Histo exam questions.
11. Which one of these cells is not a cell type routinely found in loose connective tissue; a. fibroblast b. microglia c. histocyte d. plasma cell e. mast cel
b. microglia
43. Abundant noncoding DNA sequences are present in: a. constitutive heterochromatin b. facultative heterochromatin c. euchromatin d. DNA does not have noncoding sequences
A
83. What can be found inside cell nucleus: a. intermediate filaments b. microtubules c. polyribosomes d. all answers correct
A
cartilage and bone
Cartilage and Bone
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
45. How many microtubules will you find in the centrosome: a. 9 b. 11 c. 27 'd. 54
'd. 54
5. Indicate the correct statement concerning pseudo unipolar nerve cells: a. they occur in posterior root ganglia b. their dendrites and axons are surrounded by myelin sheath c. their pericaryons do not participate in dendrite-to-axon conduction d. all answers correct
'd. all answers correct
28. In the blood platelet, the hyalomere DOES NOT contain: a. mitochondria b. microtubules c. cell membrane invaginations d. tubules strong calcium ions
A) Mitochondria
9. Which type of cartilage is characterised by the presence of elastic fibres? a. hyaline cartilage b. elastic cartilage c. fibrocartilage d. all of the above e. none of the above
b. elastic cartilage
23. Which cells are capable of ameboid movement and phagocytosis: a. protoplasmi astrocytes b. microglial cells c. oligodendrocytes d. amphicytes
b. microglial cells
Nervous tissue
Nervous tissue
33. Indicate a common function of smooth ER and peroxisomes: a. synthesis of lipids b. storage of calcium ions c. beta oxidation of fatty acids d. degradation of H2O2
a. synthesis of lipids
159. Beta oxidation of fatty acids occur in: a. smooth ER and mitochondria b. mitochondria and peroxisomes c. peroxisomes and lysosomes d. lysosomes and dictyosomes
b. mitochondria and peroxisomes
8. The number of ribosomes in a polyribosome (polysome) depends on: a. localization of polysome (in ER or in cytosol) b. molecular weight (mass of the synthesised protein) c. target destination of the synthesised protein d. intensity of protein synthesis in the cell
b. molecular weight (mass of the synthesised protein)
140. b. molecular weight (mass) of the synthesised protein a. localization of polyribosome (in ER or in cytosol) b. molecular weight (mass) of the synthesised protein c. target destination of the synthesised protein d. intensity of protein synthesis in the cell
b. molecular weight (mass) of the synthesised protein
27. Which leukocyte has azurophilic granules and well developed RER and Golgi apparatus: a. neutrophil b. monocyte c. lymphocyte d. eosinophil
b. monocyte
160. As comapred with the nucleuss of stem cell in the bone marrow, the nucleus of mature blood cell (leukocyte) contains: a. less DNA b. more facultative jeterochromatin c. more constitutive heterochromatin d. more euchromatin
b. more facultative jeterochromatin
2. Which sarcomere protein DOES NOT occur in I band: 'a. actin b. myosin c. titin d. nebulin
b. myosin
31. I band of the sarcomere DOES NOT contain: a. actin b. myosin c. alpha-actin d. titin
b. myosin
30. In the inotropic excitatory synapse, the postsynaptic membrane contains: a. voltage-gated sodium channels b. neurotransmitter-gated sodium channels c. neurotransmitter-gated chloride channels d. voltage-gated chloride channels
b. neurotransmitter-gated sodium channels
69. Transcription occurs in: a. euchromatin b. nucleolus c. mitochondrial matrix d. all answers correct
b. nucleolus
2. An epithelium showing highly selective permeability must contain the cell membranes: a. integrins and selectins b. occludins and claudins c. cadherins d. connexins
b. occludins and claudins
24. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the cells of mature bone: a. osteoprogenitor cells can be found inside of the Haversian canals b. osteocytes are inactive, terminal cells deprived of oxygen and nutrients c. osteoclasts continuously eliminate some osteons d. osteoblasts release matrix vesicles initiating bone remineralisation
b. osteocytes are inactive, terminal cells deprived of oxygen and nutrients
13. The membrane of RER is continuous with a. membrane of dictyosome b. outer membrane of the nuclear envelope c. membrane of the hydrolase vesicle
b. outer membrane of the nuclear envelope
8. What is the cell body of a neuron called: a. ganglion b. perikaryon c. astrocyte d. nissl e. terminal bouton
b. perikaryon
33. Indicate the correct statement concerning surface-associated structures of epithelial cells: a. stereocilia are long and thick cilia 29 b. peripheral microtubules doublets in ciliary axoneme are connected by next c. in the brush border, the movement of microvilli is coordinated d. basal bodies are located under both, cilia and microvilli
b. peripheral microtubules doublets in ciliary axoneme are connected by next
49. Which process requires involvement of microfilaments (actin filaments): a. movement of cilia b. phagocytosis c. axonal transport d. all answers correct
b. phagocytosis
99. Microfilaments (actin filaments) are involved in: a. movement of cilia b. phagocytosis c. movement of chromosomes during cell division d. migration of organelles towards cell nucleus
b. phagocytosis
6. Indicate the common feature of focal contact and hemidesmosomes: a. presence of actin filaments b. presence of intermediate filaments c. presence of interns in the cell membrane d. presence of cadherins in the cell membrane
b. presence of intermediate filaments
36. Which cells of the granulopoietic lineage contains only azurophilic granules: a. myeloblasts b. promyelocyte c. myelocyte d. metamyelocyte
b. promyelocyte
17. What are interneurons: a. unipolar b. pseudounipolar c. bipolar d. multipolar e. both a and b
b. pseudounipolar
107. The cis-Golgi network (ERGIC): a. sorts secretory proteins from other proteins b. contains receptors for mannose-6-phosphate c. directly communicate with trans-Golgi network d. allows return of some proteins to ER
d
36. It is NOT TRUE that: a. peripheral microtubule doublets in cilium are interconnected by dynein b. basal body is built of microtubule doublets c. nexin is responsible for passive backstroke of cilium d. stereocilium is a very long and thick cilium
d
...............
.......................
7. Which of the following is not a granulocyte: a. lymphocytes b. neutrophil 'c. PMN d. eosinophils e. basophils
. a)lymphocytes
40. So-called grand postsynaptic potential opens: a. chloride channels in dendrites b. potassium channels in the perikaryon c. sodium channels in the initial segment of axon d. all the listed channels
.C. sodium channels in the initial segment of axon
142. Newly formed peroxisomes originate from: a. vesicles separated from ER and incorporate enzymes produced on free ribosomes b. vesicles separated from ER and incorporate enzymes produced on ER-attached ribosomes c. vesicles separated from trans-Golgi network and incorporate enzymes produced on free ribosomes d. vesicles separated from trans-Golgi network and incorporate enzymes produced on erattached ribosomes
A)vesicles separated from ER and incorporate enzymes produced on free ribosomes
158. The lysosomal membrane is impermeable to: a. proteins b. aminoacids c. sugars d. fatty acids
B
Blood and hemapoesis
Blood and hemapoiesis
10. What type of epithelium is associated with goblet cells: a. simple squamous epithelium b. simple cuboidal epithelium c. simple columnar epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium e. pseudostratified epithelium
C
1. Which membrane proteins transport substances by rapid cyclic changes of conformation: a. channels and carriers b. channels and pumps c. carriers and pumps d. all of the mentioned
C carriers and pumps
166. It is NOT TRUE that the cell membrane: a. is the thickest biological membrane b. contains more glycolipids than other biological membranes c. contains specialized areas different from other regions of the plasmalemma d. contains translocons
D
59. Which protein is produced on rough ER: a. catalase b. cytokeratin c. histone H1 d. Na, K-ATPase
D
EPITEHLIA
EPITHELIA
105. It is NOT TRUE that smooth ER : a. is continous with rough ER b. after binding ribosomes becomes rough ER c. participates in detoxification processes d. stores calcium ions
ER b. after binding ribosomes becomes rough
Muscle
Muscle
3. Which band DOES NOT change during sarcomere contraction: a. A b. I c. H d. all bands shorten
a. A
37. The compact arrangement of nucleosomes in the chromatin finer results from aggregation of: a. H1 histones b. H4 histones c. nonhistone proteins d. mRNA molecules
a. H1 histones
32. Which bands shorten during sarcomere contraction: a. I and H b. I and A c. A and H d. all
a. I and H
1. Indicate INCORRECT statement concerning eosinophil: a. It takes up larval parasites by phagocytosis b. Its nucleus has mostly two segments c. It contains specific granules with dense cores seen in electron microscope d. It cooperates with mast cells in allergic reactions
a. It takes up larval parasites by phagocytosis
42. Indicate correct statement concerning osteoclasts: a. activity of their proton pump results in local demineralisation of resorbed bone b. they have numerous microvilli (brush border) c. they originate from osteoprogenitor cells d. they disappear after termination of the ossification process
a. activity of their proton pump results in local demineralisation of resorbed bone
76. Import of protein into the target location (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, peroxisome, ER) depends on: a. aminoacid sequence of a small protein fragment b. aminoacid sequence of the whole protein c. sequence of sugar residues attached to protein d. three-dimensional shape of protein
a. aminoacid sequence of a small protein fragment
26. RER, free ribosomes and Golgi apparatus in nerve cells: a. are abundant due to high requirement for membrane and cytoplasmic proteins b. are abundant only in neurosecretory neurons c. are abundant only in neurons possessing myelinated axons d. are poorly developed due to inability of cells to drive and differentiate
a. are abundant due to high requirement for membrane and cytoplasmic proteins
5. Cardiomyocytes: a. are branching, laterally interconnected cell b. contain several nuclei located at the periphery c. establish synaptic contacts in from of motor end plates d. are characterised by well developed system of triads
a. are branching, laterally interconnected cell
132. Proteasomes digest proteins, which: a. are coupled with ubiquitin b. have specific signal sequence c. were partially digested in lysosomes d. were taken up by receptor-mediated endocytosis
a. are coupled with ubiquitin
129. Cavoale: a. are formed by invagination of lipid rafts b. are surrounded by clathrin c. participate in exocytoosis d. all answers correct
a. are formed by invagination of lipid rafts
18. Indicate FALSE statement concerning elastic fibers: a. are highly resistant to stretching b. can be produced by smooth muslce cells c. are built of two different protein components d. require specific staining for visualisation under CM
a. are highly resistant to stretching
61. Products of lysosomal digestion: a. are transported across the lysosomal membrane to cytoplasm b. are transported in vesicles to the Golgi apparatus c. are stored in lysosomes d. are removed from the cell by exocytosis
a. are transported across the lysosomal membrane to cytoplasm
14. Which of the following is involved in the blood brain barrier: a. astrocytes b. ependymal cells c. oligodendrocytes d. microglia e. Schwann cells
a. astrocytes
135. Activity of lysosomal enzymes leads to cell death in: a. autophagy b. apoptosis c. necrosis d. all answers correct
a. autophagy
153. The translation (protein biosynthesis) process starts with: a. binding of mRNA to small ribosomal subunit b. binding of mRNA to large ribosomal subunit c. binding of large ribosomal subunit to RER membrane d. binding of small ribosomal subunit to the large one
a. binding of mRNA to small ribosomal subunit
45. In compact bone, the spaces between osteons are occupied by: a. bone lamellae b. vascular canals c. fibrous connective tissue d. bone marrow
a. bone lamellae
121. Which adhesion molecules bind cells of the same type: a. cadherins b. selectins c. integrins d. immunoglobulin superfamily molecules
a. cadherins
102. The membrane of trans-face of the dictyosome is most similar to: a. cell membrane b. peroxisomal membrane c. outer membrane of the nuclear envelope d. membrane of cis-face of the dictyosome
a. cell membrane
125. Glycocalyx is produced in: a. cell membrane b. smooth ER c. Golgi apparatus d. secretory vesicles
a. cell membrane
15. The membrane of trans-face of the dictyosome is most similar to: a. cell membrane b. inner mitochondrial membrane c. membrane of the ER d. membrane of cis-face of the dictyosome
a. cell membrane
60. The membrane of trans-face of the dictyosome is most similar to: a. cell membrane b. peroxisomal membrane c. outer membrane of the nuclear envelope d. membrane of cis-face of the dictyosome
a. cell membrane
4. Nerve cells with dendrites immensely branches in one plane and receiving as many as up to 200 000synapses per cell are located in: a. cerebellar cortex b. spinal cord c. cerebral cortex d. choroid plexus
a. cerebellar cortex
115. So-called nuclear organisers responsible for formation of nucleolus/nucleoli are: a. chromosome regions containing rDNA b. aggregates of ribosomal proteins c. aggregates of rRNA d. ribosomes producing ribosomal proteins
a. chromosome regions containing rDNA
33. What is the predominant (by volume) organic component of bone: a. collagen fibers b. ground substance proteoglycans c. ground substance glycoproteins d. cells
a. collagen fibers
40. Indicate the predominant (by volume) organic component of the bone: a. collagen fibers built of collagen type I b. collagen fibers built of collagen type II c. ground substance 'd. osteocytes
a. collagen fibers built of collagen type I
43. Indicate the correct definition of the territorial matrix in cartilage: a. condensed ground substance directly surrounding each chondrocyte b. condensed ground substance on the periphery of chondral territory c. layer of collagen fibres directly surrounding chindrocytes d. layer of collagen fibres on the periphery of chondral territory
a. condensed ground substance directly surrounding each chondrocyt or B
164. It is NOT TRUE that peroxisomes: a. contain oxidases participating in production of ATP b. degrade hydrogen peroxide c. synthesize cholesterol d. contain enzymes produced on free (cytosolic) ribosomes
a. contain oxidases participating in production of ATP
23. Indicate FALSE statement regarding bone lamella: a. contains both elastic and collagen fibers b. reveals a parallel arrangement of fibres c. includes crystals of hydroxyapatite bound to proteins of the ground substance d. is usually perforated by bone canaliculi
a. contains both elastic and collagen fibers
186. The Golgi apparatus DOES NOT participate in: a. detoxification of exogenous substances b. cell membrane renewal c. glycosylation of secretory proteins d. formation of hydrolyse vesicles
a. detoxification of exogenous substances
23. Which cells have unusual apical cell membrane built of thick protein plates (plaques) interconnected by flexible areas of normal cell membrane: a. dome-shaped cells of urothelium b. cells of simple scams epithelium c. ciliated cells of pseudo stratified epithelium d. superficial cells of the keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
a. dome-shaped cells of urothelium
13. What type of gland secretes its product directly into the bloodstream: a. endocrine gland b. multicellular gland c. exocrine gland d. all of the above e. none of the above
a. endocrine gland
6. The ion channels cannot be opened by: a. energy from ATP b. receptor - ligand interaction c. mechanical stress d. change in electrical potential of the membrane
a. energy from ATP
113. Pumps perform a dual role as transporters and: a. enzymes b. receptors c. linkers d. adhesion molecules
a. enzymes
9. Which connective tissue cell type contains properties of smooth muscle cells: a. fibroblast b. myofibroblast c. histiocyte d. plasma cell e. mast cell
a. fibroblast
27. Which type of connective tissue contains the smallest amount of collagen fibers: a. gelatinous connective tissue b. loose connective tissue c. elastic cartilage d. lamellar bone
a. gelatinous connective tissue
26. Hyalomere of the blood platelet DOES NOT contain: a. granules with clotting factors b. microtubules c. invaginations of the cell membrane d. calcium-storing tubules
a. granules with clotting factors
9. In the biological membranes: a. hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids are located inside the bilayer b. cholesterol participates in the formation of glycocalyx c. glycolipids increase membrane stability (rigidity) d. all answers correct
a. hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids are located inside the bilayer
182. Cell nucleus contains small nucleolus and few pores in the nuclear envelope. You would conclude that the cell: a. imports large amounts of proteins from the cytoplasm to the nucleus b. produce large amounts of proteins c. does not produce proteins d. produces small amounts of protein
a. imports large amounts of proteins from the cytoplasm to the nucleus
20. It is NOT true that regulated exocytosis: a. is a continuous process with regulated velocity b. is faster than constitutive exocytosis c. release condensed secretory material stored in large vesicles d. is triggered by increase in the cytoplasmic concentration of Ca ions
a. is a continuous process with regulated velocity
5. The glycocalyx: a. is composed of sugar residues of membrane glycoprotein's and glycolipids b. is present only in sugar producing secretory cells c. makes impossible adhesion and binding of cells
a. is composed of sugar residues of membrane glycoprotein's and glycolipids
18. Indicate FALSE statement. The membrane of erythrocytes: a. is deformable due to the underlying ring of microtubules b. expresses on the surface blood group antigens c. contains transmembrane antiporter for exchange between Cl and HCO3 d. is linked to the cell skeleton by peripheral membrane protein
a. is deformable due to the underlying ring of microtubules
21. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the basal lamina of epithelial tissue: a. is visible only in stratified epithelia b. contains non-fibrilar forms of collagen c. provides attachment sites for epithelial cells d. participates in regeneration of injured epithelium
a. is visible only in stratified epithelia
146. In the living cell a mitochondrion is moving towards cell membrane. The movement is generated by: a. kinesin b. dynein c. myosin d. streamin (flow) of cytosol
a. kinesin
27. Neurosecretory cells release peptide hormones at axon terminals. What makes it possible: a. kinesin b. ribosomes present in axon terminals c. dictyosomes present in axon terminal d. all answers correct
a. kinesin
149. Following membrane trafficking a protein initially present in the cell membrane will be mostly found in: a. lysosome b. dictyosome c. endoplasmic reticulum d. mitochondrion
a. lysosome
53. Differences between constitutive and regulated exocytosis DO NOT include: a. mechanism of membrane fusion 'b. size of vesicles c. degree of secretory material condensation d. involvement of calcium ions
a. mechanism of membrane fusion
65. Which membranes DO NOT participate in membrane trafficking in the cell: a. membranes of mitochondria b. membranes of lysosomes c. membranes of endosomes d. membranes of dictyosomes
a. membranes of mitochondria
16. Smooth muscle cells DO NOT contain: a. miofibrils b. dictyosomes c. intermediare filaments d. endoplasmic reticulum
a. miofibrils
170. What is actin? a. myofilament b. myosin c. muscle fibers d. myfibrils e. myocardium
a. myofilament
8. Which leukocyte has a multi-blood (3-5) lobes nucleus: a. neutrophil b. lymphocytes c. monocytes d. eosinophil e. basophil
a. neutrophil
10. Which of the following is the most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood: a. neutrophils b. basophils c. erythrocytes d. leukocytes e. platelets
a. neutrophils
44. Smooth muscle cells: a. occur in the wall of all blood vessels b. in the adventitia of large arteries from circular bundles c. in superficial veins of legs are abundant in all layers of the wall d. all answers correct
a. occur in the wall of all blood vessels
12. What cell is involved in bone resorption: a. osteoclast b. osteon c. osteocyte dosteobla st e. osteoid
a. osteoclast
16. Trans Golgi network produces all the listed vesicles except: a. preperoxisomal vesicles b. secretory vesicles c. hydrolyse vesicles d. clathrin coated vesicles
a. preperoxisomal vesicles
27. What is mainly responsible for the resistance of hyaline cartilage to pressure: a. proteoglycan aggregates b. collagen fibers 'c. chondrocytes d. perichondrium
a. proteoglycan aggregates
2. The Fo component of the mitochondrial ATP - synthase complex contains? a. proton transporter b. calcium channel c. ATP/ADP antiporter d. terminal fragment of electron transport chain
a. proton transporter
18. The cells of simple cuboidal epithelium: a. regenerate from basal cells b. are usually equipped with motile cilia c. attach to the basal lamina via hemidesmosomes d. are particularly suited for mechanical protection
a. regenerate from basal cells
40. During apoptosis (programmed cell death), mitochondria: a. release cytochrome c which activates caspases b. produce more ATP which switches on apoptosis genes c. release calcium ions which bind to "death receptors" d. produce apoptosis - inducing proteins
a. release cytochrome c which activates caspases
36. Indicate the FALSE statement concerning the muscular tissue: a. satellite cells occur in all striated muscles b. motor and plates occur only in skeletal muscles c. smooth muscle cells require phosphorylation of myosin for contraction d. the density of capillaries is the highest in cardiac muscle
a. satellite cells occur in all striated muscles
120. Cis-Golgi network (ERGIC): a. segregates secretory proteins b. contains receptors for mannose-6-phospkate c. directly communicates with trans-Golgi network d. sends some proteins back to ER
a. segregates secretory proteins
14. What is a gland called if it has na unbranched duct: a. simple gland b. compound gland c. tubular d. alveolar e. tubuloalveola
a. simple gland
16. What type of tissue forms the alveoli in the lung: a. simple squamous epithelium 'b. simple cuboidal epithelium c. simple columnar epithelium 'd. stratified squamous epithelium e. pseudostratified epithelium
a. simple squamous epithelium
12. What type of muscle is always multinucleated: a. skeletal muscle b. cardiac muscle c. smooth muscle d. both a and b e. a, b and c
a. skeletal muscle
75. After completion of the translation process on rough ER: a. small ribosomal subunit dissociates from the large one and the large one dissociates from ER membrane b. small ribosomal subunit dissociates from the large one and the large one remains attached to ER membrane c. large ribosomal subunit dissociates from the small one and the small one remains attached to ER membrane d. the entire ribosome remains attached to ER membrane
a. small ribosomal subunit dissociates from the large one and the large one dissociates from ER membrane
4. The presence of numerous caveolae in the cell membrane and dense bodies containing actin-binding proteins is a typical feature of: a. smooth muscle cells b. skeletal muscle cells c. cardiomyocytes d. all answers correct
a. smooth muscle cells
39. The shape of erythrocyte is supported by: a. spectrin and other proteins of membrane skeleton b. intermediate filaments anchored in the cell membrane c. peripheral ring of microtubules d. activity of sodium-potassium pump
a. spectrin and other proteins of membrane skeleton
25. What is common for skeletal and cardiac muscle: a. structure of the contractile apparatus b. spatial distribution of the contractile apparatus c. spatial distribution of T tubules d. the presence of muscular triads
a. structure of the contractile apparatus
22. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the intercellular substance of hyaline cartilage: a. sulphated glycosaminoglycans are concentrated around the cell lacunae b. collagen fibers are visible between territories c. elastic fibers are absent d. high content of bound water is responsible for mechanical reliance of cartilage
a. sulphated glycosaminoglycans are concentrated around the cell lacunae
###73. During ATP synthesis in the ATP synthase complex: a. the "stalk" (F0 fragment) rotates in immotile "head" (F1 fragment) b. the "head" rotates on immotile "stalk" c. both "stalk" and "head" rotate on the same direction d. "stalk" and "head" rotates in opposite directions
a. the "stalk" (F0 fragment) rotates in immotile "head" (F1 fragment)
35. Indicate the common feature of skeletal muscle finer and cardiomyocyte: a. the presence of voltage-sensitive protein in T tubule membrane b. the location of T tubules in relation to sarcomeres c. the number and size of terminal cistern of the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. the presence of mechanically gated calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
a. the presence of voltage-sensitive protein in T tubule membrane
100. What happens to receptors present in the late endosome: a. they recirculate to the cell membrane b. they recirculate to the dictyosome c. they are digested in the lysosome 'd. they remain in the membrane and bind new ligands
a. they recirculate to the cell membrane
39. Which junction IS NOT a component of the intercalated disk in cardiac muscle: a. tight junction b. adherent junction c. gap junction d. desmosome
a. tight junction
31. Epithelium showing highly selective permeability MUST have: a. tight junctions b. brush border c. thick basal lamina d. numerous lysosomes
a. tight junctions
1. Osteocytes CAN NOT: a. transform into osteoblasts during bone remodelling b. produce components of the extracellular substance c. secrete enzymes during break down of the extracellular substance d. monitor forces acting upon the bone
a. transform into osteoblasts during bone remodelling
25. Indicate FALSE statement concerning tight junction: a. transmembrane linker proteins are cadherins b. transmembrane linker proteins form chains in the plane of membrane c. the junction makes intercellular clefts impermeable for small molecules d. the junction contributes to the polarisation of the epithelial cell
a. transmembrane linker proteins are cadherins
43. What is the main function of simple squamous epithelium: a. transport control b. protection c. resorption d. secretion
a. transport control
##35. Plus end of microtubule: a. undergoes frequently polymerisation and depolymerisation b. is anchored in the cell membrane c. is anchored near the centrosome d. binds to actin filaments
a. undergoes frequently polymerisation and depolymerisation
19. In the chemical synapse: a. vesicles with neurotransmitters are located in the pre-synaptic region b. recpetors for neurotransmitters are embedded in the pre-synaptic membrane c. the synaptic cleft resembles gap junction ' d. all the above statements are true
a. vesicles with neurotransmitters are located in the pre-synaptic region
22. The quadriceps muscle of 100 meter world record holder is built mostly of: a. white muscle fibers b. red muscle fibers c. intermediate muscle fibers d. all types of muscle fibres in equal proportions
a. white muscle fibers
12. What does connective tissue develop from: a. mesothelium b. mesenchyme c. mesengial cells d. mesentery e. Wharton's jelly
b. mesenchyme
148. Microfilaments (actin filaments): a. are components of the desmosome b. participate in ameboid movement of the cell c. are built of protein produced in rough ER d. all answers correct
b
176. Which organelle contains detoxifying enzymes: a. ribosomes b. peroxisome c. microfilaments d. centrioles e. nucleoli
b
180. Indicate the FALSE statement concerning mitochondria: a. the outer membrane contains less proteins than the inner one b. the inner membrane shows more permeability than the outer one c. both membranes contain enzymes participating in ATP production d. the inner membrane has larger surface area than the outer one
b
38. As compared with the nucleus of stem cell in the bone marrow, the nucleus od a mature blood cell (leukocyte) contains: a. less DNA b. more facultative heterochromatin c. more constitutive heterochromatin 'd. more euchromatin
b
30. Which cells of connective tissue proper originate from mesenchymal cells: 1 - mast cells; 2 - fibroblasts; 3 - adipocytes; 4 - macrophages; 5 - plasma cells: a. 1, 3, 4 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 5 d. 2, 4, 5
b. 2, 3
46. Indicate the correct sequence of events during compact bone remodelling: 1 - ingrowth of capillaries in Haversian canals; 2 - activation of osteoblasts and formation of new bone lamellae; 3 - activation of osteoclasts and destruction and destruction of bone lamellae: a. 1, 2, 3 b. 3, 2, 1 c. 2, 3, 1 d. 1, 3, 2
b. 3, 2, 1
67. The "head" of ATP synthase complex (F1) contains: a. proton transfer b. ATP synthase c. ADP/ATP antiporter d. all answers correct
b. ATP synthase
66. Nucleosome is composed of: a. DNA and RNA b. DNA and histones c. DNA, histones and nonhistone proteins d. DNA, RNA, histones and nonhistone proteins
b. DNA and histones
34. So-called basket - a plexus of nerve fibres and terminals surrounds the perikaryon of: a. neuron of posterior root ganglion b. Purkinje cells c. giant pyramidal cell of Betz d. alpha-motoneuron in the spinal cord
b. Purkinje cells
18. What is absent in gray matter of CNS: a. nerve cells b. Schwann cells c. nerve processes d. blood vessels
b. Schwann cells
41. Which structure propagates the stimulus inside the skeletal muscle fiber: a. terminal cisterna of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. T tubule c. motor end plate d. desmin filament
b. T tubule
42. Indicate the correct definition of the muscular triad: a. three bands of the sarcomere (I, A, H) b. T tubule flanked by two cisternae of sarcoplasmic reticulum c. cisterna of sarcoplasmic reticulum flanked by two T tubules d. three skeletal muscle fibers innervated by a single motor end plate
b. T tubule flanked by two cisternae of sarcoplasmic reticulum
106. During protein synthesis (translation) on rough ER: a. the process starts after attachment of ribosome to ER membrane b. after termination of the process ribosome separates from ER membrane c. ribophorins act as receptors for signal recognizing particle d. all answers correct
b. after termination of the process ribosome separates from ER membrane
51. In the process of translation (protein biosynthesis) on rough ER: a. translation starts after attachment of ribosomes to ER b. after termination of translation, ribosomes detaches from ER c. ribophorins are receptors for SRP d. all answers correct
b. after termination of translation, ribosomes detaches from ER
57. The early endosome: a. contains hydrolytic enzymes b. allows recirculation of receptors to the cell membrane c. is surrounded by clathrin coat d. all answers correct
b. allows recirculation of receptors to the cell membrane
36. In the myelinated nerve fiber, voltage-gated sodium channels: a. are present only in the initial segment of axon b. are present in the initial segment of axon and in the regions of Ranvier nodes c. are uniformly distributed along the axon d. are absent
b. are present in the initial segment of axon and in the regions of Ranvier nodes
187. Lipid rafts: a. are cell membrane areas devoid of proteins b. are rich in cholesterol c. aleter invagination form coated pits d. are the main component of cis-Golgi network (ERGIC)
b. are rich in cholesterol
16. Indicate FALSE statement concerning plasma cells: a. have abundant RER b. are rich in lysosomes c. have well developed Golgi apparatus d. are transformed lymphocytes B
b. are rich in lysosomes
27. Products of lysosomal digestion: a. ate transported by vesicular transport of the Golgi apparatus b. are transported across the lysosomal membrane to the cytoplasm c. are secreted by exocytosis d. are stored in lysosomes
b. are transported across the lysosomal membrane to the cytoplasm
49. In the elastic cartilage, elastic fibers are mostly located: a. in the perichondrium b. between chondral territories c. inside chondral territories d. inside chondrocytes
b. between chondral territories
4. Proteins present in the basal lamina: a. form fibrils showing parallel arrangement b. bind to integrins of the basal cell membrane c. occur only in the fence layer (lamina densa) d. all answers correct
b. bind to integrins of the basal cell membrane
13. Which of the following contains a substantial amount of smooth muscle: a. upper esophagus b. blood vessels c. heart d. biceps muscle e. tongue
b. blood vessels
6. Spongy bone and compact bone show different arrangement of: a. collagen fibers in bone lamellae b. bone lamellae c. bone trabecular d. all answers correct
b. bone lamellae
72. Kinesin and myosin: a. both "walk" on the same type of cytoskeletal filaments b. both "walk" in the same direction c. both are responsible for contraction of cell d. both aggregate into filaments
b. both "walk" in the same direction
31. What can NEVER be found i bone canaliculi: a. cell junctions b. capillary vessels c. unmineralized ground substance d. cell processes
b. capillary vessels
44. Indicate INCORRECT statement concerning bone: a. collagen fibers are the main organic component b. capillary vessels are located in the bone canaliculi .c processes of neighbouring osteocytes are connected by gap junctions d. bone canaliculi are lined with a layer of unmineralised ground substance
b. capillary vessels are located in the bone canaliculi
90. Autolysosomes are formed by fusion of hydrolase vesicles with: a. cell constituents surrounded by the cell membrane b. cell constituents surrounded by ER membrane c. cell constituents not surrounded by any membrane d. cell constituents released to the extracellular space and then phagocytes
b. cell constituents surrounded by ER membrane
54. Caveolae and lipid rafts are specialised areas of: a. smooth ER b. cell membrane c. dictyosome d. all biological membranes
b. cell membrane
2. In the node of Ranvier: a. cytoplasm of axon contains numerous Nissl bodies b. cell membrane of axon contains numerous voltage-gated sodium channels c. the adjacent segments of the myelin sheath are connected by tight junctions d. all answers correct
b. cell membrane of axon contains numerous voltage-gated sodium channels
###32. It is not true that the mitochondrial cristae: a. can be lamellar or tubular b. contain ATP synthase complexes protruding to the inter membrane space c. contain electron transport chain d. show selective permeability and contain numerous transporters
b. contain ATP synthase complexes protruding to the inter membrane space
101. Calciosomes: a. are specialised population of lysosomes b. contain crystaline calcium deposits c. have membrane containing calcium pump and calcium channels d. all answers correct
b. contain crystaline calcium deposits
1. It is NOT TRUE that white muscle fibres, as compared to red ones: a. contain less myoglobin b. contain more mitochondria c. have narrower Z lines d. contract more rapidly
b. contain more mitochondria
38. It is NOT TRUE that white muscle fibres, as compared to red ones: a. contain less myoglobin b. contain more mitochondria c. have narrower Z lines d. contract more rapidly
b. contain more mitochondria
183. Is is NOT true that smooth ER: a. has the form of anastomosing lobules b. contains receptors for signal recognizing particle (SRP) c. is a site of lipid synthesis d. can store calcium ions
b. contains receptors for signal recognizing particle (SRP
139. It is NOT TRUE that smooth ER: a. has the form of anastomoisng tubules b. contains recptors for signal recognizing participate (SRP) c. participates in detoxification of poisons and drugs d. can store calcium ions
b. contains recptors for signal recognizing participate (SRP)
79. It is NOT TRUE that smooth ER: a. has the form of anastomosing tubules b. contains translocons c. is a site of lipid synthesis d. can store calcium ions
b. contains translocons
43. Myofibroblasts are: a. muscle cells producingg collagen b. contractile fibroblast-like cells of mesenchymal origin c. fibroblasts located in the endomysium of skeletal muscle d. fibroblasts located in tendon at the myotendinous junction
b. contractile fibroblast-like cells of mesenchymal origin
145. It is NOT TRUE that all ion channels: a. are transmembrane proteins b. control ion transport by opening and closing c. transport ions according to the concentration gradient d. transport ions without using energy
b. control ion transport by opening and closing
34. Intermediate filament occurring in epithelial cells are built of: a. lamins b. cytokeratins c. desmin d. vimentin
b. cytokeratins
1. Some neurotoxins (e.g. tetanus toxin) enter axons at their terminals and then get to perikaryon to kill the nerve cell. This results from the activity of: a. neurofilaments b. dynein 'c. kinesin d. neurotransmitters
b. dynein
39. A vesicle moving towards cell nucleus is transported by: a. kinesin b. dynein c. myosin d. clathrin
b. dynein
151. The mitochondrial matrix DOES NOT contain: a. Krebs cycle enzymes b. enzymes of electron transport chain c. enzymes responsible of replication and transcription d. ribosomes
b. enzymes of electron transport chain
172. What is the term for the general process that cells use to expunge material from the cell: a. endocytosis b. exocytosis c. pinocytosis d. phagocytosis e. active transport
b. exocytosis
82. In the nerve cell, genes encoding some specific muscle proteins are switched off. The respective areas of chromatin form: a. euchromatin b. facultative heterochromatin c. constitutive heterochromatin d. pale fibrilar centers
b. facultative heterochromatin
30. Skeletal muscle fibers contain very numerous cell nuclei, because: a. during development of fibres, division of cell nuclei are not accompanied by cytokinesis b. fibers are formed by fusion of numerous mononuclear precursor cells c. during growth of fibers, their nuclei undergo fragmentation d. all answers correct
b. fibers are formed by fusion of numerous mononuclear precursor cells
24. It is NOT TRUE that reticular fibres: a. are invisible in routinely (HE) stained slides b. form bundles c. are built of collagen type 3 d. are thinner than collagen fires
b. form bundles
162. Substances are transported to the cis-face of the dictyosome: a. from ER by membrane transporters b. from ER by vesicular transport c. from trans-face by vesicular transport d. form trans-face by membrane transporters
b. from ER by vesicular transport
41. The most numerous hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow belong to the lineage producing: a. erythrocytes b. granulocytes c. lymphocytes d. blood platelets
b. granulocytes
30. It is NOT TRUE that basophil and mast cell: a. originate from the bone marrow b. have granules containing proinflammatory mediators c. have receptors for immunoglobins d. are two successive life stages of the same cell
b. have granules containing proinflammatory mediators
6. Which cell is a connective tissue macrophage: a. Kupffer cells b. histiocyte c. dust cell d. Langerhans cell e. microglia
b. histiocyte
136. Which protein is produced on free (cytoplasmic) ribosomes: a. insulin b. histone H1 c. sodium-potassium pump d. acid phosphate
b. histone H1
35. Azurophilic granules in leukocytes are a special kind of: a. secretory granules b. hydrolyse vesicles c. peroxisomes d. phagosomes
b. hydrolyse vesicles
41. In the spongy bone, blood vessels are located: a. in vascular canals b. in bone marrow c. in the periosteum d. all answers correct
b. in bone marrow
7. The cardiac stem cells:' a. in the heart differentiate into conduction system cells b. in culture differentiate into cardiomyocytes c. all full regeneration of cardiac muscle after infraction d. do not exist
b. in culture differentiate into cardiomyocytes
26. During the mineralization process, first hydroxyapatite crystals are formed: a. in the cytoplasm of osteoblsts b. in vesicles released by osteoblasts or chondrocytes c. between collagen fibrils d. around osteocyte processes
b. in vesicles released by osteoblasts or chondrocytes
165. In all biological membrane: a. the protein to lipid ration is the same b. increase in cholesterol content increases stability of the membrane c. the two main phospholipid classes are symmetrically distributed in the two layer of the bilayer d. the outer surface shows the presence of sugar coat
b. increase in cholesterol content increases stability of the membrane
13. It is NOT TRUE that bone canaliculi: a. communicate with the Haversian canal b. interconnect adjacent osteons c. contain osteocytes processes interconnected by gap junctions d. are lined with hydrated unmineralised ground substance
b. interconnect adjacent osteons
50. It is NOT TRUE that smooth ER: a. is continuous with rough ER b. is formed by detachment of ribosomes from rough ER c. participates in detoxification processes d. has the form of interconnected tubules
b. is formed by detachment of ribosomes from rough ER
62. It is NOT TRUE that the inner mitochondrial membrane: a. contains more proteins than lipids b. is freely preamble for small molecules c. contains electron transport chain d. has larger surface area than the outer membrane
b. is freely preamble for small molecules
98. It is NOT TRUE that the inner mitochondrial membrane: a. contains more proteins than lipids b. is freely premeable for small molecules c. contains electron transport chain d. contains a unique lipid not occurring in other membrane
b. is freely premeable for small molecules
138. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the inner mitochondrial membrane: a. it contains more proteins than the outer mitochondrial membrane b. it allows a nonselective transport of all molecules smaller than 5kD c. it contains a specific lipid not occurring in the outer mitochondrial membrane d. it contains proteins pumping protons to the inter membrane space
b. it allows a nonselective transport of all molecules smaller than 5kD
32. It is NOT TRUE that in cilium: a. the axoneme is composed of 9 peripheral microtubule doublets and two central microtubules b. kinesin generates movement of the axoneme c. basal body is a centriole d. rootlet is a bundler of protein filaments
b. kinesin generates movement of the axoneme
124. Receptors DO NOT recirculate between: a. early endosome and cell membrane b. late endosome and cis-Golgi network c. lysosome and trans-Golgi network d. cis-Golgi network and ER
b. late endosome and cis-Golgi network
12. Which is the smallest leukocyte: a. neutrophil b. lymphocytes c. monocytes d. eosinophil e. basophils
b. lymphocytes
31. Leukocyte granules which stain with eosin contain (among other components): a. histamine b. major basic proteins c. myeloperoxidase d. gelatinase
b. major basic proteins
30. Indicate a common feature of phagocytosis and pinocytosis: a. size of produced vesicles b. membrane fusion c. involvement of cytoskeleton and ATP d. all answers correct
b. membrane fusion
156. Indicate the correct definition of nuclear organisers: a. complexes of nonhistone proteins responsible for formation of nucleoli b. regions of chromatin/chromosomes containing rDNA c. regions of nuclear lamina surrounding the nucleoli d. clusters of nucleolar ribosomes producing ribosomal proteins
b. regions of chromatin/chromosomes containing rDNA
77. Which adhesion molecules bind sugar residues of adjacent cells: a. cadherins b. selectins c. integrins d. immunoglobulin superfamily molecules
b. selectins
33. In metabotropic exciatory synapse, neurotransmitter causes: a. intermediate opening of sodium channels b. sequence of biochemical reactions leading to opening of sodium channels c. immediate opening of chloride channels d. sequence of biochemical reactions leading to opening of chloride channels
b. sequence of biochemical reactions leading to opening of sodium channels
9. What type of epithelium lines most ducts? a. simple squamous epithelium b. simple cuboidal epithelium c. simple columnar epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium e. transitional epithelium
b. simple cuboidal epithelium
40. it is NOT TRUE that basal lamina: a. controls the passage of small molecules b. slows down the passage of electrically charged molecules c. binds integrins of epithelial cells d. forms pathways for cell migration
b. slows down the passage of electrically charged molecules
119. What IS NOT involved in protein biosynthesis (translation) on rough ER: a. signal sequence in the synthesised protein b. small particle attached to the synthesised protein c. receptor located on large ribosomal subunit d. translocon in ER membrane
b. small particle attached to the synthesised protein
175. Which organelle is involved in lipid metabolism: a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosome d. Golgi apparatus e. mitochondria
b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
91. Mitochondrial DNA encodes: a. some proteins of the outer membrane b. some proteins of the inner membrane c. all protiens of the mitochondrial matrix d. all mitochondrial proteins
b. some proteins of the inner membrane
11. What type of epithelium is more than one layer thick: a. simple b. stratified c. squamous d. cuboidal e. columnar
b. stratified
163. Indicate INCORRECT statement concerning mitochondrion: a. density of cristae is correlated with oxidative activity b. the inner membrane contains less proteins then the outer membrane c. the inner membranee has different lipid composition that the outer membrane d. ATP synthase complex contains proton transporter
b. the inner membrane contains less proteins then the outer membrane
116. Choose the correct definition of the nuclear lamina: a. the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope b. the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope c. layer of protein filaments attached to the outer surface of the nuclear envelope d. layer of protein filaments attached to the inner surface of the nuclear envelope
b. the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope
70. Indicate the FALSE statement concerning mitochondria: a. the inner membrane contains more proteins than the outer one b. the outer membrane shows highly selective permeability c. the mitochondria; matrix contains Krebs cycle enzymes d. the electron transport chain pumps protons to the inter membrane space
b. the outer membrane shows highly selective permeability
15. Regarding basophils: a. they increase in number during parasitic infections b. their cytoplasm is distinctly basophilic c. they contain granules with heparin and histamine 'd. when entering the connective tissue they transform into mast cell
b. their cytoplasm is distinctly basophilic
30. Indicate FALSE statement concerning ALL types of cartilage: a. they do not contain blood vessels b. they are surrounded by perichondrium c. they contain chondral territories d. they contain collagen fibres
b. they are surrounded by perichondrium
58. What happens to receptors for mannose-6-phosphate present in hydrolase vesicles: a. they recirculate to the cell membrane b. they recirculate to the dictyosome c. they are digested in the lysosome d. the remain in the membrane and bind new ligands
b. they recirculate to the dictyosome
22. Indicate FALSE statement. The speed of nerve conductance is proportional to: a. diameter of axon b. thickness of myelin sheath c. length of internal segment d. number of collaterals branching form the axon
b. thickness of myelin sheath
24. Filaments which protect sarcomere from too excessive stretching are built of: a. desmin b. titin c. nebulin ' d. actin
b. titin
30. In electron micrograph, basal lamina is seen as: a. single dense layer b. two layers: pale and dense c. three layers: pale, dense and pale d. three layers: dense, pale and dense
b. two layers: pale and dense
5. What is located in the meshes of 3-dimensional network formed by the contractile apparatus in the cardiac muscle cell (cardiomyocyte): a. capillary vessels b. very numerous mitochondria c. conductive system cells d. bundles of collagen fibres
b. very numerous mitochondria
7. Which fiver type is large in diameter: a. red fibers b. white fibres c. intermediate fibers d. all of the above e. none of the above
b. white fibres
9. Which fiver type is made up of fast-twitch muscle: a. red fibers b. white fibres c. intermediate fibers d. all of the above e. none of the above
b. white fibres
34. The first bone formed in the process of intramembraneous ossification is called: a. cancellous b. woven c. lamellar d. compact
b. woven
128. In all biological membranes: a. the protein lipid ratio is the same b. increase in cholesterol content increases stability of the membrane c. the two main phospholipid classes are symmetrically distributed in the two layers of bilayer d. all answers correct
b.increase in cholesterol content increases stability of the membrane
8. How many types of cartilage are there? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. 3
9. Approximately what percentage of the volume of blood do the formed elements comprise: a. 5 b. 25 c. 45 d. 75 e. 90
c. 45
103. The "head" (F1 fragment) of ATP synthase complex contains: a. proton transfer b. ADP/ATP antiporter c. ATP synthase ' d. all answers correct
c. ATP synthase
185. Indicate the difference between hydrolyse vesicle and lysosome: a. presence/absence of receptors b. pH c. activity of enzymes d. all answers correct
c. activity of enzymes
4. The activity of sodium-potassium pump (NA, K-ATPase) is an example of: a. uniport b. symport c. antiport d. vesicular transport
c. antiport
127. Microfilaments: a. are built of different proteins depending on tissue which they occur b. cooperate with two motor enzymes moving in the opposite directions ' c. are anchored to the cell membrane with their "+" ends d. are the thickest filaments of the cytoskeleton
c. are anchored to the cell membrane with their "+" ends
2. It is NOT TRUE that elastic fibers: a. are invisible in slides stained routinely (with hematoxylin and eosin) b. form networks or flat sheets (laminae) c. are composed of thin fibrils built of elastin d. are elastic because elastin molecules can change their shape
c. are composed of thin fibrils built of elastin
64. All mitochondrial proteins: a. are encoded in mitochondrial DNA b. have identical signal sequence c. are produced on ribosomes not attached to ER d. belong to the class of peripheral protein
c. are produced on ribosomes not attached to ER
28. Indicate the correct arrangement of structures in myelinated nerve finer (inside-out): 'a. axon - basal lamina - myelin sheath - layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm b. axon - layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm - myelin sheath - basal lamina c. axon - myelin sheath - layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm - basal lamina d. axon - myelin sheath - basal lamina - layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm
c. axon - myelin sheath - layer of Schwann cell cytoplasm - basal lamina
26. Choose the correct definition of the basement membrane: a. very thick basal lamina b. two fused basal laminae c. basal lamina with additional layer produced by connective tissue d. a layer of connective tissue located below basal lamina
c. basal lamina with additional layer produced by connective tissue
41. Choose the correct definition of the basement membrane: a. very thick basal lamina b. two fused basal laminae c. basal lamina with additional layer produced by connective tissue d. a layer of connective tissue located below the basal lamina
c. basal lamina with additional layer produced by connective tissue
21. What triggers exocytosis in mast cell: a. receptor-mediated endocytosis of IgE b. binding of IgE to receptor c. binding of antigen to receptor-IgE complex d. binding of antigen-IgE complex to receptor
c. binding of antigen to receptor-IgE complex
37. Which matrix components liberated duringg bone resorption induce formation of new bone: 'a. osteonectin and osteopontin b. collagen digestion products c. bone morphogenetic proteins d. osteoprotegerin and RANKL
c. bone morphogenetic proteins
25. Which matrix components liberated during bone resorption induce formation of new bone: a. alkaline phosphatase b. collagen digestion products c. bone morphogenic proteins d. proteoglycans
c. bone morphogenic proteins
17. Indicate FALSE statement regarding comparison between collagen and reticular fibers: a. both are built from tropocollagen b. both show cross striation visible under EM c. both are equally impregnated with silver salts d. both are assembled extracellularly
c. both are equally impregnated with silver salts
38. The aggregation of collagen molecules into fibrils: a. requires high concentration of calcium ions b. occurs in the rough ER of fibroblasts c. is possible only after cleavage of terminal peptide fragments d. all answers correct
c. is possible only after cleavage of terminal peptide fragments
48. New peroxisomes originate from vesicles formed: a. by cis-face of the dictyosome, and their enzymes are produced on rough ER b. by trans-face of the dictyosome, and their enzymes are produced on free ribosomes c. by ER and their enzymes are produced on free ribosomes d. by smooth ER and their enzymes are produced on rough ER
c. by ER and their enzymes are produced on free ribosomes
40. Small single terminal cisternae of sarcoplasmic reticulum and wide T tubules located at the levels of Z lines are characteristicc features of: a. white skeletal muscle fibers b. red skeletal muscle fibers c. cardiac muscle cells d. cardiac conduction system cells
c. cardiac muscle cells
147. Cell death by necrosis is induced by: a. binding of signalling molecule with "death receptors" b. DNA damage c. cell membrane rupture d. all answers correct
c. cell membrane rupture
28. As compared to yellow adipose tissue in the brown adipose tissue: a. the proportion of cells to the extracellular substance is lower b. cells are larger c. cells have different location of their nuclei d. cells have less mitochondria
c. cells have different location of their nuclei
117. Which membrane proteins can simultaneously transport two substances in the opposite directions: a. channels and carriers b. carriers and pumps ' c. channels and pumps d. all the mentioned
c. channels and pumps
40. Blood platelets aggregate at a site, where: a. formation of fibrin clot starts b. neutrophils migrate across the vascular wall c. collagen of the vascular wall is exposed to bloodstream d. erythrocytes adhere to endothelial cell
c. collagen of the vascular wall is exposed to bloodstream
63. Hydrolase vesicles: a. have acidic content b. can fuse with proteasomes c. contain inactive enzymes d. originate from the cis-face of the dictyosome
c. contain inactive enzymes
122. It is NOT TRUE that cell membrane: a. has a distinct trilaminar structure in the electron microscope b. is thicker than ER membrane c. contains a layer of sugars located on its inner surface d. contains constantly open potassium channels
c. contains a layer of sugars located on its inner surface
16. Epimysium is built of: a. adipose tissue b. loose connective tissue c. dense connective tissue d. satellite cells of skeletal muscle
c. dense connective tissue
133. In the nucleolus, temporarily inactive (nontranscribed) rDNA is located in: a. granular component b. pae fibrillar centers c. dense fibrillar component d. nuclear organize
c. dense fibrillar component
2. Erythrocytes and blood platelets have no nuclei. This results from: a. the same mechanism of differentiation in the bone marrow b. the same mechanism of differentiation in the peripheral blood c. different mechanisms of differentiation in the bone marrow d. different mechanisms of differentiation in the peripheral blood
c. different mechanisms of differentiation in the bone marrow
21. The first stages of receptor-mediated endocytosis are most similar to: a. pinocytosis b. phagocytosis c. formation of hydrolase vesicles d. exocytosis
c. formation of hydrolase vesicles
23. Antigens of AB0 blood groups are: a. cell membrane proteins of erythrocytes b. cell membrane phospholipids of erythrocytes c. glycocalyx oligosaccharides of erythrocytes d. cell membrane proteins of leukocytes
c. glycocalyx oligosaccharides of erythrocytes
20. What is true regarding the characteristic mechanisms of secretion from exocrine glands: a. in holocrine secretion a secretory product is released via exocytosis b. in merocrine secretion release of the product requires a total disruption of the secretory cell c. in appocrine secretions the product is released together with the apical part of the cell d. all of the above statements are true
c. in appocrine secretions the product is released together with the apical part of the cell
85. Hydrolase vesicles: a. contain proton pump in the membrane b. contain active hydrolytic enzymes c. initially are coated with clathrin d. can fuse with proteasome
c. initially are coated with clathrin
11. Which adhesion molecules bind to the extracellular substance: a. cadherins b. selectins c. integrins d. immunoglobin superfamily molecules
c. integrins
104. Which structures are tissue-specific (built of different proteins in cells belong to different tissues): a. proteasomes b. microfilaments c. intermediate filaments d. microtubules
c. intermediate filaments
26. What IS NOT the common feature of receptor-mediated endocytosis and hydrolase vesicle formation: a. participation of receptors b. behavior of the membrane c. involvement of mannose-6-phosphate d. formation of coated pits
c. involvement of mannose-6-phosphate
6. In the synapse, the postsynaptic membrane contains neurotransmitter-gated chloride channels. This synapse is: a. ionotropic excitatory b. metabotropic excitatory c. ionotropic inhibitory d. metabotropic inhibitory
c. ionotropic inhibitory
179. After ubiquitination (binding of ubiquitin) a protein: a. is separated from other proteins (stored) in the dictyosome b. is packed into hydrolyse vesicle c. is digested by proteasome d. is digested in autolysosome
c. is digested by proteasome
20. It is NOT TRUE that ground substance: a. contains proteins b. occurs in all tissues c. is impermeable for simple sugars and aminoacids d. can be responsible for mechanical properties of a tissue
c. is impermeable for simple sugars and aminoacids
4. Indicate the characteristic feature of the extracellular substance in the hyline cartilage: a. bundles of thick collagen fibers b. network of reticular fibres c. large aggregates of proteoglycans d. all answers correct
c. large aggregates of proteoglycans
167. Which organelle contains digestive enzymes? a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosome d. golgi apparatus e. mitochondria
c. lysosome
14. What is transported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm through nuclear pores : a. proteins with appropriate signal sequence b. DNA encoding mitochondrial protien c. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA d. all answers correct
c. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA d. all answers correct
37. Bacteria-killing system of neutrophils DOES NOT include: a. myeloperoxidase b. superoxide anion c. major basic protein d. defensins
c. major basic protein
86. Indicate common feature of carriers and pumps: a. transport of ions b. use of energy (ATPase activity) c. mechanism of transport (repeating conformational changes) d. all answers correct
c. mechanism of transport (repeating conformational changes)
112. Which organelles do not participate in membrane trafficking: a. endosomes b. lysosomes c. mitochondria d. dictyosomes
c. mitochondria
88. Following membrane trafficking, a protein initially present in ER membranes will NEVER be found in: a. cell membrane b. peroxisomal membrane c. mitochondrial membrane d. membrane of late endosomes
c. mitochondrial membrane
137. During formation of autolysosome digesting a mitochondrion: a. hydrolyse vesicle fuses with the outer mitochondrial membrane b. hydrolyse vesicle fuses with both, outer and inner mitochondrial membranes c. mitochondrion is first enclosed by ER membrane which next fuses with hydrolase vesicle d. mitochondrion is first expelled from the cell, then phagocytes an the phagosome fuses with hydrolase vesicle
c. mitochondrion is first enclosed by ER membrane which next fuses with hydrolase vesicle
###23. During formation of autolysosomes digesting of a mitochondrion: a. hydrolase vesicles fuses with the outer mitochondrial membrane b. hydrolyse vesicles fuses with both, outer and inner mitochondrial membrane c. mitochondrion is first enclosed by ER membrane which next fuses with hydrolyse vesicles
c. mitochondrion is first enclosed by ER membrane which next fuses with hydrolyse vesicles
13. Which is the largest leukocyte: a. neutrophil b. lymphocytes c. monocytes d. eosinophil e. basophils
c. monocytes
143. Microtubules cooperating with motor enzymes participate in: a. ameboid movement b. phagocytosis c. movement of organelles d. all answers correct
c. movement of organelles
3. Which cells of the granulopoietic lineage are the first to occur in three variants (neutrophilic, eosinophilic, basophilic): a. myeloblasts b. promyelocytes c. myelocytes d. metamyelocytes
c. myelocytes
6. Which leukocyte is the most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood: a. lymphocytes b. basophils c. neutrophil d. monocytes e. eosinophils
c. neutrophil
33. Which blood cells have a common CFU progenitor cell in the bone marrow: a. erythrocytes and eosinophils b. eosinophils and neutrophils c. neutrophils and monocytes d. monocytes and lymphocytes
c. neutrophils and monocytes
161. The membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) shows the continuity with the membrane of: a. dictyosome b. hydrolyse vesicle c. nuclear envelope d. endosome
c. nuclear envelope
130. Mechanically gated (stress-activated) channels: a. transport anions b. are located in the nuclear envelope c. occur in skeletal muscle fibers d. all answers correct
c. occur in skeletal muscle fibers
41. The first response of presynaptic part (axon terminal) to stimulus (depolarization) is: a. synthesis of neurotransmitter b. exocytosis of neurotransmitter c. opening of calcium channels d. opening of sodium channels
c. opening of calcium channels
2. Osteoclast: a. digest hydroxyapatite crystals by secreting lysosomal enzymes b. has brush border on its bone-facing surface c. originates by fusion of precursor cells d. all answers correct
c. originates by fusion of precursor cells
17. What sits in lacuna: a. osteoclast b. osteon c. osteocyte 'd. osteoblast e. osteoid
c. osteocyte
18. Which cell is the mature bone cell: a. chondrocyte b. chondroblast c. osteocyte d. osteoclast e. bone lining cell
c. osteocyte
36. Following membrane trafficking, a protein initially present in ER membrane will never be found in: a. cell membrane b. lysosomal membrane c. outer mitochondrial membrane d. peroxisomal membrane
c. outer mitochondrial membrane
19. Indicate FALSE sattaemtn regarding the bactericidal system in neutrophils: a. myeloperoxidase (MPO) and defensins are located in azurophilic granules b. lysosymes and lactoferrin are located in specific granules c. oxygen dependent killing system uses defensins and O2 d. oxygen independent killing system uses lactoferrin and lysosomes
c. oxygen dependent killing system uses defensins and O2
32. In the cancellous (spongy) bone, the arrangement of bone lamellae is mostly: a. radia b. concentric c. parallel d. chaotic
c. parallel
38. The following results of blood count: leukocytes 9000 - neutrophils 45%, eosinophils 24%, basophils 1%, lymphocytes 25% monocytes 5% suggests: a. viral infection b. bacterial infection c. parasitic infection d. good health
c. parasitic infection
123. Coating proteins (clathrin, COP) form the coat around all vesicles: a. formed in the course of endocytosis b. formed in the trans-Golgi network c. participating in the vesicular transport of ligands bound to receptors d. containing lysosomal enzymes
c. participating in the vesicular transport of ligands bound to receptors
25. Which granules of neutrophil DO NOT participate in killing of bacteria: a. azurophilic b. specific c. tertiary d. all granule types contain components of bacteria-killing system
c. tertiary
56. Coating proteins (clathrin or COP) surround ALL vesicles: a. formed during endocytosis b. produced by trans-Golgi network c. participating in vesicular transport of ligands bound to receptors d. containing lysosomal enzymes
c. participating in vesicular transport of ligands bound to receptors
96. Coating proteins (clathrin or COP) surround ALL vesicles: a. formed during endocytosis b. produced by trans-Golgi network c. participating in vesicular transport of receptors and ligands d. containing lysosomal enzymes
c. participating in vesicular transport of receptors and ligands
27. In the smooth muscle cell, binding of myosin to actin requires: a. binding of calcium ions to actin b. binding of calcium ions to troponin c. phosphorylation of myosin d. phosphorylation of tropomyosin
c. phosphorylation of myosin
11. Which meninx is made of delicate web like connective tissue: a. dura mater b. arachnoid c. pia mater d. both a and b e. all of the above
c. pia mater
46. In the nucleolus: a. ribosomal proteins are synthesized b. dense fibrillar component contains rDNA c. pre-rRNA is cleaved into shorter fragments d. granular component contains mainly small ribosomal subunits
c. pre-rRNA is cleaved into shorter fragmen
35. Oligodendrocytes: a. are more numerous in the gray matter than in white matter b. have more numerous processes than astrocytes c. produce several myelin sheath segments around several axons d. all answers correct
c. produce several myelin sheath segments around several axons
39. A single Schwann cell: a. produces myelin sheaths for several axons b. can produce myelin sheath in the central and peripheral nervous system c. produces cytoplasmic (Schwann) sheaths for several axons d. can produce cytoplasmic sheaths in the central and peripheral nervous system
c. produces cytoplasmic (Schwann) sheaths for several axons
28. Following ubiquination proteins are digested in: a. autolysosomes b. heterolysosomes c. proteasosomes d. all the mentioned structures
c. proteasosomes
29. The desmosomal plaque is built of: a. aggregated intermediate filaments b. cytoplasmic portions of transmembrane linker proteins c. proteins connecting transmembrane linker proteins to intermediate filaments d. aggregated phospholipids of the cell membrane
c. proteins connecting transmembrane linker proteins to intermediate filaments
171. Collectively, what is the cytoplasm and nucleus called: a. plasmalemma b. glycocalyx c. protoplasm d. cristae e. ground substance
c. protoplasm
29. It is NOT TRUE that white matter of the central nervous system contains: a. less blood vessels than gray matter b. myelinated nerve fibers c. protoplasmic astrocytes d. numerous oligodendrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
19. Zonula occludents: a. forms the mostu superficial part of the terminal bar b. facilitates passage of substances between the cell c. provides a strong mechanical attachment between the two cell d. on cytoplasmic site is linked of intermediate filaments
c. provides a strong mechanical attachment between the two cel
6. After binding Ca ions, troponin: a. attaches myosin head to actin b. pulls myosin head away from actin c. pulls tropomyosin away from actin d. attaches myosin head to tropomyosin
c. pulls tropomyosin away from actin
42. Mitochondria-associated infolding os the basal cell membrane if epithelia cells: a. are a structural component of some cell-cell junctions b. control the passage of large molecules to sub epithelial space c. reflect an intense active transport of ions d. all answers correc
c. reflect an intense active transport of ions
29. What forms scaffolding in the hemopoietic compartment of the bone marrow: a. loose connective tissue b. dense connective tissue c. reticular connective tissue d. adipose tissue
c. reticular connective tissue
31. The presynaptic part NEVER contains: a. calcium channels b. endocytotic vesicles c. ribosomes d. mitochondria
c. ribosomes
111. New peroxisomes originate from vesicles separated from: a. cis-Golgi network and incorporate enzymes produced on rough ER b. trans-Golgi network and incorporate enzymes produced on free (cytoplasmic) ribosomes c. rough ER and incorporate enzymes produced on free (cytoplasmic) ribosomes d. smooth ER and incorporate enzymes produced on rough ER
c. rough ER and incorporate enzymes produced on free (cytoplasmic) ribosomes
22. It is NOT TRUE that macrophages: a. originate from monocytes b. are present in the central nervous system c. secrete factors influencing hematopoiesis in the bone marrow d. are the main cells responsible for phagocytosis of bacteria
c. secrete factors influencing hematopoiesis in the bone marrow
20. The myelin sheath: a. is always present in peripheral nerve fibers b. can be produced only by Schwann cells c. serves as an electric insulator d. facilitates regeneration of the broken nerve fibres
c. serves as an electric insulator
15. What type of epithelium lines most of the gastrointestinal tract: a. simple squamous epithelium b. simple cuboidal epithelium c. simple columnar epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium e. transitional epithelium
c. simple columnar epithelium
35. Indicate FALSE statement concerning stratified epithelia: a. they can contain dead cells b. cells migrate from the basal to the superficial layer c. stem cells are located in the superficial layer d. cells of the middle layers do not show morphological polarization
c. stem cells are located in the superficial layer
71. Which function is performed by both, smooth ER and peroxisomes: a. storage of calcium ions b. beta-oxidation of fatty acids c. synthesis of cholesterol d. decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
c. synthesis of cholesterol
34. How mature blood cells enter the blood circulation in the bone marrow: a. they secrete lysosomal enzymes and digest the vascular wall b. through the clefts between endothelial cells of the blood vessels c. through transient, large pores in the endothelial cells of blood vessels d. they first enter lymphatic vessels and then blood
c. through transient, large pores in the endothelial cells of blood vessels
154. Segregation (sorting) of secretory proteins from lysosomal proteins occur in: a. rough ER b. cis-face of the dictyosome c. trans Golgi network d. secretory vesicles
c. trans Golgi network d. secretory vesiclesc. trans Golgi network d. secretory vesicles
80. Sorting of secretory proteins from lysosomal processes takes place in: a. rough ER b. cis-Golgi network (ERGIC) c. trans-Golgi network d. late endosome
c. trans-Golgi network
1. Which epithelium shows the highest ability to stretch: a. simple squamous epithelium lining blood vessels b. simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach c. transitional epithelium lining the urinary passages d. pseudostratified epithelium lining the airways
c. transitional epithelium lining the urinary passages
Pumps are: a. transporters only b. transporters and receptors c. transporters and enzymes d. transporters and linkers
c. transporters and enzymes
21. Which plasma component is produced by a cell of connective tissue proper: a. fibrinogen b. beta-globulins c. gamma-globulins d. albumins
d. albumins
10. Lipid rafts: a. occur only in the cell membrane b. are rich in cholesterol c. bind proteins whiteouts be closed to each other when functioning d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
108. The early endosome: a. has alkaline pH b. makes possible recirculation of receptors to the cell membrane c. is coated with clathrin d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
114. Transmembrane transport can be regulated by: a. opening or closing of transport pathway b. conformational changes of transporter c. withdrwal/incorporation of transporter from/to the membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
144. Cadherins: a. are located in the cell membrane b. can bind actin filaments c. occur in adhesion belts d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
152. Proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane is used as a source of energy for: a. import of proteins to mitochondria b. ATP synthesis c. active transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
189. In the early endosome: a. pH is low b. ligands separate from receptors c. receptors recirculate to the cell membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
19. Unilocular adipocytes: a. sythesize lipids b. degrade lipids c. secrete lipid-degrading enzymes d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
26. Receptors are present in: a. hydrolyse vesicles b. nuclear envelope c. outer mitochondrial membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
28. In the stratified epithelia: a. cells have different shapes b. cells migrate from basal layer to superficial layer c. dividing cells are located in the basal layer d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
29. Protein gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane is used as a source of energy for: a. import of proteins to mitochondria b. ATP synthesis c. ascribe transport across the inner mitochondria membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
33. Alpha-actin is located: a. in Z lines of sarcomeres b. at sites of thin myofilaments interconnection in smooth muscle c. at sites of thin myofilament attachments to the cell membrane in smooth muscle d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
34. Adherent junctions (adhesion belts): a. are formed exclusively between epithelial cells b. connect actin filaments of adjacent cells c. close the intracellular space making them impermeable d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
35. Osteocytes can: a. monitor forces acting upon bone 'b. produce components of the extracellular substances c. secrete enzymes digesting the extracellular substance d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
37. The atrial cardiomyocytes: a. are smaller than ventricular cardiomyocytes b. do not have T tubules c. contain secretory granules d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
39. The hyaline cartilage differs from fibrocartilage in: a. spatial distribution of collagen fibers b. collagen type present in the fibers c. presence of perichondrium (absent in fibrocartilage) d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
42. Transmembrane transport can be regulated by: a. opening or closing of transport pathway b. conformational changes of transporter c. withdrwal/insertion of transporter from/to the membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
5. In the bone, hydroxyapatite crystals are located: a. between collagen fibers b. inside collagen fibres c. in the ground substance d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
5. The ground substance: a. is responsible for mechanical properties of some tissues b. allow quick diffusion of small molecules c. binds cellw with the extracellular substance d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
89. Receptors are present in: a. rough ER membrane b. trans-Golgi network c. outer mitochondrial membrane d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
94. Caveolae: a. are specialised areas of the cell membrane b. are formed by invagination of lipid rafts c. contain receptors and transporters d. all answers correct
d. all answers correct
36. Osteoclast induces local demineralisation of bone by: a. release of lysosomal enzymes b. active transport of protons c. digestion of hydroxyapatite crystals in lysosomes d. all the above mechanisms
d. all the above mechanisms
28. Thin filaments of ALL muscle types contain: a. troponin b. tropomyosin c. caldesmon d. all the listed proteins
d. all the listed proteins
26. Elastic fibers can be produced by: a. fibroblasts b. chondroblasts c. smooth muscle cells d. all these cells
d. all these cells
21. It is NOT TRUE that calcium channels in the skeletal muscle fiber: a. are mechanically gated (stress-activated) b. are located in membrane of terminal cisternae c. make contacts with proteins of T tubule membrane d. allow calcium flow from the lumen of terminal cisterna to the lumen of T tubule
d. allow calcium flow from the lumen of terminal cisterna to the lumen of T tubule
52. The ERGIC (ER-Golgi intermediate compartment): 'a. separates secretory proteins from lysosomal proteins b. contains receptors for mannose-6-phosphate c. shows membrane continuity with TGN (trans-Golgi network) d. allows some proteins to return to ER
d. allows some proteins to return to ER
14. Adipocytes of the white adipose tissue: a. derive from lipoblasts b. contain multiple, tiny droplets of triglicerides c. have abundant cytoplasm well developed RER d. are capable for uncoupling the fat oxidation from ATP production
d. are capable for uncoupling the fat oxidation from ATP production
28. It is NOT TRUE that all cartilage types: a. contain chondral territories b. are avascular (do not contain blood vessels) c. contain collagen fibers d. are covered by perichondrium
d. are covered by perichondrium
141. All mitochondrial proteins: a. are encoded by mitochondrial DNA b. have the same signal sequence c. are located in the mitochondrial membranes d. are produced on ribosomes not bound to ER
d. are produced on ribosomes not bound to ER
21. Nissl bodies: a. are present in the nerve cell body and in all processes b. in the axon are localized only at sites of Ranvier' nodes c. are strongly acidophilic d. are related to protein production
d. are related to protein production
17. The cells of simple squamous epithelium: a. are interconnected by anchoring junctions b. are adapted to absorption of nutritive compounds c. often have basal infolding containing mitochondria d. are typically found on the surface of human body
d. are typically found on the surface of human body
7. It is NOT TRUE that: a. large ribosomal subunit contains 3 types of rRNA b. small ribosomal subunit contain 1 type of rRNA c. ribosomal proteins are produced on free (cytosolic) ribosomes d. association of rRNA and proteins into ribosomal subunits take place in the cytoplasm
d. association of rRNA and proteins into ribosomal subunits take place in the cytoplasm
34. Inside the myofibril, the first event leading to contraction is: a. opening of calcium channel b. binding of neurotransmitter to the receptor c. separation of tropomyosin from actin d. binding of calcium to troponin
d. binding of calcium to troponin
8. Which of the following ca be classified as "specialized connective tissue": a. mesenchyme b. mucous connective tissue c. dense connective tissue d. blood e. loose connective tissue
d. blood
16. Which type of bone has spicules: a. immature bone b. dense bone c. compact bone d. cancellous bone e. woven bone
d. cancellous bone
23. Differences between white (yellow) and brown adipose tissue DO NOT include: a. size of cells b. number and size of lipid droplets in cells c. number of mitochondria in cells d. cells/extracellular substance proportion
d. cells/extracellular substance proportion
178. What structure contributes to the cells cytoskeleton: a. ribosomes b. peroxisome c. microfilaments d. centrioles e. nucleoli
d. centrioles
74. The major role in the formation of new microtubules is played by: a. rough ER b. trans-Golgi network c. coated pits d. centrioles
d. centrioles
93. In all biological membranes: a. protein to lipid ratio is the same b. layer of sugars coats the membrane surface c. the two main classes of phospholipids are uniformly distributed in both layers of the bilayer d. cholesterol increases stability (rigidity) of the membrane
d. cholesterol increases stability (rigidity) of the membrane
7. Choose the best definition of chondral territory: a. an are of cartilage surrounded by perichondrium b. an area of cartilage containing chondrocytes and devoid of extracellular substance c. chondrocyte(s) surrounded by fibrous capsule d. chondrocyte(s) surrounded by condensed ground substance
d. chondrocyte(s) surrounded by condensed ground substance
37. In most nerve cells, differences between dendrites and axons DO NOT include: a. length b. absence/presence of voltage-gated sodium changels c. organelles present in the cytoplasm d. components of cytoskeleton present in the cytoplasm
d. components of cytoskeleton present in the cytoplasm
81. Transformation of chromatin from "beads on a string" into chromatin fiber is: a. loosening of chromatin induced by H4 histone b. condensation of chromatin induced by nonhistone proteins c. loosening of chromatin induced by nonhistone proteins d. condensation of chromatin induced by H1 histone
d. condensation of chromatin induced by H1 histone
37. Indicate the correct statement concerning the gap junction: a. the junction allows passage of proteins between connected cells b. connexons close when ion balance in cell cytoplasm is disturbed c. gap junctions do not occur between nerve cells d. connexons are linked to cytoplasm
d. connexons are linked to cytoplasm
87. It is NOT TRUE that all channels: a. are transmembrane proteins b. transport ions according to the concentration gradient c. transport ions without energy from ATP d. control transport by opening and closing
d. control transport by opening and closing
24. In the vast majority of nerve cell, dendrites DO NOT differ from axons in: a. length b. density of ion channels c. cytoplasmic organels d. cytoskeletal components
d. cytoskeletal components
38. Osteocytes: a. in cancellous bone are located on the surface of bone trabeculae b. during bone remodelling differentiate into osteoclasts c. during ossification are created by differentiation of chondrocytes d. depending on the functional state can produce or resorb bone components
d. depending on the functional state can produce or resorb bone components
184. What occurs in late endosome: a. dissociation of ligands from receptors b. fusion with hydrolyse vesicles c. recirculation of receptors to the cell membrane d. digestion of ligands
d. digestion of ligands
155. The core of the nucleosome is built of: a. coiled DNA helix b. four histone molecules c. four histone molecules and molecules of nonhistone proteins d. eight histone molecules
d. eight histone molecules
3. The mitochondrial matrix does not contain: a. Krebs cycle enzymes b. enzymes of fatty acid beta-oxidation c. enzymes responsible for replication and transcription d. enzymes responsible for ATP synthase
d. enzymes responsible for ATP synthase
38. The central canal of the spinal cord is lined by: ' a. endothelial cells b. simple columnar epithelium c. stratified squamous epithelium d. ependyme
d. ependyme
22. Elasticity of elastic fibres results from: a. polymerization and depolymerisation of elastin molecules b. changes of the shape of elastin molecules c. changes of the gaps between elastin molecules d. expansion of the cross-links between elastin molecules
d. expansion of the cross-links between elastin molecules
25. Elasticity of elastic fibers result from: a. polymerization and depolymerisation of elastin molecules b. changes of the shape of elastin molecules c. changes of the distances between elastin molecules d. expansion of the cross-links between elastin molecules
d. expansion of the cross-links between elastin molecules
173. Which organelle sorts and packages proteins within a cell: a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosome d. golgi apparatus e. mitochondria
d. golgi apparatus
19. In the nucleolus: a. mRNA is translated into ribosomal DNA b. dense fibrillar component contains mainly ribosomal DNA c. preribosomal RNA is cleaved into ribosomal RNA d. granular component contains mainly large ribosomal subunits
d. granular component contains mainly large ribosomal subunits
78. In the nucleolus: a. ribosomal proteins are synthesised on the template of rRNA b. dense fibular component contains mainly rDNA c. short pre-rRNA molecules are linked to form rRNA d. granular component contains mainly large ribosomal subunits
d. granular component contains mainly large ribosomal subunits
14. What is woven bone: a. cancellous bone b. compact bone c. dense bone d. immature bone e. spongy bone
d. immature bone
3. Indicate the correct statement concerning structures of apical epithelial surfaces: a. stereocilium contains an array fo microtubules b. basal body is located beneath each cilium and microvillus c. in the brush border, the movement of microvilli is coordinated d. in a cilium, the peripheral microtubule doublets are connected by an elastic protein nexin
d. in a cilium, the peripheral microtubule doublets are connected by an elastic protein nexin
17. Processes occuring in the dictyosome DO NOT include: a. glycosylation of proteins b. incorporation of proteins into membrane c. phosphorylation of some sugar residues d. increase in membrane thickness
d. increase in membrane thickness its B really
134. Transport through nuclear pores DOES NOT require: a. signal sequence in the transported proteins b. participation of cytoplasmic receptors c. participation of nuclear receptors d. involvement of motor proteins
d. involvement of motor proteins
24. The statement "numerous cilia increase the surface area of epithelial cell": a. is false, because cilia constantly change the surface are b. is true but does not point to the main function of cilia c. is true and points to the main function of cilia d. is false, because the presence of cilia does not influence the surface area of epithelium
d. is false, because the presence of cilia does not influence the surface area of epithelium
29. Aggregation of collagen molecules into fibrils: a. requires high concentration of calcium ions b. occurs in ER of fibroblasts c. occurs in the Golgi apparatus of fibroblasts d. is possible only after cleavage of terminal peptide fragments
d. is possible only after cleavage of terminal peptide fragments
11. What do you call the space where a chondrocyte sits in: a. space of Disse b. space of Mall c. vacuole d. lacuna e. Howship's lacuna
d. lacuna
84. It is NOT TRUE that a cell secreting proteins by constitutive exocytosis contains: a. numerous pores in the nuclear envelope b. numerous RER cisternae c. well developed Golgi apparatus d. large secretory granules
d. large secretory granules
157. It is NOT TRUE that: a. lysosomal enzymes contain sugar residues b. inside hydrolase vesicles lysosomal enzymes are inactive c. the membrane of endosomes contain proton pump d. late endosomes recirculate receptors to the cell membrane
d. late endosomes recirculate receptors to the cell membrane
47.Indicate the correct definition of the nuclear lamina: a. the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope b. the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope c. area of nuclear envelope devoid of nuclear pores, with both membranes fuses d. layer of intermediate filaments associated with the inner surface of the nucleus
d. layer of intermediate filaments associated with the inner surface of the nucleus
95. Which process is NOT characteristic for apoptosis: a. DNA fragmentation b. activation of caspases c. fragmentation of the cell into membrane-bound bodies d. local inflamation
d. local inflamation
68. Which process is NOT characteristic for apoptosis: a. DNA fragmentation b. activation of caspases c. fragmentation of the cell into membrane-bound bodies d. local inflammation
d. local inflammation
109. It is NOT TRUE that: a. lysosomal enzymes in hydrolyse vesicles are inactive b. lysososmes can digest cell organelles c. lysosomal membrane contains proton pump d. lysosomal digestion products are secreted by exocytosis
d. lysosomal digestion products are secreted by exocytosis
188. indicate FALSE statement concerning apoptosis: a. DNA undergoes fragmentation b. cell nucleus undergoes fragmentation c. cell undergoes fragmentation without loss of cell membrane continuity d. lysosomal enzymes digest cellular proteins
d. lysosomal enzymes digest cellular proteins
24. Receptors responsible for binding lysosomal enzymes in trans Golgi networks recognise: a. signal sequence of the enzyme b. aminoacid sequence of the enzyme c. active center of the enzyme d. mannose 6 phosphate residues
d. mannose 6 phosphate residues
9. What are most numerous in the body: a. unipolar b. pseudounipolar c. bipolar d. multipolar e. both a and b
d. multipolar
7. What are the supporting cells in the central nervous system called: a. Schwann cells b. basket cells c. ganglion d. neuroglia e. satellite cells
d. neuroglia
12. The signal sequence targeting a protein to the nucleus a. binds SRP b. is located after signal sequence for SRP c. is located before signal sequence for SRP d. never occurs together with signal sequence for SRP
d. never occurs together with signal sequence for SRP
16. What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath: a. meninges b. myelinated nerve fibers c. cell bodies d. nodes of Ranvier 'e. neurofilaments
d. nodes of Ranvier
24. Which feature is NOT characteristic for plasma cell: a. abundant RER b. Golgi apparatus located near cell nucleus c. a specific distribution of heterochromatin in cell nucleus d. numerous secretory granules
d. numerous secretory granules
92. What is NOT a common feature of microtubules and microfilaments: a. the presence of "plus" and "minus" ends b. cooperation with motor proteins c. unstable and stable forms d. participation in ameboid movement of the cell
d. participation in ameboid movement of the cell
29. Functions of eosinophil DO NOT include: a. phagocytosis b. killing of larval parasites c. neutralization of substances produced by mast cells d. participation in blood clotting
d. participation in blood clotting
15. What is the tissue which surrounds a nerve fascicle: a. perimysium b. periosteum c. perichondrium d. perineurium e. endosteum
d. perineurium
55. Which lipid present in biological membranes participates in cell signalling: a. cholesterol b. choline phospholipids c. amine phospholipids d. phosphoinositiol
d. phosphoinositiol
3. What surrounds axons of unmyelinated nerve fibres in the central nervous system: a. cytoplasmic folds of Schwann cells b. basal lamina c. processes of oligodendrocytes d. processes of astrocytes
d. processes of astrocytes
18. Cell nucleus contains large areas occupied by heterochromatin, large nucleolus and numerous pores in the nuclear envelope. You would conclude that the cell: a. intensly produces one type of protein b. intensly produces many different types of proteins c. produces small amounts of one protein type d. produced small amounts of different protein types
d. produced small amounts of different protein types
7. The desmosomal plaque is built of: a. aggregated cytoskeleton filaments b. cytoplasmic portions of transmembrane linker proteins c. cell membrane rich in cholesterol d. proteins connecting cytoskeleton with transmembrane linker proteins
d. proteins connecting cytoskeleton with transmembrane linker proteins
4. Which of the following is NOT a fiber found in connective tissue: a. collagen fibers b. elastic fibers c. reticular fibers d. purkinje fibers e. all of the above are fibres found in connective tissue
d. purkinje fibers
39. The presence of brush border on the apical surface and mitochondria-associated infolding of the basal cell membrane suggest that the functions of epithelial cells are: a. resorption and secretion b. production and transport control c. secretion and sensation d. resorption and transport contro
d. resorption and transport contro
1. Collagen 3 type is the predominant collagen type in: a. loose connective tissue b. dense connective tissue c. gelatinous connective tissue d. reticular connective tissue
d. reticular connective tissue
150. What is transported in both directions through nuclear pores: a. mRNA b. tRNA c. histones d. ribosomal proteins
d. ribosomal proteins
169. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle? a. lysosomes b. peroxisomes c. mitochondria d. ribosomes e. endoplasmic reticulum
d. ribosomes
14. What is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell: a. epimysium b. sarcolemma c. endomysium d. sarcoplasm e. perimysium
d. sarcoplasm
22. Which process occurs in both early and late endosomes: a. degradation of ligands b. degradation of receptors c. binding of ligands to receptors d. separation of ligands to receptors
d. separation of ligands to receptors
131. Lipids are synthesised in: a. mitochondria and peroxisomes b. smooth ER and mitochondria c. dictyosomes and smooth ER d. smooth ER and peroxisomes
d. smooth ER and peroxisomes
181. What is an immediate (direct) result of the mitochondrial election transport chain activity: a. opening of proton channels b. active transport of protons c. active transport of ADP d. synthesis of ATP
d. synthesis of ATP
26. Smooth muscle cells are not striated because: a. sarcomeres are located at different levels b. sarcomeres have different lengths c. sarcomeres are masked by thick basal lamina d. the contractile apparatus has no sarcomeres
d. the contractile apparatus has no sarcomeres
22. Indicate FALSE statement regarding motile cells on the surface of epithelial cells: a. they are larger than microvilli b. each of them has its own basal body c. their core contains of microtubules d. they increase the cell surface available for absorption
d. they increase the cell surface available for absorption
20. In the sarcomere, M line is formed by: a. desmin filaments b. proteins linking myofibril and T tubule c. myosin "head" (B1 fragments) d. transversian protein bridges between thick myofilaments
d. transversian protein bridges between thick myofilaments
32. In the blood platelet granulomere DOES NOT contain: a. hydrolase vesicle b. mitochondria c. granules storing ADP and ATP d. tubules storing calcium ions
d. tubules storing calcium ions
47. Osteoblasts: a. originate from the bone marrow b. during endochondral ossification are formed by transformation of chondrocytes c. have ruffled border and numerous lysosomes d. using a receptor-mediated mechanism influence recruitment of osteoclasts
d. using a receptor-mediated mechanism influence recruitment of osteoclasts
42. What is common for fibroblasts and plasma cell: a. cytoplasmic processes b. characteristic pattern of heterochromatin in cell nucleus c. numerous secretory granules d. well developed RER
d. well developed RER
48. The predominant blood vessels in the hematopoietic bone marrow are: a. thin-walled veins b. arteries devoid of smooth muscle cells c. narrow capillaries with continuous wall d. wide capillaries with holes of a variable size
d. wide capillaries with holes of a variable sizev
32. In the peripheral nervous system, formation of myelin sheath results from: a. secretion of successive protein and lipid layers by axon b. secretion of successive protein and lipid layers by Schwann cell c. wrapping axolemma around axon d. wrapping Schwann cell membrane around axon
d. wrapping Schwann cell membrane around axon
27. It is NOT TRUE that pseudostratified epithelium: a. is a variant of simple columnar epithelium b. can contain cells of different height c. can contain cells performing different functions d. can contain cells not adhering to basal lamina
d.can contain cells not adhering to basal lamina
3. Which of the following is NOT primarily composed of connective tissue: a. blood b. bone c. tendon d. intervertebral disc e. myometrium
e
13. Which of the following is a component of the ground substance: a. hylauronic acid b. proteoglycans c. glycosaminoglycans d. chondroitin sulfate e. all of the above
e. all of the above
4. Which of the following formed elements do not contain a nucleus: a. platelets b. erythrocytes c. leukocytes 'd. monocytes e. both a and b
e. both a and b
10. Which type of adipose tissue tends to increase as humans ages: a. brown adipose tissue b. white adipose tissue c. unilocular adipose tissue d. multilocular adipose tissue e. both b and c
e. both b and c
11. What type of tissue is a tendon composed of: a. mucous connective tisse b. mesenchyme c. loose irregular connective tissue d. dense irregular connective tissue e. dense regular connective tissue
e. dense regular connective tissue
11. Which of the following is described as having a "central pallor": a. leukocytes b. monocytes c. eosinophils d. platelets e. erythrocytes
e. erythrocytes
10. Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system: a. kupffer cells b. histtiocyte c. dust cell d. Langerhans cell e. microglia
e. microglia
12. What provides tensile strength to a neuron: a. meninges b. myelinated nerve fibers c. cell bodies d. nodes of Ranvier e. neurofilaments
e. neurofilaments
13. What is released at a synapse: a. motor unit b. motor neuron c. motor end plate d. neuromuscular spindle e. neurotransmitter
e. neurotransmitter
10. Which type of cartilage is highly vascularized: a. hyaline cartilage b. elastic cartilage c. fibrocartilage d. all of the above e. none of the above
e. none of the above
177. Where are ribosome constructed: a. cytoskeleton b. peroxisome c. microfilaments d. centrioles e. nucleoli
e. nucleoli
5. What is the connective tissue covering of a muscle fascicle: a. sarcolemma b. endomysium c. epimysium d. sarcoplasm e. perimysium
e. perimysium
5. What comes from a megakaryocyte? a. lymphocyte b. basophils c. erythrocytes d. monocytes e. platelets
e. platelets
12. What type of epithelium appears stratified, but is not: a. epithelial tissue b. mesothelium c. endothelium d. transitional e. pseudostratified
e. pseudostratified
8. What type of tissue lines the bladder: a. simple squamous epithelium b. simple cuboidal epithelium c. simple columnar epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium e. transitional epithelium
e. transitional epithelium
8. Which of the following is composed of smooth muscle: a. upper esophagus b. heart c. tongue d. biceps muscle e. walls of the visceral organs
e. walls of the visceral organs
110. Proteins of the mitochondrial matrix: a. are produced on mitochondrial ribosomes b. do not have signal sequence c. after translation pass across translocons in the mitochondrial membranes d. all answers correct
idk
15. Appearance of the hydroxyproline in the urea will indicate degradation of: a. the ground substance of connective tissue b. all connective tissue fibres c. specifically collagen fibres d. specifically elastic fibres
idk
174. Which of the following is NOT considered an inclusion: a. pigment b. glycogen c. lipid d. secretory granules e. mitochondria
idk
19. Indicate FALSE statement, regarding the origin of Ca2+ ions triggeringg a contraction: a. in smooth muscle cells derive chiefly from caveolae b. in skeletal muscle fibers derive chiefly from sarcoplasmic reticulum c. in cardiac muscle cells derive chiefly from the extracellular space d. in all types of muscles bind initially to calmodulin
idk
23. Which cells are capable of spontaneous (impulse-independent) depolarization of cell membrane: a. skeletal muscle cells b. atrial cardiomyocytes c. interstitial cells of Cajal d. all listed cells
idk
25. Which process does not depend on the concentration or transport of protons: a. recirculation of receptors b. ATP synthase c. regulated exocytosis d. activation of lysosomal enzymes
idk
44. Which structures are tissue-specific (built of different proteins in cell belonging to tissues): a. proteasomes b. microfilaments c. intermediate filaments d. microtubules
idk
97. The lysosomal membrane is freely permeable to digestion products of: a. protiens b. nucleic acids c. sugars d. lipids
idk
118. In the process of chromatin packaging, side loops are formed by: a. nucleofilament (beads-on-string) with participation of H1 histone b. chromatin fiber with participation of nonhistone proteins c. linker DNA between nucleosomes with participation of H2A histone d. mRNA with participation of H4 histones
nucleofilament (beads-on-string) with participation of H1 histone
¤%¤%¤%¤31. Aggregation of coating protein (clathrin, COP) under a membrane is necessary for: a. aggregation of receptor and invagination of the membrane b. binding of ligands of receptors c. transport of the coated vesicle in the cell d. fusion of the vesicle with another membrane
¤¤¤¤¤¤¤¤a. aggregation of receptor and invagination of the membrane