IFR Oral Reviewer 2022
Give examples of weather charts you will use during the flight planning process.
a. Surface Analysis Chart b. Weather Depiction Chart c. Significant Weather Prognostic Chart d. Short-Range Surface Prognostic Chart e. Convective Outlook Chart f. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart g. Freezing Level Graphics
What is a terminal arrival area (TAA)?
Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) provides a transition from the en route structure to the terminal environment with little required pilot/ATC interface for aircraft equipped with Area Navigation (RNAV) systems - consists of a designated volume of airspace designed to allow aircraft to enter a protected area with obstacle clearance and signal reception guaranteed where the initial approach course is intercepted.
Where are DPs located?
Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs) by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section, Section L
What does the phrase "Cleared for the Option" mean?
The "Cleared for the Option" procedure will permit an instructor, flight examiner or pilot the option to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing. The pilot should make a request for this procedure passing the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach.
What is the 40/1 obstacle clearance surface?
The 40:1 obstacle identification surface (OIS) begins at the departure end of runway (DER) and slopes upward at 152 FPNM until reaching the minimum IFR altitude or entering the en route structure.
What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?
The Coriolis force
Assuming two-way communications failure, discuss the recommended procedure to follow concerning altitudes to be flown for the following trip: The MEA between A and B is 5,000 feet; the MEA between B and C is 5,000 feet; the MEA between C and D is 11,000 feet; and the MEA between D and E is 7,000 feet. You have been cleared via A, B, C, D, to E. While flying between A and B, your assigned altitude was 6,000 feet and you were told to expect a clearance to 8,000 feet at B. Prior to receiving the higher altitude assignment, you experience two-way communication failure.
The correct procedure would be as follows: a. Maintain 6,000 feet to B, then climb to 8,000 feet (the altitude you were advised to expect). b. Continue to maintain 8,000 feet, then climb to 11,000 feet at C, or prior to C if necessary to comply with an MCA at C. c. Upon reaching D, you would descend to 8,000 feet (even though the MEA was 7,000 feet), as 8,000 feet was the highest of the altitude situations stated in the rule.
What is "release time"?
The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR
If no FAF is published, where does the final approach segment begin on a nonprecision approach?
The final approach segment begins where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.
What is Final approach segment?
The final approach segment is between the final approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point.
When is the only time Density Altitude = Pressure Altitude?
when at standard temperature
All public RNAV SIDs and graphic ODPs are RNAV1. What does this mean?
• RNAV 1 procedures require that the aircraft's total system error remain bounded by ±1 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time. • RNAV 2 requires a total system error of not more than 2 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time.
What are "APV" approaches, and give several examples of this type of approach.
■ Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV). A precision-like approach, flown to a DA with lateral + vertical guidance, but does not meet precision approach standards. Examples are: Baro-VNAV, LDA with glidepath, LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches.
What restrictions are VORs subject to?
■ Cone of confusion ■ Reverse sensing (if used incorrectly) ■ Requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station.
What are DPs and why are they necessary?
■ Ensures obstacle clearance, provided: ▷ the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL, ▷ reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, AND ▷ climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as published otherwise on the chart. ■ Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during marginal VMC or IMC.
Give a brief description of the Global Positioning System.
■ GPS is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the United States. ➢ GPS has no limitations unlike VOR, VORTAC, or VOR-DME.
If a RAIM failure occurs after the FAWP, will the receiver provide a status annunciation to the pilot?
The receiver is allowed to continue operating without an annunciation for up to 5 minutes to allow completion of the approach (see receiver operating manual). If the RAIM flag/status annunciation does appear after the FAWP, the missed approach should be executed immediately.
Are the courses depicted on an Enroute Low Altitude Chart magnetic or true courses?
They are magnetic courses.
Under what conditions are missed approach procedures published on an approach chart not followed?
They are not followed when ATC has assigned alternate missed approach instructions.
Will there be any significant differences when two straight-in approaches with the same type of guidance exist for a runway—i.e., RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 13C and RNAV (RNP) Y RWY 13C?
Yes; The approach procedure labeled Z will have lower landing minimums than Y (some older charts may not reflect this). Although both of these approaches can be flown with GPS to the same runway, they can be significantly different—e.g., one may be a "SPECIAL AIRCRAFT & AIRCREW AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED (SAAAR); one can have circling minimums and the other no circling minimums; the minimums are different; and the missed approaches may not be the same.
Can a cruise clearance authorize you to execute an approach at the destination airport?
Yes. When given a cruise clearance, you're automatically given a clearance to execute an instrument approach at your destination airport. You don't have to request an approach and you won't hear the words "cleared for the approach."
If an emergency action requires deviation from 14 CFR Part 91, must a pilot submit a written report, and if so, to whom?
➜ If deviation was made in an emergency: ↬ Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible ↬ No report is needed unless ATC or FAA ask for it ↬ If asked, usually when priority has been given, report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours
What are the requirements before accepting SIDs?
➜ Meet climb requirements ➜ Have the charted procedure
What are circle-to-land approaches?
A circle-to-land approach is not technically an approach, but a maneuver initiated by a pilot to align the aircraft with the runway for landing when a straight-in landing from an instrument approach is not possible or desirable. At tower-controlled airports, this maneuver is made only after ATC authorization has been obtained and the pilot has established required visual reference to the airport.
What procedure is followed when a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn?
A holding pattern, in lieu of a procedure turn, may be specified for course reversal in some procedures: the holding pattern is established over an intermediate fix or final approach fix. The holding pattern distance or time specified in the profile view must be observed. Maximum holding airspeed limitations apply, as set forth for all holding patterns. The holding pattern maneuver is completed when the aircraft is established on the inbound course after executing the appropriate entry. If cleared for the approach prior to returning to the holding fix, and the aircraft is at the prescribed altitude, additional circuits of the holding pattern are not necessary nor expected by ATC. If pilots elect to make additional circuits to lose altitude or to become better established on course, it is their responsibility to so advise ATC upon receipt of their approach clearance.
What is a low approach?
A low approach (sometimes referred to as a low pass) is the go-around maneuver following an approach. Instead of landing or making a touch and go, a pilot may wish to go-around (low approach) in order to expedite a particular operation (a series of practice instrument approaches is an example). Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the low approach should be made straight ahead, with no turns or climb made until the pilot has made a thorough visual check for other aircraft in the area.
How do you find an ADF magnetic bearing?
A magnetic bearing is the direction of an imaginary line from the aircraft to the station or the station to the aircraft referenced to magnetic north. To determine, use this formula: MH + RB = MB (Magnetic heading + relative bearing = magnetic bearing) If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing to the station. The reciprocal of this number is the magnetic bearing from the station.
What is the significance of temperature limitations published on an approach procedure chart?
A minimum and maximum temperature limitation is published on procedures which authorize Baro-VNAV operation. These temperatures represent the airport temperature above or below which Baro-VNAV is not authorized to LNAV/VNAV minimums.
When must a pilot execute a missed approach?
A missed approach must be executed when one of the following conditions occurs: a. Arrival at the missed approach point and the runway environment is not yet in sight; b. Arrival at DA on the glide slope with the runway not yet in sight; c. Anytime a pilot determines a safe landing is not possible; d. When circling-to-land visual contact is lost; or e. When instructed by ATC
What is the definition of the term "nonprecision approach"?
A nonprecision approach (NPA) is an instrument approach based on a navigation system that provides course deviation information, but no glidepath deviation information such as VOR, NDB and LNAV.
How can a pilot obtain the latest GPS NOTAMS?
A pilot can specifically request GPS aeronautical information from a FSS during preflight briefings.
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix beyond which a higher MEA exists.
A pilot may climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies.
What is the purpose of baro-aiding?
Baro-aiding is a method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by using a non-satellite input source (aircraft static system) to provide a vertical reference. GPS-derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude since the vertical error can be quite large and no integrity is provided. To ensure that baro-aiding is available, the current altimeter setting must be entered into the receiver. Baro-aiding satisfies the RAIM requirement in lieu of a fifth satellite
For IFR operations off established airways, the "Route of Flight" portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navigational aids that are no further than what distance from each other?
Below 18,000 feet MSL, use aids not more than 80 NM apart. Between 14,500 feet MSL and 17,999 feet MSL in the conterminous U.S., H (high-altitude service volume) facilities not more than 200 NM apart may be used
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
D.E.P.S - D - Date E - Error (bearing error) P - Place S - Signature
What are the 3 standard RNP levels?
DEPARTURE = 0.3 NM TERMINAL = 1 NM ENROUTE/OCEANIC (250 NM from any airport) = 2 NM WAAS; 5 NM NON WAAS 2 NM FROM FAF AND/OR MAP = 0.3 NM ALL 95% OF THE TIME
What is DA/H?
Decision Altitude / Height: the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold), on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.
Effects of flying after scuba diving. What are the treatment for it?
Decompression Sickness = nitrogen forms bubbles as pressure decreases. Treatment: Quickly descend, oxygen, hospital, diver's recompression chamber - must wait 12 hours before flying after scuba diving to allow the body to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving - must wait 24 hours if diver used decompression stops
What is stagnant hypoxia?
Decrease of the blood flow to the cells due to positive G-Force, heart failure, or shock
What is the recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
Descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude, and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is reached.
If assigned a DME/GPS hold, what procedures should be used?
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)/GPS Along-Track Distance (ATD) holding is subject to the same entry and holding procedures except that distances (nautical miles) are used in lieu of time values. The outbound course of the DME/GPS holding pattern is called the outbound leg of the pattern. The controller or the instrument approach procedure chart will specify the length of the outbound leg. The end of the outbound leg is determined by the DME or ATD readout
What is DME?
Distance measuring equipment. ■ 962-1213 MHz (UHF). ■ Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC). ■ The Airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal. ■ The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation. ■ Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time. ■ Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero. ■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station per every 1000ft height. For example, at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of the station. ■ Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude.
When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?
During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable. Check the A/FD for specifics.
What are the lateral limits of low altitude federal airways?
Each federal airway includes the airspace within parallel boundary lines 4 NM each side of the centerline
What is a ridge?
Elongated area of high pressure, descending air(good weather)
Fuel requirements for IFR
Enough fuel to fly to destination then to alternate airport then 45 min after at normal cruising airspeed
What is "EFAS"?
Enroute Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) is a service specifically designed to provide enroute aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended, route of flight, and altitude. EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot-reported weather information (PIREPs). EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet above ground level to 17,500 feet MSL on a common frequency of 122.0 MHz. It is also known as "Flight Watch." Discrete EFAS frequencies have been established to ensure communications coverage from 18,000 through 45,000 feet MSL, serving in each specific ARTCC area. These discrete frequencies may be used below 18,000 feet when coverage permits reliable communication.
What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts?
Enroute high-altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL. Revised every 56 days.
What to do if pilot doesn't want to use or get assigned SIDs?
Enter "No SID" in remarks section of flight plan
Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL, up to but not including what altitude?
Except for 18,000 feet MSL, Class E airspace has no defined vertical limit; rather, it extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 feet MSL and extends up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, overlying the 48 contiguous states including the waters within 12 miles from the coast of the contiguous states.
When may the pilot-in-command of an aircraft deviate from an ATC clearance?
Except in an emergency, no person may, in an area in which air traffic control is exercised, operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction.
What is the significance of the presence of a "negative C" symbol on the circling line of minima?
Expanded Circling Approach Maneuvering Radius for procedures developed after late 2012. Note: The increase in size of the circling protected area is particularly beneficial for pilots of CAT C and CAT D turbine-powered, transport category aircraft in that it provides greater lateral obstacle clearance and additional maneuvering room to properly align and stabilize for final approach and landing
What restrictions apply concerning filing an airport as an alternate when using TSO-C129 and TSO-C196 (non-WAAS) GPS equipment?
FILING AN ALTERNATE - GPS CONSIDERATIONS ■ Equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? You can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both. When using non-WAAS GPS (TSO-C129; TSO-C196), must have approved IAP other than GPS which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival and which the aircraft is equipped to fly
What is the formula for feet per NM to feet per minute?
FPM = (FPNM X Groundspeed) / 60
How does RAIM work?
Fault detection - A minimum of five satellites is required to detect a bad satellite; Fault detection and exclusion (FDE) - at least six satellites are required to detect and exclude a bad satellite from the navigation solution if your receiver has a (FDE) RAIM algorithm.
What are feeder routes?
Feeder routes gives transition from enroute structure to initial approach fix (IAF) Enroute airway obstacle clearance criteria apply to feeder routes, providing 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous areas).
When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?
File the flight plan at least 30 minutes prior to the estimated time of departure to preclude a possible delay in receiving a departure clearance from ATC. Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, a pilot must submit a complete flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums.
What is Flight Information Service (FIS) and how does it work?
Flight Information Service Broadcast = ground-based broadcast service provided through the ADS-B (Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast) network.
What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing?
Flight Service Station (FSS) 1-800-WX-BRIEF 1800wxbrief.com Enroute 1. FSS = 122.2 and RCO(Remote Communication Outlet) frequencies 2. ATIS/ASOS/AWOS along your route of flight 3. ARTCC (Air Route Traffic Control Center) = Severe Weather Forecast Alert (AWW), Convective SIGMET, SIGMET, AIRMET, Urgent Pilot Report, or CWA alert once on all frequencies, except emergency 4. Cockpit display of FIS-B information 5. ATC (workload permitting)
What is a composite flight plan?
Flight plans which combine VFR operation on an active VFR flight plan for one portion of a flight, and IFR for another portion
How are fly-over and fly-by waypoints used in a GPS approach procedure?
Fly-by waypoints are used when an aircraft should begin a turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route segments. ➜ Approach waypoints, except for the MAWP and the missed approach holding waypoint (MAHWP), are normally fly-by waypoints. ➜ Fly-by waypoints are identified with a four pointed symbol in GPS database Fly-over waypoints are used when the aircraft must fly over the point prior to starting a turn. - identified like fly-by but with a circle around it - Overlay approach charts and some early stand-alone GPS approach charts may not reflect this convention
State two basic ways that fog may form.
Fog forms: a. By cooling air to the dew point b. By adding moisture to the air
On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?
For flights along a direct route, regardless of the altitude or flight level being flown, including flights operating in accordance with an ATC clearance specifying "VFR-On-Top," pilots must report over each reporting point used in the flight plan to define the route of flight.
With no FAF available, when would final descent to the published MDA be started?
For non-precision approaches, the final approach point is the point at which the aircraft is established inbound on the final approach course if no FAF
Where is the MAP on a precision approach?
For the ILS, the MAP is at the decision altitude/decision height (DA/DH)
What is a "clearance limit" and when is it received?
Formally, a clearance limit is the fix, point, or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued an air traffic clearance. The clearance issued prior to departure normally authorizes flight to the airport of intended landing. A clearance limit may also be a NAVAID, intersection, or waypoint.
What information does a freezing level graphics chart provide?
Freezing level graphics are used to assess the lowest freezing level heights and their values relative to flight paths. The chart uses colors to represent the height in hundreds of feet above mean sea level (MSL) of the lowest freezing level(s). The initial analysis and 3-hour forecast graphics are updated hourly. The 6-, 9-, and 12-hour forecast graphics are updated every three hours.
What is the sensitivity of a CDI tuned to a localizer signal compared with a CDI tuned to a VOR?
Full left or full right deflection occurs at approximately 2.5° from the centerline of a localizer course, which is 4 times greater than when tuned to a VOR, where full-scale deflection equals 10° from the centerline
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
Full scale deflection = 10°; therefore, half-scale deflection = 5°.
Preflight G
Fundamentals of Weather
What is GLS?
GBAS landing system; U.S. version of GBAS is Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS); provides lateral and vertical guidance; requires an aircraft GBAS receiver; relatively new category of approach
How can you determine if your aircraft is equipped to fly a LPV approach procedure?
GPS/WAAS operation must be conducted in accordance with the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) and flight manual supplements. Flight manual supplements will state the level of approach procedure that the receiver supports. IFR-approved WAAS receivers support all GPS only operations as long as lateral capability at the appropriate level is functional.
VOR checkpoint displacement.
Ground = +/- 4° Airborne = +/-6° Dual VOR = total of 4° between 2 bearings
Briefly describe the operation of WAAS.
Ground stations (Wide-area Reference Stations and Wide-area Master Stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.
What are the basic components of a standard ILS?
Guidance information = localizer, glide slope Range information = marker beacons, DME Visual information = approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights
There are four types of NDB facilities in use. What are they and what are their effective ranges?
HH facilities: 2,000 watts; 75 NM H facilities: 50 to 1,999 watts; 50 NM MH facilities: less than 50 watts; 25 NM ILS compass locator: less than 25 watts; 15 NM
What is "HIWAS"?
Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service is a voice recording about hazardous weather that is broadcasted over selected VOR/VORTAC frequency (H on the upper right of the frequency box means HIWAS is being broadcasted on the frequency of that NAVAID)
What is the definition of the term "ceiling"?
Height above the Earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as "broken," "overcast," or "obscuration,"
Preflight D
IFR Flight Plan
What minimums are necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under 121, 125, 129, or 135?
IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS (§91.175) No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations. Part 121, 125, 129, 135: ■ Prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none: ■ 1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility ■ More than 2 engines: 1⁄2 SM visibility
Define ice fog.
Ice fog occurs in cold weather when the temperature is much below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals. Conditions favorable for its formation are the same as for radiation fog except for cold temperature, usually -25°F or colder. It occurs mostly in the Arctic regions, but is not unknown in middle latitudes during the cold season. Ice fog can be quite blinding to someone flying into the sun.
When is DME equipment required?
If VOR navigational equipment is required for flight at and above FL240, the aircraft must be equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. If the DME or RNAV system fails at or above FL240, the pilot-in-command shall notify ATC immediately, and then may continue operations to the next airport of intended landing where repairs or equipment replacement can be done.
If the GPS receiver does not sequence from "Armed" to "Approach" mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, what procedure should the pilot follow?
If a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP), the approach should not be completed since GPS may no longer provide the required accuracy. The pilot should not descend to minimum descent altitude (MDA), but should proceed to the missed approach waypoint (MAWP) via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical.
When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 feet per nautical mile, what significance should this have to the pilot?
If an aircraft may turn in any direction from a runway, and remain clear of obstacles, that runway passes what is called diverse departure criteria and no ODP will be published. A SID may be published if needed for air traffic control purposes. However, if an obstacle penetrates what is called the 40:1 slope obstacle identification surface, then the procedure designer chooses whether to: a. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient; or b. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with an alternative that increases takeoff minima to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of the obstacle(s); or c. Design and publish a specific departure route; or d. A combination or all of the above
When is take off minimums are non standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport?
If an airport has non-standard takeoff minimums, a "triangle T" (or, "trouble T") symbol—that is, a black triangle with a T inside it—will be placed in the notes sections of the instrument procedure chart
What is considered "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?
If an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed for that airport, use the minimums for that approach for takeoff. If no approach procedure is available, basic VFR minimums are recommended (1,000 feet and 3 miles).
What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?
If an instrument approach procedure has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used.
If a discrepancy exists between the information provided by a GPS navigation database and the information published on an approach chart, which one takes precedence?
If significant differences arise between the approach chart and the GPS avionics' application of the navigation database, the published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs, holds precedence.
While circling to land you lose visual contact with the runway environment. At the time visual contact is lost, your approximate position is a base leg at the circling MDA. What procedure should be followed?
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. Since the circling maneuver may be accomplished in more than one direction, different patterns will be required to become established on the prescribed missed approach course, depending on the aircraft position at the time visual reference is lost. Adherence to the procedure will ensure that an aircraft will remain within the circling and missed approach obstacle clearance areas.
Why is it important for the pilot to receive an EFC time with initial holding instructions?
If you lose two-way radio communication, the EFC allows you to depart the holding fix at a definite time. Plan the last lap of your holding pattern to leave the fix as close as possible to the exact time.
State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere. (AC 00-6)
High = outward, downward, clockwise. Descending air, tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather. Low = inward, upward, counterclockwise. Rising air, conducive to cloudiness, precipitation, and bad weather.
What is the significance of the presence of a gray shaded line from the MDA to the runway in the profile view of a RNAV (GPS) approach?
It is an indication that the visual segment below the MDA is clear of obstructions on the 34:1 slope. Absence of the gray shaded area indicates the 34:1 OCS is not free of obstructions
When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with an ILS marker beacon, what is it called?
It is called a compass locator
Define the terms: LIFR, IFR, MVFR and VFR.
LIFR (Magenta) -- Low IFR - ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile. IFR (Red) -- Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to less than 3 miles. MVFR (Blue) -- Marginal VFR - ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive. VFR (Green) -- Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles; includes sky clear.
What are the standard alternate airport requirements?
MIN WX CONDITIONS REQUIRED AT AN AIRPORT TO LIST IT AS AN ALTERNATE The alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none: ■ Precision approach: 600 feet ceiling and 2 SM visibility. ■ Non-precision approach: 800 feet ceiling and 2 SM visibility. ■ No instrument approach available at the alternate: Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.
What is OBS or non-sequencing mode?
OBS or non-sequencing mode is a FMS/RNAV navigation mode that does not automatically sequence between waypoints in the programmed route. The non-sequencing mode maintains the current active waypoint indefinitely, and allows the pilot to specify desired track to or from that waypoint.
Preflight H
Obtaining Weather Information
What is a mileage breakdown point?
Occasionally an "x" will appear at a separated segment of an airway that is not an intersection. The "x" is a mileage breakdown or computer navigation fix and indicates a course change.
What is OROCA?
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a: - 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas; - 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. - OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.
The requested altitude on an FAA flight plan form represents which altitude for the route of flight—the initial, lowest, or highest
Only the initial requested altitude. Make a subsequent request direct to the controller for the other altitudes
When is the inner marker used?
Ordinarily, there are two marker beacons associated with an ILS, the outer marker (OM) and middle marker (MM). Locations with a Category II ILS also have an inner marker (IM)
When does the timing for the outbound leg in a holding pattern begin?
Outbound leg timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot be determined, start timing outbound leg when completed the turn to the outbound leg and wings rolled level on the outbound leg
What are the distances from the landing threshold of the outer, middle, and inner markers? Their visual and aural indications when crossing?
Outer marker = 4 to 7 miles from threshold, GS (blue light, dull tone, slow speed) - - - - - - Middle marker = 3,500 feet from threshold, 200' above TDZE, GS=DH (amber light, medium tone, medium speed) - . - . - . Inner marker = between middle marker and threshold, GS=DH Cat II ILS Approach (white light, high tone, high speed) . . . . . .
Chapter 1: Preflight A
Pilot Qualification
What are PIREPs, and where are they usually found?
Pilot report provides valuable information regarding the conditions that actually exist in the air. UA = Routine UUA = Urgent
When used in conjunction with ATC altitude assignments, what does the term "pilot's discretion" mean?
Pilot's discretion means that ATC has offered the pilot the option of starting climb or descent whenever he/she wishes and conducting the climb or descent at any rate he/she wishes. The pilot may temporarily level off at any intermediate altitude. However, after vacating an altitude, the pilot may not return to that altitude.
What is difference between AFM and POH?
Pilots Operating Handbook covers only a particular model or type of the aircraft, the Aircraft Flight Manual is very specific to the aircraft. The Pilots Operating Handbook cannot be substituted for Aircraft Flight Manual but the AFM can be used a substitute for POH
What instrument approach procedures may you flight plan to use as the planned approach at the required alternate when using TSO-C145/-C146 (WAAS) equipment?
Pilots with TSO-C145/C146 WAAS receivers may flight plan to use any instrument approach procedure authorized for use with their WAAS avionics as the planned approach at a required alternate, with certain restrictions
While flying a 3° glide slope, which conditions should the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude and altitude when encountering a windshear situation where a tailwind shears to a calm or headwind?
Pitch attitude Increase Required thrust Reduced, then increased Vertical speed Decreases, then increases Airspeed Increases, then decreases Reaction Reduce power initially, then increase
Why is radar required on some FAA instrument approaches?
RADAR REQUIRED- A term displayed on charts and approach plates and included in FDC NOTAMs to alert pilots that segments of either an instrument approach procedure or a route are not navigable because of either the absence or unusability of a NAVAID.
What color are runway edge lights?
- white line of lights that outline the edges of a runway - instrument ILS capabilities runway change to yellow towards far end of the runway (last 2,000 feet or half of the runway; whichever is lesser)
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with a federal airway?
1,200 feet AGL.
What is the maximum DME tolerance?
1/2 mile or 3% whichever is greater
What are the following transponder codes?
1200 VFR 7700 Emergency 7600 Communications Emergency 7500 Hijacking in progress
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15° C/59° F 29.92" Hg/1013.2 millibars
What items of information should be included in every position report?
"A PTA TEN R" - (§91.183, AIM 5-3-2) ■ Aircraft ID. ■ Position. ■ Time. ■ Altitude. ■ Type of flight plan (except when communicating with ARTCC / Approach control). ■ ETA and name of next reporting fix. ■ Name only of the next succeeding point along the route of flight. ■ Any pertinent remarks.
What are the required tests and inspections for VFR and IFR?
"AAVIATES" ■ A - Annual inspection within 12 calendar months ■ A - Airworthiness Directive (AD) required inspections ■ V - VOR check every 30 days. (For IFR) ■ 1 - 100-hour (time-in-service) inspection if used for hire or flight instruction in aircraft CFI provides ■ A - Altimeter, automatic altitude reporting (used by transponder) & static system every 24 calendar months (For IFR in controlled airspace; §91.411) ■ T - Transponder every 24 calendar months. (§91.413) ■ E - ELT inspected every 12 calendar months. - Battery must be replaced 1 hour of use or; - if 50% of its useful life has expired (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50% of the useful life of charge has expired). ■ S - Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) required inspections.
What consists of taxi briefing?
"ARCH" ■ A - Assigned / planned runway. ■ R - Route. ■ C - Crossings and hold short instructions. ■ H - Hot spots & Hazards (e.g., NOTAMs, closed taxiways/runways, surface condition).
What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight?
"ARROW" A - Airworthiness certificate R - Registration certificate R - Radio station license (for flights outside the US) O - Operating limitations & information (in AFM) W - Weight & Balance data (aircraft specific) GPS and G1000 Manual/Quick reference guide
Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
"CRAFT" Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix) Route (initial heading) Altitude (initial altitude) Frequency (departure) Transponder (squawk code)
Is "minimum fuel" emergency or urgency?
"I'm in minimum fuel" is not an emergency but an advice to ATC that possible emergency may occur if undue delay happens - No priority will be given but ATC won't make you hold or vector you away
What reports should be made to ATC at all times without a specific request (radar and non-radar)?
"MARVELOUS VFR C500" - (AIM 5-3-3, §91.183, §91.187 ) ■ Missed approach, request another clearance, another approach, alternate airport, etc ■ Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is greater) ■ Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) ■ VFR on top when an altitude change will be made. *■ ETA changed ±2 min, or ±3 min in North Atlantic (NAT) ■ Leaving a holding fix/point *■ Outer marker inbound (or fix used in lieu of it) ■ Unforecast weather (§91.183) ■ Safety of flight compromised (§91.183) ■ Vacating an altitude / FL *■ Final Approach fix inbound ■ Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure (§91.187) *■ Compulsory reporting points ▲ (§91.183) ■ 500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm * Required only in non-radar environments (including ATC radar failure)
Information needed to be familiar with for IFR flight or flight not in vicinity of an airport
"NWKRAFT" ■ N - NOTAMs. ■ W - Weather reports and forecasts. ■ K - Known traffic delays as advised by ATC. ■ R - Runway length of intended use. ■ A - Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned. ■ F - Fuel requirements ■ T - Takeoff and landing performance data.
RISK MANAGEMENT & PERSONAL MINIMUMS - "PAVE"?
"PAVE" Pilot - IMSAFE, proficiency, currency Aircraft - ARROW enVironment - weather hazards, airports/runways to be used External pressures - desire to impress
What acronym is used to examine risk?
"PAVE" Pilot - IMSAFE, proficiency, currency Aircraft - ARROW enVironment - weather hazards, airports/runways to be used External pressures - desire to impress
When is a procedure turn not required?
"SHARP TT" - ■ Straight-in approach clearance --- ATC specifies "CLEARED STRAIGHT IN (type) APPROACH" ■ Holding in lieu of a procedure turn, holding pattern must be followed ■ Arc - DME arc ■ Radar vectors to final. ■ PT barb not depicted on chart, or "NoPT" ■ Timed approach from a hold fix. ■ Teardrop course reversal.
If 6 months passed without currency?
"grace period" is the 2nd 6 months period to get current but with safety pilot and only simulated IFR
What is the minimum VFR weather conditions for Class C, D, E at or above 10,000' MSL?
(5-111) 5 SM visibility, 1000' above, 1000' below, 1 SM horizontal from the clouds
What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR?
(6-6-HIT) Within 6 calendar months 6 instrument approaches Holding procedures and tasks Intercepting Tracking courses using navigational electrical system Flight review every 24 calendar months
Describe a U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog chart.
- 12 and 24 hour period from the surface to FL240 (24,000 ft). - Issued 4 times a day. - Depicts weather categories (IFR, MVFR and VFR), turbulence and freezing levels.
What is Class A airspace?
- 18,000 MSL to FL600 - IFR only - designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles off the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied
What is Class C airspace? Minimum weather conditions for VFR?
- 2 way communication established (2 way radio) before entry - Mode C with altitude encoding - ADBS-out equipment - usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation - 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. - Surface up to 4,000' above airport elevation - (3-152) 3 SM visibility, 1000' above, 500' below, 2000' horizontally from the clouds
What is Class D airspace?
- 2 way radio communication established(2 way radio) before entry - Clearance for takeoff and landing - Core area is 4.4 NM - Surface to 2,500' above airport elevation (ceiling only when tower is in operation - (3-152) 3 SM visibility, 1000' above, 500' below, 2000' horizontally from the clouds
How many instrument hours can be logged from simulator?
- 30 hours if under part 142 - 20 hours if not - 10 hours if basic ATD (Aviation Training Device) - 20 hours if advanced ATD
What is a warning area?
- 3NM outward from the coast of the U.S. - over water - permission is not required but a flight plan is advised
What is Class E (controlled) airspace?
- ATC is available but not mandatory - up to but not including 18,000' - Blue fuzzy line = 1,200' up to but not including 18,000' - Magenta fuzzy line = 700' up to but not including 18,000' - Magenta broken line = surface up to but not including 18,000' (extensions) - Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D, and it is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace. - When designated as a surface area, the airspace will be configured to contain all instrument procedures. - Requires Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment at and above 10,000' MSL within the 48 contiguous states and D.C, excluding at or below 2,500' AGL. - Requires ADS-B Out at and above 3,000' MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the U.S. coast out to 12 NM. - (3-152) 3 SM visibility, 1000' above, 500' below, 2000' horizontally from the clouds
Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required?
- Class A, B, C airspace (inside and above) - Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL (Mode C Veil) - all controlled airspace at and above 10,000' unless at and below 2,500 feet of the surface weather in IFR or VFR - ADIZ (Air Defense Identifier Zone) For ADSB-OUT if equipped: - 12 NM away from coast - at all airports
What is CFA?
- Controlled Firing Area - not charted, suspended when spotted aircraft
What is a prohibited area?
- Established for security or with national welfare - cannot fly without permission or clearance
What information may be obtained from the U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prog charts?
- FL250 to FL630 - Depicts coverage bases and tops of thunderstorms and CB clouds, moderate and severe turbulence/icing, jet streams, tropopause heights, tropical cyclones, severe squall lines, volcanic eruption sites, widespread sand and dust storms. - Issued 4 times a day.
What is a restricted area?
- Hazards may include: artillery, aerial gunnery, guided missiles - can fly when NOT active or permission from controlling agency if VFR - IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it
What is MOA?
- Military Operating Area - Separates certain non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic - VFR pilots can fly through but must exercise extreme caution - IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it
What is NSA?
- National Security Areas - increased security and safety for ground facilities - pilots must avoid flying through here - might be temporarily prohibited
What is Class B airspace?
- Needs clearance - 2 way communication radio - Atleast a private pilot license or student pilot with logbook endorsement - Mode C and encoding altimeter - ADSB-out equipment - surface to 10,000' MSL - 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds
What are SATR and SFRA?
- Special Air Traffic Rules - Special Flight Rules Area is a region in which the normal regulations of flight do not apply in whole or in part. Special Federal Aviation Regulations (SFARs) apply (14 CFR Part 93)
What rate of turn is recommended during execution of a "no-gyro" approach procedure?
- Standard rate = Prior to being handed off to the final approach controller - One-half standard rate = After being handed off to the final approach controller
What are TFRs?
- Temporary Flight Restrictions is a regulatory action issued via the U.S. NOTAM system - temporary restrictions for aircraft within the area to protect persons or property in the air or on ground.
What is Class G airspace? Minimum weather conditions for VFR?
- Uncontrolled airspace - Areas below other airspace surfaces - surface up to overlying controlled airspace not exceeding 14,500' MSL or where Class E airspace begins, whichever occurs first. Day (Above 1,200') = (1-152) 1 SM visibility, 1000' above, 500' below, 2000' horizontally from the clouds (Below 1,200') = (1C) 1 SM visibility, clear of clouds Night = (3-152) 3 SM visibility, 1000' above, 500' below, 2000' horizontally from the clouds
Describe a Mid-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) chart.
- from 10,000' MSL to FL450. - Depicts thunderstorms, jet streams, tropopause height, tropical cyclones, moderate and severe icing conditions, moderate or severe turbulence, cloud coverage and type, volcanic ash and areas of released radioactive materials. - 24hr chart issued 4 times a day
What does the operation of a rotating beacon at an airport within Class D airspace during daylight hours mean?
- ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet - ATC clearance in accordance with 14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern
What is Alert Area?
- high volume of student pilot - can fly through but with extreme cautions - IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it
How can you identify an ILS critical area?
- holding short area when IFR aircraft landing - near the runway with electronic signal for IFR pilots - The area is protected whenever conditions are less than a ceiling of 800 feet and/or visibility less than 2 miles.
What other useful info can be found in an A/FD?
-Enroute flight advisories -ARTCC -Aeronautical chart bulletins -Preferred IFR routes -Special notices -VOR receiver checkpoints
Minimum hours for applying to IFR rating?
1. 50 hours XC as PIC a. 10 hours in an airplane 2. 40 hours instrument time a. 15 hours w/ CFII b. 1 XC - 250 NM along airways or ATC routes - Instrument approach at each airport - 3 different approaches using navigation system - Filed IFR flight plan c. 3 hours instrument flight training with CFII within the last 2 calendar months
How can your IFR clearance be obtained?
1. ATC Tower/Ground Uncontrolled 2. Clearance Delivery 3. FSS - RCO (Remote Communication Outlet)/ GCO (Ground Communication Outlet) 4. FSS - Phone (1-800-WX-BRIEF;1-888-SNOTCOP) 5. Approach Control/Center 6. ARTCC (Air Route Traffic Control Center) 7. Relay Clearance 8. Airborne (Depart VFR provided you remain VFR in controlled airspace)
What are the 3 weather surface reports?
1. AWOS(Automated Weather Observation System) 2. ASOS(Automated Surface Observation System) 3. ARTCC(Air Route Traffic Control Center)
When is Instrument Rating required?
1. As PIC under IFR/IMC in controlled airspace 2. Weather less than VFR minimums (3 SM, 1000' ceiling) 3. Class A 4. Special VFR (Class B, C, D, (E surface areas)) between sunset to sunrise 5. Carrying passengers for hire on more than 50 NM or at night
What are the required qualifications for a person to act as a "safety pilot"?
1. Atleast PPL 2. Medical certificate 3. If under IFR, must be instrument rated
Methods to use to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirements (RAIM check)
1. Contact FSS to obtain non-precision approach RAIM for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA unless otherwise requested by the PIC 2. Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) 3. 3rd party interface 4. Installed RAIM prediction capability to provide non-precision approach RAIM
Different types of NOTAMs
1. FDC (Flight Data Center) NOTAMs = regulatory/instrument approach procedures changes, amendments on the sectional charts (TFR) 2. NOTAM D(Domestic) = amendments on airports and airport facilities 3. International NOTAM 4. Military NOTAM
What are the 2 visual illusions?
1. False horizon = caused by sloping cloud formation, dark night with scattered lights, obscured horizon 2. Autokinesis = staring at a point of light in a dark scene feeling that the point is moving
Basic preflight for GPS equipment
1. GPS properly installed and certified for IFR 2. Databases current and not expired 3. GPS and WAAS NOTAMS 4. GPS RAIM availability 5. Status of ground-based NAVAIDs (VOR) 6. GPS manual or airplane flight manual supplement is available and on board
What are the exceptions for the FAA rule regarding prohibited use of portable devices?
1. Hearing aids 2. Heart pacemakers 3. Voice recorders 4. Electric shavers 5. iPad or any PED that are determined in advanced won't cause interference with the comms and nav system of the aircraft
What are the 4 forms of hypoxia?
1. Hypoxic 2. Hypemic 3. Stagnant 4. Histotoxic
When to log instrument approach procedure?
1. when operated the aircraft/FFS/ATD/FTD solely by reference to instruments 2. be established on each required segment of the IAP to MDA/DA unless radar vectored by ATC 3. IFR/Simulated IFR conditions down to MDA/DA 4. If changed from IMC to VMC on the FAF or MDA/DA, approach can still be logged 5. If remained in IMC til MDA/DA and execute missed approach procedure
How to determine if aircraft is still airworthy without MEL and 1 instrument is inop?
1. If inop instrument is not part of 91.205 "A TOMATO FLAMES", "FLAPS", and "GRAB CARDD" 2. If inop instrument is not listed as required on the aircraft's equipment list from POH or KOEL (Kinds of Operations Equipment List) 3. If not required to be operational by an AD 4. STC (Supplemental Type Certificate) If these were met, inop instrument must be removed by an A&P from the aircraft, or deactivated and placarded "inoperative" - log in maintenance logbook
When is a RAIM check required?
1. Must be confirmed if GPS/TSO-C129 (non WAAS) is used to solely to satisfy RNAV 2. No need to check if TSO-C145/C-146 (WAAS) is used 3. If RAIM is lost for more than 5 minutes, flight must be delayed, cancelled, or rerouted where RAIM requirements can be met
What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time?
1. Only when PIC solely operated the aircraft by reference to instruments under IFR/simulated IFR - authorized instructor may log instrument time when instructing instrument flight in actual IFR
Name several types of fog.
1. Radiation fog = calm clear nights (temperature inversion) no winds 2. Advection fog = warm moist air to cold surface/water 3. Steam fog = cold air from surface to warm body of water 4. Upslope fog = air pushes up the hill 5. Precipitation induced fog = warm rain to cold surface/air 6. Ice fog = temperature is much below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals.
What are the 7 optical illusions?
1. Runway width illusion = narrow runway feels like higher than actual; wide runway, lower than actual 2. Runway and terrain slope illusion = upsloping terrain or runway, feels like higher than actual 3. Featureless terrain illusion = "black hole approach" flying over dark areas, feels like higher than actual 4. Water refraction = rain on windscreen makes it feel like higher than actual 5. Haze = feels like runway is further/ aircraft is higher than actual 6. Fog = illusion of nose up motion 7. Ground lighting illusion = road/light on moving trains mistaken as runway. Bright runway/ALS feels like the runway is closer than actual
What are In-flight Aviation Weather Advisories (WST, WS, WA)?
1. SIGMETs (WS) 2. Convective SIGMETs (WST) 3. AIRMET (WA) 4. Center Weather Advisory (CWA)
What are the 6 Vestibular Illusions?
1. The leans = feeling of banking in the opposite direction after leveling the wings 2. Coriolis Illusion = false sensation of acceleration or turning on a different axis after turning and abrupt head movement 3. Graveyard Spiral = illusion of not turning causing the pilot to turn on the opposite direction 4. Somatogravic Illusion = illusion of pitching up/down when accelerating/decelerating 5. Inversion Illusion = illusion of tumbling backwards after leveling from climb 6. Elevator Illusion = when the pilot catch an updraft, and the plane is abruptly accelerated vertically feeling like it is pitching up
When logging instrument time, what should be included in each logbook entry?
1. location and type of each instrument approach accomplished 2. Name of safety pilot
What is the standard lapse rate?
2°C per 1,000'
What are the recency of experience requirements as PIC to carry passengers?
3 takeoffs and landing within the last 90 days - if flying at night or tailwheel, must be full stop - night flight is between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport with an approved IAP?
700 feet AGL
What is a "no-gyro" approach?
A "no-gyro" approach is a radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-compass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions "Turn right/left," or "Stop turn," as appropriate.
What is an airport surface "hot spot"?
A ''hot spot'' are complex or confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersections. The area of increased risk has either a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents due to a variety of causes, such as but not limited to: airport layout, traffic flow, airport marking, signage and lighting, situational awareness, and training. Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as circles or polygons designated as "HS1", "HS2", etc
What is a convective SIGMET?
A Convective SIGMET(Significant Meteorological Information) - implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear EATSSHT2 - Embedded thunderstorms - A line of thunderstorms - Thunderstorms - 40% or more of an area at least 3000 square miles - Severe thunderstorms due to: - Surface winds = 50 knots or more - Hail = 3/2 inches or more in diameter - Tornadoes - forecast valid for up to 2 hours
What are PAR and ASR approaches?
A Precision Approach Radar (PAR) approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides highly accurate navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation to the pilot (precision approach). An Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only (nonprecision approach).
What does a VASI system provide?
A VASI system provides visual descent guidance during an approach to a runway; safe obstruction clearance within ±10° of extended runway centerline up to 4 NM from the runway threshold. Two-bar VASI installations normally provide a 3° visual glide path.
After filing an IFR flight plan, can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air?
A VFR departure can be used as a tool that allows you to get off the ground without having to wait for a time slot in the IFR system; however, departing VFR with the intent of receiving an IFR clearance in the air can also present serious hazards worth considering. A VFR departure dramatically changes the takeoff responsibilities for you and for ATC: a. Upon receiving clearance for a VFR departure, you are cleared to depart; however, you must maintain separation between yourself and other traffic. b. Maintaining terrain and obstruction clearance as well as remaining in VFR weather conditions. You cannot fly in IMC without first receiving your IFR clearance. c. ATC only to provide you with safety alerts as workload permits. d. Maintain VFR until you have obtained your IFR clearance and have ATC approval to proceed on course in accordance with your clearance. If you accept this clearance and are below the minimum IFR altitude for operations in the area, you accept responsibility for terrain/obstruction clearance until you reach that altitude.
An aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 91 has a 1.3 times VS0 speed of 100 KIAS, making Category B minimums applicable. If it becomes necessary to circle at a speed in excess of this category, what minimums should be used?
A pilot must use the minima corresponding to the category determined during certification, or higher. If it is necessary to operate at a speed in excess of the upper limit of the speed range for an aircraft's category, the minimums for the higher category must be used.
Why would a pilot request a VFR-On-Top clearance?
A pilot on an IFR flight plan operating in VFR weather conditions, may request VFR-On-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude. For reasons such as turbulence, more favorable winds aloft, etc., the pilot has the flexibility to select an altitude or flight level of his/her choice (subject to any ATC restrictions). Pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel their IFR flight plan or operate VFR-On-Top may request a climb to VFR-On-Top. Note: The ATC authorization must contain either a top report or a statement that no top report is available, and a request to report reaching VFR-On-Top. Additionally, the ATC authorization may contain a clearance limit, routing, and an alternative clearance if VFR-On-Top is not reached by a specified altitude
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix at which a MCA exists.
A pilot should initiate a climb so the MCA is reached by the time the intersection is crossed. An MCA will be charted when a higher MEA route segment is approached. The MCA is usually indicated when you are approaching steeply rising terrain, and obstacle clearance and/or signal reception is compromised.
What is a computer navigation fix (CNF)?
A point used for the purpose of defining the navigation track for an airborne computer system (i.e., GPS or FMS) is called a computer navigation fix (CNF). CNFs include unnamed DME fixes, beginning and ending points of DME arcs and sensor final approach fixes (FAFs) on some GPS overlay approaches. The CNF five letter name will be enclosed in parenthesis—e.g., "(CFBCD)"
What is a precision approach (PA)?
A precision approach (PA) is an instrument approach that is based on a navigation system that provides course and glidepath deviation information meeting the precision standards of ICAO Annex 10. For example, PAR, ILS, and GLS are precision approaches.
What is the definition of hazard?
A present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident
How do you find an ADF relative bearing?
A relative bearing is the angular relationship between the aircraft heading and the station, measured clockwise from the nose. The bearing is read directly on the ADF dial, measured clockwise from zero
How does VOR works?
A rotating directional signal is broadcast from the VOR, while a second (omnidirectional) signal is broadcast only when the rotating signal passes north. The VOR receiver in your aircraft measures the time—or phase—difference in these two signals and comes up with the bearing—or radial—from the station.
What is Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)?
A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.
Define the term "decision altitude" (DA).
A specified altitude in the precision approach, charted in feet MSL, at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established
What is the difference between a stable and an unstable atmosphere?
A stable atmosphere resists any upward or downward displacement. An unstable atmosphere allows an upward or downward disturbance to grow into a vertical or convective current.
What is a stepdown fix?
A stepdown fix permits additional descent within a segment of an instrument approach procedure by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown
What is a tailplane stall?
A tailplane stall occurs when a tailplane, with accumulated ice, is placed at a sufficiently negative AOA and stalls. Since the tailplane counters the natural nose-down tendency caused by the center of lift of the main wing, the airplane will react by pitching down, sometimes uncontrollably, when the tailplane is stalled.
During preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?
A. Location of fronts—the front's location, type, speed, and direction of movement. b. Cloud layers—the location of cloud bases and tops; this is valuable when determining if you will be able to climb above icing layers or descend beneath those layers into warmer air. c. Freezing level(s)—important when determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing conditions if accidentally encountered. d. Air temperature and pressure—icing tends to be found in low-pressure areas and at temperatures at or around freezing. e. Precipitation—knowing the location and type of precipitation forecast will assist in avoiding areas conducive to severe icing
Which category does RAIM falls under?
ABAS (Air Based Augmentation System)
What is ADF homing?
ADF homing is flying the aircraft on any heading required to keep the ADF needle on zero until the station is reached
What is ADF tracking?
ADF tracking is a procedure used to fly a straight geographic flight path inbound to or from an NDB. A heading is established that will maintain the desired track, compensating for wind drift.
What do the following acronyms stand for?
ALSF-1 = Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights (ILS Cat-1 configuration) SSALF = Simplified Short Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights MALSR = Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights VASI = Visual Approach Slope Indicator REIL = Runway End Identifier Lights MIRL = Medium Intensity Runway Lighting PAPI = Precision Approach Path Indicator
Does an ATC authorization to "maintain VFR-On-Top" restrict you to only operating on top or above the cloud layer?
ATC authorization to "maintain VFR-On-Top" is not intended to restrict pilots so that they must operate only above an obscuring meteorological formation (layer). Instead, it permits operation above, below, between layers, or in areas where there is no meteorological obscuration. It is imperative, however, that pilots understand that clearance to operate "VFR-On-Top/VFR conditions" does not imply cancellation of the IFR flight plan.
What does "cleared as filed" mean?
ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan, provided the filed route can be approved with little or no revision.
If the visibility provided by ATC is less than that prescribed for the approach, can a pilot legally continue an approach and land?
According to 14 CFR Part 91, no pilot may land when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard IAP being used. ATC will provide the pilot with the current visibility reports appropriate to the runway in use. This may be in the form of prevailing visibility, runway visual value (RVV), or runway visual range (RVR). However, only the pilot can determine if the flight visibility meets the landing requirements indicated on the approach chart. If the flight visibility meets the minimum prescribed for the approach, then the approach may be continued to a landing. If the flight visibility is less than that prescribed for the approach, then the pilot must execute a missed approach, regardless of the reported visibility.
What is indicated when a GPS receiver provides the annunciation "LNAV+V"?
Advisory vertical guidance is being provided. Depending on the manufacturer, some GPS receivers will provide advisory vertical guidance when associated with LP or LNAV lines of minima. The system creates an artificial advisory glide path to assist the pilot in flying a constant descent to the MDA. Barometric altimeter information remains the primary altitude reference for complying with any altitude restrictions.
Define the term "aeronautical decision making."
Aeronautical decision making (ADM) is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstance
What is AFM?
Airplane Flight Manual - A document developed by the airplane manufacturer and approved by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA). It is specific to a particular make and model airplane by serial number and it contains operating procedures and limitations.
How does enroute low altitude charts' courses and distances charted?
All courses are magnetic and distances are nautical miles
When is the alternate airport required?
Alternate airport is required when: ● Airport destination does not have approved IAP ● Weather minimum could not be met (1 2 3) ➜ 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA ➜ 2 thousand foot ceiling ➜ 3 statute miles visibility
If you become doubtful about your position or adverse weather ahead, should you declare an emergency?
An emergency can be either a distress or urgency condition. Pilots do not hesitate to declare an emergency when they are faced with distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage. However, some are reluctant to report an urgency condition when they encounter situations that may not be immediately perilous, but are potentially catastrophic. An aircraft is in at least an urgency condition the moment the pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, weather, or any other condition that could adversely affect flight safety. This is the time to ask for help, not after the situation has developed into a distress condition.
How can tailplane icing be detected?
Any of the following symptoms, occurring individually or in combination, may be a warning of tailplane icing: a. Elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations b. Abnormal nose-down trim change c. Any other unusual or abnormal pitch anomalies (possibly resulting in pilot induced oscillations) d. Reduction or loss of elevator effectiveness e. Sudden change in elevator force (control would move nose-down if unrestrained) f. Sudden uncommanded nose-down pitc
When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?
Any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace. Pilots must be aware that other procedures may be applicable to a flight that cancels an IFR flight plan within an area where a special program, such as a designated TRSA, Class C airspace, or Class B airspace, has been established
What is RNAV?
Area Navigation (RNAV) is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations.
Explain the use of the "Five P" model to assess risk associated with each of the five factors.
At key decision points, application of the Five P checklist should be performed by reviewing each of the critical variables: Plan—weather, route, publications, ATC reroutes/delays, fuel onboard/remaining Plane—mechanical status, automation status, database currency, backup systems Pilot—illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating (I'M SAFE) Passengers—pilots/non-pilots, nervous or quiet, experienced or new, business or pleasure Programming—autopilot, GPS, MFD/PFD; anticipate likely reroutes/clearances; questions to ask (What is it doing? Why is it doing it? Did I do it?)
What is the significance of the "negative W" symbol placed on some RNAV (GPS) approach charts?
At locations where outages of WAAS vertical guidance may occur daily due to initial system limitations
How is recovery from a tailplane stall accomplished?
At the slightest indication of a tail stall, the pilot should: a. Immediately retract the flaps to the previous setting and apply appropriate nose-up elevator pressure. b. Increase airspeed appropriately for the reduced flap extension setting. c. Apply sufficient power for aircraft configuration and conditions. (High engine power settings may adversely impact response to tailplane stall conditions at high airspeed in some aircraft designs. Observe the manufacturer's recommendations regarding power settings.) d. Make nose-down pitch changes slowly, even in gusting conditions, if circumstances allow. e. If a pneumatic deicing system is used, operate the system several times in an attempt to clear the tailplane of ice. Remember: Recovery procedures from an ice-induced tailplane stall are opposite from those for an ice-induced wing stall.
At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?
Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1" Hg per 1,000 feet
Chapter 2: Departure A
Authority and limitations of the pilot
What is ADS-B? ADS-B OUT & IN?
Automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast (ADS-B) works by broadcasting information about an aircraft's GPS location, altitude, ground speed and other data to ground stations and other aircraft, once per second. ADS-B In provides operators of properly equipped aircraft with weather and traffic position information delivered directly to the cockpit.
What is a METAR?
Aviation Routine Weather Report - 5 miles from the airport - hourly surface observation at an airport 1. Routine METAR = transmitted every hour 2. SPECI (aviation selected special weather report) METAR = given at any time to update METAR for rapidly changing weather conditions or other critical information
Preflight K
Aviation Weather Charts
Preflight J
Aviation Weather Forecasts
Preflight I
Aviation Weather Reports and Observations
What is hypemic hypoxia?
Blood unable to carry oxygen, maybe due to carbon monoxide
What are the six skills you must be competent in for effective SRM?
C ontrolled Flight Into Terrain Awareness A eronautical Decision Making R isk Management A utomation Management T ask Management S ituational Awareness
When flying an instrument approach procedure, when can the pilot descend below MDA or DA/DH?
Cannot descend below MDA unless the pilot met the following landing requirements: ● Have the required flight visibility ● The pilot is in continuous position to make a normal approach and landing ● Have the runway environment in sight like the ff: • The approach light system, (except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the ALS as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable) • The threshold • The threshold markings • The threshold lights • REIL • VASI • The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings • The touchdown zone lights • The runway or runway markings • The runway lights
What are the different aircraft approach categories?
Category A = 90 knots Category B = 91 knots-120 knots Category C = 121 knots-140 knots Category D = 141 knots-165 knots Category E = 166 knots or more
Where can updated information be obtained about changes to aeronautical charts that occurred between chart publication dates?
Chart Supplemental US is published every 56 days Sectional Aeronautical and VFR terminal area charts are generally revised every 6 months
Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top clearances?
Class A airspace.
What is the purpose of Class E transition areas?
Class E transition areas are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure to help separate via cloud clearance arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity.
Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight.
Clear ice = forms after initial impact, flows out over the aircraft surface, freezing as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Rime ice = freezes immediately before the drop has time to spread out over aircraft surface. Mixed ice = vary in size, very rough accumulation.
What does the clearance "descend via" authorize you to do when navigating on a STAR or RNAV STAR procedure?
Clearance to "descend via" authorizes pilots to: When cleared to a waypoint depicted on a STAR/RNAV STAR/FMSP, descend from a previously assigned altitude at pilot's discretion to the altitude depicted for that waypoint, and once established on the depicted arrival, to navigate laterally and vertically to meet all published restrictions. ● Comply with lateral flight path ● Comply with charted speed restrictions ● Comply with published altitude restrictions ● Use your discretion as pilot in command to descend as needed to published bottom altitude
Describe different types of fronts.
Cold front = colder, denser and stable air overtake/replace warmer air pushing it upward (cumulus, heavy rain with lightning, thunder/hail, tornadoes possible, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting, temperature/dewpoint drop) Warm front = warmer air overtake colder air. Warmer air is less dense so it will just slowly slide over the colder air(stratiform, drizzle, low ceilings, poor visibility, variable winds, rise in temperature) Stationary front = 2 air mass are equal strength. Occluded front = fast moving cold front is overtaking a slow moving warm front. -Warm front occlusion = air mass behind the occluded front is warmer than the air mass ahead. -Cold front occlusion = air mass behind the occluded front is colder than the air mass ahead, normally more severe weather(heavier rainfall, higher gusts)
What are the legal substitutions for an inoperative outer marker?
Compass locator; precision approach radar (PAR) or airport surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or NDB fixes; or a suitable RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the standard instrument approach procedure
Describe the procedure for crosswind correction in a holding pattern.
Compensate for wind effect primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction to avoid major turning adjustments.
What is motion sickness? What to do to cure it?
Continued stimulation of the inner ear that cause loss of appetite, perspiration, nausea, disorientation, headaches, and vomiting. - Open air vents, loosen clothing, use supplemental oxygen, keep the eyes on a point outside the airplane. TERMINATE FLIGHT ASAP.
How will rising terrain be depicted in the plan view of an IAP chart?
Contour lines in shades of brown in the plan view portion if the terrain: • exceeds 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, or • within a 6.0 NM radius and rised at or above 2,000 feet above the airport elevation
What information can a pilot obtain from current and forecast icing products (CIP and FIP)?
Current Icing Product (CIP)—provides an hourly three-dimensional diagnosis of the icing environment; CIP is a supplementary weather product for enhanced situational awareness only. The CIP product suite is issued hourly 15 minutes after the hour by the Aviation Weather Center (AWC). Forecast Icing Potential (FIP)—provides a three-dimensional forecast of icing potential (or likelihood) using numerical weather prediction model output. The FIP is issued every hour and generates an hourly forecast for 3 hours into the future.
Difference between current and proficient
Current is being legal Proficient is being smart and safe
The DECIDE model of decision making involves which elements?
D etect a change needing attention. E stimate the need to counter or react to the change. C hoose the most desirable outcome for the flight. I dentify solutions D o something to adapt to the change E valuate the effect of the action
Concerning two-way radio communications failure in VFR and IFR conditions, what is the procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
In VFR conditions: If the failure occurs in VFR, or if VFR is encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. In IFR conditions: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are not within range, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: a. Route: "AVEF" A = Assigned by route assigned in last ATC clearance V = Vectored go direct from point of radio failure to fix, route, airway in vector clearance E = Expected by route that ATC has advised may be expected F = Filed by the route filed in flight plan b. Altitude (highest of following altitudes for the route segment being flown): "MEA" M = Minimum minimum altitude for IFR operations E = Expected altitude/flight level ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance A = Assigned altitude/flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance c. Leave clearance limit: When the clearance limit is a fix from which the approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. • If the clearance limit is not a fix from which the approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or decent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route
What cruising altitudes shall be maintained while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E)? In uncontrolled airspace (Class G)?
In controlled airspace: - IFR Cruising altitudes are as assigned by ATC. In uncontrolled airspace (Class G), altitude is selected based on the magnetic course flown: 0°-179° ODD thousands (below 18,000') or Flight Levels (at or above FL180) 180°-359° EVEN thousands (below 18,000') or Flight Levels (at or above FL180)
On a nonprecision approach procedure, how is the Missed Approach Point (MAP) determined?
In nonprecision procedures, the pilot determines the MAP by timing from FAF when the approach aid is well away from the airport, by a fix or NAVAID when the navigation facility is located on the field, or by waypoints as defined by GPS or VOR/DME RNAV.
What if grace period passed without currency?
Instrument Proficiency check is needed - by FAA approved person - examiner - authorized instructor
What is hypoxic hypoxia?
Interrupts flow of oxygen due to increasing altitude/changing in pressure
When the approach procedure title contains more than one navigational system separated by the word "or" (e.g., VOR or GPS RWY 15), what does this indicate?
It indicates that either type of equipment may be used to execute the final approach (e.g., VOR or GPS RWY 15)
When the approach procedure title contains more than one navigational system separated by a slash (e.g., VOR/DME 31), what does this indicate?
It indicates that more than one type of equipment must be used to execute the final approach.
What significance does a black triangle with a white "A" appearing in the Notes section of an approach chart, have to a pilot?
It indicates that nonstandard IFR alternate minimums exist for the airport. If an "NA" appears after the "A," alternate minimums are not authorized and cannot be used as an alternate. This information is found in the beginning of the TPP. Approved terminal weather observation and reporting facilities, or a general area weather report, must be available before an airport may serve as an alternate.
What is a "changeover point"?
It is a point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent navigational facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigational guidance should occur.
What is a "waypoint"?
It is a predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach definition, progress reports, published VFR routes, visual reporting points or points for transitioning and/or circumnavigating controlled and/or special use airspace. A waypoint is defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.
What does the acronym "LP" indicate in the minimums section of an RNAV (GPS) approach chart?
LP is the acronym for localizer performance. Approaches to LP lines of minima take advantage of the improved accuracy of WAAS to provide approaches with lateral and angular guidance. Angular guidance does not refer to a glideslope angle but rather to the increased lateral sensitivity as the aircraft gets closer to the runway, similar to localizer approaches. LP minimums are only published if terrain, obstructions, or some other reason prevents publishing a vertically guided procedure. LP lines of minima are minimum descent altitudes (MDAs). Also, LP is not a fail-down mode for an LPV. LP and LPV are independent
What is LNAV/VNAV?
Lateral Nav/Vertical Nav; APV approach; requires approach approved Baro-VNAV or TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment; minimums are shown as DA.
What is LNAV?
Lateral navigation only; non-precision approach; requires TSO-C129 (non WAAS) or C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment. Minimums shown as MDA.
What colors and color combinations are standard airport rotating beacons?
Lighted Land Airport: White/Green Lighted Water Airport: White/Yellow Military Airport: 2 White/Green
What is LP?
Localizer Performance; non-precision approach; requires TSO C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment; minimums shown as MDA.
What is a LPV approach?
Localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) is a type of approach with vertical guidance (APV) that takes advantage of the high accuracy guidance and increased integrity provided by WAAS. This WAAS-generated angular guidance allows the use of the same TERPS approach criteria used for ILS approaches. LPV approaches may have a decision altitude (DA) as low as 200 feet height above touchdown with visibility minimums as low as ½ mile when the terrain and airport infrastructure permit.
What is LPV?
Localizer performance with vertical guidance; APV approach; requires TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment; minimums are shown as DA.
Localizers operate within what frequency range?
Localizers operate on odd tenths within the 108.10 to 111.95 MHz band
Where can a pilot find the location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?
Locations of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOTs are published in the A/FD (chart supplement)
What are the definition of night?
Logging night flight time = between the end of civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight Currency for carrying passengers = 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise Position light and anti collision lights ON = sunset to sunrise
Are the minimums for an ASR approach expressed as DA or MDA?
MDA; Guidance in elevation is not possible but the pilot will be advised when to commence descent to the minimum descent altitude or, if appropriate, to an intermediate step-down fix minimum crossing altitude and subsequently to the prescribed MDA
What are the maximum airspeeds permitted for aircraft while holding?
MHA-6,000 ft... 200 KIAS 6,001-14,000 ft... 230 KIAS 14,001-and above... 265 KIAS Note: Holding patterns may be restricted to a maximum speed. Holding patterns from 6,001 to 14,000 feet may be restricted to a maximum airspeed of 210 KIAS. These nonstandard patterns will be depicted by an icon.
What are NOTAMs?
Notice to Airmen - things that may be abnormal at an airport/airspace system. It is a notice containing information essential to personnel concerned with flight operations but not known far enough in advance to be publicized by other means
Explain the terms "maintain" and "cruise" as they pertain to an IFR altitude assignment.
Maintain—Self-explanatory: maintain last altitude assigned. Cruise—Used instead of "maintain" to assign a block of airspace to a pilot, from minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the cruise clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude, and climb/descent may be made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts a descent, and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, he may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance
What is MAA Maximum Authorized Altitude?
Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) is the published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment - Annotated "MAA-17000" (17,000ft as an example) on IFR charts.
What is MCA?
Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA. (flag symbol[X])
What is MDA/H?
Minimum Descent Altitude / Height: The lowest Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.
What is MEA; MEA Gap?
Minimum Enroute Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated "MEA GAP" on IFR charts.
What is MORA?
Minimum Off Route Altitude (on Jeppesen charts): ▷ Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways. ▷ Grid MORA provide obstruction clearance within a latitude / longitude grid block.
What is MRA?
Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids. (flag symbol [R]) ➢ Does not apply if aircraft has IFR certified GPS or DME
What is MTA?
Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.
What is MVA?
Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.
What is a Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?
Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.
If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?
Minimum altitudes are: a. Mountainous terrain—at least 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. Part 95 designates the location of mountainous terrain. b. Non-mountainous terrain—at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown
When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated?
Minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time. To ensure that a flight plan remains active, pilots whose actual departure time will be delayed 2 hours or more beyond their filed departure time are requested to notify ATC of their revised departure time.
How can a pilot determine the approach category minimums applicable to a particular aircraft?
Minimums are specified for various aircraft approach categories based on a speed of VREF, if specified, or if VREF is not specified, 1.3 VS0 at the maximum certified landing weight.
What is a Mode C Veil?
Mode C veil refers to a kind of airspace which surrounds most of primary Class B airports within United States - 30 NM radius centered on the airport - Surface up to 10,000' MSL
What changes in airplane configuration can aggravate a tailplane stall condition?
Most aircraft have a nose-down pitching moment from the wings because the CG is ahead of the CP (center of pressure). The tailplane counteracts this moment by providing a downward force. The result of this configuration is that actions which move the wing away from stall, such as deployment of flaps or increasing speed, may increase the negative AOA of the tail. With ice on the tailplane, it may stall after full or partial deployment of flaps.
What additional aircraft documentation should be onboard an aircraft equipped with an IFR-approved GPS?
Most systems require an Airplane Flight Manual Supplement (AFMS) and Cockpit Reference Guide or Quick Reference Guide to be onboard as a limitation of use
Within what frequency range do NDBs normally operate?
NDBs operate within the low-to-medium frequency band—190 to 535 kHz.
Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found?
NOTAMs as well as A/FDs (Chart supplement) will contain current limitations to NAVAIDs.
How often are GPS databases required to be updated?
Navigation based - every 28 days Obstacle databases - every 56 days Terrain and airport map databases - as needed
What criteria determines whether or not you may attempt an approach?
No regulation states that you cannot attempt an approach, if operating under Part 91 regulations. But if you reach MDA or DH and decide to descend to land, flight visibility must be at least equal to that published.
Is it legal to land a civil aircraft if the actual visibility is below the minimums published on the approach chart?
No, 14 CFR Part 91 states that no pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the U.S., may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.
Will all VOR stations have the capability of providing distance information to aircraft equipped with DME?
No, aircraft receiving equipment ensures reception of azimuth and distance information from a common source only when designated as VOR/DME, VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME stations.
When landing at an airport with an operating control tower following an IFR flight, must the pilot call FSS to close the flight plan?
No, if operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport with a functioning control tower, the flight plan will automatically be closed upon landing
Can a GPS with an expired database be used for navigation under IFR?
No. Exception: Some units allow enroute IFR operations with an expired database if the navigation waypoints are manually verified by referencing an official current source, such as current enroute chart
Will standard instrument approach procedures always have a final approach fix (FAF)?
No. When a FAF is not designated, such as on an approach that incorporates an on-airport VOR or NDB, a final approach point is designated and is typically where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.
When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route?
No; Aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point to which to taxi, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. ATC is required to obtain from the pilot a readback of all runway hold short instructions
If an ODP has been published for the runway you are departing from, are you required to follow it?
No; If they are not issued by ATC, textual ODPs are at the pilot's option to fly or not fly
Will all RNAV (GPS) approaches have a TAA?
No; The TAA will not be found on all RNAV procedures, particularly in areas of heavy concentration of air traffic. When the TAA is published, it replaces the MSA for that approach procedure
What information will ATC provide when they request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?
Non-charted holding clearance items: ▷ Direction of hold from the fix (e.g., N, W, S, NE) ▷ Holding Fix ▷ Radial, course, airway, or route on which to hold. ▷ Leg length in miles (if DME or RNAV) or minutes otherwise. ▷ Direction of turns (if left). Otherwise, right turns are standard. ▷ Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time
What are preferred routes and where can they be found? (P/CG)
Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. Preferred routes are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory.
Preflight C
Preflight action for aircraft
Preflight B
Preflight action for flight
If, during the execution of an instrument approach procedure, you determine a missed approach is necessary due to full-scale needle deflection, what action is recommended?
Protected obstacle clearance areas for missed approach are predicated on the assumption that the missed approach is initiated at the decision altitude/height (DA/H) or at the missed approach point, and not lower than minimum descent altitude (MDA). Reasonable buffers are provided for normal maneuvers. However, no consideration is given to an abnormally early turn. Therefore when an early missed approach is executed, pilots should (unless otherwise cleared by ATC) fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DA/H, before executing a turning maneuver.
What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts?
Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL
What is Minimum safe altitude (MSA)?
Provides 1,000' obstacle clearance within 25 NM (radius will be indicated on top of the circle)
What are "T" and "Q" routes?
Published RNAV routes that can be flight-planned for use by aircraft with RNAV capability. They are depicted in blue on aeronautical charts and are identified by the letter T or Q, followed by the airway number (e.g., T-205, Q-13). They provide more direct routing for IFR aircraft and enhance system safety and efficiency. T-routes—May be flown with various types of RNAV ● Base normally 1,200' AGL ● Up to but NOT including 18,000' MSL ● Can be limited behind terrain. ● Depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts in Blue line Q-routes—depicted on Enroute High Altitude Charts; available for use by RNAV equipped aircraft between 18,000 feet MSL and FL450 inclusive
What does the notation "RNAV1" on an RNAV STAR indicate?
RNAV 1 terminal procedures require that the aircraft's track keeping accuracy remain bound by +1 nautical mile (NM) for 95 percent of the total flight time. All pilots are expected to maintain route centerlines, as depicted by onboard lateral deviation indicators and/or flight guidance during all RNAV operations unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency conditions. All public RNAV STARs are RNAV 1.
What limitations apply when using an NDB for navigation?
Radio beacons are subject to disturbances that may result in erroneous bearing information. Disturbances result from factors such as lightning, precipitation static, etc. At night, radio beacons are vulnerable to interference from distance stations.
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring - is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals.
How to determine equipment approvals and limitations?
Refer to AFM or AFM supplements
When utilizing GPS for IFR navigation, are you required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight?
Required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight: - GPS TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 (non-WAAS) under IFR - When the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost. Not required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight: - GPS receiver with RAIM for integrity monitoring. - Aircraft equipped with a WAAS receiver may use WAAS as a primary means of navigation. No additional equipment is required.
What is reverse sensing?
Reverse sensing is when the VOR needle indicates the reverse of normal operation. This occurs when the aircraft is headed toward the station with a FROM indication or when the aircraft is headed away from the station with a TO indication. Also, unless the aircraft has reverse sensing capability and it is in use, when flying inbound on the back course or outbound on the front course of an ILS, reverse sensing will occur.
What is roll upset?
Roll upset is an uncommanded and uncontrolled roll phenomenon associated with severe in-flight icing. It can occur without the usual symptoms of ice accumulation or a perceived aerodynamic stall. Pilots flying certificated FIKI aircraft should be aware that severe icing is a condition outside of the aircraft's certification icing envelope. The roll upset that occurs may be caused by airflow separation (aerodynamic stall), which induces self-deflection of the ailerons and loss of or degraded roll handling characteristics. The aileron deflection may be caused by ice accumulating in a sensitive area of the wing aft of the deicing boots
Preflight E
Route Planning
What does the acronym "RWSL" stand for?
Runway Status Lights system—a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a runway. The status lights have two states—ON: lights are illuminated red; and OFF: lights are not illuminated
Describe runway hold short markings and signs.
Runway holding position markings— 2 solid and 2 dashed yellow lines - Must stop and clearance needed if solid line is to your side Runway holding position sign - red background with a white inscription and contain the designation of the intersecting runway.
What are the two types of SIDs?
SIDs are categorized by the type of navigation used to fly the departure: Pilot navigation SIDs—designed to allow you to provide your own navigation with minimal radio communication. This type of procedure usually contains an initial set of departure instructions followed by one or more transition routes. Vector SIDs—usually require ATC to provide radar vectors from just after takeoff (ROC is based on a climb to 400 feet above the DER elevation before making the initial turn) until reaching the assigned route or a fix depicted on the SID chart.
What are "area charts"? (AIM 9-1-4)
published for big busy airports to provide greater detail (green dashed line). Revised every 56 days.
What is an RNAV STAR?
STARs designated RNAV serve the same purpose as conventional STARs, but are only used by aircraft equipped with FMS or GPS. ■ includes flyby waypoints, with fly-over waypoints used only when operationally required. These waypoints may be assigned crossing altitudes and speeds to optimize the descent and deceleration profiles. ■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance ↬ Will need to be able to recall procedure by name from the database, cannot build the procedure by using individual waypoints
What are the major differences between SDF and LDA approaches?
Simplified Direction Facility (SDF) approaches uses a course similar to a localizer but no shading on either side ● SDF course width is either 6° or 12° wide ● Course is wider than localizer (less sensitive than localizer) ● No glideslope ● May be aligned or not with the runway. ● usable off-course indications are limited to 35°either side of course centerline Localizer-type Directional Aid (LDA) ● Identical to a LOC, but it is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course width is between 3° and 6° and thus provides a more precise approach course than an SDF installation. ● Some LDAs are equipped with a GS. ● The LDA course is not aligned with the runway, but straight-in minimums may be published where the angle between the runway centerline and the LDA course does not exceed 30°. If this angle exceeds 30°, only circling minimums are published
What operational procedure should be used when navigation or approaches are conducted using an NDB?
Since ADF receivers do not incorporate signal flags to warn a pilot when erroneous bearing information is being displayed, the pilot should continuously monitor the NDB's coded identification
Define the term "single-pilot resource management."
Single-pilot resource management (SRM) is defined as the art and science of managing all the resources (both on-board the aircraft and from outside sources) available to a single pilot (prior to and during flight) to ensure the successful outcome of the flight.
As a rule-of-thumb, to minimize DME slant-range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate?
Slant-range error will be at a minimum if the aircraft is one or more miles from the facility for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
Where can information on special use airspace be found?
Special use airspace (except CFAs) is charted on IFR or visual charts and includes the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency.
What regulations require use of specified procedures by all pilots approaching for landing under IFR?
Specified procedures are required by 14 CFR Part 97
List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation and visibility.
Stable: Stratiform, Smooth, Steady, Fair to Poor Unstable: Cumuliform, Rough, Showery, Good
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR) ■ Serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made. ■ Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure. ■ Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins. ■ As with a SID, you can state "NO STARs" in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR. ● A STAR Arrival Route is also called as the basic STAR procedure or common route and is shown by heavy black arrows ● Not allowed to accept STAR if the pilot doesn't have the charted procedure ● Reference the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) for the availability of STARs.
Formula for standard rate of turn.
Standard rate of turn = divide the airspeed by 10 and add one-half the result (GS= 120 so 120/10 = 12; half of 12 is 6 so 12+6 = 18° turn)
What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of maximum holding speed?
Start a speed reduction when 3 minutes or less from the fix. Speed may be reduced earlier, but ATC must be advised of the change.
What are terminal aerodrome forecasts (TAFs)?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast -Within 5 SM of the center of the airport's runway complex. Issued 4 times a day, every six hours and normally covers a 24 or 30 hour forecast period.
Certain conditions are required for an instrument approach procedure to have "straight-in" minimums published. What are they?
Straight-in minimums are shown on the IAP when the final approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway alignment (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) and a normal descent can be made from the IFR altitude shown on the IAP to the runway surface.
Describe the hazardous aircraft icing conditions a pilot may encounter in the following cloud types and conditions: stratus, cumulus, freezing rain, and drizzle.
Stratus clouds—These form a stratified layer that may cover a wide area; the lifting processes that form them are usually gradual so they rarely have exceptionally high liquid water content. Icing layers in stratus clouds with a vertical thickness in excess of 3,000 feet are rare, so either climbing or descending may be effective in exiting the icing conditions within the clouds. Cumuliform clouds—Hazardous icing conditions can occur in cumulus clouds, which sometimes have very high liquid water content. It is not advisable to fly through a series of such clouds or to execute holds within them. However, because these clouds normally do not extend very far horizontally, any icing encountered in such a cloud may be of limited duration and it may be possible to deviate around the cloud. Freezing rain—Freezing rain forms when rain becomes supercooled by falling through a subfreezing layer of air. It may be possible to exit the freezing rain by climbing into the warm layer. Freezing drizzle—Because freezing drizzle often forms by the collision-coalescence process, the pilot should not assume that a warm layer of air exists above the aircraft. A pilot encountering freezing drizzle should exit the conditions a quickly as possible either vertically or horizontally. The three possible actions are to ascend to an altitude where the freezing drizzle event is less intense, to descend to an area of warmer air, or to make a level turn to emerge from the area of freezing drizzle.
What are the main types of icing an aircraft may encounter?
Structural icing = icing that forms on aircraft surfaces and components, changes the shape of aircraft (decrease lift, increase weight) Induction icing = icing that forms on the engine's induction system. Instrument icing = Icing of the pitot tube, static pressure port reduces ram air pressure on the airspeed indicator and renders the instrument unreliable. Ice forming on the radio antenna distorts its shape, increases drag, and imposes vibrations that may result in failure in the communications system of the aircraft.
What is STC?
Supplemental Type Certificate - approval of a major change in the type design has been given
Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle?
Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle.
What are the various Technical Standard Orders that apply to GPS navigation equipment?
TSO-C129—Airborne Supplemental Navigation Equipment Using the GPS (non-WAAS) TSO-C196—Airborne Supplemental Navigation Sensors for GPS Equipment Using Aircraft-Based Augmentation (non-WAAS) TSO-C145—Airborne Navigation Sensors Using the GPS Augmented by WAAS TSO-C146—Stand-Alone Airborne Navigation Equipment Using the GPS Augmented by WAAS
What are the normal usable distances for the various classes of VOR stations?
Terminal = 1,000 to 12,000 ft AGL - 25 NM Low-Altitude = 1,000 to 18,000 ft AGL - 40 NM High-Altitude = 1,000 to 14,500 ft AGL - 40 NM = 14,500 to 18,000 ft AGL - 100 NM = 18,000 to 45,000 ft AGL - 130 NM = 45,000 to 60,000 ft AGL - 100 NM
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC station?
The DME component is operative; the VOR component is inoperative. It is important to recognize which identifier is retained for the operative facility. A single coded identifier with a repeat interval every 30 seconds indicates DME is operative. If no identification is received, the facility has been taken off the air for tune-up or repair, even though intermittent or constant signals are received.
How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?
The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum of five is always observable by a user anywhere on earth. The receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites above the mask angle (the lowest angle above the horizon at which it can use a satellite). 3 satellites—yields a latitude and longitude position only (2D) 4 satellites—yields latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D) 5 satellites—3D and RAIM 6 satellites—3D and RAIM isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigation solution
If no final approach fix is depicted, how is the MAP determined?
The MAP is at the airport (NAVAID on airport)
What are the designated altitudes for the airways in the VOR and L/MF Airway System? alaska only
The VOR and L/MF Airway System consists of airways designated from 1,200 feet above the surface (or in some instances higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. These airways are depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
What is the WAAS Channel Number/Approach ID found on the upper left corner of an approach procedure chart used for?
The WAAS Channel Number is an optional equipment capability that allows the use of a 5-digit number to select a specific final approach segment without using the menu method.
What is the purpose of runway aiming point markings?
The aiming point markings serve as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft. These two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe, located on each side of the runway centerline, and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold. The pilot can estimate a visual glide path that will intersect the marking ensuring a landing within the 3,000-foot touchdown zone.
What is necessary for structural icing to occur?
The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets; temperature must be at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft at 0°C or colder.
You are operating on an IFR flight plan into an airport without an operating control tower, and have forgotten to close your flight plan after landing. Discuss the effect this will have on ATC.
The airspace surrounding that airport cannot be released for use by other IFR aircraft until the status of your flight has been determined.
Where is the localizer/transmitter antenna installation located in relation to the runway?
The antenna is located at the far end of the approach runway
What is the definition of the term "freezing level" and how can you determine where that level is?
The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0°C. Can be found on area forecasts, PIREPS, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETS, low-level significant weather charts, surface analysis (for frontal location and freezing precipitation) and winds and temperatures aloft (for air temperature at altitude). Pilots can use graphical data including freezing level graphics, the current icing product (CIP), and forecast icing product (FIP).
What is the definition of risk?
The future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated
What is the normal glide slope angle for a standard ILS?
The glide path projection angle is normally 3 degrees above horizontal so that it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the runway elevation
Where is the glide slope antenna located and what is its normal usable range?
The glide slope transmitter is located between 750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway), and offset 250 feet to 650 feet from it. The glide slope is normally usable to a distance of 10 NM
What is Initial approach segment?
The initial approach segment is that segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix, or the point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course or final approach course.
What is Intermediate approach segment?
The intermediate approach segment is between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix.
What is the angular width of a localizer signal?
The localizer signal is adjusted to provide an angular width of between 3° to 6°, as necessary to provide a linear width of 700 feet at the runway approach threshold
What range does a standard localizer have?
The localizer signal provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna site
What is Missed approach segment?
The missed approach segment is between the missed approach point or the point of arrival at decision height, and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.
How can a pilot determine which area of a TAA the aircraft will enter?
The pilot can determine which area of the TAA they will enter by selecting the IF (IAF) to determine the magnetic bearing TO the center IF (IAF). That bearing should then be compared with the published bearings that define the lateral boundaries of the TAA areas.
What are several factors a pilot should consider (prior to the approach) when assessing options available if it becomes necessary to execute a missed approach from beyond the MAP or below the MDA or DA/DH?
The pilot should consider factors such as the aircraft's geographical location with respect to the prescribed missed approach point, direction of flight, and/or minimum turning altitudes in the prescribed missed approach procedure. The pilot must also consider aircraft performance, visual climb restrictions, charted obstacles, availability of a published obstacle departure procedure, takeoff visual climb requirements as expressed by nonstandard takeoff minima, other traffic expected to be in the vicinity, or other factors not specifically expressed by the approach procedures.
What action should a pilot take in the event a balked (rejected) landing occurs at a position other than the published missed approach point?
The pilot should contact ATC as soon as possible to obtain an amended clearance. If unable to contact ATC for any reason, the pilot should attempt to re-intercept a published segment of the missed approach and comply with route and altitude instructions. If unable to contact ATC, and in the pilot's judgment it is no longer appropriate to fly the published missed approach procedure, then the pilot should consider either maintaining visual conditions if practicable and reattempt a landing, or a circle-climb over the airport. Contact ATC when able to do so.
How can a pilot determine what type of operations a GPS receiver is approved for?
The pilot should reference the FAA-approved AFM and AFM supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed.
Assuming two-way communications failure, discuss the recommended procedure to follow concerning altitudes to be flown for the following scenario: A pilot experiencing two-way radio failure while being progressively descended to lower altitudes to begin an approach is assigned 2,700 feet until crossing the VOR and then cleared for the approach. The MOCA along the airway is 2,700 feet and MEA is 4,000 feet. The aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.
The pilot should remain at 2,700 feet until crossing the VOR because that altitude is the minimum IFR altitude for the route segment being flown.
Discuss 14 CFR §91.3, "Responsibility and Authority of PIC."
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft.
If an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?
The presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment does not necessarily mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH, placards, and manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations.
What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?
Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, "Cessna 182"—180 TO for VOR accuracy checks using a VOT
What are the possible reasons your GPS receiver would fail to sequence from the "Armed" to the "Approach" mode prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP)?
The receiver performs a RAIM prediction by 2 NM prior to the FAWP to ensure that RAIM is available at the FAWP as a condition for entering the approach mode. Failure to sequence may be an indication of the detection of a satellite anomaly, failure to arm the receiver (if required), or other problems which preclude completing the approach. The pilot should always ensure that the receiver has sequenced from "Armed" to "Approach" prior to the FAWP (normally occurs 2 NM prior to the FAWP).
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extent of clouds.
What is the leg length for a standard holding pattern?
The standard leg length is: ● For 14,000' and below - 1 minute ● For above 14,000' - 1 1⁄2 minutes
Describe the different recommended entry methods for holding.
The three types of entry are: 1. Direct - Upon crossing the fix turn to follow the holding pattern 2. Parallel - Upon crossing the fix, turn to a heading parallel to the holding course outbound for 1 minute. Then turn into the hold pattern to intercept the inbound course. 3. Teardrop - Upon crossing the fix, turn outbound to a heading 30o into the pattern. Fly it for 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the hold turns to intercept the inbound course. AT THE HOLD FIX, REPORT TO ATC: "<callsign> Over <place><altitude> at <time>"
What does "clearance void time" mean?
The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.
How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?
The touchdown zone is the first 3,000 feet of the runway beginning at the threshold. The area is used for determination of Touchdown Zone Elevation in the development of straight-in landing minimums for instrument approaches.
What is indicated when an approach procedure title (e.g., VOR-A) is followed only by a letter (no runway designation)?
The type of approach followed by a letter identifies approaches that do not have straight-in landing minimums and only have circling minimums. ➢ When an approach chart only has circling minimums, it means the approach didn't qualify for the straight in approach which are: ➜ Angle to runway 30° or less (15° for GPS IAP) ➜ Rate of descent 400'/NM or less
Name the types of nonprecision approach procedures available.
The types of nonprecision approaches available are: LNAV, VOR, TACAN, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, and SDF.
What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?
They must: a. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude b. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria ● Above 10,000' MSL but below 18,000' MSL during daylight hours: ➜ 5 miles visibility ➜ 1,000' above the clouds ➜ 1,000' below the clouds ➜ 1 mile from the side/horizontally ● Below 10,000' MSL but above 1,200' AGL during daylight hours: ➜ Controlled Airspace ("3-152") ↬ 3 miles visibility ↬ 1,000' above the clouds ↬ 500' below the clouds ↬ 2,000' horizontally c. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight; i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc
When can you begin your descent to the runway during a circling approach?
Three conditions are required before descent from the MDA can occur: a. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. b. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. c. At least one of the specific runway visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot
What is hyperventilation? What are the symptoms?
Too much carbon dioxide being exhaled. - light headedness - suffocation - drowsiness - tingling in the extremities - coolness - incapacitation - unconsciousness - Breath in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth to reverse hyperventilation
What is the definition of TDZE?
Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) is the highest elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface. TDZE is indicated on the instrument approach procedure chart when straight-in landing minimums are authorized.
What are runway touchdown zone markings?
Touchdown zone markings identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500-foot increments. These markings consist of groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline. Normally, the standard glide slope angle of 3 degrees, if flown to the surface, will ensure touchdown within this zone.
What is Tower Enroute Control Service (TEC)?
Tower en route control is an FAA program of predetermined routes that keep a flight solely within approach control airspace. These tower en route control (TEC) routes are generally for aircraft operating below 10,000 feet, and they can be found in the Aircraft/Facility Directory. Pilots desiring to use TEC should include that designation in the remarks section of the flight plan.
When using RNAV equipment for navigation, what is the difference between the terms "Track (TRK)" and "Desired Track (DTK)?"
Track—the actual flight path of an aircraft over the surface of the earth. The track, which is the result of aircraft heading and winds, tells you which direction the aircraft is actually flying. Winds make it likely that the track and heading will be different. Desired Track—the planned or intended track between two waypoints. Desired track is measured in degrees from either magnetic or true north. The instantaneous angle may change from point to point along the great circle track between waypoints. The desired track is the intended course for the active leg in the programmed flight plan
You are tracking inbound to an NDB, your heading equals your course and the ADF needle is now pointing 10° to the left. What procedure will you use for wind drift correction?
Turn 20° left. When the needle is deflected 20° (deflection = interception angle), track has been intercepted. The aircraft is on track as long as the RB remains the same number of degrees as the wind correction angle (WCA). Lead the interception to avoid overshooting the track. Turn 10° toward the inbound course. You are now inbound with a 10° left correction angle.
What is histotoxic hypoxia?
Unable to utilize oxygen due to poisoning(alcohol/drugs)
What procedures are applicable concerning courses to be flown when operating IFR?
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no one may operate an aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except on an air traffic services (ATS) route, along the centerline of that airway, or on any other route along the direct course between the navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic, or maneuvering in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.
What requirement must be met before ATC will allow an aircraft to operate on an unpublished RNAV route?
Unpublished RNAV routes are direct routes, based on area navigation capability between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at a specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV route.
Can a pilot perform the required database updates or must this action be accomplished by authorized maintenance personnel?
Updates of databases of installed avionics may be performed by pilots provided they can be initiated from the flight deck, performed without disassembly of the avionics unit, and performed without the use of tools and/or special equipment. This does not require entries on aircraft logbook
When being radar-vectored for an approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower altitude if "cleared for the approach"?
Upon receipt of an approach clearance while on an unpublished route or being radar vectored, a pilot will comply with the minimum altitude for IFR and maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of a published route or IAP, at which time published altitudes apply.
How to compute VDP when not provided?
VDP (in NM from threshold) = MDH / 300
Required instruments and equipment for IFR?
VFR day and night + "GRAB CARDD" VFR day = "A TOMATO FLAMES" A - Altimeter T - Tachometer (for each engine) O - Oil Temperature Gauge (if using a pressure system) M - Manifold Pressure Gauge (for each altitude engine) A - Airspeed Indicator T - Temperature Gauge (for liquid-cooled engines) O - Oil Pressure Gauge F - Fuel Gauges (for each fuel tank) L - Landing Gear Position Indicator (for aircraft with retractable gear) A - Anti Collision Lights (if aircraft was manufactured after March 11, 1996) M - Magnetic Compass E - Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) S - Seat Belts VFR night = "FLAPS" F - Fuses (1x complete set unless the plane has circuit breakers) L - Landing Lights (if flying for hire) A - Anti Collision Lights (for aircraft registered after August 11, 1971) P - Position Lights (aka nav lights) S - Source of Power (i.e. alternator/generator for all electrical and radio equipment) IFR = "GRAB CARDD" Generator/Alternator Radios (appropriate for flight) Altimeter (sensitive/adjustable) Ball Clock (second hand sweep or digital) Attitude indicator Rate of turn Directional gyro DME or RNAV (for flight at FL240 and above if VOR equipment is required for the route)
How are airways and route systems depicted on enroute low altitude charts?
VHF/UHF data is depicted in black. LF/MF data is depicted in brown. RNAV route data is depicted in blue. Note: Segments of VOR airways in Alaska are based on L/MF navigation aids and charted in brown instead of black on en route charts
What is a "VDA"?
VISUAL DESCENT ANGLE (VDA) (AIM 5-4-5) ■ A computed glide path from the FAF to the runway's TCH published for non-precision approaches. Typically 3°. ■ FAA policy is to publish a VDA/TCH on all non-precision approaches except those published in conjunction with vertically guided minimums (i.e., ILS or LOC RWY XX) or no FAF procedures without a stepdown fix (i.e., on-airport VOR or NDB). ■ Does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA in the visual segment. The presence of a VDA does not change any non-precision approach requirements. ■ VDAs are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitudes on the procedure.
Define VDP.
VISUAL DESCENT POINT (VDP) ■ A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established. ■ Identified by a 'V' symbol on the descent profile. ■ If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published. ■ Do not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP.
How to log VOR check?
VOR check sign-off (§91.171) D.E.P.S - D - Date E - Error (bearing error) P - Place S - Signature
What degree of accuracy can be expected in VOR navigation?
VOR navigation is accurate to ±1
Within what frequency range do VORs operate?
VORs operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz VHF band.
Why is there a difference between the distance information provided by a GPS receiver and the distance information provided by conventional DME equipment?
Variations in distances will occur since GPS distance-to-waypoint values are along-track distances (ATD) computed to the next waypoint, and the DME values published on underlying procedures are slant-range distances measured to the station. This difference increases with aircraft altitude and proximity to the NAVAID
When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5°), what type of weather is likely?
Visible moisture is likely, in the form of clouds, dew or fog.
Can a handheld GPS receiver be used for IFR operations?
Visual flight rules (VFR) and hand-held GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference. During IFR operations they may be considered only as an aid to situational awareness.
After selecting the approach procedure at your destination airport, what method will the GPS receiver use to select the appropriate minimums for the approach?
When an approach procedure is selected and active, the receiver will notify the pilot of the most accurate level of service supported by the combination of the WAAS signal, the receiver, and the selected approach, using the naming conventions on the minima lines of the selected approach procedure. For example, if an approach is published with LPV minima and the receiver is only certified for LNAV/VNAV, the equipment would indicate "LNAV/VNAV available," even though the WAAS signal would support LPV.
When does use of portable electronic devices prohibited?
When flying: 1. By an air carrier or commercial operator 2. Under IFR
When is the only time True Altitude = Pressure Altitude?
When it is standard atmospheric conditions
What are standard IFR separation minimums?
When radar is employed in the separation of aircraft at the same altitude - minimum of 3 miles separation between aircraft operating within 40 miles of the radar antenna site - 5 miles between aircraft operating beyond 40 miles from the antenna site. These minima may be increased or decreased in certain specific situations.
How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?
When temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb (approaching 3°C per 1,000 feet), you have an indication of unstable air. If the temperature remains unchanged or decreases only slightly with altitude, the air tends to be stable. When air near the surface is warm and moist, suspect instability.
What is indicated when a letter suffix is added to the approach title (i.e., RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 13C)?
When two or more straight-in approaches with the same type of guidance exist for a runway, a letter suffix is added to the title of the approach so that it can be more easily identified. These approach charts start with the letter Z and continue in reverse alphabetical order.
What are the right-of-way rules pertaining to IFR flights?
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is under IFR or VFR, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.
What are "unpublished" RNAV routes?
When you have a clearance to by directly between a series of VORs without being on a Victor airway, you are on an "unpublished" route. When you get a clearance to fly from the departure airport to the destination airport "direct" using GPS navigation, you are on an "unpublished RNAV route." A clearance is required (1,000 AGL/2,000 AGL in mountainous terrain) and, maybe obviously, the proper RNAV equipment - the one extra requirement is that you be in radar contact. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes.
If cleared for a "straight-in VOR-DME 34 approach," can a pilot circle to land, if needed?
Yes. A "straight-in approach" is an instrument approach wherein final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn. Such an approach is not necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or made to straight-in minimums.
What is a lapse rate?
rate in the change of temperature as altitude increases
Are electronic chart systems (electronic flight bags) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and supplements, charts, etc.) in the cockpit?
Yes; electronic flight bags (EFBs) can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material when the information displayed is the functional equivalent of the paper reference material replaced and is current, up-to-date, and valid. It is recommended that a secondary or back-up source of aeronautical information necessary for the flight be available
What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance?
You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.
What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR in controlled airspace?
You must report: a. Any loss in controlled airspace of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low-frequency navigation receiver capability. b. GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers. c. Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability. d. Impairment of air/ground communication capability. e. Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate under IFR.
What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?
You should leave the area of visible moisture. If this is not possible, then the pilot must move to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing. If you're going to climb, do so quickly; procrastination may leave you with too much ice. If you're going to descend, you must know the temperature of the air and the type of terrain below.
What is dry line?
a boundary that separates a moist air mass from a dry air mass. The reason dry lines create thunderstorms is due to the difference in density of the air masses
What are "squall line" thunderstorms?
a line of thunderstorms parallel to the front.
What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?
a. Adverse conditions b. VFR flight not recommended c. Synopsis d. Current conditions e. Enroute forecast f. Destination forecast g. Winds aloft h. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) i. ATC delay
Where can NOTAM information be obtained? (AIM 5-1-3)
a. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)/FSS b. DUATS vendors c. Notice to Airmen Publication (NTAP) printed NOTAMs. Published every 28 days; once published, these NOTAMS are not provided during pilot weather briefings unless specifically requested by the pilot. The NTAP is available online at the FAA's website d. NOTAMs are available at the FAA website
If icing is inadvertently encountered, how would configuration for approach and landing be different?
a. Extension of landing gear may create excessive drag when coupled with ice. Flaps should be deployed in stages, carefully noting the aircraft's behavior at each stage. b. If anomalies occur, it is best not to increase the amount of flaps and perhaps even to retract them depending on how much the aircraft is deviating from normal performance. c. If landing with an accumulation of ice, use a higher approach speed. d. During the landing flare, carry higher-than-normal power if there is ice on the airplane. Use a longer runway if available. e. After touchdown, use brakes sparingly to prevent skidding. Be prepared for possible loss of directional control caused by ice buildup on landing gear.
What self-announced radio calls should you make when conducting an instrument approach to an airport without a control tower?
a. Initial call within 5-10 minutes of the aircraft's arrival at the IAF with aircraft location and approach intentions. b. Departing the IAF, stating the approach that is being initiated. c. Procedure turn (or equivalent) inbound. d. FAF inbound, stating intended landing runway and maneuvering direction if circling. e. Short final, giving traffic on the surface notification of imminent landing
What are the two types of DPs?
a. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) ➜ Obstacle clearance ➜ Least restrictive route ➜ Textual and/or graphic form ➜ May be flown even if not assigned by ATC ➜ Should be flown unless ATC assigns different procedure or radar vector ➜ Published when obstruction penetrate the 40:1 departure obstacle clearance surface (OCS) b. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) ● Always published in graphical form with textual description ● Obstacle clearance ● Reduces workload for pilots and ATC ● Reduces radio frequency congestion ● ATC clearance is required ● Simplifies clearance ● Altitude restriction shown in graphic and textual SIDs
What are the essential components of all VOR indicator instruments?
a. Omnibearing selector (OBS) b. Course deviation indicator (CDI) c. TO/FROM indicator d. Flags or other signal strength indicators
What is the recommended recovery procedure for a roll upset?
a. Reduce the angle of attack by increasing airspeed. If in a turn, roll wings level. b. Set appropriate power and monitor the airspeed and angle of attack. A controlled descent is a vastly better alternative than an uncontrolled descent. c. If flaps are extended, do not retract them unless you can determine that the upper surface of the airfoil is clear of ice, because retracting the flaps will increase the AOA at a given airspeed. d. Verify that wing ice protection is functioning normally by visual observation of the left and right wing
Prior to departing an airport on an IFR flight, a pilot should determine whether they will be able to ensure adequate separation from terrain and obstacles. What information should this include?
a. The type of terrain and other obstacles on or in the vicinity of the departure airport. b. Whether an ODP is available. c. If obstacle avoidance can be maintained visually or if the ODP should be flown. d. The effect of degraded climb performance and the actions to take in the event of an engine loss during the depart
In the event that you inadvertently enter a thunderstorm, what recommended procedures should you follow?
a. Tighten your safety belt, put on your shoulder harness if you have one, and secure all loose objects. b. Keep your eyes on your instruments. Looking outside the cockpit can increase the danger of temporary blindness from lightning. c. Plan your course to take you through the storm in a minimum time and hold it. Don't turn back once you are in the thunderstorm. Remember that turning maneuvers increase stresses on the aircraft. d. To avoid the most critical icing, establish a penetration altitude below the freezing level or above the level of -15°C. e. Turn on pitot heat and carburetor or jet inlet heat. Icing can be rapid at any altitude and cause almost instantaneous power failure or loss of airspeed indication. f. Establish power settings for reduced turbulence penetration airspeed recommended in your aircraft manual. Reduced airspeed lessens the structural stresses on the aircraft. g. Turn up cockpit lights to highest intensity to lessen danger of temporary blindness from lightning. h. If using automatic pilot, disengage altitude hold mode and speed hold mode. The automatic altitude and speed controls will increase maneuvers of the aircraft, thus increasing structural stresses. i. Maintain a constant attitude; let the aircraft "ride the waves." Maneuvers to try to maintain constant altitude increase stresses on the aircraft.
What are the intensity categories of aircraft structural icing (The official way of reporting icing)?
a. Trace—not hazardous b. Light—rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in this environment (over 1 hour). Occasional use of deicing/anti-icing equipment removes or prevents accumulation. c. Moderate—even short encounters become potentially hazardous; use of deicing/anti-icing equipment or diversion is necessary. d. Severe—deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard; immediate diversion is necessary
What are standard procedure turn limitations?
a. Turn on the depicted side. b. Adhere to depicted minimum altitudes. c. Complete the maneuver within the distance specified in the profile view. d. Maneuver at a maximum speed not greater than 200 knots (IAS)
What is the procedure for determining an intercept angle when intercepting a VOR radial?
a. Turn to a heading to parallel the desired course, in the same direction as the course to be flown. b. Determine the difference between the radial to be intercepted and the radial on which you are located. c. Double the difference to determine the interception angle, which will not be less than 20° nor greater than 90°. d. Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course. e. Turn to the interception heading. f. Hold this heading constant until the CDI centers, which indicates the aircraft is on course. (With practice in judging the varying rates of closure with the course centerline, you learn to lead the turn to prevent overshooting the course.) g. Turn to the MH corresponding to the selected course and follow tracking procedures inbound or outbound. Note: Steps a. through c. may be omitted if you turn directly to intercept the course without initially turning to parallel the desired course
When attempting to circumnavigate thunderstorms, what minimum distance is recommended?
at least 20 miles, especially under the anvil of a large cumulonimbus
What is ear block? What to do to cure it?
difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin that is painful with people who has cold, sore throat, or nasal allergic condition. - can prevent by swallowing, yawning, valsalva maneuver(pinch the nose and blow through the nostrils)
What is a trough?
elongated area of low pressure, rising air(bad weather)
When are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts updated?
every 56 days
What is minimum equipment list (MEL)?
issued to allow an aircraft with an inoperative equipment but still safe to fly. It is a list of equipment that can be inoperable prior to flight but it must not be a hazard to the aircraft.
What is a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?
it reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance, and/or is a short-range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours from that time. CWAs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours. If conditions are expected to continue beyond that period, a statement will be included in the CWA
What is hypoxia?
lack of oxygen in the body
What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver? Expanded circling minimums?
provides 300 feet of obstacle clearance within the circling approach area. Expanded circling for procedures developed after late 2012. Category A = <90 knots = 1.3 NM radius Category B = 91-120 knots = 1.5 (C 1.7) NM radius Category C = 121-140 knots = 1.7 (C 2.7) NM radius Category D = 141-165 knots = 2.3 (C 3.6) NM radius Category E = >165 knots = 4.5 NM radius
What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?
the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL, ▷ reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, AND ▷ climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as published otherwise on the chart.
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
■ Indicated airspeed (IAS) - indicated on the airspeed indicator ■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) - IAS corrected for instrument & position errors. ■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) - CAS corrected for compressibility error. ■ True airspeed (TAS) - Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure ■ Mach number - The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound. ■ Ground speed - Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.
What is MOCA?
■ MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR. ▷ If both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment, a person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.
What is "required navigation performance" (RNP)?
■ RNP is: ▷ A statement of navigation equipment and service performance. ▷ RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting functionality. ■ All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches ▷ Most US RNP approaches are titled "RNAV (GPS)". ▷ US Approaches with "RNAV (RNP)" in the title are "AR" (Authorization Required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation. ▷ In other countries, all RNP approaches may have "RNP" in the title, even those that do not require special authorization.
What is VISUAL CLIMB OVER AIRPORT (VCOA)?
■ The pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport in VMC(VFR) up to the published "climb to" altitude, from which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the departure. ■ Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3 SM from the departure end of the runway (DER), as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than the standard 200 ft/NM. ■ Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of the intent to fly a VCOA. ■ Published in the "Take-Of Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures" section of the TP. ■ May appear as an option on graphic ODPs
What restrictions apply to flight planning when using WAAS avionics at the alternate airport?
■ WAAS Without baro-VNAV - May base the flight plan on use of LNAV approaches at both the destination and alternate. ■ WAAS with baro-VNAV - May base the flight plan on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the destination and the alternate.
What is a winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)?
■ Wind & temp aloft forecasts (FB) - Issued 4 times daily for various altitudes and flight levels. Winds at altitude up to 1500' AGL and temperatures at up to 2500' AGL are not shown. ● Wind direction is in true direction and; ● Wind velocity is in knots ➢ International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) ● Sea level temperature is -15°C ● Temperature reduces 2°C each 1,000 feet gained Format: DDff±tt, where DD = wind direction; ff = wind speed; tt = temperature. Light and variable winds: 9900. Winds between 100-199 Kt are coded by adding 5 to the first digit of the wind direction. Above FL240 temperatures are negative and the minus sign (-) is omitted. Examples: 1312+05: winds 130 / 12 kt, 5°C. 7525-02: winds 250 / 125 kt, -2° C.
What information will ATC provide when they request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is charted?
▷ Holding Fix ▷ Direction of hold from fix (e.g., N, W, S, E) ▷ EFC
What procedure is to be used when the clearance "cleared for the visual" is issued?
▷ Initiated by either ATC or the pilot. ▷ Requires at least 1000' ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR under VMC) ▷ Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight. ▷ Pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic to follow. ⤇ "Contact tower" means radar service terminated
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
▷ VOT ±4 ▷ Repair Station ±4 ▷ VOR ground checkpoint ±4 ▷ VOR airborne checkpoint ±6 ▷ Dual VOR cross-check 4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR (total of 4° between 2 bearings) ▷ Above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR, flying at a reasonable low altitude" ±6
Can a pilot make a straight-in landing if using an approach procedure having only circling minimums?
● Able to do straight in landing even when the approach only shows circling when: ➜ The pilot has the runway in sight in time to make a normal approach ➜ Cleared to land straight in (only if tower controlled) ➜ If uncontrolled tower, depends on the traffic flow
What is an AIRMET?
● Covers: AIRMET Sierra = IFR(viz <3 miles;<1000' ceiling) and/or extensive mountain obscuration AIRMET Tango = Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds (>30 knots), and/or non-convective low-level wind shear AIRMET Zulu = Moderate icing and freezing level heights ● Issued every 6 hours ● Valid for 6 hours
What is a SIGMET?
● Forecasts: "VDISTU4" ➜ Volcanic ash ➜ Dust storms ➜ severe Icing not associated with thunderstorms ➜ Sandstorms ➜ severe or extreme Turbulence or Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) ● Unscheduled ● Period not to exceed 4 hours ● May be reissued
Formula for Rate of climb.
● Standard climb gradient = 200' per NM (apply when no climb gradient specified) ● Rate of Climb = (GS ÷ 60) * Climb Gradient' per NM Example: GS = 90 knots Rate of Climb = (90 ÷ 60) * 200' per NM (given that groundspeed is 90) Rate of Climb = 300' per NM
What is VOT?
● VHF Omni Test (VOT) transmits only the 360° radial in all direction ➜ Must read 180° TO and 360° FROM (remember C-182) ➜ Plus or minus 4° allowance ➜ VOT frequency for a particular airport can be found only in the Chart Supplement
Difference between VFR-On-Top vs VFR-Over-The-Top
❖ VFR-On-Top Clearance ➢ VMC must be maintained while on VFR-On-Top clearance ● VFR-On-Top clearance can be requested by the pilot ➜ Pilot is responsible to avoid and separate itself from other aircraft ➜ Still on IFR flight plan and must follow IFR rules ➜ Prohibited in Class A airspace ➜ Pilot may select any appropriate VFR altitude based on the direction of the magnetic course at or above MEA in VFR weather conditions VFR over-the-top - does not require an instrument rating or any kind of clearance or flight plan - Operation where you maintains VFR cloud clearance requirements while operating on top of an overcast layer. This usually happens when departure and destination airports have good weather conditions, but a low overcast layer exists in between. You can depart, climb, cruise, and descend in VFR conditions along your route, even while IFR conditions may be present at lower altitudes (though we don't really recommend this, especially if you're non-instrument rated).
What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen?
➜Sea Level to 12,500' - No oxygen required ➜12,501' to 14,000' - Required by the required crew if over 30 minutes at this altitude ➜14,001' to 15,000' - Required to be provided and used by the required flight crew ➜15,001' to 25,000' - Must be provided for every occupant ➜25,001' to Unlimited - Required to satisfy the above and an additional 10 minutes for each occupant ➜At FL350 - if one pilot leaves the cockpit then the other must utilize supplemental oxygen on unless he has a quick donning mask ➜At FL410 - each pilot must be on oxygen at all times ● Based on cabin pressure altitude, not MSL ★ A good risk management, use supplemental oxygen anytime above 10,000' during the day and above 5,000' at night to enhance night time vision
Describe the term "contact approach."
➢ ATC can issue contact approach upon pilot's request given that: ● Airport must have approved IAP ● At least 1 mile visibility ● Remain clear of clouds ▷ Pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance. ➢ Requested when viz is below 3 SM but pilot think they can make the landing visually ● Not recommended
What is a convective outlook chart?
➢ Convective outlook charts describe the prospect for general thunderstorm activity ● Severe - Tornado, wind gusts greater than 50kts, or hail greater than 1 inch in diameter) during the following 24-hour period ● A 3-day forecast of convective activity. ● Issuance: day 1 - 5 times a day, day 2 - twice a day, day 3 - once a day. Available on www.spc.noaa.gov. ● Risk level are: ➜ Marginal ➜ Slight ➜ Enhanced ➜ Moderate ➜ High
What is GFA?
➢ Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) can be found at 1800wxbrief.com under "Weather" and "Prog and Forecast Charts"
Where is DME error greatest?
➢ Greatest DME error is at high altitudes and close to VORTAC ● DME reading is considered accurate when the aircraft is one or more mile away from each 1,000' of altitude above the facility ● GPS has accurate DME information ● Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero.
What is an HSI?
➢ Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) gives a bird's eye view of aircraft's position by combining the information from heading indicator and VOR/LOC deviation indicator
Define MDA.
➢ Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is the lowest/minimum altitude a pilot can descend to on a non-precision approach
What is a surface analysis chart?
➢ Surface Analysis chart depicts actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart ● updated every 3 hours/8 times daily ● An automated observation station is denoted by a bracket ( ] ) plotted to the right of the station circle
What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development?
➢ Thunderstorm form when there are: ● Sufficient moisture ● Unstable lapse rate ● Lifting action ➢ Stages of thunderstorms 1. Cumulus = updraft 2. Mature = rain at earth's surface; lightning. 3. Dissipating = rain begin to dissipate and downdrafts.
How to know if DME is operational?
➢ VORTAC or VOR/DME have two separate transmitter, both transmitting the station's morse code 1. VOR transmits its identifier morse code at a tone of 1020 Hertz 2. DME identifier transmit morse code at a tone of 1350 Hertz every 30 seconds ● When DME and VOR are both working, the VOR identification broadcasts several times in between the DME identification intervals ● If only a single ID is heard about every seconds, it means that the DME is operative but VOR inoperative
Why do certain airports have only circling minimums published?
➢ When an approach chart only has circling minimums, it means the approach didn't qualify for the straight in approach ● Straight in minimums: ➜ Angle to runway 30° or less (15° for GPS IAP) ➜ Rate of descent 400'/NM or less
What is "WAAS"?
➢ Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) ● Higher accuracy and reliability ● Augmented by ground stations that provides GPS position corrections ● may support electronic vertical guidance approach minimums as low as 200 feet HAT and ½ SM visibility ● RAIM preflight check not required with WAAS operating normally.
