Hesi Nutrition

female client with haemorrhoids tells the nurse that she understands the need to avoid eating nuts and seeds to prevent inflammation. How should the nurse respond? A Explain the benefits of a high fibre diet. B Confirm that these foods should be avoided. C Encourage soft foods such as yogurt. D Suggest that the client also avoid fruit skins

B Confirm that these foods should be avoided.

A client expresses an interest in reducing intake of saturated fats and plans to stop eating hamburgers at lunch. Which menu item should the nurse suggest as an alternative source of protein? A Baked potato with low fat butter. B Roasted turkey sandwich. C Salad greens with tomatoes. D One slice of cheese pizza.

B: Roasted turkey sandwich.

The nurse is preparing the client for discharge and discussing home medications. What home medications may affect the amount of insulin needed by the client? Select all that apply. St. John's Wort Corticosteroids Ibuprofen Oral contraceptives Epinephrine

St. John's Wort Corticosteroids Oral contraceptives Epinephrine

malnourished child is receiving several nutritional supplements. Which statement by the child indicates to the nurse that an adequate amount of Vitamin A is being provided? A "The bruises on my arms are all gone." B "My feet don't tingle like they used to." C "I can see at night when I wake up now." D "My tummy seems so much smaller now."

"I can see at night when I wake up now. " This statement is correct. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining good vision, especially in low-light conditions. Deficiency of Vitamin A can lead to a condition called night blindness, where individuals have difficulty seeing in low light. Therefore, the statement "I can see at night when I wake up now" (option C) indicates that an adequate amount of Vitamin A is being provided.

A 28-year-old female who has started weightlifting. g nutritional counselling due to unwanted weight loss. 8, and she is hoping to build muscle mass and see weight gain. The client denies drinking, smoking, or drug es an oral contraceptive and uses melatonin for sleep. Review H and P and nurse's notes. Click to highlight the foods that are both nutrient and energy dense. 24-hour diet history: 0630 1 whole-wheat tortilla, 4 oz chicken breast, 4 of an avocados, 1/4 cup of salsa 1030 1 cup coffee, 2 tbsp half and half, 1 small apple, 1 tbsp almond butter 1200 1 cup spinach, 4 oz ground turkey with taco seasoning. 1/4 cup cheddar cheese, 2 bananas 1500 6 cashews 1900 1 cup regular soda, 6 oz white fish, 1/2 white potato, 2 tbsp butter, 1⁄2 cup green beans 2200

1 whole-wheat tortilla, 4 oz chicken breast, 4 of an avocados, 1/4 cup of salsa 1030 1 cup coffee, 2 tbsp half and half, 1 small apple, 1 tbsp almond butter 1200 1 cup spinach, 4 oz ground turkey with taco seasoning. 1/4 cup cheddar cheese, 2 bananas 1500 6 cashews 1900 1 cup regular soda, 6 oz white fish, 1/2 white potato, 2 tbsp butter, 1⁄2 cup green beans 2200 1⁄2 cup fat-free yogurt, 1/4 cup blueberries

The nurse is conducting diet teaching for the family of an older client who has a small reddened area on the coccyx. Based on this finding, which diet should the nurse encourage for this client? A High protein. B High roughage. C Low cholesterol. D Low salt.

A High protein. High protein should be encouraged. The small reddened area on the coccyx is concerning for a potential pressure ulcer (also known as a pressure sore or bed sore). Pressure ulcers can occur when there is prolonged pressure on a specific area of the skin, often in individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. Adequate nutrition, including a high protein diet, is essential for preventing and promoting the healing of pressure ulcers. Protein is crucial for tissue repair and wound healing. A diet high in protein can aid in the recovery of damaged skin and promote the healing process. It helps to maintain and rebuild skin tissue, which is particularly important when dealing with potential pressure ulcers.

A client is receiving a continuous gastric tube feeding at 80 mL/hour. The nurse records the client's gastric residual volume as 325 mL during each of two consecutive hourly measurements. What assessment should the nurse complete before contacting the healthcare provider? A Observe for abdominal distention, B Calculate 24-hour caloric intake. C Measure the urinary output. D Check for body weight changes.

A Observe for abdominal distention, observing for abdominal distention is recommended. Gastric residual volume (GRV) is the amount of formula or food remaining in the stomach after a feeding through a gastric tube. A GRV of 325 mL is relatively high, and it's important to assess the client for signs of potential complications before contacting the healthcare provider. Observe for signs of abdominal distention, which could indicate that the stomach is not adequately emptying or that the feeding is not being tolerated well.

When conducting diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalaemia, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat? A Potatoes, bananas, and oranges. B Cranberry juice, butter, and hard candy. C Milk products, canned salmon, and fresh oysters. D Hard cheese, whole grain cereals, and dried vegetables.

A Potatoes, bananas, and oranges. Potatoes, bananas, and oranges should be encouraged. Hypokalaemia refers to a lower than normal level of potassium in the blood. Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining proper muscle function, nerve signalling, and fluid balance in the body. To address hypokalaemia, it's important to consume foods that are rich in potassium.

While assessing placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the nurse aspirates cloudy green fluid into a syringe. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A Send fluid specimen to the lab. B Withdraw the NGT and reinsert. C Connect the NGT to wall suction. D Determine pH value of specimen.

A Send fluid specimen to the lab. Sending fluid specimen to the lab should be implemented. Cloudy green fluid aspirated from a nasogastric tube (NGT) can indicate that the tube is in the wrong place, likely in the respiratory tract (trachea) instead of the gastrointestinal tract (stomach). The green colour suggests the presence of bile, which is normally found in the stomach but not in the respiratory tract. This is a serious situation that requires immediate attention.

The charge nurse observes a newly hired nurse who is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. Which action by the charge nurse takes priority? A Demonstrate correct measurement of the tube insertion length. B Remind the nurse to apply lubricant to the tube before insertion. C Confirm that the nurse has auscultated the client's bowel sounds. D Elevate the head of the bed before the nurse inserts the tube.

A Demonstrate correct measurement of the tube insertion length. Demonstrating correct measurement of the tube insertion length is the first priority. Inserting a nasogastric tube to the appropriate length is crucial for ensuring that the tube reaches the stomach and is not inserted too far. Incorrect insertion length can lead to complications, discomfort, or potential harm to the patient. Therefore, demonstrating and ensuring the correct measurement of the tube insertion length takes priority.:

After reviewing the client's intake and output record for the last eight hours, the nurse calculates the client's current fluid balance as how many mL? (Enter numeric value only). 0730-8 oz of orange juice, hard boiled egg, and toast 0830-voided 150 ml 1200-1 cup of soup, tuna sandwich, and 1/2 cup of apple juice 1300 vomitus of 100 mL 1400 voided 250 mL and drank one 12 oz can of soft drink

455 ml Intake: 8 oz of orange juice = 240 mL 1 cup of soup = 240 mL 1/2 cup of apple juice = 120 mL 12 oz can of soft drink = 355 mL Total intake = 240 + 240 + 120 + 355 = 955 mL Output: Voided 150 mL Vomitus 100 mL Voided 250 mL Total output = 150 + 100 + 250 = 500 mL Fluid Balance: Fluid balance = Intake - Output = 955 - 500 = 455 mL

The nurse assesses a client's fluid intake at breakfast, which consisted of oatmeal, a cup of milk, and 12 ounces of coffee. How many mL should the nurse document in the client's record? (Enter numerical value only.)

594.882 To calculate the fluid intake, you need to convert each type of drink to millilitres (mL) and then sum them up: Oatmeal: Oatmeal is usually consumed as a solid, so it doesn't contribute to fluid intake. Cup of milk: Depending on the size of the cup, let's assume it's 240 mL (a common serving size for a cup of milk). 12 ounces of coffee: Convert ounces to millilitres. 1 fluid ounce is approximately 29.5735 mL, so 12 ounces is roughly 354.882 mL. Total fluid intake = Milk + Coffee Total fluid intake = 240 mL + 354.882 mL Total fluid intake

The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with malnutrition. Which finding supports the medical diagnosis? A Body mass index (BMI) of 17. B Decrease in the appetite. C Dry mucosal membranes. D Weight of 227 pounds (103 kg).

A Body mass index (BMI) of 17. Body mass index (BMI) of 17 is the correct finding. A low Body Mass Index (BMI) is a common indicator of malnutrition. BMI is a measurement that considers a person's weight in relation to their height. A BMI of 17 suggests that the person is underweight, which can be indicative of malnutrition. Malnutrition is characterized by inadequate intake of calories, protein, vitamins, and minerals that are essential for maintaining health and well-being.

A young adult client with a history of iron deficiency anaemia has a haemoglobin of 10.5 g/dL (6.52 mmol/L). Which food choice should the nurse recommend to this client? Reference Range Haemoglobin (Hgb) [Reference Range: Male: 14 to 18 g/dL or 8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L] A Broccoli. B Carrots. C Cheddar cheese. D Whole milk.

A Broccoli. Broccoli is appropriate recommendation. Given the client's history of iron deficiency anaemia and the current haemoglobin level below the reference range, it's important to recommend foods that are good sources of iron. Among the options provided, broccoli is the most suitable choice. Iron from plant-based sources (non-heme iron) might be less easily absorbed than iron from animal sources (heme iron), but combining them with foods high in vitamin C can enhance iron absorption. Broccoli is a vegetable that contains both iron and vitamin C, making it a favourable choice to support the client's iron intake and help address the anaemia.

In performing health screening for a postmenopausal female client, which assessment data indicates the need for referral to a nutritionist? Reference Range Total Calcium [Reference Range: Adult 9 to 10.5 mg/dL or 2.25 to 2.62 mmol/L] High Density Lipoproteins (HDL) [Reference Range: Female: greater than 55 mg/dL or greater than 0.91 mmol/L] Glycosylated haemoglobin (A1C) Reference Range: 4% to 5.9%] A Serum HDL (high-density lipoprotein) of 35 mg/dl (0.91 mmol/L). B Serum HbA1c (glycosylated haemoglobin) of 4.8% (0.05). C BMI (body mass index) of 22 kg/m2. D Total serum calcium of 10 mg/dl (2.5 mmol/L).

A: Serum HDL (high-density lipoprotein) of 35 mg/dl (0.91 mmol/L). Serum HDL (high-density lipoprotein) of 35 mg/dL (0.91 mmol/L). Among the options provided, a serum HDL level of 35 mg/dL (0.91 mmol/L) is the assessment data that indicates the need for referral to a nutritionist. HDL is often referred to as "good" cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease. In this case, the HDL level of 35 mg/dL is below the recommended reference range for females (greater than 55 mg/dL or greater than 0.91 mmol/L), which could suggest a potential need for dietary and lifestyle interventions to improve cardiovascular health

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with chronic kidney disease advancing to stage 4. The nurse should instruct the client to limit the ingestion of which type of foods? A Apples and blueberries. B Avocados and bananas. C Cherries and cranberries. D Carrots and green beans.

B Avocados and bananas. Avocados and bananas are correct. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) often requires dietary modifications to manage electrolyte and mineral imbalances. In CKD stage 4, the kidney's ability to filter waste and excess substances from the blood is significantly impaired. Therefore, certain foods that are high in potassium should be limited to prevent hyperkalaemia (elevated blood potassium levels).

The nurse instructs a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) to avoid refined sugar and carbohydrates. Choosing which food indicates that the client understands the diet teaching? A Potatoes. B Avocado. C Grapes. D Pretzels.

B Avocado. Avocado is correct. Avocado is a good choice for someone with Type 2 diabetes who wants to avoid refined sugars and carbohydrates. Avocado is a healthy source of monounsaturated fats, fibre, and various vitamins and minerals. It has a low glycaemic index and doesn't significantly raise blood sugar levels, making it a suitable option for people with diabetes

20% A client has a serum sodium level of 155 mEq/L (155 mmol/L). The nurse should encourage the client to make which selection from the lunch menu? Reference Range Sodium [Reference Range: Adult 136 to 145 mEq/L or 136 to 145 mmol/L] A Canned cream of mushroom soup, tuna salad, and water. B Bacon. lettuce, and tomato sandwich, grapes, and skim milk. C Taco salad, refried beans, low fat ice cream and coffee. D Chicken salad on toast, fruit-flavoured yogurt, and iced tea.

B Bacon. lettuce, and tomato sandwich, grapes, and skim milk. B. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich, grapes, and skim milk is the appropriate selection. A serum sodium level of 155 mEq/L (155 mmol/L) is higher than the normal reference range (136 to 145 mEq/L or 136 to 145 mmol/L), indicating hypernatremia or high blood sodium levels. In this case, it's important for the client to choose foods that are lower in sodium to help manage their sodium intake.

The nurse is admitting an older client with possible malnutrition. Which parameters are most indicative of the client's nutritional status? A 24-hour food recall, food preferences, and allergies. B Body mass index (BMI) and serum albumin level. C Triceps skin fold and mid-arm circumference. D Weight loss history and body surface area (BSA).

B Body mass index (BMI) and serum albumin level. Body mass index (BMI) and serum albumin level is correct. Body mass index (BMI) and serum albumin level are commonly used parameters to assess a client's nutritional status. These measures provide valuable information about the client's weight, muscle mass, and protein status. Let's break down the options:

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus who uses both short-acting and long-acting insulin adjusted doses throughout the day. Which nutrient is essential for the client to count for each meal and snacks? A Protein. B Carbohydrates. C Dairy. D Fats

B Carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are essential. For a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who uses both short-acting (mealtime) and long-acting (basal) insulin, counting carbohydrates is essential for meal planning and insulin dosing. Carbohydrates have the most direct and significant impact on blood sugar levels. When carbohydrates are consumed, they are broken down into glucose, which enters the bloodstream and can lead to increased blood sugar levels

\ Which client is at greatest risk for aspiration? A Client with a nasogastric tube to low, intermittent suction. B Client who has sensory aphasia and is receiving a clear liquid diet. C Client receiving 30% oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask. D Client experiencing dysphagia who is prescribed a full liquid diet.

B Client who has sensory aphasia and is receiving a clear liquid diet. Client who has sensory aphasia and is receiving a clear liquid diet is correct. Sensory aphasia refers to a language disorder that affects a person's ability to understand language and communication. This client may have difficulty swallowing safely and effectively, which increases the risk of aspiration. Additionally, a clear liquid diet consists of thin liquids that are more likely to be aspirated compared to thicker fluids

A client who is training for a first marathon arrives at the clinic reporting an increase in the frequency of leg cramps. Which recommendation should the nurse provide to help decrease the frequency of leg cramps? A Drink a litter of water during and after running. B Consume a sports drink before and during training. C Eat a high carbohydrate meal after running. D Avoid drinking alcohol forty-eight hours before training.

B Consume a sports drink before and during training. Consuming a sports drink before and during training is appropriate. Sports drinks are formulated to provide not only hydration but also electrolytes like sodium, potassium, and sometimes magnesium. These electrolytes are important for proper muscle function and can help prevent cramps. Consuming a sports drink before and during training can help maintain electrolyte balance and reduce the risk of leg cramps.

The nurse is caring for an older adult who needs to limit sodium intake. Which food should the nurse encourage the client to avoid? A Bananas. B Ground sirloin. C Cottage cheese. D Broccoli.

B Ground sirloin. Ground sirloin is correct. For an older adult who needs to limit sodium intake, the nurse should encourage avoiding foods that are high in sodium. Processed meats, including ground meats like ground sirloin, are often higher in sodium due to added preservatives and flavourings. These additives can significantly contribute to sodium content. Encouraging the client to choose lean meats and to avoid processed meats can help reduce sodium intake.

The nurse is reviewing a nutrition plan with a client newly diagnosed with hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet? A The consumption of dairy-based products should be eliminated from the diet. B The consumption of protein products should come from lean meats, nuts, and dried beans. C The consumption of bread products should be gluten-free. D The consumption of fruit and/or vegetables should total between 4 to 6 servings

B The consumption of protein products should come from lean meats, nuts, and dried beans. The consumption of protein products should come from lean meats, nuts, and dried beans. The statement is correct. The DASH diet encourages including protein sources that are low in saturated fat and high in nutrients. Lean meats, nuts, and dried beans are examples of protein sources that fit this criterion.

A female client with haemorrhoids tells the nurse that she understands the need to avoid eating nuts and seeds to prevent inflammation. How should the nurse respond? A Explain the benefits of a high fibre diet. B Confirm that these foods should be avoided. C Encourage soft foods such as yogurt. D Suggest that the client also avoid fruit skins.

B: Confirm that these foods should be avoided. Confirm that these foods should be avoided is the correct response. In this situation, the nurse's first response should be to confirm the client's understanding and provide accurate information about the need to avoid certain foods. Nuts and seeds can be challenging to digest and may lead to irritation and inflammation in individuals with haemorrhoids. Confirming the client's understanding and providing guidance aligns with the nurse's role in patient education and care.

An adult woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 21 tells the nurse that she wants to lose 10 pounds (4.5 kg). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A Describe the value of eating smaller portion sizes. B Encourage a well-balanced diet and moderate exercise. C Explore the reasons the client wants to lose weight. D Determine if the client has a history of anorexia

B: Encourage a well-balanced diet and moderate exercise. Encouraging a well-balanced diet and moderate exercise is appropriate. This intervention focuses on promoting healthy and sustainable weight loss. A well-balanced diet helps ensure that the client is getting all the necessary nutrients while aiming for a calorie deficit for weight loss. Moderate exercise complements dietary changes and contributes to overall health and weight management.

A client with celiac disease selects a bowl of oatmeal with fresh fruit and skim milk, grapefruit juice, and coffee from the breakfast menu. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement? A Advise the client that too much fruit can irritate the colon. B Inform the client that oatmeal contains gluten. C Commend the client for selecting fat free milk. D Encourage the client to choose decaffeinated coffee.

B: Inform the client that oatmeal contains gluten. Informing the client that oatmeal contains gluten is the right choice. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder in which consuming gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, and barley, triggers an immune response that damages the small intestine. Oatmeal itself is naturally gluten-free, but it is often processed in facilities that also process gluten-containing grains, which can lead to cross-contamination. Therefore, it's important for individuals with celiac disease to choose certified gluten-free oats to avoid adverse reactions.

When conducting diet teaching for a client who was diagnosed with hypocalcaemia, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply.) Pickles, blackberries, seeds. Buttermilk, spinach, milk. Pickled olives, spam, nuts. Fresh meats, fresh turkey, fresh chicken. Cheese spread, processed cheese, cheese.

Buttermilk, spinach, milk. Fresh meats, fresh turkey, fresh chicken. Cheese spread, processed cheese, cheese. Buttermilk, spinach, milk: These foods are good sources of dietary calcium is appropriate. Milk and buttermilk are commonly consumed dairy products that contain calcium. Spinach, while not as high in calcium as dairy products, still contributes to calcium intake. Fresh meats, fresh turkey, fresh chicken is appropriate. Fresh meats, such as turkey and chicken, provide some calcium, although not as much as dairy products. They also contribute to overall nutritional intake. Choice E Cheese spread, processed cheese, cheese is appropriate. Dairy products like cheese, especially processed cheese and cheese spread, are good sources of calcium. They can be effective in increasing calcium intake to address hypocalcaemia.

A client with glomerulonephritis is preparing for discharge and asks the nurse which kind of diet to follow upon returning home. Which dietary teaching should the nurse include in the discharge instructions? A Follow low carbohydrate diet with low glycaemic index foods. B Eat a high protein diet three times a day. C Avoid foods high in potassium. D Restrict sodium rich foods and excessive oral fluids.

C Avoid foods high in potassium. Avoiding foods high in potassium is correct. Examples of foods high in potassium that the client should be cautious about include bananas, oranges, potatoes, tomatoes, spinach, and other fruits and vegetables. Glomerulonephritis is a condition involving inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, which can affect kidney function and the regulation of electrolytes, including potassium. In glomerulonephritis, the kidneys might have difficulty filtering and excreting excess potassium, leading to a potential build-up of potassium in the blood (hyperkalaemia).

A middle-aged client newly diagnosed with cholelithiasis is choosing the evening meal. What food choice should the nurse encourage the client to omit? A Beef broth. B Ketchup. C Ice cream. D Bread.

C Ice cream. Ice cream should be omitted. Cholelithiasis refers to the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder. Gallstones can form from substances in the bile, and certain foods can trigger symptoms in individuals with gallbladder issues. One of the common triggers is high-fat foods, which can cause the gallbladder to contract and potentially lead to pain or discomfort.

The nurse is developing a food safety educational class for a group of parents. Which type of food is most likely to pose a threat of food poisoning after being stored in a refrigerator at 40°F (4.4°C) or below for more than two days? A Opened package of hot dogs. B Packaged of uncooked lamb chops. C Opened package of deli sliced meats. D Ground-up hamburger raw meat.

C Opened package of deli sliced meats.

A client who haemorrhaged following surgery has a haemoglobin of 10 g/dl. (6.21 mmol/L) and a haematocrit of 36% (0.36 volume fraction) 48 hours later. The client has now progressed to a soft diet and is eating oatmeal for breakfast. Which beverage should the nurse encourage this client to drink to increase iron intake? Reference Ranges Haemoglobin (Hgb) [Reference Range: Male: 14 to 18 g/dL or 8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L] Haematocrit (Hct) [Reference Range: Male: 42% to 52% or 0.42 to 0.52 volume fraction) A Coffee. B Hot tea. C Orange juice. D apple juice

C Orange juice.\ Orange juice is correct. Orange juice is a great choice as it is high in vitamin C, which can enhance the absorption of iron from plant-based sources like oatmeal. The vitamin C in orange juice helps convert non-heme iron into a form that is more easily absorbed by the body.

A client who is receiving antineoplastic chemotherapy has lost 25% of total body weight and is having difficulty eating because of stomatitis. In planning care for this client which diet should the nurse recommend? A Low residue diet. B Mechanical soft diet. C Pureed regular diet. D High protein soft diet.

C Pureed regular diet. Pureed regular diet is correct. Stomatitis is inflammation of the mouth and can cause pain and discomfort, making it difficult for the client to eat. In this case, a pureed regular diet would be the most suitable choice.

While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), it is most important for the nurse to monitor which of the client's lab values? A Urinary ketones. B Serum protein. C Serum osmolarity. D Capillary glucose.

C Serum osmolarity. Serum osmolarity is the most important. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring serum osmolarity is most important. TPN is a highly concentrated solution containing various nutrients, and it is infused directly into the bloodstream. Serum osmolarity reflects the concentration of particles (such as electrolytes, glucose, and other solutes) in the blood. Monitoring serum osmolarity is crucial to prevent complications related to fluid and electrolyte imbalances that can arise from the administration of TPN.

A male client with coronary heart disease is informed by the healthcare provider that his cholesterol levels are significantly elevated and he needs to change his diet and lifestyle. The client emphatically states that he is not going to change his eating habits. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's unwillingness to comply with the recommendations? A Provide pamphlets about heart healthy diet selections. B Refer the client to a dietitian for nutrition education. C Discuss client's concerns about the change in diet. D Suggest exercise as an alternative to increase HDL levels.

C: Discuss client's concerns about the change in diet. Discussing client's concerns about the change in diet should be implemented. When a client is resistant or unwilling to make changes to their diet and lifestyle, it's important for the nurse to engage in open and empathetic communication. Option C, discussing the client's concerns about the change in diet, is the most appropriate initial response. By engaging in a conversation with the client, the nurse can better understand the client's perspective, reasons for resistance, and potential barriers to making dietary changes. This approach allows the nurse to address the client's concerns, provide information, and work collaboratively to find solutions that might be more acceptable to the client.

During the admission assessment, an older male client who has no teeth tells the nurse that he can not find his dentures at home. His dietary prescription is a regular diet. What diet request should the nurse recommend for this client? A Soft low-residue diet. B Pureed diet. C Mechanical soft diet. D Full liquid diet.

C: Mechanical soft diet. Mechanical soft diet should not be recommended. mechanical soft diet consists of foods that are easy to chew and swallow, making it suitable for individuals with dental issues or difficulty chewing. It includes foods that are softer in texture, often cooked until they are tender and easy to manipulate with a fork or spoon. This type of diet would be beneficial for the client in question, as it accommodates his lack of teeth and ensures that he can consume a variety of foods without the need for extensive chewing.

A 5' 3" (1.6 meter) 113-pound (51.3 kg) client has a lipid profile of total cholesterol 267 mg/dL (6.92 mmol/L), LDL 167 mg/dL (4.33 mmol/L), HDL 85 mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L), triglycerides 79 mg/dL (0.89 mmol/L), and VLDL 16 mg/dL (0.41 mmol/L). Based on these findings, it is most important for the nurse to teach the client to make every effort to completely avoid which foods? Reference Range Total Cholesterol [Reference Range: less than 200 mg/dL] Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL) [Reference Range: less than 130 mg/dL] High Density Lipoproteins (HDL) [Reference Range: Male: greater than 45 mg/dL or greater than 0.75 mmol/L] Very Low-Density Lipoprotein Cholesterol (VLDL) [Reference Range: 12 to 30 mg/dL or 0.31 to 0.78 mmol/L] A Nuts. B Shellfish. C Eggs. D Cheese.

Cheese Cheese is correct. Cheese is often high in saturated fats, which can contribute to elevated LDL cholesterol levels. Therefore, it would be important for the client to limit their intake of high-fat cheeses.

The nurse is caring for an older client with that is exhibiting signs of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A Offer water to the client hourly. B Reduce dairy product intake. C Increase daily sodium intake. D Review the intake and output record.

D Review the intake and output record. Reviewing the intake and output record is appropriate. Confusion in an older client can be caused by various factors, including medical conditions, medication side effects, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Reviewing the intake and output record (option D) is a reasonable intervention to gather more information about the client's fluid balance and hydration status. This can help the nurse assess whether the confusion might be related to dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.

The nurse is providing dietary education to a client newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which information should the nurse provide? A Counting carbohydrates will ensure glucose levels stay within a normal range. B Many carbohydrates are found in starches and fruits. C It is best to count carbohydrates when it feels like blood glucose is low. D Examples of complex carbohydrates are white rice and cereals.

Counting carbohydrates will ensure glucose levels stay within a normal range. Counting carbohydrates will ensure glucose levels stay within a normal range is accurate. When providing dietary education to a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, it's important to emphasize the role of carbohydrate counting in managing blood glucose levels. Carbohydrate intake significantly impacts blood sugar levels, and counting carbohydrates can help the client make informed decisions about their meals and medications to maintain glucose levels within a normal range.

The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment on a client who is professional dancer. Which issue reported by the client should alert the nurse to perform further assessment? A Sweaty palms. B Bunions. C Dry skin. D Fatigue.

D Fatigue. Fatigue is correct. For a professional dancer, fatigue should be an issue that alerts the nurse to perform further assessment. While all of the options can provide information about the client's health, fatigue in a professional dancer could be indicative of various underlying issues that may affect their overall well-being and performance. Fatigue in a dancer might result from factors such as inadequate nutrition, overtraining, insufficient rest, or underlying medical conditions. It's important for the nurse to explore further to understand the potential causes of the fatigue and address them appropriately

In conducting community health teaching, the nurse plans to describe foods that will help prevent rickets. What food product should the nurse recommend as the best dietary source for preventing rickets? A Bananas. B Apple juice. C Oranges. D Fortified milk.

D Fortified milk. Fortified milk is correct. Rickets is a condition primarily caused by a deficiency of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate. Vitamin D is crucial for the proper absorption of calcium and phosphorus in the body, which are essential for bone health and development. Fortified milk is an excellent dietary source for preventing rickets because it is often enriched with vitamin D and calcium, both of which are important for bone mineralization and growth

The nurse is providing care for a client with an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 400. Which action should the nurse perform prior to delivering the meal tray to the client's room? Reference Range Neutrophils (ANC) [Reference Range: 2500 to 8000 mm3 or 2500 to 8000 cells/uL] A Cut the spaghetti and meatballs into small pieces. B Exchange the pasteurized whole milk with skim milk. C Substitute the fried potatoes with a garden salad. D Remove the fresh grapes from the meal tray.

D Remove the fresh grapes from the meal tray. Remove the fresh grapes from the meal tray is appropriate. The reason for this choice is that a client with an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 400 has a significantly compromised immune system, and they are at a high risk of infection due to their low neutrophil count. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. A normal ANC falls within the range of 2500 to 8000 mm3 or cells/uL. Fresh grapes, being a raw and uncooked food item, may carry a higher risk of containing bacteria or pathogens that could pose a threat to a client with such a low ANC. The nurse needs to ensure that the client's exposure to potential sources of infection is minimized

A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend? A Plan low carbohydrate and high protein meals. B Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily. C Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week. D Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily.

D: Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily is recommended. When helping a client with a BMI of 30 (which falls within the obese range) start a weight loss plan, keeping a record of food and drinks consumed daily can be an effective initial approach. This approach is often referred to as "food journaling" or "food tracking." It involves writing down everything the client eats and drinks throughout the day. This practice can help raise awareness of eating habits, identify patterns, and uncover areas where changes can be made to reduce calorie intake.

After reviewing a client's intake and output record for the last eight hours, the nurse calculates the client's current fluid balance as how many mL? (Enter numeric value only). 0730-8 oz of orange juice, hard-boiled egg, and toast 0830-voided 200 mL 0900-a cup of water 1200-1 cup of soup, tuna sandwich, and 6 ounces of apple juice 1300 vomitus of 100 mL 1400-voided 250 ml 1430-12 ounce can have carbonated beverage. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding(s) should alert the nurse that further assessment is needed? (Select all that apply.) Generalized nonpitting edema. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants. Redness at intravenous site. Urinary output greater than 30 ml per hour. Frequent productive cough.

Generalized nonpitting edema. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants. Redness at intravenous site. Frequent productive cough. Generalized nonpitting edema is correct. Nonpitting edema could indicate fluid retention, and it's important to assess for signs of fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, or underlying cardiac issues. Choice B Hypoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants is correct. Hypoactive bowel sounds could suggest gastrointestinal motility issues, which could be a sign of gastrointestinal complications related to TPN. Choice C Redness at intravenous site is correct. Redness at the intravenous site could be indicative of infection, infiltration, or irritation. It's important to assess for signs of infection and ensure proper IV site care. Frequent productive cough is correct. A frequent productive cough could indicate respiratory issues, including aspiration pneumonia, which can be a complication of TPN.

The home health nurse is visiting an older client who was discharged from the hospital 3 days ago following hip pinning surgery. The client lives with her daughter, who prepares the family meals. In discussing nutrition for postoperative healing, which food choices should the nurse suggest for this client's diet? (Select all that apply.) Grilled salmon. Soda crackers. Scrambled eggs. Baked chicken. Flavoured gelatine.

Grilled salmon. Scrambled eggs. Baked chicken. Flavoured gelatine. Grilled salmon is correct. Salmon is a good source of protein and healthy omega-3 fatty acids. Protein is essential for wound healing and tissue repair, while omega-3 fatty acids have anti-inflammatory properties that can help with the healing process. Choice C Scrambled eggs are correct. Eggs are a good source of high-quality protein and contain essential nutrients like vitamin D and choline. Protein is crucial for tissue repair and recovery, and vitamin D supports bone health. Choice D Baked chicken is correct: Lean protein sources like baked chicken are important for wound healing and maintaining muscle mass. Protein helps the body repair and build new tissues. Choice E Flavoured gelatine is correct. Flavoured gelatine can be a soft and easily digestible source of hydration and calories. It's also a good option for someone recovering from surgery as it provides some energy and can be gentle on the digestive system.