HESI OBSTETRICS/MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM

During labor, the nurse determines that a full term client is demonstrating late decelerations. In which sequence should the nurse implement these nursing actions? (Arrange in order) a. Provide oxygen via face mack b. Reposition the client c. Increase IV fluid d. Call the healthcare provider

1. Reposition the Client 2. Provide oxygen via face mask 3. Increase IV fluid 4. Call the healthcare provider To stabilize the fetus, intrauterine resuscitation is the first priority, and to enhance the fetal blood supply, the laboring client should be repositioned (1) to displace the gravid uterus and improve fetal perfusion. Secondly, to optimize oxygenation of the circulatory blood volume, oxygen via face mask (2) should be applied to the mother. Next, the IV fluids should be increased (3) to expand the maternal circulating blood volume. Then, the primary healthcare provider should be notified (4) for additional interventions to resolve the fetal stress.

The nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (BBT) pattern as a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. Which temperature pattern indicates the occurrence of ovulation, and therefor, the best time for intercourse to ensure conception? a. Between the time the temperature falls and rises b. Between 36 and 48 hours after the temperature rises c. When the temperature falls and remains low for 36 hours d. Within 72 hours before the temperature falls

a. Between the time the temperature falls and rises In most women, the BBT drops slightly 24 to 36 hours before ovulation and rises 24 to 72 hours after ovulation, when the corpus luteum of the ruptured ovary produces progesterone. Therefore, intercourse between the time of the temperature fall and rise (A) is the best time for conception.

A multigravida client arrives at the labor and delivery unit and tells the nurse that her bag of water has broken. The nurse identifies the presence of meconium fluid on the perineum and determines the fetal heart rate is between 140 to 150 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement next? a. Ccmplete a sterile vaginal exam b. Take maternal temperature every 2 hours c. Prepare for an immediate cesarean birth d. Obtain sterile suction equipment

a. Complete a sterile vaginal exam A vaginal exam (A) should be performed after the rupture of membranes to determine the presence of a prolapsed cord.

A pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III is prescribed complete bedrest. The client asks the nurse, "Why must I stay in bed all the time?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client? a. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle b. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can make sure that will happen again c. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about somethings you could so while in bed? d. Labor is difficult and you need to use this time to rest before you have to assume all child-caring duties

a. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue To help preserve cardiac reserves, the woman may need to restrict her activities and complete bedrest is often prescribes (A).

A healthcare provider informs the charge nurse of a labor and delivery unit that a client is coming to the unit with suspected abruptio placentae. What findings should the charge nurse expect the client to demonstrate? (Select all that apply) a. Dark, red vaginal bleeding b. Lower back pain c. Premature rupture of membranes d. Increased uterine irritability e. Bilateral pitting edema f. A rigid abdomen

a. Dark, red vaginal bleeding d. Increased uterine irritability f. A rigid abdomen The symptoms of abruptio placentae include dark red vaginal bleeding (A), increased uterine irritability (D), and a rigid abdomen (F).

The nurse is caring for a woman with a previously diagnosed heart disease who is in the second stage of labor. Which assessment findings are of greatest concern? a. edema, basilar rales, and an irregular pulse b. Increased urinary output, and tachycardia c. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension d. Regular heart rate, and hypertension

a. Edema, basilar rales, and an irregular pulse Edema, basilar rales, and an irregular pulse (A) indicate cardiac decompensation and require immediate intervention.

Which nursing intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or "afterpains?" a. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen b. Using a breast pump c. Massaging the abdomen d. Giving oxytocic medications

a. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen Lying prone (A) keeps the fundus contracted and is especially useful with multiparas, who commonly experience afterpains due to lack of uterine tone.

When explaining "postpartum blues" to a client who is 1 day postpartum, which symptoms should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Mood swings b. Panic attacks c. Tearfulness d. Decreased need for sleep e. Disinterest in the infant

a. Mood swings c. Tearfulness "Postpartum blues" is a common emotional response related to the rapid decrease in placental hormones after delivery and include mood swings (A), tearfulness (C), feeling low, emotional, and fatigued.

A client receiving epidural anesthesia begins to experience nausea and becomes pale and clammy. What intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Raise the foot of the bed b. Assess for vaginal bleeding c. Evaluate the fetal heart rate d. Take the client's blood pressure

a. Raise the foot of the bed These symptoms are suggestive of hypotension which is a side effect of epidural anesthesia. Raising the foot of the bed (A) will increase venous return and provide blood to the vital areas. Increasing the IV fluid rate using a balanced non-dextrose solution and ensuring that the silent is in a lateral position are also appropriate interventions.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, "What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?" What should the nurse instruct the client to do? a. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider b. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position c. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room d. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence

a. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider Lochia should progress in stages from rubra (red) to serosa (pinkish) to alba (whitish), and not return to red. The return to rubra usually indicates subinvolution of infection.

A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which pattern of contractions? a. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each a. Early labor with contractions every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds each c. Active labor with contractions every 31 minutes, lasting 60 seconds each d. Active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each

a. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each Contractions pattern (A) describes hyperstimulation and an inadequate resting time between contractions to allow for placental perfusion. The oxytocin infusion should be discontinued.

Client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. Which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching on the gravid client? a. The client's readiness to learn b. The client's educational background c. The order in which the information is presented d. The extent to which the pregnancy was planned

a. the client's readiness to learn When teaching any client, readiness to learn (A) is the most important criterion. For example, the client with severe morning sickness in the first trimester may not be "ready to learn" about ways to relieve morning sickness.

A client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should the nurse implement? a. Ask the client if she takes a daily calcium tablet b. Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot c. Lower the leg off the side of the bed d. Elevate the leg above the heart

b. Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot Dorsiflexing the foot by puching the sole of the foot forward or by stnading (if the client is capable) (B), and putting the heel of the foot on the floor is the best means of relieving leg cramps.

Which maternal behavior is the nurse most likely to see when a new mother receives her infant for the first time? a. She eagerly reaches for the infant, undresses the infants, and examines the infant completely b. Her arms and hands receive the infant and she then traces the infant's profile with her fingertips c. Her arms and hands receive the infant and she then cuddles the infant to her own body d. She eagerly reaches for the infant and then holds the infant close to her own body

b. Her arms and hands receive the infant and she then traces the infant's profile with her fingertips Attachment/bonding theory indicates that most mothers will demonstrate behaviors described in (B) during the first visit with the newborn, which may be at delivery of later.

A client who is attending antepartum classes asks the nurse why her healthcare provider has prescribed iron tablets. The nurse's response is based on what knowledge? a. Supplementary iron is more efficiently utilized during pregnancy b. It it difficult to consume 18 mg of additional iron by diet alone c. Iron absorption is decreased in the GI tract during pregnancy d. Iron is needed to prevent megaloblastic anemia in the last trimester

b. It is difficult to consume 18 mg of additional iron by diet alone Consuming enough iron-containing foods to facilitate adequate fetal storage of iron and to meet the demands of pregnancy is difficult (B) so iron supplements are often recommended.

The nurse identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform? a. Elicit positive scarf sign on the affected side b. Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex c. Watch for swelling of fingers on the affected side d. Note paralysis of affected extremity and muscles

b. Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex The most common neonatal birth trauma due to vaginal delivery is fracture of the clavicle. Although an infant may be asymptomatic, a fracture clavicle should be suspected is an infant has limited use of the affected arm malposition of the arm, an asymmetric Moro reflex (B), crepitus over the clavicle, focal swelling or tenderness, or cries when the arm is moved.

A mother who is breastfeeding her baby receives instructions from the nurse. Which instruction is most effective to prevent nipple soreness? a. Wear a cotton bra b. Increase nursing time gradually c. Correctly place the infant on the breast d. Manually express a small amount of milk before nursing

c. Correctly place the infant on the breast The most common cause of nipple soreness is incorrect positioning (C) of the infant on the breast, e.g., grasping too little of the areola or grasping on the nipple.

The total bilirubin level of a 36-hour, breastfeeding newborns is 14 mg/dl. Based on this finding, which intervention should the nurse implement? a. Provide phototherapy for 30 minutes q8h b. Feed the newborn sterile water hourly c. Encourage the mother to breastfeed frequently d. Assess the newborn's blood glucose level

c. Encourage the mother to breastfeed frequently The normal total bilirubin level is 6 to 12 mg/dl after Day 1 of life. This infant's bilirubin is beginning to climb and the infant should be monitored to prevent further complications. Breast milk provides calories and enhances GI motility, which will assist the bowel in eliminating bilirubin (C).

The nurse is teaching care of the newborn to a group of prospective parents and describes the need for administering antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the newborn. Which infectious organism will this treatment prevent from harming the infant? a. Herpes b. Staphylococcus c. Gonorrhea d. Syphilis

c. Gonorrhea Erythromycin ointment is instilled into the lower conjunctive of each eye within 2 hours after birth to prevent ophthalmica neonatorum, an infection caused by gonorrhea, and inclusion conjunctivitis, an infection caused by chlamydia (C). The infant may be exposed to these bacteria when passing the birth canal.

The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her menstrual period was January *. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is a. January 14-15 b. January 22-23 c. January 30-31 d. February 6-7

c. January 30-31 This woman can expect her next period to begin 36 days from the first day of her last menstrual period - the cycle begins at the first day of the cycle and continues to the first day of the next cycle. Her next period would, therefore, begin on February 13. Ovulation occurs 14 days before the first day of the menstrual period. Therefore, ovulation for this woman would occur January 31 (C).

The nurse assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement? a. Insert an internal fetal monitor b. Assess for cervical changes q1h c. Monitor bleeding from IV sites d. Perform Leopold's maneuvers

c. Monitor bleeding from IV sites Monitoring bleeding from peripheral sites (C) is the priority intervention. This client is presenting with signs of placental abruption. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a complication of placental abruption, characterized by abnormal bleeding.

A client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted for observation. She is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine irritability. Vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. Based on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Provide oral hydration b. Have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn c. Obtain a specimen for urine analysis d. Place the client on strict bedrest

c. Obtain a specimen for urine analysis Obtaining a urine analysis (C) should be done first because preterm clients with uterine irritability and contractions are often suffering from a urinary tract infection, and this should be ruled out first.

A client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider immediately? a. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute b. Variable fetal heart rate c. Onset of uterine contractions d. Burning urination

c. Onset of uterine contractions Total (complete) placenta previa involves the placenta covering the entire cerviccal os (opening). The onset of uterine contractions (C) places the client at risk for dilation and placental separation, which causes painless hemorrhaging.

A newborn, whose mother is HIV positive, is scheduled for follow-up assessments. The nurse knows that the most likely presenting symptom for a pediatric client with AIDS is: a. shortness of breath b. joint pain c. a persistent cold d. organomegaly

c. a persistent cold Respiratory tract infections commonly occur in the pediatric population. However, the child iwth AIDS has a decreased ability to defend the body against these infections and often the presenting symptom of a child with AIDS is a persistent cold (C).

The nurse should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when a. there is only an anterior or posterior lip of cervix left b. the client describes the need to have a bowel movement c. the cervix is completely dilated d. the cervix is completely effaced

c. the cervix is completely dilated Pushing begins with the second stage of labor, i.e., when the cervix is completely dilated (A, B, and D), the cervix can become edematous and may never completely dilate, necessitating an operative delivery. Many primigravidas begin active labor 100% effaced and then proceed to dilate.

A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record? a. 3-1-2-0-3 b. 4-1-2-0-3 c. 2-1-2-1-2 d. 3-1-1-0-3

d. 3-1-1-0-3 (D) describes the correct GTPAL. The client has been pregnant 3 times including the current pregnancy (G-3). She had one full-term infant (T-1). She also had a preterm (P-1) twin pregnancy (a multifetal gestation is considered one birth when calculating parity). There were no abortions (A-0), so this client has a total of 3 living children.

One hour after giving birth to an 8-pound infant, a client's lochia rubra has increased from small to large and her fundus is boggy despite massage. The client's pulse is 84 beats/minute and blood pressure is 156/96. The healthcare provider prescribes Methergine 0.2 mg IM x 1. What action should the nurse take immediately? a. Give the medication as prescribed and monitor for efficacy b. Encourage the client to breastfeed rather than bottle feed c. Have the client empty her bladder and massage the fundus d. Call the healthcare provider to question the prescription

d. Call the healthcare provider to question the prescription Methergine is contraindicated for clients with elevated blood pressure, so the nurse should contact the healthcare provider and question the prescription (D).

Which assessment finding should the nursery nurse report to the pediatric healthcare provider? a. Blood glucose level of 45 mg/dl b. Blood pressure of 82/45 mmHg c. Non-bulging anterior fontanel d. Central cyanosis when crying

d. Central cyanosis when crying An infant who demonstrates central cyanosis when crying (D) is manifesting poor adaptation to extrauterine life which should be reported to the healthcare provider for determination of a possible underlying cardiovascular problem.

A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask this client? a. Which symptom did you experience first? b. Are you eating large amounts of salty foods? c. Have you visited a foreign country recently? d. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?

d. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever? Clients with a history of rheumatic fever (D) may develop mitral valve prolapse, which increases the risk for cardiac decompensation due to the increased blood volume that occurs during pregnancy, so obtaining information about the client's health history is priority.

A client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she wants to use herbal therapy. Which response is best for the nurse to provide? a. Herbs are a corner stone of good health to include in your treatment b. Touch is also therapeutic in relieving discomfort and anxiety c. Your healthcare provider should direct treatment options for herbal therapy d. It is important that you want to take part in your care

d. It is important that you want to take part in your care The emphasis of alternative and complementary therapies, such as herbal therapy, is that the client is viewed as a whole being, capable of decision-making and an integral part of the health care team, so (D) recognizes the client's request.

A client who gave birth to a healthy 8 pound infant 3 hours ago is admitted to the postpartum unit. Which nursing plan is best in assisting this mother to bond with her newborn infant? a. Encourage the mother to provide total care for her infant b. Provide privacy so the mother can develop a relationship with the infant c. Encourage the father to provide most of the infant's care during hospitalization d. Meet the mother's physical needs and demonstrate warmth toward the infant

d. Meet the mother's physical needs and demonstrate warmth toward the infant It is most important to meet the mother's requirement for attention to her needs so that she can begin infant care-taking (D). Nurse theorist Reva Rubin describes the initial postpartal period as the "taking-in phase," which is characterized by maternal reliance on others to satisfy the needs for comfort, rest, nourishment, and closeness to families and the newborn.

The nurse is calculating the estimated date of confinement (EDC) using Nagele's rule for a client whose last menstrual period started on December 1. Which date is most accurate? a. August 1 b. August 10 c. September 3 d. September 8

d. September 8 Calculation of a client's EDC provides baseline data to monitor fetal gestation. Nagele's rule uses the formula: subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period, so December 1 minus 3 months + 7 days is September 8 (D).

A woman who had a miscarriage 6 months ago becomes pregnant. Which instruction is most important is most important for the nurse to provide this client? a. Elevate lower legs while resting b. Increase caloric intake by 200 to 300 calories per day c. Increase water intake to 8 full glasses per day d. Take prescribed multivitamin and mineral supplements

d. Take prescribed multivitamin and mineral supplements A client who has had a spontaneous abortion or still birth in the last 1.5 years should take multivitamin and mineral supplements (D) and maintain a balanced diet because the previous pregnancy may have left her nutritionally depleted.

A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity? a. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ b. Blood pressure 140/90 c. Respiratory rate 18/minute d. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours

d. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours Urine outputs of less than 100 ml/4 hours (D), absent DTRs, and a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity