Human Resource Selection Exam #1

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All individuals who could possibly have an interest in an open position and who might consider applying for a position opening are known as: a. the potential applicant population. b. the applicant pool. c. the job candidate pool. d. the potential applicant screen.

A

An employee or an applicant with a physical or mental limitation (i.e., a disability) must have a "reasonable accommodation" unless it creates "undue hardship" for the business. Which of the following is TRUE about definitions of "reasonable accommodation" and "undue hardship?" a. Generally, the nature and cost of the accommodation as well as the size, type, and finances of the specific facility and those of the parent employer are considered. b. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 specifically defines these terms. c. The executive order that gives enforcement power to the Department of Labor details such a requirement. d. Legislative intent outlined in the Federal Register makes clear what is meant by these terms.

A

Hiring refers to a. offers of employment that are given with no evaluation of the applicant's job-related qualifications. b. identifying KSAs. c. negotiations that take place simultaneously with selection. d. the whole selection process.

A

In ____________________ assigning negative weights to members of target groups is forbidden. a. Equal Opportunity Affirmative Action Programs b. Strong Preferential Affirmative Action Programs c. Opportunity Enhanced Affirmative Action Programs d. Tiebreak Affirmative Action Programs

A

Methods of internal recruitment include all of the following EXCEPT a. job postings in the local media. b. announcements by managers higher in the organization than the open position. c. requests for nominations from managers and/or employees. d. bulletin board job postings.

A

Most of the EEO laws and executive orders dealing with federal contractors contain the requirement of affirmative action for those with contracts of at least: a. $10,000 b. $25,000 c. $50,000 d. $100,000

A

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits discrimination against which of the following? a. individuals 40 and over b. individuals 50 and over c. individuals 55 and over d. individuals 65 and over

A

The Civil Rights Act of 1866 covers which of the following private employers? a. all of them b. those that employ 15 or more c. those that employ 25 or more d. those that employ 50 or more

A

The major idea behind the application of task analysis inventories is to define important: a. job content. b. performance metrics. c. reliability estimates. d. distinctions between successful and unsuccessful job incumbents.

A

What is disparate impact? a. Selection standards are applied uniformly to all groups, but the net result is to produce differences in the selection of various groups b. Certain groups are treated negatively because of race, religion, color, sex, etc. c. Different standards are applied to various groups even though there may not be an explicit statement of discrimination. d. Certain groups are treated negatively because of job-related factors.

A

What is the major difference between stock and flow statistics? a. timing of comparisons b. location of comparisons c. relevant labor market d. types of applicants

A

Which of the following consists of the smallest number of persons in the Barber and Breaugh model of the recruitment process? a. hires b. applicant pool c. job candidates d. applicant population

A

Which of the following court cases has had a significant impact on the increasing importance of job analysis in selection? a. Griggs v. Duke Power Co. b. Spurlock v. United Airlines c. Watson v. Fort Worth Bank & Trust d. Bundy v. Jackson

A

___________________ consist of groups or panels of 10 to 20 job incumbents who work with a group leader to produce job analysis. a. Subject matter expert workshops b. The critical incident technique c. The task analysis inventory d. Quality circles

A

According to the regulatory model of EEO, what begins the regulation process? a. societal problems b. management responses c. regulatory agencies d. laws and executive orders

A

Why is selection more closely related to recruitment than it is to other personnel/human resource management areas? a. Recruitment and selection are both concerned with placing individuals into jobs. b. Recruitment is concerned with hiring employees in sufficient numbers. c. Recruitment and selection are both concerned with processing data about the applicant. d. Recruitment and selection are both concerned with external labor market factors.

A

____________ systematically takes the data produced by the judgments of workers and managers and uses them to determine the relationship between selection the selection test and job performance. a. Content validation b. Construct validation c. Empirical validation d. Process validation

A

The development of a selection program should begin with: a. Recruitment b. Job analysis information c. Performance measures d. Identifying WRCs

B

Which of the following is NOT a method of external recruitment? a. media ads b. posting jobs on bulletin boards throughout the workplace c. Internet job postings d. employment agencies

B

Which of the following is NOT a type of judgmental data? a. Trait rating scales b. CARS c. BARS d. BES

B

Research suggests that words such as "challenging" and "stimulating" to describe a job should be used when trying to attract: a. active candidates. b. passive candidates. c. racial minorities. d. candidates with high cognitive ability.

D

What accounts for the increased attention given to job analysis? a. an increasing focus on the competitive use of human resources b. the globalization of the marketplace c. a movement started by employers to improve selection practices d. federal selection guidelines and court cases

D

Which of the following groups are specifically excluded under the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1980? a. compulsive gamblers b. homosexuals c. pyromaniacs d. persons with bad attitudes

D

A halo error occurs when: a. a large number of subordinates receives ratings in the middle of the scale. b. a subordinate is rated equally on different performance scales because of a general impression of the worker. c. a subordinate is rated differently on different performance scales because of a general impression of the worker. d. a disproportionate number of workers receives high ratings.

B

A questionnaire listing a large number of tasks associated with a job for which respondents make judgments is known as: a. a job analysis interview. b. a task analysis inventory. c. a position analysis questionnaire. d. a job element method.

B

An offer extended without collecting and evaluating information about an individual is called a. selection b. hiring c. position filing d. satisficing

B

For content validation, statistical validation should include a representative number of: a. Blacks and whites b. Women and minorities c. Asian Pacific Islanders d. All of these choices

B

If the recruitment program produces only a small number of applicants relative to the number of available positions, then rather than selection, the situation approaches what is called: a. chaos. b. hiring. c. outer limits. d. random selection.

B

In the development of a 360 assessment system, all of these guidelines should be used EXCEPT: a. The items should be specific job behaviors. b. The items should be administered by paper and pencil. c. A trained evaluator should provide an interpretation of survey results to the manager. d. The items should be about the individual's skill, knowledge or style.

B

Job analysis questionnaires tend to fall into one of two classes. What are the classes? a. quantitative; qualitative b. prefabricated; tailored c. computerized; non-computerized d. group administered; individually administered

B

Organizational activities that influence the number and types of individuals who apply for a position are known as: a. selection. b. recruitment. c. hiring. d. procurement.

B

Regarding OCBs, which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Workers' OCBs have no influence on managers' judgments of their job performance. b. Workers' OCBs influence managers' judgments of their job performance. c. OCBs account for limited variance in the scores of workers. d. OCBs are always a positive influence on job performance ratings.

B

The Department of Labor is responsible for the enforcement of which of the following? a. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 b. Executive Order 11246 c. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act d. the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986

B

The main difference between BARS and BES is: a. The underlying assumptions. b. The wording. c. The source of the data. d. BARS can be used across jobs; BES cannot.

B

The main purpose of selection is: a. To identify applicants who will accept the job. b. To identify applicants who will be successful on the job. c. To compare applicants. d. none of the above.

B

The method of recruiting passive candidates who are not looking for a job, but may be willing to consider another job is known as: a. web crawling. b. poaching. c. Boolean searching. d. bottom trolling.

B

The probability of making an accurate selection decision is higher when a. the number of applicants is large. b. decision makers have a greater amount of accurate data. c. the applicant pool is diverse. d. hiring for an initial position.

B

Those individuals employed by another firm, who are not actively seeking a job but often respond positively to being approached for new employment are known as: a. active candidates. b. passive candidates c. poached candidates. d. unusual candidates.

B

Using __________ and __________ the HR specialist must identify the WRCs and other employee characteristics that a worker should possess to perform the job successfully. a. assessment devices; job analysis b. job analysis information; job performance data c. job performance data; assessment devices d. validation data; job analysis

B

Validation of selection procedures is important because a. it tells us if we evaluated the individual well. b. it focuses on the collection and evaluation of information to determine whether the worker characteristics thought to be important are in fact related to successful job performance. c. it compares evaluations of prospective employees and identifies the best. d. it compares evaluations of prospective employees and identifies the best.

B

What determines the relevant labor market for an organization? a. SMSA (standard metropolitan statistical area), license requirements b. geographical location, skill level c. education, job interest d. managerial judgment and job analysis

B

What is the current status of voluntary affirmative action programs? a. Organizations are not restricted in how they implement these programs. b. Organizations must meet specific criteria in order to establish these programs. c. These programs have been found illegal in all circumstances due to reverse discrimination. d. These programs have been abandoned in favor of consent decrees.

B

What is the regulatory agency in charge of the enforcement of Title VII? a. Personnel Fair Contract Compliance Program (PFCCP) b. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) c. Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC) d. Federal Fair Employment Commission (FFEC)

B

When a validity study is done for research purposes, the recommendation is to use which of the following? a. a composite criterion b. multiple criteria c. a single criterion d. a qualitative criterion

B

When using the 'Standard Deviation Rule' to test the differences in selection rates among groups, if the difference in means is greater than ________ standard deviations, the difference in means is considered to be significant between the two groups. a. 1.0 b. 1.64 c. 1.96 d. 2.55

B

Which of the following consists of a trained analyst asking questions of supervisors and job incumbents about the duties and responsibilities, KSAs, and equipment and/or conditions of employment for a job or class of jobs? a. job analysis questionnaire b. job analysis interview c. position analysis questionnaire d. Guidelines Oriented Job Analysis

B

Which of the following is NOT a likely promoter of OCBs? a. Employee characteristics b. Environmental characteristics c. Task characteristics d. Leadership behaviors

B

Which of the following is TRUE about the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures? a. They are laws enacted by Congress. b. They are given great deference by the courts when considering discrimination cases. c. They are only general guidelines and as such carry little weight in discrimination cases. d. They provide guidelines for designing fair selection procedures and are based upon the cumulative findings of discrimination cases.

B

Which of the following is considered acceptable according to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures? a. using skills and abilities that are easily learned during a brief training program as selection requirements b. using requirements drawn from higher-level jobs if the majority of individuals move to the higher-level job within a reasonable period of time c. using a cutoff score that individually ranks all applicants even if the use of such method results in adverse impact d. using high cutoff scores to ensure fair selection rather than validating lower cutoff scores

B

Which of the following is the rule-of-thumb used by the courts to determine discrimination? a. the three-fourths rule c. the standard determination rule b. the four-fifths rule d. the proportional differences test

B

Which of the following job analysis methods require(s) a large sample size to improve reliability? a. job analysis interview b. task inventory c. PAQ d. technical conferences

B

Which of the following statements concerning promotion is correct? a. Candidates for promotion are external to the firm b. Candidates for promotion are internal to the firm c. Candidates for promotion are well qualified d. Candidates for promotion can be both internal and external to the firm

B

Work performance is affected by a. supervisory methods. b. feedback methods. c. goal-setting procedures. d. all of the above.

B

__________________ is aimed at groups such as those defined by certain demographic or psychological characteristics. a. Open recruiting b. Targeted recruiting c. Pigeon-hole recruiting d. Geriatric recruiting

B

Job analysis is the __________ step in the selection process. a. last b. middle c. first d. first and last

C

One study found that OCBs accounted for _____% f the variance in judgmental performance evaluations: a. 9.5%. c. 42.9%. b. 61.2%. d. 2%.

C

The Americans with Disabilities Act covers which of the following employers? a. all employers b. those with 15 or more employees c. those with 25 or more employees d. d. those with 50 or more employees

C

The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures requires organizations to keep information about the demographic characteristics of applicants and hires. These records must be kept for which groups? a. all groups b. only those groups that constitute at least 1% of the relevant labor market c. only those groups that constitute at least 2% of the relevant labor market d. only those groups that constitute at least 3% of the relevant labor market

C

How does federal regulation of recent years differ from historical regulation? a. It is specific to one industry. b. It protects only minorities and women from illegal discrimination. c. It is not specific to any industry, but rather applies to many. d. Fines can be levied against violators.

C

Implementing the critical incident method to generate a list of job-related behaviors from which inferences are based regarding worker specifications involves all of the following steps EXCEPT: a. selecting the method for critical incidents collection. b. selecting a panel of job experts. c. observing critical incidents. d. gathering critical incidents statements from experts.

C

Job applicants who are not currently employed by the recruiting organization are attracted to the firm through: a. internal recruitment. b. open recruitment c. external recruitment. d. referrals.

C

KSA is an acronym used in selection that refers to a. knowledge, skills, assets b. knowledge, style, availability c. knowledge, skills, abilities d. knowledge, style, abilities

C

Organization specialists have determined that an individual employee's work performance is a function of two factors: a. ability and training b. effort and training c. ability and effort d. motivation and job satisfaction

C

Place the following steps in the development of selection programs in order: i. Identification of relevant job performance dimensions ii. Job analysis iii. Identification of knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for job iv. Development of assessment devices v. Validation of assessment devices vi. Use of assessment devices in processing applicants

C

Possible aspects of work-related information collected in job analysis include all of the following EXCEPT: a. work activities. b. tools and equipment used in performing work activities. c. validity of job-related tasks. d. WRCs of job incumbents.

C

Research suggests that using words such as "innovative" and "progressive" to describe a job should be used when trying to attract: a. active candidates. b. passive candidates c. racial minorities. d. candidates with high cognitive ability.

C

The amount of training required will depend on an applicant's : a. Personality characteristics b. The organization's system c. The applicant's skills and abilities d. None of these is correct.

C

The first response by the EEOC after a charge of discrimination has been filed is to: a. attempt conciliation between the two parties. b. conduct an investigation. c. attempt to negotiate a no-fault settlement d. work with the plaintiff to develop a strategy to seek justice.

C

The last step in the selection process is a. gathering useful information about the nature of the job. b. identifying major aspects of performance on the job. c. use of assessment devices in the processing of applicants. d. assessing an applicant's knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to do the job.

C

The plan for choosing which recruitment activities the organization will use, when and how these activities will be done, whom to use as recruiters, and what theme or message to convey is known as the: a. recruitment screen. b. recruitment analysis. c. recruitment strategy. d. recruitment execution.

C

The purpose of __________ is to measure the different WRCs necessary for job performance. a. the preliminary interview b. job analysis c. assessment devices d. validation

C

The purpose of __________ is to provide evidence that data from the selection instruments are related to job performance. a. reliability testing b. the selection interview c. validation d. internal recruitment

C

Using the four-fifths rule, if 70 percent of White applicants are selected, then the selection proportion of any minority group should be at least ___ percent. a. 48 b. 52 c. 56 d. 60

C

What is the first step in the development of selection programs? a. testing applicants to see if they are able to do the job b. identifying the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for the job c. conducting a job analysis which should be descriptive of the tasks, activities, results, environment, etc., that characterize the job d. advertising of the job opening

C

What is the most significant federal legislation that has focused attention on job analysis? a. Rehabilitation Act of 1973 b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

C

When did a significant increase in attention given to job analysis begin? a. 1930s b. 1950s c. within the last four decades d. since 2000

C

When we refer to selection in HRM, we mean a. the process of hiring people to fill vacancies. b. obtaining information about the applicants' lives so we can pick the best. c. the process of collecting and evaluating information about an individual in order to extend an offer of employment. d. eliminating from the applicant pool those people who are not qualified to perform the job.

C

Which of the following characteristics is desirable in a panel member who rates KSAs (knowledge, skills, and abilities)? a. selected by supervisor and required to participate b. new hires who have experienced job demands recently c. job incumbent with adequate performance on the job d. older job incumbents

C

Which of the following criteria can be used for framing a BFOQ (bona fide occupational qualification) defense? a. race b. color c. gender d. all of these

C

Which of the following has been shown to cause disparate impact? a. Not hiring women with young children while hiring men with such children. b. Hiring minority group members for cleaning jobs while similarly qualified Whites are hired as cashiers or waiters. c. Requiring a high school diploma requirement for entry-level positions when 7th grade education is all that is necessary. d. Intentionally not hiring qualified women for management positions.

C

Which of the following involves taking data produced by the judgments of workers and managers and using them to determine the relationship between the selection test and job performance? a. Content validation b. Construct validation c. Empirical validation d. Process validation

C

Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when determining what recruitment sources to use? a. costs associated with recruitment sources b. image of the company in the external labor market c. salary of the open position d. demographic mix of applicants being sought

C

Which of the following is a method of linking KSAs and job tasks in which every KSA is paired with every task? a. job task rating matrix b. KSA rating matrix c. having an analyst list job tasks associated with each KSA d. a job/task/KSA template

C

Which of the following is an advantage of job analysis interviews? a. can be done quickly with many jobs b. can be cost efficient with many jobs c. can be applied to a wide variety of jobs d. The skills and procedures of the individual analyst do not play a significant role in the success of this method.

C

Which of the following is not prohibited by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? a. discrimination on the basis of sex b. discrimination on the basis of religion c. discrimination on the basis of sexual preference d. discrimination on the basis of race

C

Which of the following job analysis methods can be considered ready for application without requiring further research? a. critical incident technique b. Fleishman job analysis survey c. position analysis questionnaire d. job element method

C

Why are promotion decisions often viewed as a different SHRM function than selection? a. Entirely different procedures are used for promotion than for selection. b. Different people make selection decisions than those making promotion decisions. c. Promotion decisions are often reached without using the formal testing devices that characterize external selection. d. More information is available about applicants in selection decisions than is available about candidates for promotion decisions.

C

Work-Related Characteristics are the same as: a. Work requirements. b. Worker attributes. c. Job requirements. d. All of these.

C

__________ is not a step in the development of selection programs. a. Validation of assessment devices b. Job analysis c. Administering an employment test d. Identification of knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for the job

C

______________ enforces executive orders.` a. The EEOC b. The U.S. Congress c. The Department of Labor d. The U.S. Attorney General

C

_______________________ is one part of a recruitment strategy that organizations can use to positively influence job applicants' early organizational perceptions. a. Product promotion b. Deception c. Organizational branding d. Organizational bartering

C

A study on the effects of staffing and training on firm productivity and profit growth before and after the Great Recession concluded: a. Firms that more effectively selected and trained employees outperformed competitors. b. Selection was more important for postrecession recovery c. Training was important for prerecession profitability. d. The study concluded that all of these conclusions were true

D

All of the following are characteristics that help ensure that the criterion has the information that is necessary for conducting a sound validation study EXCEPT: a. relevance. b. measurability. c. variance. d. contamination.

D

All of the following are metrics with which to evaluate recruitment effectiveness EXCEPT: a. new employee job performance. b. new employee turnover. c. manager satisfaction with new employees. d. opportunity cost of not hiring the "next best" candidate.

D

All of the following are purposes of recruiting EXCEPT: a. to develop an appropriate number of minimally acceptable applicants for each open position. b. to meet the organization's legal and social obligations regarding the composition of its workforce. c. to help increase the success rate of the selection process. d. to maximize current profitability.

D

All of the following are recruiting expenses EXCEPT: a. staff time. b. recruitment materials. c. travel for recruiters. d. administering employment tests.

D

Intentional bias is displayed when the rater deliberately distorts the ratings: a. To be favorable. b. To be unfavorable. c. To reflect in advertent bias. d. Either A or B.

D

Job analysis data have been used in all of the following HR areas EXCEPT: a. compensation. b. training. c. performance appraisal. d. inter-rater reliability.

D

Requirements drawn from higher-level jobs are permissible only if it can be documented that a majority of individuals move to higher-level jobs within a reasonable time period. What do the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures define as a reasonable time period? a. no more than 2 years b. no more than 3 years c. no more than 4 years d. no more than 5 years

D

Selection and __________ interact. a. training b. recruitment c. performance appraisal d. compensation

D

Selection is important because: a. It is related to performance b. It is related to customer satisfaction c. It is related to innovation d. All of these are correct

D

Selection is most closely related to which of the following HRM programs? a. initial training b. compensation c. job performance measurement d. recruitment

D

The concept of job performance became more complex and difficult to measure because of all of these EXCEPT: a. The transition from a manufacturing to a service economy. b. The transition to working in teams. c. The rise of computer technology in the workplace. d. The complexity of .

D

The judgmental measures of BARS or BES are developed to define the scale's rating points by using these as examples: a. Judgmental data. b. Task performance c. Production data. d. Job behaviors.

D

The purpose of recruiting is a. to increase the success rate of the selection process by increasing the number of total applicants (both qualified and unqualified). b. to meet the organization's legal and social obligation by establishing minority quotas. c. to increase the pool of candidates regardless of cost. d. to attract people and increase the probability that they will accept a position if it is offered.

D

What are the three options an employer has for defense in an adverse impact discrimination case? a. BFOQ (bona fide occupational qualification), reliability, customer preference b. business necessity, BFOQ (business-related occupational qualification), business necessity c. BFOQ (business firm order quantity), customer preference, business necessity d. business necessity, validity, BFOQ (bona fide occupational qualification

D

What is the recommended practice for choosing among job analysis methods? a. Cost should be the primary consideration in any job analysis study. b. Sample size should be the primary consideration in a job analysis study. c. A single method is preferable to a multi-method approach. d. A multi-method approach is preferable to a single method approach.

D

Which of the following consists of the largest number of persons in the Barber and Breaugh model of the recruitment process? a. hires b. applicant pool c. job candidates d. applicant population

D

Which of the following is NOT a key component of recruiting that a firm must consider and implement? a. determining recruitment sources b. determining recruitment personnel c. determining content of the recruitment message d. determining who to hire

D

Which of the following is NOT a method to combine different performance measures into one? a. factor analysis b. dollar criterion c. expert judgment d. behavioral analysis

D

Which of the following is NOT a part of recruiting that an organization can control? a. recruiting sources b. recruiting budget c. content of recruitment message d. applicant impression of the organization

D

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons why different types of recruiters might matter? a. Recruiters often differ in the job-related information they have and can share with job applicants. b. Recruiters are likely to differ more in the eyes of different types of job applicants. c. Recruiters are likely to convey different things to different job candidates. d. Using only one type of recruiter presents a limiting company image.

D

Which of the following is TRUE about the use of production data in validation studies? a. The data are easy to gather because they are collected routinely for business operations such as production, planning, and budgeting. b. The importance of such measures is obvious and easily understood. c. These data are not usually challenged and easily accepted by workers. d. These measures are often limited and must be corrected.

D

Which of the following is a "good" KSA statement? a. knowledge of first aid procedures b. skill in using forklift c. ability to handle customer complaints d. all of the above are "good" KSA statements

D

Which of the following is an example of a "good" statement descriptive of physical requirements? a. See well enough to read a voltmeter dial from a distance of three feet b. Strong enough to carry a 150 pound weight down a 20 foot ladder c. Hear well enough to carry on a telephone conversation without amplification d. All of the above are "good" statements of physical requirements

D

Which of the following is not one of the common forms of rater error in performance appraisal? a. halo b. leniency c. central tendency d. criterion contamination

D

Which of the following organizations is not covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? a. employment agencies b. unions c. private employers d. private clubs

D

Which of the following statements concerning job analysis interviews is INCORRECT? a. They can be structured. b. They can be unstructured. c. Data are collected from supervisors and/or job incumbents. d. Data are collected from job applicants.

D

Assisting other workers and teaching new workers are both examples of: a. WRCs b. CWBs c. OCBs d. BARS

C

Assessment devices should be able to a. group applicants by KSAs. b. organize information on applicants. c. differentiate among applicants. d. stand the test of time.

C

Because the applicants for initial jobs are all external to the organization, selection programs are usually a. random. b. subjective. c. formalized. d. arbitrary.

C

Disparate impact may be indicated even if the four-fifths rule is satisfied. This would be due to which of the following? a. significance level c. sample size b. industry type d. applicant characteristics

C

"Qualified individual with a disability" refers to which of the following? a. individuals with a disability who, with reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the job b. individuals with a disability, who, without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the job c. individuals with a disability, who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the job d. individuals with a disability who, with reasonable accommodation, can perform all of the functions of the job

C

A charge of discrimination must be filed how soon after an alleged act? a. within 80 days b. within 100 days c. within 180 days d. within one year

C

A lawsuit charging illegal discrimination against homosexuals could be filed under which of the following: a. Gay and Lesbian Antidiscrimination Act of 2002 b. Executive Order 11246 c. the Fifth or Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution d. Civil Rights Act of 1991

C

An affirmative action program is a requirement for contractors who have more than $50,000 in business with the government and more than 50 employees under: a. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. b. the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. c. Executive Order 11246. d. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967.

C

Applicants are given the negative aspects of the job as well as the positive with: a. reasonable job pictures. b. realistic job positions. c. realistic job previews. d. rational job portrayals.

C

Application blanks, biographical data forms, and reference checks are all forms of a. job analysis techniques. b. performance appraisal techniques. c. assessment devices. d. validation devices.

C


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