Gleim Chapter 4 Pt. 3
101. While experiencing a hangover, a pilot A. will have impaired motor and mental responses. B. is no longer under the influence of alcohol. C. may experience discomfort, but no impairment.
A
110. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A. taxi, takeoffs, and landings. B. all flight conditions. C. flight in turbulent air.
A
123. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 200 knots. B. 250 knots. C. 288 knots.
B
118. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? A. The airplane pilot should give way to the left. B. The glider pilot should give way to the right. C. Both pilots should give way to the right.
C
127. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? A. An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. B. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. C. An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
C
130. According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing? A. In congested areas, you must maintain 500 feet over obstacles, and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. B. In uncongested areas, 1,000 feet over any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2.000 feet. C. An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.
C
136. As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? A. When operating in Class A airspace at night. B. If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VR conditions. C. In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
C
139. As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when A. flying in the outer ring of Class C airspace. B. operating under VFR in Class B airspace. C. there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action.
C
140. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? A. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. B. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. C. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C
142. Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet. A. 4,500 feet. B. 5.000 feet. C. 5,500 feet.
C
143. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°? A. Even thousand. B. Even thousand plus 500 feet. C. Odd thousand plus 500 feet.
C
147. In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? A. Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual. B. Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms. C. Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
C
149. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? A. Any time. B. At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour. C. During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
C
122. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A. 180 knots. B. 200 knots. C. 250 knots.
B
119. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? A. The faster aircraft shall give way. B. The aircraft on the left shall give way. C. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
B
120. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A. Airship. B. Aircraft towing other aircraft. l C. Gyroplane.
B
112. You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should A. explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing. B. allow him to use his seat belt for the entire trip without the shoulder harness. C. allow him to use his seat belt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder harness while en route.
A
114. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? A. The airship. B. The airplane. C. Each pilot should alter course to the right.
A
116. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A. Glider. B. Airship. C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
A
124. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A. 200 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 250 knots.
A
125. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2.500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A. 200 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 250 knots.
A
126. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? A. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
A
128. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? A. 500 feet. B. 700 feet. C. 1.000 feet.
A
131. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting? A. The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation. B. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport. C. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
A
134. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? A. Within 48 hours if requested by ATC. B. Immediately. C. Within 7 days.
A
91.105 Flight Crewmembers at Stations 107. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during A. takeoffs and landings. B. all flight conditions. C. flight in turbulent air.
A
121. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? A. The motorboat. B. The seaplane. C. Both should alter course to the right.
B
104. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. B. Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. C. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B
109. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A. The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight. B. The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. C. The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.
B
111. Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? A. Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings. B. Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. C. Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
B
117. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? A. A balloon. B. An aircraft in distress. C. An aircraft on final approach to land.
B
129. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? A. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B. An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
B
132. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? A. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level. B. The elevation of the departure area. C. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
B
133. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level? A. 14.500 feet MSL. B. 18,000 feet MSL. C. 24,000 feet MSL.
B
135. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may A. deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. B. deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency. C. not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.
B
137. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is A. when the clearance states, "at pilot's discretion. B. an emergency. C. if the clearance contains a restriction.
B
138. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? A. Take no special action since you are pilot in command. B. File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested. C. File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.
B
141. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? A. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. B. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. C. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B
144. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°? A. 4,000 feet. B. 4,500 feet. C. 5,000 feet.
B
145. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a A magnetic heading of O° through 179°. B. magnetic course of O° through 179°. C. true course of O° through 179°.
B
146. According to 14 CFR Part 91, what is the appropriate VR cruising altitude, when above 3,000 ft. AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 090°? A. 4,500 ft. B. 5,500 ft. C. 5,000 ft.
B
148. When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? A. After any inadvertent activation of the ELT. B. When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. C. When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
B
150. When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? A. Every 24 months. B. When 50 percent of their useful life expires. C. At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
B
102. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include A. the designation of an alternate airport. B. a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use. C. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
C
103. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A. review traffic control light signal procedures. B. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). C. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
C
105. For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must A. file a VFR flight plan with the nearest flight service. B. obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code. C. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use.
C
106. You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must A. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C. obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight.
C
108. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? A. Safety belts during takeoff and landing: shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. B. Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route. C. Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
C
113. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight A. over a densely populated area. B. in Class D airspace under special VFR. C. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
C
115. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A. that has the other to its right. B. that is the least maneuverable. C. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
C