Instaling and configuring windows server 2012 R2

4. Which of the following updates must you install on a server running Windows Server 2008 before you can connect to it by using Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A. .NET Framework 3.5 B. .NET Framework 4.0 C. Windows Management Framework 3.0 D. Windows Server 2008 R2

.NET Framework 4.0 is needed for Server Manager to connect to Windows Server 2008. Windows Management Framework 3.0 is needed for Server Manager to connect to Windows Server 2008.

5. How many dynamically assigned MAC addresses can a Hyper-V server provide by default? A. 8 B. 256 C. 4,096 D. Unlimited

A Hyper-V server provides a pool of 256 MAC addresses by default. You can create more by modifying the default address range

4. A JBOD drive array is an alternative to which of the following storage technologies? A. SAN B. SCSI C. RAID D. iSCSI

A JBOD array is an alternative to a RAID array that treats each disk as an independent volume.

1. Which of the following statements about Type I and Type II virtualization are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs on top of a host OS. B. In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the computer hardware. C. In Type II virtualization, the hypervisor runs on top of a host OS. D. In Type II virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the computer hardware.

A Type I hypervisor runs directly on the computer hardware. A Type II hypervisor runs on top of a host OS.

1. Which of the following are valid reasons for using an emulated network adapter rather than a synthetic one? (Choose all that apply.) A. You want to install the guest OS by using a Windows Deployment Services server. B. There is no Guest Integration Services package available for the guest OS you plan to use. C. The manufacturer of your physical network adapter has not yet provided a synthetic network adapter driver. D. The emulated network adapter provides better performance.

A Windows Deployment Server installation requires the network adapter to support PXE, which emulated adapters do, but synthetic adapters do not. Synthetic adapter drivers are installed as part of the Guest Integration Services package; if there is no package for the guest OS, then there are no synthetic drivers

3. Which of the following volume types supported by Windows Server 2012 R2 provide fault tolerance? (Choose all that apply.) A. Striped B. Spanned C. Mirrored D. RAID-5

A mirrored volume writes duplicate copies of all data to two disks, thereby providing fault tolerance. A RAID-5 volume writes data and parity information on multiple disks, thereby providing fault tolerance.

2. Which of the following must be true about a pass-through disk? A. A pass-through disk must be offline in the guest OS that will access it. B. A pass-through disk must be offline in the parent partition of the Hyper-V server. C. A pass-through disk can only be connected to a SCSI controller. D. A pass-through disk must be added to a VM with the Disk Management snap-in.

A pass-through disk must be offline in the parent container so that the guest OS can have exclusive access to it.

1. Which of the following terms best describes the component that enables DHCP clients to communicate with DHCP servers on other subnets? A. Forwarder B. Resolver C. Scope D. Relay agent

A relay agent is a software module that receives DHCP broadcast messages and forwards them to a DHCP server on another subnet

2. Which of the following terms describes the process of granting users access to file server shares by reading their permissions? A. Authentication B. Authorization C. Enumeration D. Assignment

Authorization is the process by which a user is granted access to specific resources based on the permissions he or she possesses.

4. In the Windows Server 2012 R2 NTFS permission system, combinations of advanced permissions are also known as _____________ permissions. (Choose all that apply.) A. Special B. Basic C. Share D. Standard

Basic permissions are formed by creating various combinations of advanced permissions. In Windows Server versions prior to Windows Server 2012 R2, standard permissions are formed by creating various combinations of special permissions

6. Which of the following statements about Generation 1 and Generation 2 virtual machines are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. You must create a Generation 1 VM before you can create a Generation 2 VM. B. Generation 2 VMs deploy faster than Generation 1 VMs. C. Generation 2 VMs only support Windows 8.1 and Windows Server 2012 R2 as guest operating systems. D. Generation 2 VMs use the same device drivers as Generation 1 VMs.

Because they use improved and synthetic drivers, Generation 2 VMs deploy faster than Generation 1 VMs

5. You are attempting to delete a global security group in the Active Directory Users And Computers console but the console will not let you complete the task. Which of the following could possibly be causes for the failure? (Choose all that apply.) A. There are still members in the group. B. One of the group's members has the group set as its primary group. C. You do not have the proper permissions for the container in which the group is located. D. You cannot delete global groups from the Active Directory Users And Computers console.

By default, the two built-in user accounts created on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 are the Administrator account and the Guest account. By default, the two built-in user accounts created on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 are the Administrator account and the Guest account.

5. Which of the following are the two built-in user accounts created automatically on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Network B. Interactive C. Administrator D. Guest

By default, the two built-in user accounts created on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 are the Administrator account and the Guest account. By default, the two built-in user accounts created on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 are the Administrator account and the Guest account.

4. Which of the following are valid reasons not to take checkpoints of VMs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Checkpoints can consume a large amount of disk space. B. Each checkpoint requires a separate copy of the VM's memory allocation. C. Each checkpoint can take several hours to create. D. The existence of checkpoints slows down VM performance.

Checkpoints consume disk space that could be better used for other purposes. The Hyper-V server must locate and process checkpoints each time it accesses a VM's disk drives, slowing down its performance.

4. Which type of IP address must a system have to be visible from the Internet? A. Registered B. Binary C. Class B D. Subnetted

For an address to be visible from the Internet, it must be registered with the IANA.

3. What is the maximum number of ports supported by a Hyper-V virtual switch? A. 8 B. 256 C. 4,096 D. Unlimited

Hyper-V virtual switches can support an unlimited number of connections.

3. One of your print devices is not working properly, so you want to temporarily prevent users from sending jobs to the printer serving that device. Which of the following actions should you take? A. Stop sharing the printer. B. Remove the printer from Active Directory. C. Change the printer port. D. Rename the share.

If you stop sharing the printer, users will no longer be able to use the print device.

1. Which of the following cannot contain multiple Active Directory domains? A. Organizational units B. Sites C. Trees D. Forests

In AD DS, you can subdivide a domain into OUs and populate it with objects, but you cannot create domains within OUs.

2. Which of the following NIC teaming modes provides fault tolerance and bandwidth aggregation? A. Hyper-V live migration B. Switch Independent Mode C. Switch Dependent Mode D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

In Switch Independent Mode, the NICs in the team are connected to different switches, providing alternate paths through the network.

1. Which of the following terms best describes the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device? A. Printer B. Print server C. Printer driver D. Print Management console

In Windows, a printer is the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device.

5. Which of the following subnet mask values would you use when configuring a TCP/IP client with an IPv4 address on the 172.16.32.0/19 network? A. 255.224.0.0 B. 255.240.0.0 C. 255.255.224.0 D. 255.255.240.0 E. 255.255.255.240

In binary form, the mask 255.255.224.0 is 11111111.11111111.11100000. 00000000, which contains 19 network identifier bits.

3. Which of the following features must be added to a Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Core installation to convert it to the Minimal Server Interface? A. Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure B. Server Graphical Shell C. Windows PowerShell D. Microsoft Management Console

Installing the Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure module— and only that module—on a Server Core installation results in the Minimal Server Interface.

5. Which of the following statements are valid reasons as to why administrators might want to install their Windows Server 2012 R2 servers by using the Server Core option? (Choose all that apply.) A. A Server Core installation can be converted to the full GUI without reinstalling the operating system. B. The Windows PowerShell 4.0 interface in Windows Server 2012 R2 includes more than 10 times as many cmdlets as Windows PowerShell 2.0. C. The new Server Manager in Windows Server 2012 R2 makes it much easier to administer servers remotely. D. A Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Core license costs significantly less than a full GUI license.

It is possible to convert a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 between the Server Core and the Full GUI interface as needed. Server Manager incorporates a server selection interface into many of its wizards.

3. Which of the following is not true about an object's attributes? A. Administrators must manually supply information for certain attributes. B. Every container object has, as an attribute, a list of all the other objects it contains. C. Leaf objects do not contain attributes. D. Active Directory automatically creates the globally unique identifier (GUID).

Leaf objects have attributes that contain information about the specific resource the object represents

1. Which of the following can be used to add, delete, or modify objects in Active Directory, in addition to modifying the schema if necessary? A. DCPROMO B. LDIFDE C. CSVDE D. NSLOOKUP

Like CSVDE.exe, the LDAP Data Interchange Format Directory Exchange (LDIFDE.exe) utility can be used to import or export Active Directory information. It can be used to add, delete, or modify objects in Active Directory, in addition to modifying the schema, if necessary.

3. Which of the following DHCP address allocation types is the equivalent of a reservation in Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Dynamic allocation B. Automatic allocation C. Manual allocation D. Hybrid allocation

Manual allocation is when the DHCP server permanently assigns a specific IP address to a specific computer on the network. In the Windows Server 2012 R2 DHCP server, manually allocated addresses are called reservations.

4. Which of the following network components are typically capable of functioning as DHCP relay agents? A. Windows 8.1 computers B. Routers C. Switches D. Windows Server 2012 R2 computers

Most IP routers have DHCP relay agent capabilities built into them. If the routers connecting your subnets are so equipped, you can use them as relay agents, eliminating the need for a DHCP server on each subnet. If your routers cannot function as DHCP relay agents, you can use the relay agent capability built into the Windows server operating systems. In Windows Server 2012 R2, the DHCP relay agent capability is built into the Remote Access role.

3. Which of the following command-line tools are used to join a computer to a domain? A. Net.exe B. Netsh.exe C. Netdom.exe D. Ipconfig.exe

Netdom.exe is the Windows command-line domain manager application

4. Which of the following is not a reason you should try to create as few domains as possible when designing an Active Directory infrastructure? A. Creating additional domains increases the administrative burden of the installation. B. Each additional domain you create increases the hardware costs of the Active Directory deployment. C. Some applications might have problems working in a forest with multiple domains. D. You must purchase a license from Microsoft for each domain you create.

No special Microsoft licenses are needed for domains.

1. Which of the following resource record types contains the information a DNS server needs to perform reverse name lookups? A. A B. CNAME C. SOA D. PTR

PTR records contain the information needed for the server to perform reverse name lookups

4. Which of the following virtual switch types does not enable guest OSs to communicate with the parent partition? A. External B. Internal C. Private D. Isolated

Private switches enable the guest OSs to communicate with one another but not with the outside network or the parent partition.

3. Which of the following is not one of the elements of DNS? A. Resolvers B. Relay agents C. Name servers D. Namespace

Relay agents are router devices that enable DHCP clients to communicate with servers on other networks

1. Which features must be removed from a full GUI installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 in order to convert it to a Server Core installation? (Choose all that apply.) A. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) B. Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure C. Desktop Experience D. Server Graphical Shell

Removing the Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure feature is required to convert to a Server Core installation. Server Graphical Shell provides support for the Windows graphical interface, including the desktop and File Explorer. You must remove it to convert to a Server Core installation.

5. Which of the following is not required to add a Fibre Channel adapter to a Hyper-V VM? A. You must create a Fibre Channel virtual SAN. B. You must have a physical Fibre Channel adapter installed in the host computer. C. You must have a Fibre Channel adapter driver that supports virtual networking. D. You must have a SCSI cable connecting the Fibre Channel adapter to the storage devices.

SCSI cables are not required for Fibre Channel installations.

4. Which of the following statements about Server Manager is not true? A. Server Manager can deploy roles to multiple servers at the same time. B. Server Manager can deploy roles to VHDs while they are offline. C. Server Manager can install roles and features at the same time. D. Server Manager can install roles and features to any Windows Server 2012 R2 server on the network.

Server Manager cannot deploy roles to multiple servers at the same time

4. Which of the following Hyper-V features make it possible for a VM to function with a minimum RAM value that is lower than the startup RAM value? (Choose all that apply.) A. Smart paging B. Dynamic Memory C. Memory Weight D. Guest Integration Services

Smart paging enables a VM to restart even if the amount of RAM specified as the startup value is unavailable. Smart paging causes the system to use disk space as a temporary substitute for memory during a system restart. Dynamic Memory enables you to specify a minimum RAM value that is smaller than the startup RAM value, but Smart paging enables the system to function with those parameters. Guest Integration Services is required for a guest OS to use Dynamic Memory.

1. Which of the following statements are true of striped volumes? (Choose all that apply.) A. Striped volumes provide enhanced performance over simple volumes. B. Striped volumes provide greater fault tolerance than simple volumes. C. You can extend striped volumes after creation. D. If a single physical disk in the striped volume fails, all the data in the entire volume is lost.

Striping provides improved performance because each disk drive in the array has time to seek the location of its next stripe while the other drives are writing If a single physical disk in the striped volume fails, all the data in the entire volume is lost.

2. Which of the following statements is not true about synthetic network adapters? A. Synthetic adapters communicate with the parent partition by using the VMBus. B. Synthetic adapters require the Guest Integration Services package to be installed on the guest OS. C. Synthetic adapters provide faster performance than emulated adapters. D. Synthetic adapters can start the child VM by using a PXE network boot.

Synthetic network adapters load with the Guest Integration Services on the guest OS, which prevents them from supporting PXE

3. Which of the following is an automatic tunneling protocol used by Windows operating systems that are located behind NAT routers? A. Teredo B. 6to4 C. ISATAP D. APIPA

Teredo is a mechanism that enables devices behind non-IPv6 NAT routers to function as tunnel endpoints

1. Which of the following tasks must you perform before you can manage a remote server running Windows Server 2012 R2 using the Computer Management snap-in? A. Enable WinRM on the remote server. B. Enable the COM+ Network Access rule on the remote server. C. Enable the Remote Event Log Management rules on the remote server. D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on the remote server.

The COM+ Network Access rule must be enabled on the remote server for MMC snap-ins to connect

2. When using CSVDE, what is the first line of the text file that uses proper attribute names? A. Header row B. Header record C. Name row D. Name record

The CSVDE command-line utility enables an administrator to import or export AD DS objects. It uses a .csv file that is based on a header record, which describes each part of the data. A header record is just the first line of the text file that uses proper attribute names.

2. Which of the following is not a correct reason for creating an OU? A. To create a permanent container that cannot be moved or renamed B. To duplicate the divisions in your organization C. To delegate administration tasks D. To assign different Group Policy settings to a specific group of users or computers

The CSVDE command-line utility enables an administrator to import or export AD DS objects. It uses a .csv file that is based on a header record, which describes each part of the data. A header record is just the first line of the text file that uses proper attribute names.

2. Which of the following message types is not used during a successful DHCP address assignment? A. DHCPDISCOVER B. DHCPREQUEST C. DHCPACK D. DHCPINFORM

The DHCPINFORM message type is not used during an IP address assignment.

2. Which of the following Windows PowerShell cmdlets can you use to list the existing Windows Firewall rules on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply.) A. Get-NetFirewallRule B. Set-NetFirewallRule C. Show-NetFirewallRule D. New-NetFirewallRule

The Get-NetFirewallRule cmdlet displays a list of all the rules on a system running Windows Firewall. . The Show-NetFirewallRule cmdlet displays a list of all the rules on a system running Windows Firewall.

5. When you run Server Manager from a Windows 8 workstation using Remote Server Administration Tools, which of the following elements do not appear in the default display? A. The Dashboard B. The Local Server home page C. The All Servers home page D. The Welcome tile

The Local Server home page does not appear, because the local system is a workstation, not a server.

3. The Merge function only appears in the Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard under which of the following conditions? A. When you select a VHDX file for editing B. When you select two or more disks for editing C. When you select a disk with free space available in it D. When you select a differencing disk for editing

The Merge function appears only when you select a differencing disk for editing. The object of the function is to combine the data in the differencing disk with that of the parent

4. You are administering a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 configured as a print server. Users in the Marketing group report that they cannot print documents using a printer on the server. You view the permissions in the printer's properties. The Marketing group is allowed Manage Documents permission. Which of the following statements best explains why the users cannot print to the printer? A. The Everyone group must be granted the Manage Documents permission. B. The Administrators group must be granted the Manage Printers permission. C. The Marketing group must be granted the Print permission. D. The Marketing group must be granted the Manage Printers permission

The Print permission allows users to send documents to the printer; the Manage Documents permission does not.

5. Which of the following contains the controls used to modify DNS name caching? A. The Forwarders tab of a server's Properties sheet B. The Start of Authority (SOA) tab of a zone's Properties sheet C. The Root Hints tab of a server's Properties sheet D. The New Zone Wizard

The Start of Authority (SOA) tab of a zone's Properties sheet contains the Minimum (Default) TTL setting that controls DNS name caching for the zone.

5. Which of the following TCP/IP parameters is typically deployed as a scope option in DHCP? A. DNS Server B. Subnet Mask C. Lease Duration D. Default Gateway

The default gateway must be a router on the same subnet as the IP addresses the DHCP server is allocating. Therefore, the gateway address is different for every scope and must be deployed as a scope option.

5. When you install the Hyper-V role on a server running Windows Server 2012 R2, the instance of the OS on which you installed the role is converted to what system element? A. The hypervisor B. The Virtual Machine Monitor C. The parent partition D. A child partition

The instance of the OS on which you install the Hyper-V role becomes the parent partition.

5. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the security principal in file system permission assignments? A. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the only person who can access a file that has no permissions assigned to it. B. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the person responsible for creating permission policies. C. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the person assigning the permissions. D. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the person to whom the permissions are assigned.

The security principal is the user or computer to which permissions are assigned.

4. In a domain running at the Windows Server 2012 R2 domain functional level, which of the following security principals can be members of a global group? (Choose all that apply.) A. Users B. Computers C. Universal groups D. Global groups

There are three types of user accounts in Windows Server 2012 R2: local accounts, domain accounts, and built-in user accounts.

4. Which of the following is not a type of user account that can be configured in Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Local accounts B. Domain accounts C. Network accounts D. Built-in accounts

There are three types of user accounts in Windows Server 2012 R2: local accounts, domain accounts, and built-in user accounts.

2. What are the two basic classes of Active Directory objects? A. Resource B. Leaf C. Domain D. Container

There are two basic classes of objects: container objects and leaf objects. A leaf object cannot have subordinate objects. There are two basic classes of objects: container objects and leaf objects. A container object is one that can have other objects subordinate to it.

5. Which of the following does an Active Directory client use to locate objects in another domain? A. DNS B. Global Catalog C. DHCP D. Site Link

To locate an object in another domain, Active Directory clients perform a search of the global catalog first. This search provides the client with the information it needs to search for the object in the specific domain that contains it.

2. Which of the following would be the correct FQDN for a resource record in a reverse lookup zone if the computer's IP address is 10.75.143.88? A. 88.143.75.10.in-addr.arpa B. 10.75.143.88.in-addr.arpa C. in-addr.arpa.88.143.75.10 D. arpa.in-addr.10.75.143.88

To resolve the IP address 10.75.143.88 into a name, a DNS server would locate a domain called 143.75.10.in-addr.arpa in the usual manner and read the contents of a resource record named 88 in that domain

2. You are setting up a printer pool on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2. The printer pool contains three identical print devices. You open the Properties dialog box for the printer and select the Enable Printer Pooling option on the Ports tab. Which of the following steps must you perform next? A. Configure the LPT1 port to support three printers. B. Select or create the ports mapped to the three printers. C. On the Device Settings tab, configure the installable options to support two additional print devices. D. On the Advanced tab, configure the priority for each print device so that printing is distributed among the three print devices.

To set up printer pooling, select the Enable Printer Pooling check box and select or create the ports corresponding to printers that will be part of the pool.

1. Which of the following is the primary method for transmitting IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 network? A. Subnetting B. Tunneling C. Supernetting D. Contracting

Tunneling is a method for encapsulating IPv6 traffic within IPv4 datagrams.

2. Which of the following types of server virtualization provides the best performance for high-traffic servers in production environments? A. Type I virtualization B. Type II virtualization C. Presentation virtualization D. RemoteApp

Type I virtualization provides the best performance because the hypervisor runs directly on the computer hardware and does not have the overhead of a host OS

2. Which of the following is the IPv6 equivalent to a private IPv4 address? A. Link-local unicast address B. Global unique unicast address C. Unique local unicast address D. Anycast address

Unique local unicast addresses are the IPv6 equivalent of the 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16 private network addresses in IPv4.

1. Which of the following groups are used to consolidate groups and accounts that span either multiple domains or the entire forest? A. Global B. Domain local C. Built-in D. Universal

Universal groups, like global groups, are used to organize users according to their resource access needs. You can use them to organize users to facilitate access to any resource located in any domain in the forest through the use of domain local groups. Universal groups are used to consolidate groups and accounts that span either multiple domains or the entire forest.

3. Which of the following are tasks you can perform by using the quotas in File Server Resource Manager but can't perform by using NTFS quotas? (Choose all that apply.) A. Send an email message to an administrator when users exceed their limits. B. Specify different storage limits for each user. C. Prevent users from consuming storage space on a volume beyond their allotted limit. D. Generate warnings to users when they approach their allotted storage limit.

Using File Server Resource Manager, you can notify administrators with email messages when users exceed their allotment of storage

4. In which of the following DNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query? A. A DNS client sends the server name www.adatum.com to its designated DNS server for resolution. B. A client's DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find the authoritative server for the com top-level domain. C. A client's DNS server sends a request to the com top-level domain server to find the authoritative server for the adatum.com domain. D. A client's DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www.

When a client sends a name resolution query to its DNS server, it uses a recursive request so that the server will take on the responsibility for resolving the name.

2. Which of the following statements best describes the requirements for extending a volume on a dynamic disk? (Choose all that apply.) A. If you want to extend a simple volume, you can use only the available space on the same disk if the volume is to remain simple. B. The volume must have a file system (a raw volume) before you can extend a simple or spanned volume. C. You can extend a simple or spanned volume if you formatted it by using the FAT or FAT32 file systems. D. You can extend a simple volume across additional disks if it is not a system volume or a boot volume.

When extending a simple volume, you can use only the available space on the same disk. If you extend the volume to another disk, it is no longer simple. You can extend a simple volume across additional disks if it is not a system volume or a boot volume.

5. You are administering a print server running Windows Server 2012 R2. You want to perform maintenance on a print device physically connected to the print server. There are several documents in the print queue. You want to prevent the documents from being printed to the printer, but you don't want users to have to resubmit the documents to the printer. Which of the following statements best describes the best way to do this? A. Open the printer's Properties dialog box, select the Sharing tab, and select the Do Not Share This Printer option. B. Open the printer's Properties dialog box and select a port that is not associated with a print device. C. Open the printer's queue window, select the first document, and select Pause from the Document window. D. Open the printer's queue window and select the Pause Printing option from the Printer menu.

When you select the Pause Printing option, the documents will remain in the print queue until you resume printing. This option applies to all documents in the queue

3. Which of the following Microsoft operating systems includes a license that enables you to license an unlimited number of virtual instances? A. Hyper-V Server B. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter C. Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard D. Windows Server 2012 R2 Foundation

Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter edition includes a license that enables you to create an unlimited number of virtual instances

1. What is the maximum number of shadow copies a Windows Server 2012 R2 system can maintain for each volume? A. 8 B. 16 C. 64 D. 128

Windows Server 2012 R2 can maintain up to 64 volume shadow copies before it begins deleting the oldest data.

1. Which of the following processor architectures can be used for a clean Windows Server 2012 R2 installation? (Choose all that apply.) A. 32-bit processor only B. 64-bit processor only C. 32-bit or 64-bit processor D. 64-bit or Itanium processor

Windows Server 2012 R2 can run only on a 64-bit processor

1. Which of the following statements about VHDX files is not true? A. VHDX files can be as large as 64 TB. B. VHDX files can only be opened by computers running Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2. C. VHDX files support larger block sizes than VHD files. D. VHDX files support 4-KB logical sectors.

Windows Server 2012, Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows 8, and Windows 8.1 can all open VHDX files

4. Which of the following terms is the name of the directory where Windows stores all the operating system modules it might need to install at a later time? A. Windows B. System32 C. bin D. WinSxS

Windows stores all the operating system installation modules in the WinSxS directory.

3. Which of the following group scope modifications are never permitted? (Choose all that apply.) A. Global to universal B. Global to domain local C. Universal to global D. Domain local to universal

You can perform an offline domain join on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 by using the Djoin.exe utility.

3. Which of the following utilities are used to perform an offline domain join? A. net join B. join C. djoin D. dconnect

You can perform an offline domain join on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 by using the Djoin.exe utility.

2. Which of the following paths is a valid upgrade path to Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Windows Server 2003 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard B. Windows Server 2008 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard C. Windows Server 2008 32-bit to Windows Server 2012 R2 64-bit D. Windows 7 Ultimate to Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials

You can upgrade Windows Server 2008 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.

5. Which of the following operations can you not perform on a service by using Server Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A. Stop a running service B. Start a stopped service C. Disable a service D. Configure a service to start when the computer starts

You cannot disable a service by using Server Manager. You cannot configure a service to start when the computer starts by using Server Manager.

3. Which of the following tasks can you not perform remotely on a server running Windows Server 2008? A. Install roles by using Server Manager B. Install roles by using Windows PowerShell C. Connect to the remote server by using the Computer Management snap-in D. Monitor event log entries

You cannot install roles on a remote server running Windows Server 2008 by using Server Manager