Gynecologic Emergencies Practice Questions, Chapter 31 EMT, Chapter 32 EMT
28. Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: A. tenting. B. retracting. C. hyperpnea. D. accessory muscle use.
28. Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: A. tenting. B. retracting. C. hyperpnea. D. accessory muscle use.
Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: A. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. B. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes.
A
EMTs treating a patient of a sexual assault may not only be dealing with medical issues, but with _____ issues as well. A. psychological B. physiological C. educational D. sociological
A
Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. fallopian tube. B. vagina. C. cervix. D. uterus.
A
In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.
A
In rare cases, _____ causes arthritis that may be accompanied with skin lesions and inflammation of the eyes and urethra. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. PID D. vaginal bleeding
A
It is not uncommon for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. C. have a falsely positive home pregnancy test result. D. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.
A
Often the most important intervention for sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. A. comforting reassurance B. excellent assessment skills C. bandaging skills D. emotional sympathy
A
The "PID Shuffle" refers to: A. a distinctive gait when the patient walks. B. rotation of the microorganisms that cause PID. C. symptoms that come and go. D. a structural that come and go.
A
When a female has reached menarche: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.
A
Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. B. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape. C. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. D. Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm.
A
You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. Your first course of action should be to: A. determine whether the patient is physically injured. B. establish the exact events of what took place. C. allow the patient to use the restroom. D. let the police question the patient before conducting a primary assessment.
A
23. A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. B. position her supine and elevate her legs 12″. C. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1112
41. During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. C. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. D. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1120
52. You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1126
58. Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: A. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. D. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1128
49. A child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. visualize the child's airway. C. perform a blind finger sweep. D. give oxygen and transport at once.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1171
50. An 8-year-old female with a history of asthma continues to experience severe respiratory distress despite being given multiple doses of her prescribed albuterol by her mother. She is conscious, but clearly restless. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. She is receiving high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. You should: A. be prepared to assist her ventilations, transport at once, and request an ALS intercept en route to the hospital. B. continue high-flow oxygen therapy, contact medical control, and request permission to administer more albuterol. C. begin immediate ventilation assistance and ensure that you squeeze the bag forcefully in order to open her bronchioles. D. begin chest compressions if she becomes unresponsive and her heart rate falls below 80 beats/min.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1171
4. The term "bloody show" is defined as: A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug. B. mild vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 30 minutes after the onset of the second stage of the labor process. C. the normal amount of vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 24 hours following delivery of the baby and placenta. D. any volume of blood that is expelled from the vagina after the amniotic sac has ruptured and contractions have begun.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108
5. Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. B. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus. C. The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born. D. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108
20. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: A. headache and edema. B. marked hypoglycemia. C. dyspnea and bradycardia. D. dysuria and constipation.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
26. Abruptio placenta occurs when: A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112
36. During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because: A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit. B. the mother needs to be apprised of the situation. C. she may need emotional support during the delivery. D. mothers often need assisted ventilation during delivery.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119
40. During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. B. it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx. C. babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. D. the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120
45. After a baby is born, it is important to: A. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed. B. position it so that its head is higher than its body. C. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing. D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1123
51. Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if: A. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid. B. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated. C. the newborn presents with labored breathing. D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1126
57. Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct? A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part. B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation. C. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting. D. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1128
59. The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1128-1129
62. An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: A. 20 weeks. B. 24 weeks. C. 26 weeks. D. 28 weeks.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1129
66. In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant: A. has an even proportionately larger head. B. is often covered with excess vernix material. C. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation. D. retains heat better because of excess body hair.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131
1. The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: A. neonatal period. B. toddler period. C. start of infancy. D. premature phase.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149
3. A child may begin to show signs of separation anxiety as early as: A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149
4. Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: A. at the feet. B. at the head. C. in the ambulance. D. en route to the hospital.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1150
7. When assessing or treating an adolescent patient, it is important to remember that: A. they usually do not wish to be observed during a procedure. B. it is generally not necessary to explain procedures in advance. C. they often request medication to help in the relief of severe pain. D. they cannot understand complex concepts and treatment options.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153
10. Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the: A. intercostal muscles are not well developed. B. rib cage is rigid and provides little flexibility. C. abdominal organs force the diaphragm upward. D. upper airway is smaller and easily collapsible.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154
14. Compared to adults, the liver and spleen of pediatric patients are more prone to injury and bleeding because they are: A. proportionately larger and situated more anteriorly. B. more vascular despite the fact that they are proportionately smaller. C. spaced further apart, which causes them to shift following trauma. D. lower in the abdominal cavity, where the muscles are not as strong.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155
17. The components of the PAT are: A. appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation. B. mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure. C. skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness. D. activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158
21. Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cyanosis. B. tachypnea. C. retractions. D. abnormal airway noise.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1159
29. A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial upper airway obstruction is called: A. stridor. B. rhonchi. C. grunting. D. wheezing.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162
32. After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within: A. 2 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 5 seconds.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162
36. If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ lb. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1164
37. Which of the following inquiries should you make in private when obtaining a SAMPLE history from an adolescent patient? A. sexual activity B. past medical history C. change in bladder habits D. duration of symptoms
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1165
39. Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167
40. Which of the following represents a low normal systolic blood pressure for a 6-year-old child? A. 82 mm Hg B. 88 mm Hg C. 90 mm Hg D. 98 mm Hg
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167
42. An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: A. grunting. B. wheezing. C. assuming a tripod position. D. retracting the intercostal muscles.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168
44. A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: A. croup. B. asthma. C. bronchitis. D. epiglottitis.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1169
46. Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. wheezing. B. a weak cough. C. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal. D. stridorous breathing.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170
54. Which of the following statements regarding the use of nasopharyngeal airways in children is correct? A. They are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year. B. It is the recommended adjunct for children with head trauma. C. They are usually not well tolerated in children with a gag reflex. D. Blanching of the nares after insertion indicates correct placement.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1175
58. When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: A. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup. B. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face. C. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen. D. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176
59. When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-mask device, the EMT should: A. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. B. squeeze the bag 40 times/min when ventilating an infant. C. ensure that he or she uses a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months. D. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1177
72. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sunken fontanelles. B. headache and fever. C. a stiff or painful neck. D. an altered mental status.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1183
73. Children with N meningitides would MOST likely present with: A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash. B. a low-grade fever and tachycardia. C. hypothermia and an irregular pulse. D. a generalized rash with intense itching.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1183
74. The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: A. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight. B. are more obvious than in the adult population. C. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion. D. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184
84. Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are MOST commonly associated with: A. alcohol. B. child abuse. C. hyperthermia. D. swimming pools.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186
89. Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is: A. older than 8 to 10 years. B. complaining of severe back pain. C. immobilized on a long backboard. D. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188
90. The pediatric patient should be removed from his or her car seat and secured to an appropriate spinal immobilization device if: A. the car seat is visibly damaged. B. he or she has no visible injuries. C. his or her vital signs are stable. D. he or she even has a minor injury.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1189
92. When a child experiences a blunt injury to the abdomen: A. he or she can compensate for blood loss better than adults. B. his or her blood pressure falls with as little as 5% blood loss. C. your assessment will most often reveal bruising to the abdomen. D. delayed capillary refill indicates a state of decompensated shock.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192
98. Bruising to the _________ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse. A. shins B. back C. face D. buttocks
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195
99. Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: A. bleeding in the brain. B. multiple open fractures. C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage. D. fracture of the cervical spine.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195
9. By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: A. belly button. B. pubic bone. C. xiphoid process. D. superior diaphragm.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109
42. Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: A. give the mother 100% oxygen and transport at once. B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1122
46. Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A. elevate her legs 6″ to 8″ and cover her with a blanket. B. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. C. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1124
60. While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. carefully push the cord back into the vagina. B. push the infant's head away from the cord. C. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1129
23. You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should: A. begin immediate rescue breathing. B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse. C. perform a head tilt-chin lift maneuver. D. open his airway and look in his mouth.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1160
47. A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: A. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. B. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. C. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition. D. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1170
70. A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. attempt cooling measures, offer oxygen, and transport. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1182
76. A 4-year-old female ingested an unknown quantity of liquid drain cleaner. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert, is breathing adequately, and has skin burns around her mouth. You should: A. place her supine and elevate her legs. B. monitor her airway and give oxygen. C. determine why the ingestion occurred. D. give 12.5 to 25 g of activated charcoal.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1184
81. A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: A. mild dehydration. B. moderate dehydration. C. severe dehydration. D. hypovolemic shock.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1185
2. From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A. vagina B. uterus C. cervix D. perineum
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108
7. The amniotic fluid serves to: A. transfer oxygen to the fetus. B. insulate and protect the fetus. C. remove viruses from the fetus. D. assist in fetal development.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108
16. Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
22. Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: A. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta. B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. D. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112
31. The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. an expected finding in full-term infants. B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116-1117
33. Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? A. rupture of the amniotic sac B. crowning of the baby's head C. irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes D. expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118
43. A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. has separated from the placenta. B. is wrapped around the baby's neck. C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1122
54. If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: A. 7:53. B. 7:57. C. 7:59. D. 8:00.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1127
64. Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. low birth weight. B. profound tachycardia. C. premature delivery. D. respiratory depression.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1130
68. General treatment guidelines when caring for a woman with traumatic vaginal bleeding include: A. carefully removing impaled objects. B. transporting to an appropriate facility. C. packing the vagina with sterile dressings. D. cleaning external wounds with sterile water.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1132
6. When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. D. rely solely on the parent for information.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1152
9. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ______ breaths/min. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154
12. Signs of vasoconstriction in the infant or child include: A. warm, dry skin. B. weak distal pulses. C. a rapid heart rate. D. brisk capillary refill.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155
16. The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: A. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. B. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. C. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. D. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158
22. Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of an semiconscious infant or child, you must: A. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions. B. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions. C. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160
25. To ensure that the airway of an infant or small child is correctly positioned, you may have to: A. place bulky padding behind his or her occiput. B. place a towel or folded sheet behind the shoulders. C. slightly flex the neck to prevent tracheal kinking. D. hyperextend the neck to ensure adequate alignment.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160
31. After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: A. assume the child is hypertensive. B. not rule out compensated shock. C. conclude that the child is stable. D. assess his or her respiratory effort.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162
33. Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than: A. 4 years. B. 6 years. C. 8 years. D. 10 years.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162-1163
45. Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: A. extreme restlessness. B. drooling or congestion. C. skin that is cool and dry. D. acute respiratory distress.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170
51. The MOST efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to: A. estimate the child's weight based on age. B. use a length-based resuscitation tape measure. C. estimate the child's weight based on appearance. D. ask a relative if he or she knows the child's weight.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1173
52. An oropharyngeal airway should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum-based product because it may: A. depress the gag reflex. B. cause the child to vomit. C. result in airway swelling. D. result in a soft-tissue injury.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1173
56. Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: A. an oral airway has been inserted. B. his or her tidal volume is adequate. C. his or her respirations are shallow. D. he or she is breathing inadequately.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176
61. Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of: A. a complete airway obstruction. B. respiratory or circulatory failure. C. a congenital cardiovascular defect. D. lethal cardiac rhythm disturbances.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1179
65. Which of the following is the LEAST reliable assessment parameter to evaluate when determining the presence of shock in infants and children? A. heart rate B. blood pressure C. skin condition D. capillary refill
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180
66. Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. infection. B. hyperglycemia. C. electrolyte imbalances. D. poisonings or ingestion
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182
67. Febrile seizures are MOST common in children between: A. 3 months and 4 years. B. 6 months and 6 years. C. 8 months and 8 years. D. 18 months and 10 years.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182
71. Which of the following groups of people is associated with the lowest risk of meningitis? A. newborns B. females C. geriatrics D. children with shunts
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182
77. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a 20-kg child? A. 12.5 g B. 20 g C. 25 g D. 50 g
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184
80. Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound tachycardia. B. slowed level of activity. C. delayed capillary refill. D. dry mucous membranes.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185
82. The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. chills. B. a rash. C. ear pain. D. a headache.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186
86. When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. C. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. D. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187
91. When a child experiences a blunt chest injury: A. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs. B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking. C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture. D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1190
94. Critical burns in children include: A. any superficial or partial-thickness burn that involves the legs or arms. B. partial-thickness burns covering more than 20% of the body surface. C. second-degree burns covering more than 10% of the body surface. D. superficial burns covering more than 10% to 15% of the body surface.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192
96. Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: A. separating the child from his or her parents. B. positioning, ice packs, and emotional support. C. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible. D. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1193-1194
100. With regard to the legal implications of child abuse: A. child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven. B. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse. C. you should document your perceptions on the run form. D. a supervisor can forbid you from reporting possible abuse.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196
101. When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: A. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. B. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196
105. During the attempted resuscitation of an infant with suspected SIDS: A. discourage the family from observing. B. allow the family to observe if they wish. C. a law enforcement officer must be present. D. give detailed updates to the infant's parents.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1197
63. A common cause of shock in an infant is: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea. C. excessive tachycardia. D. cardiovascular disease.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180
10. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change that occurs in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy? A. decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume B. increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve C. increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand D. increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109
30. If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then: A. tilt the board 30° to the right to prevent hypotension. B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. C. raise the foot of the board 12″ in order to maintain blood pressure. D. elevate the head of the board 6″ to prevent breathing impairment.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116
34. You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should: A. apply 100% oxygen. B. place her on her left side. C. assess her for crowning. D. transport her immediately.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1118
55. You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is: A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1127
56. You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? A. Allow the mother to hold her baby. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse. D. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1127
20. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. B. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. C. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. D. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1158-1159
6. The umbilical cord: A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. D. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108
14. The term primigravida refers to a woman who: A. has never been pregnant. B. has had only one live birth. C. is pregnant for the first time. D. has had more than one live baby.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110
15. Which of the following occurs during true labor? A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. C. Uterine contractions become more regular. D. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
21. Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. B. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. C. seizures that result from severe hypertension. D. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
24. The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: A. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. D. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112
29. A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113
32. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? A. "When are you due?" B. "Is this your first baby?" C. "Have you had a sonogram?" D. "Do you feel the urge to push?"
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1117
39. When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: A. hold her breath. B. push for 30 seconds. C. take quick short breaths. D. rest and breathe deeply.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119
47. Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? A. failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes B. significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta C. return of contractions following delivery of the baby D. more than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124
48. A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth. A. 3 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 15 to 30 D. 30 to 60
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124
49. Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. suctioning of the upper airway. B. thorough drying with a towel. C. positive-pressure ventilations. D. some form of tactile stimulation.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124
63. Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct? A. Twins are typically larger than single infants. B. Identical twins are typically of different gender. C. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other. D. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1130
67. Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: A. begin full resuscitation and transport. B. report the case to the medical examiner. C. provide emotional support to the mother. D. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131
8. Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's anatomy is correct? A. The tracheal rings of a child are more rigid than an adult's. B. A child's tongue is proportionately smaller than an adult's. C. Children have a larger, rounder occiput compared to adults. D. The child's epiglottis is less floppy and smaller than an adult's.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153-1154
11. Pale skin in a child indicates that the: A. child is in severe decompensated shock. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. D. child's core body temperature is elevated.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155
18. After using the PAT to form your general impression of a sick or injured child, you should: A. evaluate the child's baseline vital signs. B. obtain a SAMPLE history from the parents. C. perform a hands-on assessment of the ABCs. D. assess the child's heart rate and skin condition.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158
26. When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: A. observe the chest for rise and fall. B. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent. C. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall. D. give oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 90%.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160
30. When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial pulse or ________ pulse. A. radial B. carotid C. femoral D. popliteal
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162
38. The secondary assessment of a sick or injured child: A. is a rapid head-to-toe exam to detect life threats. B. should be performed, regardless of the circumstances. C. may not be possible if the child's condition is critical. D. is most appropriate when your transport time is short.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1166
41. Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: A. cyanosis. B. bradycardia. C. restlessness. D. decreased LOC.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168
48. Signs of a severe airway obstruction in an infant or child include: A. pink, dry skin. B. crying and anxiety. C. an ineffective cough. D. mild respiratory distress.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1171
55. If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may: A. result in tachycardia. B. push the tongue anteriorly. C. stimulate the vagus nerve. D. become obstructed by mucus.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176
57. Which of the following children would benefit the LEAST from a nonrebreathing mask? A. a conscious 4-year-old male with adequate tidal volume B. a responsive 6-year-old male who responds appropriately C. an unresponsive 5-year-old male with shallow respirations D. a semiconscious 7-year-old female with normal ventilation
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176
62. In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: A. irritability of the left ventricle. B. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia. C. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. D. acute hypoxia and tachycardia.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180
68. In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by: A. a blank stare, a duration of between 15 and 30 minutes, and a prolonged postictal phase. B. unresponsiveness, complete body relaxation, a fever greater than 105°F, and a short postictal phase. C. generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent postictal phase. D. isolated tonic-clonic activity, a duration of greater than 15 minutes, and a short postictal phase.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182
75. When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence? A. What time did the ingestion occur? B. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Do you know what substance was ingested?
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184
78. The MOST common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is: A. high fever. B. internal blood loss. C. vomiting and diarrhea. D. refusal to drink fluids.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185
85. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is correct? A. Children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car. B. A child's head is less frequently injured than an adult's. C. Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries. D. Inexperience and poor judgment are rare causes of pediatric trauma.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187
95. Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: A. the growth plate is commonly injured. B. their bones are more brittle than an adult's. C. their bones bend more easily than an adult's. D. twisting injuries are more common in children.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1193
97. Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? A. evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene B. burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution C. consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver D. an unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195
102. Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. C. Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196
103. Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? A. mother younger than 20 years B. low birth weight C. putting a baby to sleep on his or her back D. mother smoked during pregnancy
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196
64. Blood loss in a child exceeding _____ of his or her total blood volume significantly increases the risk of shock. A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 35%
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180
1. Which of the following processes occurs during ovulation? A. Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity. B. The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina. C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation. D. Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1107
28. Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct? A. Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery. B. The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia. C. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections. D. Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113
37. A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: A. have gestational diabetes. B. are younger than 30 years of age. C. have delivered a baby before. D. are pregnant for the first time.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119
44. Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. give 100% oxygen to the mother and transport at once. C. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.
Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1122
35. You respond to a skate park where a 10-year-old male fell from his skateboard and struck his head on the ground; he was not wearing a helmet. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has a large hematoma to the back of his head. After your partner stabilizes his head and opens his airway, you assess his breathing and determine that it is slow and irregular. His pulse is slow and bounding. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, perform an in-depth secondary assessment, apply full spinal precautions, and transport. B. insert an oral airway, hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device, apply full spinal precautions, and transport to the closest trauma center. C. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, obtain baseline vital signs, apply full spinal precautions, and perform a secondary assessment. D. assist his ventilations, be prepared to suction his mouth if he vomits, apply full spinal precautions, and prepare for immediate transport to a trauma center.
Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1164
3. The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: A. womb. B. cervix. C. fundus. D. birth canal.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108
12. A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: A. 4 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours. D. 16 hours.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110
13. The onset of labor begins with: A. thinning of the uterus. B. full dilation of the cervix. C. increased fetal movement. D. contractions of the uterus
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110
18. The third stage of labor begins when the: A. placenta is fully delivered. B. cervix is completely dilated. C. umbilical cord has been clamped. D. baby is expelled from the vagina.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
25. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. preeclampsia. B. placenta previa. C. gestational diabetes. D. an ectopic pregnancy.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112
27. Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. B. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. C. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112
35. When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. on her left side with the right leg elevated. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12″. D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118
38. When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A. end of one to the start of the next. B. start of one to the end of the next. C. end of one to the end of the next. D. start of one to the start of the next.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119
53. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? A. pulse B. activity C. grimace D. body size
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1126-1127
65. An infant is considered to be premature if it: A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb. B. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation. C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb. D. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131
2. Which of the following statements regarding a 3-month-old infant is correct? A. The infant is unable to turn his or her head and focus. B. The infant should be aroused easily from a sleeping state. C. At this age, the infant typically sleeps for up to 8 hours a day. D. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149
5. Which of the following statements regarding preschool-age children is correct? A. They realize that injuries are not a form of punishment. B. Preschoolers are usually not fearful of pain or separation. C. The preschool age begins after the child turns 2 years old. D. They can usually identify painful areas when questioned.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1151
13. Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct? A. Because of a child's proportionately large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults. B. The majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis. C. Most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur between the first and second cervical vertebrae. D. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155
15. The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age, and the suture of the posterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age. A. 2, 4 B. 6, 12 C. 12, 4 D. 18, 6
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1156
19. A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by: A. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color. B. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact. C. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time. D. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158
24. Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: A. put padding behind his or her head. B. thoroughly suction his or her airway. C. rule out an injury to the spinal cord. D. place him or her on a firm surface.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160
27. All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT: A. quiet breathing. B. fear or anxiety. C. belly breathing. D. head bobbing.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1161
34. Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she: A. is experiencing mild to moderate pain. B. falls from a height greater than 5′. C. has a possible closed fracture of the radius. D. has a history suggestive of a serious illness.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1164
43. The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is: A. pallor. B. retractions. C. nasal flaring. D. bradycardia.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1169
53. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should: A. place padding under the child's head. B. ensure that his or her neck is hyperextended. C. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth. D. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1174
60. The MOST accurate method for determining if you are delivering adequate tidal volume to a child during bag-mask ventilations is to: A. monitor the child's heart rate. B. observe the child's skin color. C. monitor the pulse oximeter reading. D. observe the chest for adequate rise.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1178
69. Febrile seizures in a child: A. typically last less than 30 minutes. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. are usually caused by viral meningitis. D. may indicate a serious underlying illness.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182
79. An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: A. excessive tearing. B. moist oral mucosa. C. bulging fontanelles. D. absent urine output.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185
83. Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature: A. of more than 2°F to 3°F per hour. B. secondary to a severe bacterial infection. C. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. D. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186
87. Which of the following is MORE common in children than in adults following a head injury? A. spinal cord injury B. loss of consciousness C. seizures and hypoxia D. nausea and vomiting
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187
88. When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: A. secure the head before the torso. B. slide the device under the child. C. pad underneath the child's head. D. secure the torso before the head.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188
93. Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hot items on a stovetop. B. scalding water in a bathtub. C. exposure to caustic chemicals. D. entrapment in a structural fire.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192
104. Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. child abuse. B. meningitis. C. severe infection. D. hyperglycemia.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196
11. Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: A. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery. B. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. pregnancy causes a decreased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109
8. Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: A. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle. B. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. C. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109
17. After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: A. midback pain. B. a bloated feeling. C. an urge to push. D. easier breathing.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
19. Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ____ week of gestation. A. 12th B. 20th C. 24th D. 30th
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111
50. If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should: A. flick the soles of its feet. B. begin chest compressions. C. resuction the mouth only. D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1125
61. Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: A. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. B. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly. C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis. D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1129
A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: A. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport.
B
As a woman approaches menopause: A. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. B. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. C. her risk of developing PID lowers significantly. D. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels.
B
If a patient with vaginal bleeding present with a rapid pulse and pale or cool skin, you should: A. attempt to locate the source of bleeding and correct it. B. place the patient in a supine position with her legs elevated. C. consider this to be a normal sign in a menstruating woman. D. inquire about recent problems with urination.
B
Painful urination associated with burning and a yellowish discharge is assocated with: A. chlamydia. B. gonorrhea. C. endometriosis. D. syphilis.
B
Potentially life-threatening consequences of PID include: A. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia. B. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy. C. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea. D. uterine rupture with severe bleeding.
B
The onset of menstruation usually occurs between the ages of: A. 8 and 10 years. B. 11 and 16 years. C. 16 and 18 years. D. 17 and 20 years.
B
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B. has gathered patient history information. C. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. D. has formed a general impression of the patient.
B
Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge? A. PID B. genital herpes C. chlamydia D. gonorrhea
B
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding assessment and treatment of a woman who was the victim of sexual assault? A. You may be called to testify in court regarding the incident B. You should question the victim thoroughly about the assaulter in case the police missed any details C. The patient should be given the option of being treated by a female responder D. The patient should be discouraged from urinating or changing her clothes prior to examination at the hospital
B
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for PID? A. a history of ectopic pregnancy B. a shuffling gait when walking C. bright red blood in the urine D. vaginal passage of blood clots
B
General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. B. treating external lacerations with moist, sterile compresses. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. supplemental oxygen and lower extremity elevation.
C
If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she: A. is pregnant. B. has an infection. C. is in shock. D. has an ectopic pregnancy.
C
In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: A. sheds and is expelled externally. B. diverts blood flow to the vagina. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. thins and begins to separate.
C
Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. C. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. D. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative.
C
Left untreated, _____ can lead to premature birth or low birth weight in pregnant women. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. bacterial vaginosis D. vaginal bleeding
C
When taking a history on a patient experiencing a gynecologic emergency, you should consider asking all of the following EXCEPT: A. Are you taking birth control? B. When was your last menstrual period? C. How many sexual partners have you has in the past? D. Do you have any history of sexually transmitted diseases?
C
Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist. B. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes. C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT. D. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.
C
Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with PID? A. left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness
C
Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever. B. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months after being infected. C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women. D. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms.
C
You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. The second course of action involves the psychological care of the patient. You should avoid: A. making attempts to get a female EMT to examine the patient. B. examination of the vaginal canal, even if active bleeding is taking place. C. attempting to gather information to assist the police. D. granting the patient's wishes for refusing care and transport.
C
Your _____ is the best tool to gain the patient's confidence to seek medical help. A. professionalism B. content knowledge C. compassion D. empathy
C
During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
D
PID typically does NOT affect the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. fallopian tubes. D. urinary bladder.
D
Possible causes of vaginal bleeding include all of the following EXCEPT: A. ectopic pregnancy. B. cervical polyps. C. vaginal trauma. D. peptic ulcer.
D
Rape is considered to be a _____ diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. A. psychological B surgical C. sociological D. legal
D
The most common presenting sign of PID is: A. vaginal discharge. B. fever. C. nausea and vomiting. D. lower abdominal pain.
D
The onset of menstruation is called menarche and usually occurs in women who are: A. between 25 and 35 years of age. B. between 12 and 14 years of age. C. between 45 and 50 years of age. D. between 11 and 16 years of age.
D
The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
D
When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem. B. ask questions related to her gynecologic history. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
D
When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: A. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses. B. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical C. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement. D. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
D
When performing a physical exam on a victim of sexual assault, you should: A. expose and evaluate the patient's vaginal area regardless of whether there is bleeding. B. allow multiple people to observe the examination in case you have to testify. C. limit your examination to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. D. place the patient's clothes into a paper bag.
D
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated? A. genital herpes B. ovarian cysts C. ectopic pregnancy D. chlamydia
D
Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? A. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. B. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. C. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. D. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
D
You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. The patient tells you that she would really like to be transported to the hospital but refuses a physical examination. You should: A. explain to her that she cannot be transported without a physical exam. B. have the police take the patient into custody in order to legally force a physical exam. C. explain to her that this is a criminal case and that she must be examined. D. follow your system's refusal of treatment policy and respect the patient's wishes without judgement.
D