GST 2021-2022
What does the TME emulate and replicate
Capability to simulate RF MSL operations (HF SH D-119) The TRAIN mode enables a training mode Training Mission Emulator (TME) loaded in the missile launcher that provides the capability of simulating RF missile operations.-10 4-162
1. E. Which component in the Area Weapon System performs the functions of turret cueing control and serves as a MUX remote terminal under Mission Processor control?
GSC D-36
1. Define what occurs in each Gunnery Table
GT-I d. a. Team Live fire Day GT-II j b. Aircrew practice table GT-III g c. Platoon Live Fire Night GT-IV k d. Initial USAACE Qualification GT- V b e. Aircrew Qualification GT- VI e f. Team Live fire Night GT-VII l g. Gunnery Conduct of Fire Training and Eval G-COFT&E GT-VIII a h. Platoon Live Fire Day GT-IX f i. Refresher Training or RL Progression GT-X j j. Platoon Simulation GT-XI h k.Aircrew Training Day or night. GT-XII c l. Team Simulation
What causes backscatter?
Generally, poor target reflectivity, obscurants, or extended designation ranges can contribute to backscatter. If backscatter lock on occurs, the seeker LOS will diverge from the designator LOS. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-37)
What three things will cause the LOS reticle on flight symbology to flash?
LOS is invalid/selected NVS is at its limit/when the gun is the selected weapon and the gun system has failed and is not following the crewmembers head. (-10 p 4-32)
vWhat must the crew do to use the Radar Frequency Interferometer (RFI) if the FCR fails or is not powered?
MMA mechanical pinned D-147__________
Weapon performance and safety inhibits are controlled by the __________________.
MP (AWS SH D 34)
The SAL LOBL missile constraints box is driven by the _______________.
MSL SKR (HF SH D 22)
On the COORD page the _______ VAB's are used to make a waypoint, control measure or target threat an acquisition source?
L1-L6 (-10 3-148)
Which component of the M299 launcher contains the Training Missile Emulator (TME) which replicates RF missile operation
LEA D-15
What will cause the LINK to turn off / de-link?
LINK mode is toggled off via a reselection of the LINK. Change your selected Sight. Change your Acquisition Source selection. NVS mode switch is placed to NORM or FIXED with TADS as the selected Sensor.D-103
The _______ __________ button is used to maintain the AGM-114R missile in a LOAL flight trajectory.
LOBL INHIBIT D-23
SAL LOAL DIR mode the missile constraints box is being driven by the _____________.
LOS (HF SH D 22)
1. What message will display when the actioning crewmember's selected sight is Fire Control Radar (FCR), and there is no Next-To-Shoot (NTS) target?
LOS Invalid D-47
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical missile icons?
N/A (HF SH D-19)
When a M36 training missile is detected on the launcher all live missiles on board the aircraft display _____ in the missile icon.
N/A D-9
Will FCR targets detected within an active NFZ be prioritized?
NO (FCR SH D 72)
Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger's second detent?
NO (HF SH D-53)
1. You are in the CPG crewstation, and you action the GUN; will the checkerboard pattern be applied to the pilot WPN page ARM/SAFE status window?
NO D-42
1. 2D. Can you confirm your selected sight on the Fire Control Radar (FCR) page?
NO D-58
Can the flight crew override the "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the Sight Status field of the High Action Display?
NO SAFETY INHBIT (-10 p 4-43)
Can the flight crew override the "ACCEL LIMIT" message in the Weapon Inhibit Status field of the High Action Display?
NO The vertical acceleration is less than .5 G's and may cause the main rotor blades to obstruct the trajectory of the rockets. Safety inhibit (-10 p 4-50)
If a No Fire Zone (NF) and Priority Fire Zone (PF) overlap, which takes priority for target prioritization?
NOFIRE D-72________________________________________________
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management, this prevents?
Overtemp of missile (HF SH D-84)
What causes a rocket to seek into a crosswind or impact past the target when fired during an accelerating climb?
Relative wind Effect (3-04.3 page C 45 p C-11)
What message would the CPG expect to see in the HAD Sight Status field if the SAL priority missile channel does not match LRFD code?
Remote (-10 p4-43)
___________ is a mode of fire that employs multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes
Ripple fire (HF SH D 81)
Who can send an RF Handover (RFHO)?
Sight select FCR D-114______________
Name the three RF missile modes
Standby, prelaunch, post launch __D-90
There are three Priority Schemes resident within the REU: A, B, and C. If B is selected, which targets are being emphasized?
Stationary D-48_________________________________________
2nd TARGET INHIBIT selection is used for engagements against ___________ targets only.
Stationary D-86
The FCR Scan Wiper Symbol will be ______ when the FCR is conducting a single scan-burst. For a continuous scan it will be ______.
White, green (-10 p 4-69)
What ground speed will cause the TPM coverage to change from Narrow to Wide scan width?
below 45 knots D-132
1. A HF-II which does receive an R09 targeting message from the firing aircraft is considered an
"Enhanced HF-II". HF SUPP P4
1. A HF-II which does not receive an R09 targeting message from the firing aircraft is considered a
"Legacy HF-II". HF SUPP P4
What is the depression limit of the gun turret assembly while on the ground with the GND ORIDE button selected ON?
-6.45 (AWS SH D 20)
At approximately _________ forward speed (indicated), the rotor disk is pitched forward so that the influence vector is just aft of the rocket launcher front bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero
. 33 (GM C-21 para C95)
When receiving an RFHO, the aircraft must accept the RFHO within____6 Min_. If the Crew has not accepted the RFHO message within the allotted time. The crew will observe the DATA INVALID message in the Weapon status inhibit section.
. D-118 SH as outside the navigational performance Parameters for weapons engagement (-10 4-51)
Techniques for applying burst on target include ____________, ____________________, and ______ methods
. Recognition (KY windage), MIL rad, Laser (3-04.3 para 12-54)
When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TGT XX message will be displayed where and for how long?
. Weapons inhibit, 4seconds (MTADS SH D 137)
1. 5E. When the weapons trigger is activated the laser pointer is deactivated and gunfire could be delayed as much as __________ seconds.
.75 seconds D-80
The M257 was designed for battlefield illumination. The candle descends 15 feet per second and provides _________ candlepower for_______________. Preset to deploy approximately ________________ down range. It can illuminate approximately one square kilometer.
one million, Minimum of 100 seconds, 3000 meters (Rocket Supplement A-27)(ARS SH)
The PIUs perform ______________________.
rocket fuzing and squib ignition (ARS SH pg D-10)
Is there a "timeout" for sending an RFHO?
six minutes D-117
1. What is the capacity of the ammunition storage magazine? ANSWER:
max 100 rounds D-6_______________
How many obstacle symbols can be displayed in the Terrain Profile Mode?
max 64 D-138
1. The TOTAL ROCKETS status window is displayed when there is a difference between the number of rockets available for firing and ________.
of rockets D-18
The Internal Auxiliary Fuel System (IAFS) incorporates a 100 gallon fuel tank and an ammunition storage magazine capable of holding approximately __________ rounds and __________ in the AHS allowing for approximately 300 round capability
242 58 D-6
The AGM-114R's minimum arming distance is __________ meters.
375 D-11
At a range of __________ to ___________ meters, targets are too close for a LOAL engagement and must be a LOBL engagement or a "NO ACQUIRE" message will be displayed.
500 to 1000 D-99
Gun dynamic harmonization mode is available to the CPG to improve the accuracy of the 30mm, the CPG places TADS (NFOV) on a target between __________ to __________ meters
500 to 1500 D-64
The minimum engagement range to fire an AGM-114K or AGM-114R missile employing the LOBL trajectory is _______ meters with a maximum range of _______ km
500m and 1200m
CTRLM are numbered _____ to _____ and _________.
51-99 100-950 (-10 p 3-111
If a selected rocket fails to launch, the MP will not allow the operator to fire the selected rocket again until the rocket system is re-inventoried ___________________.
on the squat switch (ARS SH D-21)
1. What are the Azimuth and Elevation limits of the gun turret assembly while on the ground with the GND ORIDE button selected ON?
86 L/R +9 10 degree nose other +11 -6.45 D-20
What will happen if the "ALL" option is selected from the FCR TGT page?
All - select the ALL button, this will store in sequence, the top sixteen, target icons displayed on the FCR page. D-107
What is the color of the M788 (TP) round?
Blue with white strip (AWS SH D 15)
What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round
Blue with white strip (SH D-15)
1. What is the color of the M788 (TP) round?
Blue with white strip D-15___________________________
What controls the scan size when operating in TPM?
airspeed D-132
when will shot-at symbols be displayed beneath target symbols?
1. During/after scan prior to HF launch (-10 p 4-69)
What is the minimum Clearance for launching an AGM-114L missile, and why?
1. HS SH D-101) 32 FT D-16
1. What does an ALT LAUNCH message indicate?
Hellfire in progress D-47
What are the three major components that make up the Longbow Fire Control Radar (FCR)?
MMA RFI Processor REU D-21
What does a flashing (3 second) ANTS symbol indicate
Out-prioritize NTS (-10 p 4-69
The AH-64D/E uses what type of radar system?
Pulse radar D-10
What is the "Gunner's Triangle"?
Target ID, Heading, Range, Store (ATM para 12-30)
During the periods between transmissions of a pulsed radar system, what is the radar doing?
listen D-10
The pylons are positioned to ground stow (WPN UTIL Page) which commands the pylons to ______degrees
-5 D-9
1. Constraints box: For SAL 1 or 2 missiles, the allowable angle is larger for LOBL ( °) than for LOAL ( ).
(20°) / 7.5°
Max ammunition with 100 gallon fuel cell integrated storage magazine for approximately_______ rounds
(300 SH D-8)
Label the rocket steering cursors:
(ARS SH D-30)(-10 4-37), Normal, Training, Fixed
Label the following FCR targets
(FCR SH D 66)(-10 4-68)
The Romeo LOBL missile constraint box is __________ when the missile is actively tracking the designated target.
(HF SH D-20) 40 degrees (+/- 20)
The Romeo LOAL missile constraint box is ___________when the missile is not tracking the target
(HF SH D-20) 60 degrees (+/- 30)
What is the definition of Ripple fire?
(HF SH D-81) Ripple fire mode requires at least two designators which will allow the aircrew to employ multiple missiles on different codes. RIPL allows for firing of missiles coded to both the priority channel and the alternate channel.(-10 4-155)
Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent provides: ranging and designation
(MTADS SH D 109)
Will the FLIR boresight be performed if the DTV internal boresight fails? NO
(MTADS SH D 69)
Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the ARS page when in the cooperative mode?
(Yes ARS SH D-33)
The maximum allowable registration error allowed for the TADS is _____, _____, which can be estimated by using the open area of the LOS reticle, which is equivalent to
+/- 2 feet in AZ, and 2-5 feet in EL, 2ft at 90 (-10 p 4-131)
For dynamic harmonization the aircraft heading to the target will be ______ degrees
+/-5 (AWS SH D 64)
1. In the event of low hydraulic pressure and/or loss of electrical power, the stow spring will position the gun cradle and gun in elevation to __________.
+11 D-19
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ____________ in elevation to prevent _______ into the ground during landing.
+11 digging (AWS SH D-19)
The M229 Warhead contains 4.8 pounds of composition B with a bursting radius of __________ and a lethality radius of more than__________.
+14 meters, 75 meters (ARS SH pg D-25)
The pylons articulate independently through a range of _________________.
+4 to -15 (ARS SH D-09)
What are the normal pylon articulation limits when the missiles or rockets are
+4 to -15 D-16
The ground stow mode commands the pylons to a stow position of ______ so that the wing stores are level with the terrain.
-5 (ARS SH D 9)
1. The fixed mode places the gun __________ degrees in azimuth and __________ degrees in elevation.
0 +.87 D50
If the RF missile is tracking (LOBL) and the target range is greater than or equal to ______ the allowable constraints angle is __________.
1 KM +/- 20 degrees (HF SH D-23)
What is the radiation hazard area for an AGM-114L missile?
1 meter 45 degrees (HF SH d-115)
What are the available size selections for a TRP Priority Fire Zone? What is the default size?
1,2,3KM (-10 p 3-156)
The 2ND target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a ___________ target engagement. Is this button common to both crewmembers?
1. (HF SH D-86)
If the RF missile is tracking (LOBL) and the target range is less than ______ the allowable constraints angle is _________.
1. 1 KM 5 degrees (HF SH D-23)
An RF missile will arm only after launch when acceleration exceeds ______ approximately _________________ in front of the aircraft.
1. 10g 181 meters (HF SH D-103)
1. Define the following missile status messages:
1. 2. 3. 1. Missile seeker is tracking "B" B M S 2. Missile is unlatched -10 p 4-150 T UF3. Missile Launcher station has failed
What is the minimum range of a "R" LOAL-LO FLAT engagement with a 0 degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? With a 30 degree offset?
1. 2000/2500 (HF SUPP)
To enable the missile to fly an arc outside the TADS target LOS and prevent degradation of TADS Video the aircraft should be rotated ____ to ____ degrees in the direction of the missile to be launched.
1. 3 to 5 (HF SH D-95)
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for __________ the symbols will change to partial intensity for __________.
1. 30 sec 60 sec (ASE SH D 56)(-10 3-115)
When the FCR detects a moving targets at distances between ______ and _____ the RF missile will always default to ______.
1. 500m to 8K LOBL (HF SH D-76)
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect region of the RFI to?
1. 90 degrees to ADL (-10 p 4-82)
The GTM/RMAP FOV is: WFOV __________, MFOV __________, NFOV __________ and ZFOV __________.
1. 90,45,30,15 (-10 p4-71)
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes only stationary ground targets?
1. B (-10 p4-79)
Which firing technique is used in a medium to high threat environment?
1. Bump Technique (12-2 TC 3-04.3)
Which terrain sensitivity setting is optimized for open fields and wooded areas with loose detection thresholds?
1. Clustered trees (-10 p 4-80)
The ___________ switch is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as detected by the RFI
1. Cued search (-10 p 4-82)
What is "transfer alignment"?
1. MSL receiving updated INU data form Aircraft to update IMU (HF SH D-92) Transfer alignment (transfer of aircraft inertial data to missile inertial platform) occurs automatically, at missile power up with no pilot action required.-10 p4-154
What does a flashing "R" in the Missile status and Inventory field indicate?
1. Ready for Launch (HF SH D-19)
What are the three modes the RF missile operates in?
1. STBY PRELAUNCH, POST LAUNCH (HF SH D-96)
What are the four ways to change the NTS target?
1. Selecting the NTS option, Cursor selecting a new FCR detected target from the FCR, RFHO, shooting the current NTS target. (SH D-95)
What kind of DBS trajectory will a missile fly if the target is to the left of centerline?
1. TO THE RIGHT (HF SH D-107)
Can the crew ARM the hellfire launchers without pressing the master "arm/safe" button, and if so how?
1. Yes (HF SH D-15) The ARM/SAFE switch provides for manually safing the launcher. The switch is manually safed and electronically armed via the WPN Utility (UTIL) page LNCHR (launcher) ARM selection. D-15 LNCHR ARM Button (R2). The LNCHR ARM button moves the mechanical ARM/SAFE switch on the HELLFIRE missile launchers to ARM. -10 p 4-26 NOTE When icing conditions exist, or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to liftoff. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative by icing.-10 p 8-3 a. When a launcher ARM/SAFE switch is in the SAFE position, the white SAFE icon will replace the launcher rail and missile icons on that launcher. This SAFE icon may also be present with the ARM/SAFE switch in the ARM position. SH D-18 b.
The target-state estimator will nominally take _____ seconds for the algorithms to settle to provide a proper lead-angle.
10 (GM p C-22)
1. The M151 warhead has a bursting radius of ______ meters and a lethality radius of _______ meters.
10 50 D-25
The fuze contains the ARM/SAFE device that arms the missile when its launch acceleration exceeds approximately ______ g's
10 D-11
What is the minimum distance for range focus of the MTADS?
10 ft in FLIR
The M151 Warhead HE contains 2.3 pounds of composition B with a bursting radius of
10 meters and a lethality radius of more than 50 meters (ARS SH pg D-25)
In the AUTO power mode, the missiles are powered-up at _______ minute intervals
10 minute D-84
With 6 AGM-114L missiles loaded the AUTO power mode selection will power-up _____ RF missiles.
10 minute intervals D-84
On the ASE page up to _____ RFI detected threats can be displayed on the outside of the ASE footprint and in the status window. __________ ASE detected threats can be displayed on the inside of the ASE footprint and in the status window.
10, radar warn (ASE SH D-20)
During rapid fire engagement the maximum separation between targets should not exceed _____ , with at least an ______ separation between missile launches.
100 meters, 8 second (HF SH D 80)
With the 1000 point database, the shared points are stored in locations _____ to _____.
100-950 (-10 p3-111)
1. 3E. What are the two pointers that can be added to the turret?
1000 P-W IZLID GCP-@G FANG D-72
1. For each ft increase in launcher altitude above the target RMIN and RMAX must be adjusted in accordance with Table 14 in the HF Supplement.
1000ft increase
At a 20° offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of ___________ at 8 km.
100m (HF SH D-112)
How many targets is the FCR capable of detecting?
1023 D-65
When forward airspeed exceeds __________ indicated airspeed (KIAS), do not use the M423/M229 for engagement of targets ___________ and ensure the line of fire is clear of obstructions (trees and buildings) for _____________. When at a hover or forward airspeed less than ten KIAS, engagement distance and the requirement for line of fire to be clear of obstruction may be reduced to _________.
10kts Less than 450 ft, AT least 450 feet. 350 feet. (Rocket Supplement A-9)
The ammunition can be loaded through the sideloader in bulk (individual rounds) or __________ round strips
11 D-12
What is the Tri-Service PRF code range?
1111-1178 D-39
The internal boresight aligns the TADS _____ to the laser LOS and the ______ to the _____ LOS
15. DTV n/z , FLIR n/z, DTV (MTADS SH D-65)
_________________field of view are normally used for target acquisition, while _____ or _____ are used for target identification and engagement
15. MFOV or NFOV , NFOV or ZFOV (ATM p4-125)
The minimum cloud ceiling to fire an "R" model missile in any mode (i.e. LOBL / LOAL) is?
1500 ft (HF SUPP p35)
What is the maximum effective range of the M230E1 automatic gun?
1500 to 1700 meter D-26
What is the minimum engagement ranges for a LEGACY DIR SAL "R" missile at 0° offset? __________ At 7.5° offset?
1500/1700 (HF SUPP)
What is the minimum effective range of a Romeo LOAL engagement with a 0° degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? __________. With a 20° offset? __________.
1500/2000 (HF SUPP)
What is the maximum amount of targets that can be displayed on the FCR page?
16 D-65
The FCR page will display _________ target symbols for any given scan. These targets represent the ________________ targets detected and classified during the scan.
16, highest priority (-10 p 4-68)
What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered
1788 (-10 p 4-137)
The AGM-114K2 typically arms _______ meters from the launching aircraft.
181 D-11
When the TADS LOS and the missile seeker LOS differ by more than _____ degrees a BACKSCATTER message will display in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD
2 degrees D-52
The initial automated internal boresight process takes approximately _________ due to the cue search process and subsequent boresights take approximately __________ as they use the AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.
2 min, 30 sec (MTADS SH D-69)
1. The gun is inhibited for __________ after a missile or rocket launch.
2 seconds D-98
How often is it recommended that an internal boresight be accomplished during flight?
2 times per 2.5 hours of flight. (MTADS SH)
Doppler Beam Sharpening (DBS) uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary targets (STI) to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between ______km and ______km
2.5 to 8 D-106
1. For RF missiles in either LOAL or LOBL trajectory mode, the allowable angle is ° except when the missile is tracking and the target range is < , the allowable angle is
20 / 1km / 5°. -10 p4-41
The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to __________ in roll and ___________ to ___________ in pitch.
20,20 -15 (-10 note p 4-61)
1. For P+ and Romeo SAL missiles, the allowable angle is ° for LOBL and ° for LOAL.
20° /30° f
1. The M789 (HEDP) shaped charge liner can penetrate excess of 2 inches of RHA at __________ meters.
2500 meters D-15
What is the maximum amount of detected targets that can be displayed on the TSD page
256 D-65
Pressing the ZOOM VIEW on the Video page will result in?
2x original view (, 4-15)
A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give _____ scans
3 (-10 p4-63)
How many bursts of laser energy are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent?
3 (MTADS SH D 102
The missile quantity defaults to ______ for both channels if sufficient missiles are available of the selected warhead.
3 D-28
The RF missiles can overheat (OT) if it is radiating (tracking) a target for more than _____minutes
3 minutes D-84
Live fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between _____ to _____meters
3 to 5 (ARS SH D 45)
How long must you lase the target before the message "TARGET DATA?" blanks in the HAD?
3-5 seconds (HF SH D-95)
How long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed ON time?
30 min (HF SH D 120)
The internal auxiliary fuel system (IAFS) incorporates a 100 gallon fuel tank and an ammunition storage magazine capable of holding approximately ______ rounds and _____ in the AHS allowing for approximately a _____ round capability
300, 58, 358 (AWS SH D 10-11)
What is the minimum altitude to launch a SAL Missile?
32 Ft D-16
Airspeed above ________ eliminates rotor downwash error
33 knots (3-04.3 page C-21 para C-94)
1. Define the Legacy HFII designator exclusion zone?
34 Degree vertical exclusion zone above the shooter to designator line and the 43 degree horizontal exclusion zone to either side of the GSL Originates at the firing aircraft extends to the max range of the missile.
What is the minimum range of a "R" LOAL-HI LOFT engagement with a 0° offset angle from the aircraft datum line? ___________. With a 30° offset? ___________.
3500/3500 (HF SUPP)
Default range for the CPG is ______. For the pilot it is ______.
3km, 1.5km (-10 p 4-23)
How many Scan sizes are available to the crew in any of the targeting modes
4 __________________________________________
1. What is the fragmentation radius of the M789 (HEDP) round?
4 meters D-15
At what time and for how long is the message "LASE NN TRGT" displayed in the High Action Display during LOAL SAL missile launches?
4 sec at 12 sec TOF (-10 p 4-42 table 4-1)
When ammunition is loaded using the side loader, there is approximately _____ round space between the side loader and the gun
40 (AWS SH D 11 note)
1. When ammunition is loaded using the sideloader, there is approximately __________ round space between the sideloader and the gun. ANSWER
40 D-11
How many RFI emitters can be tracked, and how many will be displayed?
40/10 (ASE SH D-50)
What is the maximum ballistic solution of the M230E1 automatic gun
4200 Meters D-26
The software range limit for the 30mm is
4200 meters (AWS SH D-26)
During a remote designation, the designator should not be positioned within ___________ fan either side of the launching aircraft to target line or outside ____________ designator offset angle.
43/30 60 (HF SUPP P12)
1. The pilot may have to pitch the nose of the aircraft up when firing rockets beyond ________ meters. The pylons will articulate up to _________ degrees per second to compensate for this motion.
4500 10 D-42
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ________ with a ________ look down angle
5 meter, 1 degree (MTADS SH D 99)
Moving target symbols become stale after _________ and stationary become stale after __________.
5 sec 30 sec (-10 p4-68) (SH D-66)
At the completion of an FCR scan, moving targets on the FCR page will go stale after how many seconds?
5 seconds D-66
1. The flight mode is automatically commanded on takeoff when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than ________ seconds.
5 seconds D-9
What is the maximum range, which can be entered manually?
50 KM 1 meter increments.
1. If missiles are selected, and the priority missile is on the inboard launcher, the MP or WP limits the gun's azimuth to __________ on that side.
52 degree D-23
What is the maximum detection range for stationary targets displayed on the FCR page?
6 KM D-76
Once an NTS target has been received and accepted, what is the time limit to conduct an engagement on that target?
6 minutes D-118
For a 4500 meter SAL hellfire engagement the last ______ seconds needs to be steady-on-target time (terminal guidance).
6 seconds (HF SUPP p 7)
When laser designating a 5000 meter target for the AGM-114R missile, the last ____ seconds of the TOF is required to be on the target
6 seconds an additional 2 seconds for each additional 1000 meters
If rockets are selected, and the selected rocket type is on the inboard launcher, the MP or WP limits the gun's azimuth to
60 degrees D-22
When thrust of the missile exceeds____ to ____ pounds, the missile will launch from the rail
600 to 830 D-11
1. What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M230E1 automatic gun?
625 +/- 25 D-26
1. The PEN button will display when the _____ fuze is loaded which can defeat bunkers up to _______ meters thick.
6RC D-21
When firing M255A1 Flechette and M257 Rockets caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended rocket motor and warhead case. Impact zone extends out between ___________ from deployment point.
700 and 1200 meters. (Rocket Supplement A-19, A-28)
What is the maximum range for MK-66
7500 meters D-48
How many priority fire zones can be displayed on the TSD, and how many can be active?
8,1 (-10 3-155)
How many no fire zones can be displayed on the TSD, and how many can be active?
8,8 (-10 p3-157)
The minimum range to target firing Flechette rocket is ______ meters. The effective range with MK 66 rocket motors is _____ to _____ kilometers.
800, 1 to 3 (-10 p 4-147)
The AGM-114R missile thrust duration is approximately 2.5 to 3.5 seconds and reaching a maximum velocity of ___________.
845 K (1.32 mach) D-10
When the Weapons Training Mode (WTM) is selected, the armament subsystem will adopt a simulated weapon inventory of __________ rounds for the 30mm
888 D-69
The M261 Warhead contains __ M73 SM's with the M230 omnidirectional fuze with a M55 detonator is used on each SM and functions regardless of impact.
9 (ARS SH pg D-26)
1. The M261 (MPSM) warhead contains _____ M73 submunitions that will produce 195 (10 grain) high velocity fragments that travel up to 5000 feet per second and the shaped charge can penetrate more than _____ inches of armor.
9 4 D-26
Label the following RFI icons:
: (10 p 4-81)
For an autonomous engagement, the aircraft should be oriented _____° to _____ ° to the side from which the missile will be launched.
: When firing a SAL missile an offset of 3º to 5º, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile flying through the FOV of the TADS to prevent the video from being obscured by the missile's exhaust.
What must be entered on the Keyboard Unit to enable auto range?
A (-10 p 2-26)
With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?
A B E (ARS SH D-23)
What are maximum mask height and minimum standoff distance for a K model missile fired LOAL LO?
A K model missile fired LOAL HI? LO=260ft/600m HI=1000ft/1500m (HF SUPP p 29)
Describe the crewmember priority (WAS logic) for actioning any weapon system? What is the one exception to this rule?
A weapon can be actioned from either crew station via the cyclic. The last crewmember to action a weapon has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, cooperative moding is in effect. (-10 p 4-6)
What are the Terminal Ballistics?
Blast, Heat, and Fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition. (3-04.3 pg C-13)
What determines the amount of lead required when firing off axis to the right or left?
Aircraft airspeed, angle of deflection, projectile velocity, and target range. (3-04.3 C-49, P C12)
What interior ballistic characteristics can the aircrew compensate for?
Aircrews cannot compensate for these characteristics when firing free-flight projectiles. (3-04.3 para C-13)
HELLFIRE-I (SAL 1) designation includes the following variants and their sub-variants:
AGM-114A, AGM-114B, AGM-114C, and AGM-114F/FA. Older model missiles. Older than the K Model. HF SUPP P4
HELLFIRE-II (SAL 2) designation includes the following variants and their sub-variants
AGM-114K, AGM-114M, AGM-114N, AGM-114P+, and AGM-114R. K Model missilies and Newer. HF SUPP
What does the message "ALT LAUNCH" mean?
ALT LAUNCH: Indicates a rocket launch is in progress. Missiles will be inhibited from firing for 2 seconds after launch. D-117
How can the PLT move the Fire Control Radar (FCR) centerline? The CPG?
AQC PHS/GHS D-50
What are the different "modes" the pylons can operate in? Ground Stow, Flight Stow, Articulation, and Fixed.
ARS SH pg D-9)
Running fire performed at airspeeds _________ will offer a mix of _____________________ and _________________.
Above ETL, aircraft survival, weapons accuracy (ATM task 2033 p 4-150)
RF missile transfer alignment occurs in the _______ mode.
After PBIT D-92
What are the Exterior Ballistics?
Air Resistance, Gravity, Yaw, Projectile Drift, Wind Drift (3-04.3 pg c6-8)
What does the upper number in the FCR page Altitude Status window represent?
Altitude D-123
Which radar factor does a narrower radar beam width (scan width) improve?
Amount of power D-14________________________
1. When offset laser designating a target what is the recommended terminal laser time?
Answer: 6 seconds for ground ranges up to 5km; 2 additional seconds for each additional kilometer HF P7.
M229 Warhead is HE is _________________ and referred to as the "_____________". This warhead is an elongated version of the ______________.
Anti-personnel, anti-material, "17 pounder", M151 (ARS SH pg D-25)
1. What are the safety considerations that ensure operations in the TRAIN mode while loaded with live ordinance can be conducted?
Application of arm power to weapon stations is inhibited by the MPs when the weapon training mode is selected. In addition, existing continuous BIT algorithms ensure that arm power and discrete fire commands are absent at these stations. Detection of hazardous conditions via CBIT results in non-availability of the affected weapon station. Launch events are simulated; no tactical launch/firing commands are issued to stores or to the gun when the TRAIN mode is in use. A non-selectable barrier is displayed on the TRAIN button to minimize the potential for inadvertent entry into or out of the weapon training mode during a live-fire engagement (-10 p4-162)
SAL (NON ROMEO) LOAL LO/HI mode the missile constraints box is being driven by the _______, except when TRN is the ACQ selection and then it is being driven by the TRN point.
B5 (HF SH D 21)
Is the message "BACKSCATTER" a safety or a performance inhibit?
BACKSCATTER: Based on missile seeker versus TADS LOS, indicates the seeker is not tracking the TADS laser designation. D-117
During preflight and all live fires, when the AWS has been used, the _______ will be inspected by the crew for cracks.
Barrel. WARNING Failure to inspect the barrel properly may result in catastrophic damage to the AH64 and/or injury to the crew. (-10 p 8-2)
What is the color of the projectile on the M789 (HEDP) round
Black Yellow band D-15
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round
Black with yellow band (SH D-15)
What is the name of the FCR page "symbol" that will be presented when a RADAR scan is conducted over the tail or when the aircraft attitude causes the tail to interfere with the RADAR?
Blanking symbol D-126__________
Which Priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving targets
C (-10 p 4-79)
1. You are in the pilot crewstation, and the CPG actions the GUN; what indication will you see in your High Action Display (HAD) and in what status field?
C-GUN D-62
How can a crewmember store an FCR target from the TSD page and where will the target get stored?
CAQ D-108
1. The rocket INVENTORY and QTY selection defaults to the ________ selections during cooperative engagements.
CPG D-20
In the cooperative mode, both weapon triggers are active and the ________ Line Of Sight (LOS) and range source are used for the ballistics calculations
CPG D-33
Which crewstation can conduct the Gun Dynamic Harmonization
CPG D-50
1. In the cooperative mode, the ________acquires and tracks the target, and the ________aligns the aircraft for launch using the rocket steering cursor.
CPG Pilot D-33
1. The cooperative mode is active whenever the rocket system is actioned via the _________. Answer
CPG TEDAC Pilot cyclic D-33______
If the aircrew enters the cooperative mode, the rocket page displayed is the CPG's for both crew members. Either crew member can make changes to the ________________ when in the cooperative mode.
CPG's rocket page (ARS SH D-15)
The AGM-114L missile MODE selections are _________ in each crewstation.
Common D-83
Repeatedly pressing the cued switch will __________orient the FCR centerline through the list of detected emitters.
Continue to(-10 p 4-69)
What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
Continue use may cause damage to components (-10 p 4-79 caution)
_________ training focuses on collective situational awareness, particularly at______. It includes training and assessment of the crew's ability to maintain awareness of the aircraft's heading and location in relation to both friendly and enemy forces.
Crew, night (3-04.3 pg 10-4)
Friendly emitters are displayed in _______ and enemy emitters are displayed in ________.
Cyan, yellow (-10 p 4-170)
During running rocket fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the _______ while maintaining ______________.
Cyclic, trim (ATM p 4-159
What does a "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the Sight Status field of the crewmembers High Action Display (HAD) indicate?
D-118
What classifications of FCR target icons can be displayed in Air Targeting Mode (ATM)?
D-121_______________________
What does the lower number in the FCR page Altitude Status window represent?
D-123
1. What is the gun duty cycle of the M230E1 automatic gun?
D-27
What four items should the crew ensure prior to initiating an FCR power-up sequence?
D-36
The AGM-114R missile main warhead defaults at power-up for anti-armor with the fuze selection of
D-41 Answer: True
What four things will cause the NTS icon to change?
D-67
What is the difference between a B-scope display and a C-scope display
D-8 and D-9______________________
What happens if you place the SYMB button (B2) to the BOOST position?
Darken video underlay to boost the apparent video brightness (-10 p 4-108)
What is Doppler Beam Sharpening?
DBS uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis flight path to the target (HF SH D-106)
What are the three LOAL trajectory modes in which the AGM-114R missile can be employed?
DIR FLAT LOFT D-22
If the Fire Control Radar (FCR) is shut down automatically due to an overheat condition, where will the message for this condition display and what is the message
DMS FCR SHUTDOWN HOT D-141
To check the boresight correctors, the PLT/CPG must access the ____________ page initially, then select __________ and the appropriate system.
DMS, Boresight (-10 p 2-157)
The _____ boresight must be performed successfully before the FLIR boresight can be performed.
DTV (-10 p 4-48 (b))
During a TADS Drift Null, the aim point should remain within the ______________________.
DTV NFOV 30 sec (MTADS SH D 56)
1. What are the advantages of diving fire?
Decreased vulnerability to small-arms fire, Increased armament load, improved accuracy. Better target acquisition and tracking capabilities. Smaller beaten zone. (3-04.3 para 12-11)(ATM 4-150)
Fragmentation pattern length ____________ with high-angle impacts.
Decreases (3-04.1 para C-54)
Define maximum effective range
Distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. (3-04.3 para C-10)
1. What component drives the gun bolt assembly to the open-bolt position after firing using dynamic braking?
Drive motor D-28
What is the RF missile radiation hazard area to be avoided?
During missile operation, the RF radiation hazard area should be avoided. This area extends from the missile nose outward 1 meter and 45° polar from the missile centerline
What negative factor during target illumination will cause the laser energy to be masked within the target?
Entrapment D-49
How far does the FCR centerline move when the FCR page L or R arrow is selected?
Equal to current scan size D-52_____
The M278 puts out an __________________ of IR illumination. Preset to deploy approximately ___________ down range and will last ____________.
Equivalent of 1 million candlepower, 2500 meters, 150 to 210 seconds. (Rocket Supplement A-29)
Selecting a RFI detected target symbol on the periphery of the FCR format using the cursor will command the _____________ to the azimuth of the selected emitter and set the scan sector to the appropriate cued search scan size.
FCR Centerline (-10 p 4-82).
In the pre-launch mode, what are the three methods of target handover to the RF missile?
FCR TADS IDM
What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?
FCR, TADS, IDM (HF SH D-94) -10 4-153.
If the FLIR is not cooled when DTV is boresighted the FLIR boresight will ______. However, the DTV boresight is ___________.
Failed, valid (MTADS SH D 74)
T/F The range focus can be adjusted when the TADS is used as a sensor?
False
T/F The aircrew cannot edit utilizing the weapons load page.
False (ARS SH pg D-15)
True or false; the LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is always driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window.
False (HF SH D-21 22)
1. What is turret bending and will the mission processor compensate for this phenomenon?
Flecure in response to sustain recoil D-95
What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
Free-flight rockets have an inherent thrust misalignment, which is the greatest cause of error in free flight (3-04.3 papa C-21)
The TSD FCR footprint will change from ______ to ______ lines when the FCR is scanning.
Green , white ((-10 p 3-114)
The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from ______________________ to ______ when TADS is lasing.
Green, white (-10 p 3-114)
What is the primary difference between the SAL and RF Missiles?
Guidance D-8
1. What are the different sections/assemblies of the Hellfire Missile?
Guidance- missile autopilot and seeker guidance and control, displacement gyro/IMU, precursor Warhead- Control Interface Group, thermal battery, pneumatic accumulator, CI circuit card, warhead and fuze, Electronic ARM/Safe Device Control- Propulsion- single-stage, single-thrust, minimum-smoke, solid-propellant, rocket motor, a motor squib, and cruciform wing SH D-10
1. Define the fuze safe separation distance. Minimum arming distance the would result in less than a one in one million change of loss of aircraft and/or crew.
HF-1____150m____ HFII ____182m___ Romeo___375m___ (Steel fragments)
The CPG has the M-TADS linked to the FCR NTS. If the pilot sight selects the FCR, what sight will the MP assign to the CPG?
HMD
The gunner must compensate for lead angle compensation when using which of the available sights?
HMD (GM p C-19)
1. The gunner must compensate for lead angle compensation when using which of the available sights; why?
HMD D-93
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember when the active sight is _________ and __________; (CPG Only) _______.
HMD, FCR, MTADS (ARS SH D-32)
How is the number one RFI emitter displayed?
Home plate (-10 p4-82)
1. Firing Mode Characteristics
Hover fire- Fires delivered from a stationary aircraft or moving at speeds less than ETL Running Fire- Fires delivered from an a/c with a pitch attitude less than 10 degrees below the horizion and traveling at airspeeds greater that ETL Moving Fires- Fires delivered from an aircraft moving at speeds equal to or greater that ETL. Diving Fire- Fires delivered from a n aircraft with a pitch attitude greater 10 degrees below the horizon and traveling at airspeeds greater than 50 kts. true airspeed Initial Point- Can be used for running or diving fire engagements. Should coincide with an identifiable terrain feature or map point and facilitate the desired attack heading .3- pg 12-1
What are the five modes of fire per the TC 3-04.3?
Hover, Moving, Running, Diving, Running/Diving IP (TC3-04.3 12-2)
What are the five Techniques Of Fire IAW D-ATM?
Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump, Diving/Running IP ATM 4-150
1. What are the four types of ballistics that affect helicopter fired weapons?
IATE D-88
Why is the Aerial Rocket System more accurate when fired from an OGE hover rather than an IGE hover?
IGE launch yields greater dispersion, because the aircraft cannot apply appropriate downwash compensation due to random Induced Flow pattern (ARS SH D-41)
With the _________ as the selected sight, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator employed
IHADSS (TC3-04.3 C-21)
1E. The laser pointer should only be used for target __________ and pointing
Illumination D-72
What are the three phases of the gunnery program?
Individual Phase, Aircrew Phase, Collective Phase. TC 3-04.3 P 2-2
Where does the TSD page display detected RFI emitters?
Inside rectangle (ASE SH D 25)
1. Thrust misalignment is a characteristic of ________ ballistics.
Interior D-36
What is the definition of ballistics and what are the four types of ballistics? Ballistics is the science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion.
Interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal (3-04.3 p C-5)
When you WAS any weapon system, that weapon system ICON (on the top-level weapons page) will turn _____________.
Inverse (-10 p 4-136)
What happens if a crewmember cursor selects a target icon when the TGT option is selected from the FCR page?
It will store it D-106__________
What does a solid asterisk displayed in front of the range indicate
Laser is firing and the MP is receiving valid range data from the laser rangefinder/designator. (-10 p4-45)
The remote designator should not be displaced more than _____ degrees in azimuth from the launch aircraft to target line.
Legacy missiles the remote designator should not be within ±43° safety fan from the Gun-Shot Line (GSL). The Romeo missile (with target message), the size of the exclusion zone is dependent on the target offset. Designator should not be within a ±30° safety fan either side the GSL or within a ±30° safety fan either side the Gun-Target Line (GTL) (30° plus target offset with respect to the GSL) D-46.
When rockets are in the cooperative mode the LOS will be
M-TADS/FCR (ARS SH Pg D-32)
M274 Warhead is the smoke signature training rocket, which will match the ballistic settings of the ___________________.
M151 warhead (ARS SH pg D-25)
1. What are the types of 30mm ammunition used for firing?
M788 M789 D-15
What 3 type of rounds can the 30mm accommodate?
M848, M788, M789 (AWS SH D-15)
What are the benefits of the bump technique?
Maximize advantage of run, dive (ATM task 2033)
What inhibits can be overridden, and how is this accomplished
Missile performance inhibits. The MP will inhibit missile firing if a performance constraint is detected, and the weapons trigger is not depressed to the second detent. YAW LIMIT: indicates yaw position of the aircraft with respect to the target is excessive; applies to LOAL mode only. SAL missile LOAL LO or LOAL HI selected and any of the following conditions exists: a) Azimuth angle between the target and the ADL is greater than 7.5°. Selected target data is invalid. True heading data from the EGI is invalid. SAL missile LOAL DIR selected and azimuth angle between the selected sight LOS and the ADL is greater than 7.5°. RF missile engagements when the target to be handed over has a LOS angle greater than 20° from the ADL. PYLON ANGLE: Indicates the pylon position is greater than 10° from the optimum launch position or that the pylon position is unknown. PYLON LIMIT: Indicates that the commanded pylon position exceed the pylon articulation limits of +4 to -15 in the air. RATE LIMIT: Indicates the aircraft pitch, roll, or yaw rate or acceleration is excessive. ROLL LIMIT: Indicates the aircraft roll position is excessive. RF missile selected and roll magnitude is greater than 20°. SAL missile in LOBL mode and roll magnitude is greater than 20°. SAL missile in LOAL mode and roll magnitude is greater than 10°. SKR LIMIT: indicates the missile seeker azimuth or elevation gimbal limit has been reached. If the priority SAL missile is tracking and the seeker azimuth or elevation angle is greater than 20° from the missile body axis. If the priority RF missile is tracking, the seeker azimuth angle is greater than 20° from the missile body axis, and the range is equal to or greater than 1 km. If the priority RF missile is tracking, the seeker azimuth angle is greater than 5° from the missile body axis, and the range is less than 1 km. MIN RANGE: The SAL missiles will be inhibited from launch when the minimum range criteria are not met for the trajectory selected to fire. D-117
When the FCR ATM scan bar reaches the right perimeter of the currently selected scan size (except Wide scan) what happens with the scan bar if the crew is operating in the continuous scan mode?
NTS will be established at the end of the first scan within the burst. Cursor will reposition next to the Next-To-Shoot (NTS) option at L1. After a scan is completed, and the NTS target is identified, the cursor will automatically center on the NTS option for rapid cursor selection.
____________ problems can cause units to stray out of sector, report wrong locations, become disoriented, or employ fire support weapons from the wrong locations. Therefore, friendly units may collide unexpectedly or engage each other mistakenly.
Navigation (3-04.3 pg10-1)
Can a target or a threat be added to a route on the TSD?
No
Is Projectile Jump compensated by WP/MP?
No (AWS SH D-93)
What is the Caution associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch on the Load Maintenance Panel?
No indication in cockpit if in AIR position (AWS SH d-38)(-10 CAUTION 4-134)
What is the maximum laser delay time for an 8 kilometer SAL Enhance missile engagement?
Norm/Flat (15/12) (HF SUPP p 7)
What does a broken (dashed) NTS icon indicate?
Not armed, no weapon action, sight select D-67________________
What symbol will appear on the RF missile icon if the maximum allowable elapsed ON time is exceeded?
OT (HF SH D-120) A training mode missile is allowed an elapsed ON time of 30 minutes. If this time is exceeded, an over temperature (OT) symbol will appear on the affected missile icon on the WPN page.-10 p4-162
The ripple mode, after the primary channel missile is launched the alternate channel missile may be launched after _____ seconds of separation.
One missile from the primary channel may be launched and then a second missile from the alternate channel (now primary) may be launched 1.5 seconds later with each missile flying toward its own designated target. D-81.
When in the training mode all tactical missile icons will display ______ inside the missile icon.
Operation of tactical missiles is not possible while the TRAIN mode is enabled and all tactical missiles will be coded as NA. However, while in the TRAIN mode with the ARM/SAFE switch set to ARM, the laser is fully functional.
__________________+4 -15 D-9_______________
PIU D-9
1. What effect does the combination of trajectory shift and projectile drift produce?
PORT STARBOARD D_93
The ALT channel selection is only available after a ______ channel has been selected.
PRI D-28
There is an increased risk of____________________________ and care should be taken near other aircraft and firing over the heads of friendly troops.
Premature fuze function (inadvertent air burst) (ARS SH Pg D-27)
Why would you enable the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option?
Prevent missile from radiating (HF SH D-86) or Before Launch LOBL INHIBIT button inhibits the RF missile seeker from transmitting and attempting to track the selected target while on the rail during an RF engagement. -10 4-158
What exterior ballistic causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right?
Projectile drift (3-04.3 para C-30)
What are the aerial ballistic characteristics affecting fin-stabilized projectiles?
Propellant force, CG, relative wind (3-04.3 page C-10)
2E. To distinguish one laser pointer using HIGH or LOW from another pointer __________ can be selected
Pulse D-76
What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?
R (HF SH D-19)
How are the other FCR components cooled?
REU and RFI processor LRU's are cooled by the ECS. D-26
The ___________ is used for the transmission of the FCR NTS via the IDM to another Longbow
RFHO (-10 p 4-67)
What FCR mode is displayed in a B-scope/Rectilinear format
RMAP D-74___________________
What symbols will be available when changing between GTM and RMAP?
RMAP displays information that is NOT geometrically accurate, therefore, any information that is grid related and/or active will NOT be displayed. D-96
The LMC requires an accurate ______________ while maneuvering.
Range (MTADS SH D 124)
___________ is a mode of fire which involves firing multiple SAL missiles with the same laser code or multiple RF missiles.
Rapid fire (HF SH D 80)
You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters, you then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again hitting the target. What technique did you use?
Recognition method (GM page 12-8)
Where does the TSD page display ASE threats?
Rectangular (ASE SH D-56)
What are the Aerial Ballistics?
Rotor Down-Wash, Angular Rate, Turning Bank, Propellant Force, Center of Gravity, Relative Wind Effect, Trajectory Shift, Port-Starboard Effect, Projectile Jump (3-04.3 pgC 8-13)
What two conditions must be met to enter and exit the training mode?
SAFE, NO WAS (-10 p 4-163)
1. The two types of rocket inhibits are _______________ and ___________________.
Safety Performance D-47_________
1. Define the Enhanced Hellfire Romeo designator exclusion zone?
Same vertical 34 degree vertical exclusion zone. Target- Offset -Dependent horizontal exclusion zone Target side 30 deg + offset angle. Non Target side 30 deg.
_______________________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification
Scan to scan (-10 p 4-64)
When the RFHO message is received, what must a crewmember do to get the information to the Mission or Weapon Processor?
Select FCR D-116
1. Describe the mil-relationship method of burst on target.
Select a FOV, note the range to target Fire a burst at the target. · Sense the impacts of the rounds and measure distance between mean point of impact (MPI) and the target using the sight symbology. · Using the known milliradian values (see appendix E) determine weapon impact distance from the target in range and deflection. · Make an appropriate change the range and azimuth settings and adjust the desired mean point of impact (DMPI). · Continue engagement (3-04.3 page 12-8)
Which FCR component is zeroized when the Master Zeroize switch is selected?
Servo electronics NVM LRM D-28
What does it indicate if the FCR page L/R arrows are barriered
Slave off D-52___________________________________________
The M264 red phosphorus (RP) is a _________________________. The smoke generated by 14 rockets will obscure a ___________________ front, in less than _____________________. The effective range is 1000 to 6000 meters.
Smoke-screen warhead, 300 to 400 meter, 60 seconds for 5 minutes (ARS SH pg D-26)
__________ is additional type of fragmentation is produced by target structure itself.
Spall (3-04.3 pg C-18
What two ways can the crew store targets when the FCR page TGT option is selected?
Storing targets through the FCR page can be accomplished two ways - Individual or ALL. D-106
When will you perform an internal boresight for the TADS?
TADS boresight shall be performed as part of preflight procedures prior to any firing of laser or weapons when TADS is used as the sight. (MTADS SH D 63)
1. Which type of ballistics best describes the characteristics and effects of the projectiles at the target?
TERMINAL D-43
Why is target fixation a problem?
Target fixation may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground. Therefore, the crew must use a careful crosscheck and adhere to an appropriate minimum altitude to avoid a hazardous flight condition. High rates of descent, coupled with high flight-path speeds, require pilot to closely monitor the rate of closure with the terrain. (3-04.3 page 12-11 para 12-64)
Neutralization knocks a target out of action
Temporarily (ATM task 2033)
The three RF missile acquisition modes are __________, ___________, and ___________.
Terminal Track Acquisition (TTA) - Used for short-range stationary target LOAL and LOBL. Preterminal Acquisition (PTA) - Used for long-range stationary targets LOAL. Moving Target Acquisition (MTA) - Used for moving target LOBL.
Where will the AWS be positioned while in the fixed mode?
The Fixed (FXD) mode fixes the gun to 0°azimuth and +0.87° elevation. (AWS SH D-50)
The AGM-114R LOFT constraints box is being driven in the crewmembers display by the ________ or
The LOAL FLAT and LOAL LOFT trajectory constraints box in the crewmembers display is being driven by the coordinate data displayed in the ACQ window. When the ACQ window is not a stored coordinate then the constraints is being driven by the selected LOS (TADS or HMD) D-23.
What are the maximum mask height and minimum standoff distance for a R model missile fired LOAL FLAT? A R model missile fired LOAL-LOFT?
The Romeo model missile does not clear a defined mask LOAL-FLAT, it is similar to LOAL-D and requires a clear LOS to target. LOAL-LOFT is trajectory altitude clearance not specified in the .3 but is similar to the K model LOAL-HI trajectory. The HF Student Handout states the ROMEO can clear 750ft/1500m in LOFT.
What do the TADS FOV Brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those brackets are not present?
The TADS FOV brackets surround the LOS reticle. They appear as corner marks on the display to indicate the amount of the currently displayed imagery of TADS that will be displayed in the next narrower FOV. They only appear when a next narrower FOV is available, and TADS imagery is presented on the format. (-10 p 4-36)
If the FCR is the selected sight, there is no NTS target and LINK is selected what will the TADS do?
The TADS will remain fixed forward until an NTS target exists. (-10 4-20)
The TME allows for thermal management of the missiles by allowing for a cumulative time on of _________ minutes.
The TME is allowed a cumulative ON time of 30 minutes. D-120
Define the 60 degree (preferably within 45 degrees) Designator Offset Angle.
The angle between the GTL and LTL. P14 HF SUPP
What does a flashing asterisk displayed in front of the range indicate?
The asterisk flashes when multiple laser returns are received with >15 meter difference. (-10 p4-45)
When is the LINK function ignored?
The crewmember's selected sight is HMD. No NTS target exists if linking the TADS to the FCR. Either crew station is currently using the M-TADS as a sensor (NVS MODE switch is either NORM or FXD with TADS as the selected sensor). Proper equipment not installed/operational. Both TADS and FCR must be operational in order for a link reference to occur. FCR is selected sight and TADS is the Acquisition Source or TADS is the Sight and the FCR is the Acquisition Source.D-103
During a remote designation employing the AGM-114K the remote designator must be positioned outside of the ± ____ ° safety fan either side of the Gunner-Shot Line (GSL).
The designator must be positioned outside of the ±43° safety fan either side of the Gunner-Shot Line (GSL) and inside of the ±60° designator inclusion angle
What is the gun duty cycle?
The duty cycle is six 50-round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts, followed by a 10-minute cooling period. Burst settings other than 50, the duty cycle can be generalized to mean that no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes after which the cycle may be repeated. If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ten minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (AWS SH D-27)
Maximum autonomous designation range is limited by the
The maximum range for missile engagements is limited by the designators ability to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target so the missile seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy D-46.
With the TRAIN mode selected and the missile system is actioned, the missile constraints box will display a ______ centered in the box.
The missile constraints box will be presented with a "T" centered in the box when the weapon system is actioned. D-121
What is the purpose of a Pull-Off?
The pull-off is employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area. (Task 2033 ATM)
Five kilometer engagement, the maximum separation between targets should not exceed _____ meters, with a _____ second separation between missile launches.
The targets should be relatively close within a distance of approximately 100 meters and the closest target should be engaged first, unless smoke from the first missile impact would obscure the designation of the subsequent targets. The first missile is launched at the first target; a second missile is launched on the same laser code 8 seconds after the first missile, a third missile can be launched on the same code 8 seconds after the second, and so forth.
With the TRAIN mode selected when a weapon system is actioned the weapons inhibit field will display
The weapon inhibits field will display SAFE when the aircraft is in the safe mode and TRAINING when the aircraft is armed. D-121
The TOTAL ROCKETS status window will be displayed when
There is a difference between the number of rockets available for firing and the number of rockets actually of the selected type. (ARS SH pg D-18)
When operating in the weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the system is "armed?"
Training (-10 p 4-50)
1. What message will be displayed in the High Action Display (HAD) weapon inhibit field during Weapons Training Mode (WTM)?
Training D-70__________________
What does a centered "T" displayed in the missile constraints box indicate?
Training mode (HF SH
. T/F At aircraft power-up the MP will read the rocket zone inventory from the LMP.
True (ARS SH D-12)
T/F The rocket page is crew station independent for independent engagements
True (ARS pg D-15)
T/F The RFI can detect and process pulse, pulse Doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar signals.
True (ASE SH D 46)
The mission processor assigns a default of 3 SAL missiles for both channels if sufficient missiles are available in the NORM mode with SAL SEL.
True (HF SH D 28)
The message BACKSCATTER displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD is a safety inhibit and the missile cannot be launched by squeezing the weapons trigger to the second detent. (TRUE or FALSE)?
True D-73
1. 6E. The sunburst symbol is displayed to both crewmembers upon activation of the laser pointer. (TRUE/FALSE)
True D-79
1. 4E. When the LASER POINTER BORESIGHT FAIL status window appears the crewmember should repeat the steps. (TRUE/FALSE)
True D-85
What are the laser related missile performance distracters?
USABOBEP (HF SH D-47)
The internal boresight shall be performed as part of preflight procedures prior ________________________________________ when the TADS is the selected LOS
Use of laser weapons (MTADS SH D 63)
What are three factors that affect dispersion discussed in conjunction with terminal ballistics?
Vibration, sights, boresights (3-04.3 c-56-58)
Which MPD page allows the aircrew to electronically arm the M299 Missile launcher? Answer
WPN UTIL D-15
1. If the rounds count in the GUN Icon is incorrect, how do you input the proper rounds count?
WPN UTL LOAD D-52
What does the cross-hatch symbol coding on the ARM/SAFE Status Window indicate?
Weapon Actioned (-10 p 4-136)
Which Exterior Ballistic is not compensated for by the WP/MP?
Yaw (AWS SH D-86)
Can the pilot always link the M-TADS to the FCR NTS?
Yes
What is turret bending and will the mission processor compensate for this phenomenon?
Yes (AWS SH D 64)
Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode
Yes (CAUTION-10 p 4-141)
When operating the FCR in the Air Targeting Mode (medium, narrow or zoom), can the FCR centerline be repositioned to provide scanning to the rear of the aircraft?
Yes D-124
Should both crewmembers perform the FCR operational check?
Yes D-36
Can the crew initiate another Power-on Built-In Test (PBIT) if the FCR has timed-out under extremely cold conditions?
Yes D-37_____________________
The Pilot's selected sight is FCR and has a weapon system actioned. The NTS icon is still broken. Can the CPG make the NTS symbol solid by placing the aircraft ARM/SAFE button to ARM?
Yes D-67
1. How much compensation is required for projectile jump when firing from a hover?
ZERO D-94
1. 2E. Can you confirm your selected sight on the weapon page?
_Yes
Which crewmember can make FCR centerline adjustments
__Either
When an RFHO is received, which crewmember can receive the RFHO message?
_____________________Sight select FCR D=116________
M151 Warhead HE is _________________________and referred to as the "________________".
anti-personnel, anti-material, 10 pounder (ARS SH pg D-25)
1. When the Independent mode is used, only the ________ crewmember's trigger is active.
actuators D-33
What does Terrain Profile Mode (TPM) provide?
aid to navigation D-129
When is the NTS target established?
completion of first scan D-67
How is the MMA cooled?
cooling fan D-26_________________________
What happens to the NTS if the crew actions a weapon system during a scan?
dashed first scan solid at end of scan burst D_76
Which crewmember has control of the FCR page Target (TGT) option?
either D-105
What ground speed will cause the TPM coverage to change from Wide to Narrow scan width?
exceed 55Knots D-132
Where can the crew access information as to the status of the Sighting System
fault page D-140
1. Interior ballistics deals with characteristics that affect projectile motion inside the _______ or _______.
gun barrel rocket tube D-36
The altitude from which the projectile is fired and range to target determines ___________ and ________________.
impact pattern, fragmentation pattern (3-04.3 para C-54)
1. Due to the possibility of surging engines, do not fire rockets from the ______________ stations. Fire no more than ________ with two outboard launchers every _______ seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions.
inboard pairs 3 D-20
The STORES JETTISON panel allows for ________ jettison of wing stores while the emergency JETT pushbutton will jettison all stores
individual D-11
On preflight, the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure __________________.
jettison will occur properly (ARS SH D-11)
When initiating internal boresight the sight is automatically set to _____ and the sensor will be set to ____ and the FOV to _______.
the sight is automatically set to _____ and the sensor will be set to ____ and the FOV to _______.DTV Narrow (MTADS SH D 67)
When firing a SAL missile autonomously an offset of 3º to 5º, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile flying through the FOV of the TADS
to prevent the video from being obscured by the missile's exhaust.
1. The LOBL missile in constraints (solid) box is only displayed when the next missile to be fired is y it was coded with from el and when the aircrew aligns the aircraft centerline within 20° of the designated target.
tracking laser energ / the priority channel
Upon completion of a FCR scan, the targets are displayed in "full intensity". What does this mean to the crew?
updated or new D-66__
What are the two Single Target Track (STT) requirements?
zoom continuos scan D-82_______
Wing Stores Pylons are commanded to the single fixed position of _____ degrees when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than ____ seconds
. +4, 5 (ARS SH D-09)
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ______ with two _________ launchers every _____ seconds or fire with only _____ outboard launcher installed without restrictions
. Pair, outboard, 3, one (ARS SH D-20)(-10 p 4-147)
What is the elevation of the gun in the FIXED mode?
.87 (-10 p 4-121)
Describe the four T's
1. Target, Torque, Trim Target (3-04.3 page 12-9)(ATM 4-150)
Arming of the Hellfire missile is based on a _____ acceleration and occurs between ____________ meters after launch.
10g legacy 150 to 300 enhance 375 to 500 (supplement to GM)
The bursting radius of the M151 HE "10 Pounder" is __________ and can produce a lethality radius in excess of __________.
10m 50 m (SH D-25)
What is the capacity of the 30mm ammo handling system?
1200 rounds max (AWS SH D-5)
Engagement at greater than _______________can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.
2,000 meters (TC3-04.3 p12-28, para 12-153)
The M789 HEDP can penetrate in excess of _________ of RHA at ____________.
2in 2.5 k (SH D-15)
The PEN button on the rocket control page may be used to defeat bunkers up to ________ thick when the BNK is selected.
3 meters (9.84ft) (ARS SH D-21)
When rockets are selected in the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to the fixed position of ______ degrees.
3.48 (SH D-10)
Low-altitude bump maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a ____ to _____ foot bump about _____ to _____ meters prior to the target.
300 to 1000, 1.5 to 2K (ATM task 2033)
The warning regarding 30mm stoppage states: If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding _____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____________. Crewmembers should ____________________________________.
300, ten minutes, 30 minutes, remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control (-10 p4-144)
During live fire testing shows that rockets achieve their best effectiveness between ___________________________.
3000 to 5000 meters (ARS SH pg D-8)
At approximately ____ knots indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to
33, zero (3-04.3 C-21 3-04.3)
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a ________ radius
4 meter (SH D-15)
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the target should be located _____ to _____ meters in front of the aircraft
500 to 1500 meters (AWS SH D-64)
The 30mm AWS is limited to _______ degrees with rockets actioned and ____ degrees on the side of the next missile to be fired with missiles actioned when on the inboard pylon.
60, 52 (AWS SH D-23)
What is the rate of fire for the 30 mm cannon?
625 +/- 25 (AWS SH D-26)
What is the Maximum range for MK66 rockets?
7500 meters (ARS SH D-48)
How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?
888 (AWS SH D-69)
What is angular rate error and how do you prevent or minimize it?
Angular rate error is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. Steady platform. (3-04.3 p C-9)
What are the 30mm Gun turret azimuth and elevation limits (opposite crew member not action weapon)?
Azimuth 86° left and right of aircraft centerline Elevation 1) +9° within 10° left and right of aircraft centerline 2) +11° from 10° left and right of aircraft centerline to 86° left and right Depression 1) -6.45° within 86° left and right of aircraft centerline (AWS SH D-20)
What are the Interior Ballistics?
Barrel Wear, Propellant Charges, Projectile Weight, Launcher Tube and Rocket Pod Alignment, Thrust Misalignment (3-04.3 C-5&6)
What are the three types of pull-off per dATM?
Descending, Level, Climbing (ATM task 2033 p 4-151)
What are the most frequent situational awareness breakdown categories?
Direct fire control, Navigation, Reporting, Crosstalk, Battle tracking, Weapon errors (3-04.3 p10-1)
What types of control measures may be employed to prevent fratricide?
Direct fire weapon, Indirect fire, Rehearsals, Graphics, ROC-V (3-04.3 page 10-3 10-4)
If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings, the individual points of impact will be scattered about the aim point. The degree of scatter of these rounds is called _____________.
Dispersion (3-04.3 C-1)
What is the "WARNING" associated with failure of adherence to the 30mm Gun Duty Cycle?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death. (-10, V4.1 pg 4-142)
In the event of a ____________indication, and a corresponding ________________ or _______________, the gun will be stowed in elevation and will remain at the last commanded azimuth angle. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.
GUN FAIL, GUN AZMIUTH MISTRACK, GUN ELEVATION MISTRACK (-10 P 4-142 WARNING)
What are the negative effects of fratricide?
Hesitation to conduct limited-visibility operations. Loss of confidence in the unit's leadership. Increase of leader self-doubt. Hesitation to use supporting combat systems. Over supervision of units. Loss of initiative. Loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver. Disrupted operations. Needless loss of combat power. General degradation of cohesion and morale. (3-04.3 p 10-3 papa 10-14)
The M789 HEDP 30mm round is an _______________ , _______________ round, and will penetrate of more than ________ (______________) of RHA at ___________.
High Explosive, Dual Purpose, 2 inches, Rolled Homogenous Armor, 2500m (AWS SH D-15)
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page?
LMP, YES (ARS SH pg D-12)
May crewmembers use friendly affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations?
NO (ATM page 4-191)
What is it called when projectile drift and trajectory shift combine with each other?
Port/ starboard effect (3-04.3 page C-12)
What is projectile jump and when does it occur when firing from a hover?
Projectile jump occurs when a crew fires a weapon from an aircraft in flight and the weapon's muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind (figure C-14). Projectile jump begins when the projectile experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle. The jump occurs due to the precession (change in axis of rotation) induced by crosswind. The amount of jumps is proportional to the projectile's initial yaw. Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump. Compensation is not required when the gunner fires from a hover. (3-04.3 C-51 P C-13)
__________________ is the real-time accurate knowledge of one's own location and orientation, as well as the locations of friendly forces, enemy forces, and noncombatants. _________________includes awareness of the METT-T conditions that affect the operation.
Situational awareness, situational awareness (3-04.3 para 10-2)
1. What are the two types of fire?
The two types of fire are direct and indirect (3-04.3 para 12-6)
Two electrical connectors on the top of the launcher provide fuzing and firing interface. The forward connector provides _________. The aft connector provides __________.
the fuzing, the firing circuit (ARS SH pg D-11)
