HEALTH ASSESSMENT FINAL REVIEW FROM TESTBANK - 3/3

During the assessment of deep tendon reflexes, the nurse finds that a patients responses are bilaterally normal. What number is used to indicate normal deep tendon reflexes when the documenting this finding? ____+

2 -Responses to assessment of deep tendon reflexes are graded on a 4-point scale. A rating of 2+ indicates normal or average response. A rating of 0 indicates no response, and a rating of 4+ indicates very brisk, hyperactive response with clonus, which is indicative of disease.

The nurse is reviewing a patients medical record and notes that he is in a coma. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which number indicates that the patient is in a coma? a. 6 b. 12 c. 15 d. 24

ANS: A A fully alert, normal person has a score of 15, whereas a score of 7 or less reflects coma on the Glasgow Coma Scale

In the assessment of a 1-month-old infant, the nurse notices a lack of response to noise or stimulation. The mother reports that in the last week he has been sleeping all of the time, and when he is awake all he does is cry. The nurse hears that the infants cries are very high pitched and shrill. What should be the nurses appropriate response to these findings? a. Refer the infant for further testing. b. Talk with the mother about eating habits. c. Do nothing; these are expected findings for an infant this age. d. Tell the mother to bring the baby back in 1 week for a recheck.

ANS: A A high-pitched, shrill cry or cat-sounding screech occurs with central nervous system damage. Lethargy, hyporeactivity, and hyperirritability, as well as the parents report of significant changes in behavior all warrant referral. The other options are not correct responses.

A 21-year-old patient has a head injury resulting from trauma and is unconscious. There are no other injuries. During the assessment what would the nurse expect to find when testing the patients deep tendon reflexes? a. Reflexes will be normal. b. Reflexes cannot be elicited. c. All reflexes will be diminished but present. d. Some reflexes will be present, depending on the area of injury.

ANS: A A reflex is a defense mechanism of the nervous system. It operates below the level of conscious control and permits a quick reaction to potentially painful or damaging situations.

The nurse is assessing an older adults advanced activities of daily living (AADLs), which would include: a. Recreational activities. b. Meal preparation. c. Balancing the checkbook. d. Self-grooming activities.

ANS: A AADLs are activities that an older adult performs such as occupational and recreational activities. Self-grooming activities are basic ADLs; meal preparation and balancing the checkbook are considered IADLs.

The nurse knows that the best time to assess a womans blood pressure during an initial prenatal visit is: a. At the end of the examination when she will be the most relaxed. b. At the beginning of the interview as a nonthreatening method of gaining rapport. c. During the middle of the physical examination when she is the most comfortable. d. Before beginning the pelvic examination because her blood pressure will be higher after the pelvic examination.

ANS: A Assessing the womans blood pressure at the end of the examination, when it is hoped that she will be most relaxed, is the best time to assess blood pressure. The other options are not correct.

To assess the head control of a 4-month-old infant, the nurse lifts up the infant in a prone position while supporting his chest. The nurse looks for what normal response? The infant: a. Raises the head, and arches the back. b. Extends the arms, and drops down the head. c. Flexes the knees and elbows with the back straight. d. Holds the head at 45 degrees, and keeps the back straight.

ANS: A At 3 months of age, the infant raises the head and arches the back as if in a swan dive. This response is the Landau reflex, which persists until 1 years of age. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse should use which test to check for large amounts of fluid around the patella? a. Ballottement b. Tinel sign c. Phalen test d. McMurray test

ANS: A Ballottement of the patella is reliable when large amounts of fluid are present. The Tinel sign and the Phalen test are used to check for carpal tunnel syndrome. The McMurray test is used to test the knee for a torn meniscus.

An 85-year-old man has been hospitalized after a fall at home, and his 86-year-old wife is at his bedside. She tells the nurse that she is his primary caregiver. The nurse should assess the caregiver for signs of possible caregiver burnout, such as: a. Depression. b. Weight gain. c. Hypertension. d. Social phobias.

ANS: A Caregiver burden is the perceived strain by the person who cares for an older adult or for a person who is chronically ill or disabled. Caregiver burnout is linked to the caregivers ability to cope and handle stress. Signs of possible caregiver burnout include multiple somatic complaints, increased stress and anxiety, social isolation, depression, and weight loss. Screening caregivers for depression may also be appropriate.

A patient states, I can hear a crunching or grating sound when I kneel. She also states that it is very difficult to get out of bed in the morning because of stiffness and pain in my joints. The nurse should assess for signs of what problem? a. Crepitation b. Bone spur c. Loose tendon d. Fluid in the knee joint

ANS: A Crepitation is an audible and palpable crunching or grating that accompanies movement and occurs when articular surfaces in the joints are roughened, as with rheumatoid arthritis. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is examining a 6-month-old infant and places the infants feet flat on the table and flexes his knees up. The nurse notes that the right knee is significantly lower than the left. Which of these statements is true of this finding? a. This finding is a positive Allis sign and suggests hip dislocation. b. The infant probably has a dislocated patella on the right knee. c. This finding is a negative Allis sign and normal for an infant of this age. d. The infant should return to the clinic in 2 weeks to see if his condition has changed.

ANS: A Finding one knee significantly lower than the other is a positive Allis sign and suggests hip dislocation. Normally, the tops of the knees are at the same elevation. The other statements are not correct.

A patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth. The nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement? a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Adduction d. Extension

ANS: A Flexion, or bending a limb at a joint, is required to move the hand to the mouth. Extension is straightening a limb at a joint. Moving a limb toward the midline of the body is called adduction; abduction is moving a limb away from the midline of the body.

In a person with an upper motor neuron lesion such as a cerebrovascular accident, which of these physical assessment findings should the nurse expect? a. Hyperreflexia b. Fasciculations c. Loss of muscle tone and flaccidity d. Atrophy and wasting of the muscles

ANS: A Hyperreflexia, diminished or absent superficial reflexes, and increased muscle tone or spasticity can be expected with upper motor neuron lesions. The other options reflect a lesion of lower motor neurons

The functional units of the musculoskeletal system are the: a. Joints. b. Bones. c. Muscles. d. Tendons.

ANS: A Joints are the functional units of the musculoskeletal system because they permit the mobility needed to perform the activities of daily living. The skeleton (bones) is the framework of the body. The other options are not correct.

A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in her posture and is having lower back pain. The nurse tells her that during pregnancy, women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. This shift in posture is known as: a. Lordosis. b. Scoliosis. c. Ankylosis. d. Kyphosis.

ANS: A Lordosis compensates for the enlarging fetus, which would shift the center of balance forward. This shift in balance, in turn, creates a strain on the low back muscles, felt as low back pain during late pregnancy by some women. Scoliosis is lateral curvature of portions of the spine; ankylosis is extreme flexion of the wrist, as observed with severe rheumatoid arthritis; and kyphosis is an enhanced thoracic curvature of the spine.

To test for gross motor skill and coordination of a 6-year-old child, which of these techniques would be appropriate? Ask the child to: a. Hop on one foot. b. Stand on his head. c. Touch his finger to his nose. d. Make funny faces at the nurse.

ANS: A Normally, a child can hop on one foot and can balance on one foot for approximately 5 seconds by 4 years of age and can balance on one foot for 8 to 10 seconds at 5 years of age. Children enjoy performing these tests. Failure to hop after 5 years of age indicates incoordination of gross motor skills. Asking the child to touch his or her finger to the nose checks fine motor coordination; and asking the child to make funny faces tests CN VII. Asking a child to stand on his or her head is not appropriate.

While obtaining a health history of a 3-month-old infant from the mother, the nurse asks about the infants ability to suck and grasp the mothers finger. What is the nurse assessing? a. Reflexes b. Intelligence c. CNs d. Cerebral cortex function

ANS: A Questions regarding reflexes include such questions as, What have you noticed about the infants behavior, Are the infants sucking and swallowing seem coordinated, and Does the infant grasp your finger? The other responses are incorrect.

During the assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices that his hands show tremors when he reaches for something and his head is always nodding. No associated rigidity is observed with movement. Which of these statements is most accurate? a. These findings are normal, resulting from aging. b. These findings could be related to hyperthyroidism. c. These findings are the result of Parkinson disease. d. This patient should be evaluated for a cerebellar lesion.

ANS: A Senile tremors occasionally occur. These benign tremors include an intention tremor of the hands, head nodding (as if saying yes or no), and tongue protrusion. Tremors associated with Parkinson disease include rigidity, slowness, and a weakness of voluntary movement. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is testing the deep tendon reflexes of a 30-year-old woman who is in the clinic for an annual physical examination. When striking the Achilles heel and quadriceps muscle, the nurse is unable to elicit a reflex. The nurses next response should be to: a. Ask the patient to lock her fingers and pull. b. Complete the examination, and then test these reflexes again. c. Refer the patient to a specialist for further testing. d. Document these reflexes as 0 on a scale of 0 to 4+.

ANS: A Sometimes the reflex response fails to appear. Documenting the reflexes as absent is inappropriate this soon in the examination. The nurse should try to further encourage relaxation, varying the persons position or increasing the strength of the blow. Reinforcement is another technique to relax the muscles and enhance the response. The person should be asked to perform an isometric exercise in a muscle group somewhat away from the one being tested. For example, to enhance a patellar reflex, the person should be asked to lock the fingers together and pull.

A patient will be ready to be discharged from the hospital soon, and the patients family members are concerned about whether the patient is able to walk safely outside alone. The nurse will perform which test to assess this? a. Get Up and Go Test b. Performance ADLs c. Physical Performance Test d. Tinetti Gait and Balance Evaluation

ANS: A The Get Up and Go Test is a reliable and valid test to quantify functional mobility. The test is quick, requires little training and no special equipment, and is appropriate to use in many settings including hospitals and clinics. This instrument has been shown to predict a persons ability to go safely outside alone. The Performance of ADLs test has a trained observer actually observing as a patient performs various ADLs. The Physical Performance Test assesses upper body fine motor and coarse motor activities, as well as balance, mobility, coordination, and endurance. The Tinetti Gait and Balance Evaluation assesses gait and balance and provides information about fall risk.

The ankle joint is the articulation of the tibia, fibula, and: a. Talus. b. Cuboid. c. Calcaneus. d. Cuneiform bones.

ANS: A The ankle or tibiotalar joint is the articulation of the tibia, fibula, and talus. The other bones listed are foot bones and not part of the ankle joint.

The nurse knows that determining whether a person is oriented to his or her surroundings will test the functioning of which structure(s)? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. CNs d. Medulla oblongata

ANS: A The cerebral cortex is responsible for thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement. The other structures are not responsible for a persons level of consciousness.

The wife of a 65-year-old man tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a change in her husbands personality and ability to understand. He also cries very easily and becomes angry. The nurse recalls that the cerebral lobe responsible for these behaviors is the __________ lobe. a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Occipital d. Temporal

ANS: A The frontal lobe has areas responsible for personality, behavior, emotions, and intellectual function. The parietal lobe has areas responsible for sensation; the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception; and the temporal lobe is responsible for hearing, taste, and smell.

The nurse is checking the range of motion in a patients knee and knows that the knee is capable of which movement(s)? a. Flexion and extension b. Supination and pronation c. Circumduction d. Inversion and eversion

ANS: A The knee is a hinge joint, permitting flexion and extension of the lower leg on a single plane. The knee is not capable of the other movements listed.

When performing a musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse knows that the correct approach for the examination should be: a. Proximal to distal. b. Distal to proximal. c. Posterior to anterior. d. Anterior to posterior.

ANS: A The musculoskeletal assessment should be performed in an orderly approach, head to toe, proximal to distal, from the midline outward. The other options are not correct.

During auscultation of fetal heart tones (FHTs), the nurse determines that the heart rate is 136 beats per minute. The nurses next action should be to: a. Document the results, which are within normal range. b. Take the maternal pulse to verify these findings as the uterine souffle. c. Have the patient change positions and count the FHTs again. d. Immediately notify the physician for possible fetal distress.

ANS: A The normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute. The nurse should document the results as within the normal range. The other options are not correct.

When performing an examination of a woman who is 34 weeks pregnant, the nurse notices a midline linear protrusion in the abdomen over the area of the rectus abdominis muscles as the woman raises her head and shoulders off of the bed. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. The presence of diastasis recti should be documented. b. This condition should be discussed with the physician because it will most likely need to be surgically repaired. c. The possibility that the woman has a hernia attributable to the increased pressure within the abdomen from the pregnancy should be suspected. d. The woman should be told that she may have a difficult time with delivery because of the weakness in her abdominal muscles.

ANS: A The separation of the abdominal muscles is called diastasis recti and frequently occurs during pregnancy. The rectus abdominis muscles will return together after pregnancy with abdominal exercise. This condition is not a true hernia.

During an assessment of a 62-year-old man, the nurse notices the patient has a stooped posture, shuffling walk with short steps, flat facial expression, and pill-rolling finger movements. These findings would be consistent with: a. Parkinsonism. b. Cerebral palsy. c. Cerebellar ataxia. d. Muscular dystrophy.

ANS: A The stooped posture, shuffling walk, short steps, flat facial expression, and pill-rolling finger movements are all found in parkinsonism.

Which finding is considered normal and expected when the nurse is performing a physical examination on a pregnant woman? a. Palpable, full thyroid b. Edema in one lower leg c. Significant diffuse enlargement of the thyroid d. Pale mucous membranes of the mouth

ANS: A The thyroid may be palpable during pregnancy. It should feel full, but smooth. Significant diffuse enlargement occurs with hyperthyroidism, thyroiditis, and hypothyroidism. Pale mucous membranes may indicate anemia. Bilateral lower extremity edema is common in pregnancy, but edema with pain in only one leg occurs with deep vein thrombosis.

Of the 33 vertebrae in the spinal column, there are: a. 5 lumbar. b. 5 thoracic. c. 7 sacral. d. 12 cervical.

ANS: A There are 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 3 to 4 coccygeal vertebrae in the spinal column.

Which of these tests would the nurse use to check the motor coordination of an 11-month-old infant? a. Denver II b. Stereognosis c. Deep tendon reflexes d. Rapid alternating movements

ANS: A To screen gross and fine motor coordination, the nurse should use the Denver II with its age-specific developmental milestones. Stereognosis tests a persons ability to recognize objects by feeling them and is not appropriate for an 11-month-old infant. Testing the deep tendon reflexes is not appropriate for checking motor coordination. Testing rapid alternating movements is appropriate for testing coordination in adults.

During the taking of the health history, a patient tells the nurse that it feels like the room is spinning around me. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Vertigo. b. Syncope. c. Dizziness. d. Seizure activity.

ANS: A True vertigo is rotational spinning caused by a neurologic dysfunction or a problem in the vestibular apparatus or the vestibular nuclei in the brainstem. Syncope is a sudden loss of strength or a temporary loss of consciousness. Dizziness is a lightheaded, swimming sensation. Seizure activity is characterized by altered or loss of consciousness, involuntary muscle movements, and sensory disturbances.

The nurse is preparing to perform a functional assessment of an older patient and knows that a good approach would be to: a. Observe the patients ability to perform the tasks. b. Ask the patients wife how he does when performing tasks. c. Review the medical record for information on the patients abilities. d. Ask the patients physician for information on the patients abilities.

ANS: A Two approaches are used to perform a functional assessment: (1) asking individuals about their ability to perform the tasks (self-reports), or (2) actually observing their ability to perform the tasks. For persons with memory problems, the use of surrogate reporters (proxy reports), such as family members or caregivers, may be necessary, keeping in mind that they may either overestimate or underestimate the persons actual abilities.

A 59-year-old patient has a herniated intervertebral disk. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to see on physical assessment of this individual? a. Hyporeflexia b. Increased muscle tone c. Positive Babinski sign d. Presence of pathologic reflexes

ANS: A With a herniated intervertebral disk or lower motor neuron lesion, loss of tone, flaccidity, atrophy, fasciculations, and hyporeflexia or areflexia are demonstrated. No Babinski sign or pathologic reflexes would be observed. The other options reflect a lesion of upper motor neurons.

When using the various instruments to assess an older persons ADLs, the nurse needs to remember that a disadvantage of these instruments includes: a. Reliability of the tools. b. Self or proxy reporting of functional activities. c. Lack of confidentiality during the assessment. d. Insufficient details concerning the deficiencies identified.

ANS: B A disadvantage of many of the ADL and IADL instruments is the self or proxy reporting of functional activities. The other responses are not correct.

A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and asks the nurse, What is osteoporosis? The nurse explains that osteoporosis is defined as: a. Increased bone matrix. b. Loss of bone density. c. New, weaker bone growth. d. Increased phagocytic activity.

ANS: B After age 40 years, a loss of bone matrix (resorption) occurs more rapidly than new bone formation. The net effect is a gradual loss of bone density, or osteoporosis. The other options are not correct.

An imaginary line connecting the highest point on each iliac crest would cross the __________ vertebra. a. First sacral b. Fourth lumbar c. Seventh cervical d. Twelfth thoracic

ANS: B An imaginary line connecting the highest point on each iliac crest crosses the fourth lumbar vertebra. The other options are not correct.

The assessment of a 60-year-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. In testing his pain perception, the nurse decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When the nurse applies the sharp point of the pin on his arm several times, he is only able to identify these as one very sharp prick. What would be the most accurate explanation for this? a. The patient has hyperesthesia as a result of the aging process. b. This response is most likely the result of the summation effect. c. The nurse was probably not poking hard enough with the pin in the other areas. d. The patient most likely has analgesia in some areas of arm and hyperalgesia in others.

ANS: B At least 2 seconds should be allowed to elapse between each stimulus to avoid summation. With summation, frequent consecutive stimuli are perceived as one strong stimulus. The other responses are incorrect.

A 25-year-old woman is in the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse will prepare to obtain which laboratory screening test at this time? a. Urine toxicology b. Complete blood cell count c. Alpha-fetoprotein d. Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis

ANS: B At the onset of pregnancy, a routine prenatal panel usually includes a complete blood cell count, serologic testing, rubella antibodies, hepatitis B screening, blood type and Rhesus factor, and antibody screen. A clean-catch urine sample is collected for urinalysis to rule out cystitis. Urine toxicology, although beneficial for women if active substance abuse is suspected or known, is not routinely performed. In the second trimester, maternal serum is analyzed for alpha-fetoprotein. Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis is offered to check whether a person carries the abnormal gene that causes cystic fibrosis but is not part of routine testing.

When auscultating the anterior thorax of a pregnant woman, the nurse notices the presence of a murmur over the second, third, and fourth intercostal spaces. The murmur is continuous but can be obliterated by pressure with the stethoscope or finger on the thorax just lateral to the murmur. The nurse interprets this finding to be: a. Murmur of aortic stenosis. b. Most likely a mammary souffle. c. Associated with aortic insufficiency. d. Indication of a patent ductus arteriosus.

ANS: B Blood flow through the blood vessels, specifically the internal mammary artery, can often be heard over the second, third, and fourth intercostal spaces. This finding is called a mammary souffle, but it may be mistaken for a cardiac murmur. The other options are incorrect.

When examining the face of a woman who is 28 weeks pregnant, the nurse notices the presence of a butterfly-shaped increase in pigmentation on the face. The proper term for this finding in the documentation is: a. Striae. b. Chloasma. c. Linea nigra. d. Mask of pregnancy.

ANS: B Chloasma is a butterfly-shaped increase in pigmentation on the face. It is known as the mask of pregnancy, but when documenting, the nurse should use the correct medical term, chloasma. Striae is the term for stretch marks. The linea nigra is a hyperpigmented line that begins at the sternal notch and extends down the abdomen through the umbilicus to the pubis.

A woman at 25 weeks gestation comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse notices that her face and lower extremities are swollen, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. The woman states that she has had headaches and blurry vision but thought she was just tired. What should the nurse suspect? a. Eclampsia b. Preeclampsia c. Diabetes type 1 d. Preterm labor

ANS: B Classic symptoms of preeclampsia include elevated blood pressure (greater than 140 mm Hg systolic or 90 mm Hg diastolic in a woman with previously normal blood pressure) and proteinuria. Onset and worsening symptoms may be sudden, and subjective signs include headaches and visual changes. Eclampsia is manifested by generalized tonic-clonic seizures. These symptoms are not indicative of diabetes mellitus (type 1 or 2) or preterm labor.

A 40-year-old man has come into the clinic with complaints of extreme pain in his toes. The nurse notices that his toes are slightly swollen, reddened, and warm to the touch. His complaints would suggest: a. Osteoporosis. b. Acute gout. c. Ankylosing spondylitis. d. Degenerative joint disease.

ANS: B Clinical findings for acute gout consist of redness, swelling, heat, and extreme pain like a continuous throbbing. Gout is a metabolic disorder of disturbed purine metabolism, associated with elevated serum uric acid.

The ability that humans have to perform very skilled movements such as writing is controlled by the: a. Basal ganglia. b. Corticospinal tract. c. Spinothalamic tract. d. Extrapyramidal tract.

ANS: B Corticospinal fibers mediate voluntary movement, particularly very skilled, discrete, and purposeful movements, such as writing. The corticospinal tract, also known as the pyramidal tract, is a newer, higher motor system that humans have that permits very skilled and purposeful movements. The other responses are not related to skilled movements.

The nurse is assessing the neurologic status of a patient who has a late-stage brain tumor. With the reflex hammer, the nurse draws a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and inward, across the ball of the foot. In response, the patients toes fan out, and the big toe shows dorsiflexion. The nurse interprets this result as: a. Negative Babinski sign, which is normal for adults. b. Positive Babinski sign, which is abnormal for adults. c. Clonus, which is a hyperactive response. d. Achilles reflex, which is an expected response.

ANS: B Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes is a positive Babinski sign, also called up-going toes. This response occurs with upper motor neuron disease of the corticospinal (or pyramidal) tract and is an abnormal finding for adults.

During an examination, the nurse notices severe nystagmus in both eyes of a patient. Which conclusion by the nurse is correct? Severe nystagmus in both eyes: a. Is a normal occurrence. b. May indicate disease of the cerebellum or brainstem. c. Is a sign that the patient is nervous about the examination. d. Indicates a visual problem, and a referral to an ophthalmologist is indicated.

ANS: B End-point nystagmus at an extreme lateral gaze normally occurs; however, the nurse should carefully assess any other nystagmuses. Severe nystagmus occurs with disease of the vestibular system, cerebellum, or brainstem.

During a functional assessment of an older persons home environment, which statement or question by the nurse is most appropriate regarding common environmental hazards? a. These low toilet seats are safe because they are nearer to the ground in case of falls. b. Do you have a relative or friend who can help to install grab bars in your shower? c. These small rugs are ideal for preventing you from slipping on the hard floor. d. It would be safer to keep the lighting low in this room to avoid glare in your eyes.

ANS: B Environmental hazards within the home can be a potential constraint on the older persons day-to-day functioning. Common environmental hazards, including inadequate lighting, loose throw rugs, curled carpet edges, obstructed hallways, cords in walkways, lack of grab bars in tub and shower, and low and loose toilet seats, are hazards that could lead to an increased risk of falls and fractures. Environmental modifications can promote mobility and reduce the likelihood of the older adult falling.

A patient is being seen at the clinic for her 10-week prenatal visit. She asks when she will be able to hear the babys heartbeat. The nurse should reply: a. The babys heartbeat is not usually heard until the second trimester. b. The babys heartbeat may be heard anywhere from the ninth to the twelfth week. c. It is often difficult to hear the heartbeat at this point, but we can try. d. It is normal to hear the heartbeat at 6 weeks. We may be able to hear it today.

ANS: B Fetal heart tones can be heard with the use of the Doppler device between 9 and 12 weeks. The other responses are incorrect.

A woman who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years is starting to notice that her fingers are drifting to the side. The nurse knows that this condition is commonly referred to as: a. Radial drift. b. Ulnar deviation. c. Swan-neck deformity. d. Dupuytren contracture.

ANS: B Fingers drift to the ulnar side because of stretching of the articular capsule and muscle imbalance caused by chronic rheumatoid arthritis. A radial drift is not observed.

A patient who is 24 weeks pregnant asks about wearing a seat belt while driving. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. Seat belts should not be worn during pregnancy. b. Place the lap belt below the uterus and use the shoulder strap at the same time. c. Place the lap belt below the uterus but omit the shoulder strap during pregnancy. d. Place the lap belt at your waist above the uterus and use the shoulder strap at the same time.

ANS: B For maternal and fetal safety, the nurse should instruct the woman to place the lap belt below the uterus and to use the shoulder strap. The other instructions are incorrect.

A patients annual physical examination reveals a lateral curvature of the thoracic and lumbar segments of his spine; however, this curvature disappears with forward bending. The nurse knows that this abnormality of the spine is called: a. Structural scoliosis. b. Functional scoliosis. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Dislocated hip.

ANS: B Functional scoliosis is flexible and apparent with standing but disappears with forward bending. Structural scoliosis is fixed; the curvature shows both when standing and when bending forward. (See Table 22-7 for description of herniated nucleus pulposus.) These findings are not indicative of a dislocated hip.

A patient tells the nurse that, All my life Ive been called knock knees. The nurse knows that another term for knock knees is: a. Genu varum. b. Genu valgum. c. Pes planus. d. Metatarsus adductus.

ANS: B Genu valgum is also known as knock knees and is present when more than 2.5 cm is between the medial malleoli when the knees are together.

An older patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) after falling at home. Within 8 hours, his condition has stabilized and he is transferred to a medical unit. The family is wondering whether he will be able to go back home. Which assessment instrument is most appropriate for the nurse to choose at this time? a. Lawton IADL instrument b. Hospital Admission Risk Profile (HARP) c. Mini-Cog d. NEECHAM Confusion Scale

ANS: B Hospital-acquired functional decline may occur within 2 days of a hospital admission. The HARP helps identify older adults who are at greatest risk of losing their ability to perform ADLs or mobility at this critical time. The Lawton IADL measures instrumental activities of daily living, which may be difficult to observe in the hospital setting. The Mini-Cog is an assessment of mental status. The NEECHAM Confusion Scale is used to assess for delirium.

During an assessment of a 22-year-old woman who sustained a head injury from an automobile accident 4 hours earlier, the nurse notices the following changes: pupils were equal, but now the right pupil is fully dilated and nonreactive, and the left pupil is 4 mm and reacts to light. What do these findings suggest? a. Injury to the right eye b. Increased intracranial pressure c. Test inaccurately performed d. Normal response after a head injury

ANS: B In a person with a brain injury, a sudden, unilateral, dilated, and nonreactive pupil is ominous. CN III runs parallel to the brainstem. When increasing intracranial pressure pushes down the brainstem (uncal herniation), it puts pressure on CN III, causing pupil dilation. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse knows that testing kinesthesia is a test of a persons: a. Fine touch. b. Position sense. c. Motor coordination. d. Perception of vibration.

ANS: B Kinesthesia, or position sense, is the persons ability to perceive passive movements of the extremities. The other options are incorrect.

An 80-year-old woman is visiting the clinic for a checkup. She states, I cant walk as much as I used to. The nurse is observing for motor dysfunction in her hip and should ask her to: a. Internally rotate her hip while she is sitting. b. Abduct her hip while she is lying on her back. c. Adduct her hip while she is lying on her back. d. Externally rotate her hip while she is standing.

ANS: B Limited abduction of the hip while supine is the most common motion dysfunction found in hip disease. The other options are not correct.

When the nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) on a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, which of these would be considered a normal finding on a 0 to 4+ scale? a. Absent DTRs b. 2+ c. 4+ d. Brisk reflexes and the presence of clonus

ANS: B Normally during pregnancy, the DTRs are 1+ to 2+ and bilaterally equal. Brisk or greater than 2+ DTRs and the presence of clonus are abnormal and may be associated with an elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema in the preeclamptic woman.

When beginning to assess a persons spirituality, which question by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Do you believe in God? b. How does your spirituality relate to your health care decisions? c. What religious faith do you follow? d. Do you believe in the power of prayer?

ANS: B Open-ended questions provide a foundation for future discussions. The other responses are easily answered by one-word replies and are closed questions.

An 85-year-old patient comments during his annual physical examination that he seems to be getting shorter as he ages. The nurse should explain that decreased height occurs with aging because: a. Long bones tend to shorten with age. b. The vertebral column shortens. c. A significant loss of subcutaneous fat occurs. d. A thickening of the intervertebral disks develops.

ANS: B Postural changes are evident with aging; decreased height is most noticeable and is due to shortening of the vertebral column. Long bones do not shorten with age. Intervertebral disks actually get thinner with age. Subcutaneous fat is not lost but is redistributed to the abdomen and hips.

A patient is able to flex his right arm forward without difficulty or pain but is unable to abduct his arm because of pain and muscle spasms. The nurse should suspect: a. Crepitation. b. Rotator cuff lesions. c. Dislocated shoulder. d. Rheumatoid arthritis.

ANS: B Rotator cuff lesions may limit range of motion and cause pain and muscle spasms during abduction, whereas forward flexion remains fairly normal. The other options are not correct.

In obtaining a health history on a 74-year-old patient, the nurse notes that he drinks alcohol daily and that he has noticed a tremor in his hands that affects his ability to hold things. With this information, what response should the nurse make? a. Does your family know you are drinking every day? b. Does the tremor change when you drink alcohol? c. Well do some tests to see what is causing the tremor. d. You really shouldnt drink so much alcohol; it may be causing your tremor.

ANS: B Senile tremor is relieved by alcohol, although not a recommended treatment. The nurse should assess whether the person is abusing alcohol in an effort to relieve the tremor.

The nurse places a key in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. What term would the nurse use to describe this finding? a. Extinction b. Astereognosis c. Graphesthesia d. Tactile discrimination

ANS: B Stereognosis is the persons ability to recognize objects by feeling their forms, sizes, and weights. Astereognosis is an inability to identify objects correctly, and it occurs in sensory cortex lesions. Tactile discrimination tests fine touch. Extinction tests the persons ability to feel sensations on both sides of the body at the same point.

The nurse is preparing to use the Lawton IADL instrument as part of an assessment. Which statement about the Lawton IADL instrument is true? a. The nurse uses direct observation to implement this tool. b. The Lawton IADL instrument is designed as a self-report measure of performance rather than ability. c. This instrument is not useful in the acute hospital setting. d. This tool is best used for those residing in an institutional setting.

ANS: B The Lawton IADL instrument is designed as a self-report measure of performance rather than ability. Direct testing is often not feasible, such as demonstrating the ability to prepare food while a hospital inpatient. Attention to the final score is less important than identifying a persons strengths and areas where assistance is needed. The instrument is useful in acute hospital settings for discharge planning and continuously in outpatient settings. It would not be useful for those residing in institutional settings because many of these tasks are already being managed for the resident.

During an interview the patient states, I can feel this bump on the top of both of my shouldersit doesnt hurt but I am curious about what it might be. The nurse should tell the patient that it is his: a. Subacromial bursa. b. Acromion process. c. Glenohumeral joint. d. Greater tubercle of the humerus.

ANS: B The bump of the scapulas acromion process is felt at the very top of the shoulder. The other options are not correct.

When assessing a woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse looks for the classic symptoms associated with preeclampsia, which include: a. Edema, headaches, and seizures. b. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. c. Elevated liver enzymes and high platelet counts. d. Decreased blood pressure and edema.

ANS: B The classic symptoms of preeclampsia are hypertension and proteinuria. Headaches may occur with worsening symptoms, and seizures may occur if preeclampsia is left untreated and leads to eclampsia. A serious variant of preeclampsia, the hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome, is an ominous picture. Edema is a common occurrence in pregnancy.

During an assessment of the CNs, the nurse finds the following: asymmetry when the patient smiles or frowns, uneven lifting of the eyebrows, sagging of the lower eyelids, and escape of air when the nurse presses against the right puffed cheek. This would indicate dysfunction of which of these CNs? a. Motor component of CN IV b. Motor component of CN VII c. Motor and sensory components of CN XI d. Motor component of CN X and sensory component of CN VII

ANS: B The findings listed reflect a dysfunction of the motor component of the facial nerve (CN VII).

The nurse is examining the hip area of a patient and palpates a flat depression on the upper, lateral side of the thigh when the patient is standing. The nurse interprets this finding as the: a. Ischial tuberosity. b. Greater trochanter. c. Iliac crest. d. Gluteus maximus muscle.

ANS: B The greater trochanter of the femur is palpated when the person is standing, and it appears as a flat depression on the upper lateral side of the thigh. The iliac crest is the upper part of the hip bone; the ischial tuberosity lies under the gluteus maximus muscle and is palpable when the hip is flexed; and the gluteus muscle is part of the buttocks.

Which statement concerning the areas of the brain is true? a. The cerebellum is the center for speech and emotions. b. The hypothalamus controls body temperature and regulates sleep. c. The basal ganglia are responsible for controlling voluntary movements. d. Motor pathways of the spinal cord and brainstem synapse in the thalamus.

ANS: B The hypothalamus is a vital area with many important functions: body temperature controller, sleep center, anterior and posterior pituitary gland regulator, and coordinator of autonomic nervous system activity and emotional status. The cerebellum controls motor coordination, equilibrium, and balance. The basal ganglia control autonomic movements of the body. The motor pathways of the spinal cord synapse in various areas of the spinal cord, not in the thalamus.

A mother of a 1-month-old infant asks the nurse why it takes so long for infants to learn to roll over. The nurse knows that the reason for this is: a. A demyelinating process must be occurring with her infant. b. Myelin is needed to conduct the impulses, and the neurons of a newborn are not yet myelinated. c. The cerebral cortex is not fully developed; therefore, control over motor function gradually occurs. d. The spinal cord is controlling the movement because the cerebellum is not yet fully developed.

ANS: B The infants sensory and motor development proceeds along with the gradual acquisition of myelin, which is needed to conduct most impulses. Very little cortical control exists, and the neurons are not yet myelinated. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is assessing a patients ischial tuberosity. To palpate the ischial tuberosity, the nurse knows that it is best to have the patient: a. Standing. b. Flexing the hip. c. Flexing the knee. d. Lying in the supine position.

ANS: B The ischial tuberosity lies under the gluteus maximus muscle and is palpable when the hip is flexed. The other options are not correct.

The two parts of the nervous system are the: a. Motor and sensory. b. Central and peripheral. c. Peripheral and autonomic. d. Hypothalamus and cerebral.

ANS: B The nervous system can be divided into two partscentral and peripheral. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system includes the 12 pairs of cranial nerves (CNs), the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and all of their branches.

During a health history interview, a 38-year-old woman shares that she is thinking about having another baby. The nurse knows which statement to be true regarding pregnancy after 35 years of age? a. Fertility does not start to decline until age 40 years. b. Occurrence of Down syndrome is significantly more frequent after the age of 35 years. c. Genetic counseling and prenatal screening are not routine until after age 40 years. d. Women older than 35 years who are pregnant have the same rate of pregnancy-related complications as those who are younger than 35 years.

ANS: B The risk of Down syndrome increases as the woman ages, from approximately 1 in 1250 at age 25 years to 1 in 400 at age 35 years. Fertility declines with advancing maternal age. Women 35 years and older or with a history of a genetic abnormality are offered genetic counseling and the options of prenatal diagnostic screening tests. Because the incidence of chronic diseases increases with age, women older than 35 years who are pregnant more often have medical complications such as diabetes, obesity, and hypertension.

During the neurologic assessment of a healthy 35-year-old patient, the nurse asks him to relax his muscles completely. The nurse then moves each extremity through full range of motion. Which of these results would the nurse expect to find? a. Firm, rigid resistance to movement b. Mild, even resistance to movement c. Hypotonic muscles as a result of total relaxation d. Slight pain with some directions of movement

ANS: B Tone is the normal degree of tension (contraction) in voluntarily relaxed muscles. It shows a mild resistance to passive stretching. Normally, the nurse will notice a mild, even resistance to movement. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is assessing the joints of a woman who has stated, I have a long family history of arthritis, and my joints hurt. The nurse suspects that she has osteoarthritis. Which of these are symptoms of osteoarthritis? Select all that apply. a. Symmetric joint involvement b. Asymmetric joint involvement c. Pain with motion of affected joints d. Affected joints are swollen with hard, bony protuberances e. Affected joints may have heat, redness, and swelling

ANS: B, C, D In osteoarthritis, asymmetric joint involvement commonly affects hands, knees, hips, and lumbar and cervical segments of the spine. Affected joints have stiffness, swelling with hard bony protuberances, pain with motion, and limitation of motion. The other options reflect the signs of rheumatoid arthritis.

A 69-year-old patient has been admitted to an adult psychiatric unit because his wife thinks he is getting more and more confused. He laughs when he is found to be forgetful, saying Im just getting old! After the nurse completes a thorough neurologic assessment, which findings would be indicative of Alzheimer disease? Select all that apply. a. Occasionally forgetting names or appointments b. Difficulty performing familiar tasks, such as placing a telephone call c. Misplacing items, such as putting dish soap in the refrigerator d. Sometimes having trouble finding the right word e. Rapid mood swings, from calm to tears, for no apparent reason f. Getting lost in ones own neighborhood

ANS: B, C, E, F Difficulty performing familiar tasks, misplacing items, rapid mood swings, and getting lost in ones own neighborhood can be warning signs of Alzheimer disease. Occasionally forgetting names or appointments, and sometimes having trouble finding the right word are part of normal aging.

The nurse is assessing the abilities of an older adult. Which activities are considered IADLs? Select all that apply. a. Feeding oneself b. Preparing a meal c. Balancing a checkbook d. Walking e. Toileting f. Grocery shopping

ANS: B, C, F Typically, IADL tasks include shopping, meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, managing finances, taking medications, and using transportation. The other options listed are ADLs related to self-care.

A patient has a severed spinal nerve as a result of trauma. Which statement is true in this situation? a. Because there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, no effect results if only one nerve is severed. b. The dermatome served by this nerve will no longer experience any sensation. c. The adjacent spinal nerves will continue to carry sensations for the dermatome served by the severed nerve. d. A severed spinal nerve will only affect motor function of the patient because spinal nerves have no sensory component.

ANS: C A dermatome is a circumscribed skin area that is primarily supplied from one spinal cord segment through a particular spinal nerve. The dermatomes overlap, which is a form of biologic insurance; that is, if one nerve is severed, then most of the sensations can be transmitted by the spinal nerve above and the spinal nerve below the severed nerve.

A teenage girl has arrived complaining of pain in her left wrist. She was playing basketball when she fell and landed on her left hand. The nurse examines her hand and would expect a fracture if the girl complains of a: a. Dull ache. b. Deep pain in her wrist. c. Sharp pain that increases with movement. d. Dull throbbing pain that increases with rest.

ANS: C A fracture causes sharp pain that increases with movement. The other types of pain do not occur with a fracture.

The nurse is palpating the fundus of a pregnant woman. Which statement about palpation of the fundus is true? a. The fundus should be hard and slightly tender to palpation during the first trimester. b. Fetal movement may not be felt by the examiner until the end of the second trimester. c. After 20 weeks gestation, the number of centimeters should approximate the number of weeks gestation. d. Fundal height is usually less than the number of weeks gestation, unless an abnormal condition such as excessive amniotic fluid is present.

ANS: C After 20 weeks gestation, the number of centimeters should approximate the number of weeks gestation. In addition, at 20 weeks gestation, the examiner may be able to feel fetal movement and the head can be balloted.

The nurse is assessing a 1-week-old infant and is testing his muscle strength. The nurse lifts the infant with hands under the axillae and notices that the infant starts to slip between the hands. The nurse should: a. Suspect a fractured clavicle. b. Suspect that the infant may have a deformity of the spine. c. Suspect that the infant may have weakness of the shoulder muscles. d. Conclude that this is a normal finding because the musculature of an infant at this age is undeveloped.

ANS: C An infant who starts to slip between the nurses hands shows weakness of the shoulder muscles. An infant with normal muscle strength wedges securely between the nurses hands. The other responses are not correct.

When taking the health history on a patient with a seizure disorder, the nurse assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of these would be the best question for obtaining this information? a. Does your muscle tone seem tense or limp? b. After the seizure, do you spend a lot of time sleeping? c. Do you have any warning sign before your seizure starts? d. Do you experience any color change or incontinence during the seizure?

ANS: C Aura is a subjective sensation that precedes a seizure; it could be auditory, visual, or motor. The other questions do not solicit information about an aura.

The nurse auscultates a functional systolic murmur, grade II/IV, on a woman in week 30 of her pregnancy. The remainder of her physical assessment is within normal limits. The nurse would: a. Consider this finding abnormal, and refer her for additional consultation. b. Ask the woman to run briefly in place and then assess for an increase in intensity of the murmur. c. Know that this finding is normal and is a result of the increase in blood volume during pregnancy. d. Ask the woman to restrict her activities and return to the clinic in 1 week for re-evaluation.

ANS: C Because of the increase in blood volume, a functional systolic murmur, grade II/IV or less, can be heard in 95% of pregnant women. The other actions are not appropriate.

A patient who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years comes to the clinic to ask about changes in her fingers. The nurse will assess for signs of what problems? a. Heberden nodes b. Bouchard nodules c. Swan-neck deformities d. Dupuytren contractures

ANS: C Changes in the fingers caused by chronic rheumatoid arthritis include swan-neck and boutonniere deformities. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodules are associated with osteoarthritis. Dupuytren contractures of the digits occur because of chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia

A man who was found wandering in a park at 2 AM has been brought to the emergency department for an examination; he said he fell and hit his head. During the examination, the nurse asks him to use his index finger to touch the nurses finger, then his own nose, then the nurses finger again (which has been moved to a different location). The patient is clumsy, unable to follow the instructions, and overshoots the mark, missing the finger. The nurse should suspect which of the following? a. Cerebral injury b. Cerebrovascular accident c. Acute alcohol intoxication d. Peripheral neuropathy

ANS: C During the finger-to-finger test, if the person has clumsy movement with overshooting the mark, either a cerebellar disorder or acute alcohol intoxication should be suspected. The persons movements should be smooth and accurate. The other options are not correct.

During the examination of a woman in her second trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices the presence of a small amount of yellow drainage from the nipples. The nurse knows that this is: a. An indication that the womans milk is coming in. b. A sign of possible breast cancer in a pregnant woman. c. Most likely colostrum and considered a normal finding at this stage of the pregnancy. d. Too early in the pregnancy for lactation to begin and refers the woman to a specialist.

ANS: C During the second trimester, colostrum, the precursor of milk, may be expressed from the nipples. Colostrum is yellow and contains more minerals and protein but less sugar and fat than mature milk. The other options are incorrect.

A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is visiting the clinic for a checkup. Her systolic blood pressure is 30 mm Hg higher than her prepregnancy systolic blood pressure. The nurse should: a. Consider this a normal finding. b. Expect the blood pressure to decrease as the estrogen levels increase throughout the pregnancy. c. Consider this an abnormal finding because blood pressure is typically lower at this point in the pregnancy. d. Recommend that she decrease her salt intake in an attempt to decrease her peripheral vascular resistance.

ANS: C During the seventh gestational week, blood pressure begins to drop as a result of falling peripheral vascular resistance. Early in the first trimester, blood pressure values are similar to those of prepregnancy measurements. In this case, the womans blood pressure is higher than it should be.

A mother brings her newborn baby boy in for a checkup; she tells the nurse that he does not seem to be moving his right arm as much as his left and that he seems to have pain when she lifts him up under the arms. The nurse suspects a fractured clavicle and would observe for: a. Negative Allis test. b. Positive Ortolani sign. c. Limited range of motion during the Moro reflex. d. Limited range of motion during Lasgue test.

ANS: C For a fractured clavicle, the nurse should observe for limited arm range of motion and unilateral response to the Moro reflex. The other tests are not appropriate for this type of fracture.

During a morning assessment, the nurse notices that an older patient is less attentive and is unable to recall yesterdays events. Which test is appropriate for assessing the patients mental status? a. Geriatric Depression Scale, short form b. Rapid Disability Rating Scale-2 c. Mini-Cog d. Get Up and Go Test

ANS: C For nurses in various settings, cognitive assessments provide continuing comparisons to the individuals baseline to detect any acute changes in mental status. The Mini-Cog is a mental status test that tests immediate and delayed recall and visuospatial abilities. The Geriatric Depression Scale, short form, assesses for depression and changes in the level of depression, not mental status. The Rapid Disability Rating Scale-2 measures what the person can actually do versus what he or she could do, but not mental status. The Get Up and Go Test assesses functional mobility, not mental status.

The nurse suspects that a patient has carpal tunnel syndrome and wants to perform the Phalen test. To perform this test, the nurse should instruct the patient to: a. Dorsiflex the foot. b. Plantarflex the foot. c. Hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds. d. Hyperextend the wrists with the palmar surface of both hands touching, and wait for 60 seconds.

ANS: C For the Phalen test, the nurse should ask the person to hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand. The Phalen test reproduces numbness and burning in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome. The other actions are not correct when testing for carpal tunnel syndrome.

The nurse is preparing to assess an older adult and discovers that the older adult is in severe pain. Which statement about pain and the older adult is true? a. Pain is inevitable with aging. b. Older adults with cognitive impairments feel less pain. c. Alleviating pain should be a priority over other aspects of the assessment. d. The assessment should take priority so that care decisions can be made.

ANS: C If the older adult is experiencing pain or discomfort, then the depth of knowledge gathered through the assessments will suffer. Alleviating pain should be a priority over other aspects of the assessment. Remembering that older adults with cognitive impairment do not feel less pain is paramount.

During an examination, the nurse asks a patient to bend forward from the waist and notices that the patient has lateral tilting. When his leg is raised straight up, the patient complains of a pain going down his buttock into his leg. The nurse suspects: a. Scoliosis. b. Meniscus tear. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Spasm of paravertebral muscles.

ANS: C Lateral tilting and sciatic pain with straight leg raising are findings that occur with a herniated nucleus pulposus. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is explaining the mechanism of the growth of long bones to a mother of a toddler. Where does lengthening of the bones occur? a. Bursa b. Calcaneus c. Epiphyses d. Tuberosities

ANS: C Lengthening occurs at the epiphyses, or growth plates. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a 41-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. When testing her ability to feel the vibrations of a tuning fork, the nurse notices that the patient is unable to feel vibrations on the great toe or ankle bilaterally, but she is able to feel vibrations on both patellae. Given this information, what would the nurse suspect? a. Hyperalgesia b. Hyperesthesia c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Lesion of sensory cortex

ANS: C Loss of vibration sense occurs with peripheral neuropathy (e.g., diabetes and alcoholism). Peripheral neuropathy is worse at the feet and gradually improves as the examiner moves up the leg, as opposed to a specific nerve lesion, which has a clear zone of deficit for its dermatome. The other responses are incorrect.

A patient is being assessed for range-of-joint movement. The nurse asks him to move his arm in toward the center of his body. This movement is called: a. Flexion. b. Abduction. c. Adduction. d. Extension.

ANS: C Moving a limb toward the midline of the body is called adduction; moving a limb away from the midline of the body is called abduction. Flexion is bending a limb at a joint; and extension is straightening a limb at a joint.

A 14-year-old boy who has been diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease reports painful swelling just below the knee for the past 5 months. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. If these symptoms persist, you may need arthroscopic surgery. b. You are experiencing degeneration of your knee, which may not resolve. c. Your disease is due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, and your symptoms should resolve with rest. d. Increasing your activity and performing knee-strengthening exercises will help decrease the inflammation and maintain mobility in the knee.

ANS: C Osgood-Schlatter disease is a painful swelling of the tibial tubercle just below the knee and most likely due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, occurring during rapid growth and most often in boys. The symptoms resolve with rest. The other responses are not appropriate.

The nurse is teaching a class on preventing osteoporosis to a group of perimenopausal women. Which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group? a. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements b. Taking medications to prevent osteoporosis c. Performing physical activity, such as fast walking d. Assessing bone density annually

ANS: C Physical activity, such as fast walking, delays or prevents bone loss in perimenopausal women. The faster the pace of walking, the higher the preventive effect is on the risk of hip fracture. The other options are not correct.

During a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. This finding is documented as: a. Unidactyly. b. Syndactyly. c. Polydactyly. d. Multidactyly.

ANS: C Polydactyly is the presence of extra fingers or toes. Syndactyly is webbing between adjacent fingers or toes. The other terms are not correct.

A patient who is 20 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she feels more shortness of breath as her pregnancy progresses. The nurse recognizes which statement to be true? a. High levels of estrogen cause shortness of breath. b. Feelings of shortness of breath are abnormal during pregnancy. c. Hormones of pregnancy cause an increased respiratory effort. d. The patient should get more exercise in an attempt to increase her respiratory reserve.

ANS: C Progesterone and estrogen cause an increase in respiratory effort during pregnancy by increasing tidal volume. Increased tidal volume causes a slight drop in partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), causing the woman to have dyspnea occasionally. The other options are not correct.

A patient is complaining of pain in his joints that is worse in the morning, better after he moves around for a while, and then gets worse again if he sits for long periods. The nurse should assess for other signs of what problem? a. Tendinitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Intermittent claudication

ANS: C Rheumatoid arthritis is worse in the morning when a person arises. Movement increases most joint pain, except the pain with rheumatoid arthritis, which decreases with movement. The other options are not correct.

A patient is unable to perform rapid alternating movements such as rapidly patting her knees. The nurse should document this inability as: a. Ataxia. b. Astereognosis. c. Presence of dysdiadochokinesia. d. Loss of kinesthesia.

ANS: C Slow clumsy movements and the inability to perform rapid alternating movements occur with cerebellar disease. The condition is termed dysdiadochokinesia. Ataxia is an uncoordinated or unsteady gait. Astereognosis is the inability to identify an object by feeling it. Kinesthesia is the persons ability to perceive passive movement of the extremities or the loss of position sense.

During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower and more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. All other neurologic findings are normal. The nurse should interpret that these findings indicate: a. CN dysfunction. b. Lesion in the cerebral cortex. c. Normal changes attributable to aging. d. Demyelination of nerves attributable to a lesion.

ANS: C Some aging adults show a slower response to requests, especially for those calling for coordination of movements. The findings listed are normal in the absence of other significant abnormal findings. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had neurosurgery. To assess for increased intracranial pressure, what would the nurse include in the assessment? a. CNs, motor function, and sensory function b. Deep tendon reflexes, vital signs, and coordinated movements c. Level of consciousness, motor function, pupillary response, and vital signs d. Mental status, deep tendon reflexes, sensory function, and pupillary response

ANS: C Some hospitalized persons have head trauma or a neurologic deficit from a systemic disease process. These people must be closely monitored for any improvement or deterioration in neurologic status and for any indication of increasing intracranial pressure. The nurse should use an abbreviation of the neurologic examination in the following sequence: level of consciousness, motor function, pupillary response, and vital signs.

The nurse needs to assess a patients ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) and should choose which tool for this assessment? a. Direct Assessment of Functional Abilities (DAFA) b. Lawton Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL) scale c. Barthel Index d. Older Americans Resources and Services Multidimensional Functional Assessment QuestionnaireIADL (OMFAQ-IADL)

ANS: C The Barthel Index is used to assess ADLs. The other options are used to measure IADLs.

While assessing a 7-month-old infant, the nurse makes a loud noise and notices the following response: abduction and flexion of the arms and legs; fanning of the fingers, and curling of the index finger and thumb in a C position, followed by the infant bringing in the arms and legs to the body. What does the nurse know about this response? a. This response could indicate brachial nerve palsy. b. This reaction is an expected startle response at this age. c. This reflex should have disappeared between 1 and 4 months of age. d. This response is normal as long as the movements are bilaterally symmetric.

ANS: C The Moro reflex is present at birth and usually disappears at 1 to 4 months. Absence of the Moro reflex in the newborn or its persistence after 5 months of age indicates severe central nervous system injury. The other responses are incorrect.

The articulation of the mandible and the temporal bone is known as the: a. Intervertebral foramen. b. Condyle of the mandible. c. Temporomandibular joint. d. Zygomatic arch of the temporal bone.

ANS: C The articulation of the mandible and the temporal bone is the temporomandibular joint. The other responses are not correct.

A 30-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has been very unsteady and has had difficulty in maintaining her balance. Which area of the brain that is related to these findings would concern the nurse? a. Thalamus b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. Extrapyramidal tract

ANS: C The cerebellar system coordinates movement, maintains equilibrium, and helps maintain posture. The thalamus is the primary relay station where sensory pathways of the spinal cord, cerebellum, and brainstem form synapses on their way to the cerebral cortex. The brainstem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla and has various functions, especially concerning autonomic centers. The extrapyramidal tract maintains muscle tone for gross automatic movements, such as walking.

A patient is visiting the clinic for an evaluation of a swollen, painful knuckle. The nurse notices that the knuckle above his ring on the left hand is swollen and that he is unable to remove his wedding ring. This joint is called the _________ joint. a. Interphalangeal b. Tarsometatarsal c. Metacarpophalangeal d. Tibiotalar

ANS: C The joint located just above the ring on the finger is the metacarpophalangeal joint. The interphalangeal joint is located distal to the metacarpophalangeal joint. The tarsometatarsal and tibiotalar joints are found in the foot and ankle.

A patient who is in her first trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she is experiencing significant nausea and vomiting and asks when it will improve. The nurse should reply: a. Did your mother have significant nausea and vomiting? b. Many women experience nausea and vomiting until the third trimester. c. Usually, by the beginning of the second trimester, the nausea and vomiting improve. d. At approximately the time you begin to feel the baby move, the nausea and vomiting will subside.

ANS: C The nausea, vomiting, and fatigue of pregnancy improve by the 12th week. Quickening, when the mother recognizes fetal movement, occurs at approximately 18 to 20 weeks.

When the nurse is testing the triceps reflex, what is the expected response? a. Flexion of the hand b. Pronation of the hand c. Extension of the forearm d. Flexion of the forearm

ANS: C The normal response of the triceps reflex is extension of the forearm. The normal response of the biceps reflex causes flexion of the forearm. The other responses are incorrect.

A patient with a lack of oxygen to his heart will have pain in his chest and possibly in the shoulder, arms, or jaw. The nurse knows that the best explanation why this occurs is which one of these statements? a. A problem exists with the sensory cortex and its ability to discriminate the location. b. The lack of oxygen in his heart has resulted in decreased amount of oxygen to the areas experiencing the pain. c. The sensory cortex does not have the ability to localize pain in the heart; consequently, the pain is felt elsewhere. d. A lesion has developed in the dorsal root, which is preventing the sensation from being transmitted normally.

ANS: C The sensory cortex is arranged in a specific pattern, forming a corresponding map of the body. Pain in the right hand is perceived at a specific spot on the map. Some organs, such as the heart, liver, and spleen, are absent from the brain map. Pain originating in these organs is referred because no felt image exists in which to have pain. Pain is felt by proxy, that is, by another body part that does have a felt image. The other responses are not correct explanations.

The area of the nervous system that is responsible for mediating reflexes is the: a. Medulla. b. Cerebellum. c. Spinal cord. d. Cerebral cortex.

ANS: C The spinal cord is the main highway for ascending and descending fiber tracts that connect the brain to the spinal nerves; it is responsible for mediating reflexes.

While gathering equipment after an injection, a nurse accidentally received a prick from an improperly capped needle. To interpret this sensation, which of these areas must be intact? a. Corticospinal tract, medulla, and basal ganglia b. Pyramidal tract, hypothalamus, and sensory cortex c. Lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex d. Anterior spinothalamic tract, basal ganglia, and sensory cortex

ANS: C The spinothalamic tract contains sensory fibers that transmit the sensations of pain, temperature, and crude or light touch. Fibers carrying pain and temperature sensations ascend the lateral spinothalamic tract, whereas the sensations of crude touch form the anterior spinothalamic tract. At the thalamus, the fibers synapse with another sensory neuron, which carries the message to the sensory cortex for full interpretation. The other options are not correct.

To palpate the temporomandibular joint, the nurses fingers should be placed in the depression __________ of the ear. a. Distal to the helix b. Proximal to the helix c. Anterior to the tragus d. Posterior to the tragus

ANS: C The temporomandibular joint can be felt in the depression anterior to the tragus of the ear. The other locations are not correct.

A patients pregnancy test is positive, and she wants to know when the baby is due. The first day of her last menstrual period was June 14, and that period ended June 20. Using the Ngele rule, what is her expected date of delivery? a. March 7 b. March 14 c. March 21 d. March 27

ANS: C To determine the expected date of delivery using the Ngele rule, 7 days are added to the first day of the last menstrual period; then 3 months are subtracted. Therefore, adding 7 days to June 14 would be June 21 and subtracting 3 months would make the expected delivery date March 21.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of always dropping things and falling down. While testing rapid alternating movements, the nurse notices that the woman is unable to pat both of her knees. Her response is extremely slow and she frequently misses. What should the nurse suspect? a. Vestibular disease b. Lesion of CN IX c. Dysfunction of the cerebellum d. Inability to understand directions

ANS: C When a person tries to perform rapid, alternating movements, responses that are slow, clumsy, and sloppy are indicative of cerebellar disease. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult patient. When stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, the nurse notices the plantar flexion of the toes. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Positive Babinski sign b. Plantar reflex abnormal c. Plantar reflex present d. Plantar reflex 2+ on a scale from 0 to 4+

ANS: C With the same instrument, the nurse should draw a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and across the ball of the foot, similar to an upside-down J. The normal response is plantar flexion of the toes and sometimes of the entire foot. A positive Babinski sign is abnormal and occurs with the response of dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes. The plantar reflex is not graded on a 0 to 4+ scale.

During a group prenatal teaching session, the nurse teaches Kegel exercises. Which statements would be appropriate for this teaching session? Select all that apply. a. Kegel exercises help keep your uterus strong during the pregnancy. b. Kegel exercises should be performed twice a day. c. Kegel exercises should be performed 50 to 100 times a day. d. To perform Kegel exercises, slowly squeeze to a peak at the count of eight, and then slowly release to a count of eight. e. To perform Kegel exercises, rapidly perform alternating squeeze-release exercises up to the count of eight.

ANS: C, D Kegel exercises can be performed to prepare for and to recover from birth. The nurse should direct the woman to squeeze slowly to a peak at the count of eight and then to release slowly to the count of eight. The nurse can prescribe this exercise to be performed 50 to 100 times a day.

While the nurse is taking the history of a 68-year-old patient who sustained a head injury 3 days earlier, he tells the nurse that he is on a cruise ship and is 30 years old. The nurse knows that this finding is indicative of a(n): a. Great sense of humor. b. Uncooperative behavior. c. Inability to understand questions. d. Decreased level of consciousness.

ANS: D A change in consciousness may be subtle. The nurse should notice any decreasing level of consciousness, disorientation, memory loss, uncooperative behavior, or even complacency in a previously combative person. The other responses are incorrect.

A young swimmer comes to the sports clinic complaining of a very sore shoulder. He was running at the pool, slipped on some wet concrete, and tried to catch himself with his outstretched hand. He landed on his outstretched hand and has not been able to move his shoulder since. The nurse suspects: a. Joint effusion. b. Tear of rotator cuff. c. Adhesive capsulitis. d. Dislocated shoulder.

ANS: D A dislocated shoulder occurs with trauma involving abduction, extension, and external rotation (e.g., falling on an outstretched arm or diving into a pool).

Which of these statements about the peripheral nervous system is correct? a. The CNs enter the brain through the spinal cord. b. Efferent fibers carry sensory input to the central nervous system through the spinal cord. c. The peripheral nerves are inside the central nervous system and carry impulses through their motor fibers. d. The peripheral nerves carry input to the central nervous system by afferent fibers and away from the central nervous system by efferent fibers.

ANS: D A nerve is a bundle of fibers outside of the central nervous system. The peripheral nerves carry input to the central nervous system by their sensory afferent fibers and deliver output from the central nervous system by their efferent fibers. The other responses are not related to the peripheral nervous system.

The nurse has completed the musculoskeletal examination of a patients knee and has found a positive bulge sign. The nurse interprets this finding to indicate: a. Irregular bony margins. b. Soft-tissue swelling in the joint. c. Swelling from fluid in the epicondyle. d. Swelling from fluid in the suprapatellar pouch.

ANS: D A positive bulge sign confirms the presence of swelling caused by fluid in the suprapatellar pouch. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is providing patient education for a man who has been diagnosed with a rotator cuff injury. The nurse knows that a rotator cuff injury involves the: a. Nucleus pulposus. b. Articular processes. c. Medial epicondyle. d. Glenohumeral joint.

ANS: D A rotator cuff injury involves the glenohumeral joint, which is enclosed by a group of four powerful muscles and tendons that support and stabilize it. The nucleus pulposus is located in the center of each intervertebral disk. The articular processes are projections in each vertebral disk that lock onto the next vertebra, thereby stabilizing the spinal column. The medial epicondyle is located at the elbow.

When the nurse asks a 68-year-old patient to stand with his feet together and arms at his side with his eyes closed, he starts to sway and moves his feet farther apart. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Ataxia. b. Lack of coordination. c. Negative Homans sign. d. Positive Romberg sign.

ANS: D Abnormal findings for the Romberg test include swaying, falling, and a widening base of the feet to avoid falling. A positive Romberg sign is a loss of balance that is increased by the closing of the eyes. Ataxia is an uncoordinated or unsteady gait. Homans sign is used to test the legs for deep-vein thrombosis.

A 70-year-old woman tells the nurse that every time she gets up in the morning or after shes been sitting, she gets really dizzy and feels like she is going to fall over. The nurses best response would be: a. Have you been extremely tired lately? b. You probably just need to drink more liquids. c. Ill refer you for a complete neurologic examination. d. You need to get up slowly when youve been lying down or sitting.

ANS: D Aging is accompanied by a progressive decrease in cerebral blood flow. In some people, this decrease causes dizziness and a loss of balance with a position change. These individuals need to be taught to get up slowly. The other responses are incorrect.

A 32-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has noticed very sudden, jerky movements mainly in her hands and arms. She says, They seem to come and go, primarily when I am trying to do something. I havent noticed them when Im sleeping. This description suggests: a. Tics. b. Athetosis. c. Myoclonus. d. Chorea.

ANS: D Chorea is characterized by sudden, rapid, jerky, purposeless movements that involve the limbs, trunk, or face. Chorea occurs at irregular intervals, and the movements are all accentuated by voluntary actions.

The nurse notices that a woman in an exercise class is unable to jump rope. The nurse is aware that to jump rope, ones shoulder has to be capable of: a. Inversion. b. Supination. c. Protraction. d. Circumduction.

ANS: D Circumduction is defined as moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder. The other options are not correct.

When assessing muscle strength, the nurse observes that a patient has complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance. What grade of muscle strength should the nurse record using a 0- to 5-point scale? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

ANS: D Complete range of motion against gravity is normal muscle strength and is recorded as grade 5 muscle strength. The other options are not correct.

A woman who is 28 weeks pregnant has bilateral edema in her lower legs after working 8 hours a day as a cashier at a local grocery store. She is worried about her legs. What is the nurses best response? a. You will be at risk for development of varicose veins when your legs are edematous. b. I would like to listen to your heart sounds. Edema can indicate a problem with your heart. c. Edema is usually the result of too much salt and fluids in your diet. You may need to cut down on salty foods. d. As your baby grows, it slows blood return from your legs, causing the swelling. This often occurs with prolonged standing.

ANS: D Edema of the lower extremities occurs because of the enlarging fetus, which impairs venous return. Prolonged standing worsens the edema. Typically, the bilateral, dependent edema experienced with pregnancy is not the result of a cardiac pathologic condition.

The nurse is palpating the abdomen of a woman who is 35 weeks pregnant and notices that the fetal head is facing downward toward the pelvis. The nurse would document this as fetal: a. Lie. b. Variety. c. Attitude. d. Presentation.

ANS: D Fetal presentation describes the part of the fetus that is entering the pelvis first. Fetal lie is orientation of the fetal spine to the maternal spine. Fetal attitude is the position of fetal parts in relation to each other, and fetal variety is the location of the fetal back to the maternal pelvis.

Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are called: a. Bursa. b. Tendons. c. Cartilage. d. Ligaments.

ANS: D Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are called ligaments. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is assessing an older adults functional ability. Which definition correctly describes ones functional ability? Functional ability: a. Is the measure of the expected changes of aging that one is experiencing. b. Refers to the individuals motivation to live independently. c. Refers to the level of cognition present in an older person. d. Refers to ones ability to perform activities necessary to live in modern society.

ANS: D Functional ability refers to ones ability to perform activities necessary to live in modern society and can include driving, using the telephone, or performing personal tasks such as bathing and toileting.

In assessing a 70-year-old patient who has had a recent cerebrovascular accident, the nurse notices right-sided weakness. What might the nurse expect to find when testing his reflexes on the right side? a. Lack of reflexes b. Normal reflexes c. Diminished reflexes d. Hyperactive reflexes

ANS: D Hyperreflexia is the exaggerated reflex observed when the monosynaptic reflex arc is released from the influence of higher cortical levels. This response occurs with upper motor neuron lesions (e.g., a cerebrovascular accident). The other responses are incorrect.

During the assessment of a woman in her 22nd week of pregnancy, the nurse is unable to hear fetal heart tones with the fetoscope. The nurse should: a. Immediately notify the physician, then wait 10 minutes and try again. b. Ask the woman if she has felt the baby move today. c. Wait 10 minutes, and try again. d. Use ultrasound to verify cardiac activity.

ANS: D If no fetal heart tones are heard during auscultation with a fetoscope, then the nurse should verify cardiac activity using ultrasonography. An ultrasound should be immediately done and before notifying the physician or causing the woman distress by asking about fetal movement.

The nurse is assessing the forms of support an older patient has before she is discharged. Which of these examples is an informal source of support? a. Local senior center b. Patients Medicare check c. Meals on Wheels meal delivery service d. Patients neighbor, who visits with her daily

ANS: D Informal support includes family and close, long-time friends and is usually provided free of charge. Formal supports include programs such as social welfare and other social service and health care delivery agencies such as home health care.

The nurse is explaining to a patient that there are shock absorbers in his back to cushion the spine and to help it move. The nurse is referring to his: a. Vertebral column. b. Nucleus pulposus. c. Vertebral foramen. d. Intervertebral disks.

ANS: D Intervertebral disks are elastic fibrocartilaginous plates that cushion the spine similar to shock absorbers and help it move. The vertebral column is the spinal column itself. The nucleus pulposus is located in the center of each disk. The vertebral foramen is the channel, or opening, for the spinal cord in the vertebrae.

The nurse is examining a 3-month-old infant. While the nurse holds his or her thumbs on the infants inner mid thighs and the fingers on the outside of the infants hips, touching the greater trochanter, the nurse adducts the legs until the his or her thumbs touch and then abducts the legs until the infants knees touch the table. The nurse does not notice any clunking sounds and is confident to record a: a. Positive Allis test. b. Negative Allis test. c. Positive Ortolani sign. d. Negative Ortolani sign.

ANS: D Normally, this maneuver feels smooth and has no sound. With a positive Ortolani sign, however, the nurse will feel and hear a clunk, as the head of the femur pops back into place. A positive Ortolani sign also reflects hip instability. The Allis test also tests for hip dislocation but is performed by comparing leg lengths.

A female patient has nausea, breast tenderness, fatigue, and amenorrhea. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The nurse interprets that this patient is experiencing __________ signs of pregnancy. a. Positive b. Possible c. Probable d. Presumptive

ANS: D Presumptive signs of pregnancy are those that the woman experiences and include amenorrhea, breast tenderness, fatigue, nausea, and increased urinary frequency. Probable signs are those that are detected by the examiner, such as an enlarged uterus or changes in the cervix. Positive signs of pregnancy are those that document direct evidence of the fetus such as fetal heart tones or positive cardiac activity on ultrasound.

Which of these statements best describes the action of the hormone progesterone during pregnancy? a. Progesterone produces the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin. b. Duct formation in the breast is stimulated by progesterone. c. Progesterone promotes sloughing of the endometrial wall. d. Progesterone maintains the endometrium around the fetus.

ANS: D Progesterone prevents the sloughing of the endometrial wall and maintains the endometrium around the fetus. Progesterone increases the alveoli in the breast and keeps the uterus in a quiescent state. The other options are not correct.

A woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of heartburn and indigestion. When discussing this with the woman, the nurse considers which explanation for these problems? a. Tone and motility of the gastrointestinal tract increase during the second trimester. b. Sluggish emptying of the gallbladder, resulting from the effects of progesterone, often causes heartburn. c. Lower blood pressure at this time decreases blood flow to the stomach and gastrointestinal tract. d. Enlarging uterus and altered esophageal sphincter tone predispose the woman to have heartburn.

ANS: D Stomach displacement from the enlarging uterus plus altered esophageal sphincter and gastric tone as a result of progesterone predispose the woman to heartburn. The tone and motility of the gastrointestinal tract are decreased, not increased, during pregnancy. Emptying of the gallbladder may become more sluggish during pregnancy but is not related to indigestion. Rather, some women are predisposed to gallstone formation. A lower blood pressure may occur during the second semester, but it does not affect digestion.

A 68-year-old woman has come in for an assessment of her rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse notices raised, firm, nontender nodules at the olecranon bursa and along the ulna. These nodules are most commonly diagnosed as: a. Epicondylitis. b. Gouty arthritis. c. Olecranon bursitis. d. Subcutaneous nodules.

ANS: D Subcutaneous nodules are raised, firm, and nontender and occur with rheumatoid arthritis in the olecranon bursa and along the extensor surface of the ulna.

The nurse is palpating the uterus of a woman who is 8 weeks pregnant. Which finding would be considered to be most consistent with this stage of pregnancy? a. The uterus seems slightly enlarged and softened. b. It reaches the pelvic brim and is approximately the size of a grapefruit. c. The uterus rises above the pelvic brim and is approximately the size of a cantaloupe. d. It is about the size of an avocado, approximately 8 cm across the fundus.

ANS: D The 8-week pregnant uterus is approximately the size of an avocado, 7 to 8 cm across the fundus. The 6-week pregnant uterus is slightly enlarged and softened. The 10-week pregnant uterus is approximately the size of a grapefruit and may reach the pelvic brim. The 12-week pregnant uterus will fill the pelvis. At 12 weeks, the uterus is sized from the abdomen.

Which of these correctly describes the average length of pregnancy? a. 38 weeks b. 9 lunar months c. 280 days from the last day of the last menstrual period d. 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period

ANS: D The average length of pregnancy is 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period, which is equal to 40 weeks, 10 lunar months, or roughly 9 calendar months.

A professional tennis player comes into the clinic complaining of a sore elbow. The nurse will assess for tenderness at the: a. Olecranon bursa. b. Annular ligament. c. Base of the radius. d. Medial and lateral epicondyle.

ANS: D The epicondyles, the head of the radius, and the tendons are common sites of inflammation and local tenderness, commonly referred to as tennis elbow. The other locations are not affected.

The nurse is testing the function of CN XI. Which statement best describes the response the nurse should expect if this nerve is intact? The patient: a. Demonstrates the ability to hear normal conversation. b. Sticks out the tongue midline without tremors or deviation. c. Follows an object with his or her eyes without nystagmus or strabismus. d. Moves the head and shoulders against resistance with equal strength.

ANS: D The following normal findings are expected when testing the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI): The patients sternomastoid and trapezius muscles are equal in size; the person can forcibly rotate the head both ways against resistance applied to the side of the chin with equal strength; and the patient can shrug the shoulders against resistance with equal strength on both sides. Checking the patients ability to hear normal conversation checks the function of CN VIII. Having the patient stick out the tongue checks the function of CN XII. Testing the eyes for nystagmus or strabismus is performed to check CNs III, IV, and VI.

When reviewing the musculoskeletal system, the nurse recalls that hematopoiesis takes place in the: a. Liver. b. Spleen. c. Kidneys. d. Bone marrow.

ANS: D The musculoskeletal system functions to encase and protect the inner vital organs, to support the body, to produce red blood cells in the bone marrow (hematopoiesis), and to store minerals. The other options are not correct.

During the taking of the health history of a 78-year-old man, his wife states that he occasionally has problems with short-term memory loss and confusion: He cant even remember how to button his shirt. When assessing his sensory system, which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. The nurse would not test the sensory system as part of the examination because the results would not be valid. b. The nurse would perform the tests, knowing that mental status does not affect sensory ability. c. The nurse would proceed with an explanation of each test, making certain that the wife understands. d. Before testing, the nurse would assess the patients mental status and ability to follow directions.

ANS: D The nurse should ensure the validity of the sensory system testing by making certain that the patient is alert, cooperative, comfortable, and has an adequate attention span. Otherwise, the nurse may obtain misleading and invalid results.

A 50-year-old woman is in the clinic for weakness in her left arm and leg that she has noticed for the past week. The nurse should perform which type of neurologic examination? a. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Neurologic recheck examination c. Screening neurologic examination d. Complete neurologic examination

ANS: D The nurse should perform a complete neurologic examination on an individual who has neurologic concerns (e.g., headache, weakness, loss of coordination) or who is showing signs of neurologic dysfunction. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to define a persons level of consciousness. The neurologic recheck examination is appropriate for those who are demonstrating neurologic deficits. The screening neurologic examination is performed on seemingly well individuals who have no significant subjective findings from the health history.

During an assessment of a 32-year-old patient with a recent head injury, the nurse notices that the patient responds to pain by extending, adducting, and internally rotating his arms. His palms pronate, and his lower extremities extend with plantar flexion. Which statement concerning these findings is most accurate? This patients response: a. Indicates a lesion of the cerebral cortex. b. Indicates a completely nonfunctional brainstem. c. Is normal and will go away in 24 to 48 hours. d. Is a very ominous sign and may indicate brainstem injury.

ANS: D These findings are all indicative of decerebrate rigidity, which is a very ominous condition and may indicate a brainstem injury.

A man who has had gout for several years comes to the clinic with a problem with his toe. On examination, the nurse notices the presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe; one has burst open with a chalky discharge. This finding is known as: a. Callus. b. Plantar wart. c. Bunion. d. Tophi.

ANS: D Tophi are collections of monosodium urate crystals resulting from chronic gout in and around the joint that cause extreme swelling and joint deformity. They appear as hard, painless nodules (tophi) over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe and they sometimes burst with a chalky discharge

The nurse is examining a 2-month-old infant and notices asymmetry of the infants gluteal folds. The nurse should assess for other signs of what disorder? a. Fractured clavicle b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Hip dislocation

ANS: D Unequal gluteal folds may accompany hip dislocation after 2 to 3 months of age, but some asymmetry may occur in healthy children. Further assessment is needed. The other responses are not correct.

During a womans 34th week of pregnancy, she is told that she has preeclampsia. The nurse knows which statement concerning preeclampsia is true? a. Preeclampsia has little effect on the fetus. b. Edema is one of the main indications of preeclampsia. c. Eclampsia only occurs before delivery of the baby. d. Untreated preeclampsia may contribute to restriction of fetal growth.

ANS: D Untreated preeclampsia may progress to eclampsia, which is manifested by generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Eclampsia may develop as late as 10 days postpartum. Before the syndrome becomes clinically manifested, it is affecting the placenta through vasospasm and a series of small infarctions. The placentas capacity to deliver oxygen and nutrients may be seriously diminished, and fetal growth may be restricted. Edema is common in pregnancy and is not an indicator of preeclampsia.

A 78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. The nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. His left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. What type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing? a. Scissors gait b. Cerebellar ataxia c. Parkinsonian gait d. Spastic hemiparesis

ANS: D With spastic hemiparesis, the arm is immobile against the body. Flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers occurs, and adduction of the shoulder, which does not swing freely, is observed. The leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. Causes of this type of gait include cerebrovascular accident.