Infection Quiz
which factor that influences the spread of STIs would the nurse include in a teaching session? SATA A. Age B. drug abuse C. lack of education D. multiple sex partners E. absent or subtle symptoms E. limited access to health care
A. Age B. drug abuse C. lack of education D. multiple sex partners E. absent or subtle symptoms E. limited access to health care
Which statement indicates a client understands transmission of HIV? SATA A. I can contract HIV by participating in oral sex B. I can contract HIV by eating from used utensils C. HIV is contracted by using contaminated needles D. I can contract HIV by using the bathroom of a person who is HIV positive E. Babies can contract HIV because of contact with maternal blood during birth
A. I can contract HIV by participating in oral sex C. HIV is contracted by using contaminated needles E. Babies can contract HIV because of contact with maternal blood during birth
a rubella vaccination is prescribed for a client. which statement made by the client is cause for concern? A. I have been trying to conceive a baby for a few months B. I have plans to have a baby next year C. i have no history of rubella in childhood D. i have plans to get married next year.
A. I have been trying to conceive a baby for a few months
Which clinic manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a client who has acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection? SATA A. Malaise B. Confusion C. Constipation D. Swollen lymph glands E. oropharyngeal candidiasis
A. Malaise D. Swollen lymph glands
which population would the nurse include in a community education session on STIs? SATA A. adolescents B. homosexual men C. transgender clients D. multiple sex partners E. IV drug users
A. adolescents B. homosexual men C. transgender clients D. multiple sex partners E. IV drug users
Which would the nurse identify as increasing the risk of HIV transmission? SATA A. childbirth B. monogamy C. breast-feeding D. needle sharing E. shared plates and cups
A. childbirth C. breast-feeding D. needle sharing
which information will the nurse consider when planning care for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has been diagnosed with class 3 tuberculosis? SATA A. Class 3 tuberculosis is a clinically active disease, which is contagious. B. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of mortality in clients infected with HIV. C. HIV-positive clients are more likely to have multidrug resistant tuberculosis. D. individuals with HIV usually have high fevers with active tuberculosis infection. E. persons with active tuberculosis are usually treated on an outpatient basis.
A. class 3 tuberculosis is a clinically active disease, which is contagious. B. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of mortality in clients infected with HIV. E. persons with active tuberculosis are usually treated on an outpatient basis.
which topics will the school nurse include in adolescent education son STIs? SATA A. condom use B. sexual identity C. types of contraception D. number of sexual partners E. alcohol and drug consumption
A. condom use C. types of contraception D. number of sexual partners
Which events indicate a need to suggest testing of a client for HIV? SATA A. diagnosed with tuberculosis in 1985 B. traveled to Italy and Greece in the late 1990s C. received blood transfusions in 1980 during total hip replacement surgery D. Engaged in sexual relations with someone of the same sex for several years E. spent several nights in jail for a DUI charge
A. diagnosed with tuberculosis in 1985 C. received blood transfusions in 1980 during total hip replacement surgery D. Engaged in sexual relations with someone of the same sex for several years
shortly after birth, the nurse instills erythromycin ophthalmic ointment in the newborn's eyes. the father asks why an antibiotic is needed. the nurse explains it is routinely administered to prevent which type of infection? A. gonorrhea B. toxoplasmosis C. rubella D. cytomegalovirus
A. gonorrhea
which education is appropriate to give a client at 16 weeks gestation whose partner has just informed her that he has genital herpes? A. latex or polyurethane condoms must be used when the couple is having intercourse B. mutual monogamy must be practiced C. it will be necessary to refrain from sexual contact during pregnancy. D. meticulous cleaning of the vaginal area after intercourse is essential.
A. latex or polyurethane condoms must be used when the couple is having intercourse
to ensure antibody-mediated immunity, which actions would the nurse instruct an older client to implement? SATA A. obtain a shingles vaccination B. receive a tetanus booster injection C. obtain the pneumococcal vaccination D. receive annual testing for tuberculosis E. receive an annual influenza vaccination F. avoid obtaining the pertussis vaccination
A. obtain a shingles vaccination B. receive a tetanus booster injection C. obtain the pneumococcal vaccination E. receive an annual influenza vaccination
which information would the nurse obtain in a health history for a sexually active 16-year-old to determine the client's risk for STIs? SATA A. sexual practices B. barrier protection use C. gender of sexual partners D. number of sexual partners E. use of illicit drugs before sex
A. sexual practices B. barrier protection use C. gender of sexual partners D. number of sexual partners E. use of illicit drugs before sex
which information regarding risks that may result from an untreated chlamydia infection would the nurse include when providing education for a female client? SATA A. sterility B. ectopic pregnancy C blocked Fallopian tubes D. pelvic inflammatory disease E. increased likelihood of HIV infection
A. sterility B. ectopic pregnancy C blocked Fallopian tubes D. pelvic inflammatory disease E. increased likelihood of HIV infection
which explanations would the nurse provide to the students in a sex education course regarding the etiology for an increase in gonorrhea prevalence? SATA A. symptoms of the disease are vague B. screening blood tests are expensive C. the incubation period is relatively short D. causative organisms have become resistant to treatment. E. diagnostic tests for the causative organism are not yet available.
A. symptoms of the disease are vague C. the incubation period is relatively short D. causative organisms have become resistant to treatment.
Which medication reduces the risk for HIV infection in unaffected individuals? A. truvada B. abacavir C. Cromolyn D. methdilazine
A. truvada
to reduce the incidence of HIV transmission, which basic strategies would the nurse teach a health class? SATA A. using condoms B. using separate toilets C. practicing sexual abstinence D. preventing direct casual contacts E. sterilizing the household utensils
A. using condoms C. practicing sexual abstinence
The nurse is counseling an HIV positive woman on precautions to be followed. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further counseling? A. "I will avoid smoking and have nutritious food." B. "I will go for pelvic examination every 12 months." C. "I will use female condoms if my partner refuses to use condoms." D. "I will undergo regular screening for syphilis, gonorrhea, and other vaginal infections."
B. "I will go for pelvic examination every 12 months." Rationale: HIV positive clients should have pelvic examinations every 6 months.
A client who is positive for HIV is admitted to a surgical unit after an orthopedic procedure. The nurse realizes that HIV is transmissible through which means? SATA A. Feces B. Blood C. Semen D. Urine E. Sweat F. Tears
B. Blood C. Semen
the nurse is assessing a female client with suspected primary syphilis. which sign of primary syphilis would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? A. Flat, wart-like plaques around the vagina and anus B. an indurated painless nodule on the vulva that is draining. C. glistening patches in the mouth covered with a yellow exudate D. a maculopapular rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
B. an indurated painless nodule on the vulva that is draining.
which STI is most commonly reported? A. syphlis B. chlamydia C. gonorrhea D. HIV
B. chlamydia
the nurse practitioner prescribes azithromycin for a sexually active woman with a history of mucopurulent discharge and bleeding associated with cervical dysplasia, dysuria, and dyspareunia. with which STI are these clinical findings and medication therapy commonly associated? A. herpes simplex 2 B. chlamydial infecion C. treponema pallidum D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. chlamydial infecion
Based on the medication chart, the nurse would need to notify the health care provider regarding which client? A. Client with chlamydia receiving azithromycin B. client with genital herpes receiving benzathine penicillin G C. client with genital warts receiving imiquimod D. client with gonorrhea receiving doxycycline
B. client with genital herpes receiving benzathine penicillin G
which dietary changes would the nurse suggest to the client with diarrhea associated with HIV? SATA A. eat more fatty food B. eat much less roughage C. drink two cups of coffee daily D. eat more spicy and sweet food. E. drink plenty of fluids between meals.
B. eat much less roughage E. drink plenty of fluids between meals.
the nurse in the clinic is assessing a teenager with a tentative diagnosis of primary syphilis. which is an early sign of this infection? A. rash B. genital lesion C. genital discharge D. multiple gummatous lesions
B. genital lesion
a mother diagnosed with AIDS states she has been caring for her baby even though she has not been feeling well. Which important information would the nurse determine regarding the care provided by the mother? A. if she has ever kissed the baby and how B. if the mother is breast-feeding her baby C. when the baby last received antibiotics D. how long she has been caring for the baby
B. if the mother is breast-feeding her baby
a child is admitted with a fever, headache, cough, and has had a sore throat for the past week. three days later, a rash appears at the hairline and spreads rapidly all over the body. which disease process would the nurse anticipate providing teaching for? A. mumps B. measles C. rubella D. pertussis
B. measles
which intervention is the nurse's priority when caring for a child with HIV? A. maintaining optimal hydration B. protecting the child from infection C. promoting growth and development D. ensuring adequate and balanced nutrition
B. protecting the child from infection
the nurse is teaching parents of toddlers why children receiving specific medications should not receive varicella vaccines. which medication would the nurse include in the discussion? A. insulin B. steroids C. antibiotics D. anticonvulsants
B. steroids
Which consideration is most important when counseling the family of a child with HIV? A. risk for injury B. susceptibility to infection C. inadequate nutritional intake D. altered growth and development
B. susceptibility to infection
which is included in the care of a newborn infant whose mother has had untreated syphilis since the second trimester of pregnancy? A. examining for a cleft palate B. testing for congenital syphilis C. assessing the infant for muscle hyptonicity D. inspecting the soles for maculopapular lesions
B. testing for congenital syphilis
which nursing intervention indicates misinformation when providing care for clients with HIV infection? A. "I will ask the client to avoid exposure to new infectious agents." B. "I will ask the client about intake of supplemental vitamins and micro-nutrients." C. "I will ask the client to avoid involvement in community activities." D. "I will ask the client if he or she is up to date with recommended vaccines."
C. "I will ask the client to avoid involvement in community activities."
Which client has a higher risk for contracting the HIV infection? A. A client who is involved in mutual masturbation. B. A client who undergoes voluntary prenatal HIV testing. C. A client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs. D. A client who engages in insertive sex with a noninfective partner.
C. A client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs.
which medication would the nurse administer to prevent maternal transmission of infection to the newborn of a client with gonorrhea? SATA A. penicillin B. acyclovir C. Ceftriaxone D. doxycycline E. levofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
Upon review of morning laboratory results, which client's report indicates acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. Client 1: CD4+ T-cell count: 750 cells/mm^3, HIV positive B. Client 2: CD4+ T-cell count: 550 cells/mm^3, HIV positive C. Client 3: CD4+ T-cell count: 175 Cells/mm^3, HIV positive D. Client 4: CD4+ T-cell count: 450 cells/mm^3, HIV positive
C. Client 3: CD4+ T-cell count: 175 Cells/mm^3, HIV positive
the nurse is obtaining a health history from a client with HIV with a low viral load who has been asymptomatic for ears. which statement by the client indicates the need for additional education on the disease process? A. I inform all my partners of my HIV-positive status B. I should not skip any doses of antiretroviral medication C. I occasionally have oral sex without the use of protection. D. I have never shared or reused any of my diabetic supplies.
C. I occasionally have oral sex without the use of protection.
which client statement confirms that the client who is being treated for a STI has understood the nurse's instruction regarding future sexual contacts? A. if I have sex, nothing i do will really prevent me from getting another STI. B. If i get another STI, I can take any antibiotic, because I'm not allergic to any of them. C. I won't have unprotected sex again, and I'll tell my partners to be tested for STIs. D. I have to ask my partners if they have an STI, and if they say no I'll know that I can have sex.
C. I won't have unprotected sex again, and I'll tell my partners to be tested for STIs.
Which guidance would the nurse provide to a sexually active 16-year-old client when she inquires as to how she can protect herself from contracting HIV? A. Ask her partner to withdraw before ejaculating. B. Make certain their relationship is monogamous. C. Insist that her partner use a condom when having sex. D. Seek counseling about various contraceptive methods.
C. Insist that her partner use a condom when having sex.
in addition to being highly infectious, which additional fact would the nurse teach the client with gonorrhea? A. easily cured B. occurs very rarely C. can produce sterility D. limited to the external genitalia
C. can produce sterility
the nurse suspects that a newborn's mother contracted rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy. which newborn problems support this assumption? SATA A. fever B. seizures C. deafness D. conjunctivitis D. cardiac anomalies
C. deafness D. cardiac anomalies
which STI receives antiviral medications as the treatment of choice? A. syphilis B. gonorrhea C. genital herpes D. chlamydial infection
C. genital herpes
which disease would the nurse suspect in a 16-year-old client with a history of multiple sexual partners who is complaining of increased vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding, excessive bleeding during menstruation, and pain in the lower abdomen? A. herpes B. syphilis C. gonorrhea D. toxoplasmosis
C. gonorrhea
which orders would the nurse expect to receive from the primary health care provider for the client at 10 weeks gestation who has just been diagnosed with syphilis? SATA A. a wait-and-see approach B. recommendation for elective abortion C. screening and tesing of sexual partners D. none, because the syphilis will most likely not affect the fetus in utero. E. intramuscular benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units, 1 dose
C. screening and tesing of sexual partners E. intramuscular benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units, 1 dose
which medication used to treat syphilis is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. amoxicillin B. clotrimazole C. tetracycline D. metronidazole
C. tetracycline
an adolescent reports irritation in the vagina and yellowish green, malodorous discharge. which infection is the adolescent likely to have? A. gonorrhea B. candidiasis C. trichomoniasis D. bacterial vaginosis
C. trichomoniasis
an older adult has undergone chemotherapy. which agent could be administered to decrease the risk of a potentially contagious common viral infection? A. famciclovir B. gabapentin C. zoster vaccine D. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) vaccine
C. zoster vaccine
at which age would a child receive immunization for measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)? A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 12 months
D. 12 months
When a client asks to be screened for HIV infection, which information will the nurse include in teaching client about the test? A. Identifies the number of CD4 cells that are in the blood. B. Shows how much of the HIV virus is present in the blood. C. Takes several days for results to be complete and reported. D. Detects antibodies to HIV and may not detect acute infection.
D. Detects antibodies to HIV and may not detect acute infection.
Which diagnostic criterion should the nurse use to explain AIDS to a client with HIV? A. Contracts HIV-specific antibodies. B. Develops an acute retroviral syndrome. C. Is capable of transmitting the virus to others. D. Has a CD4+ T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells (60%)
D. Has a CD4+ T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells (60%)
which statement by an adolescent during an annual physical examination indicates the need for HIV testing? A. I only have sex with one partner B. I always use barrier contraception C. I occasionally smoke pot with friends D. I have shared needles when using drugs.
D. I have shared needles when using drugs.
Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the precautions needed in the provision of care to a child who is HIV positive? A. I'll put on a mask B. I'll put on an N-95 mask. C. I'll put on a gown and gloves. D. I'll put on gloves if I'm going to be in contact with body fluids.
D. I'll put on gloves if I'm going to be in contact with body fluids.
which preexisting condition necessitates a cesarean birth? A. gonorrhea B chlamydia C. chronic hepatitis D. active genital herpes
D. active genital herpes
a breast-feeding teenage mother is diagnosed with syphilis. which would be the medication of choice for this client? A. doxycycline B. tetracycline C. azithromycin D. benzathine penicillin
D. benzathine penicillin
the nurse understands which preparations use toxoids but not live viruses? SATA A. rotavirus vaccine B. varicella virus vaccine C. measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine D. diphtheria, hepatitis B, pertussis (acellular), polio, and tetanus vaccine E. diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine
D. diphtheria, hepatitis B, pertussis (acellular), polio, and tetanus vaccine E. diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine
when teaching a group of older adults about differences between the common cold and influenza, the nurse would educate the clients that it is most important to communicate with the health care provider about which symptom? A. earache B. sneezing C. nasal stuffiness D. elevated temperature
D. elevated temperature
upon assessment of a client with HIV, the nurse discovers red to purple skin lesions on the client's neck, arms, and chest. which virus presents these skin lesions? A. parvovirus B. papillomavirus C. varicella-zoster virus D. herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
D. herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
the nurse in the clinic is obtaining the health history of a 16-year-old boy with a complaint of a thick urethral discharge. which is the most appropriate nursing action to help confirm a tentative diagnosis of gonorrhea? A. assessing the temperature for fever B. collecting a urine sample for a urinalysis C. drawing blood for a complete blood count D. obtaining a urethral specimen for a culture
D. obtaining a urethral specimen for a culture
a client with AIDS reports painless, white, raised lesions on the lateral aspect of the tongue. which disease would the nurse expect? A. oral thrush B. genital herpes C. kaposi sarcoma D. oral hairy leukoplakia
D. oral hairy leukoplakia
a client visits a primary health care provider and reports chills, severe abdominal pain, and increased vaginal discharge. which infection would the nurse suspect? A. gonorrhea B. chlamydia C. trichomoniasis D. pelvic inflammatory disease
D. pelvic inflammatory disease