H360 Final Exam

16. Which statement provides the best rationale for closely monitoring a severely depressed patient during antidepressant medication therapy? a. As depression lifts, physical energy becomes available to carry out suicide. b. Patients who previously had suicidal thoughts need to discuss their feelings. c. For most patients, antidepressant medication results in increased suicidal thinking. d. Suicide is an impulsive act. Antidepressant medication does not alter impulsivity.

ANS: A Antidepressant medication has the objective of relieving depression. Risk for suicide is greater as the depression lifts, primarily because the patient has more physical energy at a time when he or she may still have suicidal ideation. The other options have little to do with nursing interventions relating to antidepressant medication therapy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 486-487 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

21. The feeling experienced by a patient that should be assessed by the nurse as most predictive of elevated suicide risk is a. hopelessness. b. sadness. c. elation. d. anger.

ANS: A Of the feelings listed, hopelessness is most closely associated with increased suicide risk. Depression, aggression, impulsivity, and shame are other feelings noted as risk factors for suicide. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 487-490 (Table 25-3) and (Nursing Care Plan 25-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

18. A depressed patient says, Nothing matters anymore. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. Are you having thoughts of suicide? b. I am not sure I understand what you are trying to say. c. Try to stay hopeful. Things have a way of working out. d. Tell me more about what interested you before you became depressed.

ANS: A The nurse must make overt what is covert; that is, the possibility of suicide must be openly addressed. The patient often feels relieved to be able to talk about suicidal ideation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 486-487 | Page 488-490 (Nursing Care Plan 25-1) and (Table 25-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

9. A college student who attempted suicide by overdose was hospitalized. When the parents were contacted, they responded, We should have seen this coming. We did not do enough. The parents reaction reflects: a. guilt. b. denial. c. shame. d. rescue feelings.

ANS: A The parents statements indicate guilt. Guilt is evident from the parents self-chastisement. The feelings suggested in the distracters are not clearly described in the scenario. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 493-494 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

11. It has been 5 days since a suicidal patient was hospitalized and prescribed an antidepressant medication. The patient is now more talkative and shows increased energy. Select the highest priority nursing intervention. a. Supervise the patient 24 hours a day. b. Begin discharge planning for the patient. c. Refer the patient to art and music therapists. d. Consider discontinuation of suicide precautions.

ANS: A The patient now has more energy and may have decided on suicide, especially given the prior suicide attempt history. The patient must be supervised 24 hours per day. The patient is still a suicide risk. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 486-487 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

24. After one of their identical twin daughters commits suicide, the parents express concern that the other twin may also have suicidal tendencies. Which reply should the nurse provide? a. Genetics are associated with suicide risk. Monitoring and support are important. b. Apathy underlies suicide. Instilling motivation is the key to health maintenance. c. Your child is unlikely to act out suicide when identifying with a suicide victim. d. Fraternal twins are at higher risk for suicide than identical twins.

ANS: A Twin studies suggest the presence of genetic factors in suicide; however, separating genetic predisposition to suicide from predisposition to depression or alcoholism is difficult. Primary interventions can be helpful in promoting and maintaining health and possibly counteracting genetic load. The incorrect options are untrue statements or an oversimplification. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 483-484 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

20. An advanced practice nurse determines a group of patients would benefit from therapy in which peers and interdisciplinary staff all have a voice in determining the level of the patients' privileges. The nurse would arrange for: a. milieu therapy b. cognitive therapy c. short-term dynamic therapy d. systematic desensitization

ANS: A Milieu therapy is based on the idea that all members of the environment contribute to the planning and functioning of the setting. The other therapies are all individual therapies that do not fit the description. REF: Page: 42

13. A student nurse tells the instructor, "I don't need to interact with my patients. I learn what I need to know by observation." The instructor can best interpret the nursing implications of Sullivan's theory to the student by responding: a. "nurses cannot be isolated. We must interact to provide patients with opportunities to practice interpersonal skills." b. "observing patient interactions can help you formulate priority nursing diagnoses and appropriate interventions." c. "I wonder how accurate your assessment of the patient's needs can be if you do not interact with the patient." d. "noting patient behavioral changes is important because these signify changes in personality."

ANS: A Sullivan believed that the nurse's role includes educating patients and assisting them in developing effective interpersonal relationships. Mutuality, respect for the patient, unconditional acceptance, and empathy are cornerstones of Sullivan's theory. The nurse who does not interact with the patient cannot demonstrate these cornerstones. Observations provide only objective data. Priority nursing diagnoses usually cannot be accurately established without subjective data from the patient. The third response pertains to Maslow's theory. The fourth response pertains to behavioral theory. REF: Page: 26|Pages: 37-38

14. A psychiatric technician says, "Little of what takes place on the behavioral health unit seems to be theory based." A nurse educates the technician by identifying which common use of Sullivan's theory? a. Structure of the therapeutic milieu of most behavioral health units b. Frequent use of restraint and seclusion as behavior management tools c. Assessment tools based on ageappropriate versus arrested behaviors d. Method nurses use to determine the best sequence for nursing actions

ANS: A The structure of the therapeutic environment has, as its foci, an accepting atmosphere and provision of opportunities for practicing interpersonal skills. Both constructs are directly attributable to Sullivan's theory of interpersonal relationships. Sullivan's interpersonal theory did not specifically consider the use of restraint or seclusion. Assessment based on the developmental level is more the result of Erikson's theories. Sequencing nursing actions based on the priority of patient needs is related to Maslow's hierarchy of needs. REF: Page: 26|Pages: 37-38

2. Which nursing interventions will be implemented for a patient who is actively suicidal? Select all that apply. a. Maintain arms-length, one-on-one direct observation at all times. b. Check all items brought by visitors and remove risk items. c. Use plastic eating utensils; count utensils upon collection. d. Remove the patients eyeglasses to prevent self-injury. e. Interact with the patient every 15 minutes.

ANS: A, B, C One-on-one observation is necessary for anyone who has limited or unreliable control over suicidal impulses. Finger foods allow the patient to eat without silverware; no silver or glassware orders restrict access to a potential means of self-harm. Every-15-minute checks are inadequate to assure the safety of an actively suicidal person. Placement in a public area is not a substitute for arms-length direct observation; some patients will attempt suicide even when others are nearby. Vision impairment requires eyeglasses (or contacts); although they could be used dangerously, watching the patient from arms length at all times would allow enough time to interrupt such an attempt and would prevent the disorientation and isolation that uncorrected visual impairment could create. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 491-492 (Table 25-5) and (Box 25-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A nurse assesses five newly hospitalized patients. Which patients have the highest suicide risk? Select all that apply. a. 82-year-old white male b. 17-year-old white female c. 22-year-old Hispanic male d. 19-year-old Native American male e. 39-year-old African American male

ANS: A, B, D Whites have suicide rates almost twice those of non-whites, and the rate is particularly high for older adult males, adolescents, and young adults. Other high-risk groups include young African American males, Native American males, and older Asian Americans. Rates are not high for Hispanic males. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 481-485 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

2. A patient states, "I'm starting cognitive behavioral therapy. What can I expect from the sessions?" Which responses by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. "The therapist will be active and questioning." b. "You may be given homework assignments." c. "The therapist will ask you to describe your dreams." d. "The therapist will help you look at ideas and beliefs you have about yourself." e. "The goal is to increase your subjectivity about thoughts that govern your behavior."

ANS: A, B, D Cognitive therapists are active rather than passive during therapy sessions because they help patients to reality test their thinking. Homework assignments are given and completed outside the therapy sessions. Homework is usually discussed at the next therapy session. The goals of cognitive therapy are to assist the patient to identify inaccurate cognitions, to reality test their thinking, and to formulate new, accurate cognitions. Dream describing applies to psychoanalysis, not cognitive behavioral therapy. The desired outcome of cognitive therapy is to assist patients in increasing their objectivity, not subjectivity, about the cognitions that influence behavior. REF: Pages: 32-33|Pages: 37-38

10. Select the most critical question for the nurse to ask an adolescent who has threatened to take an overdose of pills. a. Why do you want to kill yourself? b. Do you have access to medications? c. Have you been taking drugs and alcohol? d. Did something happen with your parents?

ANS: B The nurse must assess the patients access to means to carry out the plan and, if there is access, alert the parents to remove from the home and take additional actions to assure the patients safety. The information in the other questions may be important to ask but are not the most critical. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 483 (Box 25-2) | Page 486-487 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

5. A college student who failed two tests cried for hours and then tried to telephone a parent but got no answer. The student then gave several expensive sweaters to a roommate and asked to be left alone for a few hours. Which behavior provides the strongest clue of an impending suicide attempt? a. Calling parents b. Excessive crying c. Giving away sweaters d. Staying alone in dorm room

ANS: C Giving away prized possessions may signal that the individual thinks he or she will have no further need for the item, such as when a suicide plan has been formulated. Calling parents, remaining in a dorm, and crying do not provide direct clues to suicide. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 486-487 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

20. When assessing a patients plan for suicide, what aspect has priority? a. Patients financial and educational status b. Patients insight into suicidal motivation c. Availability of means and lethality of method d. Quality and availability of patients social support

ANS: C If a person has plans that include choosing a method of suicide readily available and if the method is one that is lethal (i.e., will cause the person to die with little probability for intervention), the suicide risk is high. These areas provide a better indication of risk than the areas mentioned in the other options. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 486-487 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

15. Which intervention will the nurse recommend for the distressed family and friends of someone who has committed suicide? a. Participating in reminiscence therapy b. Psychological postmortem assessment c. Attending a self-help group for survivors d. Contracting for at least two sessions of group therapy

ANS: C Survivors need outlets for their feelings about the loss and the deceased person. Self-help groups provide peer support while survivors work through feelings of loss, anger, and guilt. Psychological postmortem assessment would not provide the support necessary to work through feelings of loss associated with the suicide. Reminiscence therapy is not geared to loss resolution. Contracting for two sessions of group therapy would not provide sufficient time to work through the issues associated with a death by suicide. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 493-494 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

12. A nurse and patient construct a no-suicide contract. Select the preferable wording. a. I will not try to harm myself during the next 24 hours. b. I will not make a suicide attempt while I am hospitalized. c. For the next 24 hours, I will not in any way attempt to harm or kill myself. d. I will not kill myself until I call my primary nurse or a member of the staff.

ANS: C The correct answer leaves no loopholes. The wording about not harming oneself and not making an attempt leaves loopholes or can be ignored by the patient who thinks I am not going to harm myself, I am going to kill myself or I am not going to attempt suicide, I am going to commit suicide. A patient may call a therapist and leave the telephone to carry out the suicidal plan. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 491-492 (Table 26-5) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

14. A nurse interacts with an outpatient who has a history of multiple suicide attempts. Select the most helpful response for a nurse to make when the patient states, I am considering committing suicide. a. Im glad you shared this. Please do not worry. We will handle it together. b. I think you should admit yourself to the hospital to keep you safe. c. Bringing up these feelings is a very positive action on your part. d. We need to talk about the good things you have to live for.

ANS: C The correct response gives the patient reinforcement, recognition, and validation for making a positive response rather than acting out the suicidal impulse. It gives neither advice nor false reassurance, and it does not imply stereotypes such as You have a lot to live for. It uses the patients ambivalence and sets the stage for more realistic problem solving. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 484 | Page 488-491 (Nursing Care Plan 25-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

7. A person intentionally overdosed on antidepressants. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a. Powerlessness b. Social isolation c. Risk for suicide d. Compromised family coping

ANS: C This diagnosis is the only one with life-or-death ramifications and is therefore of higher priority than the other options. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 487-490 (Table 25-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis/Analysis MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

17. A nurse assesses a patient who reports a 3-week history of depression and periods of uncontrolled crying. The patient says, My business is bankrupt, and I was served with divorce papers. Which subsequent statement by the patient alerts the nurse to a concealed suicidal message? a. I wish I were dead. b. Life is not worth living. c. I have a plan that will fix everything. d. My family will be better off without me.

ANS: C Verbal clues to suicide may be overt or covert. The incorrect options are overt references to suicide. The correct option is more veiled. It alludes to the patients suicide as being a way to fix everything but does not say it outright. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 485-486 | Page 490 (Table 25-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

23. A cognitive strategy a nurse could use to assist a very dependent patient would be to help the patient: a. reveal dream content. b. take prescribed medications. c. examine thoughts about being independent. d. role model ways to ask for help from others.

ANS: C Cognitive theory suggests that one's thought processes are the basis of emotions and behavior. Changing faulty learning makes the development of new adaptive behaviors possible. Revealing dream content would be used in psychoanalytical therapy. Taking prescribed medications is an intervention associated with biological therapy. A dependent patient needs to develop independence. REF: Pages: 31-32

25. A person received an invitation to be in the wedding of a friend who lives across the country. The individual is afraid of flying. What type of therapy should the nurse recommend? a. Psychoanalysis b. Milieu therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Short-term dynamic therapy

ANS: C Systematic desensitization is a type of therapy aimed at extinguishing a specific behavior, such as the fear of flying. Psychoanalysis and short-term dynamic therapy are aimed at uncovering conflicts. Milieu therapy involves environmental factors. REF: Page: 31

8. A person who attempted suicide by overdose was treated in the emergency department and then hospitalized. The initial outcome is that the patient will: a. verbalize a will to live by the end of the second hospital day. b. describe two new coping mechanisms by the end of the third hospital day. c. accurately delineate personal strengths by the end of first week of hospitalization. d. exercise suicide self-restraint by refraining from attempts to harm self for 24 hours.

ANS: D Suicide self-restraint relates most directly to the priority problem of risk for self-directed violence. The other outcomes are related to hope, coping, and self-esteem. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 487 | Page 492 (Table 25-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Outcomes Identification MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

19. A nurse counsels a patient with recent suicidal ideation. Which is the nurses most therapeutic comment? a. Lets make a list of all your problems and think of solutions for each one. b. Im happy youre taking control of your problems and trying to find solutions. c. When you have bad feelings, try to focus on positive experiences from your life. d. Lets consider which problems are very important and which are less important.

ANS: D The nurse helps the patient develop effective coping skills. Assist the patient to reduce the overwhelming effects of problems by prioritizing them. The incorrect options continue to present overwhelming approaches to problem solving. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 484 | Page 488-489 (Nursing Care Plan 25-1) | Page 491-492 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

2. Four individuals have given information about their suicide plans. Which plan evidences the highest suicide risk? a. Turning on the oven and letting gas escape into the apartment during the night b. Cutting the wrists in the bathroom while the spouse reads in the next room c. Overdosing on aspirin with codeine while the spouse is out with friends d. Jumping from a railroad bridge located in a deserted area late at night

ANS: D This is a highly lethal method with little opportunity for rescue. The other options are lower lethality methods with higher rescue potential. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 486-487 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

3. Which measure would be considered a form of primary prevention for suicide? a. Psychiatric hospitalization of a suicidal patient b. Referral of a formerly suicidal patient to a support group c. Suicide precautions for 24 hours for newly admitted patients d. Helping school children learn to manage stress and be resilient

ANS: D This measure promotes effective coping and reduces the likelihood that such children will become suicidal later in life. Admissions and suicide precautions are secondary prevention measures. Support group referral is a tertiary prevention measure. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 487-488 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

21. A nurse psychotherapist works with an anxious, dependent patient. The therapeutic strategy most consistent with the framework of psychoanalytic psychotherapy is: a. emphasizing medication compliance b. identifying the patient's strengths and assets c. offering psychoeducational materials and groups d. focusing on feelings developed by the patient toward the nurse

ANS: D Positive or negative feelings of the patient toward the nurse or therapist represent transference. Transference is a psychoanalytic concept that can be used to explore previously unresolved conflicts. Emphasizing medication compliance is more related to biological therapy. Identifying patient strengths and assets would be consistent with supportive psychotherapy. The use of psychoeducational materials is a common "homework" assignment used in cognitive therapy. REF: Page: 21

11. A nurse listens to a group of recent retirees. One says, "I volunteer with Meals on Wheels, coach teen sports, and do church visitation." Another laughs and says, "I'm too busy taking care of myself to volunteer. I don't have time to help others." These comments contrast which developmental tasks? a. Trust versus Mistrust b. Industry versus Inferiority c. Intimacy versus Isolation d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption

D (Both retirees are in middle adulthood, when the developmental crisis to be resolved is Generativity versus Self-Absorption. One exemplifies generativity; the other embodies self-absorption. The developmental crisis of Trust versus Mistrust would show a contrast between relating to others in a trusting fashion and being suspicious and lacking trust. Failure to negotiate the developmental crisis of Industry versus Inferiority would result in a sense of inferiority or difficulty learning and working as opposed to the ability to work competently. Behaviors that would be contrasted in the crisis of Intimacy versus Isolation would be emotional isolation and the ability to love and commit to oneself. REF: Pages: 28-30)

3. A 26-month-old child displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often shouts, "No!" when given direction. The nurse's counseling with the parent should be based on the premise that the child is engaged in which of Erikson's psychosocial crises? a. Trust versus Mistrust b. Initiative versus Guilt c. Industry versus Inferiority d. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt

D (The crisis of Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt is related to the developmental task of gaining control of self and environment, as exemplified by toilet training. This psychosocial crisis occurs during the period of early childhood. Trust versus Mistrust is the crisis of the infant, Initiative versus Guilt is the crisis of the preschool and early school-aged child, and Industry versus Inferiority is the crisis of the 6- to 12-year-old child. REF: Pages: 28-30)

3. Which central nervous system structures are most associated with anger and aggression? Select all that apply. a. Amygdala b. Cerebellum c. Basal ganglia d. Temporal lobe e. Prefrontal cortex

a. Amygdala d. Temporal lobe e. Prefrontal cortex The amygdala and prefrontal cortex mediate anger experiences and help a person judge an event as either rewarding or aversive. The temporal lobe, which is part of the limbic system, also plays a role in aggressive behavior. The basal ganglia are involved in movement. The cerebellum manages equilibrium, muscle tone, and movement.

2. A nurse directs the intervention team who places an aggressive patient in seclusion. Before approaching the patient, which actions will the nurse direct team members to take? Select all that apply. a. Appoint a person to clear a path and open, close, or lock doors. b. Quickly approach the patient and take the closest extremity. c. Select the person who will communicate with the patient. d. Move behind the patient when the patient is not looking. e. Remove jewelry, glasses, and harmful items.

a. Appoint a person to clear a path and open, close, or lock doors. c. Select the person who will communicate with the patient. e. Remove jewelry, glasses, and harmful items. Injury to staff and the patient should be prevented. Only one person should explain what will happen and direct the patient. This may be the nurse or a staff member with a good relationship with the patient. A clear pathway is essential because those restraining a limb cannot use keys, move furniture, or open doors. The nurse is usually responsible for administering medication once the patient is restrained. Each staff member should have an assigned limb rather than just grabbing the closest. This system could leave one or two limbs unrestrained. Approaching in full view of the patient reduces suspicion.

11. A child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder will begin medication therapy. The nurse should prepare a plan to teach the family about which classification of medications? a. Central nervous system stimulants c. Antipsychotics b. Tricyclic antidepressants d. Anxiolytics

a. Central nervous system stimulants Central nervous system stimulants, such as methylphenidate and pemoline (Cylert), increase blood flow to the brain and have proved helpful in reducing hyperactivity in children and adolescents with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The other medication categories listed would not be appropriate.

4. Because an intervention was required to control a patients aggressive behavior, the nurse plans a critical incident debriefing with staff members. Which topics should be the primary focus of this discussion? Select all that apply. a. Patient behaviors associated with the incident b. Genetic factors associated with aggression c. Intervention techniques used by the staff d. Effects of environmental factors e. Theories of aggression

a. Patient behaviors associated with the incident c. Intervention techniques used by the staff d. Effects of environmental factors The patients behavior, the intervention techniques used, and the environment in which the incident occurred are important to establish realistic outcomes and effective nursing interventions. Discussing views about the theoretical origins of aggression would be less effective and relevant.

9. The staff development coordinator plans to teach use of physical management techniques for use when patients become assaultive. Which topic should the coordinator emphasize? a. Practice and teamwork c. Caution and superior size b. Spontaneity and surprise d. Diversion and physical outlets

a. Practice and teamwork Intervention techniques are learned behaviors and must be practiced to be used in a smooth, organized fashion. Every member of the intervention team should be assigned a specific task to carry out before beginning the intervention. The other options are useless if the staff does not know how to use physical techniques and how to apply them in an organized fashion.

1. A patient with a history of command hallucinations approaches the nurse yelling obscenities. Which nursing actions are most likely to be effective in de-escalation for this scenario? Select all that apply. a. Stating the expectation that the patient will stay in control b. Asking the patient, Do you want to go into seclusion? c. Telling the patient, You are behaving inappropriately. d. Offering to provide the patient with medication to help e. Speaking in a firm but calm voice

a. Stating the expectation that the patient will stay in control d. Offering to provide the patient with medication to help e. Speaking in a firm but calm voice Stating the expectation that the patient will maintain control of behavior reinforces positive, healthy behavior and avoids challenging the patient. Offering as-needed medication provides support for the patient trying to maintain control. A firm but calm voice will likely comfort and calm the patient. Belittling remarks may lead to aggression. Criticism will probably prompt the patient to begin shouting.

1. Which behavior best demonstrates aggression? a. Stomping away from the nurses station, going to the hallway, and grabbing a tray from the meal cart. b. Bursting into tears, leaving the community meeting, and sitting on a bed hugging a pillow and sobbing. c. Telling the primary nurse, I felt angry when you said I could not have a second helping at lunch. d. Telling the medication nurse, I am not going to take that, or any other, medication you try to give me.

a. Stomping away from the nurses station, going to the hallway, and grabbing a tray from the meal cart. Aggression is harsh physical or verbal action that reflects rage, hostility, and potential for physical or verbal destructiveness. Aggressive behavior violates the rights of others. Refusing medication is a patients right and may be appropriate. The other incorrect options do not feature violation of anothers rights.

16. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to consider a child to be most at risk for the development of mental illness? a. The child has been raised by a parent with chronic major depression. b. The childs best friend was absent from the childs birthday party. c. The child was not promoted to the next grade one year. d. The child moved to three new homes over a 2-year period.

a. The child has been raised by a parent with chronic major depression. Children raised by a depressed parent have an increased risk of developing an emotional disorder. Familial risk factors correlate with child psychiatric disorders, including severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status, large families and overcrowding, parental criminality, maternal psychiatric disorders, and foster-care placement. The chronicity of the parents depression means it has been a consistent stressor. The other factors are not as risk- enhancing.

17. The child prescribed an antipsychotic medication to manage violent behavior is one most likely diagnosed with: a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. communication disorder. d. an anxiety disorder.

a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Antipsychotic medication is useful for managing aggressive or violent behavior in some children diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. If medication were prescribed for a child with an anxiety disorder, it would be a benzodiazepine. Medications are generally not needed for children with communication disorder. Treatment of PTSD is more often associated with SSRI medications.

6. A patient who was responding to auditory hallucinations earlier in the morning now approaches the nurse shaking a fist and shouts, Back off! and then goes to the day room. While following the patient into the day room, the nurse should: a. make sure there is adequate physical space between the nurse and patient. b. move into a position that places the patient close to the door. c. maintain one arms-length distance from the patient. d. begin talking to the patient about appropriate behavior.

a. make sure there is adequate physical space between the nurse and patient. Making sure space is present between the nurse and the patient avoids invading the patients personal space. Personal space needs increase when a patient feels anxious and threatened. Allowing the patient to block the nurses exit from the room may result in injury to the nurse. Closeness may be threatening to the patient and provoke aggression. Sitting is inadvisable until further assessment suggests the patients aggression is abating. One arms length is inadequate space.

18. A child reports to the school nurse of being verbally bullied by an aggressive classmate. What is the nurses best first action? a. Give notice to the chief administrator at the school regarding the events. b. Encourage the victimized child to share feelings about the experience. c. Encourage the victimized child to ignore the bullying behavior. d. Discuss the events with the aggressive classmate.

b. Encourage the victimized child to share feelings about the experience. The behaviors by the bullying child create emotional pain and present the risk for physical pain. The nurse should first listen to the childs complaints and validate the child for reporting the events. Later, school authorities should be notified. School administrators are the most appropriate personnel to deal with the bullying child. The behavior should not be ignored it will only get worse.

12. Which assessment finding presents the greatest risk for violent behavior directed at others? a. Severe agoraphobia b. History of spousal abuse c. Bizarre somatic delusions d. Verbalized hopelessness and powerlessness

b. History of spousal abuse A history of prior aggression or violence is the best predictor of who may become violent. Patients with anxiety disorders are not particularly prone to violence unless panic occurs. Patients experiencing hopelessness and powerlessness may have coexisting anger, but violence is uncommon. Patients with paranoid delusions are at greater risk for violence than those with bizarre somatic delusions.

10. An adult patient assaulted another patient and was then restrained. One hour later, which statement by the restrained patient requires the nurses immediate attention? a. I hate all of you! c. You wait until I tell my lawyer. b. My fingers are tingly. d. The other patient started the fight.

b. My fingers are tingly. The correct response indicates impaired circulation and necessitates the nurses immediate attention. The incorrect responses indicate the patient has continued aggressiveness and agitation.

24. A new patient acts out so aggressively that seclusion is required before the admission assessment is completed or orders written. Immediately after safely secluding the patient, which action is the nurse's priority? a. Complete the physical assessment. b. Notify the health care provider to obtain a seclusion order. c. Document the incident objectively in the patient's medical record. d. Explain to the patient that seclusion will be discontinued when self-control is regained

b. Notify the health care provider to obtain a seclusion order. Emergency seclusion can be affected by a credentialed nurse but must be followed by securing a medical order within a period of time specified by the state and the agency. The incorrect options are not immediately necessary from a legal standpoint. See related audience response question.

17. A patient with a history of anger and impulsivity was hospitalized after an accident resulting in injuries. When in pain, the patient loudly scolded nursing staff for not knowing enough to give me pain medicine when I need it. Which nursing intervention would best address this problem? a. Teach the patient to use coping strategies such as deep breathing and progressive relaxation to reduce the pain. b. Talk with the health care provider about changing the pain medication from PRN to patient-controlled analgesia. c. Tell the patient that verbal assaults on nurses will not shorten the wait for analgesic medication. d. Talk with the patient about the risks of dependency associated with overuse of analgesic medication.

b. Talk with the health care provider about changing the pain medication from PRN to patient-controlled analgesia. Use of patient-controlled analgesia will help the patient manage the pain. This intervention will help reduce the patients anxiety and anger. Dependency is not an important concern related to acute pain.

7. An intramuscular dose of antipsychotic medication needs to be administered to a patient who is becoming increasingly more aggressive and refused to leave the dayroom. The nurse should enter the day room: a. and say, Would you like to come to your room and take some medication your health care provider prescribed for you? b. accompanied by 3 staff members and say, Please come to your room so I can give you some medication that will help you regain control. c. and place the patient in a basket-hold and then say, I am going to take you to your room to give you an injection of medication to calm you. d. accompanied by a male security guard and tell the patient, Come to your room willingly so I can give you this medication, or the guard and I will take you there.

b. accompanied by 3 staff members and say, Please come to your room so I can give you some medication that will help you regain control. A patient gains feelings of security if he or she sees others are present to help with control. The nurse gives a simple direction, honestly states what is going to happen, and reassures the patient that the intervention will be helpful. This positive approach assumes the patient can act responsibly and will maintain control. Physical control measures are used only as a last resort.

8. After an assault by a patient, a nurse has difficulty sleeping, startles easily, and is preoccupied with the incident. The nurse said, That patient should not be allowed to get away with that behavior. Which response poses the greatest barrier to the nurses ability to provide therapeutic care? a. Startle reactions c. A wish for revenge b. Difficulty sleeping d. Preoccupation with the incident

c. A wish for revenge The desire for revenge signals an urgent need for professional supervision to work through anger and counter the aggressive feelings. Feelings of revenge create a risk for harm to the patient. The distracters are normal in a person who was assaulted. They usually are relieved with crisis intervention, help the individual regain a sense of control, and make sense of the event.

13. A nurse works with a child who is sad and irritable because the childs parents are divorcing. Why is establishing a therapeutic alliance with this child a priority? a. Therapeutic relationships provide an outlet for tension. b. Focusing on the strengths increases a persons self-esteem. c. Acceptance and trust convey feelings of security to the child. d. The child should express feelings rather than internalize them.

c. Acceptance and trust convey feelings of security to the child. Trust is frequently an issue because the child may question their trusting relationship with the parents. In this situation, the trust the child once had in parents has been disrupted, reducing feelings of security. The correct answer is the most global response.

19. A patient with severe injuries is irritable, angry, and belittles the nurses. As a nurse changes a dressing, the patient screams, Dont touch me! You are so stupid. You will make it worse! Which intervention uses a cognitive technique to help the patient? a. Wordlessly discontinue the dressing change and then leave the room. b. Stop the dressing change, saying, Perhaps you would like to change your own dressing. c. Continue the dressing change, saying, This dressing change is needed so your wound will not get infected. d. Continue the dressing change, saying, Unfortunately, you have no choice in this because your health care provider ordered this dressing change.

c. Continue the dressing change, saying, This dressing change is needed so your wound will not get infected. Anger is cognitively driven. The answer helps the patient test his cognitions and may lead to lowering his anger. The incorrect options will escalate the patients anger by belittling or escalating the patients sense of powerlessness.

5. A patient is pacing the hall near the nurses station, swearing loudly. An appropriate initial intervention for the nurse would be to address the patient by name and say: a. What is going on? b. Please be quiet and sit down in this chair immediately. c. I'd like to talk with you about how you're feeling right now. d. You must go to your room and try to get control of yourself.

c. I'd like to talk with you about how you're feeling right now. Intervention should begin with analysis of the patient and the situation. When anger is escalating, a patients ability to process decreases. It is important to speak to the patient slowly and in short sentences, using a low and calm voice. Use open-ended statements designed to hear the patients feelings and concerns. This leads to the next step of planning an intervention.

20. A child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) shows hyperactivity, aggression, and impaired play. The health care provider prescribed amphetamine salts (Adderall). The nurse should monitor for which desired behavior? a. Increased expressiveness in communication with others b. Abilities to identify anxiety and implement self-control strategies c. Improved abilities to participate in cooperative play with other children d. Tolerates social interactions for short periods without disruption or frustration

c. Improved abilities to participate in cooperative play with other children The goal is improvement in the childs hyperactivity, aggression, and play. The remaining options are more relevant for a child with intellectual development disorder or an anxiety disorder.

19. Assessment data for a 7-year-old reveals an inability to take turns, blurting out answers to questions before a question is complete, and frequently interrupting others conversations. How should the nurse document these behaviors? a. Disobedience c. Impulsivity b. Hyperactivity d. Anxiety

c. Impulsivity These behaviors are most directly related to impulsivity. Hyperactive behaviors are more physical in nature, such as running, pushing, and the inability to sit. Inattention is demonstrated by failure to listen. Defiance is demonstrated by willfully doing what an authority figure has said not to do.

1. Which factor presents the highest risk for a child to develop a psychiatric disorder? a. Having an uncle with schizophrenia c. Living with an alcoholic parent b. Being the oldest child in a family d. Being an only child

c. Living with an alcoholic parent Having a parent with a substance abuse problem has been designated an adverse psychosocial condition that increases the risk of a child developing a psychiatric condition. Being in a middle-income family and being the oldest child do not represent psychosocial adversity. Having a family history of schizophrenia presents a risk, but an alcoholic parent in the family offers a greater risk.

5. A nurse will prepare teaching materials for the parents of a child newly diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which medication will the information focus on? a. Paroxetine (Paxil) c. Methyphenidate (Ritalin) b. Imipramine (Tofranil) d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

c. Methyphenidate (Ritalin) CNS stimulants are the drugs of choice for treating children with ADHD: Ritalin and dexedrine are commonly used. None of the other drugs are psychostimulants used to treat ADHD.

20. Which medication from the medication administration record should a nurse administer to provide immediate intervention for a psychotic patient whose aggressive behavior continues to escalate despite verbal intervention? a. Lithium (Eskalith) c. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) b. Trazodone (Desyrel) d. Valproic acid (Depakene)

c. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

2. Which scenario predicts the highest risk for directing violent behavior toward others? a. Major depression with delusions of worthlessness b. obsessive-compulsive disorder; performs many rituals c. Paranoid delusions of being followed by alien monsters d. Completed alcohol withdrawal; beginning a rehabilitation program

c. Paranoid delusions of being followed by alien monsters Patients who are delusional, hyperactive, impulsive, or predisposed to irritability are at higher risk for violence. The patient in the correct response has the greatest disruption of ability to perceive reality accurately. People who feel persecuted may strike out against those believed to be persecutors. The other patients have better reality-testing ability.

21. An emergency department nurse realizes that the spouse of a patient is becoming increasingly irritable while waiting. Which intervention should the nurse use to prevent further escalation of the spouses anger? a. Offer the waiting spouse a cup of coffee. b. Explain that the patient's condition is not life threatening. c. Periodically provide an update and progress report on the patient. d. Suggest that the spouse return home until the patients treatment is complete.

c. Periodically provide an update and progress report on the patient. Periodic updates reduce anxiety and defuse anger. This strategy acknowledges the spouses presence and concern. A cup of coffee is a nice gesture, but it does not address the spouses feelings. The other incorrect options would be likely to increase anger because they imply that the anxiety is inappropriate.

6. What is the nurses priority focused assessment for side effects in a child taking methylphenidate (Ritalin) for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Dystonia, akinesia, and extrapyramidal symptoms b. Bradycardia and hypotensive episodes c. Sleep disturbances and weight loss d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

c. Sleep disturbances and weight loss The most common side effects are gastrointestinal disturbances, reduced appetite, weight loss, urinary retention, dizziness, fatigue, and insomnia. Weight loss has the potential to interfere with the childs growth and development. The distracters relate to side effects of conventional antipsychotic medications.

7. A desired outcome for a 12-year-old diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is to improve relationships with other children. Which treatment modality should the nurse suggest for the plan of care? a. Reality therapy c. Social skills group b. Simple restitution d. Insight-oriented group therapy

c. Social skills group Social skills training teaches the child to recognize the impact of his or her behavior on others. It uses instruction, role-playing, and positive reinforcement to enhance social outcomes. The other therapies would have lesser or no impact on peer relationships.

16. A cognitively impaired patient has been a widow for 30 years. This patient frantically tries to leave the facility, saying, I have to go home to cook dinner before my husband arrives from work. To intervene with validation therapy, the nurse will say: a. You must come away from the door. b. You have been a widow for many years. c. You want to go home to prepare your husbands dinner? d. Your husband gets angry if you do not have dinner ready on time?

c. You want to go home to prepare your husbands dinner? Validation therapy meets the patient where she or he is at the moment and acknowledges the patients wishes. Validation does not seek to redirect, reorient, or probe. The distracters do not validate the patients feelings.

23. Family members describe the patient as a difficult person who finds fault with others. The patient verbally abuses nurses for their poor care. The most likely explanation lies in: a. poor childrearing that did not teach respect for others. b. automatic thinking leading to cognitive distortions. c. a personality style that externalizes problems. d. delusions that others wish to deliver harm.

c. a personality style that externalizes problems. Patients whose personality style causes them to externalize blame see the source of their discomfort and anxiety as being outside themselves. They displace anger and are often unable to self-soothe. The incorrect options are less likely to have a bearing on this behavior.

3. Which behavior indicates that the treatment plan for a child diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder was effective? The child: a. plays with one toy for 30 minutes. b. repeats words spoken by a parent. c. holds the parents hand while walking. d. spins around and claps hands while walking.,

c. holds the parents hand while walking. Holding the hand of another person suggests relatedness. Usually, a child with an autism spectrum disorder would resist holding someones hand and stand or walk alone, perhaps flapping arms or moving in a stereotyped pattern. The incorrect options reflect behaviors that are consistent with autism spectrum disorders.

21. When group therapy is prescribed as a treatment modality, the nurse would suggest placement of a 9-year-old in a group that uses: a. guided imagery. b. talk focused on a specific issue. c. play and talk about a play activity. d. group discussion about selected topics.

c. play and talk about a play activity. Group therapy for young children takes the form of play. For elementary school children, therapy combines play and talk about the activity. For adolescents, group therapy involves more talking.

4. A kindergartener is disruptive in class. This child is unable to sit for expected lengths of time, inattentive to the teacher, screams while the teacher is talking, and is aggressive toward other children. The nurse plans interventions designed to: a. promote integration of self-concept. b. provide inpatient treatment for the child. c. reduce loneliness and increase self-esteem. d. improve language and communication skills.

c. reduce loneliness and increase self-esteem. Because of their disruptive behaviors, children with ADHD often receive negative feedback from parents, teachers, and peers, leading to self-esteem disturbance. These behaviors also cause peers to avoid the child with ADHD, leaving the child with ADHD vulnerable to loneliness. The child does not need inpatient treatment at this time. The incorrect options might or might not be relevant.

15. A patient with multi-infarct dementia lashes out and kicks at people who walk past in the hall of a skilled nursing facility. Intervention by the nurse should begin by: a. gently touching the patients arm. b. asking the patient, What do you need? c. saying to the patient, This is a safe place. d. directing the patient to cease the behavior.

c. saying to the patient, This is a safe place. Striking out usually signals fear or that the patient perceives the environment to be out of control. Getting the patients attention is fundamental to intervention. The nurse should make eye contact and assure the patient of safety. Once the nurse has the patients attention, gently touching the patient, asking what he or she needs, or directing the patient to discontinue the behavior may be appropriate.

22. Which child demonstrates behaviors indicative of a neurodevelopmental disorder? a. 4-year-old who stuttered for 3 weeks after the birth of a sibling b. A 9-month-old who does not eat vegetables and likes to be rocked c. A 3-month-old who cries after feeding until burped and sucks a thumb d. A 3-year-old who is mute, passive toward adults, and twirls while walking

d. A 3-year-old who is mute, passive toward adults, and twirls while walking Symptoms consistent with autistic spectrum disorders (ASD) are evident in the correct answer. Autistic spectrum disorder is one type of neurodevelopmental disorder. The behaviors of the other children are within normal ranges.

15. A 4-year-old cries for 5 minutes when the parents leave the child at preschool. The parents ask the nurse, What should we do? Select the nurses best response. a. Ask the teacher to let the child call you at play time. b. Withdraw the child from preschool until maturity increases. c. Remain with your child for the first hour of preschool time. d. Give your child a kiss before you leave the preschool program.

d. Give your child a kiss before you leave the preschool program. The child demonstrates age-appropriate behavior for a 4-year-old. The nurse should reassure the parents. The distracters are over-reactions.

3. A patient was arrested for breaking windows in the home of a former domestic partner. The patients history also reveals childhood abuse by a punitive parent, torturing family pets, and an arrest for disorderly conduct. Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury c. Impaired social interaction b. Ineffective coping d. Risk for other-directed violence

d. Risk for other-directed violence Defining characteristics for risk for other-directed violence include a history of being abused as a child, having committed other violent acts, and demonstrating poor impulse control. There is no indicator that the patient will experience injury. Ineffective coping and impaired social interaction have lower priorities.

10. When a 5-year-old diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) bounces out of a chair and runs over and slaps another child, what is the nurses best action? a. Instruct the parents to take the aggressive child home. b. Direct the aggressive child to stop immediately. c. Call for emergency assistance from other staff. d. Take the aggressive child to another room.

d. Take the aggressive child to another room. The nurse should manage the milieu with structure and limit setting. Removing the aggressive child to another room is an appropriate consequence for the aggressiveness. Directing the child to stop will not be effective. This is not an emergency. Intervention is needed rather than sending the child home.

4. A confused older adult patient in a skilled nursing facility was asleep when unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) entered the room quietly and touched the bed to see if it was wet. The patient awakened and hit the UAP in the face. Which statement best explains the patients action? a. Older adult patients often demonstrate exaggerations of behaviors used earlier in life. b. Crowding in skilled nursing facilities increases an individuals tendency toward violence. c. The patient learned violent behavior by watching other patients act out. d. The patient interpreted the UAPs behavior as potentially harmful.

d. The patient interpreted the UAPs behavior as potentially harmful. Confused patients are not always able to evaluate the actions of others accurately. This patient behaved as though provoked by the intrusive actions of the staff.

8. The parent of a 6-year-old says, My child is in constant motion and talks all the time. My child isnt interested in toys but is out of bed every morning before me. The childs behavior is most consistent with diagnostic criteria for: a. communication disorder. b. stereotypic movement disorder. c. intellectual development disorder. d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Excessive motion, distractibility, and excessive talkativeness are seen in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The behaviors presented in the scenario do not suggest intellectual development, stereotypic, or communication disorder.

14. A nurse assesses a 3-year-old diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder. Which finding is most associated with the childs disorder? The child: a. has occasional toileting accidents. b. is unable to read childrens books. c. cries when separated from a parent. d. continuously rocks in place for 30 minutes.

d. continuously rocks in place for 30 minutes. Autism spectrum disorder involves distortions in development of social skills and language that include perception, motor movement, attention, and reality testing. Body rocking for extended periods suggests autism spectrum disorder. The distracters are expected findings for a 3-year-old.

9. A child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder had this nursing diagnosis: impaired social interaction related to excessive neuronal activity as evidenced by aggression and demanding behavior with others. Which finding indicates the plan of care was effective? The child: a. has an improved ability to identify anxiety and use self-control strategies. b. has increased expressiveness in communication with others. c. shows increased responsiveness to authority figures. d. engages in cooperative play with other children.

d. engages in cooperative play with other children. The goal should be directly related to the defining characteristics of the nursing diagnosis, in this case, improvement in the childs aggressiveness and play. The distracters are more relevant for a child with autism spectrum or anxiety disorder.

14. A patient sat in silence for 20 minutes after a therapy appointment, appearing tense and vigilant. The patient abruptly stood, paced back and forth, clenched and unclenched fists, and then stopped and stared in the face of a staff member. The patient is: a. demonstrating withdrawal. b. working though angry feelings. c. attempting to use relaxation strategies. d. exhibiting clues to potential aggression.

d. exhibiting clues to potential aggression. The description of the patients behavior shows the classic signs of someone whose potential for aggression is increasing.

The child prescribed an antipsychotic medication to manage violent behavior is one most likely diagnosed with: a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. communication disorder. d. an anxiety disorder.

A Antipsychotic medication is useful for managing aggressive or violent behavior in some children diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. If medication were prescribed for a child with an anxiety disorder, it would be a benzodiazepine. Medications are generally not needed for children with communication disorder. Treatment of PTSD is more often associated with SSRI medications.

A 16-year-old diagnosed with a conduct disorder has been in a residential program for 3 months. Which outcome should occur before discharge? a. The adolescent and parents create and agree to a behavioral contract with rules, rewards, and consequences. b. The adolescent identifies friends in the home community who are a positive influence. c. Temporary placement is arranged with a foster family until the parents complete a parenting skills class. d. The adolescent experiences no anger and frustration for 1 week.

A The adolescent and the parents must agree on a behavioral contract that clearly outlines rules, expected behaviors, and consequences for misbehavior. It must also include rewards for following the rules. The adolescent will continue to experience anger and frustration. The adolescent and parents must continue with family therapy to work on boundary and communication issues. It is not necessary to separate the adolescent from the family to work on these issues. Separation is detrimental to the healing process. While it is helpful for the adolescent to identify peers who are a positive influence, it's more important for behavior to be managed for an adolescent diagnosed with a conduct disorder.

33. A nurse asks a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, "What is meant by the old saying 'You can't judge a book by looking at the cover.'?" Which response by the patient indicates concrete thinking? a. "The table of contents tells what a book is about." b. "You can't judge a book by looking at the cover." c. "Things are not always as they first appear." d. "Why are you asking me about books?"

ANS: A Concrete thinking refers to an impaired ability to think abstractly. Concreteness is often assessed through the patient's interpretation of proverbs. Concreteness reduces one's ability to understand and address abstract concepts such as love or the passage of time. The incorrect options illustrate echolalia, an unrelated question, and abstract thinking. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

While talking with a patient diagnosed with major depression, a nurse notices the patient is unable to maintain eye contact. The patient's chin lowers to the chest, while the patient looks at the floor. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed? a. Nonverbal communication b. A message filter c. A cultural barrier d. Social skills

ANS: A Eye contact and body movements are considered nonverbal communication. There are insufficient data to determine the level of the patient's social skills or whether a cultural barrier exists.

Physical assessment of a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa often reveals: a. prominent parotid glands. b. peripheral edema. c. thin, brittle hair. d. amenorrhea.

ANS: A Prominent parotid glands are associated with repeated vomiting. The other options are signs of anorexia nervosa and are not usually observed in bulimia.

2. For which patients diagnosed with personality disorders would a family history of similar problems be most likely? Select all that apply. a. Obsessive-compulsive b. Antisocial c. Borderline d. Schizotypal e. Narcissistic

ANS: A, B, C, D Some personality disorders have evidence of genetic links, so the family history would show other members with similar traits. Heredity plays a role in schizotypal, antisocial, borderline, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

1. A basic level registered nurse works with patients in a community setting. Which groups should this nurse expect to lead? Select all that apply. a. Symptom management b. Medication education c. Family therapy d. Psychotherapy e. Self-care

ANS: A, B, E Symptom management, medication education, and self-care groups represent psychoeducation, a service provided by the basic level registered nurse. Advanced practice registered nurses provide family therapy and psychotherapy. REF: Pages: 40-42

A patient referred to the eating disorders clinic has lost 35 pounds in 3 months and has developed amenorrhea. For which physical manifestations of anorexia nervosa should a nurse assess? Select all that apply. a. Peripheral edema b. Parotid swelling c. Constipation d. Hypotension e. Dental caries f. Lanugo

ANS: A, C, D, F Peripheral edema is often present because of hypoalbuminemia. Constipation related to starvation is often present. Hypotension is often present because of dehydration. Lanugo is often present and is related to starvation. Parotid swelling is associated with bulimia. Dental caries are associated with bulimia.

9. A patient asks for information about Alcoholics Anonymous. Select the nurse's best response. "Alcoholics Anonymous is a: a. form of group therapy led by a psychiatrist." b. self-help group for which the goal is sobriety." c. group that learns about drinking from a group leader." d. network that advocates strong punishment for drunk drivers."

ANS: B Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a peer support group for recovering alcoholics. Neither professional nor peer leaders are appointed.

3. A nurse cares for a patient diagnosed with an opioid overdose. Which focused assessment has the highest priority? a. Cardiovascular b. Respiratory c. Neurologic d. Hepatic

ANS: B Opioid overdose causes respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is the primary cause of death among opioid abusers. The assessment of the other body systems is relevant but not the priority. See relationship to audience response question.

8. Consider these health problems: Lewy body disease, frontal-temporal lobar degeneration, and Huntington's disease. Which term unifies these problems? a. Cyclothymia b. Dementia c. Delirium d. Amnesia

ANS: B The listed health problems are all forms of dementia.

Which nursing diagnosis would most likely apply to both a patient diagnosed with major depression as well as one experiencing acute mania? a. Deficient diversional activity b. Disturbed sleep pattern c. Fluid volume excess d. Defensive coping

ANS: B Patients with mood disorders, both depression and mania, experience sleep pattern disturbances. Assessment data should be routinely gathered about this possible problem. Deficient diversional activity is more relevant for patients with depression. Defensive coping is more relevant for patients with mania. Fluid volume excess is less relevant for patients with mood disorders than is deficient fluid volume.

Which activity is appropriate for a nurse engaged exclusively in community-based primary prevention? a. Medication follow-up b. Teaching parenting skills c. Substance abuse counseling d. Making a referral for family therapy

ANS: B Primary prevention activities are directed to healthy populations to provide information for developing skills that promote mental health. The distracters represent secondary or tertiary prevention activities.

Which personality characteristic is a nurse most likely to assess in a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa? a. Carefree flexibility b. Rigidity, perfectionism c. Open displays of emotion d. High spirits and optimism

ANS: B Rigid thinking, inability to demonstrate flexibility, and difficulty changing cognitions are characteristic of patients diagnosed with eating disorders. The incorrect options are rare in a patient with anorexia nervosa. Inflexibility, controlled emotions, and pessimism are more the norm.

A patient had psychotherapy weekly for 5 months. The therapist used free association, dream analysis, and facilitated transference to help the patient understand conflicts and foster change. Select the term that applies to this method. a. Rational-emotive behavior therapy b. Psychodynamic psychotherapy c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy d. Operant conditioning

ANS: B The techniques are aspects of psychodynamic psychotherapy. The distracters use other techniques.

4. A patient admitted for injuries sustained while intoxicated has been hospitalized for 48 hours. The patient is now shaky, irritable, anxious, diaphoretic, and reports nightmares. The pulse rate is 130 beats/min. The patient shouts, "Bugs are crawling on my bed. I've got to get out of here." Select the most accurate assessment of this situation. The patient: a. is attempting to obtain attention by manipulating staff. b. may have sustained a head injury before admission. c. has symptoms of alcohol-withdrawal delirium. d. is having an acute psychosis.

ANS: C Symptoms of agitation, elevated pulse, and perceptual distortions indicate alcohol withdrawal delirium. The findings are inconsistent with manipulative attempts, head injury, or functional psychosis.

Operant conditioning is part of the treatment plan to encourage speech in a child who is nearly mute. Which technique applies? a. Encourage the child to observe others talking. b. Include the child in small group activities. c. Give the child a small treat for speaking. d. Teach the child relaxation techniques.

ANS: C Operant conditioning involves giving positive reinforcement for a desired behavior. Treats are rewards and reinforce speech through positive reinforcement.

Which nursing intervention below is part of the scope of an advanced practice psychiatric/mental health nurse only? a. Coordination of care b. Health teaching c. Milieu therapy d. Psychotherapy

ANS: D Psychotherapy is part of the scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse. The distracters are within a staff nurse's scope of practice.

A nurse caring for a withdrawn, suspicious patient recognizes development of feelings of anger toward the patient. The nurse should: a. suppress the angry feelings. b. express the anger openly and directly with the patient. c. tell the nurse manager to assign the patient to another nurse. d. discuss the anger with a clinician during a supervisory session.

ANS: D The nurse is accountable for the relationship. Objectivity is threatened by strong positive or negative feelings toward a patient. Supervision is necessary to work through countertransference feelings.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 6. A patient with blindness related to conversion (functional neurological) disorder says, "All the doctors and nurses in the hospital stop by often to check on me. Too bad people outside the hospital don't find me as interesting." Which nursing diagnosis is most relevant? a. Social isolation c. Interrupted family processes b. Chronic low self-esteem d. Ineffective health maintenance

B The patient mentions that the symptoms make people more interested. This indicates that the patient feels uninteresting and unpopular without the symptoms, thus supporting the nursing diagnosis of chronic low self-esteem. Defining characteristics for the other nursing diagnoses are not present in the scenario. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 325-326 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis/Analysis

Which behavior indicates that the treatment plan for a child diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder was effective? The child: a. plays with one toy for 30 minutes. b. repeats words spoken by a parent. c. holds the parent's hand while walking. d. spins around and claps hands while walking.

C Holding the hand of another person suggests relatedness. Usually, a child with an autism spectrum disorder would resist holding someone's hand and stand or walk alone, perhaps flapping arms or moving in a stereotyped pattern. The incorrect options reflect behaviors that are consistent with autism spectrum disorders.

Assessment data for a 7-year-old reveals an inability to take turns, blurting out answers to questions before a question is complete, and frequently interrupting others' conversations. How should the nurse document these behaviors? a. Disobedience c. Impulsivity b. Hyperactivity d. Anxiety

C These behaviors are most directly related to impulsivity. Hyperactive behaviors are more physical in nature, such as running, pushing, and the inability to sit. Inattention is demonstrated by failure to listen. Defiance is demonstrated by willfully doing what an authority figure has said not to do.

A 4-year-old cries for 5 minutes when the parents leave the child at preschool. The parents ask the nurse, "What should we do?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Ask the teacher to let the child call you at play time." b. "Withdraw the child from preschool until maturity increases." c. "Remain with your child for the first hour of preschool time." d. "Give your child a kiss before you leave the preschool program."

D The child demonstrates age-appropriate behavior for a 4-year-old. The nurse should reassure the parents. The distracters are over-reactions.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 9. A nurse assessing a patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder is most likely to note that the patient: a. sees a relationship between symptoms and interpersonal conflicts. b. has little difficulty communicating emotional needs to others. c. rarely derives personal benefit from the symptoms. d. has altered comfort and activity needs.

D The patient frequently has altered comfort and activity needs associated with the symptoms displayed (fatigue, insomnia, weakness, tension, pain, etc.). In addition, hygiene, safety, and security needs may also be compromised. The patient is rarely able to see a relation between symptoms and events in his or her life, which is readily discernible to health professionals. Patients with somatic symptom disorders often derive secondary gain from their symptoms and/or have considerable difficulty identifying feelings and conveying emotional needs to others. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 325-326 | Page 338 (Nursing Care Plan 17-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

10. An adult expresses the wish to be taken care of and often behaves in a helpless fashion. This adult has needs related to which of Freud's stages of psychosexual development? a. Latency b. Phallic c. Anal d. Oral

D (According to Freud, fixation at the oral stage sometimes produces dependent infantile behaviors in adults. Latency fixations often result in a difficulty identifying with others and developing social skills, resulting in a sense of inadequacy and inferiority. Phallic fixations result in having difficulty with authority figures and poor sexual identity. Anal fixation sometimes results in retentiveness, rigidity, messiness, destructiveness, and cruelty. REF: Pages: 27-30)

3. To provide effective care for the patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, the nurse should frequently assess for which associated condition? Select all that apply. a. Alcohol use disorder b. Major depressive disorder c. Stomach cancer d. Polydipsia e. Metabolic syndrome

a. Alcohol use disorder b. Major depressive disorder d. Polydipsia e. Metabolic syndrome

12. Soon after parents announced they were divorcing, a child stopped participating in sports, sat alone at lunch, and avoided former friends. The child told the school nurse, If my parents loved me, they would work out their problems. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a. Social isolation c. Chronic low self-esteem b. Decisional conflict d. Disturbed personal identity

a. Social isolation This child shows difficulty coping with problems associated with the family. Social isolation refers to aloneness that the patient perceives negatively, even when self-imposed. The other options are not supported by data in the scenario.

A patient became depressed after the last of six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. The patient has been self-neglectful, slept poorly, lost weight, and repeatedly says, No one cares about me anymore. Im not worth anything. Select an appropriate initial outcome for the nursing diagnosis: Situational low self-esteem, related to feelings of abandonment. The patient will: a. verbalize realistic positive characteristics about self by (date) . b. consent to take antidepressant medication regularly by (date) . c. initiate social interaction with another person daily by (date) . d. identify two personal behaviors that alienate others by (date) .

a. verbalize realistic positive characteristics about self by (date) . Low self-esteem is reflected by making consistently negative statements about self and self-worth. Replacing negative cognitions with more realistic appraisals of self is an appropriate intermediate outcome. The incorrect options are not as clearly related to the nursing diagnosis. Outcomes are best when framed positively; identifying two personal behaviors that might alienate others is a negative concept.

Which nursing interventions are helpful when working with parents or caregivers of children and adolescents with impulse disorders? Select all that apply. a. Teach them role-playing techniques. b. Show them how to make home a safe environment. c. Refer parents and caregivers to local self-help groups. d. Tell them to have strict control over the child's behavior. e. Teach them to manage the child with physical power if they become violent.

abc

Which statement is true about the characteristics of the oppositional defiant child? a. The defiance generally is directed toward parents and siblings. b. These behaviors are a predictor of future mental health disorders. c. Arguing tends to be more prevalent in boys. d. Girls display more blaming than do boys.

b

After the sudden death of his wife, a man says, "I can't live without her...she was my whole life." Select the nurse's most therapeutic reply. a. "Each day will get a little better." b. "Her death is a terrible loss for you." c. "It's important to recognize that she is no longer suffering." d. "Your friends will help you cope with this change in your life."

b. "Her death is a terrible loss for you." Adjustment disorders may be associated with grief. A statement that validates a bereaved persons loss is more helpful than false reassurances and clichs. It signifies understanding.

While using pharmacological therapy to treat a patient with intermittent explosive disorder, which therapy should be avoided? a. Mood stabilizers b. Anticonvulsants c. Antianxiety medications d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

c

A soldier returns to the United States from active duty in a combat zone in Afghanistan. The soldier is diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The nurse's highest priority is to screen this soldier for: a. bipolar disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. dementia.

c. depression. Comorbidities for adults with PTSD include depression, anxiety disorders, sleep disorders, and dissociative disorders. Incidence of the disorders identified in the distracters is similar to the general population.

What is the most common condition associated with oppositional defiant disorder? a. Obesity b. Hypotension c. Type 1 diabetes d. Attention deficit disorder

d

3. The nurse is providing medication education to a patient who has been prescribed lithium to stabilize mood. Which early signs and symptoms of toxicity should the nurse stress to the patient? Select all that apply. a. Increased attentiveness b. Getting up at night to urinate c. Improved vision d. An upset stomach for no apparent reason e. Shaky hands that make holding a cup difficult

d. An upset stomach for no apparent reason e. Shaky hands that make holding a cup difficult

10. Luc's family comes home one evening to find him extremely agitated and they suspect in a full manic episode. The family calls emergency medical services. While one medic is talking with Luc and his family, the other medic is counting something on his desk. What is the medic most likely counting? a. Hypodermic needles b. Fast food wrappers c. Empty soda cans d. Energy drink containers

d. Energy drink containers

A nurse is caring for a patient with low self-esteem. Which nonverbal communication should the nurse anticipate? a. Arms crossed b. Staring at the nurse c. Smiling inappropriately d. Eyes pointed downward

d. Eyes pointed downward Nonverbal communication is usually considered more powerful than verbal communication. Downward-casted eyes suggest feelings of worthlessness or hopelessness.

8. When patients diagnosed with schizophrenia suffer from anosognosia, they often refuse medication, believing that: a. Medications provided are ineffective. b. Nurses are trying to control their minds. c. The medications will make them sick. d. They are not actually ill.

d. They are not actually ill.

___ ___ disorder involves aggressive behavior, a delayed consequence of which is remorsefulness.

intermittent explosive

1. A 26-month-old child displays negative behaviors. The parent says, "My child refuses toilet training and shouts, 'No!' when given direction. What do you think is wrong?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "This is normal for your child's age. The child is striving for independence." b. "The child needs firmer control. Punish the child for disobedience and say, 'No.'" c. "There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2 years." d. "Some undesirable attitudes are developing. A child psychologist can help you develop a remedial plan."

A (These negative behaviors are typical of a child around the age of 2 years whose developmental task is to develop autonomy. The remaining options indicate the child's behavior is abnormal. REF: Pages: 28-30)

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 12. Which comment by a patient who recently experienced a myocardial infarction indicates use of maladaptive, ineffective coping strategies? a. "My employer should have paid for a health club membership for me." b. "My family will see me through this. It won't be easy, but I will never be alone." c. "My heart attack was no fun, but it showed me up the importance of a good diet and more exercise." d. "I accept that I have heart disease. Now I need to decide if I will be able to continue my work daily."

A Blaming someone else and rationalizing one's failure to exercise are not adaptive coping strategies. Seeing the glass as half full, using social and religious supports, and confronting one's situation are seen as more effective strategies. The distracters demonstrate effective coping associated with a serious medical condition. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 326-327 | Page 331 | Page 334-335 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder will begin medication therapy. The nurse should prepare a plan to teach the family about which classification of medications? a. Central nervous system stimulants c. Antipsychotics b. Tricyclic antidepressants d. Anxiolytics

A Central nervous system stimulants, such as methylphenidate and pemoline (Cylert), increase blood flow to the brain and have proved helpful in reducing hyperactivity in children and adolescents with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The other medication categories listed would not be appropriate.

Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to consider a child to be most at risk for the development of mental illness? a. The child has been raised by a parent with chronic major depression. b. The child's best friend was absent from the child's birthday party. c. The child was not promoted to the next grade one year. d. The child moved to three new homes over a 2-year period.

A Children raised by a depressed parent have an increased risk of developing an emotional disorder. Familial risk factors correlate with child psychiatric disorders, including severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status, large families and overcrowding, parental criminality, maternal psychiatric disorders, and foster-care placement. The chronicity of the parent's depression means it has been a consistent stressor. The other factors are not as risk- enhancing.

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, "I hate my parents. They focus all attention on my brother, who's perfect in their eyes." Which type of therapy might promote the greatest change in the adolescent's behavior? a. Family therapy c. Play therapy b. Bibliotherapy d. Art therapy

A Family therapy focuses on problematic family relationships and interactions. The patient has identified problems within the family. Play therapy is more appropriate for younger patients. Art therapy and bibliotherapy would not focus specifically on the identified problem.

Parents of an adolescent diagnosed with a conduct disorder say, "We don't know how to respond when our child breaks the rules in our house. Is there any treatment that might help us?" Which therapy is likely to be helpful for these parents? a. Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) b. Behavior modification therapy c. Multi-systemic therapy (MST) d. Pharmacotherapy

A In parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT), the therapist sits behind one-way mirrors and coaches parents through an ear audio device while they interact with their children. The therapist can suggest strategies that reinforce positive behavior in the adolescent. The goal is to improve parenting strategies and thereby reduce problematic behavior. Behavior modification therapy may help the adolescent, but the parents are seeking help for themselves. Multi-systemic therapy is much broader and does not target the parents' need.

An adolescent diagnosed with conduct disorder has aggression, impulsivity, hyperactivity, and mood symptoms. The treatment team believes this adolescent may benefit from medication. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe which type of medication? a. Second-generation antipsychotic c. Calcium channel blocker b. Anti-anxiety medication d. Beta-blocker

A Medications for conduct disorder are directed at problematic behaviors such as aggression, impulsivity, hyperactivity, and mood symptoms. Second-generation antipsychotics are likely to be prescribed. Beta-blocking medications may help to calm individuals with intermittent explosive disorder by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers reduce blood pressure but are not used for persons with impulse control problems. An anti-anxiety medication will not assist with impulse control.

Which assessment findings support a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder? a. Negative, hostile, and spiteful toward parents. Blames others for misbehavior. b. Exhibits involuntary facial twitching and blinking; makes barking sounds. c. Violates others' rights; cruelty toward people or animals; steals; truancy. d. Displays poor academic performance and reports frequent nightmares.

A Oppositional defiant disorder is a repeated and persistent pattern of having an angry and irritable mood in conjunction with demonstrating defiant and vindictive behavior. The distracters identify findings associated with conduct disorder, anxiety disorder, and Tourette's syndrome.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 13. A nurse assesses a patient diagnosed with conversion (functional neurological) disorder. Which comment is most likely from this patient? a. "Since my father died, I've been short of breath and had sharp pains that go down my left arm, but I think it's just indigestion." b. "I have daily problems with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. My skin is very dry, and I think I'm getting seriously dehydrated." c. "Sexual intercourse is painful. I pretend as if I'm asleep so I can avoid it. I think it's starting to cause problems with my marriage." d. "I get choked very easily and have trouble swallowing when I eat. I think I might have cancer of the esophagus."

A Patients with conversion (functional neurological) disorder demonstrate a lack of concern regarding the seriousness of symptoms. This lack of concern is termed "la belle indifférence." There is also a specific, identifiable cause for the development of the symptoms; in this instance, the death of a parent would precipitate stress. The distracters relate to sexual dysfunction and illness anxiety disorder. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 325-326 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A parent diagnosed with schizophrenia and 13-year-old child live in a homeless shelter. The child formed a trusting relationship with a shelter volunteer. The child says, "My three friends and I got an A on our school science project." The nurse can assess that the child: a. displays resiliency. b. has a passive temperament. c. is at risk for posttraumatic stress disorder. d. uses intellectualization to deal with problems.

A Resiliency enables a child to handle the stresses of a difficult childhood. Resilient children can adapt to changes in the environment, take advantage of nurturing relationships with adults other than parents, distance themselves from emotional chaos occurring within the family, learn, and use problem-solving skills.

Client Needs: Physiological Integrity 20. Which assessment question could a nurse ask to help identify secondary gains associated with a somatic symptom disorder? a. "What are you unable to do now but were previously able to do?" b. "How many doctors have you seen in the last year?" c. "Who do you talk to when you're upset?" d. "Did you experience abuse as a child?"

A Secondary gains should be assessed. Secondary gains reinforce maladaptive behavior. The patient's dependency needs may be evident through losses of abilities. When secondary gains are prominent, the patient is more resistant to giving up the symptom. There may be a history of abuse or doctor shopping, but the question does not assess the associated gains. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 329 | Page 331 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Soon after parents announced they were divorcing, a child stopped participating in sports, sat alone at lunch, and avoided former friends. The child told the school nurse, "If my parents loved me, they would work out their problems." Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a. Social isolation c. Chronic low self-esteem b. Decisional conflict d. Disturbed personal identity

A This child shows difficulty coping with problems associated with the family. Social isolation refers to aloneness that the patient perceives negatively, even when self-imposed. The other options are not supported by data in the scenario.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 14. A patient who experienced a myocardial infarction was transferred from critical care to a step-down unit. The patient then used the call bell every 15 minutes for minor requests and complaints. Staff nurses reported feeling inadequate and unable to satisfy the patient's needs. When the nurse manager intervenes directly with this patient, which comment is most therapeutic? a. "I'm wondering if you are feeling anxious about your illness and being left alone." b. "The staff are concerned that you are not satisfied with the care you are receiving." c. "Let's talk about why you use your call light so frequently. It is a problem." d. "You frustrate the staff by calling them so often. Why are you doing that?"

A This patient is experiencing anxiety associated with a serious medical condition. Verbalization is an effective outlet for anxiety. "I'm wondering if you are anxious..." focuses on the emotions underlying the behavior rather than the behavior itself. This opening conveys the nurse's willingness to listen to the patient's feelings and an understanding of the commonly seen concern about not having a nurse always nearby as in the intensive care unit. The other options focus on the behavior or its impact on nursing and do not help the patient with her emotional needs. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 326-327 | Page 331-334 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

9. A nurse assesses that a patient is suspicious and frequently manipulates others. Using the Freudian theory, these traits are related to which psychosexual stage? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

A (According to Freud, each of the behaviors mentioned develops as the result of attitudes formed during the oral stage, when an infant first learns to relate to the environment. Anal stage traits include stinginess, stubbornness, orderliness, or their opposites. Phallic stage traits include flirtatiousness, pride, vanity, difficulty with authority figures, and difficulties with sexual identity. Genital stage traits include the ability to form satisfying sexual and emotional relationships with members of the opposite sex, emancipation from parents, and a strong sense of personal identity. REF: Pages: 27-30)

Which nursing diagnosis is universally applicable for children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders? a. Impaired social interaction related to difficulty relating to others b. Chronic low self-esteem related to excessive negative feedback c. Deficient fluid volume related to abnormal eating habits d. Anxiety related to nightmares and repetitive activities

A Children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders display profoundly disturbed social relatedness. They seem aloof and indifferent to others, often preferring inanimate objects to human interaction. Language is often delayed and deviant, further complicating relationship issues. The other nursing diagnoses might not be appropriate in all cases

Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment 2. Which presentations suggest the possibility of a factitious disorder, self-directed type? Select all that apply. a. History of multiple hospitalizations without findings of physical illness b. History of multiple medical procedures or exploratory surgeries c. Going from one doctor to another seeking the desired response d. Claims illness to obtain financial benefit or other incentive e. Difficulty describing symptoms

A, B Persons with factitious disorders, self-directed type, typically have a history of multiple hospitalizations and medical workups, with negative findings from workups. Sometimes they have even had multiple surgeries seeking the origin of the physical complaints. If they do not receive the desired response from a hospitalization, they may elope or accuse staff of incompetence. Such persons usually seek treatment through a consistent health care provider rather than doctor-shopping, are not motivated by financial gain or other external incentives, and present symptoms in a very detailed, plausible manner indicating considerable understanding of the disorder or presentation they are mimicking. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 337-338 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A 10-year-old child was placed in a foster home after being removed from parental contact because of abuse. The child has apprehension, tremulousness, and impaired concentration. The foster parent also reports the child has an upset stomach, urinates frequently, and does not understand what has happened. What helpful measures should the nurse suggest to the foster parents? The nurse should recommend: (select all that apply) a. conveying empathy and acknowledging the child's distress. b. explaining and reinforcing reality to avoid distortions. c. using a calm manner and low, comforting voice. d. avoiding repetition in what is said to the child. e. staying with the child until the anxiety decreases. f. minimizing opportunities for exercise and play.

A, B, C, E The childs symptoms and behavior suggest that he is exhibiting posttraumatic stress disorder. Interventions appropriate for this level of anxiety include using a calm, reassuring tone, acknowledging the childs distress, repeating content as needed when there is impaired cognitive processing and memory, providing opportunities for comforting and normalizing play and physical activities, correcting any distortion of reality, and staying with the child to increase his sense of security

The nurse interviewing a patient with suspected posttraumatic stress disorder should be alert to findings indicating the patient: (select all that apply) a. avoids people and places that arouse painful memories. b. experiences flashbacks or reexperiences the trauma. c. experiences symptoms suggestive of a heart attack. d. feels driven to repeat selected ritualistic behaviors. e. demonstrates hypervigilance or distrusts others. f. feels detached, estranged, or empty inside.

A, B, C, E, F These assessment findings are consistent with the symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder. Ritualistic behaviors are expected in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A young adult says, "I was sexually abused by my older brother. During those assaults, I went somewhere else in my mind. I don't remember the details. Now, I often feel numb or unreal in romantic relationships, so I just avoid them." Which disorders should the nurse suspect based on this history? Select all that apply. a. Acute stress disorder b. Depersonalization disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Posttraumatic stress disorder e. Reactive attachment disorder f. Disinhibited social engagement disorder

A, B, D Acute stress disorder, depersonalization disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder can involve dissociative elements, such as numbing, feeling unreal, and being amnesic for traumatic events. All three disorders are also responses to acute stress or trauma, which has occurred here. The distracters are disorders not evident in this patients presentation. Generalized anxiety disorder involves extensive worrying that is disproportionate to the stressors or foci of the worrying. Reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder are problems of childhood.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 4. A nurse assesses a patient suspected of having somatic symptom disorder. Which assessment findings regarding this patient support the suspected diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Female b. Reports frequent syncope c. Rates pain as "1" on a scale of "10" d. First diagnosed with psoriasis at age 12 e. Reports insomnia often results from back pain

A, B, E There is no chronic disease to explain the symptoms for patients with somatic symptom disorder. Patients report multiple symptoms; gastrointestinal and pseudoneurological symptoms are common. This disorder is more common in women than in men. Patients with conversion disorder would have a tendency to underrate pain. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 325-326 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 5. A nurse's neighbor says, "I saw a news story about a man without any known illness who died suddenly after his ex-wife committed suicide. Was that a coincidence, or can emotional shock be fatal?" The nurse should respond by noting that some serious medical conditions may be complicated by emotional stress, including: (select all that apply) a. cancer. b. hip fractures. c. hypertension. d. immune disorders. e. cardiovascular disease.

A, C, D, E A number of diseases can be worsened or brought to awareness by intense emotional stress. Immune disorders can be complicated associated with detrimental effects of stress on the immune system. Others can be brought about indirectly, such as cardiovascular disease due to acute or chronic hypertension. Hip fractures are not in this group. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 326-327 (Table 17-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A nurse on an adolescent psychiatric unit assesses a newly admitted 14-year-old. An impulse control disorder is suspected. Which aspects of the patient's history support the suspected diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Family history of mental illness b. Allergies to multiple antibiotics c. Long history of severe facial acne d. Father with history of alcohol abuse e. History of an abusive relationship with one parent

A, D, E Parents who are abusive, rejecting, or overly controlling cause a child to suffer detrimental effects. Other stressors associated with impulse control disorders can include major disruptions such as placement in foster care, severe marital discord, or a separation of parents. Substance abuse by a parent is common. Acne and allergies are not aspects of the history that relate to the behavior.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 3. A patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder says, "Why has God chosen me to be sick all the time and unable to provide for my family? The burden on my family is worse than the pain I bear." Which nursing diagnoses apply to this patient? Select all that apply. a. Spiritual distress b. Decisional conflict c. Adult failure to thrive d. Impaired social interaction e. Ineffective role performance

A, E The patient's verbalization is consistent with spiritual distress. The patient's description of being unable to provide for and burdening the family indicates ineffective role performance. No data support diagnoses of adult failure to thrive, impaired social interaction, or decisional conflict. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 329-333 (Table 17-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis/Analysis

A client who is demonstrating a moderate level of anxiety tells the nurse, "I am so anxious, and I do not know what to do." A helpful response for the nurse to make would be: A. "What things have you done in the past that helped you feel more comfortable?" B. "Let's try to focus on that adorable little granddaughter of yours." C. "Why don't you sit down over there and work on that jigsaw puzzle?" D. "Try not to think about the feelings and sensations you're experiencing."

A. "What things have you done in the past that helped you feel more comfortable?" Because the client is not able to think through the problem and arrive at an action that would lower anxiety, the nurse can assist by asking what has worked in the past. Often what has been helpful in the past can be used again.

A possible outcome criterion for a client diagnosed with anxiety disorder is: A. Client demonstrates effective coping strategies. B. Client reports reduced hallucinations. C. Client reports feelings of tension and fatigue. D. Client demonstrates persistent avoidance behaviors.

A. Client demonstrates effective coping strategies. Option A is the only desirable outcome listed.

Generally, ego defense mechanisms: A. often involve some degree of self-deception. B. are rarely used by mentally healthy people. C. seldom make the person more comfortable. D. are usually effective in resolving conflicts.

A. often involve some degree of self-deception. Most ego defense mechanisms, with the exception of the mature defenses, alter the individual's perception of reality to produce varying degrees of self-deception.

Inability to leave one's home because of avoidance of severe anxiety suggests the anxiety disorder of: A. panic attacks with agoraphobia. B. obsessive-compulsive disorder. C. posttraumatic stress response. D. generalized anxiety disorder.

A. panic attacks with agoraphobia. Panic disorder with agoraphobia is characterized by recurrent panic attacks combined with agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves intense, excessive anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing or in which help might not be available if a panic attack occurred.

A potential problem for a client diagnosed with severe obsessive-compulsive disorder is: A. sleep disturbance. B. excessive socialization. C. command hallucinations. D. altered state of consciousness.

A. sleep disturbance. Clients who must engage in compulsive rituals for anxiety relief are rarely afforded relief for any prolonged period. The high anxiety level and need to perform the ritual may interfere with sleep.

A cultural characteristic that may be observed in a teenage, female Hispanic client in times of stress is to: A. suddenly tremble severely. B. exhibit stoic behavior. C. report both nausea and vomiting. D. laugh inappropriately.

A. suddenly tremble severely. Ataque de nervios (attack of the nerves) is a culture-bound syndrome that is seen in undereducated, disadvantaged females of Hispanic ethnicity.

A client is experiencing a panic attack. The nurse can be most therapeutic by: A. telling the client to take slow, deep breaths. B. verbalizing mild disapproval of the anxious behavior. C. asking the client what he means when he says "I am dying." D. offering an explanation about why the symptoms are occurring

A. telling the client to take slow, deep breaths. Slow diaphragmatic breathing can induce relaxation and reduce symptoms of anxiety. Often the nurse has to tell the client to "breathe with me" and keep the client focused on the task. The slower breathing also reduces the threat of hypercapnia with its attendant symptoms.

29. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia begins to talks about "macnabs" hiding in the warehouse at work. The term "macnabs" should be documented as: a. a neologism. b. concrete thinking. c. thought insertion. d. an idea of reference.

ANS: A A neologism is a newly coined word having special meaning to the patient. "Macnabs" is not a known common word. Concrete thinking refers to the inability to think abstractly. Thought insertion refers to thoughts of others are implanted in one's mind. Ideas of reference are a type of delusion in which trivial events are given personal significance. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

27. The family of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is unfamiliar with the illness and family's role in recovery. Which type of therapy should the nurse recommend? a. Psychoeducational b. Psychoanalytic c. Transactional d. Family

ANS: A A psychoeducational group explores the causes of schizophrenia, the role of medication, the importance of medication compliance, support for the ill member, and hints for living with a person with schizophrenia. Such a group can be of immeasurable practical assistance to the family. The other types of therapy do not focus on psychoeducation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 214 (Box 12-5) | Page 221 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

6. A patient diagnosed with delirium is experiencing perceptual alterations. Which environmental adjustment should the nurse make for this patient? a. Provide a well-lit room without glare or shadows. Limit noise and stimulation. b. Maintain soft lighting day and night. Keep a radio on low volume continuously. c. Light the room brightly day and night. Awaken the patient hourly to assess mental status. d. Keep the patient by the nurse's desk while awake. Provide rest periods in a room with a television on.

ANS: A A quiet, shadow-free room offers an environment that produces the fewest sensory perceptual distortions for a patient with cognitive impairment associated with delirium. The other options have the potential to produce increased perceptual alterations.

17. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is very disturbed and violent. After several doses of haloperidol (Haldol), the patient is calm. Two hours later the nurse sees the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiff position, the lower jaw thrust forward, and drooling. Which problem is most likely? a. An acute dystonic reaction b. Tardive dyskinesia c. Waxy flexibility d. Akathisia

ANS: A Acute dystonic reactions involve painful contractions of the tongue, face, neck, and back. Opisthotonos and oculogyric crisis may be observed. Dystonic reactions are considered emergencies requiring immediate intervention. Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary spasmodic muscular contractions that involve the tongue, fingers, toes, neck, trunk, or pelvis. It appears after prolonged treatment. Waxy flexibility is a symptom seen in catatonic schizophrenia. Internal and external restlessness, pacing, and fidgeting are characteristics of akathisia. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

16. Which features should be present in a therapeutic milieu for a patient with a hallucinogen overdose? a. Simple and safe b. Active and bright c. Stimulating and colorful d. Confrontational and challenging

ANS: A Because the individual who has ingested a hallucinogen is probably experiencing feelings of unreality and altered sensory perceptions, the best environment is one that does not add to the stimulation. A simple, safe environment is a better choice than an environment with any of the characteristics listed in the other options. The other options would contribute to a "bad trip."

18. At a meeting for family members of alcoholics, a spouse says, "I did everything I could to help. I even requested sick leave when my partner was too drunk to go to work." The nurse assesses these comments as: a. codependence. b. assertiveness c. role reversal d. homeostasis.

ANS: A Codependence refers to participating in behaviors that maintain the addiction or allow it to continue without holding the user accountable for his or her actions. The other options are not supported by information given in the scenario. See relationship to audience response question.

1. An older adult patient takes multiple medications daily. Over 2 days, the patient developed confusion, slurred speech, an unsteady gait, and fluctuating levels of orientation. These findings are most characteristic of: a. delirium. b. dementia c. amnestic syndrome. d. Alzheimer's disease.

ANS: A Delirium is characterized by an abrupt onset of fluctuating levels of awareness, clouded consciousness, perceptual disturbances, and disturbed memory and orientation. The onset of dementia or Alzheimer's disease, a type of dementia, is more insidious. Amnestic syndrome involves memory impairment without other cognitive problems.

28. An elderly person presents with symptoms of delirium. The family reports, "Everything was fine until yesterday." What is the most important assessment information for the nurse to gather? a. A list of all medications the person currently takes b. Whether the person has experienced any recent losses c. Whether the person has ingested aged or fermented foods d. The person's recent personality characteristics and changes

ANS: A Delirium is often the result of medication interactions or toxicity. The distracters relate to MAOI therapy and depression.

18. An acutely violent patient diagnosed with schizophrenia receives several doses of haloperidol (Haldol). Two hours later the nurse notices the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position, the lower jaw thrust forward, and drooling. Which intervention by the nurse is indicated? a. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg IM from the PRN medication administration record. b. Reassure the patient that the symptoms will subside. Practice relaxation exercises with the patient. c. Give trihexyphenidyl (Artane) 5 mg orally at the next regularly scheduled medication administration time. d. Administer atropine sulfate 2 mg subcut from the PRN medication administration record.

ANS: A Diphenhydramine, trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, and other anticholinergic medications may be used to treat dystonias. Swallowing will be difficult or impossible; therefore, oral medication is not an option. Medication should be administered immediately, so the intramuscular route is best. In this case, the best option given is diphenhydramine. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

25. An older adult is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide daily as well as lorazepam (Ativan) as needed for anxiety. Over 2 days, the patient developed confusion, slurred speech, an unsteady gait, and fluctuating levels of orientation. What is the most likely reason for the patient's change in mental status? a. Drug actions and interactions b. Benzodiazepine withdrawal c. Hypotensive episodes d. Renal failure

ANS: A Drug actions and interactions are common among elderly persons and predispose this population to delirium. Delirium is characterized by an abrupt onset of fluctuating levels of awareness, clouded consciousness, perceptual disturbances, and disturbed memory and orientation. The patient takes lorazepam on a PRN basis, so withdrawal is unlikely. Hypotensive episodes or problems with renal function may occur associated with the patient's drug regime, but interactions are more likely the problem.

13. During the third week of treatment, the spouse of a patient in a rehabilitation program for substance abuse says, "After this treatment program, I think everything will be all right." Which remark by the nurse will be most helpful to the spouse? a. "While sobriety solves some problems, new ones may emerge as one adjusts to living without drugs and alcohol." b. "It will be important for you to structure life to avoid as much stress as you can and provide social protection." c. "Addiction is a lifelong disease of self-destruction. You will need to observe your spouse's behavior carefully." d. "It is good that you are supportive of your spouse's sobriety and want to help maintain it."

ANS: A During recovery, patients identify and use alternative coping mechanisms to reduce reliance on substances. Physical adaptations must occur. Emotional responses were previously dulled by alcohol but are now fully experienced and may cause considerable anxiety. These changes inevitably have an effect on the spouse and children, who need anticipatory guidance and accurate information.

16. An older adult patient in the intensive care unit has visual and auditory illusions. Which intervention will be most helpful? a. Using the patient's glasses and hearing aids b. Placing personally meaningful objects in view c. Placing large clocks and calendars on the wall d. Assuring that the room is brightly lit but very quiet at all times

ANS: A Illusions are sensory misperceptions. Glasses and hearing aids help clarify sensory perceptions. Without glasses, clocks, calendars, and personal objects are meaningless. Round-the-clock lighting promotes sensory overload and sensory perceptual alterations.

2. Which intervention is appropriate for an individual diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder who frequently manipulates others? a. Refer requests and questions related to care to the case manager. b. Encourage the patient to discuss feelings of fear and inferiority. c. Provide negative reinforcement for acting-out behavior. d. Ignore, rather than confront, inappropriate behavior.

ANS: A Manipulative people frequently make requests of many different staff, hoping one will give in. Having one decision maker provides consistency and avoids the potential for playing one staff member against another. Positive reinforcement of appropriate behaviors is more effective than negative reinforcement. The behavior should not be ignored; judicious use of confrontation is necessary. Patients with antisocial personality disorders rarely have feelings of fear and inferiority.

11. A patient admitted to an alcoholism rehabilitation program tells the nurse, "I'm actually just a social drinker. I usually have a drink at lunch, two in the afternoon, wine with dinner, and a few drinks during the evening." The patient is using which defense mechanism? a. Denial b. Projection c. Introjection d. Rationalization

ANS: A Minimizing one's drinking is a form of denial of alcoholism. The patient is more than a social drinker. Projection involves blaming another for one's faults or problems. Rationalization involves making excuses. Introjectioninvolves incorporating a quality of another person or group into one's own personality.

23. Select the priority nursing intervention when caring for a patient after an overdose of amphetamines. a. Monitor vital signs. b. Observe for depression. c. Awaken the patient every 15 minutes. d. Use warmers to maintain body temperature.

ANS: A Overdose of stimulants, such as amphetamines, can produce respiratory and circulatory dysfunction as well as hyperthermia. Concentration is impaired. This patient will be hypervigilant; it is not necessary to awaken the patient.

14. A patient has progressive memory deficits associated with dementia. Which nursing intervention would best help the individual function in the environment? a. Assist the patient to perform simple tasks by giving step-by-step directions. b. Reduce frustration by performing activities of daily living for the patient. c. Stimulate intellectual function by discussing new topics with the patient. d. Read one story from the newspaper to the patient every day.

ANS: A Patients with cognitive impairment should perform all tasks of which they are capable. When simple directions are given in a systematic fashion, the patient is better able to process information and perform simple tasks. Stimulating intellectual functioning by discussing new topics is likely to prove frustrating for the patient. Patients with cognitive deficits may enjoy the attention of someone reading to them, but this activity does not promote their function in the environment.

21. What is the priority intervention for a nurse beginning to work with a patient diagnosed with a schizotypal personality disorder? a. Respect the patient's need for periods of social isolation. b. Prevent the patient from violating the nurse's rights. c. Teach the patient how to select clothing for outings. d. Engage the patient in community activities.

ANS: A Patients with schizotypal personality disorder are eccentric and often display perceptual and cognitive distortions. They are suspicious of others and have considerable difficulty trusting. They become highly anxious and frightened in social situations, thus the need to respect their desire for social isolation. Teaching the patient to match clothing is not the priority intervention. Patients with schizotypal personality disorder rarely engage in behaviors that violate the nurse's rights or exploit the nurse.

26. A hospitalized patient diagnosed with delirium misinterprets reality, while a patient diagnosed with dementia wanders about the home. Which outcome is the priority in both scenarios? The patients will: a. remain safe in the environment. b. participate actively in self-care. c. communicate verbally. d. acknowledge reality.

ANS: A Risk for injury is the nurse's priority concern. Safety maintenance is the desired outcome. The other outcomes are lower priorities and may not be realistic.

15. A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder was hospitalized several times after self-mutilating episodes. The patient remains impulsive. Which nursing diagnosis is the initial focus of this therapy? a. Risk for self-directed violence b. Impaired skin integrity c. Risk for injury d. Powerlessness

ANS: A Risk for self-mutilation is a nursing diagnosis relating to patient safety needs and is therefore of high priority. Impaired skin integrity and powerlessness may be appropriate foci for care but are not the priority related to this therapy. Risk for injury implies accidental injury, which is not the case for the patient with borderline personality disorder.

13. A community mental health nurse wants to establish a relationship with a very withdrawn patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient lives at home with a supportive family. Select the nurse's best plan. a. Visit daily for 4 days, then every other day for 1 week; stay with patient for 20 minutes, accept silence; state when the nurse will return. b. Arrange to spend 1 hour each day with the patient; focus on asking questions about what the patient is thinking or experiencing; avoid silences. c. Visit twice daily; sit beside the patient with a hand on the patient's arm; leave if the patient does not respond within 10 minutes. d. Visit every other day; remind the patient of the nurse's identity; encourage the patient to talk while the nurse works on reports.

ANS: A Severe constraints on the community mental health nurse's time will probably not allow more time than what is mentioned in the correct option; yet, important principles can be used. A severely withdrawn patient should be met "at the patient's own level," with silence accepted. Short periods of contact are helpful to minimize both the patient's and the nurse's anxiety. Predictability in returning as stated will help build trust. An hour may be too long to sustain a home visit with a withdrawn patient, especially if the nurse persists in leveling a barrage of questions at the patient. Twice-daily visits are probably not possible, and leaving after 10 minutes would be premature. Touch may be threatening. Working on reports suggests the nurse is not interested in the patient. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 210-211 | Page 215 (Box 12-6) | Page 222 (Case study and Nursing Care Plan 12-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

15. Select the most therapeutic manner for a nurse working with a patient beginning treatment for alcohol addiction. a. Empathetic, supportive b. Skeptical, guarded c. Cool, distant d. Confrontational

ANS: A Support and empathy assist the patient to feel safe enough to start looking at problems. Counseling during the early stage of treatment needs to be direct, open, and honest. The other approaches will increase patient anxiety and cause the patient to cling to defenses.

28. A nurse wants to research epidemiology, assessment techniques, and best practices regarding persons with addictions. Which resource will provide the most comprehensive information? a. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) b. Institute of Medicine - National Research Council (IOM) c. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) d. American Society of Addictions Medicine

ANS: A The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) is the official resource for comprehensive information regarding addictions. The other resources have relevant information, but they are not as comprehensive.

20. Goals of care for an older adult patient diagnosed with delirium caused by fever and dehydration will focus on: a. returning to premorbid levels of function. b. identifying stressors negatively affecting self. c. demonstrating motor responses to noxious stimuli. d. exerting control over responses to perceptual distortions.

ANS: A The desired overall goal is that the delirious patient will return to the level of functioning held before the development of delirium. Demonstrating motor response to noxious stimuli is an indicator appropriate for a patient whose arousal is compromised. Identifying stressors that negatively affect the self is too nonspecific to be useful for a patient with delirium. Exerting control over responses to perceptual distortions is an unrealistic indicator for a patient with sensorium problems related to delirium.

30. Select the priority outcome for a patient completing the fourth alcohol-detoxification program in the past year. Prior to discharge, the patient will: a. state, "I know I need long-term treatment." b. use denial and rationalization in healthy ways. c. identify constructive outlets for expression of anger. d. develop a trusting relationship with one staff member.

ANS: A The key refers to the need for ongoing treatment after detoxification and is the best goal related to controlling relapse. The scenario does not give enough information to determine whether anger has been identified as a problem. A trusting relationship, while desirable, should have occurred earlier in treatment.

14. A patient says, "I get in trouble sometimes because I make quick decisions and act on them." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Let's consider the advantages of being able to stop and think before acting." b. "It sounds as though you've developed some insight into your situation." c. "I bet you have some interesting stories to share about overreacting." d. "It's good that you're showing readiness for behavioral change."

ANS: A The patient is showing openness to learning techniques for impulse control. One technique is to teach the patient to stop and think before acting impulsively. The patient can then be taught to evaluate outcomes of possible actions and choose an effective action. The incorrect responses shift the encounter to a social level or are judgmental.

12. A patient is experiencing delusions of persecution about being poisoned. The patient has refused all hospital meals for 3 days. Which intervention is most likely to be acceptable to the patient? a. Allowing the patient supervised access to food vending machines b. Allowing the patient to phone a local restaurant to deliver meals c. Offering to taste each portion on the tray for the patient d. Providing tube feedings or total parenteral nutrition

ANS: A The patient who is delusional about food being poisoned is likely to believe restaurant food might still be poisoned and to say that the staff member tasting the food has taken an antidote to the poison before tasting. Attempts to tube feed or give nutrition intravenously are seen as aggressive and usually promote violence. Patients perceive foods in sealed containers, packages, or natural shells as being safer. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 205-206 (Table 12-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

21. An older adult with moderately severe dementia forgets where the bathroom is and has episodes of incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the patient's family? a. Label the bathroom door. b. Take the older adult to the bathroom hourly. c. Place the older adult in disposable adult briefs. d. Limit the intake of oral fluids to 1000 ml per day.

ANS: A The patient with moderately severe dementia has memory loss that begins to interfere with activities. This patient may be able to use environmental cues such as labels on doors to compensate for memory loss. Regular toileting may be helpful, but a 2-hour schedule is often more reasonable. Placing the patient in disposable briefs is more appropriate at a later stage. Severely limiting oral fluid intake would predispose the patient to a urinary tract infection

4. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and visual and tactile hallucinations? a. Risk for injury related to altered cerebral function, fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and misperception of the environment b. Bathing/hygiene self-care deficit related to cerebral dysfunction, as evidenced by confusion and inability to perform personal hygiene tasks c. Disturbed thought processes related to medication intoxication, as evidenced by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations d. Fear related to sensory perceptual alterations as evidenced by visual and tactile hallucinations

ANS: A The physical safety of the patient is of highest priority among the diagnoses given. Many opportunities for injury exist when a patient misperceives the environment as distorted, threatening, or harmful or when the patient exercises poor judgment or when the patient's sensorium is clouded. The other diagnoses may be concerns, but are lower priorities.

17. When a patient first began using alcohol, two drinks produced relaxation and drowsiness. After 1 year, four drinks are needed to achieve the same response. Why has this change occurred? a. Tolerance has developed. b. Antagonistic effects are evident. c. Metabolism of the alcohol is now delayed. d. Pharmacokinetics of the alcohol have changed.

ANS: A Tolerance refers to needing higher and higher doses of a drug to produce the desired effect. The potency of the alcohol is stable. Neither hypomagnesemia nor antagonistic effects account for this change.

4. When a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was discharged 6 months ago, haloperidol (Haldol) was prescribed. The patient now says, "I stopped taking those pills. They made me feel like a robot." What are common side effects the nurse should validate with the patient? a. Sedation and muscle stiffness b. Sweating, nausea, and diarrhea c. Mild fever, sore throat, and skin rash d. Headache, watery eyes, and runny nose

ANS: A Typical antipsychotic drugs often produce sedation and extrapyramidal side effects such as stiffness and gait disturbance, effects the patient might describe as making him or her feel like a "robot." The side effects mentioned in the other options are usually not associated with typical antipsychotic therapy or would not have the effect described by the patient. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

9. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder who has made threats against staff, ripped art off the walls, and thrown objects? a. Risk for other-directed violence b. Risk for self directed violence c. Impaired social interaction d. Ineffective denial

ANS: A Violence against property, along with threats to harm staff, makes this diagnosis the priority. Patients with antisocial personality disorders have impaired social interactions, but the risk for harming others is a higher priority. They direct violence toward others; not self. When patients with antisocial personality disorders use denial, they use it effectively.

22. What assessment findings mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia? a. Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion b. Auditory hallucinations, ideas of reference, thought insertion, and broadcasting c. Stereotyped behavior, echopraxia, echolalia, and waxy flexibility d. Loose associations, concrete thinking, and echolalia neologisms

ANS: A Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion are prodromal symptoms, the symptoms that are present before the development of florid symptoms. The incorrect options each list the positive symptoms of schizophrenia that might be apparent during the acute stage of the illness. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 201-202 | Page 204-205 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

38. A newly hospitalized patient experiencing psychosis says, "Red chair out town board." Which term should the nurse use to document this finding? a. Word salad b. Neologism c. Anhedonia d. Echolalia

ANS: A Word salad (schizophasia) is a jumble of words that is meaningless to the listener and perhaps to the speaker as well, because of an extreme level of disorganization. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

A patient repeatedly stated, "I'm stupid." Which statement by that patient would show progress resulting from cognitive behavioral therapy? a. "Sometimes I do stupid things." b. "Things always go wrong for me." c. "I always fail when I try new things." d. "I'm disappointed in my lack of ability."

ANS: A "I'm stupid" is a cognitive distortion. A more rational thought is "Sometimes I do stupid things." The latter thinking promotes emotional self-control. The distracters reflect irrational or distorted thinking. This item relates to an audience response question.

A patient says, "Please don't share information about me with the other people." How should the nurse respond? a. "I will not share information with your family or friends without your permission, but I share information about you with other staff." b. "A therapeutic relationship is just between the nurse and the patient. It is up to you to tell others what you want them to know." c. "It depends on what you choose to tell me. I will be glad to disclose at the end of each session what I will report to others." d. "I cannot tell anyone about you. It will be as though I am talking about my own problems, and we can help each other by keeping it between us."

ANS: A A patient has the right to know with whom the nurse will share information and that confidentiality will be protected. Although the relationship is primarily between the nurse and patient, other staff needs to know pertinent data. The other incorrect responses promote incomplete disclosure on the part of the patient, require daily renegotiation of an issue that should be resolved as the nurse-patient contract is established, and suggest mutual problem solving. The relationship must be patient centered. See relationship to audience response question.

A nurse makes an initial visit to a homebound patient diagnosed with a serious mental illness. A family member offers the nurse a cup of coffee. Select the nurse's best response. a. "Thank you. I would enjoy having a cup of coffee with you." b. "Thank you, but I would prefer to proceed with the assessment." c. "No, but thank you. I never accept drinks from patients or families." d. "Our agency policy prohibits me from eating or drinking in patients' homes."

ANS: A Accepting refreshments or chatting informally with the patient and family represent therapeutic use of self and help to establish rapport. The distracters fail to help establish rapport.

A community mental health nurse has worked with a patient for 3 years but is moving out of the city and terminates the relationship. When a novice nurse begins work with this patient, what is the starting point for the relationship? a. Begin at the orientation phase. b. Resume the working relationship. c. Initially establish a social relationship. d. Return to the emotional catharsis phase.

ANS: A After termination of a long-term relationship, the patient and new nurse usually have to begin at ground zero, the orientation phase, to build a new relationship. If termination is successfully completed, the orientation phase sometimes progresses quickly to the working phase. Other times, even after successful termination, the orientation phase may be prolonged.

A patient diagnosed with acute mania has distributed pamphlets about a new business venture on a street corner for 2 days. Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury b. Ineffective coping c. Impaired social interaction d. Ineffective therapeutic regimen management

ANS: A Although each of the nursing diagnoses listed is appropriate for a patient having a manic episode, the priority lies with the patient's physiological safety. Hyperactivity and poor judgment put the patient at risk for injury.

A patient in a support group says, "I'm tired of being sick. Everyone always helps me, but I will be glad when I can help someone else." This statement reflects: a. altruism. b. universality. c. cohesiveness. d. corrective recapitulation.

ANS: A Altruism refers to the experience of being helpful or useful to others, a condition that the patient anticipates will happen. The other options are also therapeutic factors identified by Yalom.

A therapy group adds new members as others leave. What type of group is evident? a. Open b. Closed c. Homogeneous d. Heterogeneous

ANS: A An open group is a group that adds members throughout the life of the group as other members leave and as more persons who would benefit from the group become available. A closed group does not add new members; the membership is established at the beginning and, except for the occasional losses as some members leave, does not change thereafter. A homogeneous group includes members who are similar, and a heterogeneous group includes dissimilar members; not enough data are provided here to determine which applies in this case.

A patient says, "I've done a lot of cheating and manipulating in my relationships." Select a nonjudgmental response by the nurse. a. "How do you feel about that?" b. "I am glad that you realize this." c. "That's not a good way to behave." d. "Have you outgrown that type of behavior?"

ANS: A Asking a patient to reflect on feelings about his or her actions does not imply any judgment about those actions, and it encourages the patient to explore feelings and values. The remaining options offer negative judgments.

Which technique is most applicable to aversion therapy? a. Punishment b. Desensitization c. Role modeling d. Positive reinforcement

ANS: A Aversion therapy is akin to punishment. Aversive techniques include pairing of a maladaptive behavior with a noxious stimulus, punishment, and avoidance training.

Four new patients were admitted to the behavioral health unit in the past 12 hours. The nurse directs a psychiatric technician to monitor these patients for safety. Which patient will need the most watchful supervision? A patient diagnosed with: a. bipolar I disorder b. bipolar II disorder. c. dysthymic disorder d. cyclothymic disorder

ANS: A Bipolar I is a mood disorder characterized by excessive activity and energy. Psychosis (hallucinations, delusions, and dramatically disturbed thoughts) may occur during manic episodes. A patient with bipolar I disorder is more unstable than a patient diagnosed with bipolar II, cyclothymic disorder, or dysthymic disorder.

A Category V tornado hits a community, destroying many homes and businesses. Which nursing intervention would best demonstrate compassion and caring? a. Encouraging persons to describe their memories and feelings about the event b. Arranging transportation to the local community mental health center c. Referring a local resident to a community food bank d. Coordinating psychiatric home care services

ANS: A Disaster victims benefit from telling their story. Nurses show compassion by listening and offering hope. The distracters identify other aspects of psychological first aid and services on the mental health continuum.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder will be discharged tomorrow. The patient is taking a mood stabilizing medication. What is the priority nursing intervention for the patient as well as the patient's family during this phase of treatment? a. Attending psychoeducation sessions b. Decreasing physical activity c. Increasing food and fluids d. Meeting self-care needs

ANS: A During the continuation phase of treatment for bipolar disorder, the physical needs of the patient are not as important an issue as they were during the acute episode. After hospital discharge, treatment focuses on maintaining medication compliance and preventing relapse, both of which are fostered by ongoing psychoeducation.

Which statement shows a nurse has empathy for a patient who made a suicide attempt? a. "You must have been very upset when you tried to hurt yourself." b. "It makes me sad to see you going through such a difficult experience." c. "If you tell me what is troubling you, I can help you solve your problems." d. "Suicide is a drastic solution to a problem that may not be such a serious matter."

ANS: A Empathy permits the nurse to see an event from the patient's perspective, understand the patient's feelings, and communicate this to the patient. The incorrect responses are nurse- centered (focusing on the nurse's feelings rather than the patient's), belittling, and sympathetic.

Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa? a. Assist the patient to identify triggers to binge eating. b. Provide corrective consequences for weight loss. c. Assess for signs of impulsive eating. d. Explore needs for health teaching.

ANS: A For most patients with bulimia nervosa, certain situations trigger the urge to binge; purging then follows. Often the triggers are anxiety-producing situations. Identification of triggers makes it possible to break the binge-purge cycle. Because binge eating and purging directly affect physical status, the need to promote physical safety assumes highest priority.

A nurse and patient discuss a problem the patient has kept secret for many years. Afterward the patient says, "I feel so relieved that I finally told somebody." Which term best describes the patient's feeling? a. Catharsis b. Superego c. Cognitive distortion d. Counter-transference

ANS: A Freud initially used talk therapy, known as the cathartic method. Today we refer to catharsis as "getting things off our chests." The superego represents the moral component of personality.

A patient is having difficulty making a decision. The nurse has mixed feelings about whether to provide advice. Which principle usually applies? Giving advice: a. is rarely helpful. b. fosters independence. c. lifts the burden of personal decision making. d. helps the patient develop feelings of personal adequacy.

ANS: A Giving advice fosters dependence on the nurse and interferes with the patient's right to make personal decisions. It robs patients of the opportunity to weigh alternatives and develop problem-solving skills. Furthermore, it contributes to patient feelings of personal inadequacy. It also keeps the nurse in control and feeling powerful.

Inpatient hospitalization for persons with mental illness is generally reserved for patients who: a. present a clear danger to self or others. b. are noncompliant with medication at home. c. have limited support systems in the community. d. develop new symptoms during the course of an illness.

ANS: A Hospitalization is justified when the patient is a danger to self or others, has dangerously decompensated, or needs intensive medical treatment. The distracters do not necessarily describe patients who require inpatient treatment.

A community mental health nurse has worked for months to establish a relationship with a delusional, suspicious patient. The patient recently lost employment and could no longer afford prescribed medications. The patient says, "Only a traitor would make me go to the hospital." Select the nurse's best initial intervention. a. With the patient's consent, contact resources to provide medications without charge temporarily. b. Arrange a bed in a local homeless shelter with nightly on-site supervision. c. Hospitalize the patient until the symptoms have stabilized. d. Ask the patient, "Do you feel like I am a traitor?"

ANS: A Hospitalization may damage the nurse-patient relationship, even if it provides an opportunity for rapid stabilization. If medication is restarted, the patient may possibly be stabilized in the home setting, even if it takes a little longer. Programs are available to help patients who are unable to afford their medications. A homeless shelter is inappropriate and unnecessary. Hospitalization may be necessary later, but a less restrictive solution should be tried first, since the patient is not dangerous. A yes/no question is non-therapeutic communication.

A nurse provides care for an adolescent patient diagnosed with an eating disorder. Which behavior by this nurse indicates that additional clinical supervision is needed? a. The nurse interacts with the patient in a protective fashion. b. The nurse's comments to the patient are compassionate and nonjudgmental. c. The nurse teaches the patient to recognize signs of increasing anxiety and ways to intervene. d. The nurse refers the patient to a self-help group for individuals with eating disorders.

ANS: A In the effort to motivate the patient and take advantage of the decision to seek help and be healthier, the nurse must take care not to cross the line toward authoritarianism and assumption of a parental role. Protective behaviors are part of the parent's role. The helpful nurse uses a problem-solving approach and focuses on the patient's feelings of shame and low self-esteem. Referring a patient to a self-help group is an appropriate intervention.

A leader plans to start a new self-esteem building group. Which intervention would be most helpful for assuring mutual respect within the group? a. Describe the importance of mutual respect in the first session and make it a group norm. b. Exclude potential members whose behavior suggests they are likely to be disrespectful. c. Give members a brochure describing the purpose, norms, and expectations of the group. d. Explain that mutual respect is expected and confront those who are not respectful.

ANS: A It is helpful to motivate members to behave respectfully by describing how mutual respect benefits all members and is necessary for the group to be fully therapeutic. Setting a tone and expectation of mutual respect from the outset is the most helpful intervention listed. Excluding members because of how they might behave could exclude members who would have been appropriate, depriving them of the potential benefits of the group. Conveying expectations by brochure is less effective than doing so orally, because it lacks the connection to each member a skilled leader can create to motivate members and impart the expectation of respect. Confronting inappropriate behavior is therapeutic but only addresses existing behavior rather than preventing all such undesired behavior.

Three months ago a patient diagnosed with binge eating disorder weighed 198 pounds. Lorcaserin (Belviq) was prescribed. Which current assessment finding indicates the need for reevaluation of this treatment approach? The patient: a. now weighs 196 pounds. b. says, "I am using contraceptives." c. says, "I feel full after eating a small meal." d. reports problems with dry mouth and constipation.

ANS: A Lorcaserin is designed to make people feel full after eating smaller meals by activating a serotonin 2c receptor in the brain and blocking appetite signals. According to the FDA, this drug should be stopped if a patient does not have 5% weight loss after 12 weeks of use. If the patient now weighs 196 pounds, the medication has not been effective. The distracters indicate patient learning was effective and expected side effects of this medication.

During a one-on-one interaction with the nurse, a patient frequently looks nervously at the door. Select the best comment by the nurse regarding this nonverbal communication. a. "I notice you keep looking toward the door." b. "This is our time together. No one is going to interrupt us." c. "It looks as if you are eager to end our discussion for today." d. "If you are uncomfortable in this room, we can move someplace else."

ANS: A Making observations and encouraging the patient to describe perceptions are useful therapeutic communication techniques for this situation. The other responses are assumptions made by the nurse.

A patient would benefit from therapy in which peers as well as staff have a voice in determining patients' privileges and psychoeducational topics. Which approach would be best? a. Milieu therapy b. Cognitive therapy c. Short-term dynamic therapy d. Systematic desensitization

ANS: A Milieu therapy is based on the idea that all members of the environment contribute to the planning and functioning of the setting. The distracters are individual therapies that do not fit the description.

The nurse receives a laboratory report indicating a patient's serum level is 1 mEq/L. The patient's last dose of lithium was 8 hours ago. This result is: a. within therapeutic limits. b. below therapeutic limits. c. above therapeutic limits. d. invalid because of the time lapse since the last dose.

ANS: A Normal range for a blood sample taken 8 to 12 hours after the last dose of lithium is 0.4 to 1 mEq/L.

A nurse explains to the family of a mentally ill patient how a nurse-patient relationship differs from social relationships. Which is the best explanation? a. "The focus is on the patient. Problems are discussed by the nurse and patient, but solutions are implemented by the patient." b. "The focus shifts from nurse to patient as the relationship develops. Advice is given by both, and solutions are implemented." c. "The focus of the relationship is socialization. Mutual needs are met, and feelings are shared openly." d. "The focus is creation of a partnership in which each member is concerned with growth and satisfaction of the other."

ANS: A Only the correct response describes elements of a therapeutic relationship. The remaining responses describe events that occur in social or intimate relationships.

Which statement is a nurse most likely to hear from a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa? a. "I would be happy if I could lose 20 more pounds." b. "My parents don't pay much attention to me." c. "I'm thin for my height." d. "I have nice eyes."

ANS: A Patients with eating disorders have distorted body images and cognitive distortions. They see themselves as overweight even when their weight is subnormal. "I'm thin for my height" is therefore unlikely to be heard from a patient with anorexia nervosa. Poor self-image precludes making positive statements about self, such as "I have nice eyes." Many patients with eating disorders see supportive others as intrusive and out of tune with their needs.

A nurse leads a psychoeducational group for patients in the community diagnosed with schizophrenia. A realistic outcome for group members is that they will: a. discuss ways to manage their illness. b. develop a high level of trust and cohesiveness. c. understand unconscious motivation for behavior. d. demonstrate insight about development of their illness.

ANS: A Patients with schizophrenia almost universally have problems associated with everyday living in the community, so discussing ways to manage the illness would be an important aspect of psychoeducation. Discussing concerns about daily life would be a goal to which each could relate. Developing trust and cohesion is desirable but is not the priority outcome of a psychoeducational group. Understanding unconscious motivation would not be addressed. Insight would be difficult for a patient with residual schizophrenia because of the tendency toward concrete thinking.

A group begins the working phase. One member has a childhood history of neglect and ridicule by parents. Which comment would the group leader expect from this member? a. "My boss is always expecting more of me than the others, but talking to him would only make it worse." b. "I'm sorry for talking all the time, but there is so much going on in my life. I can't remember what I already said." c. "Thanks for the suggestions everyone. Maybe some of them will help. It won't hurt to give them a try." d. "This group is stupid. Nobody here can help anybody else because we are all so confused. It's a waste."

ANS: A People who frequently complain, yet reject help or suggestions when offered, tend to have histories of severe deprivation as children, often accompanied by neglect or abuse. The other comments reflect dynamics other than the help-rejecting complainer, such as the monopolizer who apologizes for talking too much, the person who is insightful and agrees to try a peer's suggestion, and the demoralizing member.

One bed is available on the inpatient eating disorders unit. Which patient should be admitted to this bed? The patient whose weight decreased from: a. 150 to 100 pounds over a 4-month period. Vital signs are temperature, 35.9° C; pulse, 38 beats/min; blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg b. 120 to 90 pounds over a 3-month period. Vital signs are temperature, 36° C; pulse, 50 beats/min; blood pressure 70/50 mm Hg c. 110 to 70 pounds over a 4-month period. Vital signs are temperature 36.5° C; pulse, 60 beats/min; blood pressure 80/66 mm Hg d. 90 to 78 pounds over a 5-month period. Vital signs are temperature, 36.7° C; pulse, 62 beats/min; blood pressure 74/48 mm Hg

ANS: A Physical criteria for hospitalization include weight loss of more than 30% of body weight within 6 months, temperature below 36° C (hypothermia), heart rate less than 40 beats/min, and systolic blood pressure less than 70 mm Hg.

Which technique will best communicate to a patient that the nurse is interested in listening? a. Restating a feeling or thought the patient has expressed. b. Asking a direct question, such as "Did you feel angry?" c. Making a judgment about the patient's problem. d. Saying, "I understand what you're saying."

ANS: A Restating allows the patient to validate the nurse's understanding of what has been communicated. Restating is an active listening technique. Judgments should be suspended in a nurse-patient relationship. Close-ended questions such as "Did you feel angry?" ask for specific information rather than showing understanding. When the nurse simply states that he or she understands the patient's words, the patient has no way of measuring the understanding.

A health teaching plan for a patient taking lithium should include instructions to: a. maintain normal salt and fluids in the diet. b. drink twice the usual daily amount of flu-id. c. double the lithium dose if diarrhea or vomiting occurs. d. avoid eating aged cheese, processed meats, and red wine.

ANS: A Sodium depletion and dehydration increase the chance for development of lithium toxicity. The other options offer inappropriate information.

An outpatient diagnosed with bipolar disorder takes lithium carbonate 300 mg three times daily. The patient reports nausea. To reduce the nausea most effectively, the nurse suggests that the lithium be taken with: a. meals. b. an antacid. c. an antiemetic. d. a large glass of juice.

ANS: A Some patients find that taking lithium with meals diminishes nausea. The incorrect options are less helpful.

Three members of a therapy group share covert glances as other members of the group describe problems. When one makes a statement that subtly criticizes another speaker, the others nod in agreement. Which group dynamic should the leader suspect? a. Some members are acting as a subgroup instead of as members of the main group. b. Some of the members have become bored and are disregarding others. c. Three members are showing their frustration with slower members. d. The leadership of the group has been ineffective.

ANS: A Subgroups, small groups isolated within a larger group and functioning separately from it, sometimes form within therapy groups. When this occurs, subgroup members are cohesive with other subgroup members but not with the members of the larger group. Members of the subgroup may be bored or frustrated or expressing passive aggression, but the primary dynamic is the splitting off from the main group.

Select the example of tertiary prevention. a. Helping a person diagnosed with a serious mental illness learn to manage money b. Restraining an agitated patient who has become aggressive and assaultive c. Teaching school-age children about the dangers of drugs and alcohol d. Genetic counseling with a young couple expecting their first child

ANS: A Tertiary prevention involves services that address residual impairments, with a goal of improved independent functioning. Restraint is a secondary prevention. Genetic counseling and teaching school-age children about substance abuse and dependence are examples of primary prevention.

A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 14.8 kg/m2. Which assessment finding is most likely to accompany this value? a. Cachexia b. Leukocytosis c. Hyperthermia d. Hypertension

ANS: A The BMI value indicates extreme malnutrition. Cachexia is a hallmark of this problem. The patient would be expected to have leukopenia rather than leukocytosis. Hypothermia and hypotension are likely assessment findings.

A patient is suspicious and frequently manipulates others. To which psychosexual stage do these traits relate? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

ANS: A The behaviors in the stem develop as the result of attitudes formed during the oral stage, when an infant first learns to relate to the environment. Anal-stage traits include stinginess, stubbornness, orderliness, or their opposites. Phallic-stage traits include flirtatiousness, pride, vanity, difficulty with authority figures, and difficulties with sexual identity. Genital-stage traits include the ability to form satisfying sexual and emotional relationships with members of the opposite sex, emancipation from parents, a strong sense of personal identity, or the opposites of these traits.

Which patient is the best candidate for brief psychodynamic therapy? a. An accountant with a loving family and successful career who was involved in a short extramarital affair b. An adult with a long history of major depression who was charged with driving under the influence (DUI) c. A woman with a history of borderline personality disorder who recently cut both wrists d. An adult male recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa

ANS: A The best candidates for psychodynamic therapy are relatively healthy and well-functioning individuals, sometimes referred to as the "worried well," who have a clearly circumscribed area of difficulty and are intelligent, psychologically minded, and well-motivated for change. Patients with psychosis, severe depression, borderline personality disorders, and severe character disorders are not appropriate candidates for this type of treatment.

The exact cause of bipolar disorder has not been determined; however, for most patients: a. several factors, including genetics, are implicated. b. brain structures were altered by stress early in life. c. excess sensitivity in dopamine receptors may trigger episodes. d. inadequate norepinephrine reuptake disturbs circadian rhythms.

ANS: A The best explanation at this time is that bipolar disorder is most likely caused by interplay of complex independent variables. Various theories implicate genetics, endocrine imbalance, environmental stressors, and neurotransmitter imbalances.

Which finding best indicates that the goal "Demonstrate mentally healthy behavior" was achieved? A patient: a. sees self as capable of achieving ideals and meeting demands. b. behaves without considering the consequences of personal actions. c. aggressively meets own needs without considering the rights of others. d. seeks help from others when assuming responsibility for major areas of own life.

ANS: A The correct response describes an adaptive, healthy behavior. The distracters describe maladaptive behaviors.

Which documentation indicates that the treatment plan for a patient diagnosed with acute mania has been effective? a. "Converses with few interruptions; clothing matches; participates in activities." b. "Irritable, suggestible, distractible; napped for 10 minutes in afternoon." c. "Attention span short; writing copious notes; intrudes in conversations." d. "Heavy makeup; seductive toward staff; pressured speech."

ANS: A The descriptors given indicate the patient is functioning at an optimal level, using appropriate behavior, and thinking without becoming overstimulated by unit activities. The incorrect options reflect manic behavior.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder commands other patients, "Get me a book. Take this stuff out of here," and other similar demands. The nurse wants to interrupt this behavior without entering into a power struggle. Which initial approach should the nurse select? a. Distraction: "Let's go to the dining room for a snack." b. Humor: "How much are you paying servants these days?" c. Limit setting: "You must stop ordering other patients around." d. Honest feedback: "Your controlling behavior is annoying others."

ANS: A The distractibility characteristic of manic episodes can assist the nurse to direct the patient toward more appropriate, constructive activities without entering into power struggles. Humor usually backfires by either encouraging the patient or inciting anger. Limit setting and honest feed-back may seem heavy-handed and may incite anger.

A 4-year-old grabs toys from siblings and says, "I want that now!" The siblings cry, and the child's parent becomes upset with the behavior. According to Freudian theory, this behavior is a product of impulses originating in which system of the personality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Preconscious

ANS: A The id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of impulses. The ego acts as a mediator of behavior and weighs the consequences of the action, perhaps determining that taking the toy is not worth the mother's wrath. The superego would oppose the impulsive behavior as "not nice." The preconscious is a level of awareness. This item relates to an audience response question.

A patient has talked constantly throughout the group therapy session, often repeating the same comments. Other members were initially attentive then became bored, inattentive, and finally sullen. Which comment by the nurse leader would be most effective? a. Say to everyone, "Most of you have become quiet. I wonder if it might be related to concerns you may have about how the group is progressing today." b. Say to everyone, "One person has done most of the talking. I think it would be helpful for everyone to say how that has affected your experience of the group." c. Say to everyone, "I noticed that as our group progressed, most members became quiet, then disinterested, and now seem almost angry. What is going on?" d. Say to the talkative patient, "You have been doing most of the talking, and others have not had a chance to speak as a result. Could you please yield to others now?"

ANS: A The most effective action the nurse leader can take will be the one that encourages the group to solve its own problem. Pointing out changes in the group and asking members to respond to them lays the foundation for a discussion of group dynamics. Asking members to respond to the talkative patient puts that patient in an awkward position, likely increasing her anxiety. As anxiety increases, monopolizing behavior tends to increase as well, so this response would be self-defeating. Asking members what is going on is a broader opening and might lead to responses unrelated to the issue that bears addressing; narrowing the focus to the group process more directly addresses what is occurring in the group. Focusing on the talkative patient would be less effective and involves the leader addressing the issue instead of members first attempting to do so themselves (giving them a chance to practice skills such as assertive communication).

When a female Mexican American patient and a female nurse sit together, the patient often holds the nurse's hand. The patient also links arms with the nurse when they walk. The nurse is uncomfortable with this behavior. Which analysis is most accurate? a. The patient is accustomed to touch during conversation, as are members of many Hispanic subcultures. b. The patient understands that touch makes the nurse uncomfortable and controls the relationship based on that factor. c. The patient is afraid of being alone. When touching the nurse, the patient is reassured and comforted. d. The patient is trying to manipulate the nurse using nonverbal techniques.

ANS: A The most likely answer is that the patient's behavior is culturally influenced. Hispanic women frequently touch women they consider to be their friends. Although the other options are possible, they are less likely.

A nurse uses Maslow's hierarchy of needs to plan care for a patient with mental illness. Which problem will receive priority? The patient: a. refuses to eat or bathe. b. reports feelings of alienation from family. c. is reluctant to participate in unit social activities. d. is unaware of medication action and side effects.

ANS: A The need for food and hygiene are physiological and therefore take priority over psychological or meta-needs in care planning.

As a nurse discharges a patient, the patient gives the nurse a card of appreciation made in an arts and crafts group. What is the nurse's best action? a. Recognize the effectiveness of the relationship and patient's thoughtfulness. Accept the card. b. Inform the patient that accepting gifts violates policies of the facility. Decline the card. c. Acknowledge the patient's transition through the termination phase but decline the card. d. Accept the card and invite the patient to return to participate in other arts and crafts groups.

ANS: A The nurse must consider the meaning, timing, and value of the gift. In this instance, the nurse should accept the patient's expression of gratitude. See relationship to audience response question.

A patient with acute depression states, "God is punishing me for my past sins." What is the nurse's most therapeutic response? a. "You sound very upset about this." b. "God always forgives us for our sins." c. "Why do you think you are being punished?" d. "If you feel this way, you should talk to your minister."

ANS: A The nurse reflects the patient's comment, a therapeutic technique to encourage sharing for perceptions and feelings. The incorrect responses reflect probing, closed-ended comments, and giving advice, all of which are non-therapeutic.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been stable for 2 months. Today the patient's spouse calls the nurse to report the patient has not taken prescribed medication and is having disorganized thinking. The patient forgot to refill the prescription. The nurse arranges a refill. Select the best outcome to add to the plan of care. a. The patient's spouse will mark dates for prescription refills on the family calendar. b. The nurse will obtain prescription refills every 90 days and deliver to the patient. c. The patient will call the nurse weekly to discuss medication-related issues. d. The patient will report to the clinic for medication follow-up every week.

ANS: A The nurse should use the patient's support system to meet patient needs whenever possible. Delivery of medication by the nurse should be unnecessary for the nurse to do if patient or a significant other can be responsible. The patient may not need more intensive follow-up as long as medication is taken as prescribed.

At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination? a. During the orientation phase b. At the end of the working phase c. Near the beginning of the termination phase d. When the patient initially brings up the topic

ANS: A The patient has a right to know the conditions of the nurse-patient relationship. If the relationship is to be time-limited, the patient should be informed of the number of sessions. If it is open-ended, the termination date will not be known at the outset, and the patient should know that the issue will be negotiated at a later date. The nurse is responsible for bringing up the topic of termination early in the relationship, usually during the orientation phase.

A nurse performed these actions while caring for patients in an inpatient psychiatric setting. Which action violated patients' rights? a. Prohibited a patient from using the telephone b. In patient's presence, opened a package mailed to patient c. Remained within arm's length of patient with homicidal ideation d. Permitted a patient with psychosis to refuse oral psychotropic medication

ANS: A The patient has a right to use the telephone. The patient should be protected against possible harm to self or others. Patients have rights to send and receive mail and be present during package inspection. Patients have rights to refuse treatment.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is dressed in a red leotard and bright scarves. The patient twirls and shadow boxes. The patient says gaily, "Do you like my scarves? Here; they are my gift to you." How should the nurse document the patient's mood? a. Euphoric b. Irritable c. Suspicious d. Confident

ANS: A The patient has demonstrated clang associations and pleasant, happy behavior. Excessive happiness indicates euphoria. Irritability, belligerence, excessive happiness, and confidence are not the best terms for the patient's mood. Suspiciousness is not evident.

A nurse surveys medical records. Which finding signals a violation of patients' rights? a. A patient was not allowed to have visitors. b. A patient's belongings were searched at admission. c. A patient with suicidal ideation was placed on continuous observation. d. Physical restraint was used after a patient was assaultive toward a staff member.

ANS: A The patient has the right to have visitors. Inspecting patients' belongings is a safety measure. Patients have the right to a safe environment, including the right to be protected against impulses to harm self.

During group therapy, one patient says to another, "When I first started in this group, you were unable to make a decision, but now you can. You've made a lot of progress. I am beginning to think that maybe I can conquer my fears too." Which therapeutic factor is evident by this statement? a. Hope b. Altruism c. Catharsis d. Cohesiveness

ANS: A The patient's profession that he may be able to learn to cope more effectively reflects hope. Groups can instill hope in individuals who are demoralized or pessimistic. Altruism refers to doing good for others, which can result in positive feelings about oneself. Catharsis refers to venting of strong emotions. Cohesion refers to coming together and developing a connection with other group members.

In the majority culture of the United States, which individual has the greatest risk to be labeled mentally ill? One who: a. describes hearing God's voice speaking. b. is usually pessimistic but strives to meet personal goals. c. is wealthy and gives away $20 bills to needy individuals. d. always has an optimistic viewpoint about life and having own needs met.

ANS: A The question asks about risk. Hearing voices is generally associated with mental illness, but in charismatic religious groups, hearing the voice of God or a prophet is a desirable event. Cultural norms vary, which makes it more difficult to make an accurate diagnosis. The individuals described in the other options are less likely to be labeled mentally ill.

Which principle has the highest priority when addressing a behavioral crisis in an inpatient setting? a. Resolve the crisis with the least restrictive intervention possible. b. Swift intervention is justified to maintain the integrity of a therapeutic milieu. c. Rights of an individual patient are superseded by the rights of the majority of patients. d. Patients should have opportunities to regain control without intervention if the safety of others is not compromised.

ANS: A The rule of using the least restrictive treatment or intervention possible to achieve the desired outcome is the patient's legal right. Planned interventions are nearly always preferable. Intervention may be necessary when the patient threatens harm to self.

Consider this comment from a therapist: "The patient is homosexual but has kept this preference secret. Severe anxiety and depression occur when the patient anticipates family reactions to this sexual orientation." Which perspective is evident in the speaker? a. Theory of interpersonal relationships b. Classical conditioning theory c. Psychosexual theory d. Behaviorism theory

ANS: A The theory of interpersonal relationships recognizes the anxiety and depression as resulting from unmet interpersonal security needs. Behaviorism and classical conditioning theories do not apply. A psychosexual formulation would focus on uncovering unconscious material that relates to the patient problem.

Which scenario best depicts a behavioral crisis? A patient is: a. waving fists, cursing, and shouting threats at a nurse. b. curled up in a corner of the bathroom, wrapped in a towel. c. crying hysterically after receiving a phone call from a family member. d. performing push-ups in the middle of the hall, forcing others to walk around.

ANS: A This behavior constitutes a behavioral crisis because the patient is threatening harm to another individual. Intervention is called for to defuse the situation. The other options speak of behaviors that may require intervention of a less urgent nature because the patients in question are not threatening harm to self or others.

A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. A nurse asks, "Describe what you think about your present weight and how you look." Which response by the patient is most consistent with the diagnosis? a. "I am fat and ugly." b. "What I think about myself is my business." c. "I'm grossly underweight, but that's what I want." d. "I'm a few pounds overweight, but I can live with it."

ANS: A Untreated patients with anorexia nervosa do not recognize their thinness. They perceive themselves to be overweight and unattractive. The patient with anorexia will usually tell people perceptions of self. The patient with anorexia does not recognize his or her thinness and will persist in trying to lose more weight.

An outpatient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa has begun refeeding. Between the first and second appointments, the patient gained 8 pounds. The nurse should: a. assess lung sounds and extremities. b. suggest use of an aerobic exercise program. c. positively reinforce the patient for the weight gain. d. establish a higher goal for weight gain the next week.

ANS: A Weight gain of more than 2 to 5 pounds weekly may overwhelm the heart's capacity to pump, leading to cardiac failure. The nurse must assess for signs of pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure. The incorrect options are undesirable because they increase the risk for cardiac complications.

A nurse says, "I am the only one who truly understands this patient. Other staff members are too critical." The nurse's statement indicates: a. boundary blurring. b. sexual harassment. c. positive regard. d. advocacy.

ANS: A When the role of the nurse and the role of the patient shift, boundary blurring may arise. In this situation the nurse is becoming over-involved with the patient as a probable result of unrecognized countertransference. When boundary issues occur, the need for supervision exists. The situation does not describe sexual harassment. Data are not present to suggest positive regard or advocacy.

2. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was hospitalized after arguing with co-workers and threatening to harm them. The patient is aloof, suspicious, and says, "Two staff members I saw talking were plotting to kill me." Based on data gathered at this point, which nursing diagnoses relate? Select all that apply. a. Risk for other-directed violence b. Disturbed thought processes c. Risk for loneliness d. Spiritual distress e. Social isolation

ANS: A, B Delusions of persecution and ideas of reference support the nursing diagnosis of disturbed thought processes. Risk for other-directed violence is substantiated by the patient's feeling endangered by persecutors. Fearful individuals may strike out at perceived persecutors or attempt self-harm to get away from persecutors. Data are not present to support the other diagnoses. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 209-210 (Table 12-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis/Analysis MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

Select all that apply. An experienced nurse says to a new graduate, "When you've practiced as long as I have, you instantly know how to take care of psychotic patients." What information should the new graduate consider when analyzing this comment? a. The experienced nurse may have lost sight of patients' individuality, which may compromise the integrity of practice. b. New research findings should be integrated continuously into a nurse's practice to provide the most effective care. c. Experience provides mental health nurses with the essential tools and skills needed for effective professional practice. d. Experienced psychiatric nurses have learned the best ways to care for mentally ill patients through trial and error. e. An intuitive sense of patients' needs guides effective psychiatric nurses.

ANS: A, B Evidence-based practice involves using research findings and standards of care to provide the most effective nursing care. Evidence is continuously emerging, so nurses cannot rely solely on experience. The effective nurse also maintains respect for each patient as an individual. Overgeneralization compromises that perspective. Intuition and trial and error are unsystematic approaches to care.

Select all that apply. A nurse ends a relationship with a patient. Which actions by the nurse should be included in the termination phase? a. Focus dialogues with the patient on problems that may occur in the future. b. Help the patient express feelings about the relationship with the nurse. c. Help the patient prioritize and modify socially unacceptable behaviors. d. Reinforce expectations regarding the parameters of the relationship. e. Help the patient to identify strengths, limitations, and problems.

ANS: A, B The correct actions are part of the termination phase. The other actions would be used in the working and orientation phases.

2. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect in a patient experiencing delirium? Select all that apply. a. Impaired level of consciousness b. Disorientation to place, time c. Wandering attention d. Apathy e. Agnosia

ANS: A, B, C Disorientation to place and time is an expected finding. Orientation to person (self) usually remains intact. Attention span is short, and difficulty focusing or shifting attention as directed is often noted. Patients with delirium commonly experience illusions and hallucinations. Fluctuating levels of consciousness are expected. Agnosia occurs with dementia. Apathy is associated with depression.

Select all that apply. Which benefits are most associated with use of telehealth technologies? a. Cost savings for patients b. Maximize care management c. Access to services for patients in rural areas d. Prompt reimbursement by third party payers e. Rapid development of trusting relationships with patients

ANS: A, B, C Telehealth has shown it can maximize health and improve disease management skills and confidence with the disease process. Many rural parents have felt disconnected from services; telehealth technologies can solve those problems. Although telehealth's improved health outcomes regularly show cost savings for payers, one significant barrier is the current lack of reimbursement for remote patient monitoring by third party payers. Telehealth technologies have not shown rapid development of trusting relationships.

Select all that apply. A nurse can best address factors of critical importance to successful community treatment by including making assessments relative to: a. housing adequacy. b. family and support systems. c. income adequacy and stability. d. early psychosocial development. e. substance abuse history and current use.

ANS: A, B, C, E Early psychosocial developmental history is less relevant to successful outcomes in the community than the assessments listed in the other options. If a patient is homeless or fears homelessness, focusing on other treatment issues is impossible. Sufficient income for basic needs and medication is necessary. Adequate support is a requisite to community placement. Substance abuse undermines medication effectiveness and interferes with community adjustment.

Select all that apply. A patient states, "I'm starting cognitive-behavioral therapy. What can I expect from the sessions?" Which responses by the nurse would be appropriate? a. "The therapist will be active and questioning." b. "You will be given some homework assignments." c. "The therapist will ask you to describe your dreams." d. "The therapist will help you look at your ideas and beliefs about yourself." e. "The goal is to increase subjectivity about thoughts that govern your behavior."

ANS: A, B, D Cognitive therapists are active rather than passive during therapy sessions because they help patients reality-test their thinking. Homework assignments are given and completed outside the therapy sessions. Homework is usually discussed at the next therapy session. The goal of cognitive therapy is to assist the patient in identifying inaccurate cognitions and in reality- testing and formulating new, accurate cognitions. One distracter applies to psychoanalysis. Increasing subjectivity is not desirable.

Select all that apply. Which statements by patients diagnosed with a serious mental illness best demonstrate that the case manager has established an effective long-term relationship? "My case manager: a. talks in language I can understand." b. helps me keep track of my medication." c. gives me little gifts from time to time." d. looks at me as a whole person with many needs." e. lets me do whatever I choose without interfering."

ANS: A, B, D Each correct answer is an example of appropriate nursing foci: communicating at a level understandable to the patient, providing medication supervision, and using holistic principles to guide care. The distracters violate relationship boundaries or suggest a laissez faire attitude on the part of the nurse.

Select all that apply. A psychiatric nurse discusses rules of the therapeutic milieu and patients' rights with a newly admitted patient. Which rights should be included? The right to: a. have visitors b. confidentiality c. a private room d. complain about inadequate care e. select the nurse assigned to their care

ANS: A, B, D Patients' rights should be discussed shortly after admission. Patients have rights related to receiving/refusing visitors, privacy, filing complaints about inadequate care, and accepting/refusing treatments (including medications). Patients do not have a right to a private room or selecting which nurse will provide care.

1. A patient diagnosed with moderately severe Alzheimer's disease has a self-care deficit of dressing and grooming. Designate appropriate interventions to include in the patient's plan of care. Select all that apply. a. Provide clothing with elastic and hook-and-loop closures. b. Label clothing with the patient's name and name of the item. c. Administer anti-anxiety medication before bathing and dressing. d. Provide necessary items and direct the patient to proceed independently. e. If the patient resists dressing, use distraction and try again after a short interval.

ANS: A, B, E Providing clothing with elastic and hook-and-loop closures facilitates patient independence. Labeling clothing with the patient's name and the name of the item maintains patient identity and dignity (provides information if the patient has agnosia). When a patient resists, it is appropriate to use distraction and try again after a short interval because patient moods are often labile. The patient may be willing to cooperate given a later opportunity. Providing the necessary items for grooming and directing the patient to proceed independently are inappropriate. Be prepared to coach by giving step-by-step directions for each task as it occurs. Administering anxiolytic medication before bathing and dressing is inappropriate. This measure would result in unnecessary overmedication.

Which suggestions are appropriate for the family of a patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is being treated as an outpatient during a hypomanic episode? Select all that apply. a. Limit credit card access. b. Provide a structured environment. c. Encourage group social interaction. d. Suggest limiting work to half-days. e. Monitor the patient's sleep patterns.

ANS: A, B, E A patient with hypomania is expansive, grandiose, and labile; uses poor judgment; spends inappropriately; and is over-stimulated by a busy environment. Providing structure would help the patient maintain appropriate behavior. Financial irresponsibility may be avoided by limiting access to cash and credit cards. Continued decline in sleep patterns may indicate the condition has evolved to full mania. Group socialization should be kept to a minimum to reduce stimulation. A full leave of absence from work will be necessary to limit stimuli and prevent problems associated with poor judgment and inappropriate decision making that accompany hypomania.

Select all that apply. A person in the community asks, "People with mental illnesses went to state hospitals in earlier times. Why has that changed?" Select the nurse's accurate responses. a. "Science has made significant improvements in drugs for mental illness, so now many persons may live in their communities." b. "There's now a better selection of less restrictive treatment options available in communities to care for people with mental illness." c. "National rates of mental illness have declined significantly. There actually is not a need for state institutions anymore." d. "Most psychiatric institutions were closed because of serious violations of patients' rights and unsafe conditions." e. "Federal legislation and payment for treatment of mental illness has shifted the focus to community rather than institutional settings."

ANS: A, B, E The community is a less restrictive alternative than hospitals for treatment of persons with mental illness. Funding for treatment of mental illness remains largely inadequate but now focuses on community rather than institutional care. Antipsychotic medications improve more symptoms of mental illness; hence, management of psychiatric disorders has improved. Rates of mental illness have increased, not decreased. Hospitals were closed because funding shifted to the community. Conditions in institutions have improved.

A patient tells the nurse, "I'm ashamed of being bipolar. When I'm manic, my behavior embarrasses everyone. Even if I take my medication, there are no guarantees. I'm a burden to my family." These statements support which nursing diagnoses? Select all that apply. a. Powerlessness b. Defensive coping c. Chronic low self-esteem d. Impaired social interaction e. Risk-prone health behavior

ANS: A, C Chronic low self-esteem and powerlessness are interwoven in the patient's statements. No data support the other diagnoses.

Select all that apply. A nurse is interacting with patients in a psychiatric unit. Which statements reflect use of therapeutic communication? a. "Tell me more about that situation." b. "Let's talk about something else." c. "I notice you are pacing a lot." d. "I'll stay with you a while." e. "Why did you do that?"

ANS: A, C, D The correct responses demonstrate use of the therapeutic techniques making an observation and showing empathy. The incorrect responses demonstrate changing the subject and probing, which are non-therapeutic techniques.

3. A college student is extremely upset after failing two examinations. The student said, No one understands how this will hurt my chances of getting into medical school. The student then suspends access to his social networking website and turns off his cell phone. Which suicide risk factors are evident? Select all that apply. a. Shame b. Panic attack c. Humiliation d. Self-imposed isolation e. Recent stressful life event

ANS: A, C, D, E Failing examinations in the academic major constitutes a recent stressful life event. Shame and humiliation related to the failure can be hypothesized. The statement, No one can understand, can be seen as recent lack of social support. Terminating access to ones social networking site and turning off the cell phone represents self-imposed isolation. The scenario does not provide evidence of panic attack. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 481-483 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

2. The nurse can assist a patient to prevent substance abuse relapse by: (select all that apply) a. rehearsing techniques to handle anticipated stressful situations. b. advising the patient to accept residential treatment if relapse occurs. c. assisting the patient to identify life skills needed for effective coping. d. advising isolating self from significant others until sobriety is established. e. informing the patient of physical changes to expect as the body adapts to functioning without substances.

ANS: A, C, E Nurses can be helpful as a patient assesses needed life skills and in providing appropriate referrals. Anticipatory problem solving and role-playing are good ways of rehearsing effective strategies for handling stressful situations and helping the patient evaluate the usefulness of new strategies. The nurse can provide valuable information about physiological changes expected and ways to cope with these changes. Residential treatment is not usually necessary after relapse. Patients need the support of friends and family to establish and maintain sobriety.

Select all that apply. The health care team at an inpatient psychiatric facility drafts these criteria for admission. Which criteria should be included in the final version of the admission policy? a. Clear risk of danger to self or others b. Adjustment needed for doses of psychotropic medication c. Detoxification from long-term heavy alcohol consumption needed d. Respite for caregivers of persons with serious and persistent mental illness e. Failure of community-based treatment, demonstrating need for intensive treatment

ANS: A, C, E Medication doses can be adjusted on an outpatient basis. The goal of caregiver respite can be accomplished without hospitalizing the patient. The other options are acceptable, evidence-based criteria for admission of a patient to an inpatient service.

Select all that apply. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia lives in the community. On a home visit, the community psychiatric nurse case manager learns that the patient: • wants to attend an activity group at the mental health outreach center. • is worried about being able to pay for the therapy. • does not know how to get from home to the outreach center. • has an appointment to have blood work at the same time an activity group meets. • wants to attend services at a church that is a half-mile from the patient's home. Which tasks are part of the role of a community mental health nurse? a. Rearranging conflicting care appointments b. Negotiating the cost of therapy for the patient c. Arranging transportation to the outreach center d. Accompanying the patient to church services weekly e. Monitoring to ensure the patient's basic needs are met

ANS: A, C, E The correct answers reflect the coordinating role of the community psychiatric nurse case manager. Negotiating the cost of therapy and accompanying the patient to church services are interventions the nurse would not be expected to undertake. The patient can walk to the church services; the nurse can provide encouragement.

Select all that apply. Which comments by an elderly person best indicate successful completion of the developmental task? a. "I am proud of my children's successes in life." b. "I should have given to community charities more often." c. "My relationship with my father made life more difficult for me." d. "My experiences in the war helped me appreciate the meaning of life." e. "I often wonder what would have happened if I had chosen a different career."

ANS: A, D The developmental crisis for an elderly person relates to integrity versus despair. Pride in one's offspring indicates a sense of fulfillment. Recognition of the wisdom gained from difficult experiences (such as being in a war) indicates a sense of integrity. Blaming and regret indicate despair and unsuccessful resolution of the crisis.

Select all that apply. Which findings are signs of a person who is mentally healthy? a. Says, "I have some weaknesses, but I feel I'm important to my family and friends." b. Adheres strictly to religious beliefs of parents and family of origin. c. Spends all holidays alone watching old movies on television. d. Considers past experiences when deciding about the future. e. Experiences feelings of conflict related to changing jobs.

ANS: A, D, E Mental health is a state of well-being in which each individual is able to realize his or her own potential, cope with the normal stresses of life, work productively, and make a contribution to the community. Mental health provides people with the capacity for rational thinking, communication skills, learning, emotional growth, resilience, and self-esteem.

Select all that apply. Which comments by an adult best indicate self-actualization? a. "I am content with a good book." b. "I often wonder if I chose the right career." c. "Sometimes I think about how my parents would have handled problems." d. "It's important for our country to provide basic health care services for everyone." e. "When I was lost at sea for 2 days, I gained an understanding of what is important."

ANS: A, D, E Self-actualized persons enjoy privacy, have a sense of democracy, and show positive outcomes associated with peak experiences. Self-doubt, defensiveness, and blaming are not consistent with self-actualization.

1. A nurse at the mental health clinic plans a series of psychoeducational groups for persons newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which two topics take priority? a. "The importance of taking your medication correctly" b. "How to complete an application for employment" c. "How to dress when attending community events" d. "How to give and receive compliments" e. "Ways to quit smoking"

ANS: A, E Stabilization is maximized by adherence to the antipsychotic medication regimen. Because so many persons with schizophrenia smoke cigarettes, this topic relates directly to the patients' physiological well-being. The other topics are also important but are not priority topics. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 204 | Page 211-212 | Page 215 (Box 12-6) | Page 224 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning/Outcomes Identification MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

Select all that apply. A novice psychiatric nurse has a parent with bipolar disorder. This nurse angrily recalls feelings of embarrassment about the parent's behavior in the community. Select the best ways for this nurse to cope with these feelings. a. Seek ways to use the understanding gained from childhood to help patients cope with their own illnesses. b. Recognize that these feelings are unhealthy. The nurse should try to suppress them when working with patients. c. Recognize that psychiatric nursing is not an appropriate career choice. Explore other nursing specialties. d. The nurse should begin new patient relationships by saying, "My own parent had mental illness, so I accept it without stigma." e. Recognize that the feelings may add sensitivity to the nurse's practice, but supervision is important.

ANS: A, E The nurse needs support to explore these feelings. An experienced psychiatric nurse is a resource that may be helpful. The knowledge and experience gained from the nurse's relationship with a mentally ill parent may contribute sensitivity to compassionate practice. Self-disclosure and suppression are not adaptive coping strategies. The nurse should not give up on this area of practice without first seeking ways to cope with the memories.

7. Which assessment finding would be likely for a patient experiencing a hallucination? The patient: a. looks at shadows on a wall and says, "I see scary faces." b. states, "I feel bugs crawling on my legs and biting me." c. reports telepathic messages from the television. d. speaks in rhymes.

ANS: B A hallucination is a false sensory perception occurring without a corresponding sensory stimulus. Feeling bugs on the body when none are present is a tactile hallucination. Misinterpreting shadows as faces is an illusion. An illusion is a misinterpreted sensory perception. The other incorrect options apply to thought insertion and clang associations.

23. A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder has self-inflicted wrist lacerations. The health care provider prescribes daily dressing changes. The nurse performing this care should: a. maintain a stern and authoritarian affect. b. provide care in a matter-of-fact manner. c. encourage the patient to express anger. d. be very rigid and challenging.

ANS: B A matter-of-fact approach does not provide the patient with positive reinforcement for self-mutilation. The goal of providing emotional consistency is supported by this approach. The distracters provide positive reinforcement of the behavior or fail to show compassion.

10. Police bring a patient to the emergency department after an automobile accident. The patient demonstrates ataxia and slurred speech. The blood alcohol level is 500 mg%. Considering the relationship between the behavior and blood alcohol level, which conclusion is most probable? The patient: a. rarely drinks alcohol. b. has a high tolerance to alcohol. c. has been treated with disulfiram (Antabuse). d. has ingested both alcohol and sedative drugs recently.

ANS: B A non-tolerant drinker would be in coma with a blood alcohol level of 500 mg%. The fact that the patient is moving and talking shows a discrepancy between blood alcohol level and expected behavior and strongly indicates that the patient's body is tolerant. If disulfiram and alcohol are ingested together, an entirely different clinical picture would result. The blood alcohol level gives no information about ingestion of other drugs.

1. A patient diagnosed with alcoholism asks, "How will Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) help me?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "The goal of AA is for members to learn controlled drinking with the support of a higher power." b. "An individual is supported by peers while striving for abstinence one day at a time." c. "You must make a commitment to permanently abstain from alcohol and other drugs." d. "You will be assigned a sponsor who will plan your treatment program."

ANS: B Admitting to being an alcoholic, making an attempt to remain alcohol-free for a day at a time, and receiving support from peers are basic aspects of AA. The other options are incorrect.

12. Consider these diagnostic findings: apolipoprotein E (apoE) malfunction, neurofibrillary tangles, neuronal degeneration in the hippocampus, and brain atrophy. Which health problem corresponds to these diagnostic findings? a. Huntington's disease b. Alzheimer's Disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Vascular dementia

ANS: B All of the options relate to dementias; however, the pathophysiological phenomena described apply to Alzheimer's disease. Parkinson's disease is associated with dopamine dysregulation. Huntington's disease is genetic. Vascular dementia is the consequence of circulatory changes.

5. What is the priority intervention for a patient diagnosed with delirium who has fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and perceptual alterations? a. Distraction using sensory stimulation b. Careful observation and supervision c. Avoidance of physical contact d. Activation of the bed alarm

ANS: B Careful observation and supervision are of ultimate importance because an appropriate outcome would be that the patient will remain safe and free from injury. Physical contact during care cannot be avoided. Activating a bed alarm is only one aspect of providing for the patient's safety.

6. A patient's care plan includes monitoring for auditory hallucinations. Which assessment findings suggest the patient may be hallucinating? a. Detachment and overconfidence b. Darting eyes, tilted head, mumbling to self c. Euphoric mood, hyperactivity, distractibility d. Foot tapping and repeatedly writing the same phrase

ANS: B Clues to hallucinations include eyes looking around the room as though to find the speaker, tilting the head to one side as though listening intently, and grimacing, mumbling, or talking aloud as though responding conversationally to someone. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 206-207 | Page 212-213 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

18. During morning care, a nurse asks a patient diagnosed with dementia, "How was your night?" The patient replies, "It was lovely. I went out to dinner and a movie with my friend." Which term applies to the patient's response? a. Sundown syndrome b. Confabulation c. Perseveration d. Delirium

ANS: B Confabulation refers to making up of stories or answers to questions by a person who does not remember. It is a defensive tactic to protect self-esteem and prevent others from noticing memory loss. The patient's response was not sundown syndrome. Perseveration refers to repeating a word or phrase over and over. Delirium is not present in this scenario.

2. A nurse reviews vital signs for a patient admitted with an injury sustained while intoxicated. The medical record shows these blood pressure and pulse readings at the times listed: 0200: 118/78 mm Hg and 72 beats/min 0400: 126/80 mm Hg and 76 beats/min 0600: 128/82 mm Hg and 72 beats/min 0800: 132/88 mm Hg and 80 beats/min 1000: 148/94 mm Hg and 96 beats/min What is the nurse's priority action? a. Force fluids. b. Consult the health care provider. c. Obtain a clean-catch urine sample. d. Place the patient in a vest-type restraint.

ANS: B Elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate impending alcohol withdrawal and the need for medical intervention. No indication is present that the patient may have a urinary tract infection or is presently in need of restraint. Hydration will not resolve the problem.

22. Which statement by a depressed patient will alert the nurse to the patients need for immediate, active intervention? a. I am mixed up, but I know I need help. b. I have no one to turn to for help or support. c. It is worse when you are a person of color. d. I tried to get attention before I cut myself last time.

ANS: B Hopelessness is evident. Lack of social support and social isolation increases the suicide risk. Willingness to seek help lowers risk. Being a person of color does not suggest higher risk because more whites commit suicide than do individuals of other racial groups. Attention seeking is not correlated with higher suicide risk. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 487-490 (Table 25-3) and (Nursing Care Plan 25-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

A newly admitted patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. The patient states, "I saw two doctors talking in the hall. They were plotting to kill me." The nurse may correctly assess this behavior as: a. echolalia. b. an idea of reference. c. a delusion of infidelity. d. an auditory hallucination.

ANS: B Ideas of reference are misinterpretations of the verbalizations or actions of others that give special personal meanings to these behaviors; for example, when seeing two people talking, the individual assumes they are talking about him or her. The other terms do not correspond with the scenario. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 206 (Table 12-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

23. A patient hospitalized for 2 weeks committed suicide during the night. Which initial nursing measure will be most important regarding this event? a. Ask the information technology manager to verify the hospital information system is secure. b. Hold a staff meeting to express feelings and plan care for the other patients. c. Ask the patients roommate not to discuss the event with other patients. d. Prepare a report of a sentinel event.

ANS: B Interventions should help the staff and patients come to terms with the loss and grow because of the incident. Then, a community meeting should occur to allow other patients to express their feelings and request help. Staff should be prepared to provide additional support and reassurance to patients and should seek opportunities for peer support. A sentinel event report can be prepared later. The other incorrect options will not control information or would result in unsafe care. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 487-488 | Page 493-494 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

24. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia begins a new prescription for lurasidone HCL (Latuda). The patient is 5'6" and currently weighs 204 lbs. Which topic is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan related to this medication? a. How to recognize tardive dyskinesia b. Weight management strategies c. Ways to manage constipation d. Sleep hygiene measures

ANS: B Lurasidone HCL (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic medication. The incidence of weight gain, diabetes, and high cholesterol is high with this medication. The patient is overweight now, so weight management will be especially important. The incidence of tardive dyskinesia is low with second-generation antipsychotic medications. Constipation may occur, but it is less important than weight management. This drug usually produces drowsiness. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 218-219 (Table 12-5) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

37. A patient insistently states, "I can decipher codes of DNA just by looking at someone." Which problem is evident? a. Visual hallucinations b. Magical thinking c. Idea of reference d. Thought insertion

ANS: B Magical thinking is evident in the patient's appraisal of his own abilities. There is no evidence of the distracters. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

12. What is the most challenging nursing intervention with patients diagnosed with personality disorders who use manipulation? a. Supporting behavioral change b. Maintaining consistent limits c. Monitoring suicide attempts d. Using aversive therapy

ANS: B Maintaining consistent limits is by far the most difficult intervention because of the patient's superior skills at manipulation. Supporting behavioral change and monitoring patient safety are less difficult tasks. Aversive therapy would probably not be part of the care plan because positive reinforcement strategies for acceptable behavior seem to be more effective than aversive techniques. See relationship to audience response question.

13. A patient with stage 3 Alzheimer's disease tires easily and prefers to stay home rather than attend social activities. The spouse does the grocery shopping because the patient cannot remember what to buy. Which nursing diagnosis applies at this time? a. Self-care deficit b. Impaired memory c. Caregiver role strain d. Adult failure to thrive

ANS: B Memory impairment begins at stage 2 and progresses in stage 3. This patient is able to perform most self-care activities. Caregiver role strain and adult failure to thrive occur later.

7. A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder has a history of self-mutilation and suicide attempts. The patient reveals feelings of depression and anger with life. Which type of medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Benzodiazepine b. Mood stabilizing medication c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) d. Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)

ANS: B Mood stabilizing medications have been effective for many patients with borderline personality disorder. Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI) or anxiolytics are not supported by data given in the scenario. MAOIs require great diligence in adherence to a restricted diet and are rarely used for patients who are impulsive.

26. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken a conventional antipsychotic medication for a year. Hallucinations are less intrusive, but the patient continues to have apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. The nurse would expect a change to which medication? a. Haloperidol (Haldol) b. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) c. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

ANS: B Olanzapine is a second-generation atypical antipsychotic that targets both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are conventional antipsychotics that target only positive symptoms. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis)

7. A hospitalized patient diagnosed with an alcohol abuse disorder believes spiders are spinning entrapping webs in the room. The patient is fearful, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which nursing intervention is indicated? a. Check the patient every 15 minutes b. One-on-one supervision c. Keep the room dimly lit d. Force fluids

ANS: B One-on-one supervision is necessary to promote physical safety until sedation reduces the patient's feelings of terror. Checks every 15 minutes would not be sufficient to provide for safety. A dimly lit room promotes perceptual disturbances. Excessive fluid intake can cause overhydration, because fluid retention normally occurs when blood alcohol levels fall.

10. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia demonstrates little spontaneous movement and has waxy flexibility. The patient's activities of daily living are severely compromised. An appropriate outcome would be that the patient will: a. demonstrate increased interest in the environment by the end of week 1. b. perform self-care activities with coaching by the end of day 3. c. gradually take the initiative for self-care by the end of week 2. d. accept tube feeding without objection by day 2.

ANS: B Outcomes related to self-care deficit nursing diagnoses should deal with increasing ability to perform self-care tasks independently, such as feeding, bathing, dressing, and toileting. Performing the tasks with coaching by nursing staff denotes improvement over the complete inability to perform the tasks. The incorrect options are not directly related to self-care activities, difficult to measure, and unrelated to maintenance of nutrition. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 209-210 TOP: Nursing Process: Outcomes Identification MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

19. A nurse counsels the family of a patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who lives at home and wanders at night. Which action is most important for the nurse to recommend to enhance safety? a. Apply a medical alert bracelet to the patient. b. Place locks at the tops of doors. c. Discourage daytime napping. d. Obtain a bed with side rails.

ANS: B Placing door locks at the top of the door makes it more difficult for the patient with dementia to unlock the door because the ability to look up and reach upward is diminished. The patient will try to climb over side rails, increasing the risk for injury and falls. Avoiding daytime naps may improve the patient's sleep pattern but does not assure safety. A medical alert bracelet will be helpful if the patient leaves the home, but it does not prevent wandering or assure the patient's safety.

23. A patient with severe dementia no longer recognizes family members and becomes anxious and agitated when they attempt reorientation. Which alternative could the nurse suggest to the family members? a. Wear large name tags. b. Focus interaction on familiar topics. c. Frequently repeat the reorientation strategies. d. Place large clocks and calendars strategically.

ANS: B Reorientation may seem like arguing to a patient with cognitive deficit and increases the patient's anxiety. Validating, talking with the patient about familiar, meaningful things, and reminiscing give meaning to existence both for the patient and family members. The option that suggests using validating techniques when communicating is the only option that addresses an interactional strategy. Wearing large name tags and placing large clocks and calendars strategically are reorientation strategies. Frequently repeating the reorientation strategies is inadvisable because patients with dementia sometimes become more agitated with reorientation.

4. Which change in the brains biochemical function is most associated with suicidal behavior? a. Dopamine excess b. Serotonin deficiency c. Acetylcholine excess d. Gamma-aminobutyric acid deficiency

ANS: B Research suggests that low levels of serotonin may play a role in the decision to commit suicide. The other neurotransmitter alterations have not been implicated in suicidality. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 484-485 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

1. A person has had difficulty keeping a job because of arguing with co-workers and accusing them of conspiracy. Today the person shouts, "They're all plotting to destroy me. Isn't that true?" Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Everyone here is trying to help you. No one wants to harm you." b. "Feeling that people want to destroy you must be very frightening." c. "That is not true. People here are trying to help you if you will let them." d. "Staff members are health care professionals who are qualified to help you."

ANS: B Resist focusing on content; instead, focus on the feelings the patient is expressing. This strategy prevents arguing about the reality of delusional beliefs. Such arguments increase patient anxiety and the tenacity with which the patient holds to the delusion. The other options focus on content and provide opportunity for argument. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 205-206 | Page 213-215 (Box 12-4)

6. A hospitalized patient diagnosed with an alcohol abuse disorder believes the window blinds are snakes trying to get in the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. The nurse can anticipate the health care provider will prescribe a(n): a. narcotic analgesic, such as hydromorphone (Dilaudid). b. sedative, such as lorazepam (Ativan) or chlordiazepoxide (Librium). c. antipsychotic, such as olanzapine (Zyprexa) or thioridazine (Mellaril). d. monoamine oxidase inhibitor antidepressant, such as phenelzine (Nardil).

ANS: B Sedation allows for safe withdrawal from alcohol. Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice in most regions because of their high therapeutic safety index and anticonvulsant properties.

1. An adult outpatient diagnosed with major depression has a history of several suicide attempts by overdose. Given this patients history and diagnosis, which antidepressant medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Amitriptyline (Elavil), a sedating tricyclic medication b. Fluoxetine (Prozac), a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor c. Desipramine (Norpramin), a stimulating tricyclic medication d. Tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor

ANS: B Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants are very safe in overdosage situations, which is not true of the other medications listed. Given this patients history of overdosing, it is important that the medication be as safe as possible in case she takes an overdose of her prescribed medication. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 492 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

24. A nurse set limits while interacting with a patient demonstrating behaviors associated with borderline personality disorder. The patient tells the nurse, "You used to care about me. I thought you were wonderful. Now I can see I was wrong. You're evil." This outburst can be assessed as: a. denial. b. splitting c. defensive. d. reaction formation.

ANS: B Splitting involves loving a person, then hating the person because the patient is unable to recognize that an individual can have both positive and negative qualities. Denial is unconsciously motivated refusal to believe something. Reaction formation involves unconsciously doing the opposite of a forbidden impulse. The scenario does not indicate defensiveness. See relationship to audience response question.

19. A patient took trifluoperazine 30 mg po daily for 3 years. The clinic nurse notes that the patient grimaces and constantly smacks both lips. The patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. Which problem would the nurse suspect? a. Agranulocytosis b. Tardive dyskinesia c. Tourette's syndrome d. Anticholinergic effects

ANS: B Tardive dyskinesia is a neuroleptic-induced condition involving the face, trunk, and limbs. Involuntary movements, such as tongue thrusting; licking; blowing; irregular movements of the arms, neck, and shoulders; rocking; hip jerks; and pelvic thrusts, are seen. These symptoms are frequently not reversible even when the drug is discontinued. The scenario does not present evidence consistent with the other disorders mentioned. Agranulocytosis is a blood disorder. Tourette's syndrome is a condition in which tics are present. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, flushing, constipation, and dry eyes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

6. A nurse uses the SAD PERSONS scale to interview a patient. This tool provides data relevant to: a. current stress level. b. suicide potential. c. mood disturbance. d. level of anxiety.

ANS: B The SAD PERSONS tool evaluates 10 major risk factors in suicide potential: sex, age, depression, previous attempt, ethanol use, rational thinking loss, social supports lacking, organized plan, no spouse, and sickness. The tool does not have categories to provide information on the other options listed. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 486-487 (Table 25-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

5. Which hallucination necessitates the nurse to implement safety measures? The patient says, a. "I hear angels playing harps." b. "The voices say everyone is trying to kill me." c. "My dead father tells me I am a good person." d."The voices talk only at night when I'm trying to sleep."

ANS: B The correct response indicates the patient is experiencing paranoia. Paranoia often leads to fearfulness, and the patient may attempt to strike out at others to protect self. The distracters are comforting hallucinations or do not indicate paranoia. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 207 | Page 212-213 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

19. In the emergency department, a patient's vital signs are BP 66/40 mm Hg; pulse 140 beats/min; respirations 8 breaths/min and shallow. The nursing diagnosis is Ineffective breathing pattern related to depression of respiratory center secondary to narcotic intoxication. Select the priority outcome. a. The patient will demonstrate effective coping skills and identify community resources for treatment of substance abuse within 1 week of hospitalization. b. Within 4 hours, vital signs will stabilize, with BP above 90/60 mm Hg, pulse less than 100 beats/min, and respirations at or above 12 breaths/min. c. The patient will correctly describe a plan for home care and achieving a drug-free state before release from the emergency department. d. Within 6 hours, the patient's breath sounds will be clear bilaterally and throughout lung fields.

ANS: B The correct short-term outcome is the only one that relates to the patient's physical condition. It is expected that vital signs will return to normal when the CNS depression is alleviated. The patient's respirations are slow and shallow, but there is no evidence of congestion.

28. Personality traits most likely to be documented regarding a patient demonstrating characteristics of an obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are: a. affable, generous. b. perfectionist, inflexible c. suspicious, holds grudges. d. dramatic speech, impulsive.

ANS: B The individual with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is perfectionist, rigid, preoccupied with rules and procedures, and afraid of making mistakes. The other options refer to behaviors or traits not usually associated with OCPD. See relationship to audience response question.

30. A patient says, "The other nurses won't give me my medication early, but you know what it's like to be in pain and don't let your patients suffer. Could you get me my pill now? I won't tell anyone." Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic? a. "I'm not comfortable doing that," and then ignore subsequent requests for early medication. b. "I understand that you have pain, but giving medicine too soon would not be safe." c. "I'll have to check with your doctor about that; I will get back to you after I do." d. "It would be unsafe to give the medicine early; none of us will do that."

ANS: B The patient is attempting to manipulate the nurse. Empathetic mirroring reflects back to the patient the nurse's understanding of the patient's distress or situation in a neutral manner that does not judge it and helps elicit a more positive response to the limit that is being set. The other options would not be nontherapeutic; they lack the empathetic mirroring component that tends to elicit a more positive response from the patient.

35. A client says, "Facebook has a new tracking capacity. If I use the Internet, Homeland Security will detain me as a terrorist." Select the nurse's best initial action. a. Tell the client, "Facebook is a safe website. You don't need to worry about Homeland Security." b. Tell the client, "You are in a safe place where you will be helped." c. Administer a prn dose of an antipsychotic medication. d. Tell the client, "You don't need to worry about that."

ANS: B The patient is experiencing paranoia and delusional thinking, which leads to fear. Explaining that the patient is in a safe place will help relieve the fear. It is not therapeutic to disagree or give advice. Medication will not relieve the immediate concern. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 205-206 (Table 12-1) | Page 213-215 (Box 12-4)

3. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "My co-workers are out to get me. I also saw two doctors plotting to kill me." How does this patient perceive the environment? a. Disorganized b. Dangerous c. Supportive d. Bizarre

ANS: B The patient sees the world as hostile and dangerous. This assessment is important because the nurse can be more effective by using empathy to respond to the patient. Data are not present to support any of the other options. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 210 (Table 12-3) | Page 213 (Box 12-4)

27. An adult in the emergency department states, "Everything I see appears to be waving. I am outside my body looking at myself. I think I'm losing my mind." Vital signs are slightly elevated. The nurse should suspect: a. a schizophrenic episode. b. hallucinogen ingestion. c. opium intoxication. d. cocaine overdose.

ANS: B The patient who is high on a hallucinogen often experiences synesthesia (visions in sound), depersonalization, and concerns about going "crazy." Synesthesia is not common in schizophrenia. CNS stimulant overdose more commonly involves elevated vital signs and assaultive, grandiose behaviors. Phencyclidine (PCP) use commonly causes bizarre or violent behavior, nystagmus, elevated vital signs, and repetitive jerking movements.

24. Symptoms of withdrawal from opioids for which the nurse should assess include: a. dilated pupils, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, and elation. b. nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, anxiety, and hyperreflexia. c. mood lability, incoordination, fever, and drowsiness. d. excessive eating, constipation, and headache.

ANS: B The symptoms of withdrawal from opioids are similar to those of alcohol withdrawal. Hyperthermia is likely to produce periods of diaphoresis. See relationship to audience response question. (Educators may alter this question to multiple answers if desired.)

27. An elderly patient is admitted with delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection. The family asks whether the patient will ever recover. Select the nurse's best response. a. "The health care provider is the best person to answer your question." b. "The confusion will probably get better as we treat the infection." c. "Unfortunately, delirium is a progressively disabling disorder." d. "I will be glad to contact the chaplain to talk with you."

ANS: B Usually, as the underlying cause of the delirium is treated, the symptoms of delirium clear. The distracters mislead the family.

11. A nurse observes a catatonic patient standing immobile, facing the wall with one arm extended in a salute. The patient remains immobile in this position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers the arm. What is the name of this phenomenon? a. Echolalia b. Waxy flexibility c. Depersonalization d. Thought withdrawal

ANS: B Waxy flexibility is the ability to hold distorted postures for extended periods of time, as though the patient were molded in wax. Echolalia is a speech pattern. Depersonalization refers to a feeling state. Thought withdrawal refers to an alteration in thinking. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 207-208 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

26. A nursing diagnosis appropriate to consider for a patient diagnosed with any of the personality disorders is: a. noncompliance. b. impaired social interaction c. disturbed personal identity. d. diversional activity deficit.

ANS: B Without exception, individuals with personality disorders have problems with social interaction with others, hence, the diagnosis of "impaired social interaction." For example, some individuals are suspicious and lack trust, others are avoidant, and still others are manipulative. None of the other diagnoses are universally applicable to patients with personality disorders; each might apply to selected clinical diagnoses, but not to others.

A group has two more sessions before it ends. One member was previously vocal and has shown much progress but has now grown silent. What explanation most likely underlies this behavior? The silent member: a. has participated in the group and now has nothing more to offer. b. is having trouble dealing with feelings about termination of this group. c. wants to give quieter members a chance to talk in the remaining sessions. d. is engaging in attention-seeking behavior aimed at continuation of the group.

ANS: B A chief task during the termination phase of a group is to take what has been learned in group and transition to life without the group. The end of a group can be a significant loss for members, who may experience loss and grief and respond with sadness or anger. It is unlikely he would have nothing to say; at the very least, he could be responding to the comments of others even if not focusing on his own issues. He may wish to give quieter members a chance to talk, but again, this would not require or explain his complete silence. Some members, faced with only two remaining sessions, may be becoming more dominant under this pressure of time, but here too this is unlikely to lead a previously active participant to fall completely silent. The member is not attention-seeking.

Which characteristic would be more applicable to a community mental health nurse than to a nurse working in an operating room? a. Kindness b. Autonomy c. Compassion d. Professionalism

ANS: B A community mental health nurse often works autonomously. Kindness, compassion, and professionalism apply to both nurses.

A nurse introduces the matter of a contract during the first session with a new patient because contracts: a. specify what the nurse will do for the patient. b. spell out the participation and responsibilities of each party. c. indicate the feeling tone established between the participants. d. are binding and prevent either party from prematurely ending the relationship.

ANS: B A contract emphasizes that the nurse works with the patient rather than doing something for the patient. "Working with" is a process that suggests each party is expected to participate and share responsibility for outcomes. Contracts do not, however, stipulate roles or feeling tone, and premature termination is forbidden.

A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa is resistant to weight gain. What is the rationale for establishing a contract with the patient to participate in measures designed to produce a specified weekly weight gain? a. Because severe anxiety concerning eating is expected, objective and subjective data may be unreliable. b. Patient involvement in decision making increases sense of control and promotes compliance with treatment. c. Because of increased risk of physical problems with refeeding, the patient's permission is needed. d. A team approach to planning the diet ensures that physical and emotional needs will be met.

ANS: B A sense of control for the patient is vital to the success of therapy. A diet that controls weight gain can allay patient fears of too-rapid weight gain. Data collection is not the reason for contracting. A team approach is wise but is not a guarantee that needs will be met. Permission for treatment is a separate issue. The contract for weight gain is an additional aspect of treatment.

Which patient statement would lead the nurse to suspect unsuccessful completion of the developmental task of infancy? a. "I have very warm and close friendships." b. "I'm afraid to allow anyone to really get to know me." c. "I'm always absolutely right, so don't bother saying more." d. "I'm ashamed that I didn't do things correctly in the first place."

ANS: B According to Erikson, the developmental task of infancy is the development of trust. The correct response is the only statement clearly showing lack of ability to trust others. Warm, close relationships suggest the developmental task of infancy was successfully completed; rigidity and self-absorption are reflected in the belief one is always right; and shame for past actions suggests failure to resolve the crisis of initiative versus guilt.

Which type of group is a staff nurse with 2 months' psychiatric experience best qualified to conduct? a. Psychodynamic/psychoanalytic group b. Medication education group c. Existential/Gestalt group d. Family therapy group

ANS: B All nurses receive information about patient teaching strategies and basic information about psychotropic medications, making a medication education group a logical group for a beginner to conduct. The other groups would need a leader with more education and experience.

A patient experiencing acute mania dances around the unit, seldom sits, monopolizes conversations, interrupts, and intrudes. Which nursing intervention will best assist the patient with energy conservation? a. Monitor physiological functioning. b. Provide a subdued environment. c. Supervise personal hygiene. d. Observe for mood changes.

ANS: B All the options are reasonable interventions with a patient with acute mania, but providing a subdued environment directly relates to the outcome of energy conservation by decreasing stimulation and helping to balance activity and rest.

Which level of prevention activities would a nurse in an emergency department employ most often? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary

ANS: B An emergency department nurse would generally see patients in crisis or with acute illness, so secondary prevention is used. Primary prevention involves preventing a health problem from developing, and tertiary prevention applies to rehabilitative activities.

Complete this analogy. NANDA: clinical judgment: NIC: _________________ a. patient outcomes b. nursing actions c. diagnosis d. symptoms

ANS: B Analogies show parallel relationships. NANDA, the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association, identifies diagnostic statements regarding human responses to actual or potential health problems. These statements represent clinical judgments. NIC (Nursing Interventions Classification) identifies actions provided by nurses that enhance patient outcomes. Nursing care activities may be direct or indirect.

During a support group, a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "Sometimes I feel sad that I will never have a good job like my brother. Then I dwell on it and maybe I should not." Select the nurse leader's best comment to facilitate discussion of this issue. a. "It is often better to focus on our successes rather than our failures." b. "How have others in the group handled painful feelings like these?" c. "Grieving for what is lost is a normal part of having a mental disorder." d. "I wonder if you might also experience feelings of anger and helplessness."

ANS: B Asking others to share their experiences will facilitate discussion of an issue. Giving information may serve to close discussion of the issue because it sounds final. Suggesting a focus on the positives implies a discussion of the issue is not appropriate. Suggesting other possible feelings is inappropriate at this point, considering the patient has identified feelings of sadness and seems to have a desire to explore this feeling. Focusing on other feelings will derail discussion of the patient's grief for his perceived lost potential.

A patient says, "All my life I've been surrounded by stupidity. Everything I buy breaks because the entire American workforce is incompetent." This patient is experiencing a: a. self-esteem deficit. b. cognitive distortion. c. deficit in motivation. d. deficit in love and belonging.

ANS: B Automatic thoughts, or cognitive distortions, are irrational and lead to false assumptions and misinterpretations. See related audience response question.

A patient says, "I always feel good when I wear a size 2 petite." Which type of cognitive distortion is evident? a. Disqualifying the positive b. Overgeneralization c. Catastrophizing d. Personalization

ANS: B Automatic thoughts, or cognitive distortions, are irrational and lead to false assumptions and misinterpretations. The stem offers an example of overgeneralization. See related audience response question.

A nurse assesses a confused older adult. The nurse experiences sadness and reflects, "The patient is like one of my grandparents...so helpless." Which response is the nurse demonstrating? a. Transference b. Countertransference c. Catastrophic reaction d. Defensive coping reaction

ANS: B Countertransference is the nurse's transference or response to a patient that is based on the nurse's unconscious needs, conflicts, problems, or view of the world. See relationship to audience response question.

An advanced practice nurse observes a novice nurse expressing irritability regarding a patient with a long history of alcoholism and suspects the new nurse is experiencing countertransference. Which comment by the new nurse confirms this suspicion? a. "This patient continues to deny problems resulting from drinking." b. "My parents were alcoholics and often neglected our family." c. "The patient cannot identify any goals for improvement." d. "The patient said I have many traits like her mother."

ANS: B Countertransference occurs when the nurse unconsciously and inappropriately displaces onto the patient feelings and behaviors related to significant figures in the nurse's past. In this instance, the new nurse's irritability stems from relationships with parents. The distracters indicate transference or accurate analysis of the patient's behavior.

The spouse of a patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder asks what evidence supports the possibility of genetic transmission of bipolar disorders. Which response should the nurse provide? a. "A high proportion of patients with bipolar disorders are found among creative writers." b. "A higher rate of relatives with bipolar disorder is found among patients with bi-polar disorder." c. "Patients with bipolar disorder have higher rates of relatives who respond in an exaggerated way to daily stress." d. "More individuals with bipolar disorder come from high socioeconomic and educational backgrounds."

ANS: B Evidence of genetic transmission is supported when twins or relatives of patients with a particular disorder also show an incidence of the disorder that is higher than the incidence in the general public. The incorrect options do not support the theory of genetic transmission and other factors involved in the etiology of bipolar disorder.

A nurse wants to demonstrate genuineness with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse should: a. restate what the patient says. b. use congruent communication strategies. c. use self-revelation in patient interactions. d. consistently interpret the patient's behaviors.

ANS: B Genuineness is a desirable characteristic involving awareness of one's own feelings as they arise and the ability to communicate them when appropriate. The incorrect options are undesirable in a therapeutic relationship.

A black patient says to a white nurse, "There's no sense talking. You wouldn't understand because you live in a white world." The nurse's best action would be to: a. explain, "Yes, I do understand. Everyone goes through the same experiences." b. say, "Please give an example of something you think I wouldn't understand." c. reassure the patient that nurses interact with people from all cultures. d. change the subject to one that is less emotionally disturbing.

ANS: B Having the patient speak in specifics rather than globally will help the nurse understand the patient's perspective. This approach will help the nurse engage the patient. Reassurance and changing the subject are not therapeutic techniques.

This nursing diagnosis applies to a patient with acute mania: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to insufficient caloric intake and hyperactivity as evidenced by 5-pound weight loss in 4 days. Select an appropriate outcome. The patient will: a. ask staff for assistance with feeding with-in 4 days. b. drink six servings of a high-calorie, high-protein drink each day. c. consistently sit with others for at least 30 minutes at meal time within 1 week. d. consistently wear appropriate attire for age and sex within 1 week while on the psychiatric unit.

ANS: B High-calorie, high-protein food supplements will provide the additional calories needed to offset the patient's extreme hyperactivity. Sitting with others or asking for assistance does not mean the patient ate or drank. The other indicator is unrelated to the nursing diagnosis.

A staff nurse completes orientation to a psychiatric unit. This nurse may expect an advanced practice nurse to perform which additional intervention? a. Conduct mental health assessments. b. Prescribe psychotropic medication. c. Establish therapeutic relationships. d. Individualize nursing care plans.

ANS: B In most states, prescriptive privileges are granted to master's-prepared nurse practitioners who have taken special courses on prescribing medication. The nurse prepared at the basic level is permitted to perform mental health assessments, establish relationships, and provide individualized care planning.

What behavior by a nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder indicates the nurse needs supervision? a. The nurse's comments are nonjudgmental. b. The nurse uses an authoritarian manner when interacting with the patient. c. The nurse teaches the patient to recognize signs of increasing anxiety and ways to intervene. d. The nurse refers the patient to a self-help group for individuals with eating disorders.

ANS: B In the effort to motivate the patient and take advantage of the decision to seek help and be healthier, the nurse must take care not to cross the line toward authoritarianism and assume the role of a parent. The helpful nurse uses a problem-solving approach and focuses on the patient's feelings of shame and low self-esteem. Referral to a self-help group is an appropriate intervention.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The CIA is monitoring us through the fluorescent lights in this room. Be careful what you say." Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic? a. "Let's talk about something other than the CIA." b. "It sounds like you're concerned about your privacy." c. "The CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities." d. "You have lost touch with reality, which is a symptom of your illness."

ANS: B It is important not to challenge the patient's beliefs, even if they are unrealistic. Challenging undermines the patient's trust in the nurse. The nurse should try to understand the underlying feelings or thoughts the patient's message conveys. The correct response uses the therapeutic technique of reflection. The other comments are non-therapeutic. Asking to talk about something other than the concern at hand is changing the subject. Saying that the CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities gives false reassurance. Stating that the patient has lost touch with reality is truthful, but uncompassionate.

A patient demonstrating characteristics of acute mania relapsed after discontinuing lithium. New orders are written to resume lithium twice daily and begin olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the rationale for the addition of olanzapine to the medication regimen? It will: a. minimize the side effects of lithium. b. bring hyperactivity under rapid control. c. enhance the antimanic actions of lithium. d. be used for long-term control of hyperactivity.

ANS: B Manic symptoms are controlled by lithium only after a therapeutic serum level is attained. Because this takes several days to accomplish, a drug with rapid onset is necessary to reduce the hyperactivity initially. Antipsychotic drugs neither enhance lithium's antimanic activity nor minimize the side effects. Lithium will be used for longterm control.

The patient says, "My marriage is just great. My spouse and I always agree." The nurse observes the patient's foot moving continuously as the patient twirls a shirt button. The conclusion the nurse can draw is that the patient's communication is: a. clear. b. mixed. c. precise. d. inadequate.

ANS: B Mixed messages involve the transmission of conflicting or incongruent messages by the speaker. The patient's verbal message that all was well in the relationship was modified by the nonverbal behaviors denoting anxiety. Data are not present to support the choice of the verbal message being clear, explicit, or inadequate.

A nurse receives these three phone calls regarding a newly admitted patient. • The psychiatrist wants to complete an initial assessment. • An internist wants to perform a physical examination. • The patient's attorney wants an appointment with the patient. The nurse schedules the activities for the patient. Which role has the nurse fulfilled? a. Advocate b. Case manager c. Milieu manager d. Provider of care

ANS: B Nurses on psychiatric units routinely coordinate patient services, serving as case managers as described in this scenario. The role of advocate would require the nurse to speak out on the patient's behalf. The role of milieu manager refers to maintaining a therapeutic environment. Provider of care refers to giving direct care to the patient.

A nurse inspects an inpatient psychiatric unit and finds that exits are free of obstructions, no one is smoking, and the janitor's closet is locked. These observations relate to: a. coordinating care of patients. b. management of milieu safety. c. management of the interpersonal climate. d. use of therapeutic intervention strategies.

ANS: B Nursing staff are responsible for all aspects of milieu management. The observations mentioned in this question directly relate to the safety of the unit. The other options, although part of the nurse's concerns, are unrelated to the observations cited.

An appropriate intervention for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa who binges and purges is to teach the patient to: a. eat a small meal after purging. b. avoid skipping meals or restricting food. c. concentrate oral intake after 4 PM daily. d. understand the value of reading journal entries aloud to others.

ANS: B One goal of health teaching is the normalization of eating habits. Food restriction and skipping meals lead to rebound bingeing. Teaching the patient to eat a small meal after purging will probably perpetuate the need to induce vomiting. Teaching the patient to concentrate intake after 4 PM will lead to late-day bingeing. Journal entries are private.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is in the maintenance phase of treatment. The patient asks, "Do I have to keep taking this lithium even though my mood is stable now?" Select the nurse's appropriate response. a. "You will be able to stop the medication in about 1 month." b. "Taking the medication every day helps reduce the risk of a relapse." c. "Usually patients take medication for approximately 6 months after discharge." d. "It's unusual that the health care provider hasn't already stopped your medication."

ANS: B Patients diagnosed with bipolar disorder may be maintained on lithium indefinitely to prevent recurrences. Helping the patient understand this need will promote medication compliance.

Which assessment finding for a patient in the community deserves priority intervention by the psychiatric nurse? The patient: a. receives Social Security disability income plus a small check from a trust fund every month. b. was absent from two of six planned Alcoholics Anonymous meetings in the past 2 weeks. c. lives in an apartment with two patients who attend partial hospitalization programs. d. has a sibling who was recently diagnosed with a mental illness.

ANS: B Patients who use alcohol or illegal substances often become medication noncompliant. Medication noncompliance, along with the disorganizing influence of substances on cellular brain function, promotes relapse. The distracters do not suggest problems.

Select the example of primary prevention. a. Assisting a person diagnosed with a serious mental illness to fill a pill-minder b. Helping school-age children identify and describe normal emotions c. Leading a psychoeducational group in a community care home d. Medicating an acutely ill patient who assaulted a staff person

ANS: B Primary preventions are directed at healthy populations with a goal of preventing health problems from occurring. Helping school-age children describe normal emotions people experience promotes coping, a skill that is needed throughout life. Assisting a person with serious and persistent mental illness to fill a pill-minder is an example of tertiary prevention. Medicating an acutely ill patient who assaulted a staff person is a secondary prevention. Leading a psychoeducational group in a community care home is an example of tertiary prevention.

To best assure safety, the nurse's first intervention is to: a. tell the patient, "You need to be secluded." b. clear the room of all other patients. c. help the patient down from the table. d. assemble a show of force.

ANS: B Safety is of primary importance. Once other patients are out of the room, a plan for managing this patient can be implemented.

A patient waves a newspaper and says, "I must have my credit card and use the computer right now. A store is having a big sale, and I need to order 10 dresses and four pairs of shoes." Select the nurse's appropriate intervention. The nurse: a. suggests the patient have a friend do the shopping and bring purchases to the unit. b. invites the patient to sit together and look at new fashion magazines. c. tells the patient computer use is not allowed until self-control improves. d. asks whether the patient has enough money to pay for the purchases.

ANS: B Situations such as this offer an opportunity to use the patient's distractibility to staff's advantage. Patients become frustrated when staff deny requests that the patient sees as entirely reasonable. Distracting the patient can avoid power struggles. Suggesting that a friend do the shopping would not satisfy the patient's need for immediacy and would ultimately result in the extravagant expenditure. Asking whether the patient has enough money would likely precipitate an angry response.

A nurse wants to enhance growth of a patient by showing positive regard. The nurse's action most likely to achieve this goal is: a. making rounds daily. b. staying with a tearful patient. c. administering medication as prescribed. d. examining personal feelings about a patient.

ANS: B Staying with a crying patient offers support and shows positive regard. Administering daily medication and making rounds are tasks that could be part of an assignment and do not necessarily reflect positive regard. Examining feelings regarding a patient addresses the nurse's ability to be therapeutic.

A patient is fearful of riding on elevators. The therapist first rides an escalator with the patient. The therapist and patient then stand in an elevator with the door open for five minutes and later with the elevator door closed for five minutes. Which technique has the therapist used? a. Classic psychoanalytic therapy b. Systematic desensitization c. Rational emotive therapy d. Biofeedback

ANS: B Systematic desensitization is a form of behavior modification therapy that involves the development of behavior tasks customized to the patient's specific fears. These tasks are presented to the patient while using learned relaxation techniques. The patient is incrementally exposed to the fear.

A nurse wants to find a description of diagnostic criteria for anxiety disorders. Which resource would have the most complete information? a. Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) c. The ANA's Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice d. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10)

ANS: B The DSM-5 details the diagnostic criteria for psychiatric clinical conditions. The other references are good resources but do not define the diagnostic criteria.

A nurse encounters an unfamiliar psychiatric disorder on a new patient's admission form. Which resource should the nurse consult to determine criteria used to establish this diagnosis? a. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10) b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) c. A behavioral health reference manual d. Wikipedia

ANS: B The DSM-5 gives the criteria used to diagnose each mental disorder. The distracters may not contain diagnostic criteria for a psychiatric illness.

A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, "No!" Which stage of psychosexual development is evident? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

ANS: B The anal stage occurs from age 1 to 3 years and has as its focus toilet training and learning to delay immediate gratification. The oral stage occurs between birth and 1 year. The phallic stage occurs between 3 and 5 years, and the genital stage occurs between age 13 and 20 years.

The nurse is planning a new sexuality group for patients. Which location would best enhance the effectiveness of this group? a. The hospital auditorium b. A small conference room c. A common area, such as a day room d. The corner of the music therapy room

ANS: B The conference room would provide a quiet, private area with few distractions, separate from other patient areas and effective for teaching and learning about a private topic. The auditorium is too large, and members' anxiety or lack of trust might lead them to spread out too far from each other, interfering with group process. The day room and the music therapy room are too busy and exposed, reducing privacy and increasing distractions.

Which assessment finding most clearly indicates that a patient may be experiencing a mental illness? The patient: a. reports occasional sleeplessness and anxiety. b. reports a consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless mood. c. is able to describe the difference between "as if" and "for real." d. perceives difficulty making a decision about whether to change jobs.

ANS: B The correct response describes a mood alteration, which reflects mental illness. The distracters describe behaviors that are mentally healthy or within the usual scope of human experience.

Outcome identification for the treatment plan of a patient experiencing grandiose thinking associated with acute mania will focus on: a. developing an optimistic outlook. b. distorted thought self-control. c. interest in the environment. d. sleep pattern stabilization.

ANS: B The desired outcome is that the patient will be able to control the grandiose thinking associated with acute mania as evidenced by making realistic comments about self, abilities, and plans. Patients with acute mania are already unduly optimistic as a result of their use of denial, and they are overly interested in their environment. Sleep stability is a desired outcome but is not related to distorted thought processes.

At a unit meeting, the staff discusses decor for a special room for patients with acute mania. Which suggestion is appropriate? a. An extra-large window with a view of the street b. Neutral walls with pale, simple accessories c. Brightly colored walls and print drapes d. Deep colors for walls and upholstery

ANS: B The environment for a manic patient should be as simple and non-stimulating as possible. Manic patients are highly sensitive to environmental distractions and stimulation.

As a patient diagnosed with a mental illness is being discharged from a facility, a nurse invites the patient to the annual staff picnic. What is the best analysis of this scenario? a. The invitation facilitates dependency on the nurse. b. The nurse's action blurs the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship. c. The invitation is therapeutic for the patient's diversional activity deficit. d. The nurse's action assists the patient's integration into community living.

ANS: B The invitation creates a social relationship rather than a therapeutic relationship.

Which component of treatment of mental illness is specifically recognized by Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)? a. All genomes are unique. b. Care is centered on the patient. c. Healthy development is vital to mental health. d. Recovery occurs on a continuum from illness to health.

ANS: B The key areas of care promoted by QSEN are patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and informatics.

During a therapy group that uses existential/Gestalt theory, patients shared feelings that occurred at the time of their admission. After a brief silence, one member says, "Several people have described feeling angry. I would like to hear from members who had other feelings." Which group role is evident by this comment? a. Energizer b. Encourager c. Compromiser d. Self-confessor

ANS: B The member is filling the role of encourager by acknowledging those who have contributed and encouraging input from others. An energizer encourages the group to make decisions or take an action. The compromiser focuses on reducing or resolving conflict to preserve harmony. A self-confessor verbalizes feelings or observations unrelated to the group.

A student nurse says, "I don't need to interact with my patients. I learn what I need to know by observation." An instructor can best interpret the nursing implications of Sullivan's theory to this student by responding: a. "Interactions are required in order to help you develop therapeutic communication skills." b. "Nurses cannot be isolated. We must interact to provide patients with opportunities to practice interpersonal skills." c. "Observing patient interactions will help you formulate priority nursing diagnoses and appropriate interventions." d. "It is important to pay attention to patients' behavioral changes, because these signify adjustments in personality."

ANS: B The nurse's role includes educating patients and assisting them in developing effective interpersonal relationships. Mutuality, respect for the patient, unconditional acceptance, and empathy are cornerstones of Sullivan's theory. The nurse who does not interact with the patient cannot demonstrate these cornerstones. Observations provide only objective data. Priority nursing diagnoses usually cannot be accurately established without subjective data from the patient. The other distracters relate to Maslow and behavioral theory. This item relates to an audience response question.

A nurse influenced by Peplau's interpersonal theory works with an anxious, withdrawn patient. Interventions should focus on: a. rewarding desired behaviors. b. use of assertive communication. c. changing the patient's self-concept. d. administering medications to relieve anxiety.

ANS: B The nurse-patient relationship is structured to provide a model for adaptive interpersonal relationships that can be generalized to others. Helping the patient learn to use assertive communication will improve the patient's interpersonal relationships. The distracters apply to theories of cognitive, behavioral, and biological therapy.

Which nursing intervention has the highest priority as a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa begins to gain weight? a. Assess for depression and anxiety. b. Observe for adverse effects of refeeding. c. Communicate empathy for the patient's feelings. d. Help the patient balance energy expenditures with caloric intake.

ANS: B The nursing intervention of observing for adverse effects of refeeding most directly relates to weight gain and is a priority. Assessing for depression and anxiety, as well as communicating empathy, relate to coping. Helping the patient achieve balance between energy expenditure and caloric intake is an inappropriate intervention.

The parent of a child diagnosed with schizophrenia tearfully asks the nurse, "What could I have done differently to prevent this illness?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Although schizophrenia results from impaired family relationships, try not to feel guilty. No one can predict how a child will respond to parental guidance." b. "Schizophrenia is a biological illness resulting from changes in how the brain and nervous system function. You are not to blame for your child's illness." c. "There is still hope. Changing your parenting style can help your child learn to cope effectively with the environment." d. "Most mental illnesses result from genetic inheritance. Your genes are more at fault than your parenting."

ANS: B The parent's comment suggests feelings of guilt or inadequacy. The nurse's response should address these feelings as well as provide information. Patients and families need reassurance that the major mental disorders are biological in origin and are not the "fault" of parents. One distracter places the burden of having faulty genes on the shoulders of the parents. The other distracters are neither wholly accurate nor reassuring.

A patient in a detoxification unit asks, "What good it will do to go to Alcoholics Anonymous and talk to other people with the same problem?" The nurse's best response would be to explain that self-help groups such as AA provide opportunities for: a. newly discharged alcoholics to learn about the disease of alcoholism. b. people with common problems to share their experiences with alcoholism and recovery. c. patients with alcoholism to receive insight-oriented treatment about the etiology of their disease. d. professional counselors to provide guidance to individuals recovering from alcoholism.

ANS: B The patient needs basic information about the purpose of a self-help group. The basis of self-help groups is sharing by individuals with similar problems. Self-help is based on the belief that an individual with a problem can be truly understood and helped only by others who have the same problem. The other options fail to address this or provide incorrect information.

When a nursing student expresses concerns about how mental health nurses "lose all their nursing skills," the best response by the mental health nurse is: a. "Psychiatric nurses practice in safer environments than other specialties. Nurse-to-patient ratios must be better because of the nature of the patients' problems." b. "Psychiatric nurses use complex communication skills as well as critical thinking to solve multidimensional problems. I am challenged by those situations." c. "That's a misconception. Psychiatric nurses frequently use high technology monitoring equipment and manage complex intravenous therapies." d. "Psychiatric nurses do not have to deal with as much pain and suffering as medical-surgical nurses do. That appeals to me."

ANS: B The practice of psychiatric nursing requires a different set of skills than medical-surgical nursing, though there is substantial overlap. Psychiatric nurses must be able to help patients with medical as well as mental health problems, reflecting the holistic perspective these nurses must have. Nurse-patient ratios and workloads in psychiatric settings have increased, just like other specialties. Psychiatric nursing involves clinical practice, not just documentation. Psychosocial pain and suffering are as real as physical pain and suffering.

An outpatient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The patient telephones the nurse to say, "I've had severe diarrhea for 4 days. I feel very weak and unsteady when I walk. My usual hand tremor has gotten worse. What should I do?" The nurse will advise the patient to: a. restrict food and fluids for 24 hours and stay in bed. b. have someone bring the patient to the clinic immediately. c. drink a large glass of water with 1 tea-spoon of salt added. d. take one dose of an over-the-counter anti-diarrheal medication now.

ANS: B The symptoms described suggest lithium toxicity. The patient should have a lithium level drawn and may require further treatment. Because neurological symptoms are present, the patient should not drive and should be accompanied by another person. The incorrect options will not ameliorate the patient's symptoms.

A parent says, "My 2-year-old child refuses toilet training and shouts 'No!' when given directions. What do you think is wrong?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "Your child needs firmer control. It is important to set limits now." b. "This is normal for your child's age. The child is striving for independence." c. "There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2." d. "Some undesirable attitudes are developing. A child psychologist can help you develop a plan."

ANS: B This behavior is typical of a child around the age of 2 years, whose developmental task is to develop autonomy. The distracters indicate the child's behavior is abnormal.

When a hyperactive patient diagnosed with acute mania is hospitalized, what is the initial nursing intervention? a. Allow the patient to act out feelings. b. Set limits on patient behavior as necessary. c. Provide verbal instructions to the patient to remain calm. d. Restrain the patient to reduce hyperactivity and aggression.

ANS: B This intervention provides support through the nurse's presence and provides structure as necessary while the patient's control is tenuous. Acting out may lead to loss of behavioral control. The patient will probably be unable to focus on instructions and comply. Restraint is used only after other interventions have proved ineffective.

During the first interview with a parent whose child died in a car accident, the nurse feels empathic and reaches out to take the patient's hand. Select the correct analysis of the nurse's behavior. a. It shows empathy and compassion. It will encourage the patient to continue to express feelings. b. The gesture is premature. The patient's cultural and individual interpretation of touch is unknown. c. The patient will perceive the gesture as intrusive and overstepping boundaries. d. The action is inappropriate. Psychiatric patients should not be touched.

ANS: B Touch has various cultural and individual interpretations. Nurses should refrain from using touch until an assessment can be made regarding the way in which the patient will perceive touch. The other options present prematurely drawn conclusions.

A patient says to the nurse, "My father has been dead for over 10 years, but talking to you is almost as comforting as the talks he and I had when I was a child." Which term applies to the patient's comment? a. Superego b. Transference c. Reality testing d. Counter-transference

ANS: B Transference refers to feelings a patient has toward the health care workers that were originally held toward significant others in his or her life. Counter-transference refers to unconscious feelings that the health care worker has toward the patient. The superego represents the moral component of personality; it seeks perfection.

A patient demonstrating behaviors associated with acute mania has exhausted the staff by noon. Staff members are feeling defensive and fatigued. Which action will the staff take initially? a. Confer with the health care provider to consider use of seclusion for this patient. b. Hold a staff meeting to discuss consistency and limit-setting approaches. c. Conduct a meeting with all staff and patients to discuss the behavior. d. Explain to the patient that the behavior is unacceptable.

ANS: B When staff members are at their wits' end, the patient has succeeded in keeping the environment unsettled and avoided outside controls on behavior. Staff meetings can help minimize staff split-ting and feelings of anger, helplessness, confusion, and frustration.

A nurse prepares the plan of care for a patient experiencing an acute manic episode. Which nursing diagnoses are most likely? Select all that apply. a. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements b. Disturbed thought processes c. Sleep deprivation d. Chronic confusion e. Social isolation

ANS: B, C People with mania are hyperactive and often do not take time to eat and drink properly. Their high levels of activity consume calories, so deficits in nutrition may occur. Sleep is reduced. Their socialization is impaired but not isolated. Confusion may be acute but not chronic.

Select all that apply. Which descriptors exemplify consistency regarding nurse-patient relationships? a. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff b. Having the same nurse care for a patient on a daily basis c. Providing a schedule of daily activities to a patient d. Setting a time for regular sessions with a patient e. Offering solutions to a patient's problems

ANS: B, C, D Consistency implies predictability. Having the same nurse see the patient daily and provide a daily schedule of patient activities and a set time for regular sessions will help a patient predict what will happen during each day and develop a greater degree of security and comfort. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff and giving advice are not related to consistency and would not be considered a therapeutic intervention.

Select all that apply. A patient cries as the nurse explores the patient's feelings about the death of a close friend. The patient sobs, "I shouldn't be crying like this. It happened a long time ago." Which responses by the nurse facilitate communication? a. "Why do you think you are so upset?" b. "I can see that you feel sad about this situation." c. "The loss of a close friend is very painful for you." d. "Crying is a way of expressing the hurt you are experiencing." e. "Let's talk about something else because this subject is upsetting you."

ANS: B, C, D Reflecting ("I can see that you feel sad," "This is very painful for you") and giving information ("Crying is a way of expressing hurt") are therapeutic techniques. "Why" questions often imply criticism or seem intrusive or judgmental. They are difficult to answer. Changing the subject is a barrier to communication.

Select all that apply. Which activities represent the art of nursing? a. Administering medications on time to a group of patients b. Listening to a new widow grieve her husband's death c. Helping a patient obtain groceries from a food bank d. Teaching a patient about a new medication e. Holding the hand of a frightened patient

ANS: B, C, E Peplau described the science and art of professional nursing practice. The art component of nursing consists of the care, compassion, and advocacy nurses provide to enhance patient comfort and well-being. The science component of nursing involves the application of knowledge to understand a broad range of human problems and psychosocial phenomena, intervening to relieve patients' suffering and promote growth. See related audience response question.

The next-to-last meeting of an interpersonal therapy group is taking place. The leader should take which actions? Select all that apply. a. Support appropriate expressions of disagreement by the group's members. b. Facilitate discussion and resolution of feelings about the end of the group. c. Encourage members to reflect on their progress and that of the group itself. d. Remind members of the group's norms and rules, emphasizing confidentiality. e. Help members identify goals they would like to accomplish after the group ends. f. Promote the identification and development of new options for solving problems.

ANS: B, C, E The goals for the termination phase of groups are to prepare the group for separation, resolve related feelings, and prepare each member for the future. Contributions and accomplishments of members are elicited, post-group goals are identified, and feelings about the group's ending are discussed. Group norms are the focus of the orientation phase, and conflict and problem solving are emphasized in the working phase.

1. A patient undergoing alcohol rehabilitation decides to begin disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy. Patient teaching should include the need to: (select all that apply) a. avoid aged cheeses. b. avoid alcohol-based skin products. c. read labels of all liquid medications. d. wear sunscreen and avoid bright sunlight. e. maintain an adequate dietary intake of sodium. f. avoid breathing fumes of paints, stains, and stripping compounds.

ANS: B, C, F The patient must avoid hidden sources of alcohol. Many liquid medications, such as cough syrups, contain small amounts of alcohol that could trigger an alcohol-disulfiram reaction. Using alcohol-based skin products such as aftershave or cologne, smelling alcohol-laden fumes, and eating foods prepared with wine, brandy, or beer may also trigger reactions. The other options do not relate to hidden sources of alcohol.

1. A nurse plans care for an individual diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which characteristic behaviors will the nurse expect? Select all that apply. a. Reclusive behavior b. Callous attitude c. Perfectionism d. Aggression e. Clinginess f. Anxiety

ANS: B, D Individuals with antisocial personality disorders characteristically demonstrate manipulative, exploitative, aggressive, callous, and guilt-instilling behaviors. Individuals with antisocial personality disorders are more extroverted than reclusive, rarely show anxiety, and rarely demonstrate clinging or dependent behaviors. Individuals with antisocial personality disorders are more likely to be impulsive than to be perfectionists.

Select all that apply. A novice nurse tells a mentor, "I want to convey to my patients that I am interested in them and that I want to listen to what they have to say." Which behaviors will be helpful in meeting the nurse's goal? a. Sitting behind a desk, facing the patient b. Introducing self to a patient and identifying own role c. Maintaining control of discussions by asking direct questions d. Using facial expressions to convey interest and encouragement e. Assuming an open body posture and sometimes mirror imaging

ANS: B, D, E Trust is fostered when the nurse gives an introduction and identifies his or her role. Facial expressions that convey interest and encouragement support the nurse's verbal statements to that effect and strengthen the message. An open body posture conveys openness to listening to what the patient has to say. Mirror imaging enhances patient comfort. A desk would place a physical barrier between the nurse and patient. A face-to-face stance should be avoided when possible and a less intense 90- or 120-degree angle used to permit either party to look away without discomfort.

A leader begins the discussion at the first meeting of a new group. Which comments should be included? Select all that apply. a. "We use groups to provide treatment because it's a more cost-effective use of staff in this time of budget constraints." b. "When someone shares a personal experience, it's important to keep the information confidential." c. "Talking to family members about our group discussions will help us achieve our goals." d. "Everyone is expected to share a personal experience at each group meeting." e. "It is important for everyone to arrive on time for our group."

ANS: B, E The leader must set ground rules for the group before members can effectively participate. Confidentiality of personal experiences should be maintained. Arriving on time is important to the group process. Talking to family members would jeopardize confidentiality. While groups are cost-effective, blaming the budget would not help members feel valued. Setting an expectation to share may be intimidating for a withdrawn patient.

10. When a patient diagnosed with a personality disorder uses manipulation to get needs met, the staff applies limit-setting interventions. What is the correct rationale for this action? a. It provides an outlet for feelings of anger and frustration. b. It respects the patient's wishes, so assertiveness will develop. c. External controls are necessary due to failure of internal control. d. Anxiety is reduced when staff assumes responsibility for the patient's behavior.

ANS: C A lack of internal controls leads to manipulative behaviors such as lying, cheating, conning, and flattering. To protect the rights of others, external controls must be consistently maintained until the patient is able to behave appropriately.

10. An older adult was stopped by police for driving through a red light. When asked for a driver's license, the adult hands the police officer a pair of sunglasses. What sign of dementia is evident? a. Aphasia b. Apraxia c. Agnosia d. Anhedonia

ANS: C Agnosia refers to the loss of sensory ability to recognize objects. Aphasia refers to the loss of language ability. Apraxia refers to the loss of purposeful movement. Anhedonia refers to a loss of joy in life.

14. The treatment team discusses the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia and daily cannabis abuse who is having increased hallucinations and delusions. To plan effective treatment, the team should: a. provide long-term care for the patient in a residential facility. b. withdraw the patient from cannabis, then treat the schizophrenia. c. consider each diagnosis primary and provide simultaneous treatment. d. first treat the schizophrenia, then establish goals for substance abuse treatment.

ANS: C Both diagnoses should be considered primary and receive simultaneous treatment. Comorbid disorders require longer treatment and progress is slower, but treatment may occur in the community.

29. A nurse gives anticipatory guidance to the family of a patient diagnosed with stage 3, mild cognitive decline Alzheimer's disease. Which problem common to that stage should the nurse address? a. Violent outbursts b. Emotional disinhibition c. Communication deficits d. Inability to feed or bathe self

ANS: C Families should be made aware that the patient will have difficulty concentrating and following or carrying on in-depth or lengthy conversations. The other symptoms are usually seen at later stages of the disease.

25. Which characteristic of personality disorders makes it most necessary for staff to schedule frequent team meetings in order to address the patient's needs and maintain a therapeutic milieu? a. Ability to achieve true intimacy b. Flexibility and adaptability to stress c. Ability to provoke interpersonal conflict d. Inability to develop trusting relationships

ANS: C Frequent team meetings are held to counteract the effects of the patient's attempts to split staff and set them against one another, causing interpersonal conflict. Patients with personality disorders are inflexible and demonstrate maladaptive responses to stress. They are usually unable to develop true intimacy with others and are unable to develop trusting relationships. Although problems with trust may exist, it is not the characteristic that requires frequent staff meetings. See relationship to audience response question.

11. An older adult drove to a nearby store but was unable to remember how to get home or state an address. When police intervened, they found that this adult was wearing a heavy coat and hat, even though it was July. Which stage of Alzheimer's disease is evident? a. Preclinical Alzheimer's disease b. Mild cognitive decline c. Moderately severe cognitive decline d. Severe cognitive decline

ANS: C In the moderately severe stage, deterioration is evident. Memory loss may include the inability to remember addresses or the date. Activities such as driving may become hazardous, and frustration by the increasing difficulty of performing ordinary tasks may be experienced. The individual has difficulty with clothing selection. Mild cognitive decline (early-stage) Alzheimer's can be diagnosed in some, but not all, individuals. Symptoms include misplacing items and misuse of words. In the stage of severe cognitive decline, personality changes may take place, and the patient needs extensive help with daily activities. This patient has symptoms, so the preclinical stage does not apply.

6. A nurse reports to the treatment team that a patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder has displayed the behaviors below. This patient is detached and superficial during counseling sessions. Which behavior by the patient most clearly warrants limit setting? a. Flattering the nurse b. Lying to other patients c. Verbal abuse of another patient d. Detached superficiality during counseling

ANS: C Limits must be set in areas in which the patient's behavior affects the rights of others. Limiting verbal abuse of another patient is a priority intervention and particularly relevant when interacting with a patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder. The other concerns should be addressed during therapeutic encounters.

9. Which medication prescribed to patients diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease antagonizes N-Methyl-D-Aspartate (NMDA) channels rather than cholinesterase? a. Donepezil (Aricept) b. Rivastigmine (Exelon) c. Memantine (Namenda) d. Galantamine (Razadyne)

ANS: C Memantine blocks the NMDA channels and is used in moderate-to-late stages of the disease. Donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine are all cholinesterace inhibitors. These drugs increase the availability of acetylcholine and are most often used to treat mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease.

21. The nurse assesses a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which assessment finding would the nurse regard as a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. Auditory hallucinations b. Delusions of grandeur c. Poor personal hygiene d. Psychomotor agitation

ANS: C Negative symptoms include apathy, anhedonia, poor social functioning, and poverty of thought. Poor personal hygiene is an example of poor social functioning. The distracters are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 207-208 (Table 12-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

36. Which finding constitutes a negative symptom associated with schizophrenia? a. Hostility b. Bizarre behavior c. Poverty of thought d. Auditory hallucinations

ANS: C Negative symptoms include apathy, anhedonia, poor social functioning, and poverty of thought. Poor personal hygiene is an example of poor social functioning. The distracters are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 207-208 (Table 12-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

25. A patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for many years. When the patient tries to reduce smoking, anxiety, craving, poor concentration, and headache occur. This scenario describes: a. cross-tolerance. b. substance abuse c. substance addiction. d. substance intoxication.

ANS: C Nicotine meets the criteria for a "substance," the criterion for addiction is present, and withdrawal symptoms are noted with abstinence or reduction of dose. The scenario does not meet criteria for substance abuse, intoxication, or cross-tolerance.

5. Consider this comment to three different nurses by a patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder, "Another nurse said you don't do your job right." Collectively, these interactions can be assessed as: a. seductive. b. detached c. manipulative. d. guilt-producing.

ANS: C Patients manipulate and control staff in various ways. By keeping staff off balance or fighting among themselves, the person with an antisocial personality disorder is left to operate as he or she pleases. Seductive behavior has sexual connotations. The patient is displaying the opposite of detached behavior. Guilt is not evident in the comments.

20. Others describe a worker as very shy and lacking in self-confidence. This worker stays in an office cubicle all day, never coming out for breaks or lunch. Which term best describes this behavior? a. Narcissistic b. Histrionic c. Avoidant d. Paranoid

ANS: C Patients with avoidant personality disorder are timid, socially uncomfortable, withdrawn, and avoid situations in which they might fail. They believe themselves to be inferior and unappealing. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder are seductive, flamboyant, shallow, and attention-seeking. Paranoia and narcissism are not evident.

9. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia exhibits little spontaneous movement and demonstrates waxy flexibility. Which patient needs are of priority importance? a. Self-esteem b. Psychosocial c. Physiological d. Self-actualization

ANS: C Physiological needs must be met to preserve life. A patient with waxy flexibility must be fed by hand or tube, toileted, given range-of-motion exercises, and so forth to preserve physiological integrity. Higher level needs are of lesser concern. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 207 | Page 209-210 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

16. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken fluphenazine (Prolixin) 5 mg po bid for 3 weeks. The nurse now observes a shuffling propulsive gait, a mask-like face, and drooling. Which term applies to these symptoms? a. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome c. Pseudoparkinsonism b. Hepatocellular effects d. Akathisia

ANS: C Pseudoparkinsonism induced by antipsychotic medication mimics the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. It frequently appears within the first month of treatment and is more common with first-generation antipsychotic drugs. Hepatocellular effects would produce abnormal liver test results. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by autonomic instability. Akathisia produces motor restlessness. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

16. Which statement made by a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder indicates the treatment plan is effective? a. "I think you are the best nurse on the unit." b. "I'm never going to get high on drugs again." c. "I felt empty and wanted to hurt myself, so I called you." d. "I hate my mother. I called her today, and she wasn't home."

ANS: C Seeking a staff member instead of impulsively self-mutilating shows an adaptive coping strategy. The incorrect responses demonstrate idealization, devaluation, and wishful thinking.

15. Two patients in a residential care facility have dementia. One shouts to the other, "Move along, you're blocking the road." The other patient turns, shakes a fist, and shouts, "You're trying to steal my car." What is the nurse's best action? a. Administer one dose of an antipsychotic medication to both patients. b. Reinforce reality. Say to the patients, "Walk along in the hall. This is not a traffic intersection." c. Separate and distract the patients. Take one to the day room and the other to an activities area. d. Step between the two patients and say, "Please quiet down. We do not allow violence here."

ANS: C Separating and distracting prevents escalation from verbal to physical acting out. Neither patient loses self-esteem during this intervention. Medication probably is not necessary. Stepping between two angry, threatening patients is an unsafe action, and trying to reinforce reality during an angry outburst will probably not be successful when the patients are cognitively impaired.

15. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "The voices are bothering me. They yell and tell me I am bad. I have got to get away from them." Select the nurse's most helpful reply. a. "Do you hear the voices often?" b. "Do you have a plan for getting away from the voices?" c. "I'll stay with you. Focus on what we are talking about, not the voices. " d. "Forget the voices and ask some other patients to play cards with you."

ANS: C Staying with a distraught patient who is hearing voices serves several purposes: ongoing observation, the opportunity to provide reality orientation, a means of helping dismiss the voices, the opportunity of forestalling an action that would result in self-injury, and general support to reduce anxiety. Asking if the patient hears voices is not particularly relevant at this point. Asking if the patient plans to "get away from the voices" is relevant for assessment purposes but is less helpful than offering to stay with the patient while encouraging a focus on their discussion. Suggesting playing cards with other patients shifts responsibility for intervention from the nurse to the patient and other patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 206-207 | Page 212-213 (Box 12-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

13. The history shows that a newly admitted patient is impulsive. The nurse would expect behavior characterized by: a. adherence to a strict moral code. b. manipulative, controlling strategies. c. acting without thought on urges or desires. d. postponing gratification to an appropriate time.

ANS: C The impulsive individual acts in haste without taking time to consider the consequences of the action. None of the other options describes impulsivity.

3. As a nurse prepares to administer medication to a patient diagnosed with a borderline personality disorder, the patient says, "Just leave it on the table. I'll take it when I finish combing my hair." What is the nurse's best response? a. Reinforce this assertive action by the patient. Leave the medication on the table as requested. b. Respond to the patient, "I'm worried that you might not take it. I'll come back later." c. Say to the patient, "I must watch you take the medication. Please take it now." d. Ask the patient, "Why don't you want to take your medication now?"

ANS: C The individual with a borderline personality disorder characteristically demonstrates manipulative, splitting, and self-destructive behaviors. Consistent limit setting is vital for the patient's safety, but also to prevent splitting other staff. "Why" questions are not therapeutic. See relationship to audience response question.

31. A nurse prepares for an initial interaction with a patient with a long history of methamphetamine abuse. Which is the nurse's best first action? a. Perform a thorough assessment of the patient. b. Verify that security services are immediately available. c. Self-assess personal attitude, values, and beliefs about this health problem. d. Obtain a face shield because oral hygiene is poor in methamphetamine abusers.

ANS: C The nurse should show compassion, care, and helpfulness for all patients, including those with addictive diseases. It is important to have a clear understanding of one's own perspective. Negative feelings may occur for the nurse; supervision is an important resource. The activities identified in the distracters occur after self-assessment.

2. A patient with fluctuating levels of awareness, confusion, and disturbed orientation shouts, "Bugs are crawling on my legs. Get them off!" Which problem is the patient experiencing? a. Aphasia b. dystonia c. Tactile hallucinations d. Mnemonic disturbance

ANS: C The patient feels bugs crawling on both legs, even though no sensory stimulus is actually present. This description meets the definition of a hallucination, a false sensory perception. Tactile hallucinations may be part of the symptom constellation of delirium. Aphasia refers to a speech disorder. Dystonia refers to excessive muscle tonus. Mnemonic disturbance is associated with dementia rather than delirium.

11. One month ago, a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder and a history of self-mutilation began dialectical behavior therapy. Today the patient phones to say, "I feel empty and want to hurt myself." The nurse should: a. arrange for emergency inpatient hospitalization. b. send the patient to the crisis intervention unit for 8 to 12 hours. c. assist the patient to choose coping strategies for triggering situations. d. advise the patient to take an anti-anxiety medication to decrease the anxiety level.

ANS: C The patient has responded appropriately to the urge for self-harm by calling a helping individual. A component of dialectical behavior therapy is telephone access to the therapist for "coaching" during crises. The nurse can assist the patient to choose an alternative to self-mutilation. The need for a protective environment may not be necessary if the patient is able to use cognitive strategies to determine a coping strategy that will reduce the urge to mutilate. Taking a sedative and going to sleep should not be the first-line intervention because sedation may reduce the patient's ability to weigh alternatives to mutilating behavior.

27. A new psychiatric technician says, "Schizophrenia...schizotypal! What's the difference?" The nurse's response should include which information? a. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is not usually overtly psychotic. b. In schizotypal personality disorder, the patient remains psychotic much longer. c. With schizotypal personality disorder, the person can be made aware of misinterpretations of reality. d. Schizotypal personality disorder causes more frequent and more prolonged hospitalizations than schizophrenia.

ANS: C The patient with schizotypal personality disorder might have problems thinking, perceiving, and communicating and might have an odd, eccentric appearance; however, they can be made aware of misinterpretations and overtly psychotic symptoms are usually absent. The individual with schizophrenia is more likely to display psychotic symptoms, remain ill for longer periods, and have more frequent and prolonged hospitalizations.

4. What is an appropriate initial outcome for a patient diagnosed with a personality disorder who frequently manipulates others? The patient will: a. identify when feeling angry. b. use manipulation only to get legitimate needs met. c. acknowledge manipulative behavior when it is called to his or her attention. d. accept fulfillment of his or her requests within an hour rather than immediately.

ANS: C This is an early outcome that paves the way for later taking greater responsibility for controlling manipulative behavior. Identifying anger relates to anger and aggression control. Using manipulation to get legitimate needs is an inappropriate outcome. The patient would ideally use assertive behavior to promote need fulfillment. Accepting fulfillment of requests within an hour rather than immediately relates to impulsivity control.

13. A tearful, anxious patient at the outpatient clinic reports, I should be dead. The initial task of the nurse conducting the assessment interview is to: a. assess lethality of suicide plan. b. encourage expression of anger. c. establish rapport with the patient. d. determine risk factors for suicide.

ANS: C This scenario presents a potential crisis. Establishing rapport facilitates a therapeutic alliance that will allow the nurse to obtain relevant assessment data such as the presence of a suicide plan, lethality of plan, and presence of risk factors for suicide. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 488-491 (Nursing Care Plan 25-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

Which behavior shows that a nurse values autonomy? The nurse: a. suggests one-on-one supervision for a patient who has suicidal thoughts. b. informs a patient that the spouse will not be in during visiting hours. c. discusses options and helps the patient weigh the consequences. d. sets limits on a patient's romantic overtures toward the nurse.

ANS: C A high level of valuing is acting on one's belief. Autonomy is supported when the nurse helps a patient weigh alternatives and their consequences before the patient makes a decision. Autonomy or self-determination is not the issue in any of the other behaviors.

As a nurse escorts a patient being discharged after treatment for major depression, the patient gives the nurse a necklace with a heart pendant and says, "Thank you for helping mend my broken heart." Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Accepting gifts violates the policies and procedures of the facility." b. "I'm glad you feel so much better now. Thank you for the beautiful necklace." c. "I'm glad I could help you, but I can't accept the gift. My reward is seeing you with a renewed sense of hope." d. "Helping people is what nursing is all about. It's rewarding to me when patients recognize how hard we work."

ANS: C Accepting a gift creates a social rather than therapeutic relationship with the patient and blurs the boundaries of the relationship. A caring nurse will acknowledge the patient's gesture of appreciation, but the gift should not be accepted. See relationship to audience response question.

A patient referred to the eating disorders clinic has lost 35 pounds during the past 3 months. To assess eating patterns, the nurse should ask the patient: a. "Do you often feel fat?" b. "Who plans the family meals?" c. "What do you eat in a typical day?" d. "What do you think about your present weight?"

ANS: C Although all the questions might be appropriate to ask, only "What do you eat in a typical day?" focuses on the eating patterns. Asking if the patient often feels fat focuses on distortions in body image. Questions about family meal planning are unrelated to eating patterns. Asking for the patient's thoughts on present weight explores the patient's feelings about weight.

When a new bill introduced in Congress reduces funding for care of persons with mental illness, a group of nurses writes letters to their elected representatives in opposition to the legislation. Which role have the nurses fulfilled? a. Recovery b. Attending c. Advocacy d. Evidence-based practice

ANS: C An advocate defends or asserts another's cause, particularly when the other person lacks the ability to do that for self. Examples of individual advocacy include helping patients understand their rights or make decisions. On a community scale, advocacy includes political activity, public speaking, and publication in the interest of improving the human condition. Since funding is necessary to deliver quality programming for persons with mental illness, the letter- writing campaign advocates for that cause on behalf of patients who are unable to articulate their own needs.

A patient discloses several concerns and associated feelings. If the nurse wants to seek clarification, which comment would be appropriate? a. "What are the common elements here?" b. "Tell me again about your experiences." c. "Am I correct in understanding that . . ." d. "Tell me everything from the beginning."

ANS: C Asking, "Am I correct in understanding that..." permits clarification to ensure that both the nurse and patient share mutual understanding of the communication. Asking about common elements encourages comparison rather than clarification. The remaining responses are implied questions that suggest the nurse was not listening.

A suspicious, socially isolated patient lives alone, eats one meal a day at a local shelter, and spends the remaining daily food allowance on cigarettes. Select a community psychiatric nurse's best initial action. a. Explore ways to help the patient stop smoking. b. Report the situation to the manager of the shelter. c. Assess the patient's weight; determine foods and amounts eaten. d. Arrange hospitalization for the patient in order to formulate a new treatment plan.

ANS: C Assessment of biopsychosocial needs and general ability to live in the community is called for before any other action is taken. Both nutritional status and income adequacy are critical assessment parameters. A patient may be able to maintain adequate nutrition while eating only one meal a day. The rule is to assess before taking action. Hospitalization may not be necessary. Smoking cessation strategies can be pursued later.

A patient tells the nurse, "I don't think I'll ever get out of here." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Don't talk that way. Of course you will leave here!" b. "Keep up the good work, and you certainly will." c. "You don't think you're making progress?" d. "Everyone feels that way sometimes."

ANS: C By asking if the patient does not believe that progress has been made, the nurse is reflecting by putting into words what the patient is hinting. By making communication more explicit, issues are easier to identify and resolve. The remaining options are non-therapeutic techniques. Telling the patient not to "talk that way" is disapproving. Saying that everyone feels that way at times minimizes feelings. Telling the patient that good work will always result in success is falsely reassuring.

Which comment best indicates that a patient perceived the nurse was caring? "My nurse: a. always asks me which type of juice I want to help me swallow my medication." b. explained my treatment plan to me and asked for my ideas about how to make it better." c. spends time listening to me talk about my problems. That helps me feel like I am not alone." d. told me that if I take all the medicines the doctor prescribes, then I will get discharged sooner."

ANS: C Caring evidences empathetic understanding as well as competency. It helps change pain and suffering into a shared experience, creating a human connection that alleviates feelings of isolation. The distracters give examples of statements that demonstrate advocacy or giving advice.

Which disorder is a culture-bound syndrome? a. Epilepsy b. Schizophrenia c. Running amok d. Major depression

ANS: C Culture-bound syndromes occur in specific sociocultural contexts and are easily recognized by people in those cultures. A syndrome recognized in parts of Southeast Asia is running amok, in which a person (usually a male) runs around engaging in furious, almost indiscriminate violent behavior.

What is the desirable outcome for the orientation stage of a nurse-patient relationship? The patient will demonstrate behaviors that indicate: a. self-responsibility and autonomy. b. a greater sense of independence. c. rapport and trust with the nurse. d. resolved transference.

ANS: C Development of rapport and trust is necessary before the relationship can progress to the working phase. Behaviors indicating a greater sense of independence, self-responsibility, and resolved transference occur in the working phase.

A nurse assesses a patient who takes lithium. Which findings demonstrate evidence of complications? a. Pharyngitis, mydriasis, and dystonia b. Alopecia, purpura, and drowsiness c. Diaphoresis, weakness, and nausea d. Ascites, dyspnea, and edema

ANS: C Diaphoresis, weakness, and nausea are early signs of lithium toxicity. Problems mentioned in the incorrect options are unrelated to lithium therapy.

During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved? a. Preorientation b. Orientation c. Working d. Termination

ANS: C During the working phase, the nurse strives to assist the patient in making connections among dysfunctional behaviors, thinking, and emotions and offers support while alternative coping behaviors are tried.

A 5-year-old child was diagnosed with encopresis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect associated with this diagnosis? The child: a. frequently smears feces on clothing and toys. b. experiences frequent nocturnal episodes of bedwetting. c. has accidents of defecation at kindergarten three times a week. d. has occasional episodes of voiding accidents at the day care center.

ANS: C Encopresis refers to unsuccessful bowel control. Bowel control is expected by age 5, so frequent involuntary defecation is associated with this diagnosis. Smearing feces is behavioral. Enuresis refers to the voiding of urine during the day (diurnal) or at night (nocturnal).

A person was online continuously for over 24 hours, posting rhymes on official government web-sites and inviting politicians to join social networks. The person has not slept or eaten for 3 days. What features of mania are evident? a. Increased muscle tension and anxiety b. Vegetative signs and poor grooming c. Poor judgment and hyperactivity d. Cognitive deficits and paranoia

ANS: C Hyperactivity (activity without sleep) and poor judgment (posting rhymes on government web-sites) are characteristic of manic episodes. The distracters do not specifically apply to mania.

A person was directing traffic on a busy street, rapidly shouting, "To work, you jerk, for perks" and making obscene gestures at cars. The person has not slept or eaten for 3 days. Which assessment findings will have priority concern for this patient's plan of care? a. Insulting, aggressive behavior b. Pressured speech and grandiosity c. Hyperactivity; not eating and sleeping d. Poor concentration and decision making

ANS: C Hyperactivity, poor nutrition, hydration, and not sleeping take priority in terms of the needs listed above because they threaten the physical integrity of the patient. The other behaviors are less threatening to the patient's life.

A nurse provides health teaching for a patient diagnosed with binge-purge bulimia. Priority information the nurse should provide relates to: a. self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake. b. establishing the desired daily weight gain. c. how to recognize hypokalemia. d. self-esteem maintenance.

ANS: C Hypokalemia results from potassium loss associated with vomiting. Physiological integrity can be maintained if the patient can self-diagnose potassium deficiency and adjust the diet or seek medical assistance. Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake is not useful if the patient purges. Daily weight gain may not be desirable for a patient with bulimia nervosa. Self-esteem is an identifiable problem but is of lesser priority than the dangers associated with hypokalemia.

A category 5 tornado occurred in a community of 400 people resulting in destruction of many homes and businesses. In the 2 years after this disaster, 140 individuals were diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which term best applies to these newly diagnosed cases? a. Prevalence b. Co-morbidity c. Incidence d. Parity

ANS: C Incidence refers to the number of new cases of mental disorders in a healthy population within a given period of time. Prevalence describes the total number of cases, new and existing, in a given population during a specific period of time, regardless of when they became ill. Parity refers to equivalence, and legislation required insurers that provide mental health coverage to offer annual and lifetime benefits at the same level provided for medical/surgical coverage. Co-morbidity refers to having more than one mental disorder at a time.

The spouse of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "I don't understand how events from childhood have anything to do with this disabling illness." Which response by the nurse will best help the spouse understand the cause of this disorder? a. "Psychological stress is the basis of most mental disorders." b. "This illness results from developmental factors rather than stress." c. "Research shows that this condition more likely has a biological basis." d. "It must be frustrating for you that your spouse is sick so much of the time."

ANS: C Many of the most prevalent and disabling mental disorders have strong biological influences. Genetics are only one part of biological factors. Empathy does not address increasing the spouse's level of knowledge about the cause of the disorder. The other distracters are not established facts.

A group is in the working phase. One member states, "That is the stupidest thing I've ever heard. Everyone whines and tells everyone else what to do. This group is a waste of my time." Which initial action by the group leader would be most therapeutic? a. Advise the member that hostility is inappropriate. Remove the member if it continues. b. Keep the group's focus on this member so the person can express the anger. c. Meet privately with the member outside of group to discuss the anger. d. Change to a more positive topic of discussion in this group session.

ANS: C Meeting privately with the member can convey interest and help defuse the anger so that it is less disruptive to the group. Removing the member would be a last resort and used only when the behavior is intolerably disruptive to the group process and all other interventions have failed. Decreasing the focus on the hostile member and focusing more on positive members can help soften the anger. Angry members often hide considerable vulnerability by using anger to keep others at a distance and intimidated. Changing the subject fails to respond to the behavior.

A patient says, "I'm still on restriction, but I want to attend some off-unit activities. Would you ask the doctor to change my privileges?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Why are you asking me when you're able to speak for yourself?" b. "I will be glad to address it when I see your doctor later today." c. "That's a good topic for you to discuss with your doctor." d. "Do you think you can't speak to a doctor?"

ANS: C Nurses should encourage patients to work at their optimal level of functioning. A nurse does not act for the patient unless it is necessary. Acting for a patient increases feelings of helplessness and dependency.

A nurse consistently encourages patient to do his or her own activities of daily living (ADLs). If the patient is unable to complete an activity, the nurse helps until the patient is once again independent. This nurse's practice is most influenced by which theorist? a. Betty Neuman b. Patricia Benner c. Dorothea Orem d. Joyce Travelbee

ANS: C Orem emphasizes the role of the nurse in promoting self-care activities of the patient; this has relevance to the seriously and persistently mentally ill patient.

Over the past year, a woman has cooked gourmet meals for her family but eats only tiny servings. This person wears layered loose clothing. Her current weight is 95 pounds, a loss of 35 pounds. Which medical diagnosis is most likely? a. Binge eating b. Bulimia nervosa c. Anorexia nervosa d. Eating disorder not otherwise specified

ANS: C Overly controlled eating behaviors, extreme weight loss, preoccupation with food, and wearing several layers of loose clothing to appear larger are part of the clinical picture of an individual with anorexia nervosa. The individual with bulimia usually is near normal weight. The binge eater is often overweight. The patient with eating disorder not otherwise specified may be obese. See relationship to audience response question.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia had an exacerbation related to medication noncompliance and was hospitalized for 5 days. The patient's thoughts are now more organized, and discharge is planned. The patient's family says, "It's too soon for discharge. We will just go through all this again." The nurse should: a. ask the case manager to arrange a transfer to a long-term care facility. b. notify hospital security to handle the disturbance and escort the family off the unit. c. explain that the patient will continue to improve if the medication is taken regularly. d. contact the health care provider to meet with the family and explain the discharge rationale.

ANS: C Patients do not stay in a hospital until every symptom disappears. The nurse must assume responsibility to advocate for the patient's right to the least restrictive setting as soon as the symptoms are under control and for the right of citizens to control health care costs. The health care provider will use the same rationale. Shifting blame will not change the discharge. Security is unnecessary. The nurse can handle this matter.

A patient experiencing acute mania undresses in the group room and dances. The nurse intervenes initially by: a. quietly asking the patient, "Why don't you put your clothes on?" b. firmly telling the patient, "Stop dancing and put on your clothing." c. putting a blanket around the patient and walking with the patient to a quiet room. d. letting the patient stay in the group room and moving the other patients to a different area.

ANS: C Patients must be protected from the embarrassing consequences of their poor judgment whenever possible. Protecting the patient from public exposure by matter-of-factly covering the patient and removing him or her from the area with a sufficient number of staff to avoid argument and provide control is an effective approach.

A patient in a group therapy session listens to others and then remarks, "I used to think I was the only one who felt afraid. I guess I'm not as alone as I thought." This comment is an example of: a. altruism. b. ventilation. c. universality. d. group cohesiveness.

ANS: C Realizing that one is not alone and that others share the same problems and feelings is called universality. Ventilation refers to expressing emotions. Altruism refers to benefitting by being of help to others. Group cohesiveness refers to the degree of bonding among members of the group.

A patient usually watches television all day, seldom going out in the community or socializing with others. The patient says, "I don't know what to do with my free time." Which member of the treatment team would be most helpful to this patient? a. Psychologist b. Social worker c. Recreational therapist d. Occupational therapist

ANS: C Recreational therapists help patients use leisure time to benefit their mental health. Occupational therapists assist with a broad range of skills, including those for employment. Psychologists conduct testing and provide other patient services. Social workers focus on the patient's support system.

Which issues should a nurse address during the first interview with a patient with a psychiatric disorder? a. Trust, congruence, attitudes, and boundaries b. Goals, resistance, unconscious motivations, and diversion c. Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination d. Transference, countertransference, intimacy, and developing resources

ANS: C Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination are issues that should be considered during the orientation phase of the relationship. The remaining options are issues that are dealt with later.

Which principle should guide the nurse in determining the extent of silence to use during patient interview sessions? a. A nurse is responsible for breaking silences. b. Patients withdraw if silences are prolonged. c. Silence can provide meaningful moments for reflection. d. Silence helps patients know that what they said was understood.

ANS: C Silence can be helpful to both participants by giving each an opportunity to contemplate what has transpired, weigh alternatives, and formulate ideas. A nurse breaking silences is not a principle related to silences. It is inaccurate to say that patients withdraw during long silences or that silence helps patients know that they are understood. Feedback helps patients know they have been understood.

After several therapeutic encounters with a patient who recently attempted suicide, which occurrence should cause the nurse to consider the possibility of countertransference? a. The patient's reactions toward the nurse seem realistic and appropriate. b. The patient states, "Talking to you feels like talking to my parents." c. The nurse feels unusually happy when the patient's mood begins to lift. d. The nurse develops a trusting relationship with the patient.

ANS: C Strong positive or negative reactions toward a patient or over-identification with the patient indicate possible countertransference. Nurses must carefully monitor their own feelings and reactions to detect countertransference and then seek supervision. Realistic and appropriate reactions from a patient toward a nurse are desirable. One incorrect response suggests transference. A trusting relationship with the patient is desirable. See relationship to audience response question.

Termination of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship has been successful when the nurse: a. avoids upsetting the patient by shifting focus to other patients before the discharge. b. gives the patient a personal telephone number and permission to call after discharge. c. discusses with the patient changes that happened during the relationship and evaluates outcomes. d. offers to meet the patient for coffee and conversation three times a week after discharge.

ANS: C Summarizing and evaluating progress help validate the experience for the patient and the nurse and facilitate closure. Termination must be discussed; avoiding discussion by spending little time with the patient promotes feelings of abandonment. Successful termination requires that the relationship be brought to closure without the possibility of dependency-producing ongoing contact.

A college student received an invitation to attend the wedding of a close friend who lives across the country. The student is afraid of flying. Which type of therapy would be most helpful for this patient? a. Psychoanalysis b. Milieu therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Short-term dynamic therapy

ANS: C Systematic desensitization is a type of therapy aimed at extinguishing a specific behavior, such as the fear of flying. Psychoanalysis and short-term dynamic therapy seek to uncover conflicts. Milieu therapy involves environmental factors.

The case manager plans to discuss the treatment plan with a patient's family. Select the case manager's first action. a. Determine an appropriate location for the conference. b. Support the discussion with examples of the patient's behavior. c. Obtain the patient's permission for the exchange of information. d. Determine which family members should participate in the conference.

ANS: C The case manager must respect the patient's right to privacy, which extends to discussions with family. Talking to family members is part of the case manager's role. Actions identified in the distracters occur after the patient has given permission.

A patient was hospitalized for 24 hours after a reaction to a psychotropic medication. While planning discharge, the case manager learned that the patient received a notice of eviction immediately prior to admission. Select the case manager's most appropriate action. a. Postpone the patient's discharge from the hospital. b. Contact the landlord who evicted the patient to further discuss the situation. c. Arrange a temporary place for the patient to stay until new housing can be arranged. d. Determine whether the adverse medication reaction was genuine because the patient had nowhere to live.

ANS: C The case manager should intervene by arranging temporary shelter for the patient until an apartment can be found. This activity is part of the coordination and delivery of services that falls under the case manager role. None of the other options is a viable alternative.

The unit secretary receives a phone call from the health insurer for a hospitalized patient. The caller seeks information about the patient's projected length of stay. How should the nurse instruct the unit secretary to handle the request? a. Obtain the information from the patient's medical record and relay it to the caller. b. Inform the caller that all information about patients is confidential. c. Refer the request for information to the patient's case manager. d. Refer the request to the health care provider.

ANS: C The case manager usually confers with insurers and provides the treatment team with information about available resources. The unit secretary should be mindful of patient confidentiality and should neither confirm that the patient is an inpatient nor disclose other information.

As a patient admitted to the eating disorders unit undresses, a nurse observes that the patient's body is covered by fine, downy hair. The patient weighs 70 pounds and is 5 feet 4 inches tall. Which term should be documented? a. Amenorrhea b. Alopecia c. Lanugo d. Stupor

ANS: C The fine, downy hair noted by the nurse is called lanugo. It is frequently seen in patients with anorexia nervosa. None of the other conditions can be supported by the data the nurse has gathered.

A group is in the working phase. One member says, "That is the stupidest thing I've ever heard. Everyone whines and tells everyone else what to do. This group is a total waste of my time." Which comment by the group leader would be most therapeutic? a. "You seem to think you know a lot already. Since you know so much, perhaps you can tell everyone why you are back in the hospital?" b. "I think you have made your views clear, but I wonder if others feel the same way. How does everyone else feel about our group?" c. "It must be hard to be so angry." Direct this comment to another group member, "You were also angry at first but not now. What has helped you?" d. "I would like to remind you that one of our group rules is that everyone is to offer only positive responses to the comments of others."

ANS: C The member's comments demean the group and its members and suggest that the member is very angry. Labeling the emotion and conveying empathy would be therapeutic. Focusing on members who are likely to be more positive can balance the influence of demoralizing members. "You seem to know a lot..." conveys hostility from the leader, who confronts and challenges the member to explain how he came to be readmitted if he was so knowledgeable, implying that he is less knowledgeable than he claims. This comment suggests countertransference and is non-therapeutic. Shifting away from the complaining member to see if others agree seeks to have others express disagreement with this member, but that might not happen. In the face of his anger, they might be quiet or afraid to oppose him, or they could respond in kind by expressing hostility themselves. A rule that only positive exchanges are permitted would suppress conflict, reducing the effectiveness of the therapy group.

A nurse at the well child clinic realizes that many parents have misconceptions about effective ways of disciplining their children. The nurse decides to form a group to address this problem. What should be the focus of the group? a. Support b. Socialization c. Health education d. Symptom management

ANS: C The nurse has diagnosed a knowledge deficit. The focus of the group should be education. Support and socialization are beneficial but should not be the primary focus of the group, and symptoms are not identified for intervention here.

The parent of a 4-year-old rewards and praises the child for helping a younger sibling, being polite, and using good manners. The nurse supports this use of praise related to these behaviors. These qualities are likely to be internalized and become part of which system of the personality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Preconscious

ANS: C The superego contains the "thou shalts," or moral standards internalized from interactions with significant others. Praise fosters internalization of desirable behaviors. The id is the center of basic instinctual drives, and the ego is the mediator. The ego is the problem-solving and reality-testing portion of the personality that negotiates solutions with the outside world. The preconscious is a level of awareness from which material can be retrieved easily with conscious effort. This item relates to an audience response question.

Consider these three anticonvulsant medications: divalproex (Depakote), carbamazepine (Tegretol), and gabapentin (Neurontin). Which medication also belongs to this classification? a. clonazepam (Klonopin) b. risperidone (Risperdal) c. lamotrigine (La-mictal) d. aripiprazole (Abilify)

ANS: C The three drugs in the stem of the question are all anticonvulsants. Lamotrigine is also an anticonvulsant. Clonazepam is an anxiolytic; aripiprazole and risperidone are antipsychotic drugs. See relationship to audience response question.

Which dinner menu is best suited for a patient with acute mania? a. Spaghetti and meatballs, salad, and a banana b. Beef and vegetable stew, a roll, and chocolate pudding c. Broiled chicken breast on a roll, an ear of corn, and an apple d. Chicken casserole, green beans, and flavored gelatin with whipped cream

ANS: C These foods provide adequate nutrition, but more important they are finger foods that the hyperactive patient could "eat on the run." The foods in the incorrect options cannot be eaten without utensils.

An adult says, "I never know the answers," and "My opinion doesn't count." Which psychosocial crisis was unsuccessfully resolved for this adult? a. Initiative versus guilt b. Trust versus mistrust c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt d. Generativity versus self-absorption

ANS: C These statements show severe self-doubt, indicating that the crisis of gaining control over the environment was not met successfully. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of initiative versus guilt results in feelings of guilt. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of trust versus mistrust results in poor interpersonal relationships and suspicion of others. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of generativity versus self-absorption results in self-absorption that limits the ability to grow as a person.

Documentation in a patient's chart shows, "Throughout a 5-minute interaction, patient fidgeted and tapped left foot, periodically covered face with hands, and looked under chair while stating, 'I enjoy spending time with you.'" Which analysis is most accurate? a. The patient is giving positive feedback about the nurse's communication techniques. b. The nurse is viewing the patient's behavior through a cultural filter. c. The patient's verbal and nonverbal messages are incongruent. d. The patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors.

ANS: C When a verbal message is not reinforced with nonverbal behavior, the message is confusing and incongruent. Some clinicians call it a "mixed message." It is inaccurate to say that the patient is giving positive feedback about the nurse's communication techniques. The concept of a cultural filter is not relevant to the situation because a cultural filter determines what we will pay attention to and what we will ignore. Data are insufficient to draw the conclusion that the patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder becomes hyperactive after discontinuing lithium. The patient threatens to hit another patient. Which comment by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Stop that! No one did anything to provoke an attack by you." b. "If you do that one more time, you will be secluded immediately." c. "Do not hit anyone. If you are unable to control yourself, we will help you." d. "You know we will not let you hit anyone. Why do you continue this behavior?"

ANS: C When the patient is unable to control his or her behavior and violates or threatens to violate the rights of others, limits must be set in an effort to deescalate the situation. Limits should be set in simple, concrete terms. The incorrect responses do not offer appropriate assistance to the patient, threaten the patient with seclusion as punishment, and ask a rhetorical question.

4. A new patient beginning an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "I'm just a social drinker. I usually have one drink at lunch, two in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and a few drinks during the evening." Select the nurse's most therapeutic responses. Select all that apply. a. "I see," and use interested silence. b. "I think you are drinking more than you report." c. "Social drinkers have one or two drinks, once or twice a week." d. "You describe drinking steadily throughout the day and evening." e. "Your comments show denial of the seriousness of your problem."

ANS: C, D The correct answers give information, summarize, and validate what the patient reported but are not strongly confrontational. Defenses cannot be removed until healthier coping strategies are in place. Strong confrontation does not usually take place so early in the program.

The plan of care for a patient in the manic state of bipolar disorder should include which inter-ventions? Select all that apply. a. Touch the patient to provide reassurance. b. Invite the patient to lead a community meeting. c. Provide a structured environment for the patient. d. Ensure that the patient's nutritional needs are met. e. Design activities that require the patient's concentration.

ANS: C, D People with mania are hyperactive, grandiose, and distractible. It's most important to ensure the patient receives adequate nutrition. Structure will support a safe environment. Touching the patient may precipitate aggressive behavior. Leading a community meeting would be appropriate when the patient's behavior is less grandiose. Activities that require concentration will produce frustration.

Select all that apply. Which comments by a nurse demonstrate use of therapeutic communication techniques? a. "Why do you think these events have happened to you?" b. "There are people with problems much worse than yours." c. "I'm glad you were able to tell me how you felt about your loss." d. "I noticed your hands trembling when you told me about your accident." e. "You look very nice today. I'm proud you took more time with your appearance."

ANS: C, D The correct responses demonstrate use of the therapeutic techniques making an observation and showing empathy. The incorrect responses demonstrate minimizing feelings, probing, and giving approval, which are non-therapeutic techniques.

3. Which nursing diagnoses are most applicable for a patient diagnosed with severe Alzheimer's disease? Select all that apply. a. Acute confusion b. Anticipatory grieving c. Urinary incontinence d. Disturbed sleep pattern e. Risk for caregiver role strain

ANS: C, D, E The correct answers are consistent with problems frequently identified for patients with late-stage Alzheimer's disease. Confusion is chronic, not acute. The patient's cognition is too impaired to grieve.

A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa is hospitalized for treatment. What features should the milieu provide? Select all that apply. a. Flexible mealtimes b. Unscheduled weight checks c. Adherence to a selected menu d. Observation during and after meals e. Monitoring during bathroom trips f. Privileges correlated with emotional expression

ANS: C, D, E Priority milieu interventions support the restoration of weight and a normalization of eating patterns. These goals require close supervision of the patient's eating habits and the prevention of exercise, purging, and other activities. Menus are strictly adhered to. Patients are observed during and after meals to prevent them from throwing away food or purging. All trips to the bathroom are monitored. Mealtimes are structured, not flexible. Weighing is performed on a regular schedule. Privileges are correlated with weight gain and treatment plan compliance.

Select all that apply. Which statements most clearly reflect the stigma of mental illness? a. "Many mental illnesses are hereditary." b. "Mental illness can be evidence of a brain disorder." c. "People claim mental illness so they can get disability checks." d. "Mental illness results from the breakdown of American families." e. "If people with mental illness went to church, their symptoms would vanish."

ANS: C, D, E Stigma is represented by judgmental remarks that discount the reality and validity of mental illness. Many mental illnesses are genetically transmitted. Neuroimaging can show changes associated with some mental illnesses.

17. A patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease calls the fire department saying, "My smoke detectors are going off." Firefighters investigate and discover that the patient misinterpreted the telephone ringing. Which problem is this patient experiencing? a. Hyperorality b. Aphasia c. Apraxia d. Agnosia

ANS: D Agnosia is the inability to recognize familiar objects, parts of one's body, or one's own reflection in a mirror. Hyperorality refers to placing objects in the mouth. Aphasia refers to the loss of language ability. Apraxia refers to the loss of purposeful movements, such as being unable to dress.

7. A health care provider considers which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who has auditory hallucinations and poor social function. The patient is also overweight and hypertensive. Which drug should the nurse advocate? a. Clozapine (Clozaril) b. Ziprasidone (Geodon) c. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) d. Aripiprazole (Abilify)

ANS: D Aripiprazole is a third-generation atypical antipsychotic effective against both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It causes little or no weight gain and no increase in glucose, high- or low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, or triglycerides, making it a reasonable choice for a patient with obesity or heart disease. Clozapine may produce agranulocytosis, making it a poor choice as a first-line agent. Ziprasidone may prolong the QT interval, making it a poor choice for a patient with cardiac disease. Olanzapine fosters weight gain. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 215-219 (Table 12-5) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

22. A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder self-inflicted wrist lacerations after gaining new privileges on the unit. In this case, the self-mutilation may have been due to: a. an inherited disorder that manifests itself as an incapacity to tolerate stress. b. use of projective identification and splitting to bring anxiety to manageable levels. c. a constitutional inability to regulate affect, predisposing to psychic disorganization. d. fear of abandonment associated with progress toward autonomy and independence.

ANS: D Fear of abandonment is a central theme for most patients with borderline personality disorder. This fear is often exacerbated when patients with borderline personality disorder experience success or growth.

26. Which assessment findings are likely for an individual who recently injected heroin? a. Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions b. Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia c. Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria d. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech

ANS: D Heroin, an opiate, is a CNS depressant. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations will be decreased, and attention will be impaired. The distracters describe behaviors consistent with amphetamine use, symptoms of narcotic withdrawal, and cocaine use. (Educators may alter this question to multiple answers if desired.)

25. Which individual in the emergency department should be considered at highest risk for completing suicide? a. An adolescent Asian American girl with superior athletic and academic skills who has asthma b. A 38-year-old single, African American female church member with fibrocystic breast disease c. A 60-year-old married Hispanic man with twelve grandchildren who has type 2 diabetes d. A 79-year-old single, white male diagnosed recently with terminal cancer of the prostate

ANS: D High-risk factors include being an older adult, single, male, and having a co-occurring medical illness. Cancer is one of the somatic conditions associated with increased suicide risk. Protective factors for African American women and Hispanic individuals include strong religious and family ties. Asian Americans have a suicide rate that increases with age. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 482-483 (Box 25-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

34. The nurse is developing a plan for psychoeducational sessions for several adults diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which goal is best for this group? Members will: a. gain insight into unconscious factors that contribute to their illness. b. explore situations that trigger hostility and anger. c. learn to manage delusional thinking. d. demonstrate improved social skills.

ANS: D Improved social skills help patients maintain relationships with others. These relationships are important to management of the disorder. Most patients with schizophrenia think concretely, so insight development is unlikely. Not all patients with schizophrenia experience delusions. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 211-215 (Box 12-6) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

24. What is the priority need for a patient with late-stage dementia? a. Promotion of self-care activities b. Meaningful verbal communication c. Preventing the patient from wandering d. Maintenance of nutrition and hydration

ANS: D In late-stage dementia, the patient often seems to have forgotten how to eat, chew, and swallow. Nutrition and hydration needs must be met if the patient is to live. The patient is incapable of self-care, ambulation, or verbal communication.

19. The nurse caring for an individual demonstrating symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder would expect assessment findings to include: a. arrogant, grandiose, and a sense of self-importance. b. attention seeking, melodramatic, and flirtatious. c. impulsive, restless, socially aggressive behavior. d. socially anxious, rambling stories, peculiar ideas.

ANS: D Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder do not want to be involved in relationships. They are shy and introverted, speak little, and prefer fantasy and daydreaming to being involved with real people. The other behaviors would characteristically be noted in narcissistic, histrionic, and antisocial personality disorder. (The educator may reformat this question as multiple response.)

31. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia and auditory hallucinations anxiously tells the nurse, "The voice is telling me to do things." Select the nurse's priority assessment question. a. "How long has the voice been directing your behavior?" b. "Does what the voice tell you to do frighten you?" c. "Do you recognize the voice speaking to you?' d. "What is the voice telling you to do?"

ANS: D Learning what a command hallucination is telling the patient to do is important because the command often places the patient or others at risk for harm. Command hallucinations can be terrifying and may pose a psychiatric emergency. The incorrect questions are of lesser importance than identifying the command. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 207-209 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment

25. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "It's beat. Time to eat. No room for the cat." What type of verbalization is evident? a. Neologism b. Idea of reference c. Thought broadcasting d. Associative looseness

ANS: D Looseness of association refers to jumbled thoughts incoherently expressed to the listener. Neologisms are newly coined words. Ideas of reference are a type of delusion. Thought broadcasting is the belief that others can hear one's thoughts. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 205 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

12. Which medication to maintain abstinence would most likely be prescribed for patients with an addiction to either alcohol or opioids? a. Bromocriptine (Parlodel) b. Methadone (Dolophine) c. Disulfiram (Antabuse) d. Naltrexone (ReVia)

ANS: D Naltrexone (ReVia) is useful for treating both opioid and alcohol addiction. An opioid antagonist blocks the action of opioids and the mechanism of reinforcement. It also reduces or eliminates alcohol craving.

20. Family members of an individual undergoing a residential alcohol rehabilitation program ask, "How can we help?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Alcoholism is a lifelong disease. Relapses are expected." b. "Use search and destroy tactics to keep the home alcohol free." c. "It's important that you visit your family member on a regular basis." d. "Make your loved one responsible for the consequences of behavior."

ANS: D Often, the addicted individual has been enabled when others picked up the pieces for him or her. The individual never faced the consequences of his or her own behaviors, all of which relate to taking responsibility. Learning to face those consequences is part of the recovery process. The other options are codependent behaviors or are of no help.

1. A health care provider recently convicted of Medicare fraud says to a nurse, "Sure I overbilled. Everyone takes advantage of the government. There are too many rules to follow and I should get the money." These statements show: a. shame. b. suspiciousness c. superficial remorse. d. lack of guilt feelings.

ANS: D Rationalization is being used to explain behavior and deny wrongdoing. The individual who does not believe he or she has done anything wrong will not manifest anxiety, remorse, or guilt about the act. The patient's remarks cannot be assessed as shameful. Lack of trust and concern that others are determined to do harm is not shown.

22. A patient with an antisocial personality disorder was treated several times for substance abuse, but each time the patient relapsed. Which treatment approach is most appropriate? a. 1-week detoxification program b. Long-term outpatient therapy c. 12-step self-help program d. Residential program

ANS: D Residential programs and therapeutic communities help patients change lifestyles, abstain from drugs, eliminate criminal behaviors, develop employment skills, be self-reliant, and practice honesty. Residential programs are more effective for patients with antisocial tendencies than outpatient programs.

29. A nurse determines desired outcomes for a patient diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder. Select the best outcome. The patient will: a. adhere willingly to unit norms. b. report decreased incidence of self-mutilative thoughts. c. demonstrate fewer attempts at splitting or manipulating staff. d. demonstrate ability to introduce self to a stranger in a social situation.

ANS: D Schizotypal individuals have poor social skills. Social situations are uncomfortable for them. It is desirable for the individual to develop the ability to meet and socialize with others. Individuals with schizotypal PD usually have no issues with adherence to unit norms, nor are they self-mutilative or manipulative.

28. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been stable for a year; however, the family now reports the patient is tense, sleeps 3 to 4 hours per night, and has difficulty concentrating. The patient says, "My computer is sending out infected radiation beams." The nurse can correctly assess this information as an indication of: a. the need for psychoeducation. b. medication noncompliance. c. chronic deterioration. d. relapse.

ANS: D Signs of potential relapse include feeling tense, difficulty concentrating, trouble sleeping, increased withdrawal, and increased bizarre or magical thinking. Medication noncompliance may not be implicated. Relapse can occur even when the patient is taking medication regularly. Psychoeducation is more effective when the patient's symptoms are stable. Chronic deterioration is not the best explanation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 213-215 (Box 12-6) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

17. When preparing to interview a patient diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder, a nurse can anticipate the assessment findings will include: a. preoccupation with minute details; perfectionist. b. charm, drama, seductiveness; seeking admiration. c. difficulty being alone; indecisive, submissiveness. d. grandiosity, self-importance, and a sense of entitlement

ANS: D The characteristics of grandiosity, self-importance, and entitlement are consistent with narcissistic personality disorder. Charm, drama, seductiveness, and admiration seeking are seen in patients with histrionic personality disorder. Preoccupation with minute details and perfectionism are seen in individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Patients with dependent personality disorder often express difficulty being alone and are indecisive and submissive.

8. A patient diagnosed with an alcohol abuse disorder says, "Drinking helps me cope with being a single parent." Which therapeutic response by the nurse would help the patient conceptualize the drinking objectively? a. "Sooner or later, alcohol will kill you. Then what will happen to your children?" b. "I hear a lot of defensiveness in your voice. Do you really believe this?" c. "If you were coping so well, why were you hospitalized again?" d. "Tell me what happened the last time you drank."

ANS: D The correct response will help the patient see alcohol as a cause of the problems, not a solution, and begin to take responsibility. This approach can help the patient become receptive to the possibility of change. The other responses directly confront and attack defenses against anxiety that the patient still needs. They reflect the nurse's frustration with the patient.

21. Which goal for treatment of alcoholism should the nurse address first? a. Learn about addiction and recovery. b. Develop alternate coping strategies. c. Develop a peer support system. d. Achieve physiologic stability.

ANS: D The individual must have completed withdrawal and achieved physiologic stability before he or she is able to address any of the other treatment goals.

30. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia anxiously says, "I can see the left side of my body merging with the wall, then my face appears and disappears in the mirror." While listening, the nurse should: a. sit close to the patient. b. place an arm protectively around the patient's shoulders. c. place a hand on the patient's arm and exert light pressure. d. maintain a normal social interaction distance from the patient.

ANS: D The patient is describing phenomena that indicate personal boundary difficulties and depersonalization. The nurse should maintain appropriate social distance and not touch the patient because the patient is anxious about the inability to maintain ego boundaries and merging or being swallowed by the environment. Physical closeness or touch could precipitate panic. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 204 | Page 212-213 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

20. A nurse sits with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient starts to laugh uncontrollably, although the nurse has not said anything funny. Select the nurse's best response. a. "Why are you laughing?" b. "Please share the joke with me." c. "I don't think I said anything funny." d. "You're laughing. Tell me what's happening."

ANS: D The patient is likely laughing in response to inner stimuli, such as hallucinations or fantasy. Focus on the hallucinatory clue (the patient's laughter) and then elicit the patient's observation. The incorrect options are less useful in eliciting a response: no joke may be involved, "why" questions are difficult to answer, and the patient is probably not focusing on what the nurse said in the first place. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 206-207 | Page 212-213 (Box 12-3)

8. A patient's spouse filed charges after repeatedly being battered. The patient sarcastically says, "I'm sorry for what I did. I need psychiatric help." Which statement by the patient supports an antisocial personality disorder? a. "I have a quick temper, but I can usually keep it under control." b. "I've done some stupid things in my life, but I've learned a lesson." c. "I'm feeling terrible about the way my behavior has hurt my family." d. "I hit because I am tired of being nagged. My spouse deserves the beating."

ANS: D The patient with an antisocial personality disorder often impulsively acts out feelings of anger and feels no guilt or remorse. Patients with antisocial personality disorders rarely seem to learn from experience or feel true remorse. Problems with anger management and impulse control are common.

5. A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained while intoxicated believes bugs are crawling on the bed. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Disturbed sensory perception b. Ineffective coping c. Ineffective denial d. Risk for injury

ANS: D The patient's clouded sensorium, sensory perceptual distortions, and poor judgment predispose a risk for injury. Safety is the nurse's priority. The other diagnoses may apply but are not the priorities of care.

23. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "Contagious bacteria are everywhere. When they get in your body, you will be locked up with other infected people." Which problem is evident? a. Poverty of content b. Concrete thinking c. Neologisms d. Paranoia

ANS: D The patient's unrealistic fear of harm indicates paranoia. Neologisms are invented words. Concrete thinking involves literal interpretation. Poverty of content refers to an inadequate fund of information. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

29. A patient is thin, tense, jittery, and has dilated pupils. The patient says, "My heart is pounding in my chest. I need help." The patient allows vital signs to be taken but then becomes suspicious and says, "You could be trying to kill me." The patient refuses further examination. Abuse of which substance is most likely? a. PCP b. Heroin c. Barbiturates d. Amphetamines

ANS: D The physical symptoms are consistent with CNS stimulation. Suspicion and paranoid ideation are also present. Amphetamine use is likely. PCP use would probably result in bizarre, violent behavior. Barbiturates and heroin would result in symptoms of CNS depression.

22. A older patient diagnosed with severe, late-stage dementia no longer recognizes family members. The family asks how long it will be before this patient recognizes them when they visit. What is the nurse's best reply? a. "Your family member will never again be able to identify you." b. "I think that is a question the health care provider should answer." c. "One never knows. Consciousness fluctuates in persons with dementia." d. "It is disappointing when someone you love no longer recognizes you."

ANS: D Therapeutic communication techniques can assist the family to come to terms with the losses and irreversibility dementia imposes on both the loved one and themselves. Two incorrect responses close communication. The nurse should take the opportunity to foster communication. Consciousness does not fluctuate in patients with dementia.

18. For which behavior would limit setting be most essential? The patient who: a. clings to the nurse and asks for advice about inconsequential matters. b. is flirtatious and provocative with staff members of the opposite sex. c. is hypervigilant and refuses to attend unit activities. d. urges a suspicious patient to hit anyone who stares.

ANS: D This is a manipulative behavior. Because manipulation violates the rights of others, limit setting is absolutely necessary. Furthermore, limit setting is necessary in this case because the safety of at least two other patients is at risk. Limit setting may occasionally be used with dependent behavior (clinging to the nurse) and histrionic behavior (flirting with staff members), but other therapeutic techniques are also useful. Limit setting is not needed for a patient who is hypervigilant and refuses to attend unit activities; rather, the need to develop trust is central to patient compliance.

8. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I eat skiller. Tend to end. Easter. It blows away. Get it?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Nothing you are saying is clear." b. "Your thoughts are very disconnected." c. "Try to organize your thoughts and then tell me again." d. "I am having difficulty understanding what you are saying."

ANS: D When a patient's speech is loosely associated, confused, and disorganized, pretending to understand is useless. The nurse should tell the patient that he or she is having difficulty understanding what the patient is saying. If a theme is discernible, ask the patient to talk about the theme. The incorrect options tend to place blame for the poor communication with the patient. The correct response places the difficulty with the nurse rather than being accusatory. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 205 | Page 213-214 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

14. Withdrawn patients diagnosed with schizophrenia: a. are usually violent toward caregivers. b. universally fear sexual involvement with therapists. c. exhibit a high degree of hostility as evidenced by rejecting behavior. d. avoid relationships because they become anxious with emotional closeness.

ANS: D When an individual is suspicious and distrustful and perceives the world and the people in it as potentially dangerous, withdrawal into an inner world can be a defense against uncomfortable levels of anxiety. When someone attempts to establish a relationship with such a patient, the patient's anxiety rises until trust is established. There is no evidence that withdrawn patients with schizophrenia universally fear sexual involvement with therapists. In most cases, it is untrue that withdrawn patients with schizophrenia are commonly violent or exhibit a high degree of hostility by demonstrating rejecting behavior. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 211 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

3. A patient with fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and perceptual alteration begs, "Someone get these bugs off me." What is the nurse's best response? a. "No bugs are on your legs. You are having hallucinations." b. "I will have someone stay here and brush off the bugs for you." c. "Try to relax. The crawling sensation will go away sooner if you can relax." d. "I don't see any bugs, but I can tell you are frightened. I will stay with you."

ANS: D When hallucinations are present, the nurse should acknowledge the patient's feelings and state the nurse's perception of reality, but not argue. Staying with the patient increases feelings of security, reduces anxiety, offers the opportunity for reinforcing reality, and provides a measure of physical safety. Denying the patient's perception without offering help does not support the patient emotionally. Telling the patient to relax makes the patient responsible for self-soothing. Telling the patient that someone will brush the bugs away supports the perceptual distortions.

A nurse interacts with a newly hospitalized patient. Select the nurse's comment that applies the communication technique of "offering self." a. "I've also had traumatic life experiences. Maybe it would help if I told you about them." b. "Why do you think you had so much difficulty adjusting to this change in your life?" c. "I hope you will feel better after getting accustomed to how this unit operates." d. "I'd like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me."

ANS: D "Offering self" is a technique that should be used in the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship. Sitting with the patient, an example of "offering self," helps to build trust and convey that the nurse cares about the patient. Two incorrect responses are ineffective and non-therapeutic. The other incorrect response is therapeutic but is an example of "offering hope."

When a nurse finds a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa vigorously exercising before gaining the agreed-upon weekly weight, the nurse should state: a. "You and I will have to sit down and discuss this problem." b. "It bothers me to see you exercising. You'll lose more weight." c. "Let's discuss the relationship between exercise and weight loss and how that affects your body." d. "According to our agreement, no exercising is permitted until you have gained a specific amount of weight."

ANS: D A matter-of-fact statement that the nurse's perceptions are different helps avoid a power struggle. Treatment plans have specific goals for weight restoration. Exercise is limited to promote weight gain. Patients must be held accountable for required behaviors.

Which belief will best support a nurse's efforts to provide patient advocacy during a multidisciplinary patient care planning session? a. All mental illnesses are culturally determined. b. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders. c. Symptoms of mental disorders are unchanged from culture to culture. d. Assessment findings in mental disorders reflect a person's cultural patterns.

ANS: D A nurse who understands that a patient's symptoms are influenced by culture will be able to advocate for the patient to a greater degree than a nurse who believes that culture is of little relevance. The distracters are untrue statements.

A patient with acute mania has disrobed in the hall three times in 2 hours. The nurse should: a. direct the patient to wear clothes at all times. b. ask if the patient finds clothes bothersome. c. tell the patient that others feel embarrassed. d. arrange for one-on-one supervision.

ANS: D A patient who repeatedly disrobes despite verbal limit setting needs more structure. One-on-one supervision may provide the necessary structure. Directing the patient to wear clothes at all times has not proven successful, considering the behavior has continued. Asking if the patient is bothered by clothing serves no purpose. Telling the patient that others are embarrassed will not make a difference to the patient whose grasp of social behaviors is impaired by the illness.

During a group therapy session, a newly admitted patient suddenly says to the nurse, "How old are you? You seem too young to be leading a group." Select the nurse's most appropriate response. a. "I am wondering what leads you to ask. Please tell me more." b. "I am old enough to be a nurse, which qualifies me to lead this group." c. "My age is not pertinent to why we are here and should not concern you." d. "You are wondering whether I have enough experience to lead this group?"

ANS: D A question such as this is common in the initial phase of group development when members are getting to know one another, dealing with trust issues, and testing the leader. Making explicit the implied serves to role model more effective communication and prompts further discussion of the patient's concern. Asking the patient to tell the leader more about the question focuses on the reason for the member's concern rather than on the issue raised (the experience and ability of the leader) and is a less helpful response. "I am old enough to be a nurse" and "age is not pertinent" are defensive responses and fail to address the patient's valid concern.

The patients below were evaluated in the emergency department. The psychiatric unit has one bed available. Which patient should be admitted? The patient: a. feeling anxiety and a sad mood after separation from a spouse of 10 years. b. who self-inflicted a superficial cut on the forearm after a family argument. c. experiencing dry mouth and tremor related to taking haloperidol (Haldol). d. who is a new parent and hears voices saying, "Smother your baby."

ANS: D Admission to the hospital would be justified by the risk of patient danger to self or others. The other patients have issues that can be handled with less restrictive alternatives than hospitalization.

Which outcome would be most appropriate for a symptom-management group for persons with schizophrenia? Group members will: a. state the names of their medications. b. resolve conflicts within their families. c. rate anxiety at least two points lower. d. describe ways to cope with their illness.

ANS: D An appropriate psychoeducational focus for patients with schizophrenia is managing their symptoms; coping with symptoms such as impaired memory or impaired reality testing can improve functioning and enhance their quality of life. Names of medications might be appropriate for a medication education group but would be a low priority for symptom management. Addressing intra-family issues would be more appropriate within a family therapy group or possibly a support group. Rating anxiety lower would be an expected outcome for a stress-management group.

The nurse assigned to assertive community treatment (ACT) should explain the program's treatment goal as: a. assisting patients to maintain abstinence from alcohol and other substances of abuse. b. providing structure and a therapeutic milieu for mentally ill patients whose symptoms require stabilization. c. maintaining medications and stable psychiatric status for incarcerated inmates who have a history of mental illness. d. providing services for mentally ill individuals who require intensive treatment to continue to live in the community.

ANS: D An assertive community treatment (ACT) program provides intensive community services to persons with serious, persistent mental illness who live in the community but require aggressive services to prevent repeated hospitalizations.

Which patient would be most appropriate to refer for assertive community treatment (ACT)? A patient diagnosed with: a. a phobic fear of crowded places. b. a single episode of major depression. c. a catastrophic reaction to a tornado in the community. d. schizophrenia and four hospitalizations in the past year.

ANS: D Assertive community treatment (ACT) provides intensive case management for persons with serious persistent mental illness who live in the community. Repeated hospitalization is a frequent reason for this intervention. The distracters identify mental health problems of a more episodic nature.

Which aspect of direct care is an experienced, inpatient psychiatric nurse most likely to provide for a patient? a. Hygiene assistance b. Diversional activities c. Assistance with job hunting d. Building assertiveness skills

ANS: D Assertiveness training relies on the counseling and psychoeducational skills of the nurse. Assistance with personal hygiene would usually be accomplished by a psychiatric technician or nursing assistant. Diversional activities are usually the province of recreational therapists. The patient would probably be assisted in job hunting by a social worker or vocational therapist.

Disturbed body image is the nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder. Which outcome indicator is most appropriate to monitor? a. Weight, muscle, and fat are congruent with height, frame, age, and sex. b. Calorie intake is within the required parameters of the treatment plan. c. Weight reaches the established normal range for the patient. d. Patient expresses satisfaction with body appearance.

ANS: D Body image disturbances are considered improved or resolved when the patient is consistently satisfied with his or her own appearance and body function. This consideration is subjective. The other indicators are more objective but less related to the nursing diagnosis.

A nurse listens to a group of recent retirees. One says, "I volunteer with Meals on Wheels, coach teen sports, and do church visitation." Another laughs and says, "I'm too busy taking care of myself to volunteer to help others." Which developmental task do these statements contrast? a. Trust and mistrust b. Intimacy and isolation c. Industry and inferiority d. Generativity and self-absorption

ANS: D Both retirees are in middle adulthood, when the developmental crisis to be resolved is generativity versus self-absorption. One exemplifies generativity; the other embodies self-absorption. This developmental crisis would show a contrast between relating to others in a trusting fashion and being suspicious and lacking trust. Failure to negotiate this developmental crisis would result in a sense of inferiority or difficulty learning and working as opposed to the ability to work competently. Behaviors that would be contrasted would be emotional isolation and the ability to love and commit oneself.

A nurse is part of a multidisciplinary team working with groups of depressed patients. Half the patients receive supportive interventions and antidepressant medication. The other half receives only medication. The team measures outcomes for each group. Which type of study is evident? a. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Co-morbidity d. Clinical epidemiology

ANS: D Clinical epidemiology is a broad field that addresses studies of the natural history (or what happens if there is no treatment and the problem is left to run its course) of an illness, studies of diagnostic screening tests, and observational and experimental studies of interventions used to treat people with the illness or symptoms. Prevalence refers to numbers of new cases. Co-morbidity refers to having more than one mental disorder at a time. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of mental disorders in a healthy population within a given period. See related audience response question.

Clinical pathways are used in managed care settings to: a. stabilize aggressive patients. b. identify obstacles to effective care. c. relieve nurses of planning responsibilities. d. streamline the care process and reduce costs.

ANS: D Clinical pathways provide guidelines for assessments, interventions, treatments, and outcomes as well as a designated timeline for accomplishment. Deviations from the timeline must be reported and investigated. Clinical pathways streamline the care process and save money. Care pathways do not identify obstacles or stabilize aggressive patients. Staff are responsible for the necessary interventions. Care pathways do not relieve nurses of the responsibility of planning; pathways may, however, make the task easier.

A nurse conducting group therapy on the eating disorders unit schedules the sessions immediately after meals for the primary purpose of: a. maintaining patients' concentration and attention. b. shifting the patients' focus from food to psychotherapy. c. focusing on weight control mechanisms and food preparation. d. processing the heightened anxiety associated with eating.

ANS: D Eating produces high anxiety for patients with eating disorders. Anxiety levels must be lowered if the patient is to be successful in attaining therapeutic goals. Shifting the patients' focus from food to psychotherapy and focusing on weight control mechanisms and food preparation are not desirable. Maintaining patients' concentration and attention is important, but not the primary purpose of the schedule.

A patient expresses a desire to be cared for by others and often behaves in a helpless fashion. Which stage of psychosexual development is most relevant to the patient's needs? a. Latency b. Phallic c. Anal d. Oral

ANS: D Fixation at the oral stage sometimes produces dependent infantile behaviors in adults. Latency fixations often result in difficulty identifying with others and developing social skills, resulting in a sense of inadequacy and inferiority. Phallic fixations result in having difficulty with authority figures and poor sexual identity. Anal fixation sometimes results in retentiveness, rigidity, messiness, destructiveness, and cruelty. This item relates to an audience response question.

A patient tells members of a therapy group, "I hear voices saying my doctor is poisoning me." Another patient replies, "I used to hear voices too. They sounded real, but I found out later they were not. The voices you hear are not real either." Which therapeutic factor is exemplified in this interchange? a. Catharsis b. Universality c. Imitative behavior d. Interpersonal learning

ANS: D Here a member gains insight into his own experiences from hearing about the experiences of others through interpersonal learning. Catharsis refers to a therapeutic discharge of emotions. Universality refers to members realizing their feelings are common to most people and not abnormal. Imitative behavior involves copying or borrowing the adaptive behavior of others.

Which remark by a group participant would the nurse expect during the working stage of group therapy? a. "My problems are very personal and private. How do I know people in this group will not tell others what you hear?" b. "I have enjoyed this group. It's hard to believe that a few weeks ago I couldn't even bring myself to talk here." c. "One thing everyone seems to have in common is that sometimes it's hard to be honest with those you love most." d. "I don't think I agree with your action. It might help you, but it seems like it would upset your family."

ANS: D In the working stage, members actively interact to help each other accomplish goals, and because trust has developed, conflict and disagreement can be expressed. Focusing on trust and confidentiality typically occur in the orientation phase as part of establishing group norms. Commonality and universality are also themes typically expressed in the orientation phase, whereas reflecting on progress is a task addressed in the termination phase.

A person says, "I was the only survivor in a small plane crash. Three business associates died. I got depressed and saw a counselor twice a week for 4 weeks. We talked about my feelings related to being a survivor, and I'm better now." Which type of therapy was used? a. Milieu therapy b. Psychoanalysis c. Behavior modification d. Interpersonal psychotherapy

ANS: D Interpersonal psychotherapy returned the patient to his former level of functioning by helping him come to terms with the loss of friends and guilt over being a survivor. Milieu therapy refers to environmental therapy. Psychoanalysis would call for a long period of exploration of unconscious material. Behavior modification would focus on changing a behavior rather than helping the patient understand what is going on in his life.

A Puerto Rican American patient uses dramatic body language when describing emotional discomfort. Which analysis most likely explains the patient's behavior? The patient: a. has a histrionic personality disorder. b. believes dramatic body language is sexually appealing. c. wishes to impress staff with the degree of emotional pain. d. belongs to a culture in which dramatic body language is the norm.

ANS: D Members of Hispanic American subcultures tend to use high affect and dramatic body language as they communicate. The other options are more remote possibilities.

Outpatient treatment is planned for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Select the most important desired outcome related to the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. Within 1 week, the patient will: a. weigh self accurately using balanced scales. b. limit exercise to less than 2 hours daily. c. select clothing that fits properly. d. gain 1 to 2 pounds.

ANS: D Only the outcome of a gain of 1 to 2 pounds can be accomplished within 1 week when the patient is an outpatient. The focus of an outcome would not be on the patient weighing self. Limiting exercise and selecting proper clothing are important, but weight gain takes priority.

The nursing care plan for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa includes the intervention "Monitor for complications of re-feeding." Which body system should a nurse closely monitor for dysfunction? a. Renal b. Endocrine c. Central nervous d. Cardiovascular

ANS: D Re-feeding resulting in a too-rapid weight gain can overwhelm the heart, resulting in cardiovascular collapse. Focused assessment becomes a necessity to ensure patient physiologic integrity. The other body systems are not initially involved in the re-feeding syndrome.

The nursing care plan for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa includes the intervention "monitor for complications of refeeding." Which system should a nurse closely monitor for dysfunction? a. Renal b. Endocrine c. Integumentary d. Cardiovascular

ANS: D Refeeding resulting in too-rapid weight gain can overwhelm the heart, resulting in cardiovascular collapse. Focused assessment is a necessity to ensure the patient's physiological integrity. The other body systems are not initially involved in the refeeding syndrome.

Which individual is demonstrating the highest level of resilience? One who: a. is able to repress stressors. b. becomes depressed after the death of a spouse. c. lives in a shelter for two years after the home is destroyed by fire. d. takes a temporary job to maintain financial stability after loss of a permanent job.

ANS: D Resilience is closely associated with the process of adapting and helps people facing tragedies, loss, trauma, and severe stress. It is the ability and capacity for people to secure the resources they need to support their well-being. Repression and depression are unhealthy. Living in a shelter for two years shows a failure to move forward after a tragedy. See related audience response question.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder has rapidly changing mood cycles. The health care provider prescribes an anticonvulsant medication. To prepare teaching materials, which drug should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? a. phenytoin (Dilantin) b. clonidine (Catapres) c. risperidone (Risperdal) d. carbamazepine (Tegretol)

ANS: D Some patients with bipolar disorder, especially those who have only short periods between episodes, have a favorable response to the anticonvulsants carbamazepine and valproate. Carbamazepine seems to work better in patients with rapid cycling and in severely paranoid, angry manic patients. Phenytoin is also an anticonvulsant but not used for mood stabilization. Risperidone is not an anticonvulsant. See relationship to audience response question.

Although ego defense mechanisms and security operations are mainly unconscious and designed to relieve anxiety, the major difference is that: a. defense mechanisms are intrapsychic and not observable. b. defense mechanisms cause arrested personal development. c. security operations are masterminded by the id and superego. d. security operations address interpersonal relationship activities.

ANS: D Sullivan's theory explains that security operations are interpersonal relationship activities designed to relieve anxiety. Because they are interpersonal, they are observable. Defense mechanisms are unconscious and automatic. Repression is entirely intrapsychic, but other mechanisms result in observable behaviors. Frequent, continued use of many defense mechanisms often results in reality distortion and interference with healthy adjustment and emotional development. Occasional use of defense mechanisms is normal and does not markedly interfere with development. Security operations are ego-centered. This item relates to an audience response question.

Which assessment finding for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder meets a criterion for hospitalization? a. Urine output: 40 ml/hr b. Pulse rate: 58 beats/min c. Serum potassium: 3.4 mEq/L d. Systolic blood pressure: 62 mm Hg

ANS: D Systolic blood pressure less than 70 mm Hg is an indicator for inpatient care. Many people without eating disorders have bradycardia (pulse less than 60 beats/min). Urine output should be more than 30 ml/hr. A potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L is within the normal range.

A citizen at a community health fair asks the nurse, "What is the most prevalent mental disorder in the United States?" Select the nurse's best response. a. Schizophrenia b. Bipolar disorder c. Dissociative fugue d. Alzheimer's disease

ANS: D The 12-month prevalence for Alzheimer's disease is 10% for persons older than 65 and 50% for persons older than 85. The prevalence of schizophrenia is 1.1% per year. The prevalence of bipolar disorder is 2.6%. Dissociative fugue is a rare disorder. See related audience response question.

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) classifies: a. deviant behaviors. b. present disability or distress. c. people with mental disorders. d. mental disorders people have.

ANS: D The DSM-5 classifies disorders people have rather than people themselves. The terminology of the tool reflects this distinction by referring to individuals with a disorder rather than as a "schizophrenic" or "alcoholic," for example. Deviant behavior is not generally considered a mental disorder. Present disability or distress is only one aspect of the diagnosis.

A health care provider prescribed depot injections every 3 weeks at the clinic for a patient with a history of medication noncompliance. For this plan to be successful, which factor will be of critical importance? a. The attitude of significant others toward the patient b. Nutrition services in the patient's neighborhood c. The level of trust between the patient and nurse d. The availability of transportation to the clinic

ANS: D The ability of the patient to get to the clinic is of paramount importance to the success of the plan. The depot medication relieves the patient of the necessity to take medication daily, but if he or she does not receive the injection at 3-week intervals, non-adherence will again be the issue. Attitude toward the patient, trusting relationships, and nutrition are important but not fundamental to this particular problem.

A Filipino American patient had a nursing diagnosis of situational low self-esteem related to poor social skills as evidenced by lack of eye contact. Interventions were used to raise the patient's self-esteem, but after 3 weeks, the patient's eye contact did not improve. What is the most accurate analysis of this scenario? a. The patient's eye contact should have been directly addressed by role-playing to increase comfort with eye contact. b. The nurse should not have independently embarked on assessment, diagnosis, and planning for this patient. c. The patient's poor eye contact is indicative of anger and hostility that were unaddressed. d. The nurse should have assessed the patient's culture before making this diagnosis and plan.

ANS: D The amount of eye contact a person engages in is often culturally determined. In some cultures, eye contact is considered insolent, whereas in others eye contact is expected. Asian Americans, including persons from the Philippines, often prefer not to engage in direct eye contact.

Guidelines followed by the leader of a therapeutic group include focusing on recognizing dysfunctional behavior and thinking patterns, followed by identifying and practicing more adaptive alternate behaviors and thinking. Which theory is evident by this approach? a. Behavioral b. Interpersonal c. Psychodynamic d. Cognitive-behavioral

ANS: D The characteristics described are those of cognitive-behavioral therapy, in which patients learn to reframe dysfunctional thoughts and extinguish maladaptive behaviors. Behavioral therapy focuses solely on changing behavior rather than thoughts, feelings, and behaviors together. Interpersonal theory focuses on interactions and relationships. Psychodynamic groups focus on developing insight to resolve unconscious conflicts.

A psychiatric clinical nurse specialist uses cognitive therapy techniques with a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which statement by the staff nurse supports this type of therapy? a. "What are your feelings about not eating the food that you prepare?" b. "You seem to feel much better about yourself when you eat something." c. "It must be difficult to talk about private matters to someone you just met." d. "Being thin does not seem to solve your problems. You are thin now but still unhappy."

ANS: D The correct response is the only strategy that attempts to question the patient's distorted thinking.

A school age child tells the school nurse, "Other kids call me mean names and will not sit with me at lunch. Nobody likes me." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Just ignore them and they will leave you alone." b. "You should make friends with other children." c. "Call them names if they do that to you." d. "Tell me more about how you feel."

ANS: D The correct response uses exploring, a therapeutic technique. The distracters give advice, a non-therapeutic technique.

A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, "No!" Which psychosocial crisis is evident? a. Trust versus mistrust b. Initiative versus guilt c. Industry versus inferiority d. Autonomy versus shame and doubt

ANS: D The crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt relates to the developmental task of gaining control of self and environment, as exemplified by toilet training. This psychosocial crisis occurs during the period of early childhood. Trust versus mistrust is the crisis of the infant. Initiative versus guilt is the crisis of the preschool and early-school-aged child. Industry versus inferiority is the crisis of the 6- to 12-year-old child.

A nurse supports a parent for praising a child behaving in a helpful way. When this child behaves with politeness and helpfulness in adulthood, which feeling will most likely result? a. Guilt b. Anxiety c. Humility d. Self-esteem

ANS: D The individual will be living up to the ego ideal, which will result in positive feelings about self. The other options are incorrect because each represents a negative feeling.

A patient's relationships are intense and unstable. The patient initially idealizes the significant other and then devalues him or her, resulting in frequent feelings of emptiness. This patient will benefit from interventions to develop which aspect of mental health? a. Effectiveness in work b. Communication skills c. Productive activities d. Fulfilling relationships

ANS: D The information given centers on relationships with others that are described as intense and unstable. The relationships of mentally healthy individuals are stable, satisfying, and socially integrated. Data are not present to describe work effectiveness, communication skills, or activities.

Select the best response for the nurse who receives a question from another health professional seeking to understand the difference between a Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) diagnosis and a nursing diagnosis. a. "There is no functional difference between the two. Both identify human disorders." b. "The DSM-5 diagnosis disregards culture, whereas the nursing diagnosis takes culture into account. c. The DSM-5 diagnosis describes causes of disorders whereas a nursing diagnosis does not explore etiology." d. "The DSM-5 diagnosis guides medical treatment, whereas the nursing diagnosis offers a framework for identifying interventions for issues a patient is experiencing."

ANS: D The medical diagnosis is concerned with the patient's disease state, causes, and cures, whereas the nursing diagnosis focuses on the patient's response to stress and possible caring interventions. Both tools consider culture. The DSM-5 is multiaxial. Nursing diagnoses also consider potential problems.

A nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa is: Ineffective coping, related to feelings of loneliness as evidenced by overeating to comfort self, followed by self-induced vomiting. The best outcome related to this diagnosis is, "Within 2 weeks the patient will: a. appropriately express angry feelings." b. verbalize two positive things about self." c. verbalize the importance of eating a balanced diet." d. identify two alternative methods of coping with loneliness."

ANS: D The outcome of identifying alternative coping strategies is most directly related to the diagnosis of Ineffective coping. Verbalizing positive characteristics of self and verbalizing the importance of eating a balanced diet are outcomes that might be used for other nursing diagnoses. Appropriately expressing angry feelings is not measurable.

A patient with diagnosed bipolar disorder was hospitalized 7 days ago and has been taking lithium 600 mg tid. Staff observes increased agitation, pressured speech, poor personal hygiene, and hyperactivity. Which action demonstrates that the nurse understands the most likely cause of the patient's behavior? a. Educate the patient about the proper ways to perform personal hygiene and coordinate clothing. b. Continue to monitor and document the patient's speech patterns and motor activity. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe an increased dose and frequency of lithium. d. Consider the need to check the lithium level. The patient may not be swallowing medications.

ANS: D The patient is continuing to exhibit manic symptoms. The lithium level may be low from "cheeking" (not swallowing) the medication. The prescribed dose is high, so one would not expect a need for the dose to be increased. Monitoring the patient does not address the problem.

Which nursing diagnosis is more applicable for a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa who restricts intake and is 20% below normal weight than for a 130-pound patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa who purges? a. Powerlessness b. Ineffective coping c. Disturbed body image d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

ANS: D The patient with bulimia nervosa usually maintains a close to normal weight, whereas the patient with anorexia nervosa may approach starvation. The incorrect options may be appropriate for patients with either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa.

A newly diagnosed patient is prescribed lithium. Which information from the patient's history indicates that monitoring of serum concentrations of the drug will be challenging and critical? a. Arthritis b. Epilepsy c. Psoriasis d. Heart failure

ANS: D The patient with congestive heart failure will likely need diuretic drugs, which will complicate the maintenance of the fluid balance necessary to avoid lithium toxicity.

A patient was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. The history shows the patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The serum potassium is currently 2.7 mg/dL. Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Adult failure to thrive related to abuse of laxatives as evidenced by electrolyte imbalances and weight loss b. Disturbed energy field related to physical exertion in excess of energy produced through caloric intake as evidenced by weight loss and hyperkalemia c. Ineffective health maintenance related to self-induced vomiting as evidenced by swollen parotid glands and hyperkalemia d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to reduced oral intake as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia

ANS: D The patient's history and lab result support the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. Data are not present that the patient uses laxatives, induces vomiting, or exercises excessively. The patient has hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia.

A patient being admitted to the eating disorders unit has a yellow cast to the skin and fine, downy hair covering the body. The patient weighs 70 pounds; height is 5 feet, 4 inches. The patient is quiet and says only, "I won't eat until I look thin." What is the priority initial nursing diagnosis? a. Anxiety, related to fear of weight gain b. Disturbed body image, related to weight loss c. Ineffective coping, related to lack of conflict resolution skills d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to self-starvation

ANS: D The physical assessment shows cachexia, which indicates imbalanced nutrition. Addressing the patient's self-starvation is the priority above the incorrect responses.

Which comment best indicates a patient is self-actualized? a. "I have succeeded despite a world filled with evil." b. "I have a plan for my life. If I follow it, everything will be fine." c. "I'm successful because I work hard. No one has ever given me anything." d. "My favorite leisure is walking on the beach, hearing soft sounds of rolling waves."

ANS: D The self-actualized personality is associated with high productivity and enjoyment of life. Self-actualized persons experience pleasure in being alone and an ability to reflect on events.

A patient says to the nurse, "I dreamed I was stoned. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which response should the nurse use to clarify the patient's comment? a. "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream." b. "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too." c. "So you feel as though you did not get enough quality sleep last night?" d. "Can you give me an example of what you mean by 'stoned'?"

ANS: D The technique of clarification is therapeutic and helps the nurse examine the meaning of the patient's statement. Asking for a definition of "stoned" directly asks for clarification. Restating that the patient is uncomfortable with the dream's content is parroting, a non-therapeutic technique. The other responses fail to clarify the meaning of the patient's comment.

A young female member in a therapy group says to an older female member, "You are just like my mother, always trying to control me with your observations and suggestions." Which therapeutic factor of a group is evident by this behavior? a. Instillation of hope b. Existential resolution c. Development of socializing techniques d. Corrective recapitulation of the primary family group

ANS: D The younger patient is demonstrating an emotional attachment to the older patient that mirrors patterns within her own family of origin, a phenomenon called corrective recapitulation of the primary family group. Feedback from the group then helps the member gain insight about this behavior and leads to more effective ways of relating to her family members. Instillation of hope involves conveying optimism and sharing progress. Existential resolution refers to the realization that certain existential experiences such as death are part of life, aiding the adjustment to such realities. Development of socializing techniques involves gaining social skills through the group's feedback and practice within the group.

Which remark by a patient indicates passage from orientation to the working phase of a nurse-patient relationship? a. "I don't have any problems." b. "It is so difficult for me to talk about problems." c. "I don't know how it will help to talk to you about my problems." d. "I want to find a way to deal with my anger without becoming violent."

ANS: D Thinking about a more constructive approach to dealing with anger indicates a readiness to make a behavioral change. Behavioral change is associated with the working phase of the relationship. Denial is often seen in the orientation phase. It is common early in the relationship, before rapport and trust are firmly established, for a patient to express difficulty in talking about problems. Stating skepticism about the effectiveness of the nurse-patient relationship is more typically a reaction during the orientation phase.

The nurse should refer which of the following patients to a partial hospitalization program? A patient who: a. has a therapeutic lithium level and reports regularly for blood tests and clinic follow-up. b. needs psychoeducation for relaxation therapy related to agoraphobia and panic episodes. c. spent yesterday in a supervised crisis care center and continues to have active suicidal ideation. d. states, "I'm not sure I can avoid using alcohol when my spouse goes to work every morning."

ANS: D This patient could profit from the structure and supervision provided by spending the day at the partial hospitalization program. During the evening, at night, and on weekends, the spouse could assume responsibility for supervision. A suicidal patient needs inpatient hospitalization. The other patients can be served in the community or with individual visits.

A patient says, "People should be allowed to commit suicide without interference from others." A nurse replies, "You're wrong. Nothing is bad enough to justify death." What is the best analysis of this interchange? a. The patient is correct. b. The nurse is correct. c. Neither person is correct. d. Differing values are reflected in the two statements.

ANS: D Values guide beliefs and actions. The individuals stating their positions place different values on life and autonomy. Nurses must be aware of their own values and be sensitive to the values of others.

During an interview, a patient attempts to shift the focus from self to the nurse by asking personal questions. The nurse should respond by saying: a. "Why do you keep asking about me?" b. "Nurses direct the interviews with patients." c. "Do not ask questions about my personal life." d. "The time we spend together is to discuss your concerns."

ANS: D When a patient tries to focus on the nurse, the nurse should refocus the discussion back onto the patient. Telling the patient that interview time should be used to discuss patient concerns refocuses discussion in a neutral way. Telling patients not to ask about the nurse's personal life shows indignation. Saying that nurses prefer to direct the interview reflects superiority. "Why" questions are probing and non-therapeutic.

A nurse is talking with a patient, and 5 minutes remain in the session. The patient has been silent most of the session. Another patient comes to the door of the room, interrupts, and says to the nurse, "I really need to talk to you." The nurse should: a. invite the interrupting patient to join in the session with the current patient. b. say to the interrupting patient, "I am not available to talk with you at the present time." c. end the unproductive session with the current patient and spend time with the interrupting patient. d. tell the interrupting patient, "This session is 5 more minutes; then I will talk with you."

ANS: D When a specific duration for sessions has been set, the nurse must adhere to the schedule. Leaving the first patient would be equivalent to abandonment and would destroy any trust the patient had in the nurse. Adhering to the contract demonstrates that the nurse can be trusted and that the patient and the sessions are important. The incorrect responses preserve the nurse-patient relationship with the silent patient but may seem abrupt to the interrupting patient, abandon the silent patient, or fail to observe the contract with the silent patient.

24. A single parent is experiencing feelings of inadequacy related to work and family since one teenaged child ran away several weeks ago. The parent seeks the help of a therapist specializing in cognitive therapy. The psychotherapist who uses cognitive therapy will treat the patient by: a. discussing ego states b. focusing on unconscious mental processes c. negatively reinforcing an undesirable behavior d. helping the patient identify and change faulty thinking

ANS: D Cognitive therapy emphasizes the importance of changing erroneous ways people think about themselves. Once faulty thinking changes, the individual's behavior changes. Focusing on unconscious mental processes is a psychoanalytic approach. Negatively reinforcing undesirable behaviors is behavior modification, and discussing ego states relates to transactional analysis. REF: Pages: 31-32

3. A patient took a large quantity of bath salts. Priority nursing and medical measures include: (select all that apply) a. administration of naloxone (Narcan). b. vitamin B12 and folate supplements. c. restoring nutritional integrity. d. management of heart rate. e. environmental safety.

ANS: D, E Care of patients who have taken bath salts is similar to those who have used other stimulants. Tachycardia and chest pain are common when a patient has used bath salts. These problems are life-threatening and take priority. Patients who have used these substances commonly have bizarre behavior and/or paranoia; therefore, safety is a priority concern. Nutrition is not a priority in an overdose situation. Vitamin replacements and naloxone apply to other drugs of abuse.

A college student said, "Most of the time I'm happy and feel good about myself. I have learned that what I get out of something is proportional to the effort I put into it." Which number on this mental health continuum should the nurse select? Mental Illness Mental Health 1 2 3 4 5 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

ANS: E The student is happy and has an adequate self-concept. The student is reality-oriented, works effectively, and has control over own behavior. Mental health does not mean that a person is always happy.

The intervention that can be practiced by an advanced practice registered nurse in psychiatric mental health but cannot be practiced by a basic level registered nurse is: a. Advocacy b. Psychotherapy c. Coordination of care d. Community-based care

B

2. A 26-month-old child displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often shouts, "No!" when given directions. Using Freud's stages of psychosexual development, a nurse would assess the child's behavior is based on which stage? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

B (In Freud's stages of psychosexual development, the anal stage occurs from age 1 to 3 years and has, as its focus, toilet training and learning to delay immediate gratification. The oral stage occurs between birth and 1 year, the phallic stage occurs between 3 and 5 years, and the genital stage occurs between 13 and 20 years. REF: Pages: 28-30)

A 15-year-old was placed in a residential program after truancy, running away, and an arrest for theft. At the program, the adolescent refused to join in planned activities and pushed a staff member, causing a fall. Which approach by nursing staff will be most therapeutic? a. Planned ignoring c. Neutrally permit refusals b. Establish firm limits d. Coaxing to gain compliance

B Firm limits are necessary to ensure physical safety and emotional security. Limit setting will also protect other patients from the teen's thoughtless or aggressive behavior. Permitting refusals to participate in the treatment plan, ignoring, coaxing, and bargaining are strategies that do not help the patient learn to abide by rules or structure.

A child known as the neighborhood bully says, "Nobody can tell me what to do." After receiving a poor grade on a science project, this child secretly loaded a virus on the teacher's computer. These behaviors support a diagnosis of: a. conduct disorder. b. oppositional defiant disorder. c. intermittent explosive disorder. d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

B Oppositional defiant disorder is a repeated and persistent pattern of having an angry and irritable mood in conjunction with demonstrating defiant and vindictive behavior. Loading a virus is a vindictive behavior in retribution for a poor grade. Persons with conduct disorder are aggressive against people and animals; destroy property; are deceitful; violate rules; and have impaired social, academic, or occupational functioning. There is no evidence of explosiveness or distractibility.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which assessment data would help the health care team distinguish symptoms of conversion (functional neurological) disorder from symptoms of illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)? a. Voluntary control of symptoms b. Patient's style of presentation c. Results of diagnostic testing d. The role of secondary gains

B Patients with illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) tend to be more anxious about their concerns and display more obsessive attention to detail, whereas the patient with conversion (functional neurological) disorder often exhibits less concern with the symptom they are presenting than would be expected. Neither disorder involves voluntary control of the symptoms. Results of diagnostic testing for both would be negative (i.e., no physiological basis would be found for the symptoms). Secondary gains can occur in both disorders but are not necessary to either. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 325-327 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 15. A patient reports fears of having cervical cancer and says to the nurse, "I've had Pap smears by six different doctors. The results were normal, but I'm sure that's because of errors in the laboratory." Which disorder would the nurse suspect? a. Conversion (functional neurological) disorder b. Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) c. Somatic symptom disorder d. Factitious disorder

B Patients with illness anxiety disorder have fears of serious medical problems, such as cancer or heart disease. These fears persist despite medical evaluations and interfere with daily functioning. There are no complaints of pain. There is no evidence of factitious or conversion disorder. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 325-326 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 3. A medical-surgical nurse works with a patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder. Care planning is facilitated by understanding that the patient will probably: a. readily seek psychiatric counseling. b. be resistant to accepting psychiatric help. c. attend psychotherapy sessions without encouragement. d. be eager to discover the true reasons for physical symptoms.

B Patients with somatic symptom disorders go from one health care provider to another trying to establish a physical cause for their symptoms. When a psychological basis is suggested and a referral for counseling offered, these patients reject both. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 325 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 4. A patient has blindness related to conversion (functional neurological) disorder but is unconcerned about this problem. Which understanding should guide the nurse's planning for this patient? a. The patient is suppressing accurate feelings regarding the problem. b. The patient's anxiety is relieved through the physical symptom. c. The patient's optic nerve transmission has been impaired. d. The patient will not disclose genuine fears.

B Psychoanalytical theory suggests conversion reduces anxiety through production of a physical symptom symbolically linked to an underlying conflict. Conversion, not suppression, is the operative defense mechanism in this disorder. While some MRI studies suggest that patients with conversion disorder have an abnormal pattern of cerebral activation, there is no actual alternation of nerve transmission. The other distracters oversimplify the dynamics, suggesting that only dependency needs are of concern, or suggest conscious motivation (conversion operates unconsciously). See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 325-326 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 18. A patient says, "I know I have a brain tumor despite the results of the MRI. The radiologist is wrong. People who have brain tumors vomit, and yesterday I vomited all day." Which response by the nurse fosters cognitive reframing? a. "You do not have a brain tumor. The more you talk about it, the more it reinforces your belief." b. "Let's see if there are any other possible explanations for your vomiting." c. "You seem so worried. Let's talk about how you're feeling." d. "We need to talk about something else."

B Questioning the evidence is a cognitive reframing technique. Identifying causes other than the feared disease can be helpful in changing distorted perceptions. Distraction by changing the subject will not be effective. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 331-334 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

An 11-year-old diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins shouting at the nurse. What is the nurse's initial action to defuse the situation? a. Say to the child, "Tell me how you're feeling right now." b. Take the child swimming at the program's pool. c. Establish a behavioral contract with the child. d. Administer an anxiolytic medication.

B Redirecting the expression of feelings into nondestructive, age-appropriate behaviors such as a physical activity helps the child learn how to modulate the expression of feelings and exert self-control. This is the least restrictive alternative and should be tried before resorting to measures that are more restrictive. A shouting child will not likely engage in a discussion about feelings. A behavioral contract could be considered later, but first the situation must be defused.

A child reports to the school nurse of being verbally bullied by an aggressive classmate. What is the nurse's best first action? a. Give notice to the chief administrator at the school regarding the events. b. Encourage the victimized child to share feelings about the experience. c. Encourage the victimized child to ignore the bullying behavior. d. Discuss the events with the aggressive classmate.

B The behaviors by the bullying child create emotional pain and present the risk for physical pain. The nurse should first listen to the child's complaints and validate the child for reporting the events. Later, school authorities should be notified. School administrators are the most appropriate personnel to deal with the bullying child. The behavior should not be ignored; it will only get worse.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 5. A patient has blindness related to conversion (functional neurological) disorder. To help the patient eat, the nurse should: a. establish a "buddy" system with other patients who can feed the patient at each meal. b. expect the patient to feed self after explaining arrangement of the food on the tray. c. direct the patient to locate items on the tray independently and feed self. d. address needs of other patients in the dining room, then feed this patient.

B The patient is expected to maintain some level of independence by feeding self, while the nurse is supportive in a matter-of-fact way. The distracters support dependency or offer little support. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 335-336 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 11. A patient with a somatic symptom disorder has the nursing diagnosis Interrupted family processes related to patient's disabling symptoms as evidenced by spouse and children assuming roles and tasks that previously belonged to patient. An appropriate outcome is that the patient will: a. assume roles and functions of other family members. b. demonstrate performance of former roles and tasks. c. focus energy on problems occurring in the family. d. rely on family members to meet personal needs.

B The patient with a somatic symptom disorder has typically adopted a sick role in the family, characterized by dependence. Increasing independence and resumption of former roles are necessary to change this pattern. The distracters are inappropriate outcomes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 325-326 | Page 338 (Nursing Care Plan 17-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Outcomes Identification

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 2. Which prescription medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed for a patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder? a. Narcotic analgesics for use as needed for acute pain b. Antidepressant medications to treat underlying depression c. Long-term use of benzodiazepines to support coping with anxiety d. Conventional antipsychotic medications to correct cognitive distortions

B Various types of antidepressants may be helpful in somatic disorders directly by reducing depressive symptoms and hence somatic responses, but also indirectly by affecting nerve circuits that affect not only mood, but fatigue, pain perception, GI distress, and other somatic symptoms. Patients may benefit from short-term use of anti-anxiety medication (benzodiazepines) but require careful monitoring because of risks of dependence. Conventional antipsychotic medications would not be used, although selected atypical antipsychotics may be useful. Narcotic analgesics are not indicated. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 335-336 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

At the time of a home visit, the nurse notices that each parent and child in a family has his or her own personal online communication device. Each member of the family is in a different area of the home. Which nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. Report the finding to the official child protection social services agency. b. Educate all members of the family about risks associated with cyberbullying. c. Talk with the parents about parental controls on the children's communication devices. d. Encourage the family to schedule daily time together without communication devices. e. Obtain the family's network password and examine online sites family members have visited.

B, C, D Education and awareness-based approaches have a chance of effectively reducing harmful online behavior, including risks associated with cyberbullying. Parental controls on the children's devices will support safe Internet use. Family time together will promote healthy bonding and a sense of security among members. There is no evidence of danger to the children, so a report to child protective agency is unnecessary. It would be inappropriate to seek the family's network password and an invasion of privacy to inspect sites family members have visited.

A nurse works with an adolescent who was placed in a residential program after multiple episodes of violence at school. Establishing rapport with this adolescent is a priority because: (select all that apply) a. it is a vital component of implementing a behavior modification program. b. a therapeutic alliance is the first step in a nurse's therapeutic use of self. c. the adolescent has demonstrated resistance to other authority figures. d. acceptance and trust convey feelings of security for the adolescent. e. adolescents usually relate better to authority figures than peers.

B, D Trust is frequently an issue because the adolescent may never have had a trusting relationship with an adult. Trust promotes feelings of security and is the basis of the nurse's therapeutic use of self. Adolescents value peer relationships over those related to authority. Rewards for appropriate behavior are the main component of behavior modification programs.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A child has a history of multiple hospitalizations for recurrent systemic infections. The child is not improving in the hospital, despite aggressive treatment. Factitious disorder by proxy is suspected. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. Increase private visiting time for the parents to improve bonding. b. Keep careful, detailed records of visitation and untoward events. c. Place mittens on the child to reduce access to ports and incisions. d. Encourage family members to visit in groups of two or three. e. Interact with the patient frequently during visiting hours.

B, D, E Factitious disorder by proxy is a rare condition wherein a person intentionally causes or perpetuates the illness of a loved one (e.g., by periodically contaminating IV solutions with fecal material). When this disorder is suspected, the child's life could be at risk. Depending on the evidence supporting this suspicion, interventions could range from minimizing unsupervised visitation to blocking visitation altogether. Frequently checking on the child during visitation and minimizing unobserved access to the child (by encouraging small group visits) reduces the opportunity to take harmful action and increases the collection of data that can help determine whether this disorder is at the root of the child's illness. Detailed tracking of visitation and untoward events helps identify any patterns there might be between select visitors and the course of the child's illness. Increasing private visitation provides more opportunity for harm. Educating visitors about aseptic techniques would not be of help if the infections are intentional, and preventing inadvertent contamination by the child himself would not affect factitious disorder by proxy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 337-338 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A nurse prepares to lead a discussion at a community health center regarding children's health problems. The nurse wants to use current terminology when discussing these issues. Which terms are appropriate for the nurse to use? Select all that apply. a. Autism b. Bullying c. Mental retardation d. Autism spectrum disorder e. Intellectual development disorder

B, D, E Some dated terminology contributes to the stigma of mental illness and misconceptions about mental illness. It's important for the nurse to use current terminology.

What are the primary distinguishing factors between the behavior of persons diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and those with conduct disorder (CD)? Select all that apply. The person diagnosed with: a. ODD relives traumatic events by acting them out. b. ODD tests limits and disobeys authority figures. c. ODD has difficulty separating from loved ones. d. CD uses stereotypical or repetitive language. e. CD often violates the rights of others.

B, E Persons diagnosed with ODD are negativistic, disobedient, and defiant toward authority figures without seriously violating the basic rights of others, whereas persons with conduct disorder frequently behave in ways that do violate the rights of others and age-appropriate societal norms. Reliving traumatic events occurs with posttraumatic stress disorder. Stereotypical language behaviors are seen in persons with autism spectrum disorders.

An important question to ask during the assessment of a client diagnosed with anxiety disorder is: A. "How often do you hear voices?" B. "Have you ever considered suicide?" C. "How long has your memory been bad?" D. "Do your thoughts always seem jumbled?"

B. "Have you ever considered suicide?" The presence of anxiety may cause an individual to consider suicide as a means of finding comfort and peace. Suicide assessment is appropriate for any client with higher levels of anxiety.

What can be said about the comorbidity of anxiety disorders? A. Anxiety disorders generally exist alone. B. A second anxiety disorder may coexist with the first. C. Anxiety disorders virtually never coexist with mood disorders. D. Substance abuse disorders rarely coexist with anxiety disorders.

B. A second anxiety disorder may coexist with the first. In many instances, when one anxiety disorder is present, a second one coexists. Clinicians and researchers have clearly shown that anxiety disorders frequently co-occur with other psychiatric problems. Major depression often co-occurs and produces a greater impairment with poorer response to treatment.

Studies of clients diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder suggest that the stress response of which of the following is considered abnormal? A. Brainstem B. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system C. Frontal lobe D. Limbic system

B. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system Studies of clients with posttraumatic stress disorder suggest that the stress response of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system is abnormal.

Jerry is a 72-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease and anxiety. He is living by himself and has had several falls lately. His provider orders lorazepam, 1 mg PO bid, for anxiety. You question this order because: A. Jerry may become addicted faster than younger patients. B. Jerry is at risk for falls. C. Jerry has a history of nonadherence with medications. D. Jerry should be treated with cognitive therapies rather than medication because of his advanced age.

B. Jerry is at risk for falls. An important nursing intervention is to monitor for side effects of the benzodiazepines, including sedation, ataxia, and decreased cognitive function. In a patient who has a history of falls, lorazepam would be contraindicated because it may cause sedation and ataxia leading to more falls. There is no evidence to suggest that elderly patients become addicted faster than younger patients. A history of nonadherence would not lead to you to question this drug order. Medication and other therapies are used congruently with all age levels.

Which therapeutic intervention can the nurse implement personally to help a client diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder regain control? A. Flooding B. Modeling C. Thought stopping D. Systematic desensitization

B. Modeling Modeling calm behavior in the face of anxiety or unafraid behavior in the presence of a feared stimulus are interventions that can be independently used. The other options require agreement of the treatment team.

An obsession is defined as: A. thinking of an action and immediately taking the action. B. a recurrent, persistent thought or impulse. C. an intense irrational fear of an object or situation. D. a recurrent behavior performed in the same manner.

B. a recurrent, persistent thought or impulse. Obsessions are thoughts, impulses, or images that persist and recur so that they cannot be dismissed from the mind.

The nurse anticipates that the nursing history of a client diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) will reveal: A. a history of childhood trauma. B. a sibling with the disorder. C. an eating disorder. D. a phobia as well.

B. a sibling with the disorder. Research shows that first-degree biological relatives of those with OCD have a higher frequency of the disorder than exists in the general population.

Stella brings her mother, Dorothy, to the mental health outpatient clinic. Dorothy has a history of anxiety. Stella and Dorothy both give information for the assessment interview. Stella states, "My mother lives with me since my dad died 6 months ago. For the past couple of months, every time I need to leave the house for work or anything else, Mom becomes extremely anxious and cries that something terrible is going to happen to me. She seems OK except for these times, but it's affecting my ability to go to work." You suspect: A. panic disorder. B. adult separation anxiety disorder. C. agoraphobia. D. social anxiety disorder.

B. adult separation anxiety disorder. People with separation anxiety disorder exhibit developmentally inappropriate levels of concern over being away from a significant other. There may also be fear that something horrible will happen to the other person. Adult separation anxiety disorder may begin in childhood or adulthood. The scenario doesn't describe panic disorder. Agoraphobia is characterized by intense, excessive anxiety or fear about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing or in which help might not be available. Social anxiety disorder, also called social phobia, is characterized by severe anxiety or fear provoked by exposure to a social or a performance situation that will be evaluated negatively by others.

The defense mechanisms that can only be used in healthy ways include: A. suppression and humor. B. altruism and sublimation. C. idealization and splitting. D. reaction formation and denial.

B. altruism and sublimation. Altruism and sublimation are known as mature defenses. They cannot be used in unhealthy ways. Altruism results in resolving emotional conflicts by meeting the needs of others, and sublimation substitutes socially acceptable activity for unacceptable impulses.

The initial nursing action for a newly admitted anxious client is to: A. assess the client's use of defense mechanisms. B. assess the client's level of anxiety. C. limit environmental stimuli. D. provide antianxiety medication.

B. assess the client's level of anxiety. The priority nursing action is the assessment of the client's anxiety level.

It can be said that the onset of most anxiety disorders occurs: A. before the age of 20 years. B. before the age of 40 years. C. after the age of 40 years. D. scattered throughout the life span.

B. before the age of 40 years. Epidemiology reports indicate that the onset of most anxiety disorders occurs before age 40 years.

A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). The nursing assessment supports this diagnosis when the client reports: A. that his symptoms started right after he was robbed at gunpoint. B. being so worried he hasn't been able to work for the last 12 months. C. that eating in public makes him extremely uncomfortable. D. repeatedly verbalizing his prayers helps him feel relaxed.

B. being so worried he hasn't been able to work for the last 12 months. GAD is characterized by symptomatology that lasts 6 months or longer.

A man continues to speak of his wife as though she were still alive, 3 years after her death. This behavior suggests the use of: A. altruism. B. denial. C. undoing. D. suppression.

B. denial. Denial involves escaping unpleasant reality by ignoring its existence.

Selective inattention is first noted when experiencing anxiety that is: A. mild. B. moderate. C. severe. D. panic.

B. moderate. When moderate anxiety is present, the individual's perceptual field is reduced and the client is not able to see the entire picture of events.

A teenager changes study habits to earn better grades after initially failing a test. This behavioral change is likely a result of: A. a rude awakening. B. normal anxiety. C. trait anxiety. D. altruism.

B. normal anxiety. Normal anxiety is a healthy life force needed to carry out the tasks of living and striving toward goals. It prompts constructive actions.

A 20-year-old was sexually molested at age 10, but he can no longer remember the incident. The ego defense mechanism in use is: A. projection. B. repression. C. displacement. D. reaction formation.

B. repression. Repression is a defense mechanism that excludes unwanted or unpleasant experiences, emotions, or ideas from conscious awareness.

Epidemiological studies contribute to improvements in care for individuals with mental disorders by: a. Providing information about effective nursing techniques. b. Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder. c. Identifying who in the general population will develop a specific disorder. d. Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment.

C

Which statement about mental illness is true? a. Mental illness is a matter of individual nonconformity withsocietal norms. b. Mental illness is present when individual irrational and illogicalbehavior occurs. c. Mental illness changes with culture, time in history, politicalsystems, and the groups defining it. d. Mental illness is evaluated solely by considering individual controlover behavior and appraisal of reality.

C

Which statement best describes a major difference between a DSM-5 diagnosis and a nursing diagnosis? a. There is no functional difference between the two; both serve to identify a human deviance. b. The DSM-5 diagnosis disregards culture, whereas the nursing diagnosis takes culture into account. c. The DSM-5 is associated with present symptoms, whereas a nursing diagnosis considers past, present, and potential responses to actual mental health problems. d. The DSM-5 diagnosis impacts the choice of medical treatment, whereas the nursing diagnosis offers a framework for identifying multidisciplinary interventions

C

An adolescent diagnosed with a conduct disorder stole and wrecked a neighbor's motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent's reaction? a. Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity impair one's capacity for remorse. b. Increased neuron destruction in the hippocampus results in decreased abilities to conform to social rules. c. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala results in decreased feelings of empathy. d. Disturbances in the occipital lobe reduce sensations that help an individual clearly visualize the consequences of behavior.

C Adolescents with conduct disorder have been found to have significantly reduced gray matter bilaterally in the anterior insulate cortex and the amygdala. This reduction may be related to aggressive behavior and deficits of empathy. The less gray matter in these regions of the brain, the less likely adolescents are to feel remorse for their actions or victims. People with intermittent explosive disorder may have differences in serotonin regulation in the brain and higher levels of testosterone. Neuron destruction in the hippocampus is associated with memory deficits. The occipital lobe is involved with visual stimuli but not the processing of emotions.

A kindergartener is disruptive in class. This child is unable to sit for expected lengths of time, inattentive to the teacher, screams while the teacher is talking, and is aggressive toward other children. The nurse plans interventions designed to: a. promote integration of self-concept. b. provide inpatient treatment for the child. c. reduce loneliness and increase self-esteem. d. improve language and communication skills.

C Because of their disruptive behaviors, children with ADHD often receive negative feedback from parents, teachers, and peers, leading to self-esteem disturbance. These behaviors also cause peers to avoid the child with ADHD, leaving the child with ADHD vulnerable to loneliness. The child does not need inpatient treatment at this time. The incorrect options might or might not be relevant.

A nurse will prepare teaching materials for the parents of a child newly diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which medication will the information focus on? a. Paroxetine (Paxil) c. Methyphenidate (Ritalin) b. Imipramine (Tofranil) d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

C CNS stimulants are the drugs of choice for treating children with ADHD: Ritalin and dexedrine are commonly used. None of the other drugs are psychostimulants used to treat ADHD.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 21. A patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder has been in treatment for 4 weeks. The patient says, "Although I'm still having pain, I notice it less and am able to perform more activities." The nurse should evaluate the treatment plan as: a. marginally successful. c. partially successful. b. minimally successful. d. totally achieved.

C Decreased preoccupation with symptoms and increased ability to perform activities of daily living suggest partial success of the treatment plan. Total success is rare because of patient resistance. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 333 | Page 337 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

Shortly after the parents announced that they were divorcing, a 15-year-old became truant from school and assaulted a friend. The adolescent told the school nurse, "I'd rather stay in my room and listen to music. It's easier than thinking about what is happening in my family." Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable? a. Chronic low self-esteem related to role within the family b. Decisional conflict related to compliance with school requirements c. Ineffective coping related to adjustment to changes in family relationships d. Disturbed personal identity related to self-perceptions of changing family dynamics

C Depression is often associated with impulse control disorder. The correct nursing diagnosis refers to the patient's dysfunctional management of feelings associated with upcoming changes to the family. The teen displays self-imposed isolation. The distracters are not supported by data in the scenario.

When group therapy is prescribed as a treatment modality, the nurse would suggest placement of a 9-year-old in a group that uses: a. guided imagery. b. talk focused on a specific issue. c. play and talk about a play activity. d. group discussion about selected topics.

C Group therapy for young children takes the form of play. For elementary school children, therapy combines play and talk about the activity. For adolescents, group therapy involves more talking.

Which factor presents the highest risk for a child to develop a psychiatric disorder? a. Having an uncle with schizophrenia c. Living with an alcoholic parent b. Being the oldest child in a family d. Being an only child

C Having a parent with a substance abuse problem has been designated an adverse psychosocial condition that increases the risk of a child developing a psychiatric condition. Being in a middle-income family and being the oldest child do not represent psychosocial adversity. Having a family history of schizophrenia presents a risk, but an alcoholic parent in the family offers a greater risk.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 16. A patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder says, "My pain is from an undiagnosed injury. I can't take care of myself. I need pain medicine six or seven times a day. I feel like a baby because my family has to help me so much." It is important for the nurse to assess: a. mood. c. secondary gains. b. cognitive style. d. identity and memory.

C Secondary gains should be assessed. The patient's dependency needs may be met through care from the family. When secondary gains are prominent, the patient is more resistant to giving up the symptom. The scenario does not allude to a problem of mood. Cognitive style and identity and memory assessment are of lesser concern because the patient's diagnosis has been established. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 331-333 (Table 17-3) | Page 335 (Table 17-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

An adolescent acts out in disruptive ways. When this adolescent threatens to throw a pool ball at another adolescent, which comment by the nurse would set appropriate limits? a. "Attention everyone: we are all going to the craft room." b. "You will be taken to seclusion if you throw that ball." c. "Do not throw the ball. Put it back on the pool table." d. "Please do not lose control of your emotions."

C Setting limits uses clear, sharp statements about prohibited behavior and guidance for performing a behavior that is expected. The incorrect options represent a threat, use of restructuring (which would be inappropriate in this instance), and a direct appeal to the child's developing self-control that may be ineffective.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 7. To assist patients diagnosed with somatic symptom disorders, nursing interventions of high priority: a. explain the pathophysiology of symptoms. b. help these patients suppress feelings of anger. c. shift focus from somatic symptoms to feelings. d. investigate each physical symptom as it is reported.

C Shifting the focus from somatic symptoms to feelings or to neutral topics conveys interest in the patient as a person rather than as a condition. The need to gain attention with the use of symptoms is reduced over the long term. A desired outcome would be that the patient would express feelings, including anger if it is present. Once physical symptoms are investigated, they do not need to be reinvestigated each time the patient reports them. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 333-335 (Table 17-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A desired outcome for a 12-year-old diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is to improve relationships with other children. Which treatment modality should the nurse suggest for the plan of care? a. Reality therapy c. Social skills group b. Simple restitution d. Insight-oriented group therapy

C Social skills training teaches the child to recognize the impact of his or her behavior on others. It uses instruction, role-playing, and positive reinforcement to enhance social outcomes. The other therapies would have lesser or no impact on peer relationships.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 19. Which treatment modality should a nurse recommend to help a patient diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder to cope more effectively? a. Flooding c. Relaxation techniques b. Response prevention d. Systematic desensitization

C Somatic symptom disorders are commonly associated with complicated reactions to stress. These reactions are accompanied by muscle tension and pain. Relaxation can diminish the patient's perceptions of pain and reduce muscle tension. The distracters are modalities useful in treating selected anxiety disorders. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 334-335 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

An 11-year-old diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins cursing at the nurse. Select the best method for the nurse to defuse the situation. a. Ignore the child's behavior. b. Send the child to time-out. c. Accompany the child to the gym and shoot baskets. d. Role-play a more appropriate behavior with the child.

C The child's behavior warrants an active response. Redirecting the expression of feelings into nondestructive age-appropriate behaviors, such as a physical activity, helps defuse the situation here and now. This response helps the child learn how to modulate the expression of feelings and exert self-control. This is the least restrictive alternative and should be tried before resorting to a more restrictive measure. Role-playing is appropriate after the child's anger is defused.

A child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) shows hyperactivity, aggression, and impaired play. The health care provider prescribed amphetamine salts (Adderall). The nurse should monitor for which desired behavior? a. Increased expressiveness in communication with others b. Abilities to identify anxiety and implement self-control strategies c. Improved abilities to participate in cooperative play with other children d. Tolerates social interactions for short periods without disruption or frustration

C The goal is improvement in the child's hyperactivity, aggression, and play. The remaining options are more relevant for a child with intellectual development disorder or an anxiety disorder.

What is the nurse's priority focused assessment for side effects in a child taking methylphenidate (Ritalin) for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Dystonia, akinesia, and extrapyramidal symptoms b. Bradycardia and hypotensive episodes c. Sleep disturbances and weight loss d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

C The most common side effects are gastrointestinal disturbances, reduced appetite, weight loss, urinary retention, dizziness, fatigue, and insomnia. Weight loss has the potential to interfere with the child's growth and development. The distracters relate to side effects of conventional antipsychotic medications.

An adolescent was recently diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. The parents say to the nurse, "Isn't there some medication that will help with this problem?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "There are no medications to treat this problem. This diagnosis is behavioral in nature." b. "It's a common misconception that there is a medication available to treat every health problem." c. "Medication is usually not prescribed for this problem. Let's discuss some behavioral strategies you can use." d. "There are many medications that will help your child manage aggression and destructiveness. The health care provider will discuss them with you."

C The parents are seeking a quick solution. Medications are generally not indicated for oppositional defiant disorder. Comorbid conditions that increase defiant symptoms, such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, should be managed with medication, but no comorbid problem is identified in the question. The nurse should give information on helpful strategies to manage the adolescent's behavior.

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, "I hate my parents. They focus all attention on my brother, who's perfect in their eyes." Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable? a. Disturbed personal identity related to acting out as evidenced by prostitution b. Hopelessness related to achievement of role identity as evidenced by feeling unloved by parents c. Ineffective coping related to inappropriate methods of seeking parental attention as evidenced by acting out d. Impaired parenting related to inequitable feelings toward children as evidenced by showing preference for one child over another

C The patient demonstrates a failure to follow age-appropriate social norms and an inability to problem solve by using adaptive behaviors to meet life's demands and roles. The defining characteristics are not present for the other nursing diagnoses. The patient never mentioned hopelessness or disturbed personal identity. The problem relates to the patient's perceptions of parental behavior rather than the actual behavior.

The parent of a child diagnosed with Tourette's disorder says to the nurse, "I think my child is faking the tics because they come and go." Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "Perhaps your child was misdiagnosed." b. "Your observation indicates the medication is effective." c. "Tics often change frequency or severity. That doesn't mean they aren't real." d. "This finding is unexpected. How have you been administering your child's medication?"

C Tics are sudden, rapid, involuntary, repetitive movements or vocalizations characteristic of Tourette's disorder. They often fluctuate in frequency, severity, and are reduced or absent during sleep.

When a 5-year-old is disruptive, the nurse says, "You must take a time-out." The expectation is that the child will: a. go to a quiet room until called for the next activity. b. slowly count to 20 before returning to the group activity. c. sit on the edge of the activity until able to regain self-control. d. sit quietly on the lap of a staff member until able to apologize for the behavior.

C Time-out is designed so that staff can be consistent in their interventions. Time-out may require going to a designated room or sitting on the periphery of an activity until the child gains self-control and reviews the episode with a staff member. Time-out may not require going to a designated room and does not involve special attention such as holding. Counting to 10 or 20 is not sufficient.

A nurse works with a child who is sad and irritable because the child's parents are divorcing. Why is establishing a therapeutic alliance with this child a priority? a. Therapeutic relationships provide an outlet for tension. b. Focusing on the strengths increases a person's self-esteem. c. Acceptance and trust convey feelings of security to the child. d. The child should express feelings rather than internalize them.

C Trust is frequently an issue because the child may question their trusting relationship with the parents. In this situation, the trust the child once had in parents has been disrupted, reducing feelings of security. The correct answer is the most global response.

7. A patient comments, "I never know the right answer" and "My opinion is not important." Using Erikson's theory, which psychosocial crisis did the patient have difficulty resolving? a. Initiative versus Guilt b. Trust versus Mistrust c. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption

C (These statements show severe self-doubt, indicating that the crisis of gaining control over the environment is not being successfully met. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of Initiative versus Guilt results in feelings of guilt. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of Trust versus Mistrust results in poor interpersonal relationships and suspicion of others. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of Generativity versus Self-Absorption results in self-absorption that limits the ability to grow as a person.)

Which experiences are most likely to precipitate posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Select all that apply. a. A young adult bungee jumped from a bridge with a best friend. b. An 8-year-old child watched an R-rated movie with both parents. c. An adolescent was kidnapped and held for 2 years in the home of a sexual predator. d. A passenger was in a bus that overturned on a sharp curve and tumbled down an embankment. e. An adult was trapped for 3 hours at an angle in an elevator after a portion of the supporting cable breaks.

C, D, E PTSD usually occurs after a traumatic event that is outside the range of usual experience. Examples are childhood physical abuse, torture/kidnap, military combat, sexual assault, and natural disasters, such as floods, tornados, earthquakes, tsunamis; human disasters, such as a bus or elevator accident; or crime-related events, such being taken hostage. The common element in these experiences is the individuals extraordinary helplessness or powerlessness in the face of such stressors. Bungee jumps by adolescents are part of the developmental task and might be frightening, but in an exhilarating way rather than a harmful way. A child may be disturbed by an R-rated movie, but the presence of the parents would modify the experience in a positive way.

A nurse prepares the plan of care for a 15-year-old diagnosed with moderate intellectual developmental disorder. What are the highest outcomes that are realistic for this patient? Within 5 years, the patient will: (select all that apply) a. graduate from high school. b. live independently in an apartment. c. independently perform own personal hygiene. d. obtain employment in a local sheltered workshop. e. correctly use public buses to travel in the community.

C, D, E Individuals with moderate intellectual developmental disorder progress academically to about the second grade. These people can learn to travel in familiar areas and perform unskilled or semiskilled work. With supervision, the person can function in the community, but independent living is not likely.

A client is displaying symptomatology reflective of a panic attack. In order to help the client regain control, the nurse responds: A. "You need to calm yourself." B. "What is it that you would like me to do to help you?" C. "Can you tell me what you were feeling just before your attack?" D. "I will get you some medication to help calm you."

C. "Can you tell me what you were feeling just before your attack?" A response that helps the client identify the precipitant stressor is most therapeutic.

Which nursing diagnosis would be most useful for clients with anxiety disorders? A. Excess fluid volume B. Disturbed body image C. Ineffective role performance D. Disturbed personal identity

C. Ineffective role performance Anxiety disorders often interfere with the usual role performance of clients. Consider the client with agoraphobia who cannot go to work, or the client with obsessive-compulsive disorder who devotes time to the ritual rather than to parenting.

The plan of care for a client who has elaborate washing rituals specifies that response prevention is to be used. Which scenario is an example of response prevention? A. Having the client repeatedly touch "dirty" objects B. Not allowing the client to seek reassurance from staff C. Not allowing the client to wash hands after touching a "dirty" object D. Telling the client that he or she must relax whenever tension mounts

C. Not allowing the client to wash hands after touching a "dirty" object Response prevention is a technique by which the client is prevented from engaging in the compulsive ritual. A form of behavior therapy, response prevention is never undertaken without physician approval.

Lana is out of surgery and on the medical-surgical unit for recovery. You visit her the day after her surgical procedure. While you are in the room, Lana becomes visibly anxious and short of breath, and she states, "I feel so anxious! Something is wrong!" Your best action is to: A. reassure Lana that she is experiencing normal anxiety and do deep breathing exercises with her. B. use the call light to inquire whether Lana has any prn anxiety medication. C. call for help and assess Lana's vital signs. D. tell Lana you will stay with her until the anxiety subsides.

C. call for help and assess Lana's vital signs. In anxiety caused by a medical condition, the individual's symptoms of anxiety are a direct physiological result of a medical condition, such as hyperthyroidism, pulmonary embolism, or cardiac dysrhythmias. In this case Lana is postoperative and could be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, as evidenced by the shortness of breath and anxiety. She needs immediate evaluation for any serious medical condition. The other options would all be appropriate after it has been determined that no serious medical condition is causing the anxiety.

A Gulf War veteran is entering treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder. An important facet of assessment is to: A. ascertain how long ago the trauma occurred. B. find out if the client uses acting-out behavior. C. determine use of chemical substances for anxiety relief. D. establish whether the client has chronic hypertension related to high anxiety.

C. determine use of chemical substances for anxiety relief. Substance abuse often coexists with post-traumatic stress disorder. It is often the client's way of self-medicating to gain relief of symptoms.

Panic attacks in Latin American individuals often involve: A. repetitive involuntary actions. B. blushing. C. fear of dying. D. offensive verbalizations.

C. fear of dying. Panic attacks in Latin Americans and Northern Europeans often involve sensations of choking, smothering, numbness or tingling, as well as fear of dying.

If a client's record mentions that the client habitually relies on rationalization, the nurse might expect the client to: A. make jokes to relieve tension. B. miss appointments. C. justify illogical ideas and feelings. D. behave in ways that are the opposite of his or her feelings.

C. justify illogical ideas and feelings. Rationalization involves justifying illogical or unreasonable ideas or feelings by developing logical explanations that satisfy the teller and the listener.

A young adult applying for a position is mildly tense but eager to begin the interview. This can be assessed as showing: A. denial. B. compensation. C. normal anxiety. D. selective inattention.

C. normal anxiety. Normal anxiety is a healthy life force needed to carry out the tasks of living and striving toward goals. It prompts constructive actions.

A person who recently gave up smoking and now talks constantly about how smoking fouls the air, causes cancer, and "burns" money that could be better spent to feed the poor is demonstrating: A. projection. B. rationalization. C. reaction formation. D. undoing.

C. reaction formation. Reaction formation keeps unacceptable feelings or behaviors out of awareness by developing the opposite behavior or emotion.

A client frantically reports to the nurse that "You have got to help me! Something terrible is happening. I can't think. My heart is pounding, and my head is throbbing." The nurse should assess the client's level of anxiety as: A. mild. B. moderate. C. severe. D. panic.

C. severe. Severe anxiety is characterized by feelings of falling apart and impending doom, impaired cognition, and severe somatic symptoms such as headache and pounding heart.

When prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg po qid for 1 week for generalized anxiety disorder, the nurse should: A. question the physician's order because the dose is excessive. B. explain the long-term nature of benzodiazepine therapy. C. teach the client to limit caffeine intake. D. tell the client to expect mild insomnia.

C. teach the client to limit caffeine intake. Caffeine is an antagonist of antianxiety medication.

A nursing student new to psychiatric mental health nursing asks a peer what resources he can use to figure out which symptoms are present in a specific psychiatric disorder. The best answer would be: a. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) b. Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) c. NANDA-I nursing diagnoses d. DSM-5

D

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 10. To plan effective care for patients diagnosed with somatic symptom disorders, the nurse should understand that patients have difficulty giving up the symptoms because the symptoms: a. are generally chronic. c. can be voluntarily controlled. b. have a physiological basis. d. provide relief from health anxiety.

D At the unconscious level, the patient's primary gain from the symptoms is anxiety relief. Considering that the symptoms actually make the patient more psychologically comfortable and may also provide secondary gain, patients frequently fiercely cling to the symptoms. The symptoms tend to be chronic, but that does not explain why they are difficult to give up. The symptoms are not under voluntary control or physiologically based. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 325-326 | Page 338 (Nursing Care Plan 17-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

A nurse assesses a 3-year-old diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder. Which finding is most associated with the child's disorder? The child: a. has occasional toileting accidents. b. is unable to read children's books. c. cries when separated from a parent. d. continuously rocks in place for 30 minutes.

D Autism spectrum disorder involves distortions in development of social skills and language that include perception, motor movement, attention, and reality testing. Body rocking for extended periods suggests autism spectrum disorder. The distracters are expected findings for a 3-year-old.

A 15-year-old ran away from home six times and was arrested for shoplifting. The parents told the court, "We can't manage our teenager." The adolescent is physically abusive to the mother and defiant with the father. Which diagnosis is supported by this adolescent's behavior? a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) b. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) c. Intermittent explosive disorder d. Conduct disorder

D Conduct disorders are manifested by a persistent pattern of behavior in which the rights of others and age-appropriate societal norms are violated. Intermittent explosive disorder is a pattern of behavioral outbursts characterized by an inability to control aggressive impulses in adults 18 years and older. Criteria for ADHD and PTSD are not met in the scenario.

The parent of a 6-year-old says, "My child is in constant motion and talks all the time. My child isn't interested in toys but is out of bed every morning before me." The child's behavior is most consistent with diagnostic criteria for: a. communication disorder. b. stereotypic movement disorder. c. intellectual development disorder. d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

D Excessive motion, distractibility, and excessive talkativeness are seen in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The behaviors presented in the scenario do not suggest intellectual development, stereotypic, or communication disorder.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 8. A patient with fears of serious heart disease was referred to the mental health center by a cardiologist. Extensive diagnostic evaluation showed no physical illness. The patient says, "My chest is tight, and my heart misses beats. I'm often absent from work. I don't go out much because I need to rest." Which health problem is most likely? a. Dysthymic disorder b. Somatic symptom disorder c. Antisocial personality disorder d. Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)

D Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) involves preoccupation with fears of having a serious disease even when evidence to the contrary is available. The preoccupation causes impairment in social or occupational functioning. Somatic symptom disorder involves fewer symptoms. Dysthymic disorder is a disorder of lowered mood. Antisocial disorder applies to a personality disorder in which the individual has little regard for the rights of others. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) REF: Page 325-326 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Which child demonstrates behaviors indicative of a neurodevelopmental disorder? a. A 4-year-old who stuttered for 3 weeks after the birth of a sibling b. A 9-month-old who does not eat vegetables and likes to be rocked c. A 3-month-old who cries after feeding until burped and sucks a thumb d. A 3-year-old who is mute, passive toward adults, and twirls while walking

D Symptoms consistent with autistic spectrum disorders (ASD) are evident in the correct answer. Autistic spectrum disorder is one type of neurodevelopmental disorder. The behaviors of the other children are within normal ranges.

The family of a child diagnosed with an impulse control disorder needs help to function more adaptively. Which aspect of the child's plan of care will be provided by an advanced practice nurse rather than a staff nurse? a. Leading an activity group c. Formulating nursing diagnoses b. Providing positive feedback d. Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT)

D The advanced practice nurse role includes individual, group, and family psychotherapist; educator of nurses, other professions, and the community; clinical supervisor; consultant to professional and nonprofessional groups; and researcher. Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) is an aspect of psychotherapy. The distracters describe actions of a nurse generalist.

A 12-year-old has engaged in bullying for several years. The parents say, "We can't believe anything our child says." Recently this child shot a dog with a pellet gun and set fire to a neighbor's trash bin. The child's behaviors support the diagnosis of: a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. b. intermittent explosive disorder. c. defiance of authority. d. conduct disorder.

D The behaviors mentioned are most consistent with criteria for conduct disorder, for example, aggression against people and animals; destruction of property; deceitfulness; rule violations; and impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. Intermittent explosive disorder is a pattern of behavioral outbursts characterized by an inability to control aggressive impulses in adults 18 years and older. The behaviors are not consistent with attention deficit and are more pervasive than defiance of authority.

A child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder had this nursing diagnosis: impaired social interaction related to excessive neuronal activity as evidenced by aggression and demanding behavior with others. Which finding indicates the plan of care was effective? The child: a. has an improved ability to identify anxiety and use self-control strategies. b. has increased expressiveness in communication with others. c. shows increased responsiveness to authority figures. d. engages in cooperative play with other children.

D The goal should be directly related to the defining characteristics of the nursing diagnosis, in this case, improvement in the child's aggressiveness and play. The distracters are more relevant for a child with autism spectrum or anxiety disorder.

Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 17. What is an essential difference between somatic symptom disorders and factitious disorders? a. Somatic symptom disorders are under voluntary control, whereas factitious disorders are unconscious and automatic. b. Factitious disorders are precipitated by psychological factors, whereas somatic symptom disorders are related to stress. c. Factitious disorders are individually determined and related to childhood sexual abuse, whereas somatic symptom disorders are culture bound. d. Factitious disorders are under voluntary control, whereas somatic symptom disorders involve expression of psychological stress through somatization.

D The key is the only fully accurate statement. Somatic symptom disorders involve expression of stress through bodily symptoms and are not under voluntary control or culture bound. Factitious disorders are under voluntary control. See relationship to audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) REF: Page 325-326 | Page 337-338 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

When a 5-year-old diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) bounces out of a chair and runs over and slaps another child, what is the nurse's best action? a. Instruct the parents to take the aggressive child home. b. Direct the aggressive child to stop immediately. c. Call for emergency assistance from other staff. d. Take the aggressive child to another room.

D The nurse should manage the milieu with structure and limit setting. Removing the aggressive child to another room is an appropriate consequence for the aggressiveness. Directing the child to stop will not be effective. This is not an emergency. Intervention is needed rather than sending the child home.

An adolescent diagnosed with an impulse control disorder said, "I just want to die. I spend all my time getting even with people who have done wrong to me." When asked about a suicide plan, the adolescent replied, "I'll jump from the bridge near my home. My father threw kittens off that bridge, and they died because they couldn't swim." Rate the suicide risk. a. Absent c. Moderate b. Low d. High

D The suicide risk is high. The child is experiencing feelings of hopelessness and helplessness. The method described is lethal, and the means to carry out the plan are available.

12. Cognitive therapy was provided for a patient who frequently said, "I'm stupid." Which statement by the patient indicates the therapy was effective? a. "I'm disappointed in my lack of ability." b. "I always fail when I try new things." c. "Things always go wrong for me." d. "Sometimes I do stupid things."

D ("I'm stupid" is an irrational thought. A more rational thought is, "Sometimes I do stupid things." The latter thinking promotes emotional self-control. The incorrect options reflect irrational thinking. REF: Page: 32)

Which medication is FDA approved for treatment of anxiety in children? A. Lorazepam (benzodiazepine) B. Fluoxetine (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) C. Clomipramine (tricyclic antidepressant) D. None of the above

D. None of the above There are no medications with FDA approval for children with anxiety disorders; however, medications approved for other age groups are often prescribed. None of the other options are FDA approved to treat anxiety in children (see the previous sentence).

Which behavior would be characteristic of an individual who is displacing anger? A. Lying B. Stealing C. Slapping D. Procrastinating

D. Procrastinating A passive-aggressive person deals with emotional conflict by indirectly and unassertively expressing aggression toward others. Procrastination is an expression of resistance.

Which nursing intervention would be helpful when caring for a client diagnosed with an anxiety disorder? A. Express mild amusement over symptoms. B. Arrange for client to spend time away from others. C. Advise client to minimize exercise to conserve endorphins. D. Reinforce use of positive self-talk to change negative assumptions.

D. Reinforce use of positive self-talk to change negative assumptions. This technique is a variant of cognitive restructuring. "I can't do that" is changed to "I can do it if I try."

The nurse caring for a client experiencing a panic attack anticipates that the psychiatrist would order a stat dose of: A. standard antipsychotic medication. B. tricyclic antidepressant medication. C. anticholinergic medication. D. a short-acting benzodiazepine medication.

D. a short-acting benzodiazepine medication. A short-acting benzodiazepine is the only type of medication listed that would lessen the client's symptoms of anxiety within a few minutes. Anticholinergics do not lower anxiety; tricyclic antidepressants have very little antianxiety effect and have a slow onset of action; and a standard antipsychotic medication will lower anxiety but has a slower onset of action and the potential for more side effects.

Working to help the client view an occurrence in a more positive light is called: A. flooding. B. desensitization. C. response prevention. D. cognitive restructuring.

D. cognitive restructuring. The purpose of cognitive restructuring is to change the individual's negative view of an event or a situation to a view that remains consistent with the facts but that is more positive.

The primary purpose of performing a physical examination before beginning treatment for any anxiety disorder is to: A. protect the nurse legally. B. establish the nursing diagnoses of priority. C. obtain information about the client's psychosocial background. D. determine whether the anxiety is primary or secondary in origin.

D. determine whether the anxiety is primary or secondary in origin. The symptoms of anxiety can be caused by a number of physical disorders or are said to be caused by an underlying physical disorder. The treatment for secondary anxiety is treatment of the underlying cause.

A symptom commonly associated with panic attacks is: A. obsessions. B. apathy. C. fever. D. fear of impending doom.

D. fear of impending doom. The feelings of terror present during a panic attack are so severe that normal function is suspended, the perceptual field is severely limited, and misinterpretation of reality may occur.

The major distinction between fear and anxiety is that fear: A. is a universal experience; anxiety is neurotic. B. enables constructive action; anxiety is dysfunctional. C. is a psychological experience; anxiety is a physiological experience. D. is a response to a specific danger; anxiety is a response to an unknown danger.

D. is a response to a specific danger; anxiety is a response to an unknown danger. Fear is a response to an objective danger; anxiety is a response to a subjective danger.

You are providing teaching to Lana, a preoperative patient just before surgery. She is becoming more and more anxious as you talk. She begins to complain of dizziness and heart pounding, and she is trembling. She seems confused. Your best response is to: A. reinforce the preoperative teaching by restating it slowly. B. have Lana read the teaching materials instead of verbal instruction. C. have a family member read the preoperative materials to Lana. D. not attempt any teaching at this time.

D. not attempt any teaching at this time. Patients experiencing severe anxiety, as the symptoms suggest, are unable to learn or solve problems. The other options would not be effective because you are still attempting to teach someone who has a severe level of anxiety.

Delusionary thinking is a characteristic of: A. chronic anxiety. B. acute anxiety. C. severe anxiety. D. panic level anxiety.

D. panic level anxiety. Panic level anxiety is the most extreme level and results in markedly disturbed thinking.

A client is running from chair to chair in the solarium. He is wide-eyed and keeps repeating, "They are coming! They are coming!" He neither follows staff direction nor responds to verbal efforts to calm him. The level of anxiety can be assessed as: A. mild. B. moderate. C. severe. D. panic.

D. panic. Panic-level anxiety results in markedly disorganized, disturbed behavior, including confusion, shouting, and hallucinating. Individuals may be unable to follow directions and may need external limits to ensure safety.

32. A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness at 1030. By 1200, the patient has difficulty swallowing and is drooling. By 1600, vital signs are 102.8° F; pulse 110; respirations 26; 150/90. The patient is diaphoretic. Select the nurse's best analysis and action. a. Agranulocytosis; institute reverse isolation. b. Tardive dyskinesia; withhold the next dose of medication. c. Cholestatic jaundice; begin a high-protein, high-cholesterol diet. d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; notify health care provider stat.

NS: D Taking an antipsychotic medication coupled with the presence of extrapyramidal symptoms, such as severe muscle stiffness and difficulty swallowing, hyperpyrexia, and autonomic symptoms (pulse elevation), suggest neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a medical emergency. The symptoms given in the scenario are not consistent with the medical problems listed in the incorrect options. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Analysis) REF: Page 210 (Table 12-3) | Page 219-220 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity

A 16-year-old diagnosed with a conduct disorder (CD) has been in a residential program for 3 months. Which outcome should occur before discharge? a. The adolescent and parents create and agree to a behavioral contract with rules, rewards, and consequences. b. The adolescent identifies friends in the home community who are a positive influence. c. Temporary placement is arranged with a foster family until the parents complete a parenting skills class. d. The adolescent experiences no anger and frustration for 1 week.

a

A nurse is caring for a patient with hostile behavior. What strategies should the nurse adopt when communicating with this patient? a. Apply consistent limits b. Use an angry tone when talking c. Maintain a threatening body posture d. Use negotiations to correct behavior

a

Parents of an adolescent diagnosed with a CD say, "We don't know how to respond when our child breaks the rules in our house. Is there any treatment that might help us?" Which therapy is likely to be helpful for these parents? a. Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) b. Behavior modification therapy c. Multi-systemic therapy (MST) d. Pharmacotherapy

a

Which assessment finding best supports dissociative fugue? The patient states: a. "I cannot recall why I'm living in this town." b. "I feel as if I'm living in a fuzzy dream state." c. "I feel like different parts of my body are at war." d. "I feel very anxious and worried about my problems."

a. "I cannot recall why I'm living in this town." The patient in a fugue state frequently relocates and assumes a new identity while not recalling previous identity or places previously inhabited. The distracters are more consistent with depersonalization disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, or dissociative identity disorder. See relationship to audience response question.

2. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the effective use of newly prescribed lithium to manage bipolar mania? Select all that apply. a. "I have to keep reminding myself to consistently drink six 12-ounce glasses of fluid every day." b. "I discussed the diuretic my cardiologist prescribed with my psychiatric care provider." c. "Lithium may help me lose the few extra pounds I tend to carry around." d. "I take my lithium on an empty stomach to help with absorption." e. "I've already made arrangements for my monthly lab work."

a. "I have to keep reminding myself to consistently drink six 12-ounce glasses of fluid every day." b. "I discussed the diuretic my cardiologist prescribed with my psychiatric care provider." e. "I've already made arrangements for my monthly lab work."

1. Which nursing response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar and her support system? Select all that apply. a. "Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms." b. "Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder. c. "It's critical to let your healthcare provider know immediately if you aren't sleeping well." d. "Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?" e. "The symptoms tend to come and go and so you need to be able to recognize the early signs."

a. "Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms." c. "It's critical to let your healthcare provider know immediately if you aren't sleeping well." d. "Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?" e. "The symptoms tend to come and go and so you need to be able to recognize the early signs."

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder will begin electroconvulsive therapy tomorrow. Which interventions are routinely implemented before the treatment? Select all that apply. a. Administer pretreatment medication 30 to 45 minutes before treatment. b. Withhold food and fluids for a minimum of 6 hours before treatment. c. Remove dentures, glasses, contact lenses, and hearing aids. d. Restrain the patient in bed with padded limb restraints. e. Assist the patient to prepare an advance directive.

a. Administer pretreatment medication 30 to 45 minutes before treatment. b. Withhold food and fluids for a minimum of 6 hours before treatment. c. Remove dentures, glasses, contact lenses, and hearing aids. The correct interventions reflect routine electroconvulsive therapy preparation, which is similar to preoperative preparation: sedation and anticholinergic medication before anesthesia, maintaining nothing-by-mouth status to prevent aspiration during and after treatment, airway maintenance, and general safety by removing prosthetic devices. Restraint is not part of the pretreatment protocol. An advance directive is prepared independent of this treatment.

Which scenario demonstrates a dissociative fugue? a. After being caught in an extramarital affair, a man disappeared but then reappeared months later with no memory of what occurred while he was missing. b. A man is extremely anxious about his problems and sometimes experiences dazed periods of several minutes passing without conscious awareness of them. c. A woman finds unfamiliar clothes in her closet, is recognized when she goes to new restaurants, and complains of "blackouts" despite not drinking. d. A woman reports that when she feels tired or stressed, it seems like her body is not real and is somehow growing smaller.

a. After being caught in an extramarital affair, a man disappeared but then reappeared months later with no memory of what occurred while he was missing. The patient in a dissociative fugue state relocates and lacks recall of his life before the fugue began. Often fugue states follow traumatic experiences and sometimes involve assuming a new identity. Such persons at some point find themselves in their new surroundings, unable to recall who they are or how they got there. A feeling of detachment from ones body or from the external reality is an indication of depersonalization disorder. Losing track of several minutes when highly anxious is not an indication of a dissociative disorder and is common in states of elevated anxiety. Finding evidence of having bought clothes or gone to restaurants without any explanation for these is suggestive of dissociative identity disorder, particularly when periods are lost to the patient (blackouts). See relationship to audience response question.

1. Which characteristic in an adolescent female is sometimes associated with the prodromal phase of schizophrenia? a. Always afraid another student will steal her belongings. b. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics. c. Demonstrates no interest in athletics or organized sports. d. Appears more comfortable among males.

a. Always afraid another student will steal her belongings.

11. Which is an effective nursing intervention to assist an angry patient learn to manage anger without violence? a. Help a patient identify a thought that produces anger, evaluate the validity of the belief, and substitute reality-based thinking. b. Provide negative reinforcement such as restraint or seclusion in response to angry outbursts, whether or not violence is present. c. Use aversive conditioning, such as popping a rubber band on the wrist, to help extinguish angry feelings. d. Administer an antipsychotic or anti-anxiety medication.

a. Help a patient identify a thought that produces anger, evaluate the validity of the belief, and substitute reality-based thinking. Anger has a strong cognitive component, so using cognition techniques to manage anger is logical. The incorrect options do nothing to help the patient learn anger management.

9. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began to take the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply. a. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber. b. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol. c. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. d. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass. e. Hold his medication for now and consult his prescriber when he comes to the unit later today.

a. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber. b. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.

A student nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder reads in the patients medical record, This patient shows vegetative signs of depression. Which nursing diagnoses most clearly relate to the vegetative signs? Select all that apply. a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Sexual dysfunction d. Self-care deficit e. Powerlessness f. Insomnia

a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements c. Sexual dysfunction d. Self-care deficit f. Insomnia Vegetative signs of depression are alterations in the body processes necessary to support life and growth, such as eating, sleeping, elimination, and sexual activity. These diagnoses are more closely related to vegetative signs than to diagnoses associated with feelings about self.

2. Which nursing diagnosis is universally applicable for children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders? a. Impaired social interaction related to difficulty relating to others b. Chronic low self-esteem related to excessive negative feedback c. Deficient fluid volume related to abnormal eating habits d. Anxiety related to nightmares and repetitive activities

a. Impaired social interaction related to difficulty relating to others Children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders display profoundly disturbed social relatedness. They seem aloof and indifferent to others, often preferring inanimate objects to human interaction. Language is often delayed and deviant, further complicating relationship issues. The other nursing diagnoses might not be appropriate in all cases.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder does not interact with others except when addressed and then only in monosyllables. The nurse wants to show nonjudgmental acceptance and support for the patient. Select the nurses most effective approach to communication. a. Make observations. b. Ask the patient direct questions. c. Phrase questions to require yes or no answers. d. Frequently reassure the patient to reduce guilt feelings.

a. Make observations. Making observations about neutral topics such as the environment draws the patient into the reality around him or her but places no burdensome expectations on the patient for answers. Acceptance and support are shown by the nurses presence. Direct questions may make the patient feel that the encounter is an interrogation. Open- ended questions are preferable if the patient is able to participate in dialog. Platitudes are never acceptable; they minimize patient feelings and can increase feelings of worthlessness.

A nurse teaching a patient about a tyramine-restricted diet would approve which meal? a. Mashed potatoes, ground beef patty, corn, green beans, apple pie b. Avocado salad, ham, creamed potatoes, asparagus, chocolate cake c. Macaroni and cheese, hot dogs, banana bread, caffeinated coffee d. Noodles with cheddar cheese sauce, smoked sausage, lettuce salad, yeast rolls

a. Mashed potatoes, ground beef patty, corn, green beans, apple pie The correct answer describes a meal that contains little tyramine. Vegetables and fruits contain little or no tyramine, and fresh ground beef and apple pie should be safe. The other meals contain various amounts of tyramine-rich foods or foods that contain vasopressors: avocados, ripe bananas (banana bread), sausages and hot dogs, smoked meat (ham), cheddar cheese, yeast, caffeine drinks, and chocolate.

5. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select all that apply. a. Monitor the patient's vital signs frequently. b. Keep the patient distracted with group-oriented activities. c. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks. d. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment. e. Use a firm but calm voice to give specific concise directions to the patient.

a. Monitor the patient's vital signs frequently. c. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks. d. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment. e. Use a firm but calm voice to give specific concise directions to the patient.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder shows vegetative signs of depression. Which nursing actions should be implemented? Select all that apply. a. Offer laxatives, if needed. b. Monitor food and fluid intake. c. Provide a quiet sleep environment. d. Eliminate all daily caffeine intake. e. Restrict the intake of processed foods.

a. Offer laxatives, if needed. b. Monitor food and fluid intake. c. Provide a quiet sleep environment. The correct options promote a normal elimination pattern. Although excessive intake of stimulants such as caffeine may make the patient feel jittery and anxious, small amounts may provide useful stimulation. No indication exists that processed foods should be restricted.

A soldier in a combat zone tells the nurse, "I saw a child get blown up over a year ago, and I still keep seeing bits of flesh everywhere. I see something red, and the visions race back to my mind." Which phenomenon associated with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is the soldier describing? a. Reexperiencing b. Hyperarousal c. Avoidance d. Psychosis

a. Reexperiencing Spontaneous or cued recurrent, involuntary, and intrusive distressing memories of the traumatic events are often associated with PTSD. The soldier has described intrusive thoughts and visions associated with reexperiencing the traumatic event. This description does not indicate psychosis, hypervigilance, or avoidance.

A wife received news that her husband died of heart failure and called her family to come to the hospital. She angrily tells the nurse who cared for him, "He would still be alive if you had given him your undivided attention." Select the nurse's best intervention. a. Say to the wife, "I understand you are feeling upset. I will stay with you until your family comes." b. Say to the wife, "Your husband's heart was so severely damaged that it could no longer pump." c. Say to the wife, "I will call the health care provider to discuss this matter with you." d. Hold the wife's hand in silence until the family arrives.

a. Say to the wife, "I understand you are feeling upset. I will stay with you until your family comes." The nurse builds trust and shows compassion in the face of adjustment disorders. Therapeutic responses provide comfort. The nurse should show patience and tact while offering sympathy and warmth. The distracters are defensive, evasive, or placating.

2. Which nursing intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia? a. Screening a group of males between the ages of 15 and 25 for early symptoms. b. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 who are diagnosed with substance use issues. c. Providing a group for patients between the ages of 45 and 55 with information on coping skills that have proven to be effective. d. Educating the parents of a group of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on the importance of early intervention.

a. Screening a group of males between the ages of 15 and 25 for early symptoms.

Which documentation indicates the treatment plan of a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder was effective? a. Slept 6 hours uninterrupted. Sang with activity group. Anticipates seeing grandchild. b. Slept 10 hours uninterrupted. Attended craft group; stated project was a failure, just like me. c. Slept 5 hours with brief interruptions. Personal hygiene adequate with assistance. Weight loss of 1 pound. d. Slept 7 hours uninterrupted. Preoccupied with perceived inadequacies. States, I feel tired all the time.

a. Slept 6 hours uninterrupted. Sang with activity group. Anticipates seeing grandchild. Sleeping 6 hours, participating in a group activity, and anticipating an event are all positive happenings. All the other options show at least one negative finding.

An adult diagnosed with major depressive disorder was treated with medication and cognitive behavioral therapy. The patient now recognizes how passivity contributed to the depression. Which intervention should the nurse suggest? a. Social skills training b. Relaxation training classes c. Use of complementary therapy d. Learning desensitization techniques

a. Social skills training Social skills training is helpful in treating and preventing the recurrence of depression. Training focuses on assertiveness and coping skills that lead to positive reinforcement from others and the development of a patients support system. The use of complementary therapy refers to adjunctive therapies such as herbals. Assertiveness would be of greater value than relaxation training because passivity is a concern. Desensitization is used in the treatment of phobias.

What is the focus of priority nursing interventions for the period immediately after electroconvulsive therapy treatment? a. Supporting physiologic stability b. Reducing disorientation and confusion c. Monitoring pupillary responses d. Assisting the patient to identify and test negative thoughts

a. Supporting physiologic stability During the immediate post-treatment period, the patient is recovering from general anesthesia, hence the need to establish and support physiologic stability. Monitoring pupillary responses is not a priority. Reducing disorientation and confusion is an acceptable intervention but not the priority. Assisting the patient in identifying and testing negative thoughts is inappropriate in the immediate post-treatment period because the patient may be confused.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder was hospitalized for 8 days. Treatment included six electroconvulsive therapy sessions and aggressive dose adjustments of antidepressant medications. The patient owns a small business and was counseled not to make major decisions for a month. Select the correct rationale for this counseling. a. Temporary memory impairments and confusion can be associated with electroconvulsive therapy. b. Antidepressant medications alter catecholamine levels, which impair decision-making abilities. c. Antidepressant medications may cause confusion related to a limitation of tyramine in the diet. d. The patient needs time to reorient himself or herself to a pressured work schedule.

a. Temporary memory impairments and confusion can be associated with electroconvulsive therapy. Recent memory impairment or confusion or both are often present during and for a short time after electroconvulsive therapy. An inappropriate business decision might be made because of forgotten and important details. The incorrect responses contain rationales that are untrue. The patient needing time to reorient himself or herself to a pressured work schedule is less relevant than the correct rationale.

A patient being treated with paroxetine (Paxil) 50 mg/day orally for major depressive disorder reports to the clinic nurse, I took a few extra tablets earlier in the day and now I feel bad. Which aspects of the nursing assessment are most critical? Select all that apply. a. Vital signs b. Urinary frequency c. Increased suicidal ideation d. Presence of abdominal pain and diarrhea e. Hyperactivity or feelings of restlessness

a. Vital signs d. Presence of abdominal pain and diarrhea e. Hyperactivity or feelings of restlessness The patient is taking the maximum dose of this SSRI and has ingested an additional unknown amount of the drug. Central serotonin syndrome must be considered. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, hyperpyrexia, increased motor activity, and muscle spasms. Central serotonin syndrome may progress to a full medical emergency if not treated early. Although assessing for suicidal ideation is never inappropriate, in this situation physiologic symptoms should be the initial focus. The patient may have urinary retention, but frequency would not be expected.

25. A parent diagnosed with schizophrenia and 13-year-old child live in a homeless shelter. The child formed a trusting relationship with a shelter volunteer. The child says, My three friends and I got an A on our school science project. The nurse can assess that the child: a. displays resiliency. b. has a passive temperament. c. is at risk for posttraumatic stress disorder. d. uses intellectualization to deal with problems.

a. displays resiliency. Resiliency enables a child to handle the stresses of a difficult childhood. Resilient children can adapt to changes in the environment, take advantage of nurturing relationships with adults other than parents, distance themselves from emotional chaos occurring within the family, learn, and use problem-solving skills.

Relaxation techniques help patients who have experienced major traumas because they: a. engage the parasympathetic nervous system. b. increase sympathetic stimulation. c. increase the metabolic rate. d. release hormones.

a. engage the parasympathetic nervous system. In response to trauma, the sympathetic arousal symptoms of rapid heart rate and rapid respiration prepare the person for flight or fight responses. Afterward, the dorsal vagal response damps down the sympathetic nervous system. This is a parasympathetic response with the heart rate and respiration slowing down and decreasing the blood pressure. Relaxation techniques promote activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is taking a tricyclic antidepressant. The patient says, I dont think I can keep taking these pills. They make me so dizzy, especially when I stand up. The nurse should: a. explain how to manage postural hypotension, and educate the patient that side effects go away after several weeks. b. tell the patient that the side effects are a minor inconvenience compared with the feelings of depression. c. withhold the drug, force oral fluids, and notify the health care provider to examine the patient. d. teach the patient how to use pursed-lip breathing.

a. explain how to manage postural hypotension, and educate the patient that side effects go away after several weeks. Drowsiness, dizziness, and postural hypotension usually subside after the first few weeks of therapy with tricyclic antidepressants. Postural hypotension can be managed by teaching the patient to stay well hydrated and rise slowly. Knowing these facts may be enough to convince the patient to remain medication compliant. The minor inconvenience of side effects as compared with feelings of depression is a convincing reason to remain on the medication. Withholding the drug, forcing oral fluids, and having the health care provider examine the patient are unnecessary steps. Independent nursing action is appropriate. Pursed-lip breathing is irrelevant.

The nurse who is counseling a patient with dissociative identity disorder should understand that the assessment of highest priority is: a. risk for self-harm. b. cognitive function. c. memory impairment. d. condition of self-esteem.

a. risk for self-harm. Assessments that relate to patient safety take priority. Patients with dissociative disorders may be at risk for suicide or self-mutilation, so the nurse must be alert for indicators of risk for self-injury. The other options are important assessments but rank below safety. Treatment motivation, while an important consideration, is not necessarily a part of the nursing assessment.

Which outcomes will the nurse identify for a patient who has a nursing diagnosis of risk for suicide? Select all that apply. a. Talks about suicidal ideas b. Expresses feelings to others c. Makes fun plans for the future d. Refrains from thinking about suicidal behaviors e. Replaces thoughts about suicide with work or play

abc

Which statement regarding associated environmental factors is true regarding oppositional defiant disorder? Select all that apply. a. This disorder appears to run in families. b. The divorce of parents has a traumatic effect on a child. c. These behaviors can be learned as well as resulting from genetics. d. The child's world view is a result of internalized events, not parental example. e. The timing of traumatic effects has a great impact on a child's future development.

abce

The nurse is caring for a patient with conduct disorder. What psychosocial interventions may be needed for this patient? Select all that apply. a. Provide a climate of safety. b. Set limits and expectations. c. Prescribe antipsychotic medicines. d. Provide structure and boundaries. e. Use a physical restraint.

abd

Which characteristic supports the diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder? Select all that apply. a. Man who is 19 years old b. Often demonstrates anger by shouting c. Demonstrates poor intellectual abilities d. Has a history of damaging the property of others e. Displays of aggressive behaviors began abruptly at age 14

abd

Which statement concerning impulse control disorders is true? Select all that apply. a. Oppositional defiant disorder is one such illness. b. Obsessive compulsive disorder is one such illness. c. Early diagnosis and treatment is vital to future behaviors. d. The associated behaviors can lead to problems with the law. e. A common misconception is that the behaviors are a result of poor parenting.

acde

A nurse is assessing a group of children with oppositional defiant disorder. Which predisposing factors does the nurse identify with this disorder? Select all that apply. a. Parental rejection b. Good family support c. Sociable child behaviors d. Harsh discipline at home e. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

ade

A nurse on an adolescent psychiatric unit assesses a newly admitted 14-year-old. An impulse control disorder is suspected. Which aspects of the patient's history support the suspected diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Family history of mental illness b. Allergies to multiple antibiotics c. Long history of severe facial acne d. Father with history of alcohol abuse e. History of an abusive relationship with one parent

ade

Which statements are true regarding childhood-onset conduct disorder? Select all that apply. a. It is more commonly diagnosed in males. b. It is characterized by feelings of remorse and regret. c. It is usually diagnosed in late teen years. d. It is characterized by disregard for the rights of others. e. It allows patients to rationalize their aggressive behaviors. f. It is usually outgrown by early adulthood.

ade

A 15-year-old was placed in a residential program after truancy, running away, and an arrest for theft. At the program, the adolescent refused to join in planned activities and pushed a staff member, causing a fall. Which approach by nursing staff will be most therapeutic? a. Planned ignoring b. Establish firm limits c. Neutrally permit refusals d. Coaxing to gain compliance

b

A nurse is assessing a patient known to have oppositional defiant disorder. Which diagnosis does the nurse formulate when the child shows hostile laughter? a. Risk of suicide b. Ineffective coping c. Impaired parenting d. Risk of violence directed at others

b

The mother of a 6-year-old child expresses concern over the child's frequent temper outbursts. The child deals with any frustration by bullying and hitting and seldom shows any remorse for his or her actions. The nurse who gathers this data will note that the child's behaviors are most consistent with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders DSM-5 diagnosis of a. Social phobia b. Conduct disorder c. Oppositional defiant disorder d. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

b

The nurse is interviewing the family of a patient with a history of oppositional defiant disorder and notes that the patient blames coworkers and family for his own behavior and states that he is better than the rest of them. What nursing diagnosis does this reflect? a. Risk for suicide b. Defensive coping c. Impaired parenting d. Risk for other-directed violence

b

The nurse prepares to conduct an oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) assessment for a pediatric patient. Which question will the nurse include in the assessment? a. "Do you ever bully or scare other people?" b. "Do you ever bother people on purpose?" c. "Are you ever physically mean to animals?" d. "Can you think of a time when you ran away from home?"

b

The parents and teachers of a young adult have reported that the person does not obey school rules, destroys school property, and is involved in physical fights. What could be the possible diagnosis for this condition? a. Kleptomania b. Conduct disorder c. Oppositional defiant disorder d. Intermittent explosive disorder

b

Two weeks ago, a soldier returned to the U.S. from active duty in a combat zone in Afghanistan. The soldier was diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which comment by the soldier requires the nurse's immediate attention? a. "It's good to be home. I missed my home, family, and friends." b. "I saw my best friend get killed by a roadside bomb. I don't understand why it wasn't me." c. "Sometimes I think I hear bombs exploding, but it's just the noise of traffic in my hometown." d. "I want to continue my education, but I'm not sure how I will fit in with other college students."

b. "I saw my best friend get killed by a roadside bomb. I don't understand why it wasn't me." The correct response indicates the soldier is thinking about death and feeling survivors guilt. These emotions may accompany suicidal ideation, which warrants the nurses follow-up assessment. Suicide is a high risk among military personnel diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder. One distracter indicates flashbacks, common with persons with PTSD, but not solely indicative that further problems exist. The other distracters are normal emotions associated with returning home and change.

The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) says to the nurse, "That patient with amnesia looks fine, but when I talk to her, she seems vague. What should I be doing for her?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "Spend as much time with her as you can and ask questions about her life." b. "Use short, simple sentences and keep the environment calm and protective." c. "Provide more information about her past to reduce the mysteries that are causing anxiety." d. "Structure her time with activities to keep her busy, stimulated, and regaining concentration."

b. "Use short, simple sentences and keep the environment calm and protective." Disruptions in ability to perform activities of daily living, confusion, and anxiety are often apparent in patients with amnesia. Offering simple directions to promote activities of daily living and reduce confusion helps increase feelings of safety and security. A calm, secure, predictable, protective environment is also helpful when a person is dealing with a great deal of uncertainty. Recollection of memories should proceed at its own pace, and the patient should only gradually be given information about her past. Asking questions that require recall that the patient does not possess will only add frustration. Quiet, undemanding activities should be provided as the patient tolerates them and should be balanced with rest periods; the patients time should not be loaded with demanding or stimulating activities.

During a psychiatric assessment, the nurse observes a patients facial expressions that are without emotion. The patient says, Life feels so hopeless to me. Ive been feeling sad for several months. How should the nurse document the patients affect and mood? a. Affect depressed; mood flat b. Affect flat; mood depressed c. Affect labile; mood euphoric d. Affect and mood are incongruent

b. Affect flat; mood depressed Mood is a persons self-reported emotional feeling state. Affect is the emotional feeling state that is outwardly observable by others.

6. Substance abuse is often present in people diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Laura, a 28-year-old with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, drinks alcohol instead of taking her prescribed medications. The nurse caring for this patient recognizes that: a. Anxiety may be present. b. Alcohol ingestion is a form of self-medication. c. The patient is lacking a sufficient number of neurotransmitters. d. The patient is using alcohol because she is depressed.

b. Alcohol ingestion is a form of self-medication.

A patient says to the nurse, My life does not have any happiness in it anymore. I once enjoyed holidays, but now theyre just another day. How would the nurse document the complaint? a. Vegetative symptom b. Anhedonia c. Euphoria d. Anergia

b. Anhedonia Anhedonia is a common finding in many types of depression and refers to feelings of a loss of pleasure in formerly pleasurable activities. Vegetative symptoms refer to somatic changes associated with depression. Euphoria refers to an elated mood. Anergia means without energy.

9. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct? a. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough b. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine c. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus d. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness

b. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine

1. A nurse prepares to lead a discussion at a community health center regarding childrens health problems. The nurse wants to use current terminology when discussing these issues. Which terms are appropriate for the nurse to use? Select all that apply. a. Autism b. Bullying c. Mental retardation d. Autism spectrum disorder e. Intellectual development disorder

b. Bullying d. Autism spectrum disorder e. Intellectual development disorder Some dated terminology contributes to the stigma of mental illness and misconceptions about mental illness. Its important for the nurse to use current terminology.

3. At the time of a home visit, the nurse notices that each parent and child in a family has his or her own personal online communication device. Each member of the family is in a different area of the home. Which nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. Report the finding to the official child protection social services agency. b. Educate all members of the family about risks associated with cyberbullying. c. Talk with the parents about parental controls on the childrens communication devices. d. Encourage the family to schedule daily time together without communication devices. e. Obtain the familys network password and examine online sites family members have visited.

b. Educate all members of the family about risks associated with cyberbullying. c. Talk with the parents about parental controls on the childrens communication devices. d. Encourage the family to schedule daily time together without communication devices. Education and awareness-based approaches have a chance of effectively reducing harmful online behavior, including risks associated with cyberbullying. Parental controls on the childrens devices will support safe Internet use. Family time together will promote healthy bonding and a sense of security among members. There is no evidence of danger to the children, so a report to child protective agency is unnecessary. It would be inappropriate to seek the familys network password and an invasion of privacy to inspect sites family members have visited.

A patient diagnosed with depersonalization disorder tells the nurse, "It's starting again. I feel as though I'm going to float away." Which intervention would be most appropriate at this point? a. Notify the health care provider of this change in the patient's behavior. b. Engage the patient in a physical activity such as exercise. c. Isolate the patient until the sensation has diminished. d. Administer a PRN dose of anti-anxiety medication.

b. Engage the patient in a physical activity such as exercise. Helping the patient apply a grounding technique, such as exercise, assists the patient to interrupt the dissociative process. Medication can help reduce anxiety but does not directly interrupt the dissociative process. Isolation would allow the sensation to overpower the patient. It is not necessary to notify the health care provider.

A nurse works with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder who has frequent flashbacks as well as persistent symptoms of arousal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Trigger flashbacks intentionally in order to help the patient learn to cope with them. b. Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state. c. Encourage repression of memories associated with the traumatic event. d. Support "numbing" as a temporary way to manage intolerable feelings.

b. Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state. Persons with posttraumatic stress disorder often experience somatic symptoms or sympathetic nervous system arousal that can be confusing and distressing. Explaining that these are the bodys responses to psychological trauma helps the patient understand how such symptoms are part of the illness and something that will respond to treatment. This decreases powerlessness over the symptoms and helps instill a sense of hope. It also helps the patient to understand how relaxation, breathing exercises, and imagery can be helpful in symptom reduction. The goal of treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder is to come to terms with the event so treatment efforts would not include repression of memories or numbing. Triggering flashbacks would increase patient distress.

A soldier returned home from active duty in a combat zone in Afghanistan and was diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The soldier says, "If there's a loud noise at night, I get under my bed because I think we're getting bombed." What type of experience has the soldier described? a. Illusion b. Flashback c. Nightmare d. Auditory hallucination

b. Flashback Flashbacks are dissociative reactions in which an individual feels or acts as if the traumatic event were recurring. Illusions are misinterpretations of stimuli, and although the experience is similar, it is better termed a flashback because of the diagnosis of PTSD. Auditory hallucinations have no external stimuli. Nightmares commonly accompany PTSD, but this experience was stimulated by an actual environmental sound.

The gas pedal on a person's car stuck on a busy interstate highway, causing the car to accelerate rapidly. For 20 minutes, the car was very difficult to control. Afterward, this person's cortisol regulation was compromised. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect associated with the dysregulation of cortisol? a. Weight gain b. Flashbacks c. Headache d. Diuresis

b. Flashbacks Cortisol is a hormone released in response to stress. Severe dissociation or mindflight occurs for those who have suffered significant trauma. The episodic failure of dissociation causes intrusive symptoms such as flashbacks, thus dysregulating cortisol. The cortisol level may go up or down, so diuresis and/or weight gain may or may not occur. Answering this question correctly requires that the student apply prior learning regarding the effects of cortisol.

18. A patient has a history of impulsively acting out anger by striking others. Select the most appropriate intervention for avoiding similar incidents. a. Teach the patient about herbal preparations that reduce anger. b. Help the patient identify incidents that trigger impulsive anger. c. Explain that restraint and seclusion will be used if violence occurs. d. Offer one-on-one supervision to help the patient maintain control.

b. Help the patient identify incidents that trigger impulsive anger. Identification of trigger incidents allows the patient and nurse to plan interventions to reduce irritation and frustration, which lead to acting out anger, and eventually to put into practice more adaptive coping strategies.

4. A male patient calls to tell the nurse that his monthly lithium level is 1.7 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention will the nurse implement initially? a. Reinforce that the level is considered therapeutic. b. Instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and contact the prescriber. c. Have the patient go to the hospital emergency room immediately. d. Alert the patient to the possibility of seizures and appropriate precautions.

b. Instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and contact the prescriber.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, Bad things that happen are always my fault. To assist the patient in reframing this overgeneralization, the nurse should respond: a. I really doubt that one person can be blamed for all the bad things that happen. b. Lets look at one bad thing that happened to see if another explanation exists. c. You are being exceptionally hard on yourself when you say those things. d. How does your belief in fate relate to your cultural heritage?

b. Lets look at one bad thing that happened to see if another explanation exists. By questioning a faulty assumption, the nurse can help the patient look at the premise more objectively and reframe it as a more accurate representation of fact. The incorrect responses are judgmental, irrelevant to an overgeneralization, and cast doubt without requiring the patient to evaluate the statement.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder repeatedly tells staff members, I have cancer. Its my punishment for being a bad person. Diagnostic tests reveal no cancer. Select the priority nursing diagnosis. a. Powerlessness b. Risk for suicide c. Stress overload d. Spiritual distress

b. Risk for suicide A patient with depression who feels so worthless as to believe cancer is deserved is at risk for suicide. Safety concerns take priority over the other diagnoses listed.

A nurse wants to reinforce positive self-esteem for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Today, the patient is wearing a new shirt and has neat, clean hair. Which remark is most appropriate? a. You look nice this morning. b. You are wearing a new shirt. c. I like the shirt youre wearing. d. You must be feeling better today.

b. You are wearing a new shirt. Patients with depression usually see the negative side of things. The meaning of compliments may be altered to I didnt look nice yesterday or They didnt like my other shirt. Neutral comments such as an observation avoid negative interpretations. Saying You look nice or I like your shirt gives approval (nontherapeutic techniques). Saying You must be feeling better today is an assumption, which is nontherapeutic.

A priority nursing intervention for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is: a. distracting the patient from self-absorption. b. carefully and inconspicuously observing the patient around the clock. c. allowing the patient to spend long periods alone in self-reflection. d. offering opportunities for the patient to assume a leadership role in the therapeutic milieu.

b. carefully and inconspicuously observing the patient around the clock. Approximately two thirds of people with depression contemplate suicide. Patients with depression who exhibit feelings of worthlessness are at higher risk. Regularly planned observations of the patient with depression may prevent a suicide attempt on the unit.

A nurse instructs a patient taking a drug that inhibits the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO) to avoid certain foods and drugs because of the risk of: a. hypotensive shock. b. hypertensive crisis. c. cardiac dysrhythmia. d. cardiogenic shock.

b. hypertensive crisis. Patients taking MAOIs must be on a tyramine-free diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. In the presence of MAOIs, tyramine is not destroyed by the liver and, in high levels, produces intense vasoconstriction, resulting in elevated blood pressure.

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder begins selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant therapy. Priority information given to the patient and family should include a directive to: a. avoid exposure to bright sunlight. b. report increased suicidal thoughts. c. restrict sodium intake to 1 g daily. d. maintain a tyramine-free diet.

b. report increased suicidal thoughts. Some evidence indicates that suicidal ideation may worsen at the beginning of antidepressant therapy; thus close monitoring is necessary. Avoiding exposure to bright sunlight and restricting sodium intake are unnecessary. Tyramine restriction is associated with monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) therapy.

Which short-term outcomes would be appropriate for a teenager diagnosed with impulse control disorder who has been hospitalized for suicidal ideations? Select all that apply. a. Express two negative outcomes of acting on ideations b. Identify support persons to contact when ideations occur c. Express feelings that trigger ideations to staff as soon as they occur d. Agree not to harm self for the next 12 hours e. Identify two coping strategies to implement when ideations occur

bcd

A nurse works with an adolescent who was placed in a residential program after multiple episodes of violence at school. Establishing rapport with this adolescent is a priority because (Select all that apply) a. it is a vital component of implementing a behavior modification program. b. a therapeutic alliance is the first step in a nurse's therapeutic use of self. c. the adolescent has demonstrated resistance to other authority figures. d. acceptance and trust convey feelings of security for the adolescent. e. adolescents usually relate better to authority figures than peers.

bd

What are the primary distinguishing factors between the behavior of persons diagnosed with ODD and those with CD? The person diagnosed with (Select all that apply) a. ODD relives traumatic events by acting them out. b. ODD tests limits and disobeys authority figures. c. ODD has difficulty separating from loved ones. d. CD uses stereotypical or repetitive language. e. CD often violates the rights of others.

be

An 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins cursing at the nurse. Select the best method for the nurse to defuse the situation. a. Ignore the child's behavior. b. Send the child to time-out for 2 hours. c. Take the child to the gym and engage in an activity. d. Role-play a more appropriate behavior with the child.

c

An adolescent diagnosed with a CD stole and wrecked a neighbor's motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent's reaction? a. Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity impair one's capacity for remorse. b. Increased neuron destruction in the hippocampus results in decreased abilities to conform to social rules. c. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala results in decreased feelings of empathy. d. Disturbances in the occipital lobe reduce sensations that help an individual clearly visualize the consequences of behavior.

c

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, "I hate my parents. They focus all attention on my brother, who's perfect in their eyes." Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable? a. Disturbed personal identity related to acting out as evidenced by prostitution b. Hopelessness related to achievement of role identity as evidenced by feeling unloved by parents c. Defensive coping related to inappropriate methods of seeking parental attention as evidenced by acting out d. Impaired parenting related to inequitable feelings toward children as evidenced by showing preference for one child over another

c

Shortly after the parents announced that they were divorcing, a 15-year-old became truant from school and assaulted a friend. The adolescent told the school nurse, "I'd rather stay in my room and listen to music. It's easier than thinking about what is happening in my family." Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable? a. Chronic low self-esteem related to role within the family b. Decisional conflict related to compliance with school requirements c. Defensive coping related to adjustment to changes in family relationships d. Disturbed personal identity related to self-perceptions of changing family dynamics

c

Staff working on an inpatient adolescent mental health unit desire to maintain safety and a calm milieu. Which technique should staff use most for interactions with patients? a. Direction b. Clarification c. Low expressed emotion d. High expressed emotion

c

The nurse responsible for the safety of a 10-year-old patient diagnosed with impulse control disorder is most concerned about which of the following? a. The child stating, "I don't want to live here or anywhere." b. The child's preoccupation with violent television programs. c. A notation in the child's medical history describing a previous suicide attempt. d. The father's report that the child "is really clumsy and is always hurting him- or herself."

c

7. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes? a. "I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them." b. "Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real." c. "You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?" d. "Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now."

c. "You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?"

8. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, "You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing": a. A higher dosage b. Once a week dosing c. A lower dosage d. A different drug

c. A lower dosage

A woman just received notification that her husband died. She approaches the nurse who cared for him during his last hours and says angrily, "If you had given him your undivided attention, he would still be alive." How should the nurse analyze this behavior? a. The comment suggests potential allegations of malpractice. b. In some cultures, grief is expressed solely through anger. c. Anger is an expected emotion in an adjustment disorder. d. The patient had ambivalent feelings about her husband.

c. Anger is an expected emotion in an adjustment disorder. Symptoms of adjustment disorder run the gamut of all forms of distress including guilt, depression, and anger. Anger may protect the bereaved from facing the devastating reality of loss.

10. Tomas is a 21-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Tomas's nurse recognizes that self-medicating with excessive alcohol is common in this disease and can co-occur along with: a. Generally good health despite the mental illness. b. An aversion to drinking fluids. c. Anxiety and depression. d. The ability to express his needs.

c. Anxiety and depression.

A soldier who served in a combat zone returned to the U.S. The soldier's spouse complains to the nurse, "We had planned to start a family, but now he won't talk about it. He won't even look at children." The spouse is describing which symptom associated with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Reexperiencing b. Hyperarousal c. Avoidance d. Psychosis

c. Avoidance Physiological reactions to reminders of the event that include persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma results in the individuals avoiding talking about the event or avoiding activities, people, or places that arouse memories of the trauma. Avoidance is exemplified by a sense of foreshortened future and estrangement. There is no evidence this soldier is having hyperarousal or reexperiencing war-related traumas. Psychosis is not evident.

A patient states, "I feel detached and weird all the time. It is as though I am looking at life through a cloudy window. Everything seems unreal. It really messes up things at work and school." This scenario is most suggestive of which health problem? a. Acute stress disorder b. Dissociative amnesia c. Depersonalization disorder d. Disinhibited social engagement disorder

c. Depersonalization disorder Depersonalization disorder involves a persistent or recurrent experience of feeling detached from and outside oneself. Although reality testing is intact, the experience causes significant impairment in social or occupational functioning and distress to the individual. Dissociative amnesia involves memory loss. Children with disinhibited social engagement disorder demonstrate no normal fear of strangers and are unusually willing to go off with strangers. Individuals with ASD experience three or more dissociative symptoms associated with a traumatic event, such as a subjective sense of numbing, detachment, or absence of emotional responsiveness; a reduction in awareness of surroundings; derealization; depersonalization or dissociative amnesia. In the scenario, the patient experiences only one symptom.

7. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends: a. Clonazepam (Klonopin) b. Fluoxetine (Prozac) c. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) d. Lurasidone (Latuda)

c. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

The admission note indicates a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder has anergia and anhedonia. For which measures should the nurse plan? Select all that apply. a. Channeling excessive energy b. Reducing guilty ruminations c. Instilling a sense of hopefulness d. Assisting with self-care activities e. Accommodating psychomotor retardation

c. Instilling a sense of hopefulness d. Assisting with self-care activities e. Accommodating psychomotor retardation Anhedonia refers to the inability to find pleasure or meaning in life; thus planning should include measures to accommodate psychomotor retardation, assist with activities of daily living, and instill hopefulness. Anergia is the lack of energy, not excessive energy. Anhedonia does not necessarily imply the presence of guilty ruminations.

A patients employment is terminated and major depressive disorder results. The patient says to the nurse, Im not worth the time you spend with me. Im the most useless person in the world. Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Powerlessness b. Defensive coping c. Situational low self-esteem d. Disturbed personal identity

c. Situational low self-esteem The patients statements express feelings of worthlessness and most clearly relate to the nursing diagnosis of Situational low self-esteem. Insufficient information exists to justify the other diagnoses.

A person runs from a crowded nightclub after a pyrotechnics show causes the building to catch fire. Which division of the autonomic nervous system will be stimulated in response to this experience? a. Limbic system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system

c. Sympathetic nervous system The autonomic nervous system is comprised of the sympathetic (fight or flight response) and parasympathetic nervous system (relaxation response). In times of stress, the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. A person would experience stress associated with the experience of being in danger. The peripheral nervous system responds to messages from the sympathetic nervous system. The limbic system processes emotional responses but is not specifically part of the autonomic nervous system.

A patient being treated for major depressive disorder has taken 300 mg amitriptyline (Elavil) daily for a year. The patient calls the case manager at the clinic and says, I stopped taking my antidepressant 2 days ago. Now I am having cold sweats, nausea, a rapid heartbeat, and nightmares. The nurse should advise the patient: a. Go to the nearest emergency department immediately. b. Do not to be alarmed. Take two aspirin and drink plenty of fluids. c. Take one dose of the antidepressant. Come to the clinic to see the health care provider. d. Resume taking the antidepressant for 2 more weeks, and then discontinue it again.

c. Take one dose of the antidepressant. Come to the clinic to see the health care provider. The patient has symptoms associated with abrupt withdrawal of the tricyclic antidepressant. Taking a dose of the drug will ameliorate the symptoms. Seeing the health care provider will allow the patient to discuss the advisability of going off the medication and to be given a gradual withdrawal schedule if discontinuation is the decision. This situation is not a medical emergency, although it calls for medical advice. Resuming taking the antidepressant for 2 more weeks and then discontinuing again would produce the same symptoms the patient is experiencing.

23. The parent of a child diagnosed with Tourettes disorder says to the nurse, I think my child is faking the tics because they come and go. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. Perhaps your child was misdiagnosed. b. Your observation indicates the medication is effective. c. Tics often change frequency or severity. That doesnt mean they arent real. d. This finding is unexpected. How have you been administering your childs medication?

c. Tics often change frequency or severity. That doesnt mean they arent real. Tics are sudden, rapid, involuntary, repetitive movements or vocalizations characteristic of Tourettes disorder. They often fluctuate in frequency, severity, and are reduced or absent during sleep.

When counseling patients diagnosed with major depressive disorder, an advanced practice nurse will address the negative thought patterns by using: a. psychoanalytic therapy. b. desensitization therapy. c. cognitive behavioral therapy. d. alternative and complementary therapies.

c. cognitive behavioral therapy. Cognitive behavioral therapy attempts to alter the patients dysfunctional beliefs by focusing on positive outcomes rather than negative attributions. The patient is also taught the connection between thoughts and resultant feelings. Research shows that cognitive behavioral therapy involves the formation of new connections among nerve cells in the brain and that it is at least as effective as medication. Evidence does not support superior outcomes for the other psychotherapeutic modalities mentioned.

A nurse provided medication education for a patient who takes phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which behavior indicates effective learning? The patient: a. monitors sodium intake and weight daily. b. wears support stockings and elevates the legs when sitting. c. consults the pharmacist when selecting over-the-counter medications. d. can identify foods with high selenium content, which should be avoided.

c. consults the pharmacist when selecting over-the-counter medications. Over-the-counter medicines may contain vasopressor agents or tyramine, a substance that must be avoided when the patient takes MAOI antidepressants. Medications for colds, allergies, or congestion or any preparation that contains ephedrine or phenylpropanolamine may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. MAOI antidepressant therapy is unrelated to the need for sodium limitation, support stockings, or leg elevation. MAOIs interact with tyramine-containing foods, not selenium, to produce dangerously high blood pressure.

A patient was started on escitalopram (Lexapro) 5 days ago and now says, This medicine isnt working. The nurses best intervention would be to: a. discuss with the health care provider the need to change medications. b. reassure the patient that the medication will be effective soon. c. explain the time lag before antidepressants relieve symptoms. d. critically assess the patient for symptom relief.

c. explain the time lag before antidepressants relieve symptoms. Escitalopram is an SSRI antidepressant. Between 1 and 3 weeks of treatment are usually necessary before a relief of symptoms occurs. This information is important to share with patients.

After major reconstructive surgery, a patient's wounds dehisced. Extensive wound care was required for 6 months, causing the patient to miss work and social activities. Which pathophysiology would be expected for this patient? Dysfunction of the: a. pons. b. occipital lobe. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus.

c. hippocampus. The scenario presents chronic and potentially debilitating stress. If arousal continues unabated, neuronal changes occur that alter the neural circuitry of the prefrontal cortex, reducing the size the hippocampus so that memory is impaired.

2. A nurse prepares the plan of care for a 15-year-old diagnosed with moderate intellectual developmental disorder. What are the highest outcomes that are realistic for this patient? Within 5 years, the patient will: (select all that apply) a. graduate from high school. b. live independently in an apartment. c. independently perform own personal hygiene. d. obtain employment in a local sheltered workshop. e. correctly use public buses to travel in the community.

c. independently perform own personal hygiene. d. obtain employment in a local sheltered workshop. e. correctly use public buses to travel in the community. Individuals with moderate intellectual developmental disorder progress academically to about the second grade. These people can learn to travel in familiar areas and perform unskilled or semiskilled work. With supervision, the person can function in the community, but independent living is not likely.

24. When a 5-year-old is disruptive, the nurse says, You must take a time-out. The expectation is that the child will: a. go to a quiet room until called for the next activity. b. Slowly count to 20 before returning to the group activity. c. sit on the edge of the activity until able to regain self-control. d. sit quietly on the lap of a staff member until able to apologize for the behavior.

c. sit on the edge of the activity until able to regain self-control. Time-out is designed so that staff can be consistent in their interventions. Time-out may require going to a designated room or sitting on the periphery of an activity until the child gains self-control and reviews the episode with a staff member. Time-out may not require going to a designated room and does not involve special attention such as holding. Counting to 10 or 20 is not sufficient.

A patient is diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. Which neurobiological changes in the brain are related to oppositional defiant disorder? Select all that apply. a. Decreased gray matter in the left amygdala b. Difference in serotonin regulation in the brain c. Increased gray matter in the left temporal area d. Decreased gray matter density in the orbitofrontal cortex e. Decreased gray matter density in the left prefrontal cortex

cde

In ___ disorder, the patient violates others and social norms and rules. The patient can even be involved in physical fights, destruction of property, and drug abuse.

conduct

A 15-year-old ran away from home six times and was arrested for shoplifting. The parents told the Court, "We can't manage our teenager." The adolescent is physically abusive to the mother and defiant with the father. Which diagnosis is supported by this adolescent's behavior?

control disorder

A 12-year-old has engaged in bullying for several years. The parents say, "We can't believe anything our child says." Recently this child shot a dog with a pellet gun and set fire to a neighbor's trash bin. The child's behaviors support the diagnosis of a. ADHD. b. intermittent explosive disorder. c. oppositional defiant disorder (ODD). d. CD.

d

The family of a child diagnosed with an impulse control disorder needs help to function more adaptively. Which aspect of the child's plan of care will be provided by an advanced practice nurse rather than a staff nurse? a. Leading an activity group b. Providing positive feedback c. Formulating nursing diagnoses d. Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT)

d

The nurse meets with the parents of a child who has oppositional defiant disorder (ODD). The parents ask about pharmacologic treatment options to treat the child's disorder. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "Many of the drugs approved to treat ODD cause negative side effects." b. "ODD is treated with the same pharmacologic agents that are used to treat anxiety." c. "There are several pharmacologic options that can be used to manage your child's disruptive behaviors." d. "There are currently no drugs approved to treat ODD, but certain medications can help control anger and aggression."

d

Which behavior consistently demonstrated by a child is a predictor of future antisocial personality disorder in adults? a. Sadness b. Remorse c. Guilt d. Callousness

d

A soldier returned home last year after deployment to a war zone. The soldier's spouse complains, "We were going to start a family, but now he won't talk about it. He will not look at children. I wonder if we're going to make it as a couple." Select the nurse's best response. a. "Posttraumatic stress disorder often changes a person's sexual functioning." b. "I encourage you to continue to participate in social activities where children are present." c. "Have you talked with your spouse about these reactions? Sometimes we just need to confront behavior." d. "Posttraumatic stress disorder often strains relationships. Here are some community resources for help and support."

d. "Posttraumatic stress disorder often strains relationships. Here are some community resources for help and support." Posttraumatic stress disorder precipitates changes that often lead to divorce. Its important to provide support to both the veteran and spouse. Confrontation will not be effective. While its important to provide information, on-going support will be more effective.

A store clerk was killed during a robbery 2 weeks ago. His widow, who has a long history of schizoaffective disorder, cries spontaneously when talking about his death. Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Are you taking your medications the way they are prescribed?" b. "This loss is harder to accept because of your mental illness. Do you think you should be hospitalized?" c. "I'm worried about how much you are crying. Your grief over your husband's death has gone on too long." d. "The unexpected death of your husband is very painful. I'm glad you are able to talk about your feelings."

d. "The unexpected death of your husband is very painful. I'm glad you are able to talk about your feelings." The patient is expressing feelings related to the loss, and this is an expected and healthy behavior. This patient is at risk for a maladaptive response because of the history of a serious mental illness, but the nurses priority intervention is to form a therapeutic alliance and support the patients expression of feelings. Crying at 2 weeks after his death is expected and normal.

A soldier returned 3 months ago from Afghanistan and was diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which social event would be most disturbing for this soldier? a. Halloween festival with neighborhood children b. Singing carols around a Christmas tree c. A family outing to the seashore d. Fireworks display on July 4th

d. Fireworks display on July 4th The exploding noises associated with fireworks are likely to provoke exaggerated responses for this soldier. The distracters are not associated with offensive sounds.

A patient became severely depressed when the last of six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. The patient repeatedly says, No one cares about me. Im not worth anything. Which response by the nurse would be the most helpful? a. Things will look brighter soon. Everyone feels down once in a while. b. The staff here cares about you and wants to try to help you get better. c. It is difficult for others to care about you when you repeatedly say negative things about yourself. d. Ill sit with you for 10 minutes now and return for 10 minutes at lunchtime and again at 2:30 this afternoon.

d. Ill sit with you for 10 minutes now and return for 10 minutes at lunchtime and again at 2:30 this afternoon. Spending time with the patient at intervals throughout the day shows acceptance by the nurse and helps the patient establish a relationship with the nurse. The therapeutic technique is called offering self. Setting definite times for the therapeutic contacts and keeping the appointments show predictability on the part of the nurse, an element that fosters the building of trust. The incorrect responses would be difficult for a person with profound depression to believe, provide trite reassurance, and are counterproductive. The patient is unable to say positive things at this point.

Which beverage should the nurse offer to a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder who refuses solid food? a. Tomato juice b. Orange juice c. Hot tea d. Milk

d. Milk Milk is the only beverage listed that provides protein, fat, and carbohydrates. In addition, milk is fortified with vitamins.

5. Which characteristic presents the greatest risk for injury to others by the patient diagnosed with schizophrenia? a. Depersonalization b. Pressured speech c. Negative symptoms d. Paranoia

d. Paranoia

A woman gave birth to a healthy newborn 1 month ago. The patient now reports she cannot cope and is unable to sleep or eat. She says, I feel like a failure. This baby is the root of my problems. The priority nursing diagnosis is: a. Insomnia b. Ineffective coping c. Situational low self-esteem d. Risk for other-directed violence

d. Risk for other-directed violence When a new mother develops depression with a postpartum onset, ruminations or delusional thoughts about the infant often occur. The risk for harming the infant is increased; thus, it becomes the priority diagnosis. The other diagnoses are relevant but are of lower priority.

A soldier served in combat zones in Iraq during 2010 and was deployed to Afghanistan in 2013. When is it most important for the nurse to screen for signs and symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Immediately upon return to the U.S. from Afghanistan b. Before departing Afghanistan to return to the U.S. c. One year after returning from Afghanistan d. Screening should be on-going

d. Screening should be on-going PTSD can have a very long lag time, months to years. Screening should be on-going.

4. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms? a. Her memory problems will likely decrease. b. Depressive episodes should be less severe. c. She will probably enjoy social interactions more. d. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

d. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

6. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a "moody child" with an onset of odd behavior about at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered: a. Favorable with medication b. In the relapse stage c. Improvable with psychosocial interventions d. To have a less positive outcome

d. To have a less positive outcome

A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving imipramine (Tofranil) 200 mg every night at bedtime. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to collaborate with the health care provider regarding potentially hazardous side effects of this drug? a. Dry mouth b. Blurred vision c. Nasal congestion d. Urinary retention

d. Urinary retention All the side effects mentioned are the result of the anticholinergic effects of the drug. Only urinary retention and severe constipation warrant immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, blurred vision, and nasal congestion may be less troublesome as therapy continues.

Select the correct etiology to complete this nursing diagnosis for a patient with dissociative identity disorder. Disturbed personal identity related to: a. obsessive fears of harming self or others. b. poor impulse control and lack of self-confidence. c. depressed mood secondary to nightmares and intrusive thoughts. d. cognitive distortions associated with unresolved childhood abuse issues.

d. cognitive distortions associated with unresolved childhood abuse issues. Nearly all patients with dissociative identity disorder have a history of childhood abuse or trauma. None of the other etiology statements is relevant. See relationship to audience response question.

Four teenagers died in an automobile accident. One week later, which behavior by the parents of these teenagers most clearly demonstrates resilience? The parents who: a. visit their teenager's grave daily. b. return immediately to employment. c. discuss the accident within the family only. d. create a scholarship fund at their child's high school.

d. create a scholarship fund at their child's high school. Resilience refers to positive adaptation or the ability to maintain or regain mental health despite adversity. Loss of a child is among the highest-risk situations for maladaptive grieving. The parents who create a scholarship fund are openly expressing their feelings and memorializing their child. The other parents in this question are isolating themselves and/or denying their feelings. Visiting the grave daily shows active continued mourning but is not as strongly indicative of resilience as the correct response.

A disheveled patient with severe depression and psychomotor retardation has not bathed for several days. The nurse should: a. avoid forcing the issue. b. bring up the issue at the community meeting. c. calmly tell the patient, You must bathe daily. d. firmly and neutrally assist the patient with showering.

d. firmly and neutrally assist the patient with showering. When patients are unable to perform self-care activities, staff members must assist them rather than ignore the issue. Better grooming increases self-esteem. Calmly telling the patient to bathe daily and bringing up the issue at a community meeting are punitive.

A nurse worked with a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder who was severely withdrawn and dependent on others. After 3 weeks, the patient did not improve. The nurse is at risk for feelings of: a. overinvolvement. b. guilt and despair. c. interest and pleasure. d. ineffectiveness and frustration.

d. ineffectiveness and frustration. Nurses may have expectations for self and patients that are not wholly realistic, especially regarding the patients progress toward health. Unmet expectations result in feelings of ineffectiveness, anger, or frustration. Guilt and despair might be observed when the nurse experiences feelings about patients because of sympathy. Interest is possible but not the most likely result. The correct response is more global than overinvolvement.

13. An emergency code was called after a patient pulled a knife from a pocket and threatened, I will kill anyone who tries to get near me. The patient was safely disarmed and placed in seclusion. Justification for use of seclusion was that the patient: a. was threatening to others. b. was experiencing psychosis. c. presented an undeniable escape risk. d. presented a clear and present danger to others.

d. presented a clear and present danger to others. The patients threat to kill self or others with the knife he possessed constituted a clear and present danger to self and others. The distracters are not sufficient reasons for seclusion.

22. Which information from a patients record would indicate marginal coping skills and the need for careful assessment of the risk for violence? A history of: a. academic problems. c. childhood trauma. b. family involvement. d. substance abuse.

d. substance abuse. The nurse should suspect marginal coping skills in a patient with substance abuse. They are often anxious, may be concerned about inadequate pain relief, and may have personality styles that externalize blame. The incorrect options do not signal as high a degree of risk as substance abuse.

A child drowned while swimming in a local lake 2 years ago. Which behavior indicates the child's parents have adapted to their loss? The parents: a. visit their child's grave daily. b. maintain their child's room as the child left it 2 years ago. c. keep a place set for the dead child at the family dinner table. d. throw flowers on the lake at each anniversary date of the accident.

d. throw flowers on the lake at each anniversary date of the accident. Resilience refers to positive adaptation or the ability to maintain or regain mental health despite adversity. Loss of a child is among the highest-risk situations for an adjustment disorder and maladaptive grieving. The parents who throw flowers on the lake on each anniversary date of the accident are openly expressing their feelings. The other behaviors are maladaptive because of isolating themselves and/or denying their feelings. After 2 years, the frequency of visiting the grave should have decreased.

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, "I hate my parents. They focus all attention on my brother, who's perfect in their eyes." Which type of therapy might promote the greatest change in the adolescent's behavior?

family

An adolescent diagnosed with an impulse control disorder says, "I want to die. I spend my time getting even with people who hurt me." When asked about a suicide plan, the adolescent replies, "I'll jump from a bridge near my home. My father threw kittens off that bridge and they died." Rate the suicide risk.

high

___ is the repeated failure to resist urges to steal objects.

kleptomania

In ___ ___ disorder, the patient shows defiant and vindictive behavior and a pattern of annoying people and blaming others for his or her own behavior.

oppositional defiant

A child known as the neighborhood bully says, "Nobody can tell me what to do." After receiving a poor grade on a science project, this child secretly loaded a virus on the teacher's computer. These behaviors support a diagnosis of ___ ___ ___

oppositional defiant disorder

Which diagnosis is indicated by the assessment findings of: negative, hostile, and spiteful toward parents; blames others for misbehavior, repeated and persistent pattern of having an angry and irritable mood in conjunction with demonstrating defiant and vindictive behavior?

oppositional defiant disorder

The nurse performs an assessment on a child and finds that the child deliberately sets fires and becomes excited when talking about them. Which term best describes this behavior?

pyromania

19. A patient underwent psychotherapy weekly for 3 years. The therapist used free association, dream analysis, and facilitated transference to help the patient understand unconscious processes and foster personality changes. Which type of therapy was used? a. Short-term dynamic psychotherapy b. Transactional analysis c. Cognitive therapy d. Psychoanalysis

ANS: D The therapy described is traditional psychoanalysis. Short-term dynamic psychotherapy would last less than 1 year. Neither transactional analysis nor cognitive therapy makes use of the techniques described. REF: Pages: 26-27

4. A 4-year-old child grabs toys from siblings, saying, "I want that toy now!" The siblings cry, and the child's parent becomes upset with the behavior. Using the Freudian theory, a nurse can interpret the child's behavior as a product of impulses originating in the: a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. preconscious.

A (The id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of impulses. The ego acts as a mediator of behavior and weighs the consequences of the action, perhaps determining that taking the toy is not worth the parent's wrath. The superego would oppose the impulsive behavior as "not nice." The preconscious is a level of awareness. REF: Pages: 28-30)

6. A nurse supports parental praise of a child who is behaving in a helpful way. When the individual behaves with politeness and helpfulness in adulthood, which feeling will most likely result? a. Guilt b. Anxiety c. Loneliness d. Self-esteem

D (The individual will be living up to the ego ideal, which will result in positive feelings about self. The other options are incorrect; each represents a negative feeling. REF: Pages: 26-30)

8. Which patient statement would lead a nurse to suspect that the developmental task of infancy was not successfully completed? a. "I have very warm and close friendships." b. "I'm afraid to let anyone really get to know me." c. "I am always right, so don't bother saying more." d. "I'm ashamed that I didn't do it correctly in the first place."

B (According to Erikson, the developmental task of infancy is the development of trust. The patient's statement that he or she is afraid of becoming acquainted with others clearly shows a lack of ability to trust other people. Having warm and close friendships suggests the developmental task of infancy was successfully completed. The third option suggests rigidity rather than mistrust. The fourth option suggests failure to resolve the crisis of Initiative versus Guilt. REF: Pages: 28-30|Page: 35)

5. The parent of a 4-year-old rewards and praises the child for helping a younger sibling, being polite, and using good manners. A nurse supports the use of praise because according to the Freudian theory, these qualities will likely be internalized and become part of the child's: a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. preconscious.

C (In the Freudian theory, the superego contains the "thou shalts" or moral standards internalized from interactions with significant others. Praise fosters internalization of desirable behaviors. The id is the center of basic instinctual drives, and the ego is the mediator. The ego is the problem-solving and reality-testing portion of the personality that negotiates solutions with the outside world. The preconscious is a level of awareness from which material can be easily retrieved with conscious effort. REF: Pages: 26-30)