder midback scapular

APTA is teaching transfer training to a patient with a C7 complete spinal cord injury. Which type of transfer indicates the most independent type that this patient would be able to complete without assist? Dependent lift transfer sit pivot transfer assisted stand pivot transfer slide board transfer

sit pivot transfer The sit pivot transfer is used for patients with good sitting balance who can lift their buttocks clear of the support surface. The patient with a C7 spinal cord injury or below can be independent in this technique. The patient uses the head heads principal to complete the transfer

What is the quickest and most effective method of pressure relief in a wheelchair? sitting pushup weight shift power tilt wheelchair dismount

sitting pushup The sitting pushup quickly relieves pressure from both ischial tuberosities and allows capillary refill to occur. This is an appropriate and effective technique for an individual with sufficient triceps strength.

For a patient with upper extremity involvement after a stroke. Which secondary musculoskeletal condition is least likely? Impingement Adhesive capsullitis Shoulder subluxation A SLAP lesion

slap lesion A slap lesion is a tear of the superior labrum, anterior to posterior. A commonly occurs and athletes were repeated overhead motions or entry. Typically this is not occur to individuals status post-stroke Poor dynamic stabilizers can lead to impingement

a __ __ is for a patient that requires no postural support and has no neuromuscular deficits; not typically used for extended periods of time

sling back

___ twitch fibers are the first to contract upon initiation of movement

slow Slow-twitch fibers have a low activation threshold, meaning they are the first recruited when a muscle contracts. If they can't generate the amount of force necessary for the specific activity, the fast-twitch muscle fibers are engaged.

disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) these __ or __ the progression of rheumatic disease. they are used ___ during the disease process to slow the progression prior to widespread damage of the affected joints. they act to induce remission by modifying the pathology and inhibiting the immune response responsible for rheumatic disease indications: therapists should recongnize that many of the agents have a high __ __ ___ examples include __ and ___, ____

slow halt early rheumatic disease, preferably during early treatment incidence of toxicity rheumatrex Arava Humira (adalimumab)

Athetosis is a movement disorder that presents with __, ___ and writhing movements that are large and amplitude. athetoid movements is primarily seen in the face tongue trunk and extremities and is a common finding in several forms of __ ___. athetosis would not likely be responsible for the healthcare provider being struck in the face due to the slowness of movement

slow twisting cerebral palsy

In medicine, obligatory synergies occur when ____ appears, such as following a stroke. It manifests in abnormal and stereotypical patterns across multiple joints called obligatory synergies.[1] They are described as either a flexion synergy or an extension synergy and affect both the upper and lower extremity. This makes it hard for people to move through functional movements to perform ADLs.

spasticity

which step does not occur when measuring range of motion using a goni? stabilize distal segment make a clinical estimate of range of motion palpate the anatomical landmarks

stabilize the distal joint segment (stabilize proximal)

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient in a hospital setting with a pressure ulcer over the left ischial tuberosity. The patient's stage III pressure ulcer has healed over time and currently shows characteristics of a stage I pressure ulcer. What ulcer stage should be assigned to the wound? 1.stage I ulcer 2.modified stage I ulcer 3.stage III ulcer 4.modified stage III ulcer

stage III ulcer

Which document is intended to serve physical therapist assistants as a guide for ethical professional behavior and was put together by the American Physical Therapy Association? Code of ethics health insurance portability and accountability Act Board of director chairs guidelines for documentation standards of ethical conduct for the physical therapist assistant

standards of ethical conduct for the physical therapist assistant The standards of ethical contact for the physical therapist assistant was created by the American Physical Therapy Association and provides a framework by which physical therapist assistants should conduct themselves. It is comprised of ethical obligations and obligations of the profession. Standards include respect, altruism, sounds decisions, supervision, Integrity in relationships, reporting, exploitation, colleague impairment, clinical competence, lifelong learning, organizational and business practices, documentation interventions, and support Health needs

Which test is used to differentiate between restrictive and obstructive diseases? x-ray airway conductance stress test static lung volumes

static lung volumes Static lung volumes include total lung capacity, functional residual capacity, and residual volume. These measures are useful in differentiating restrictive and obstructive diseases as well as detecting hyperinflation.

What is being challenged when the therapist positions a patient in the sharpened Romberg Position? Dynamic standing balance Dynamic sitting balance static seated balance static standing balance

static standing balance

Which of the following therapeutic aquatic exercises would be easiest to perform in deeper water? walking side steps step ups marching

step ups Step ups in deeper water would be significantly easier because more of the body is submerged, thus decreasing the force of gravity. The remaining aquatic exercises would be significantly affected by drag forces acting on the moving body segments.

The walking (stepping) reflex is stimulated through supported upright positioning with the soles of the feet on a firm surface. The response is reciprocal flexion and extension of the lower extremities. This reflex is typically integrated by two months of age (watch youtube video) The positive support reflex is stimulated by weight that is placed on the balls of the feet when upright. The response is ____ of the lower extremities and trunk into ____. This reflex is typically integrated by two months of age which is considerably younger than the child's age. The Galant reflex is stimulated by touching the skin along the spine from the shoulder to the hip. The response is __ __ of the ___ to the side of the stimulus. This reflex is typically integrated by two months of age which is considerably younger than the child's age. The plantar grasp reflex is stimulated by pressure to the base of the ___. The response is toe ___. This reflex is typically integrated by nine months of age. The inability to stand with the feet flat on a surface causes impairments with balance reactions and weight shifting in standing which can interfere with ambulation.

stiffening extension lateral flexion trunk toes flexion

Colace is a __ __ that helps make bowel movements easier to pass and is used to treat or prevent constipation. A stool softener would be a very likely supplement given to a patient taking an opioid agent such as oxycodone

stool softener

Waddell's signs were developed to identify psychogenic, or nonorganic, manifestations of pain in patients that may have heightened emotional effects on their conditions. In order for these signs to be significantly correlated with disability, three of the five signs should be present, Waddell et al. in 1980.4 They have been also associated with detecting malingering in patients with complaints of lower back pain. A conscious and willful fainting or exaggeration of a disease or effect of an injury in order to obtain specific external gain. It is usually motivated by external incentives, such as receiving financial compensation, obtaining drugs, or avoiding work or other responsibilities. Which special test would not be beneficial in detecting malingering back pain? hoover burn waddel storks

stork test

tendons- __ at __ __ level of strain can be defined by: tendon rupture tendonitis, tenosynovitis, tendinosis are all from __ __ healing occurs __ __ than muscle due to __ __ blood supply comes from: 1) __ __ which supplies the proximal portion 2) __ __ which supplies the midportion (most difficult portion to heal) 3) ____ which supplies distal portion healing takes up to __ __

strain musculotendinous junction same grading scale used for ligament sprain repetitive microtrauma more slowly decreased vascularity muculotendinous junction synovial sheath periosteum 6 months

Which structure in the epidermis serves as a barrier against fluid, electrolyte, and chemical loss? basal cells Langerhans cells keratinocytes stratum corneum

stratum corneum The stratum corneum in the epidermis functions for protection from trauma and microbes, and serves as a barrier to prevent fluid, electrolyte, and chemical loss. The primary function of basal cells, Langerhans cells, and keratinocytes is for epidermal reproduction, immunity, and keratin synthesis respectively.

inspiratory muscle trainers Are handheld breathing training devices used primarily to increase the __and __ of muscles of inspiration. They are not used to prevent alveolar collapse after thoracic surgery

strength endurance

A 35-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis is referred to physical therapy for instruction in a home exercise program. Which general treatment objective would be the MOST beneficial for the patient? 1.strengthening of the rectus abdominis 2.strengthening of the internal and external obliques 3.strengthening of the quadratus lumborum 4.strengthening of the back extensors

strengthening of the back extensors Ankylosing Spondylitis is a form of systemic rheumatoid arthritis that results in inflammation of the axial skeleton with subsequent back pain. The condition is associated with an increase in thoracic kyphosis and loss of the lumbar curve. The patient often develops a forward stooped posture observed in standing

reflexes: although often called a DTR (deep tendon reflex) testing reflexes with a reflex hammer stimulates a quick stretch on a particular muscle, producing a __ __ the bicep reflex is used to test the integrity of __ the brachioradialis reflex is used to test the integrity of __ the tricep reflex is used to test integrity of __ the patellar reflex is used to test the integrity of __ the achilles reflex is used to test the integrity of __

stretch reflex C5 C6 C7 L4 S1

muscle injuries often caused by sudden __, rapid __ __, or quick changes in __ during activity grade 1- __ __ of a few __ __, minor __, __ tenderness grade II- __ injury, loss of ___, ___ pain grade III- __ injury, tear extends __ __, __ loss of __ and often __ __ healing take __-__ __ muscle is highly vascular and responds to injury with an acute, intense inflammatory response and is very conductive to healing

stretching eccentric loading direction mild tear muscle fibers swelling local moderate strength significant severe across muscle severe function requires surgery

When a minor lesion is tested using resisted muscle testing, the results typically produce a response classified as ___ and ____. This type of response would most commonly be associated with conditions such as a muscle strain or tendonitis.

strong painful

Intrathecal Administration is a parenteral form of medication administration that involves injection of a drug into a sheath, such as the __ __of the __ __. This form of administration is advantageous because it allows for the introduction of a drug into the central nervous system without having to pass through the __ __ __

subarachnoid space spinal meninges blood brain barrier

Which of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid and the vascular supply for the cerebral cortex? epidural space subdural space subarachnoid space parietal lobe

subarachnoid space The subarachnoid space is the anatomic space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. It contains the cerebrospinal fluid and the vascular supply for the cerebral cortex.

Hemiballismus is a movement disorder characterized by large amplitude, __, ___, flailing motions of the arm and leg on one side of the body. The condition is an impairment associated with a lesion of the basal ganglia.

sudden violent

The rule of nines is not appropriate to assess which type of burn? superficial-partial thickness superficial deep-partial thickness full thickness

superficial The "rule of nines" is commonly utilized to assess the percentage of the body surface affected by partial thickness and full thickness burns. Each area of the body has a specific percentage allocated to it in order to approximate the total percentage of the body surface affected. A patient should be referred to a burn center if they have sustained a partial thickness burn to greater than 10% of their total body surface area or if any percentage of the total body surface area has sustained a full thickness burn.

The femoral head slide __ on the acetabulum during hip adduction. Normal hip adduction range of motion is 0 to 30 degrees The femoral head slides ___ on the acetabulum during hip abduction. Normal hip abduction range of motion is 0 to 45 degrees the femoral head slides__ and ___ on the acetabulum during hip extension. Normal hip extension range of motion is 0 to 30 degrees the femoral head slides __ and ___ on the acetabulum during hip flexion. Normal hip flexion range of motion is 0 to 120 degrees

superiorly inferiorly anteriorly superiorly posteriory inferiorly

when performing speeds test, the patients forearm should be ___

supinated

A patient is evaluated in physical therapy 3 weeks following a lateral ankle reconstruction. Which of the following exercises for the involve lower extremity would be the most appropriate to include as part of this patient's home exercise program on the first session? Supine straight leg raise ankle inversion e-version with a resistance band standing calf raises upper extremity support single Leg stance with eyes open

supine SLR Lateral ankle reconstruction surgery is commonly performed secondary to a complete tear of the anterior talofibular ligament or calcaneofibular ligament or secondary to Chronic ankle instability. Precautions following surgery include limitations on weight-bearing status and restrictions on allowable range of motion

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient diagnosed with spinal stenosis. As part of the treatment program the patient lies prone on a treatment plinth with a hot pack draped over the low back. The MOST effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is: 1.check on the patient at least every ten minutes 2.supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot 3.instruct the patient to remove the hot pack if it becomes too hot 4.select an alternate superficial heating modality

supply the patient with a bell to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot

A 62-year-old female is restricted from physical therapy for two days following surgical insertion of a urinary catheter. This type of procedure is MOST commonly performed with a: 1.condom catheter 2.Foley catheter 3.suprapubic catheter 4.Swan-Ganz catheter

suprapubic catheter a foley catheter has a balloon attachment at one end. the balloon with is filled with air or sterile water must be deflated before the catheter can be removed a suprapubic catheter is surgically inserted directly into the patients bladder performed under general anesthesia

the __ ligaments resists flexion in the thoracic spine runs from __ to ___

supraspinous c7 to sacrum

when using estim, a PTA gradually increases the intensity of the current, then immediately decreases the intensity over a 60 second period. what type of modulation is the PTA using? ramped mode surge mode pulsed mode interrrupted mode

surge mode

suprapubic catheter indwelling urinary catheter that is __ __ directly into the patient's __. insertion is done under __ __

surgically inserted bladder general anesthesia

invasive hemodynamic monitoring: continueous monitoring of cardivascular status is performed by intra arterial catheters and IV lines that measure pressure, volume, and temp. a balloon catheter, also known as a __ __ catheter is placed in the pulmonary artery to obtain the pumonary artery wedge pressure and left atrial pressure

swan ganz

The __ __ __ reflex normally occurs at birth and is fully integrated by 6 months of age. It is stimulated by placing the infant in either prone or supine. When in the prone position, the body and extremities exhibit increased flexor tone and are held in flexion; in supine, the body and extremities exhibit increased extensor tone and are held in extension.

symmetrical tonic labyrinthine

A physical therapist assistant administers ultrasound over a female patient's anterior thigh. After one minute of treatment, the patient reports feeling a slight burning sensation under the soundhead. The MOST appropriate action is to: 1.explain to the patient that what she feels is not out of the ordinary when using ultrasound 2.temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling agent utilized 3.discontinue treatment and contact the referring physician 4.continue with treatment utilizing the current parameters

temporarily discontinue treatment and examine amount of coupling agen utlized A patient report of slight burning sensation under the sound head can be due to inadequate coupling, loosening of the crystal or hot spots due to a high beam non-uniformity ratio

An eleven-month-old child with cerebral palsy attempts to maintain a quadruped position. Which reflex would interfere with this activity if it was NOT integrated? 1.Galant reflex 2.symmetrical tonic neck reflex 3.plantar grasp reflex 4.positive support reflex

symmetrical tonic neck reflex The Galant reflex is stimulated by stroking lateral to the spine. The response is lateral side bending to the same side as the side of the stimulus. An infant would typically be able to maintain the Quadra ped position if this reflex was stimulated hand positioning is the stimulus for the symmetrical tonic neck reflex. When the head is Flagstaff the upper extremities flags and the lower extremities extend. When the head extend the upper extremities extend in the lower extremities Flex the reaction of the extremities would not allow the patient to maintain a Quadra ped position the plantar grasp reflex is stimulated by placing pressure on the ball of the foot generally and standing. The response is for the toes to curl or Flex. The Reflex has no impact on an infant's ability to maintain quadrupeds since the balls of the feet are not in contact with the floor the positive support reflex is stimulated by bearing weight through the feet. The responses for the lower extremities to extend their by allowing the infant to bear weight through the lower extremities. The Reflex will not impact on an infant's ability to maintain quadrupeds since they are not bearing weight through the feet

what are the three types of fibrous joints? also known as ___ ___ _____ ______

synarthroses suture (sagittal suture of the skull) union of two bones by a ligament or membrane immovable joint syndesmosis (such as tibia and fibula with interosseous membrane) bone connected to bone very little motion gomphosis (tooth in its socket) two bony surfaces connect as a peg in a hole

What is the correct sequence of joint type from least to most mobile? synarthrosis, diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis diarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, synarthrosis diarthrosis, synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

a cool down period helps to prevent ___ by slowing venous return

syncope

joint type in which bone are connected by dense fibrous membrane:

syndesmosis (such as the tibia and fibula and the interosseous membrane between them

The close packed position of the hip forces __ __ into the articular cartilage which nourishes the cartilage and helps to prevent the degradation commonly seen in ____. The close packed position of the hip is full extension and medial rotation.

synovial fluid osteoarthritis

what are the three types of juvenile RA?

systemic polyarticular oligoarticular

transdermal Transdermal Administration involves application of a drug directly to the skin. Unlike topical Administration the intent is that the drug will absorb through the skin and enter the __ ___. Transdermal Administration allows for a slow controlled release of the drug into the circulation over a long period of time. This form of administration often occurs with the use of patches such as___ though Iontopheresis and phonophoresis also use the transdermal route

systemic circulation fetanyl

A physical therapist assistant monitors a patient's vital signs while exercising in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program. The patient is status post myocardial infarction and has progressed without difficulty while involved in the program. Which of the following vital sign recordings would exceed the typical limits of a phase I program? 1.heart rate elevated 18 beats per minute above resting level 2.respiration rate of 18 breaths per minute 3.systolic blood pressure decreased by 25 mm Hg from resting level 4.diastolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg

systolic blood pressure decreased by 25 mm Hg from resting level A decrease in systolic pressure of 25 mm Hg exceeds the 10 mm Hg limit allowed during exercise in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program.

this abnormal gait pattern is characterized by high stepping and slapping of the foot on the ground Patients who have sustained an injury to the dorsal columns may have decreased proprioceptive input. In order to feel the foot, the patient may lift their limb high in order to hit the ground hard.

tabetic

Bradycardia refers to a sinus rhythm with a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute. Heart rate is typically significantly higher in a vertical position since the heart has to work against gravity. As a result, the patient would be more likely to exhibit ___

tachycardia

which intervention would be the highest priority when treating a premature infant in the neonatalintensive care unit? teach the parents about participating in infant care and handling promote trunk extension for easier handling teach the parents about basic monitoring devisces promote primitive reflexes

teach the parents about participating in infacnt care and handling

the ___ is a subdivision of the forebrain and is comprised of the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, basal ganglia, and amygdala

telencephalon

The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe, medial and inferior ___ lobe, Thalamus, and midbrain. With posterior cerebral artery syndrome, the patient can experience contralateral sensory and motor loss, HH, a visual agnosia, ocular motor nerve palsy, voluntary movement, Pusher syndrome, and thalamic pain syndrome. The anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial part of the ___ and ____ lobe, __ ___, and corpus callosum. With anterior cerebral artery syndrome, the patient can experience contralateral sensory and motor loss with ___ extremities affected more than ___ extremities. The patient can have mental impairment, urinary incontinence, apraxia, slow movement, and behavioral changes.

temporal frontal parietal basal ganglia lower upper

Wernicke's area in the __ lobe and primary ___ ___ and olfaction

temporal auditory processing

there are three classes of traumatic nerve injuries: neurapraxia is a type I traumatic nerve injury, and causes __ __ __ __ due to a nerve injury that typically resolves without intervention axonotmesis is a class II traumatic injury when injury to the nerve causes __ __ __ and ____ neurotmesis is a class III injury that includes cutting of the nerve with severence of all structures and complete loss of funciton. surgical intervention is required for re innervation to occur

temporary loss of function loss of function degeneration

antiarthritic glucocorticoid durgs have catabolic effects and can lead to the breakdown of __, ___ or ___ be cautions with __ __ and __ care should also be taken when applying orthotic devices to prevent skin breakdown

tendon bone skin excessive stretching strengthening

which of the following is a source of contractile source of motion restriction? bursa capsule ligament tendon

tendon not ligament because they are non contractile

A known adverse effect of fluoroquinolones is ___ ____and ____, which most commonly occurs in the Achilles tendon. Patients may be more susceptible to tendinopathy if they are older, have renal failure, are taking glucocorticoids or have a history of fluoroquinolone-induced tendinopathy.

tendon pain inflammation

What muscle would be strength tested in prone with the arm laying on the small of the back? teres major serratus anterior infraspinatus teres minor

teres major

shoulder lateral rotation (3)

teres minor infraspinatus posterior deltoid

A physical therapist assistant positions a patient in supine prior to performing a manual muscle test of the supinator. To isolate the supinator and minimize the action of the biceps, the physical therapist assistant should position the patient's elbow in: 1.30 degrees of elbow flexion 2.60 degrees of elbow flexion 3.90 degrees of elbow flexion 4.terminal elbow flexion

terminal elbow flexion A therapist can isolate one muscle from another muscle with a similar action by placing the DM precise muscle and a short position during the testing procedure. This finding is based on the length tension relationship which specifies that a muscle can generate the greatest tension at its resting length placing the biceps in a maximally shortened position significantly limits the muscles ability to function as a souvenir. Therapist should avoid maximum pressure in this position since the shortened position of the biceps can result in significant cramping The biceps is slightly lengthened in 60 degrees of elbow flexion however the muscle is able to generate a significant amount of force since the position is relatively close to the muscles resting length

the __ is a relay or processing station for the majority of info that goes into the cerebral cortex

thalamus

A physical therapist assistant performs autolytic debridement in an attempt to remove nonviable tissue from a stage IV pressure ulcer. Autolytic debridement removes necrotic tissue by using: 1.a sharp instrument 2.an externally applied force 3.the body's own mechanisms 4.a commercially prepared enzyme

the body's own mechanisms Autolytic debridement is typically performed using a moisture retentive dressing. The dressing maintains a moist wound environment which promote rehydration of viable tissue and allows the body's enzymes to digest necrotic tissue sharp debridement requires the use of scalpel scissors and forceps to selectively move non-viable tissue foreign materials or debris from a wound wound irrigation removes non-viable tissue from the wound bed using pressurized fluid which serves as an extreme externally applied force. Pulsatile lavage is an example of a specific wound irrigation technique autolytic debridement refers to using the body's own mechanism to remove non-viable tissue. Common methods of autolytic debridement include transparent films, hydrocolloid, hydrogels, and alginates. Enzymatic debridement requires the application of a commercially prepared enzyme to the surface of non-viable tissue. The applied enzyme attempts to degrade the non-viable tissue your gradual digestion

Ultrasound application should be avoided over which of the following areas? the anterior chest the medial thigh the axillary region the lateral neck

the lateral neck Ultrasound should not be applied over the lateral neck area since the carotid sinus is located in this region. Stimulation of the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus could disturb the normal pacing of the heart.

A physical therapist assistant applies a Semmes-Weinstein monofilament to the sole of a patient's foot. What monofilament description would indicate that the physical therapist assistant is applying the monofilament correctly during the testing procedure? 1.the monofilament should deform into a "C" shape 2.the monofilament should remain perpendicular to the surface area 3.the monofilament should deform into an "S" shape 4.the monofilament should experience maximal deformation

the monofilament shoudl deform into a C shape

The amount of force produced by a muscle at any point in time is directly related to: the number of myosin cross-bridge heads bound to actin filaments the length of the muscle belly the gender of the individual producing the force the age of the individual producing the force

the number of myosin cross bridge heads bound to actin filaments

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on gait training using bilateral axillary crutches. The right axillary crutch is modified with a platform attachment. What is the MOST likely reason for the modification? 1.the patient has a radial nerve injury 2.the patient has a proximal humeral fracture 3.the patient has impaired balance and coordination 4.the patient has a transhumeral amputation

the patient has a radial nerve injury A patient with a radial nerve injury would have significant weakness of the triceps muscle and be unable to extend the elbow. The plot for modification would be necessary since the patient will be unable to produce elbow extension and what it said need to bear weight through the elbow and forearm

A physical therapist assistant attempts to determine if a patient with known heart disease is an appropriate candidate for an exercise program. Which scenario would MOST likely exclude the patient from participating? 1.The patient has an ejection fraction of 45%. 2.The patient had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction two months ago. 3.The patient's electrocardiogram shows ST segment depression of one millimeter. 4.The patient has ventricular arrhythmias at rest.

the patient has ventricular arrhythmias at rest

A physical therapist assistant monitors and adult patients blood pressure using the brachial artery though they must use a pediatric blood pressure cuff since it is the only one available in the clinic. What effect would this have on the patient's blood pressure measurement? The reading will be higher than the actual measurements the reading will be lower than the actual measurement the reading will be accurate if the assistant deflate the cuff at 3 mm of mercury per second the reading will be accurate if the assistant deflates the cuff at 1 mm of mercury per second

the reading will be higher than the actual measurements The typical recommendation for choosing a blood pressure cuff for an adult is that the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should encircle 80% or more of the patient's arm circumference. Failure to choose an appropriately-sized blood pressure cuff can result in inaccuracies with the blood pressure measurement

When a concave surface is moving on a convex surface, the roll and slide occur in what direction?

the same direction

A patient with recurrent lateral ankle instability undergoes and Ankle reconstruction procedure. The surgeon decide that it will be necessary to reinforce the angle with a tendon graft. Which of the following factors would most likely have lead the surgeon to that decision? The patient's ankle joint has osteochondral defects the patient has limited inversion range of motion the patient is unable to perform a single leg calf raise the surgery is a revision of a previous reconstruction procedure

the surgery is a revision of a previous reconstruction procedure The Bronstrom Evans procedure is a variation of the bronston procedure for lateral ankle reconstruction that involves use of the peroneus brevis to serve as extra support to the lateral ankle. This procedure is indicated for patients with excessive inversion range of motion or in cases where an existing reconstruction of the ligaments is not sufficient

Underestimation of a blood pressure measurement is far less likely to occur then overestimation. While using an undersized blood pressure cuff May contribute to measurement errors such as the measurements will be too high, using an oversized cop is typically not an issue. When in doubt a larger size cup should be used

the typical recommendation is that the rate of deflation should be 2 to 3 millimeters of mercury per second when taking a blood pressure measurement. Though the deflation rate is correct, but the blood pressure cuff is still an appropriately-sized and would therefore result in an inaccurate blood pressure measurement

fibrocartilage (meniscus) tear can be __ or ___ healing: __-__% of the outer edges of menisci are ___ healing through inflammatory response is possible or injured region can be surgically sutured the majority of the inner portion is ___ healing is __ __ and damaged portion must be ___

traumatic degenerative 10-30% vascularized nonvascular not possible removed

Scoliosis the curvature is usually found in the __ or ___ vertebrae and can be associated with kyphosis or lordosis non-structural scoliosis is a __ curve that can change with repositioning. this type of nonprogressive curve is usually caused by poor posture or leg length discrepancy. structural scoliosis ____ be corrected with movement and can be caused by congenital, musculoskelatal, and neuromuscular reasons.

thoracic lumbar reversible cannot

costoclavicular syndrome test ( tests for __ __ syndrome and compression of the ___ artery) patient is sitting and asked to assume a __ __ while the therapist monitors the __ __ a positive sign is absence of radial pulse after assuming this position

thoracic outlet syndrome subclavian military posture radial pulse

Which arterial disease is marked by chronic, inflammatory vascular occlusive disease of small arteries and also veins, primarily affecting young adult males who smoke? Diabetic angiopathy Arteriosclerosis obliterans Reynaud's disease Thromboangiitis obliterans

thromboangiitis obliterans A chronic inflammatory vascular occlusive disease of small arteries and also veins. A commonly occurs in young adults who smoke. Patients have paresthesias, pain, cyanotic cold extremities, diminished temperature sensation, fatigue and risk of ulceration

digital prehension (three finger pinch) pulp-to-pulp contact between the __, ___ finger, and __ finger. this type of grip may be used when holding a ___

thumb index middle pencil

a ___ fracture is one that involves the anterior portion of the vertebral body

wedge

type I tonic or phasic? ___ fatiguability ___ capillary density ___ myoglobin content ____ fibers ___ blood supply large amounts of ____ examples:

tonic low high high small extensive mitochondria marathon, swimming

enzymatic debridement: ___ intervention using ___

topical chemicals

The sum of vital capacity plus residual volume is best termed: forced expiratory volume functional residual capacity inspiratory reserve volume total lung capacity

total lung capacity Total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration. Total lung capacity = residual volume + vital capacity.

__ __ __ is the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration; it is the sum of all lung volumes

total lung capacity = residual volume + vital capacity OR functional residual capacity + inspiratory capacity

stage II presents with continued non-pitting accumulation of protein rich edema. during stage II, the skin begins to __ and connective scar tissue and fibrosis are present. the edema is __ __ with elevation as it is in stage I.

toughen not reversible

a colles fracture is characterized by a ___ fracture of the ____ __ the mechanism of injury typically causes the ___ to act as a wedge resulting in a shear force and dorsal displacement of the ___

transverse distal radius lunate radius

A fracture that occurs at a right angle to the long axis of the bone and is usually produced by a shearing force is best termed a/an: oblique fracture transverse fracture spiral fracture comminuted fracture

transverse A transverse fracture occurs at a right angle to the long axis of the bone. Fractures heal in varying time frames based upon age, comorbidities, and fracture site. Normal average healing times range from 3 weeks for the phalanges to 12 weeks for the femur.

this ligament provides the greatest support for the atlantoaxial joint: It holds the ___ of the axis against the anterior arch of the ___. The ligament also has superior and inferior projections that are collectively known as the cruciform ligament of the atlas.

transverse ligament of the atlas dens atlas

muscles that perform upward rotation (2)

trap (upper and lower) serratus anterior

A physical therapist assistant reviews the surface anatomy of the hand in preparation for a patient status post wrist arthrodesis. Which bony structure does NOT articulate with the lunate? 1.trapezium 2.radius 3.capitate 4.scaphoid

trapezium

sequence the following amputation levels from least to most energy expenditure during ambulation transtibial traumatic amputation transfemoral vascular amputation transfemoral traumatic amputation transtibial vasuclar amputation

traumatic transtibial amputation vascular transtibial amputation traumatic transfemoral amputation vascular transfemoral amputation

cranial nerve V name: touch, pain: skin of face, mucous membranes of nose, sinuses, mouth, anterior tongue voluntary motor: muscles of ___ sensory or motor? to test: ___ ___, push down on chin to sepearate jaw

trigeminal mastication both clench teeth

Which of the following cranial nerves does not transmit taste information? facial trigeminal vagus glossopharyngeal

trigeminal Cranial nerves conveying autonomic afferent information for taste include the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves transmit information from the viscera.

Which of the following cranial nerves exits via the pons? trigeminal facial optic vagus

trigeminal The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) exits the brain via the pons and has three branches that provide sensory innervation to the face. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular.

When measuring wrist flexion using a goniometer, which carpal bone serves as the axis? pisiform capitate scaphoid triquetrum

triquetrum

down syndrome ( __ __ ) Occurs when there is an error in cell division either through nondisjunction 95%, translocation 4% or mosaicism 1% And the cell nucleus results in 47 chromosomes. Nondisjunction ( __ __ ) occurs when faulty cell division results in three specific chromosomes instead of to an extra chromosomes are then replicated for every cell. Translocation occurs when part of a chromosome __ __during cell division and attaches to another chromosome. The total number of chromosomes remains 46 but down syndrome exist Mosaicism Occurs right after ___ when nondisjunction occurs in the initial cell divisions. This results in a mixture of cells with 46 and 47 chromosomes

trisomy 21 most common breaks off fertilization

Atlantoaxial subluxation due to ligamentous laxity should be screened for in which of the following pathologies? trisomy 21 osteogenesis imperfecta myelomeningocele arthrogryposis

trisomy 21 Individuals with Down syndrome (trisomy 21) have increased ligamentous laxity, likely from a collagen defect. This can result in pes planus, patellar instability, scoliosis, and atlantoaxial instability.

diplopia may result due to damage to the __ nerve

trochlear

cranial nerve IV name: sensory or motor? the trochlear nerve innervates the __ __ muscle voluntary motor: superior oblique muscle of the eye ball to test, have the patient look __ and ___

trochlear motor superior oblique downward inward

T or F the coracobrachialis is typically tested in a sitting position

true

true or false complex regional pain syndrome was once known as reflex sympathetic dystrophy

true

Regarding evidence based practice, which is the correct definition for specificity? A measure of the tests ability to give a true positive that accurately reflects the proportion of those who truly have the condition being measured a measure of the tests ability to give a true negative that accurately reflects the proportion of those who truly have the condition being measured

true negative

When performing manual lymphatic drainage for an Upper Limb lymphedema, which is the correct technique? Clear __ __ first followed by __ __ __ and then __ __ __, with the direction of flow __ the truck

trunk quadrants proximal upper extremity distal upper extremity toward

the suprascapular nerve originates from the __ of the brachial plexus and innervates the __ and __ muslces. increased pain with __ __ and __ __ is characteristic of suprascapular nerve lesion, as well as presence of __ with __ __ to the opposite side

trunks supraspinatus infraspinatus shoulder flexion scapular abduction pain cervical rotation

When falling backward in a wheelchair, the patient should be taught to: use both hands to grasp their respective armrests maintain an upright trunk posture reach backwards with one arm to slow the fall tuck the chin toward the chest

tuck the chin toward the chest When falling backwards in a wheelchair, the patient should tuck their chin towards their chest and maintain a semiflexed trunk position to avoid hitting their head against the floor. One hand should grasp the opposite armrest to prevent the thighs from moving backwards during the fall, and the other hand should reach forward.

What is the most common cause of transfemoral amputations in individuals under 30 years of age? infection trauma tumors vascular disease

tumors

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient status post CVA. Which action would be MOST likely to facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia? 1.turn the head to the affected side 2.turn the head to the unaffected side 3.extend the lower extremities 4.flex the lower extremities

turn the head to the affected side Patients status post CVA are likely to exhibit abnormal tonic reflexes. Eliciting the reflexes will produce sustained posturing and abnormal movement patterns.

Scar massage is typically performed __ a day for __-__ minutes often with vitamin E in fused lotion. Vitamin E is an antioxidant in cell membranes and can help build collagen. Scar massage should not occur until there is adequate healing for example the scar is fully closed which often takes a minimum of two weeks

twice 10-15 minutes

Diastasis recti is a separation of the rectus abdominis muscle along the Linea Alba that can occur during pregnancy. Testing for diastasis recti a should be performed on all pregnant women prior to prescribing exercises that require the use of the abdominal. Biomechanical and hormonal changes may cause the separation. It is diagnosed if there is a separation greater than the width of __ __ when the woman lifts her head and shoulders off the plant. Focused abdominal activities and rotational exercises should be avoided until healing has reduced the separation

two fingers

How many inches should be added to the widest aspect of the user's buttocks when determining the seat width of a wheelchair? two inches three inches four inches five inches

two inches An additional 1.5-2.0 inches provides space for bulky clothing, orthoses or clearance of the trochanters from the armrest side panels. The average wheelchair width is 18 inches.

When using therapeutic ultrasound, what is the difference in size of the total treatment area compared to the effective radiating area of the transducer? two times smaller four times smaller two times larger four times larger

two times larger The effective radiating area is the measure of the actual cross-sectional area of the ultrasound beam as it exits the metal end plate of the transducer. As a general rule, the total treatment area should be twice as large as the effective radiating area of the transducer.

anaerobic white phasic fast twitch fast glycolytic what type of muscle fiber is this?

type II

Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs due to compression, injury or irritation of the __ nerve at the ___. Complaints of pain, paresthesia, and muscle weakness are typical in the ulnar nerve distribution (e.g., 4th and 5th digits). Symptoms are usually exacerbated by activities involving prolonged or repetitive __ __. Tinel's sign may be present at the elbow.

ulnar elbow elbow flexion

Identified to therapeutic agents that do not transfer heat through conduction Paraffin cold pack ultrasound Vapocoolant spray hot pack

ultrasound vapocoolant spray

subcutaneous Administration is a parenteral form of medication administration that involves injection of a drug directly __ the __ into the subcutaneous __ and ___ ___. This form of administration can be useful when a __-__ a medication into the system circulation is required such as __

under skin fat connective tissue slow release insulin

a positive test for the compression test of the SI joint would be ___ __ in the __ __

unilateral pain posterior pelvis

controlled mobility is the ability to move within a __ __ position or rotate around a long axis. an activity such as weight bearing through modified plantagrade with trunk rotation is an example of controlled mobility. intervention may include weight shifting in weight bearing postures with trunk rotation and the use of exercises

weight bearing

What is the sequence of progression from beginner to advanced for an individual sitting on a ball performing voluntary movements of the arms or legs? bilateral, reciprocal limb movements, unilateral reciprocal limb movements, unilateral, bilateral unilateral, reciprocal limb movements, bilateral unilateral, bilateral, reciprocal limb movements

unilateral, bilateral, reciprocal limb movements The appropriate sequence of progression is unilateral, bilateral, and reciprocal limb movements. When ready to advance, a therapist can add resistance using elastic bands, a weighted ball, or cuff weights on the ankles or wrists.

external fixation devices surgical procedure where holes are drilled into __ areas of bone ___ the fracture. fracture is set to __ __ __ using specialized wires, pins, bolts, and screws. an external frame is used to maintain the bony fragments in the desired alignment. external fixation enhances ___ and allows for __ __ while maintaining the desired alignment.

uninjured surrounding desired anatomical configuration stability earlier mobility

The presence of ___ arrhythmias is an absolute contraindication for the use of electrotherapy. However __ __ __ are a relatively common and generally benign arrhythmia that would not be considered an unstable arrhythmia. They may occur with a normal heart due to caffeine stress smoking or alcohol with any type of heart disease

unstable premature atrial contractions

A PTA is working with a patient that has class IV CHF. What is the maximal METS for physical activity for this patient? Up to 1.5 METS Up to 4.5 METS Up to 6.5 METS Up to 3 METS

up to 1.5 METS

The physical therapist assistant is working with a patient that has class to congestive heart failure. What is the maximal METS for physical activity for this patient? Up to 1.5 Mets up to 4.5 Mets up to 6.5 Mets up to 3 METS

up to 4.5 METS

A diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg is considered the __ __for exercise in phase I cardiac rehabilitation. A diastolic pressure less than __ mm Hg is acceptable.

upper limit 110

____ incontinence occurs when the bladder begins Contracting and urine is leaked after the sensation of bladder fullness is perceived. _____ incontinence is the sudden release of urine and can be due to an increase in intra abdominal pressure and can also be due to weakness and laxity of the pelvic floor musculature and sphincter weakness _____ incontinence occurs when urinary leakage is due to an inability or unwillingness to toilet

urge stress functional

A 52-year-old male being treated for low back pain indicates that he recently was diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which symptom is MOST commonly associated with this condition? 1.epigastric pain 2.painful urination 3.painful ejaculation 4.urge to urinate frequently

urge to urinate frequenctly Benign prostatic hyperplasia is more commonly associated with lower abdominal lowbacca thigh pain not epigastric pain though a patient with BPH may experience urinary problems painful urination is not typically one of the symptoms. Painful urination is more likely with conditions such as prostatitis though a patient with BPH makes. Sexual dysfunction such as difficulty obtaining an erection, painful ejaculation is not typically one of the symptoms. Painful ejaculation is more likely with conditions such as prostatitis patients with BPH typically have issues passing urine due to the enlargement of the prostate and its position next to the urethra. Symptoms include hesitancy of urination small amounts of urine when voiding dribbling at the end of urination urge to urinate frequently and nocturia

A physical therapist assistant teaches a patient with a recent transtibial amputation to wrap his residual limb to promote shrinking and shaping. The physical therapist assistant should instruct the patient to: 1.keep the limb wrapped only during the day time; leave it exposed to air at night 2.use two six-inch ace wraps when wrapping the limb 3.use a figure-eight pattern when wrapping, avoiding circumferential wraps 4.apply more pressure proximally and less distally

use a figure eight pattern when wrapping, avoiding circumferential wraps

A patient is referred to physical therapy for fall prevention training. The physical therapist assistant determines that the patient has difficulty adapting their vision from low lighting to bright environments. What home modification intervention would be the MOST appropriate based on this information? 1.use unfiltered direct lighting 2.replace bathroom light bulbs with red bulbs 3.use diffuse lighting 4.use only dim lighting

use diffuse lighting Diffuse filtered lighting decreases sensitivity to glare and reduces the home adaptations that an individual needs to make when transitioning between us. It is recommended to use blinds and lamp shades to help filter light in the home

A patient with Alzheimer's disease residing in an assisted living facility exhibits son Down syndrome. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate to diminish the severity of sundowning symptoms? use of increased Lighting in the early evening encourage naps during daytime hours decrease general activity level reduce structure of patients daily routine

use of increased lighting in the early evening Sundowning is a term used to describe disorientation, agitation or general worsening of mental symptoms that occur specifically at dusk or Nightfall. Sundowning is extremely common among individuals with dementia. It is thought to be associated with impaired circadian rhythm, environmental factors, stress, and impaired cognition

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with a fractured left hip. The patient is weight bearing as tolerated and uses a large base quad cane for gait activities. Correct use of the quad cane would include: 1.using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the patient 2.using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient 3.using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the patient 4.using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the patient

using the quad cane on the right with the longer leg positioned away from the patient

autonomic innervation of the abdominal viscera is innervated by the ___ nerve

vagus

cranial nerve X name: touch, pain: pharynx, larynx, bronchi taste: tongue, epiglottis voluntary motor: muscles of the palate, pharynx, and larynx autonomic: thoracic and abdominal viscera sensory or motor? to test: same as glossopharyngeal saying _____

vagus both ahhhhh

damage to the __ and __ nerve would result in impaired swallowing

vagus glossopharyngeal

in order to comprehensively evaluate the gag reflex, which two cranial nerves should be examined? trigeminal vagus facial glossopharyngeal

vagus glossopharyngeal

Which of the following is not an anticipated physiological effect of aquatic physical therapy? increased core temperature decreased abnormal tone pain relief vasoconstriction

vasoconstriction The physiological effects of exercise in water are similar to those experienced with exercise on dry land. The blood supply to the working muscles is increased during aquatic therapy as a result of vasodilation, not vasoconstriction.

Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) alpha 1 adrenergic agonist commonly used to relieve cold sx's. this type of adrenergic agonist is a systemic ___ that may increase __ __ by increasing peripheral vascular resistance

vasoconstrictor blood pressure

antihypertensive agents at a increased risk for orthostatic hypotension interventions that cause ___ such as whirlpool therapy should be avoided in patients who are taking vasodilating drugs.

vasodilation

A swan Ganz catheter is a soft flexible catheter that is inserted through a __ and eventually into the __ __. The device is used to provide continuous measurements of pulmonary artery ___. Patients must attempt to avoid activities that increase pressure on the catheter insertion site

vein pulmonary artery pressure

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis? duplex ultrasonography venography magnetic resonance imaging angiogram

venography Venography is the gold standard to confirm deep vein thrombosis (DVT), however, it is an invasive procedure and may cause pain, allergic reactions to contrast medium, or even deep vein thrombosis. As a result, other diagnostic tests such as duplex ultrasonography are more commonly used, however, venography remains the gold standard.

sublingual Administration is an integral form of medication administration that involves passage of a drug through the sublingual mucosa under the tongue or buccal mucosa between the cheek and gums. After being absorbed the drug travels from the __ __ and directly to the __, where it enters the systemic circulation. Sublingual Administration allows for __ introduction of a drug in cases of __ __ such as angina and allows drugs to __ the ___ so they are not overly metabolize before reaching their target tissue

venous circulation heart faster bypass liver

Signs of ___ _____ include minimal to moderate steady aching pain in the lower leg. There is muscle compartment tenderness and venous dilation or varicosity is present. Patients have dark cyanotic thickened skin and it may lead to static dermatitis

venous insufficiency

flaking skin on the legs with brownish discooration is characteristic of __ __. arterial insufficincy is characterized as shiny, smooth, dry skin on the legs or feet

venous insufficiency

Information traveling from the spinal cord to the periphery exits the spinal cord from the: ventral ramus lateral column ventral root anterior column

ventral root Efferent information traveling to the periphery exits the spinal cord along the ventral root. Efferent information is sent to muscle fibers for motor functions and to glands for autonomic functions.

Which of the following would be classified as a calcium channel blocker agent? Propranolol Verapamil Digoxin Lipitor

verapamil Verapamil is classified as a calcium channel blocker agent. Other calcium channel blocker agents include amlodipine, nifedipine, and diltiazem. Side effects include dizziness, headache, hypotension, and peripheral edema.

mucolytic agents Decrease the ____ of mucus secretions by altering their composition and consistency, making them easier to expectorate. They are administered by a nebulizer Indications include viscous mucus secretions due to pneumonia, and vizima, chronic bronchitis, and cystic fibrosis Therapists can exploit the effects of mucolytic Agents by performing Airway clearance interventions within 1 hour after Drug Administration.Mucolytic agents Hypotension

viscosity

Which pulmonary function test value refers to the volume change that occurs between maximal inspiration and maximal expiration? tidal volume vital capacity minute volume ventilation functional residual capacity

vital capacity The volume change that occurs between maximal inspiration and maximal expiration is known as vital capacity. Stated differently, vital capacity is the maximum volume of gas that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation.

A physical therapist assistant prepares to complete a manual muscle test of the opponens pollicis. Where should the assistant apply pressure for providing resistance when completing the muscle test? Volar surface of the distal end of the first metacarpal dorsal surface of the proximal Phalanx of the first digit volar surface of the distal Phalanx of the first digit volar surface of the trapezium and trapezoid

volar surface of the distal end of the first metacarpal

A patient presents with impaired plantar flexion range of motion and weakness in the plantar flexor muscle Group. Which task would be the most difficult? Walking over even surface walking down a ramp ascending stairs descending stairs

walking down a ramp With limited plantar flexion range of motion and weakness in the gastrocnemius Soleus, walking down a decline will be difficult. When walking down a ramp plantar flexion range is needed for the person to achieve foot flat position. Additionally the plantar flexor muscle group is activated to hold back the tibia

A patient presents with impaired dorsiflexion range of motion and weakness in the anterior tibialis muscle. Which task will be the most difficult? Walking down a ramp Walking up a ramp Descending stairs Walking over even surface

walking up a ramp With limited dorsiflexion range of motion and weakness in the anterior tibialis, walking up an incline will be difficult. Walking up a ramp require sufficient dorsiflexion range of motion and strength in the anterior tibialis. The remaining answers are incorrect. When walking down a ramp plantar flexion range is needed for the person to achieve but flat position. Additionally the plantar flexor muscle group is activated to hold back the tibia. The ascending stairs relies more on proper sequencing and strength of the hip and knee. Walking over even Services would be the easiest of these tasks

A physical therapist assistant concludes that a patient exhibits dysmetria after performing a number of specific tests. Which test would be least helpful to confirm the assistance conclusion? Drawing a circle or Figure 8 pointing and past pointing placing the feet on markers while walking walking with alterations in speed

walking with alterations in speed

festinating gait: a gait pattern where a patient __ __ __ as though pushed. it starts slowly, increases, and may continue until the patients grasps and object in order to stop

walks on toes

Which of the following food or beverages is most appropriate for a patient with urinary incontinence? Water Coffee Chocolate grapefruit

water Controlling the intake of food and beverages that may contribute to incontinence can help in the successful management of urinary incontinence. Individuals should avoid citrus fruit or juices, caffeine, and chocolate. Water is appropriate to drink. The individual should monitor when he or she is drinking water, and avoid right before bed

The two most effective and commonly used ultrasound coupling mediums are: water and air water and gel gel and air gel and mineral oils

water and gel Because sound waves emitted from an ultrasound transducer do not travel well through air, a coupling medium is necessary. Water and gel are both able to conduct sound waves, while air and mineral oils absorb or reflect sound wave transmission.

In regards to wound assessment, what are the characteristics of wound exudate described as serous? Containing blood Containing eschar Watery serum Containing pus

watery serum

During resisted testing, a complete grade 3 rupture of a muscle or tendon would most likely be classified as: strong and painful weak and painless weak and painful strong and painless

weak and painless A grade 3 rupture of a muscle or tendon will present with an obvious deformity with no joint movement or pain upon muscle contraction. This type of injury typically requires surgical repair.

a PTA is treting a patient for left knee OA. the patient recently received a cortisone injection into the knee. what is an adverse side effect of injection of corticosteroids into a joint space? weakending of the tendon, muscle, and bone prolonged bleeding lethargy GI bleed

weakening of the tendon, muscle, and bone.

a PTA is treating a patient for left knee OA. the patient recently recieved a cortisone injection into the knee. what is an adverse side effect of injection of corticosteroids inot a joint space? GI irritation GI bleed weakening of the tendon, muscle, or bone lethargy

weakening of the tendon, muscle, or bone may occur with use of corticosteroids, especially when injected inot a joint. corticosteroids are prescribed to reduce the inflammatory process, which is why the medication is injected into an arthritic joint GI irritation and bleeding are common side effects of NSAIDS''adverse side effects of muscle relaxants include drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, and decreased levels of alertness

A physical therapist assistant completes a developmental assessment on a two-month-old infant. As part of the assessment the physical therapist assistant plans to assess the positive support reflex. The MOST appropriate stimulus for the reflex is: 1.weight placed on the balls of the feet in standing 2.weight placed on the heels of the feet in standing 3.weight placed on the balls of the feet in supine 4.weight placed on the heels of the feet in supine

weight placed on the balls of the feet in standing

a reclining frame and bakcward tilt in space frame are beneficial for patients who are unable to perform __ __

weight shifts

Biofeedback uses pressure recordings to reinforce active contractions and relax the bladder. Progressive strengthening uses __ __ __ for home exercises to increase the strength of the pubococcygeus muscles. Behavioral training includes record-keeping of voiding and education for lifestyle changes to avoid valsalva maneuver and heavy resistance exercises

weighted vaginal cones

A physical therapist assistant consults with a teacher regarding a child with autism who has impairments in sensory processing. Which piece of equipment would be the MOST useful to address the child's dyspraxia? 1.swing 2.weighted vest 3.sit and spin 4.rocking chair

weighted vest

an ulcer with __ ___ lesions is typical of an arterial ulcer

well demarcated

Which method of heat transfer would be considered a form of convection? hot pack diathermy ultrasound whirlpool

whirlpool Whirlpools transfer heat through convection. Convection refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in a constant motion across the body.

A physical therapist assistant Reese a patient who has lateral epicondylitis. Based on this diagnosis the assistant should expect the patient to experience pain with muscle testing of which of the following motions? Wrist extension and forearm supination wrist extension in forearm pronation Wrist flexion in forearm supination wrist flexion and forearm pronation

wrist extension and forearm supination Wrist extension and forearm supination wood be the most painful because the supinator also originate on the lateral epicondyle with the common extensor tendon

A physical therapist assistant has treated a 38-year-old male three times in physical therapy. On each occasion the patient has returned to physical therapy without an understanding of the exercises included in his home exercise program. When questioned, the patient indicates that he did not fully understand the prescribed exercises and as a result forgot the instructions. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to: 1.write the program on paper, have the patient demonstrate each exercise, and allow him to teach the program to his wife 2.write the program out for the patient with detailed instructions and diagrams 3.provide the patient with a written description of the program and review the rationale behind each exercise 4.discontinue the home exercise program since the patient will likely continue to be noncompliant

write the program on paper, have the patient demonstrate each exercise, and allow him to teach the program to his wife In general, normal adult learners will remember 30% of the information observed, 70% of the information discussed, and 90% of the information they teach to others.