HTN questions

4. The pain associated with this condition commonly occurs in muscle groups _________________________.

4. one joint level below the stenosis or occlusion

5. The pain is due to the irritation of nerve endings by the buildup of ______________________ and ______________________.

5. muscle metabolites and lactic acid

2. A patient with primary hypertension comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual onset of blurry vision and decreased visual acuity over the past several weeks. The nurse is aware that these symptoms could be indicative of what? A) Retinal blood vessel damage B) Glaucoma C) Cranial nerve damage D) Hypertensive emergency

Ans: A Feedback: Blurred vision, spots in front of the eyes, and diminished visual acuity can mean retinal blood vessel damage indicative of damage elsewhere in the vascular system as a result of hypertension. Glaucoma and cranial nerve damage do not normally cause these symptoms. A hypertensive emergency would have a more rapid onset.

20. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a patient who is being treated for hypertension. What is a measurable patient outcome that the nurse should include? A) Patient will reduce Na+ intake to no more than 2.4 g daily. B) Patient will have a stable BUN and serum creatinine levels. C) Patient will abstain from fat intake and reduce calorie intake. D) Patient will maintain a normal body weight.

Ans: A Feedback: Dietary sodium intake of no more than 2.4 g sodium is recommended as a dietary lifestyle modification to prevent and manage hypertension. Giving a specific amount of allowable sodium intake makes this a measurable goal. None of the other listed goals is quantifiable and measurable.

14. A nurse is teaching an adult female patient about the risk factors for hypertension. What should the nurse explain as risk factors for primary hypertension? A) Obesity and high intake of sodium and saturated fat B) Diabetes and use of oral contraceptives C) Metabolic syndrome and smoking D) Renal disease and coarctation of the aorta

Ans: A Feedback: Obesity, stress, high intake of sodium or saturated fat, and family history are all risk factors for primary hypertension. Diabetes and oral contraceptives are risk factors for secondary hypertension. Metabolic syndrome, renal disease, and coarctation of the aorta are causes of secondary hypertension.

10. A patient with primary hypertension complains of dizziness with ambulation. The patient is currently on an alpha-adrenergic blocker and the nurse assesses characteristic signs and symptoms of postural hypotension. When teaching this patient about risks associated with postural hypotension, what should the nurse emphasize? A) Rising slowly from a lying or sitting position B) Increasing fluids to maintain BP C) Stopping medication if dizziness persists D) Taking medication first thing in the morning

Ans: A Feedback: Patients who experience postural hypotension should be taught to rise slowly from a lying or sitting position and use a cane or walker if necessary for safety. It is not necessary to teach these patients about increasing fluids or taking medication in the morning (this would increase the effects of dizziness). Patient should not be taught to stop the medication if dizziness persists because this is unsafe and beyond the nurses scope of practice.

18. A patient has come to the clinic for a follow-up assessment that will include a BP reading. To ensure an accurate reading, the nurse should confirm that the patient has done which of the following? A) Tried to rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken B) Refrained from smoking for at least 8 hours C) Drunk adequate fluids during the day prior D) Avoided drinking coffee for 12 hours before the visit

Ans: A Feedback: Prior to the nurse assessing the patients BP, the patient should try to rest quietly for 5 minutes. The forearm should be positioned at heart level. Caffeine products and cigarette smoking should be avoided for at least 30 minutes prior to the visit. Recent fluid intake is not normally relevant.

16. A patient with secondary hypertension has come into the clinic for a routine check-up. The nurse is aware that the difference between primary hypertension and secondary hypertension is which of the following? A) Secondary hypertension has a specific cause. B) Secondary hypertension has a more gradual onset than primary hypertension. C) Secondary hypertension does not cause target organ damage. D) Secondary hypertension does not normally respond to antihypertensive drug therapy.

Ans: A Feedback: Secondary hypertension has a specific identified cause. A cause could include narrowing of the renal arteries, renal parenchymal disease, hyperaldosteronism, certain medications, pregnancy, and coarctation of the aorta. Secondary hypertension does respond to antihypertensive drug therapy and can cause target organ damage if left untreated.

7. A patient has been prescribed antihypertensives. After assessment and analysis, the nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective health maintenance related to nonadherence to therapeutic regimen. When planning this patients care, what desired outcome should the nurse identify? A) Patient takes medication as prescribed and reports any adverse effects. B) Patients BP remains consistently below 140/90 mm Hg. C) Patient denies signs and symptoms of hypertensive urgency. D) Patient is able to describe modifiable risk factors for hypertension.

Ans: A Feedback: The most appropriate expected outcome for a patient who is given the nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective health maintenance is that he or she takes the medication as prescribed. The other listed goals are valid aspects of care, but none directly relates to the patients role in his or her treatment regimen.

9. A patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged. The nurse explains that a patient with prolonged, uncontrolled hypertension is at risk for developing what health problem? A) Renal failure B) Right ventricular hypertrophy C) Glaucoma D) Anemia

Ans: A Feedback: When uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged, it can result in renal failure, myocardial infarction, stroke, impaired vision, left ventricular hypertrophy, and cardiac failure. Glaucoma and anemia are not directly associated with hypertension.

23. The nurse is teaching a patient about some of the health consequences of uncontrolled hypertension. What health problems should the nurse describe? Select all that apply. A) Transient ischemic attacks B) Cerebrovascular accident C) Retinal hemorrhage D) Venous insufficiency E) Right ventricular hypertrophy

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Potential complications of hypertension include the following: left ventricular hypertrophy; MI; heart failure; transient ischemic attacks (TIAs); cerebrovascular accident; renal insufficiency and failure; and retinal hemorrhage. Venous insufficiency and right ventricular hypertrophy are not potential complications of uncontrolled hypertension.

8. The nurse is providing care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. How can the nurse best promote the patients adherence to the prescribed therapeutic regimen? A) Screen the patient for visual disturbances regularly. B) Have the patient participate in monitoring his or her own BP. C) Emphasize the dire health outcomes associated with inadequate BP control. D) Encourage the patient to lose weight and exercise regularly.

Ans: B Feedback: Adherence to the therapeutic regimen increases when patients actively participate in self-care, including self-monitoring of BP and diet. Dire warnings may motivate some patients, but for many patients this is not an appropriate or effective strategy. Screening for vision changes and promoting healthy lifestyle are appropriate nursing actions, but do not necessarily promote adherence to a therapeutic regimen.

13. The nursing lab instructor is teaching student nurses how to take blood pressure. To ensure accurate measurement, the lab instructor would teach the students to avoid which of the following actions? A) Measuring the BP after the patient has been seated quietly for more than 5 minutes B) Taking the BP at least 10 minutes after nicotine or coffee ingestion C) Using a cuff with a bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb D) Using a bare forearm supported at heart level on a firm surface

Ans: B Feedback: Blood pressures should be taken with the patient seated with arm bare, supported, and at heart level. The patient should not have smoked tobacco or taken caffeine in the 30 minutes preceding the measurement. The patient should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken. The cuff bladder should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured and have a width of at least 40% of limb circumference. Using a cuff that is too large results in a lower BP and a cuff that is too small will give a higher BP measurement.

22. The hospital nurse cares for many patients who have hypertension. What nursing diagnosis is most common among patients who are being treated for this health problem? A) Deficient knowledge regarding the lifestyle modifications for management of hypertension B) Noncompliance with therapeutic regimen related to adverse effects of prescribed therapy C) Deficient knowledge regarding BP monitoring D) Noncompliance with treatment regimen related to medication costs

Ans: B Feedback: Deviation from the therapeutic program is a significant problem for people with hypertension and other chronic conditions requiring lifetime management. For many patients, this is related to adverse effects of medications. Medication cost is relevant for many patients, but adverse effects are thought to be a more significant barrier. Many patients are aware of necessary lifestyle modification, but do not adhere to them. Most patients are aware of the need to monitor their BP.

15. The nurse is caring for an older adult with a diagnosis of hypertension who is being treated with a diuretic and beta-blocker. Which of the following should the nurse integrate into the management of this clients hypertension? A) Ensure that the patient receives a larger initial dose of antihypertensive medication due to impaired absorption. B) Pay close attention to hydration status because of increased sensitivity to extracellular volume depletion. C) Recognize that an older adult is less likely to adhere to his or her medication regimen than a younger patient. D) Carefully assess for weight loss because of impaired kidney function resulting from normal aging.

Ans: B Feedback: Elderly people have impaired cardiovascular reflexes and thus are more sensitive to extracellular volume depletion caused by diuretics. The nurse needs to assess hydration status, low BP, and postural hypotension carefully. Older adults may have impaired absorption, but they do not need a higher initial dose of an antihypertensive than a younger person. Adherence to treatment is not necessarily linked to age. Kidney function and absorption decline with age; less, rather than more antihypertensive medication is prescribed. Weight gain is not necessarily indicative of kidney function decline.

27. During an adult patients last two office visits, the nurse obtained BP readings of 122/84 mm Hg and 130/88 mm Hg, respectively. How would this patients BP be categorized? A) Normal B) Prehypertensive C) Stage 1 hypertensive D) Stage 2 hypertensive

Ans: B Feedback: Prehypertension is defined systolic BP of 120 to 139 mm Hg or diastolic BP of 80 to 89 mm Hg.

6. A 40-year-old male newly diagnosed with hypertension is discussing risk factors with the nurse. The nurse talks about lifestyle changes with the patient and advises that the patient should avoid tobacco use. What is the primary rationale behind that advice to the patient? A) Quitting smoking will cause the patients hypertension to resolve. B) Tobacco use increases the patients concurrent risk of heart disease. C) Tobacco use is associated with a sedentary lifestyle. D) Tobacco use causes ventricular hypertrophy.

Ans: B Feedback: Smoking increases the risk for heart disease, for which a patient with hypertension is already at an increased risk. Quitting will not necessarily cause hypertension to resolve and smoking does not directly cause ventricular hypertrophy. The association with a sedentary lifestyle is true, but this is not the main rationale for the nurses advice; the association with heart disease is more salient.

11. The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with hypertension, but who otherwise enjoys good health. When assessing the response to an antihypertensive drug regimen, what blood pressure would be the goal of treatment? A) 156/96 mm Hg or lower B) 140/90 mm Hg or lower C) Average of 2 BP readings of 150/80 mm Hg D) 120/80 mm Hg or lower

Ans: B Feedback: The goal of antihypertensive drug therapy is a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or lower. A pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is the goal for patients with diabetes or chronic kidney disease.

39. A patients medication regimen for the treatment of hypertension includes hydrochlorothiazide. Following administration of this medication, the nurse should anticipate what effect? A) Drowsiness or lethargy B) Increased urine output C) Decreased heart rate D) Mild agitation

Ans: B Feedback: Thiazide diuretics lower BP by reducing circulating blood volume; this results in a short-term increase in urine output. These drugs do not cause bradycardia, agitation, or drowsiness.

29. A patient has been diagnosed as being prehypertensive. What should the nurse encourage this patient to do to aid in preventing a progression to a hypertensive state? A) Avoid excessive potassium intake. B) Exercise on a regular basis. C) Eat less protein and more vegetables. D) Limit morning activity.

Ans: B Feedback: To prevent or delay progression to hypertension and reduce risk, JNC 7 urged health care providers to encourage people with blood pressures in the prehypertension category to begin lifestyle modifications, such as nutritional changes and exercise. There is no need for patients to limit their activity in the morning or to avoid potassium and protein intake.

36. The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who takes a variety of medications for the treatment of hypertension. What potential therapeutic benefits of antihypertensives should the nurse identify? Select all that apply. A) Increased venous return B) Decreased peripheral resistance C) Decreased blood volume D) Decreased strength and rate of myocardial contractions E) Decreased blood viscosity

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: The medications used for treating hypertension decrease peripheral resistance, blood volume, or the strength and rate of myocardial contraction. Antihypertensive medications do not increase venous return or decrease blood viscosity.

17. The nurse is assessing a patient new to the clinic. Records brought to the clinic with the patient show the patient has hypertension and that her current BP readings approximate the readings from when she was first diagnosed. What contributing factor should the nurse first explore in an effort to identify the cause of the clients inadequate BP control? A) Progressive target organ damage B) Possibility of medication interactions C) Lack of adherence to prescribed drug therapy D) Possible heavy alcohol use or use of recreational drugs

Ans: C Feedback: Deviation from the therapeutic program is a significant problem for people with hypertension and other chronic conditions requiring lifetime management. An estimated 50% of patients discontinue their medications within 1 year of beginning to take them. Consequently, this is a more likely problem than substance use, organ damage, or adverse drug interactions.

1. An older adult is newly diagnosed with primary hypertension and has just been started on a beta-blocker. The nurses health education should include which of the following? A) Increasing fluids to avoid extracellular volume depletion from the diuretic effect of the beta-blocker B) Maintaining a diet high in dairy to increase protein necessary to prevent organ damage C) Use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension D) Limiting exercise to avoid injury that can be caused by increased intracranial pressure

Ans: C Feedback: Elderly people have impaired cardiovascular reflexes and are more sensitive to postural hypotension. The nurse teaches patients to change positions slowly when moving from lying or sitting positions to a standing position, and counsels elderly patients to use supportive devices as necessary to prevent falls that could result from dizziness. Lifestyle changes, such as regular physical activity/exercise, and a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products, is strongly recommended. Increasing fluids in elderly patients may be contraindicated due to cardiovascular disease. Increased intracranial pressure is not a risk and activity should not normally be limited.

19. The nurse is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of hypertension. The nurse should consequently assess the patient for signs and symptoms of which other health problem? A) Migraines B) Atrial-septal defect C) Atherosclerosis D) Thrombocytopenia

Ans: C Feedback: Hypertension is both a sign and a risk factor for atherosclerotic heart disease. It is not associated with structural cardiac defects, low platelet levels, or migraines.

12. A patient in a hypertensive emergency is admitted to the ICU. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with IV vasodilators, and that the primary goal of treatment is what? A) Lower the BP to reduce onset of neurologic symptoms, such as headache and vision changes. B) Decrease the BP to a normal level based on the patients age. C) Decrease the mean arterial pressure between 20% and 25% in the first hour of treatment. D) Reduce the BP to 120/75 mm Hg as quickly as possible.

Ans: C Feedback: Initially, the treatment goal in hypertensive emergencies is to reduce the mean arterial pressure by 25% in the first hour of treatment, with further reduction over the next 24 hours. Lowering the BP too fast may cause hypotension in a patient whose body has adjusted to hypertension and could cause a stroke, MI, or visual changes. Neurologic symptoms should be addressed, but this is not the primary focus of treatment planning.

24. The nurse is collaborating with the dietitian and a patient with hypertension to plan dietary modifications. These modifications should include which of the following? A) Reduced intake of protein and carbohydrates B) Increased intake of calcium and vitamin D C) Reduced intake of fat and sodium D) Increased intake of potassium, vitamin B12 and vitamin D

Ans: C Feedback: Lifestyle modifications usually include restricting sodium and fat intake, increasing intake of fruits and vegetables, and implementing regular physical activity. There is no need to increase calcium, potassium, and vitamin intake. Calorie restriction may be required for some patients, but a specific reduction in protein and carbohydrates is not normally indicated.

34. A student nurse is taking care of an elderly patient with hypertension during a clinical experience. The instructor asks the student about the relationships between BP and age. What would be the best answer by the student? A) Because of reduced smooth muscle tone in blood vessels, blood pressure tends to go down with age, not up. B) Decreases in the strength of arteries and the presence of venous insufficiency cause hypertension in the elderly. C) Structural and functional changes in the cardiovascular system that occur with age contribute to increases in blood pressure. D) The neurologic system of older adults is less efficient at monitoring and regulating blood pressure.

Ans: C Feedback: Structural and functional changes in the heart and blood vessels contribute to increases in BP that occur with aging. Venous insufficiency does not cause hypertension, however. Increased BP is not primarily a result of neurologic changes.

25. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient just admitted in a hypertensive emergency. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Warfarin (Coumadin) B) Furosemide (Lasix) C) Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) D) Ramipril (Altace)

Ans: C Feedback: The medications of choice in hypertensive emergencies are those that have an immediate effect. IV vasodilators, including sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress), nicardipine hydrochloride (Cardene), clevidipine (Cleviprex), fenoldopam mesylate (Corlopam), enalaprilat, and nitroglycerin, have immediate actions that are short lived (minutes to 4 hours), and they are therefore used for initial treatment. Ramipril is administered orally and would not meet the patients immediate need for BP management. Diuretics, such as Lasix, are not used as initial treatments and there is no indication for anticoagulants such as Coumadin.

37. A newly diagnosed patient with hypertension is prescribed Diuril, a thiazide diuretic. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) Eat a banana every day because Diuril causes moderate hyperkalemia. B) Take over-the-counter potassium pills because Diuril causes your kidneys to lose potassium. C) Diuril can cause low blood pressure and dizziness, especially when you get up suddenly. D) Diuril increases sodium levels in your blood, so cut down on your salt.

Ans: C Feedback: Thiazide diuretics can cause postural hypotension, which may be potentiated by alcohol, barbiturates, opioids, or hot weather. Diuril does not cause either moderate hyperkalemia or severe hypokalemia and it does not result in hypernatremia.

3. A nurse is performing blood pressure screenings at a local health fair. While obtaining subjective assessment data from a patient with hypertension, the nurse learns that the patient has a family history of hypertension and she herself has high cholesterol and lipid levels. The patient says she smokes one pack of cigarettes daily and drinks about a pack of beer every day. The nurse notes what nonmodifiable risk factor for hypertension? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Excessive alcohol intake C) A family history of hypertension D) Closer adherence to medical regimen

Ans: C Feedback: Unlike cholesterol levels, alcohol intake and adherence to treatment, family history is not modifiable.

31. A community health nurse teaching a group of adults about preventing and treating hypertension. The nurse should encourage these participants to collaborate with their primary care providers and regularly monitor which of the following? A) Heart rate B) Sodium levels C) Potassium levels D) Blood lipid levels

Ans: D Feedback: Hypertension often accompanies other risk factors for atherosclerotic heart disease, such as dyslipidemia (abnormal blood fat levels), obesity, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and a sedentary lifestyle. Individuals with hypertension need to monitor their sodium intake, but hypernatremia is not a risk factor for hypertension. In many patients, heart rate does not correlate closely with BP. Potassium levels do not normally relate to BP.

35. A 55-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine check-up. The patients BP is 159/100 mm Hg and the physician diagnoses hypertension after referring to previous readings. The patient asks why it is important to treat hypertension. What would be the nurses best response? A) Hypertension can cause you to develop dangerous blood clots in your legs that can migrate to your lungs. B) Hypertension puts you at increased risk of type 1 diabetes and cancer in your age group. C) Hypertension is the leading cause of death in people your age. D) Hypertension greatly increases your risk of stroke and heart disease.

Ans: D Feedback: Hypertension, particularly elevated systolic BP, increases the risk of death, stroke, and heart failure in people older than 50 years. Hypertension is not a direct precursor to pulmonary emboli, and it does not put older adults at increased risk of type 1 diabetes or cancer. It is not the leading cause of death in people 55 years of age.

26. A patient in hypertensive emergency is being cared for in the ICU. The patient has become hypovolemic secondary to natriuresis. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Add sodium to the patients IV fluid, as ordered. B) Administer a vasoconstrictor, as ordered. C) Promptly cease antihypertensive therapy. D) Administer normal saline IV, as ordered.

Ans: D Feedback: If there is volume depletion secondary to natriuresis caused by the elevated BP, then volume replacement with normal saline can prevent large, sudden drops in BP when antihypertensive medications are administered. Sodium administration, cessation of antihypertensive therapy, and administration of vasoconstrictors are not normally indicated.

38. A patient in hypertensive urgency is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should be aware of what goal of treatment for a patient in hypertensive urgency? A) Normalizing BP within 2 hours B) Obtaining a BP of less than 110/70 mm Hg within 36 hours C) Obtaining a BP of less than 120/80 mm Hg within 36 hours D) Normalizing BP within 24 to 48 hours

Ans: D Feedback: In cases of hypertensive urgency, oral agents can be administered with the goal of normalizing BP within 24 to 48 hours. For patients with this health problem, a BP of 120/80 mm Hg may be unrealistic.

30. The nurse is screening a number of adults for hypertension. What range of blood pressure is considered normal? A) Less than 140/90 mm Hg B) Less than 130/90 mm Hg C) Less than 129/89 mm Hg D) Less than 120/80 mm Hg

Ans: D Feedback: JNC 7 defines a blood pressure of less than 120/80 mm Hg as normal, 120 to 129/80 to 89 mm Hg as prehypertension, and 140/90 mm Hg or higher as hypertension.

28. A patient comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of frequent headaches. While assessing the patients vital signs, the nurse notes the BP is 161/101 mm Hg. According to JNC 7, how would this patients BP be defined if a similar reading were obtained at a subsequent office visit? A) High normal B) Normal C) Stage 1 hypertensive D) Stage 2 hypertensive

Ans: D Feedback: JNC 7 defines stage 2 hypertension as a reading 160/100 mm Hg.

40. A patients recently elevated BP has prompted the primary care provider to prescribe furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should closely monitor which of the following? A) The clients oxygen saturation level B) The patients red blood cells, hematocrit, and hemoglobin C) The patients level of consciousness D) The patients potassium level

Ans: D Feedback: Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion. They do not normally affect level of consciousness, erythrocytes, or oxygen saturation.

32. A community health nurse is planning an educational campaign addressing hypertension. The nurse should anticipate that the incidence and prevalence of hypertension are likely to be highest among members of what ethnic group? A) Pacific Islanders B) African Americans C) Asian-Americans D) Hispanics

Ans: D Feedback: The prevalence of uncontrolled hypertension varies by ethnicity, with Hispanics and African Americans having the highest prevalence at approximately 63% and 57%, respectively.

3. The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has a comorbidity of hypertension. What assessment question most directly addresses the possibility of worsening hypertension? A) Are you eating less salt in your diet? B) How is your energy level these days? C) Do you ever get chest pain when you exercise? D) Do you ever see spots in front of your eyes?

Ans: D Feedback: To identify complications or worsening hypertension, the patient is questioned about blurred vision, spots in front of the eyes, and diminished visual acuity. The heart, nervous system, and kidneys are also carefully assessed, but angina pain and decreased energy are not normally suggestive of worsening hypertension. Sodium limitation is a beneficial lifestyle modification, but nonadherence to this is not necessarily a sign of worsening symptoms.

21. A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has come to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The patient asks the nurse why she has to come in so often. What would be the nurses best response? A) We do this so you dont suffer a stroke. B) We do this to determine how your blood pressure changes throughout the day. C) We do this to see how often you should change your medication dose. D) We do this to make sure your health is stable. Well then monitor it at routinely scheduled intervals.

Ans: D Feedback: When hypertension is initially detected, nursing assessment involves carefully monitoring the BP at frequent intervals and then at routinely scheduled intervals. The reference to stroke is frightening and does not capture the overall rationale for the monitoring regimen. Changes throughout the day are not a clinical priority for most patients. The patient must not change his or her medication doses unilaterally.

5. A group of student nurses are practicing taking blood pressure. A 56-year-old male student has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, he exclaims, My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it? Which of the following responses by the nursing instructor would be best? A) Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination. B) We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because your age places you at high risk for hypertension. C) A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made. D) You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested.

C Feedback: Hypertension is confirmed by two or more readings with systolic pressure of at least 140 mm Hg and diastolic pressure of at least 90 mm Hg. An age of 56 does not constitute a risk factor in and of itself. The nurse should not tell the student that there is no need to worry.

4. The staff educator is teaching ED nurses about hypertensive crisis. The nurse educator should explain that hypertensive urgency differs from hypertensive emergency in what way? A) The BP is always higher in a hypertensive emergency. B) Vigilant hemodynamic monitoring is required during treatment of hypertensive emergencies. C) Hypertensive urgency is treated with rest and benzodiazepines to lower BP. D) Hypertensive emergencies are associated with evidence of target organ damage.

D Feedback: Hypertensive emergencies are acute, life-threatening BP elevations that require prompt treatment in an intensive care setting because of the serious target organ damage that may occur. Blood pressures are extremely elevated in both urgency and emergencies, but there is no evidence of target organ damage in hypertensive urgency. Extremely close hemodynamic monitoring of the patients BP is required in both situations. The medications of choice in hypertensive emergencies are those with an immediate effect, such as IV vasodilators. Oral doses of fast-acting agents, such as beta-adrenergic blocking agents, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, or alpha-agonists, are recommended for the treatment of hypertensive urgencies.

Read the following case study. Circle the correct answer.

Fred, a 43-year-old construction worker, has a history of hypertension. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, is nervous about the possibility of being unemployed, and has difficulty coping with stress. His current concern is calf pain during minimal exercise, which decreases with rest.

Hinkle & Cheever Ch 31 Bank

HTN

2. The hallmark symptom of peripheral arterial occlusive disease is: _____________________________________.

Intermittent claudication

4. List the six clinical symptoms associated with acute arterial embolism, also known as the six Ps:

Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, poikilothermia (coldness), and paralysis.

3. The clinical picture of a patient presenting with a dissected aorta is: _________________________________.

Refer to chapter heading "Dissecting Aorta" in the text.

1. The nurse assesses Fred's symptoms as being associated with peripheral arterial occlusive disease. The nursing diagnosis is probably: a. alteration in tissue perfusion related to compromised circulation. b. dysfunctional use of extremities related to muscle spasms. c. impaired mobility related to stress associated with pain. d. impairment in muscle use associated with pain on exertion.

a

16. When administering heparin anticoagulant therapy, the nurse needs to monitor the clotting time to make certain that it is within the therapeutic range of: a. one to two times the normal control. b. two to three times the normal control. c. 3.5 times the normal control. d. 4.5 times the normal control.

a

2. The nurse knows that the hallmark symptom of peripheral arterial occlusion disease is: a. intermittent claudication. b. phlebothrombosis. c. postphlebitis syndrome. d. thrombophlebitis.

a

23. Postoperative nursing management for vein ligation and stripping include all of the following except: a. dangling the legs over the side of the bed for 10 minutes every 4 hours for the first 24 hours. b. elevating the foot of the bed to promote venous blood return. c. maintaining elastic compression of the leg continuously for about 1 week. d. starting the patient ambulating 24 to 48 hours after surgery.

a

4. Probably the strongest risk factor for the development of atherosclerotic lesions is: a. cigarette smoking. b. lack of exercise. c. obesity. d. stress.

a

5. Saturated fats are strongly implicated in the causation of atherosclerosis. Saturated fats include all of the following except: a. corn oil. b. eggs and milk. c. meat and butter. d. solid vegetable oil.

a

Hydrostatic force is defined as

a driving pressure generated by the blood pressure

12. To save a limb that is affected by occlusion of a major artery, surgery must be initiated before necrosis develops, which is usually: a. within the first 4 hours. b. between 6 and 10 hours. c. between 12 and 24 hours. d. within 1 to 2 days.

b

13. Raynaud's disease is a form of: a. arterial vessel occlusion caused by multiple emboli that develop in the heart and are transported through the systemic circulation. b. arteriolar vasoconstriction, usually on the fingertips, that results in coldness, pain, and pallor. c. peripheral venospasm in the lower extremities owing to valve damage resulting from prolonged venous stasis. d. phlebothrombosis related to prolonged vasoconstriction resulting from overexposure to the cold.

b

2. Clinical manifestations of acute venous insufficiency include all of the following except: a. cool and cyanotic skin. b. initial absence of edema. c. sharp pain that may be relieved by the elevation of the extremity. d. full superficial veins.

b

22. A varicose vein is caused by: a. phlebothrombosis. b. an incompetent venous valve. c. venospasm. d. venous occlusion

b

3. With peripheral arterial insufficiency, leg pain during rest can be reduced by: a. elevating the limb above heart level. b. lowering the limb so that it is dependent. c. massaging the limb after application of cold compresses. d. placing the limb in a plane horizontal to the body.

b

6. The American diet is known to be high in fat. The amount of calories typically supplied by fat in most diets is ________ of the total caloric intake. a. 20% b. 35% c. 60% d. 80%

b

7. Buerger's disease is characterized by all of the following except: a. arterial thrombus formation and occlusion. b. lipid deposits in the arteries. c. redness or cyanosis in the limb when it is dependent. d. venous inflammation and occlusion.

b

7. The nurse notices that several minutes after Jack's leg is dependent, the vessels remain dilated. This is evidenced by the coloring of the skin, which the nurse describes as: a. rosy. b. rubor. c. pallor. d. cyanotic.

b

8. The nurse is asked to determine ABI. The right posterior tibial reading is 75 mm Hg and the brachial systolic pressure is 150 mm Hg. The ABI would be: a. 0.25. b. 0.50. c. 0.65. d. 0.80.

b

9. The most common cause of all thoracic aortic aneurysms is: a. a congenital defect in the vessel wall. b. atherosclerosis. c. infection. d. trauma.

b

19. A nurse should teach a patient with chronic venous insufficiency to do all of the following except: a. avoid constricting garments. b. elevate the legs above the heart level for 30 minutes every 2 hours. c. sit as much as possible to rest the valves in the legs. d. sleep with the foot of the bed elevated about 6 in.

c

8. The most outstanding symptom of Buerger's disease is: a. a burning sensation. b. cramping in the feet. c. pain. d. paresthesia

c

brunner study guide

ch 31

1. The most important factor in regulating the caliber of blood vessels, which determines resistance to flow, is: a. hormonal secretion. b. independent arterial wall activity. c. the influence of circulating chemicals. d. the sympathetic nervous system.

d

10. Diagnosis of a thoracic aortic aneurysm is done primarily by: a. computed tomography. b. transesophageal echocardiography. c. x-ray. d. all of the above

d

11. A nurse who suspects the presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm should look for the presence of: a. a pulsatile abdominal mass. b. low back pain. c. lower abdominal pain. d. all of the above.

d

14. A significant cause of venous thrombosis is: a. altered blood coagulation. b. stasis of blood. c. vessel wall injury. d. all of the above.

d

15. Clinical manifestations of deep vein obstruction include: a. edema and limb pain. b. ankle engorgement. c. leg circumference differences. d. all of the above.

d

17. When caring for a patient who has started anticoagulant therapy with warfarin (Coumadin), the nurse knows not to expect therapeutic benefits for: a. at least 12 hours. b. the first 24 hours. c. 2 to 3 days. d. 3 to 5 days.

d

18. Knowing the most serious complication of venous insufficiency, the nurse would assess the patient's lower extremities for signs of: a. rudor. b. cellulitis. c. dermatitis. d. ulceration.

d

20. Nursing measures to promote a clean leg ulcer include: a. applying wet-to-dry saline solution dressings, which would remove necrotic debris when changed. b. flushing out necrotic material with hydrogen peroxide. c. using an ointment that would treat the ulcer by enzymatic debridement. d. all of the above.

d

21. The physician prescribed a Tegapore dressing to treat a venous ulcer. The nurse knows that the anklebrachial index (ABI) must be _______ for the circulatory status to be adequate. a. 0.10 b. 0.25 c. 0.35 d. 0.50

d

3. Additional symptoms to support the nurse's diagnosis include all of the following except: a. blanched skin appearance when the limb is dependent. b. diminished distal pulsations. c. reddish-blue discoloration of the limb when it is elevated. d. warm and rosy coloration of the extremity after exercise.

d

6. Pain is experienced when the arterial lumen narrows to about: a. 15%. b. 25%. c. 35%. d. 50%.

d

9. In health teaching, the nurse should suggest methods to increase arterial blood supply, which include: a. a planned program involving systematic lowering of the extremity below heart level. b. Buerger-Allen exercises. c. graded extremity exercises. d. all of the above.

d

6. Venous stasis, postthrombotic syndrome, is characterized by:

edema, altered pigmentation, pain, and stasis dermatitis

osmotic pressure is defined as _________________.

the pulling force created by plasma proteins

5. List the classic triad (Virchow's) of factors associated with the development of venous thromboembolism:

venous stasis, vessel wall injury, and altered blood coagulation