HIT 3 Chapter 65: Assessment of Neurologic Function
A nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client with a stroke and cannot elicit a gag reflex. This deficit is related to cranial nerve (CN) X, the vagus nerve. What will the nurse consider a priority nursing diagnosis?
Risk for aspiration Explanation: CN X, the vagus nerve, involves the gag reflex, laryngeal hoarseness, swallowing ability, and symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate. An impaired gag reflex indicates a danger for aspiration and subsequent pneumonia. An impaired vagus nerve will not affect balance, skin integrity, or intracranial adaptive capacity.
If a client has a lower motor neuron lesion, the nurse would expect the client to exhibit
decreased muscle tone. Explanation: A client with a lower motor neuron lesion would be expected to have decreased muscle tone. Those with upper motor neuron lesions would have hyperactive reflexes, no muscle atrophy, and muscle spasticity.
During a routine physical examination to assess a client's deep tendon reflexes, a nurse should make sure to:
support the joint where the tendon is being tested. Explanation: The nurse should support the joint where the tendon is being tested to prevent the attached muscle from contracting. The nurse should use the flat, not pointed, end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles tendon. (The pointed end is used to strike over small areas, such as the thumb placed over the biceps tendon.) Tapping the tendon slowly and softly wouldn't provoke a deep tendon reflex response. The nurse should hold the reflex hammer loosely, not tightly, between the thumb and fingers so it can swing in an arc.
The spinal cord is composed of 31 pairs of spinal nerves. How many pairs of thoracic nerves are contained within the spinal column?
Twelve Explanation: There are twelve pairs of thoracic nerves, five lumbar and sacral nerves, eight cervical, and one coccygeal.
A client is scheduled for an EEG. The client asks about any diet-related prerequisites before the EEG. Which diet-related advice should the nurse provide to the client?
Avoid taking sedative drugs or drinks that contain caffeine for at least 8 hours before the test. Explanation: The client is advised to refrain from taking sedative drugs or consuming drinks that contain caffeine at least 8 hours before the test because these may interfere with the EEG results. The client is not advised to increase or decrease the intake of minerals in the diet or to avoid eating food 8 hours before the test.
Which is a sympathetic effect of the nervous system?
Dilated pupils Explanation: Dilated pupils are a sympathetic effect of the nervous system, whereas constricted pupils are a parasympathetic effect. Decreased blood pressure is a parasympathetic effect, whereas increased blood pressure is a sympathetic effect. Increased peristalsis is a parasympathetic effect, but decreased peristalsis is a sympathetic effect. Decreased respiratory rate is a parasympathetic effect, and increased respiratory rate is a sympathetic effect.
Which neurotransmitter inhibits pain transmission?
Enkephalin Explanation: Enkephalins are excitatory neurotransmitters that cause pleasurable sensations and inhibit pain transmission. Acetylcholine is an excitatory transmitter that sometimes has inhibitory parasympathetic effects. Serotonin is an inhibitory transmitter that helps control mood and sleep. Dopamine usually is inhibitory, affecting behavior and fine movement.
Which lobe of the brain is responsible for concentration and abstract thought?
Frontal Explanation: The major functions of the frontal lobe are concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. The parietal lobe analyzes sensory information such as pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature. The occipital lobe is the primary visual cortex. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive areas located around the temples.
Cranial nerve IX is also known as which of the following?
Glossopharyngeal Explanation: Cranial nerve IX is the glossopharyngeal nerve. The vagus nerve is cranial nerve X. Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve. The spinal accessory is the cranial nerve XI.
What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
It cushions the brain and spinal cord. Explanation: CSF is produced primarily in the lateral ventricles of the brain. It acts as a shock absorber and cushions the spinal cord and brain against injury caused by sudden or extreme movement. CSF also functions in the removal of waste products from cerebral tissue. CSF doesn't act as an insulator or a barrier and it doesn't produce cerebral neurotransmitters.
A nurse is assisting during a lumbar puncture. How should the nurse position the client for this procedure?
Lateral recumbent, with chin resting on flexed knees Explanation: To maximize the space between the vertebrae, the client is placed in a lateral recumbent position with knees flexed toward the chin. The needle is inserted between L4 and L5. The other positions wouldn't allow as much space between L4 and L5.
The Family Nurse Practitioner is performing the physical examination of a client with a suspected neurologic disorder. In addition to assessing other parts of the body, the nurse should assess for neck rigidity. Which method should help the nurse assess for neck rigidity correctly?
Moving the head and chin toward the chest Explanation: The neck is examined for stiffness or abnormal position. The presence of rigidity is assessed by moving the head and chin toward the chest. The nurse should not maneuver the neck if a head or neck injury is suspected or known. The neck should also not be maneuvered if trauma to any part of the body is evident. Moving the head toward the sides or pressing the bones on the neck will not help assess for neck rigidity correctly. While assessing for neck rigidity, sensation at the neck area is not to be assessed.
A nurse is completing a neurological assessment and determines that the client has significant visual deficits. A brain tumor is considered. Considering the functions of the lobes of the brain, which area will most likely contain the neurologic deficit?
Occipital Explanation: The vision center is located in the occipital lobe. There is little other functioning that may interfere with the visual process in the other lobes of the brain.
Which lobe of the brain is responsible for spatial relationships?
Parietal Explanation: The parietal lobe is essential to a person's awareness of body position in space, size and shape discrimination, and right-left orientation. The frontal lobe controls information storage or memory and motor function. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive area. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.
Which neurotransmitter demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways?
Serotonin Explanation: The brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord are sources of serotonin. Enkephalin is excitatory and associated with pleasurable sensations. Norepinephrine is usually excitatory and affects mood and overall activity. Acetylcholine is usually excitatory, but the parasympathetic effects are sometimes inhibitory.
The nurse is completing the physical assessment of a patient suspected of a neurologic disorder. The patient reports to the nurse that he has recently suffered a head trauma. In such a case, which of the following precautions should the nurse take for the patient? Select all that apply.
The nurse should not move or manipulate the patient's head while assessing for bleeding or swelling. Explanation: The nurse evaluates the patient's body posture and any abnormal position of the head, neck, trunk, or extremities. The nurse carefully examines the head for bleeding, swelling, or wounds. The nurse does not move or manipulate the patient's head during physical assessment, especially if there is a recent history of trauma. The nurse should not make the patient sit on a chair or seek the help of an assistant while doing the head assessment. The nurse need not explain in detail about the procedure of head assessment to the patient.
The provider orders the Romberg test for a patient. The nurse tells the patient that the provider wants to evaluate his equilibrium by assessing which cranial nerve?
VIII Explanation: Cranial nerve VIII (acoustic) can be checked to assess equilibrium status.
The nurse who is employed in a neurologist's office is performing a history and assessment on a client experiencing hearing difficulty. The nurse is most correct to gather equipment to assess the function of cranial nerve:
VIII Explanation: There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Cranial nerve VIII is the vestibulocochlear or auditory nerve responsible for hearing and balance. Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve. Cranial nerve VI is the abducens nerve responsible for eye movement. Cranial nerve XI is the accessory nerve and is involved with head and shoulder movement.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client diagnosed with a stroke and cannot elicit a gag reflex. This deficit is related to which of the following cranial nerves?
X Explanation: CN X is the vagus nerve and has to do with the gag reflex, laryngeal hoarseness, swallowing ability, and the symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate. CN VII is the facial nerve and has to do with symmetry of facial movements and the ability to discriminate between the tastes of sugar and salt. The inability to close one eyelid indicates impairment of this nerve. CN VIII is the acoustic nerve. It has to do with hearing, air and bone conduction, and balance. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and has to do with pupillary response, conjugate movements, and nystagmus.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate to monitor the status of the aneurysm?
cerebral angiography Explanation: The nurse would anticipate a cerebral angiography, which detects distortion of the cerebral arteries and veins . A milligram detects abnormalities of the spinal canal. An electroencephalogram records electrical impulses of the brain. An echoencephalography is an ultrasound of the structures of the brain.
A nurse is working in a neurologist's office. The physician orders a Romberg test. The nurse should have the client:
close his or her eyes and stand erect. Explanation: In the Romberg test, the client stands erect with the feet close together and eyes closed. If the client sways as if to fall, it is considered a positive Romberg test. All of the other options include components of neurologic tests, indicating neurologic deficits and balance.
Lower motor neuron lesions cause
flaccid muscles. Explanation: Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccidity, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. Upper motor neuron lesions cause increased muscle tone. Upper motor neuron lesions cause no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.
A nurse is caring for a client with an injury to the central nervous system. When caring for a client with a spinal cord insult slowing transmission of the motor neurons, the nurse would anticipate a delayed reaction in:
response due to interrupted impulses from the central nervous system Explanation: The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. Motor neurons transmit impulses from the central nervous system. Slowing transmission in this area would slow the response of transmission leading to a delay in reaction. Sensory neurons transmit impulses from the environment to the central nervous system, allowing identification of a stimulus. Cognitive centers of the brain interpret the information.
The nurse is preparing a client for a neurological examination by the physician and explains tests the physician will be doing, including the Romberg test. The client asks the purpose of this particular test. The correct reply by the nurse is which of the following?
"It is a test for balance." Explanation: The Romberg test screens for balance. The client stands with feet together and arms at the side, first with eyes open and then with both eyes closed for 20 to 30 seconds. Slight swaying is normal, but a loss of balance is abnormal and is considered a positive Romberg test.
An 83-year-old woman suffers a stroke at home and is hospitalized for treatment and management. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be best to visualize the extent of damage?
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) Explanation: An MRA allows separate visualization of the cerebral vasculature and can be used in place of an MRI.
A nurse is completing a neurological assessment and determines that the client has significant visual deficits. Considering the functions of the lobes of the brain, which area will most likely contain the neurologic deficit?
occipital Explanation: The vision center is located in the occipital lobe. There is little that may interfere with the visual process in the other lobes of the brain.
A male client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). When the nurse caring for the client is preparing him for the test, the client states that during childhood he was mildly electrocuted but miraculously lived. Therefore, he is quite afraid of going through an EEG. In what ways can the nurse help dispel the client's fear regarding the test?
Inform the client that he will not experience any electrical shock. Explanation: An EEG records the electrical impulses generated by the brain. To prepare the client for the test, the nurse informs the client that he or she will not experience any electrical shock. The source of electrical energy is the client's neural activity within the brain and not any external electrical energy. Ensuring adequate water intake or distracting the attention of the client will not comfort the client about the technical nature of the test.
The nurse has completed evaluating the client's cranial nerves. The nurse documents impairment of the right cervical nerves (CN IX and CN X). Based on these findings, the nurse should instruct the client to
refrain from eating or drinking for now. Explanation: Significant findings of CN IX (glossopharyngeal) include difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and impaired taste, and significant findings of CN X (vagus) include weak or absent gag reflex, difficulty swallowing, aspiration, hoarseness, and slurred speech (dysarthria). Based on these findings, the nurse should instruct the client to refrain from eating and drinking and should contact the health care provider. The other instructions are associated with abnormalities of CN II (optic) and CN VIII (acoustic).
A patient sustained a head injury during a fall and has changes in personality and affect. What part of the brain does the nurse recognize has been affected in this injury?
Frontal lobe Explanation: The frontal lobe, the largest lobe, located in the front of the brain. The major functions of this lobe are concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. It contains Broca's area, which is located in the left hemisphere and is critical for motor control of speech. The frontal lobe is also responsible in large part for a person's affect, judgment, personality, and inhibitions (Hickey, 2009).
A nurse is preparing a client for a computed tomography (CT) scan that requires infusion of radiopaque dye. Which question is the most important for the nurse to ask?
"Are you allergic to seafood or iodine?" Explanation: Seafood and the radiopaque dye used in CT contain iodine. To prevent an allergic reaction to the radiopaque dye, the nurse should ask the client about allergies to seafood or iodine before the CT scan. Because fasting is unnecessary before a CT scan, the nurse doesn't need to obtain information about the client's last food and fluid intake. The client's last dose of medication and current weight also are irrelevant.
A nurse and nursing student are caring for a client recovering from a lumbar puncture yesterday. The client reports a headache despite being on bedrest overnight. The physician plans an epidural blood patch this morning. The student asks how this will help the headache. The correct reply from the nurse is which of the following?
"The blood will seal the hole in the dura and prevent further loss of cerebral spinal fluid." Explanation: Loss of CSF causes the headache. Occasionally, if the headache persists, the epidural blood patch technique may be used. Blood is withdrawn from the antecubital vein and injected into the site of the previous puncture. The rationale is that the blood will act as a plug to seal the hole in the dura and preven further loss of CSF. The blood is not put into the subarachnoid space. The needle is inserted below the level of the spinal cord, which prevents damage to the cord. It is not a lack of moisture that prevents healing; it is more related to the size of the needle used for the puncture.
The nurse is assessing the client's mental status . Which question will the nurse include in the assessment?
"Who is the president of the United States?" Explanation: Assessing orientation to time, place, and person assists in evaluating mental status. Does the client know what day it is, what year it is, and the name of the president of the United States? Is the client aware of where he or she is? Is the client aware of who the examiner is and why he or she is in the room? "Can you write your name on this piece of paper?" will assess language ability. "Can you count backward from 100?" assesses the client's intellectual function. "Are you having hallucinations?" assesses the client's thought content.
The critical care nurse is giving report on a client they are caring for. The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess the level of consciousness (LOC) of a female client and reports to the on-coming nurse that the client has an LOC of 6. What does an LOC score of 6 in a client indicate?
Comatose Explanation: The GSC is used to measure the LOC. The scale consists of three parts: eye opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response. A normal response is 15. A score of 7 or less is considered comatose. Therefore, a score of 6 indicates the client is in a state of coma, and not in any other state such as stupor or somnolence. The evaluations are recorded on a graphic sheet where connecting lines show an increase or decrease in the LOC.
A patient has a deficiency of the neurotransmitter serotonin. The nurse is aware that this deficiency can lead to:
Depression. Explanation: Serotonin helps control mood and sleep. A deficiency leads to depression.
A patient has difficulty interpreting his awareness of body position in space. Which lobe is most likely to be damaged?
Parietal Explanation: The parietal lobe is the primary sensory cortex. It is essential to a person's awareness of his body in space, as well as orientation in space and spatial relations.
A client is ordered to undergo CT of the brain with IV contrast. Before the test, the nurse should complete which action first?
Assess the client for medication allergies. Explanation: If a contrast agent is used, the client must be assessed before the CT scan for an iodine/shellfish allergy, because the contrast agent used may be iodine based. If the client has no allergies to shellfish, then kidney function must also be evaluated, as the contrast material is cleared through the kidneys. A suitable IV line for contrast injection and a period of fasting (usually 4 hours) are required before the study. Clients who receive an IV contrast agent are monitored during and after the procedure for allergic reactions and changes in kidney function.
Which term refers to the inability to coordinate muscle movements, resulting difficulty walking?
Ataxia Explanation: Ataxia is the inability to coordinate voluntary muscle action; tremors (rhythmic, involuntary movements) noted at rest or during movement suggest a problem in the anatomic areas responsible for balance and coordination. Agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system. Spasticity is the sustained increase in tension of a muscle when it is passively lengthened or stretched.
The physician's office nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate to monitor the status of the aneurysm?
Cerebral angiography Explanation: The nurse would anticipate a cerebral angiography, which detects distortion of the cerebral arteries and veins . A myelogram detects abnormalities of the spinal canal. An electroencephalogram records electrical impulses of the brain. An echoencephalography is an ultrasound of the structures of the brain.
A client has undergone a lumbar puncture as part of a neurological assessment. The client is put under the care of a nurse after the procedure. Which important postprocedure nursing intervention should be performed to ensure the client's maximum comfort?
Encourage the client to drink liberal amounts of fluids Explanation: The nurse should encourage the client to take liberal fluids and should inspect the injection site for swelling or hematoma. These measures help restore the volume of cerebrospinal fluid extracted. The client is administered antihistamines before a test only if he or she is allergic to contrast dye and contrast dye will be used. The room of the client who has undergone a lumbar puncture should be kept dark and quiet. The client should be encouraged to rest, because sensory stimulation tends to magnify discomfort.
Which cerebral lobe contains the auditory receptive areas?
Temporal Explanation: The temporal lobe plays the most dominant role of any area of the cortex in cerebration. The frontal lobe, the largest lobe, controls concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which analyzes sensory information and relays interpretation to the thalamus and other cortical areas. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.
A patient recently noted difficulty maintaining his balance and controlling fine movements. The nurse explains that the provider will order diagnostic studies for the part of his brain known as the:
Cerebellum. Explanation: The cerebellum is largely responsible for coordination of all movement. It also controls fine movement, balance, position (postural) sense or proprioception (awareness of where each part of the body is), and integration of sensory input.
The nurse is assisting the physician in completing a lumbar puncture. Which would the nurse note as a concern?
Cerebrospinal fluid is cloudy in nature. Explanation: The nurse would note cloudy cerebrospinal fluid as a concern. Cloudy fluid is an indication of infection. The physician is correct to maintain aseptic procedure. A piercing feeling and pressure relief are common during and after the procedure.
A nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client. The nurse observes the client's tongue for symmetry, tremors, and strength, and assesses the client's speech. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
XII Explanation: Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, controls tongue movements involved in swallowing and speech. The tongue should be midline, symmetrical, and free from tremors and fasciculations. The nurse tests tongue strength by asking the client to push his tongue against his cheek as the nurse applies resistance. To test the client's speech, the nurse may ask him to repeat the sentence, "Round the rugged rock that ragged rascal ran." The trochlear nerve (IV) is responsible for extraocular movement (inferior medial). The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) is responsible for swallowing movements and throat sensations. It's also responsible for taste in the posterior third of the tongue. The abducent nerves (VI) are responsible for lateral extraocular movements.
A nurse is preparing a client for lumbar puncture. The client has heard about post-lumbar puncture headaches and asks how to avoid having one. The nurse tells the client that these headches can be avoided by doing which of the following after the procedure?
"Remain prone for 2 to 3 hours." Explanation: The headache is caused by cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leakage at the puncture site. The supply of CSF in the cranium is depleted so that there is not enough to cushion and stabilize the brain. When the client assumes an upright position, tension and stretching of the venous sinuses and pain-sensitive structures occur. The headache may be avoided if the client remains prone for 2 to 3 hours after the procedure. Drinking plenty of fluids will help in replacing the CSF. Hydration is important for replacement of the CSF lost so remaining NPO is not an option unless it is for other reasons, then IV fluid replacement will be important. Ambulating right away will make the possibility of a headache more likely. It is not necessary to remain on bedrest for more than a few hours, unless a headache has occurred; then bedest for overnight is usually sufficient.
A patient who has suffered a stroke is unable to maintain respiration and is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilator support. What portion of the brain is most likely responsible for the inability to breathe?
Brain stem Explanation: The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata (see Fig. 65-2). Portions of the pons help regulate respiration. Motor fibers from the brain to the spinal cord and sensory fibers from the spinal cord to the brain are located in the medulla. Reflex centers for respiration, blood pressure, heart rate, coughing, vomiting, swallowing, and sneezing are located in the medulla.
The nurse is performing an assessment of cranial nerve function and asks the patient to cover one nostril at a time to see if the patient can smell coffee, alcohol, and mint. The patient is unable to smell any of the odors. The nurse is aware that the patient has a dysfunction of which cranial nerve?
CN I Explanation: Cranial nerve (CN) I is the olfactory nerve, which allows the sense of smell. Testing of CN I is done by having the patient identify familiar odors with eyes closed, testing each nostril separately. An inability to smell an odor is a significant finding, indicating dysfunction of this nerve.
A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of inability to form words, and numbness and weakness of the right arm and leg. Where would you locate the site of injury?
Left frontoparietal region Explanation: The patient is exhibiting signs of expressive aphasia with numbness/tingling and weakness of the right arm and leg. This indicates injury to the expressive speech center (Broca's area), which is located in the inferior portion of the frontal lobe. The motor strip is located in the posterior portion of the frontal lobe. The sensory strip is located in the anterior parietal lobe.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment and requests that the patient stand with eyes open and then closed for 20 seconds to assess balance. What type of test is the nurse performing?
Romberg test Explanation: The Romberg test is a neurologic assessment of the patient's balance in which the patient is instructed to stand with eyes open and then closed for 20 seconds. The Weber (including the watch-tick) and Rinne tests assess hearing.
A client is waiting in a triage area to learn the medical status of family members following a motor vehicle accident. The client is pacing, taking deep breaths, and handwringing. Considering the effects in the body systems, the nurse anticipates that the liver will:
convert glycogen to glucose for immediate use. Explanation: When the body is under stress, the sympathetic nervous system is activated readying the body for action. The effect of the body is to mobilize stored glycogen to glucose to provide additional energy for body action.
The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department with a diagnosis of head trauma secondary to a motorcycle accident. The nurse aide is assigned to clean the client's face and torso. The nurse would provide further instruction after seeing that the nurse aide:
moved the client's head to clean behind the ears. Explanation: Further instruction would be provided to the nurse aide when the nurse aide attempted to move the client's head to clean behind the ears. There should be no movement of the client's head when there is a history of head trauma. Cleaning the client's face with soapy water, cleaning the eye area, and cleaning the neck and upper chest are all appropriate actions completed by the nurse aide.
A client preparing to undergo a lumbar puncture states he doesn't think he will be able to get comfortable with his knees drawn up to his abdomen and his chin touching his chest. He asks if he can lie on his left side. Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
"Although the required position may not be comfortable, it will make the procedure safer and easier to perform." Explanation: The nurse should explain that the knee-chest position is necessary to make the procedure safer and easier to perform. Lying on his left side won't make the procedure easy or safe to perform. The nurse shouldn't simply tell the client there is no other option because the client is entitled to understand the rationale for the required position. Reporting the client's concerns to the physician won't meet the client's needs in this situation.
Which of the following neurotransmitters are deficient in myasthenia gravis?
Acetylcholine Explanation: A decrease in the amount of acetylcholine causes myasthenia gravis. A decrease of serotonin leads to depression. Parkinson's disease is caused by a depletion of dopamine. Decreased levels of GABA may cause seizures.
The nurse is completing a neurologic assessment and uses the whisper test to assess which cranial nerve?
Acoustic Explanation: Clinical examination of the acoustic nerve can be done by the whisper test. Having the client say "ah" tests the vagus nerve. Observing for symmetry when the client performs facial movements tests the facial nerve. The olfactory nerve is tested by having the client identify specific odors.
Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which type of agnosia?
Auditory Explanation: Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. Lesions in the occipital lobe may result in visual agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe may result in tactile agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia
Low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin lead to which of the following disease processes?
Depression Explanation: A decrease of serotonin leads to depression. A decrease in the amount of acetylcholine causes myasthenia gravis. Parkinson's disease is caused by a depletion of dopamine. Decreased levels of GABA may cause seizures.
A nurse is caring for a client with lower back pain who is scheduled for myelography using metrizamide (a water-soluble contrast dye). After the test, the nurse should place the client in which position?
Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees Explanation: After a myelogram, positioning depends on the dye injected. When a water-soluble dye such as metrizamide is injected, the head of the bed is elevated to a 45-degree angle to slow the upward dispersion of the dye. The prone and supine positions are contraindicated when a water-soluble contrast dye is used. The client should be positioned supine with the head lower than the trunk after an air-contrast study.
The pre-nursing class is learning about the nervous system in their anatomy class. What part of the nervous system would the students learn is responsible for digesting food and eliminating body waste?
Parasympathetic Explanation: The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system works to conserve body energy and is partly responsible for slowing heart rate, digesting food, and eliminating body wastes.
What part of the brain controls and coordinates muscle movement?
Cerebellum Explanation: The cerebellum, which is located behind and below the cerebrum, controls and coordinates muscle movement.
Which occurs when reflexes are hyperactive when the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed?
Clonus Explanation: Clonus occurs when the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed. It continues to "beat" two or three times before it settles into a position of rest. Sustained clonus always indicates the present of central nervous system disease and requires further evaluation. Ataxia is incoordination of voluntary muscle action. Rigidity is an increase in muscle tone at rest characterized by increased resistance to passive movement. Flaccid posturing is usually the result of lower brain stem dysfunction; the client has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone.
A client who has sustained a head injury to the parietal lobe cannot identify a familiar object by touch. The nurse knows that this deficit is which of the following?
Tactile agnosia Explanation: Tactile agnosia is the inability to identify a familiar object by touch. Visual agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize objects through sight. The Romberg test has to do with balance. Ataxia is defined as incoordination of voluntary muscle action.
