interviewing final exam

What percentage of interviewers preferred face-to-face interviews over videoconferencing interviews?

76

an interview is

a collaborate process, an interactional communication process and a process with a predetermined and serious purpose

collaborative means

a mutual creation and sharing of meanings

the word process denotes

an interaction that is not static

if an interviewee has a personal or organizational problem which of the following types of interviews is appropriate to address the situation

counseling interview

in successful interviews the parties share

feelings, beliefs, motives

Which of the following types of interviews involves a moderator or facilitator?

focus group interview

which of the following types of interviews usually involves eight to twelve similar interviewees and a single interviewer

focus group interview

which type of interview consists of two parties taking part in orienting, coaching, instructing and briefing sessions

information gathering interviews

according to Stewart and cash, interviewing involves

interactional comm, the asking and answering of questions, a predetermined and serious purpose

interviews share characteristics with

intimate interactions, social conversations and small groups

Which of the following are disadvantage to telephone interviews?

lack of "presence" of parties, interviewees are less serious, parties cannot observe eye contact, gestures, posture, etc.

although each interview is unique in some respects, all involve which of the following

nonverbal messages

Which of the following interview occurs whenever one party attempts to alter or reinforce the thinking, feeling, or acting of another party?

persuasion interview

which of the following is not a traditional form of interviewing

telephone interviews

A professor asking questions about an assigned case study and its practical applications in computer software design is NOT an interview.

true

Asking questions is important in all interviews

true

If two parties use the Internet to interact in real time and have a predetermined and serious purpose, it is a true interaction and therefore qualifies as an interview

true

One of the primary purposes of Information-gathering interviews is to transfer facts, data, reports, and opinions from one party to another.

true

an army recruiter meeting with 2 parents is an interview

true

an interview requires a degree of planning and structuing

true

communication interactions are not static

true

roles of interviewer and interviewee may switch from moment to moment

true

Which of the following are disadvantages of using e-mail in conducting interviews?

a. difficulty in opening interviews b. establishing rapport c.determining emotional reactions

dyadic means 3 parties

false

The purpose of the persuasive interview is to influence how the interviewee a. thinks b. acts c. feels d. all of the above Ans: d 23. When analyzing an interviewee, consider the following factors: a. age, wage, and address. b. degrees, debts, and interest. c. attitudes, platitudes, and values. d. physical characteristics, socioeconomic background, and cultural values. Ans: d 24. Attitudes are a. fundamental beliefs about ideal states of existence and modes of behavior. b. foundations for specific beliefs and actions. c. the hot buttons persuaders employ to induce action and judgment. d. relatively enduring combinations of beliefs that predispose us to respond in particular ways. Ans: d 25 Which theory is designed to prevent persuasion from taking place? a. inoculation theory b. identification theory c. forced compliance theory d. psychological reactance theory Ans: a 26. It is hoped that induced compliance will result in a. disengagement. b. self-persuasion. c. reduced dissonance. d. identification. Ans: b 27. Which of the following is a tactic for handling potentially hostile interviewees? a. yes-but b. yes-yes c. implicative d. all of the above Ans: d 28. The four steps in handling objections are a. anticipate, listen, clarify, and respond. b. anticipate, respond, clarify, and deny. c. listen, respond, capitalize, and confirm. d. capitalize, convert, deny, and respond. Ans: a 29. Some sources claim that interviewees remember a. 25 percent of what they hear, 25 percent of what they see, 25 percent of what they anticipate, and 25 percent of what they do. b. 50 percent of what they hear and see and 50 percent of what they anticipate and do. c. 25 percent of what they hear and 75 percent of what they do. d. 10 percent of what they hear, 50 percent of what they do, and 90 percent of what they see and do. Ans: d 30. After asking a trial closing question, you should a. take leave. b. be quiet. c. ask the closing question. d. address objections. Ans: b 31. Personal attractiveness is a a. survival value. b. social value. c. success value. d. independence value. Ans: a 32. If you have no access to information about an individual prior to your first contact with the interviewee, which of the following is a recommendation for your first few minutes of the interview? a. observe the interviewees dress b. ask questions about their interests c. listen to what the person does not say d. all of the above Ans: d 33. Which of the following correctly describes a culture's approach to arrival time? a. In Great Britain it is acceptable to be 5-15 minutes late. b. In Italy it is acceptable to be 5 minutes early. c. For Americans, it is acceptable to be an hour late. d. all of the above Ans: a 34. Which of the following is NOT a survival value? a. preservation of health b. safety and security c. power and authority d. personal attractiveness Ans: c 35. Surveys have indicated that we perceive people like car salespersons as least trustworthy. This relates to which concept that affects all forms of interviewing? a. defenses b. clients c. credentials d. credibility Ans: d 36. If you are trying to borrow the family car for the weekend and ask right before dinner, just after your parents get home from work, and get a refusal, what part of the situation might be most pertinent? a. atmosphere b. timing c. physical setting d. outside forces Ans: b 37. If you observe an interviewee having second thoughts due to prior held beliefs, this psychological discomfort is known as a. balance. b. dissonance. c. consubtantiality. d. induced compliance. Ans: b 38. Which theory can be described as a vaccination against future arguments? a. identification b. balance c. consistency d. inoculation Ans: d 39. When someone is asked to engage in activities counter to their values, beliefs, and attitudes this is known as which theory? a. induced compliance b. inoculation c. identification d. balance Ans: a 40. Tickets to the NCAA Final Four basketball game become of great value because they are scarce. This is an example which theory at work? a. induced compliance b. psychological reactance c. inoculation d. none of the above Ans: b 41. The majority of persuasive interactions fail a. in the last few seconds b. during the attention step in the opening c. during the closing d. due to poor first impressions Ans: b 42. When creating a need or desire, which of the following is a recommendation? a. develop several points at a time b. encourage interaction c. both a and b d. none of the above Ans: b 43. Agreeing upon criteria for evaluating possible solutions enables you to do all of the following except a. build a foundation of agreements. b. deal with objections. c. determine your purpose. d. compare solutions. Ans: c 44. Interviewees remember what percentage of what they both see and do? a. 10% b. 50% c. 100% d. 90% Ans: d 45. When you bad mouth the competition, this is known as a. affirmative selling. b. negative selling. c. cognitive dissonance. d. identification. Ans: b 46. Which of the following is an importance of using repetition? a. enhance understanding b. gain and maintain attention c. make the interviewee aware of what is most important d. all of the above Ans: d 47. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the closing of a persuasive interview? a. leave taking b. filling out a contract c. trial closing d. establish criteria Ans: d 48. If the client is asking to delay the decision, you might best use which closing technique? a. I'll think it over close b. a price close c. summary close d. either-or close Ans: a 49. Which of the following is an effective approach to hostile interviewees? a. implicative approach b. yes-yes approach c. yes-but approach d. all of the above Ans: d 50. When individuals disagree with your proposal, responding, "many clients I speak to feel that way, however...." is an example of using a. shock absorber phrases. b. authoritarian interviewing. c. bipolar trap. d. none of the above Ans: a 51. What theory best applies to shopping-around interviewees? a. identification b. inoculation c. dissonance d. none of the above Ans: b 52. The authors recommend a series of steps to handle objections. Which of the following is that series? a. plan, listen, clarify, respond b. listen, plan, respond, close c. attention, need, satisfaction, action d. none of the above Ans: a 53. "Everyone's going to The Pub after class," is an example of a. identification. b. bandwagon tactic. c. association. d. bifurcation. Ans: b 54. "If we can make ours accessible to students with severe disabilities, you can too," is an example of a. arguing from accepted belief. b. arguing from condition. c. arguing from two choices. d. arguing from example. Ans: b 55. An interviewer who claims that since B followed A, A must have caused B, is using a a. comparison tactic. b. thin entering wedge tactic. c. bifurcation tactic. d. post hoc fallacy. Ans: d 56. Herbert Simons suggests which question to assess your honesty? a. How will I feel about myself after this communicative act? b. Could I justify my act publicly if called to do so? c. both a and b d. none of the above Ans: c 57. The belief that "you get what you pay for," is an example of a. contrast principle. b. standard/learned principle. c. reciprocal concessions. d. rejection then retreat. Ans: b 58. When we believe that one item is more different than it actually is, this is known as a. contrast principle. b. standard/learned principle. c. reciprocal concessions. d. rejection then retreat. Ans: a 59. If we buy a timeshare after getting a free cruise, meal, and hotel stay because we feel an obligation, which psychological strategy is present? a. rejection then threat b. rule of reciprocation c. standard/learned principle d. contrast principle Ans: b 60. If you tell your roommate that if she cooks dinner, you will wash the dishes, you have used which psychological strategy? a. rejection then threat b. reciprocal concession c. contrast principle d. standard/learned principle Ans: b 61. If the local Little League catcher asks for a $5 donation and you refuse and then he follows-up with an offer of a $1 candy bar and you buy that, which psychological strategy has been used? a. rejection then retreat b. reciprocal concession c contrast principle d. standard/learned principle Ans: a 62. What is the term for replacing the word "restroom" with "powder room?" a. imagery b. strategic ambiguity c. euphemism d. differentiation Ans: c 63. When Sarah says, "We should approve the new charter school since everyone is for it," she is using what fallacy of reasoning? a. polarizing b. ad hominem c. slippery slope d. bandwagon Ans: d 64. Which of the following creates in the mind of the listener a fear of a serious chain of events? a. thin entering wedge b. domino effect c. slippery slope d. all of the above Ans: d 65 If your university began using the phrase, "You can get there from here," in their new billboard ads, this is known as a a. slogan. b. cliché. c. euphemism. d tu quoque. Ans: a 66. When you attack a person by discrediting them it is known as a. tabloid thinking. b. ad hominem. c. slippery slope. d. ad populum. Ans: b 67. If you ate at a restaurant once and complained about one bad meal, this might be an example of what type of faulty reasoning? a. ad hominem b. hasty generalization c. slippery slope d. post hoc fallacy Ans: b 68. "I washed my car today and that is why it rained tonight," is an example of which faulty reasoning? a. post hoc b. ad hominem c. ad populum d. false analogy Ans: a True or False 69. Arguing from condition is based on the assertion that there are only two possible courses of action. a. True b. False Ans: b 70. Persuasive interviews usually should have routine openings. a. True b. False Ans: b 71. Persuasion is not something you do to a person, but with a person. a. True b. False Ans: a 72. You should put your strongest point first or last and weaker points in the middle. a. True b. False Ans: a 73. There should be a lengthy rapport stage in the persuasive interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 74. After a trial closing, be quiet. a. True b. False Ans: a 75. Richard Johannesen states "ethical issues focus on value judgments concerning degrees of right or wrong." a. True b. False Ans: a 76. The orientation step is essential when there is no relational history. a. True b. False Ans: a 77. Uncertain future is a possible objection an interviewee might have. a. True b. False Ans: a 78. Leave taking should be done quickly. a. True b. False Ans: b 79. A fact is something that can be or has been observed. a. True b. False Ans: a 80. Theories are efforts to explain complex human activities through careful examination of what happens in the real world. a. True b. False Ans: a 81. Research suggests that putting your strongest point first has the best effect. a. True b. False Ans: b 82. Virtually every persuasive strategy can be labeled manipulative. a. True b. False Ans: a 83. A persuasive speech is like a speech to an audience of one. a. True b. False Ans: b 84. Values are the foundations of our specific beliefs and attitudes. a. True b. False Ans: a 85. Asking a subordinate to role-play a supervisor would be an example of induced compliance theory being applied. a. True b. False Ans: a 86. A variety of evidence should be used when trying to persuade. a. True b. False Ans: a 87. Attitudes are fleeting beliefs that change given our contact with others. a. True b. False Ans: b 88. You should establish criteria with the interviewee shortly before the trial closing to see if the interviewee is ready to "close the deal." a. True b. False Ans: b 89. The most effective interview is a carefully crafted blend of the logical and psychological. a. True b. False Ans: a 90. Memberships that the interviewee maintains may make them less persuadable. a. True b. False Ans: a 91. Some cultures consider bribing to be a normal part of doing business. a. True b. False Ans: a 92. An either-or close ends with the solution you advocate. a. True b. False Ans: a 93. Scams often work because of simple greed. a. True b. False Ans: a 94. If we like the interviewer we often assume a proposal is logical. a. True b. False Ans: a 95. Persuasion involves mutual responsibility. a. True b.False

chapter 10

An interviewer's self-disclosure of personal experiences helps the interviewee gain insights and new perspectives because of a. empathy. b. reduced dissonance. c. a supportive climate. d. an equalized relationship. Ans: d 17. Research indicates that a. females disclose significantly more about themselves than do males. b. males disclose more about intimate topics such as sex. c. a person's self-disclosure history does not affect disclosure in counseling interviews. d. females often have psychological defenses to protect themselves from emotional reactions. Ans: a 18. Studies suggest that __________ is the most important variable in determining level of self-disclosure. a. rapport between interviewer and interviewee b. the situation c. the interviewing approach d. the relationship between interviewer and interviewee Ans: b 19. In a directive counseling interview, the interviewer assumes a. the client is capable of selecting a solution. b. the counselor is incapable of identifying the client's problem. c. the counselor knows more about the problem d. the client is capable of identifying the problem. Ans: c 20. When closing a counseling interview a. begin a new topic only when the interviewee initiates it. b. be very concerned if expectations have not been met. c. summarize the solution that has been worked out. d. be content that thought has been stirred. Ans: d 21. Which of the following is a factor to consider in the setting of the counseling interview? a. tone b. location c. climate d. all of the above Ans: d 22. Which of the following is a recommendation regarding initial comments during the opening of a counseling interview? a. avoid leading reactions b. don't second guess the interviewees reason for making an appointment c. both a and b d. none of the above Ans: c 23. Which of the following does NOT describe women in counseling interviews? a. restrict emotional reactions b. disclose significantly c. disclose intimate topics d. none of the above Ans: a 24. Which of the following describes deceptive answers? a. more hesitant b. characterized by longer pauses c. lengthier d. all of the above Ans: d 25. Which of the following types of interviewer responses give the most control to the interviewee? a. nondirective b. directive c. highly nondirective d. none of the above Ans: c 26. Research shows that interviewees who receive positive feedback a. comply more with the interviewer's requests and recommendations. b. arrive earlier. c. return more often. d. all of the above Ans: d True or False 27. It is not important to involve the interviewee actively in the closing of a counseling interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 28. Highly nondirective responses are most appropriate for simple behavioral problems. a. True b. False Ans: b 29. Research indicates that people maintain eye contact longer when they lie. a. True b. False Ans: a 30. Avoid saying, "How are we doing this afternoon?" a. True b. False Ans: a 31. It is not acceptable to combine approaches during a counseling interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 32. A round table is considered by some interviewers to be an effective type for counseling interviews. a. True b. False Ans: a 33. Situation is the least important variable in determining self disclosure. a. True b. False Ans: b 34. If you are not a professional therapist and are helping someone you may be called a lay counselor. a. True b. False Ans: a 35. A common mistake in a counseling interview is asking too few questions. a. True b. False Ans: b 36. Be careful of questions beginning with "Why," in the counseling interview. a. True b. False Ans: a 37. Use informational probes for clarification and explanation. a. True b. False Ans: a 38. Avoid curious probes into feelings and embarrassing incidents. a. True b. False Ans: a 39. Nonverbal reactions such as raising an eyebrow assist in the effectiveness of the counseling interview. a. True b. False Ans: b

chapter 11

Studies reveal that a. men spend more time with health care providers and are more active communicators. b. older patients are more likely to challenge the authority of physicians. c. patients from Asia are more assertive. d. women's concerns are taken less seriously by health care providers. Ans: d 18. One study indicated that 20% of staff interactions in nursing homes qualifies as a. baby talk b. empowered speech c. self-disclosure d. none of the above Ans: a 19. When getting information in health care interviews, use a a. funnel sequence. b. inverted funnel sequence. c. tunnel sequence. d. quintamensional design sequence. Ans: a 20. Spiers has shown that politeness theory can enhance communication by a. disclosing the stark nature of many interactions. b. masking embarrassment and fear. c. easing social interaction by providing a realistic form of verbal interaction. d. easing social interaction through a ritualistic form of verbal interaction. Ans: d 21. Kreps and Thornton have discovered that consumers use which of the following to explain their ailments? a. analogies b. stories c. illustrations d. media reports Ans: b 22. Which of the following is not a barrier to information getting in health care interviews? a. Mothers spontaneously recall only about half of their children's major illnesses. b. When patients feel ashamed, they tend to make allegorical statements such as "You know how old people are." c. Patients may give short answers to end an uncomfortable interview. d. Frightened patients may unintentionally minimize symptoms. Ans: d 23. Which of the following is a growing movement in U.S. health care? a. diversity movement b. anti-malpractice movement c. patient-centered care d. none of the above Ans: c 24. Which of the following does NOT describe women in the health care interview? a. more concerned about health b. are more domineering c. spend more time with health providers d. providers take their concerns less seriously Ans: b 25. Which of the following cultures highly prize nonverbal communication? a. American b. German c. Asian d. none of the above Ans: c 26. Breaches of confidentiality may lead to which of the following? a. discrimination b. economic devastation c. social stigma d. all of the above Ans: d 27. Which of the following technique is NOT listed as a way to improve information getting? a. pauses b. nodding the head c. interrupting d. eye contact Ans: c 28. Tag questions are used to a. elicit information. b. confirm information. c. summarize. d. all of the above Ans: d 29. Which of the following type patient tends to be provided more information? a. older b. female c. educated d. all of the above Ans: d 30. Ley found that patients given seven or more items to remember within a few hours after the health care interview had what level of recall? a. 82% b. 12% c. 36% d. 3% Ans: d 31. All of the following are blocking tactics to avoid in counseling or persuading in the health care interview except a. making jokes. b. asking questions. c. ignoring the patient. d. leaving the room. Ans: b 32. It is essential to use which type of probe as an initial closing device in the health care interview? nudging clearinghouse silent restatement Ans: b True or False 33. One study found that 20% of patients did not know the meaning of common medical terms. a. True b. False Ans: a 34. Your book recommends that health care providers use the inverted funnel sequence. a. True b. False Ans: b 35. Health care providers should encourage storytelling. a. True b False Ans: a 36. The success of the interview may be due to the number of words the provider does not say. a. True b. False Ans: a 37. Patients seen as lower class tend to get more optimistic diagnoses and prognoses than do those of the upper class. a. True b. False Ans: b 38. Doctors should set the pace of the health care interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 39. Experts claim that most malpractice cases were due to poor communication. a. True b. False Ans: a 40. Humor is inappropriate when a patient's health, perhaps even life, is at stake. a. True b. False Ans: b 41. Compliance is particularly low when instructions to patients are preventative in nature. a. True b. False Ans: a 42. The physician—not the patient—must articulate reasons for making or not making a change. a. True b. False Ans: b 43. It is good to employ routine openings in the health care interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 44. Telephone calls account for 75% of health care interviews. a. True b. False Ans: b 45. Most health care workers are task oriented. a. True b. False Ans: a 46. Patients are ordinarily compliant to physician's instructions. a. True b. False Ans: b 47. Empathy increases patient satisfaction and reduces time and expense. a. True b. False Ans: a

chapter 12

hree popular question strategies are a. interval, nominal, and ordinal. b. filter, repeat, and shuffle. c. bipolar, open-to-closed, mirror. d. dynamic, static, and meaningful. Ans: b 20. Three question scale techniques are a. bipolar, contingency, and serial. b. chain, leaning, and contingency. c. interval, nominal, and ordinal. d. filter, repeat, and leaning. Ans: c 21. Systematic sampling can be done in the following ways: a. random sample, skip interval sample, and stratified random sample. b. filter sample, repeat sample, and leaning sample. c. interval sample, nominal sample, and ordinal sample. d. the phone book, Internet, and video talk-back. Ans: a 22. Margin of error refers to a. the level of confidence in results. b. the acceptable percentage of interviewees who provide incorrect answers. c. errors resulting from poor question phrasing. d. the probability that each person might be selected in your sample. Ans: d 23. Another name for skip interval sampling is a. random digit sampling. b. random numbers. c. block sampling. d. sample point. Ans: a 24. The term "sample point" refers to a. a geographical area in that contains specific types of persons. b. the point at which a survey reaches its prescribed margin of error. c. the numerical point at which interviewers have obtained the necessary sample. d. the target population for a survey. Ans: a 25. A question strategy designed to determine interviewee knowledge of a topic is a a. filter strategy b. leaning strategy. c. repeat strategy. d. shuffle strategy. Ans: a 26. Which question scale asks respondents to rate or rank options? a. nominal scale b. ordinal scale c. numerical scale d. Bogardus social distance scale Ans: b 27. Which of the following is NOT a finding in studies of telephone interviews? a. Many interviewers do not like to interview by telephone. b. There is a low degree of cooperation in telephone interviews. c. Older interviewees prefer to be interviewed by telephone. d. People feel uneasy about discussing sensitive issues over the telephone. Ans: c 28. Which of the following question strategies is designed to reduce undecided answers? a. shuffle strategy b. leaning strategy c. leading strategy d. filter strategy Ans: b 29. One study revealed that the most important elements in shaping interviewee attitudes toward surveys are a. personality and attitude of the interviewer. b. age and similarity of interviewer and interviewee. c. the opening and first question. d. gender and ethnic group of interviewees. Ans: a 30. If you select every tenth name from a telephone directory for a survey, you are using a b. stratified random sampling. c. sampling point. d. table of random numbers. e. skip interval. Ans: d 31. When conducting research, one should explore a. the past. b. the present. c. attempted solutions. d. all of the above. Ans: d 32. A survey interview guide requires a. primary questions. b. probing questions. c. both a and b. d. none of the above. Ans: c 33. Which of the following question strategies allow the interviewer to determine the interviewee's knowledge of a topic? a. repeat b. filter c. shuffle d. chain Ans: b 34. "If you were to vote today, for which mayoral candidate would you vote?" is an example of which of the following type of question? a. loaded b. leaning c. leading d. bipolar Ans: b 35. Which strategy helps prevent negative or superficial evaluations due to boredom or fatigue? a. shuffle b. chain c. filter d. repeat Ans: a 36. Evaluate the following statement: "I like Aroma coffee best." 1 Strongly Agree 2 Agree 3 Neither agree nor disagree 4 Disagree 5 Strongly Disagree The above question scale is known as: interval. nominal. ordinal. all of the above Ans: a 37. If you asked someone on a survey to rank order a list, you would be using which type of scale? a. interval b. ordinal c. nominal d. cardinal Ans: b 38. When someone wants to discover how deeply someone would be comfortable with a proposition and they ask questions that bring the proposition closer to their own backyard, this is known as which scale? a. ordinal b. Bogardus Social Distance c. nominal d. interval Ans: b 39. Which of the following should a survey designer avoid when planning scale questions? a. long scales b. complicated rating procedures c. lengthy explanations d. all of the above Ans: d 40. If your margin of error is within 5 percentage points, you have set your level of confidence at which of the following? a. 98% b. 95% c. 85% d. 100% Ans: b 41. If 50 was the answer tabulated on your survey and your margin of error was at 5%, you would be confident (if you had a random sample) that the correct answer would fall between what range? a. 45-55 b. 50-55 c. 45-50 d. none of the above Ans: a 42. If you take a phone book of a city and pick the seventh name and count down the next seven and so on, until you have a large enough sample size, this is known as: a. table of random numbers. b. skip interval. c. stratified sample. d. sample point. Ans: b 43. If you have a target population such as senior citizens (65 years and older), which sampling technique may be best for you to employ? a. sample point b. self-selection c. stratified random d. skip interval Ans: c 44. Older interviewers may generate which of the following? a. credibility b. self-confidence c. optimism d. all of the above Ans: d 45. Research shows that training interviewers results in greater use of all of the following except a. appropriate probing questions. b. appropriate feedback. c. appropriate instruction giving. d. larger margin of error. Ans: d 46. Which of the following is true about face-to-face interview? a. Respondents are more likely to provide self-generated answers. b. Interviewers are confined to asking simple questions. c. Respondents are less inclined to participate in longer interviews. d. Respondents tend to provide less truthful answers. Ans: a 47. Which of the following describes the findings of research on using the telephone for surveys? a. Many interviewers do not like telephone interviews. b. Older interviewees do not like telephone interviews. c. There is a lower degree of cooperation on the telephone. d. all of the above Ans: d 48. Which of the following is NOT part of the final phase of survey interviewing? a. design b. coding c. tabulation d. analysis Ans: a 49. Which type of question may require analysis and structuring before coding can be done? a. standardized b. closed c. open d. none of the above Ans: c 50. Which of the following is NOT a question to ask during analysis of data? a. What conclusions can you draw? b. Why did people respond in specific ways to specific questions? c. What individuals should we interview? d. What should be done with blanks on the survey forms? Ans: c 51. An increasing number of interviews are taking place through a. email b. Web pages c. computer d. all of the above Ans: d True or False 52. The chain strategy is also known as the contingency strategy. a. True b. False Ans: a 53. A highly scheduled standardized interview requires the interviewer to be an expert on the topic of the survey. a. True b. False Ans: b 54. The opening of a survey is a critical time for the respondent to determine if it is a slick sales effort. a. True b. False Ans: a 55. A Likert scale is also known as an evaluative interval. a. True b. False Ans: a 56. It is acceptable to wear campaign buttons when conducting research surveys. a. True b. False Ans: b 57. It is important to ask all questions exactly as worded. a. True b. False Ans: a 58. It is appropriate to maintain a pleasant "poker face" when administering a survey. a. True b. False Ans: a 59. It is acceptable to discuss the survey with the interviewee after closing the interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 60. Content seems to be more important than speaking skills during the opening of the telephone interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 61. Internet surveys lose the critical nonverbal communication element. a. True b. False Ans: a 62. As an interviewer, long silences in telephone interviews should not be filled with "uh-huh's". a. True b. False Ans: b 63. A recent study indicated that the common nonmonetary incentive, such as a ballpoint pen, does not increase response rates through reduction in interview refusal rates. a. True b. False Ans: b 64. Random sampling can be achieved by putting the names of all population members into a container and drawing them out one-by-one until you have a large enough sample size. a. True b. False Ans: a 65. Sample point and block sample are the same type of sampling techniques. a. True b. False Ans: a 66. Interviewers should dress differently than those they will be interviewing. a. True b. False Ans: b 67. A repeat question should be obvious and appear closely after the first time the question appears. a. True b. False Ans: b 68. A leaning question is the same as a leading question. a. True b. False Ans: b 69. Numerical interval scales ask respondents to select a range or level that accurately reflects their age, income, or educational levels. a. True b. False Ans: a 70. If you are conducting a qualitative survey, you will likely present your findings in words, not numbers. a. True b. False Ans: a 71. Openings of surveys should be written out and recited verbatim. a. True b. False Ans: a 72. Nominal scales must have mutually exclusive answer options. a. True b. False Ans: a 73. In surveys, the interviewee is given an opportunity to refuse to take part. a. True b. False Ans: b 74. Often no group is identified as to the sponsorship of the survey. a. True b. False Ans: a 75. The majority of refusals in telephone surveys occur prior to the first substantive question. a. True b. False Ans: a 76. The closing of an interview may ask for the respondent's address and/or phone number. a. True b. False Ans: a 77. The identified population for your survey should include all persons who are able and qualified to respond to your questions. a. True b. False Ans: a 78. In sampling, each potential respondent from a defined population must have an equal opportunity of being selected. a. True b. False Ans: a 79. A study of the effects of question order suggests that specific questions should come first, followed by more general questions. a. True b. False Ans: b 80. It is all right to rephrase a survey question if the respondent does not understand. a. True b. False Ans: b 81. It is best not to word survey questions negatively. a. True b. False Ans: a 82. In surveys, secondary questions can be used to discover reasons for strong approval or disapproval. a. True b. False Ans: a 83. Some researchers have discovered that phrasing questions negatively can avoid misleading and confusing respondents. a. True b. False Ans: b 84. Flexibility and adaptability describe survey interviews. a. True b. False Ans: b 85. Reliability and replicability are achieved through a systematic approach to preparing and conducting interviews and analyzing results. a. True b. False Ans: a 86. Long survey interviews are less reliable. a. True b. False Ans: b 87. Critical nonverbal communication is enhanced in Internet interviews. a. True b. False Ans: b

chapter 6

Recruiters should use a a. nonscheduled or moderately scheduled interview. b. moderately scheduled or highly scheduled interview. c. highly scheduled or highly scheduled standardized interview. d. moderately scheduled or highly scheduled standardized interview. Ans: b 17. Interviewers tend to believe that the best predictor of future performance is a. level of education and training. b. past experience. c. motivation. d. past behavior. Ans: d 18. A sure way to make sure you are asking a legal question is to apply the test of a. fairness. b. comparability. c. job relatedness. d. understanding. Ans: c 19. The honesty of applicants is a serious concern of interviewers, and studies have suggested that a. honesty can best be determined through information about the applicant and a probing interview. b. a reading of an applicant's verbal and nonverbal reactions to questions is not an accurate way to assess honesty. c. truthful applicants acknowledge the probability of employee theft but suggest leniency for first time offenders. d. honesty tests can screen out a tremendous percentage of perfectly honest applicants. Ans: d 20. Which question pitfall is unique to the selection interview? a. open-to-closed switch b. leading push c. evaluative response d. yes (no) response Ans: c 21. Which of the following nontraditional question strategies are becoming common in recruiting interviews? a. contingency questions b. critical incidents questions c. don't ask, don't tell questions d. modified directional questions Ans: b 22. A recent study of employers and applicants discovered that a. 27 percent thought it was acceptable to ask questions about family background. b. 30 percent thought it was acceptable to ask about the candidate's spouse. c. 45 percent thought it was acceptable to ask about the applicant's personal life. d. all of the above Ans: d 23. Which of the following is true of unstructured recruiting interviews? a. Applicants tend to talk more. b. Recruiters tend to make their decisions within the first four minutes. c. Factual and biographical information is covered inconsistently. d. Each interviewer follows a prescribed interview structure. Ans: b 24. Research indicates that a. the panel interview is less effective in predicting job performance. b. interviewers prefer the panel interview to the traditional approach. c. applicants prefer the panel interview to the traditional approach. d. the panel interview is more effective in predicting job performance. Ans: d 25. Which one of the following questions is unlawful? a. How would you react if we decided to transfer you at the end of the first six months? b. Tell me about a time when you have had to deal with an irate customer. c. What does your spouse do for a living? d. If you observed a fellow employee stealing something from a job, what would you do? Ans: c 26. Which of the following is a good source for job candidates? a. ethnic organizations b. electronic resources c. college professors d. all of the above Ans: d 27. Monster.com is an example of a. a library database. b. a job search website. c. an online general knowledge site. d. all of the above Ans: b 28. Which of the following orders federal contractors to hire persons with disabilities, including alcoholism, asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, and epilepsy? a. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 b. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 c. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 d. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 Ans: c 29. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 provides which of the following? a. reasonable accommodation b. hiring quotas c. specialized tools d. none of the above Ans: a 30. Bona fide Occupational Qualifications (BFOQs) include which of the following? a. education b. ethnic group c. citizenship d. age Ans: a 31. BFOQs generally exclude all of the following except a. physical appearance. b. physical attributes. c. disabilities. d. citizenship. Ans: b 32. Which of the following is probed often even though it is an EEO violation? a. arrest records b. age c. marital status d. all of the above Ans: d 33. The list of skills, knowledge, experience, and personal traits against which all potential hires are measured is known as a. applicant profile. b. interview guide. c. job application. d. none of the above Ans: a 34. When interviewers favor applications who are most similar to them, this is called a. behavior based system. b. birds of a feather syndrome. c. researcher bias. d. all of the above. Ans: b 35. According to the behavior based selection technique, which of the following principles is true? a. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior. b. Behavior that is not seen must be probed. c. Behavior that is not observed cannot be read. d. Job related behavior in the interview is no a good predictor of future job performance. Ans: a 36. Which of the following do today's applicants NOT prefer from interviewers? a. reading questions b. being stuck to a schedule c. canned presentations d. all of the above Ans: d 37. Employment related tests tend to screen out which of the following? a. women more than men b. white Americans more than black Americans c. younger rather than older applicants d. European Americans rather than Hispanics Ans: a 38. Which of the following is a personality test used in organizations today? a. Gregoric Style Delineator b. Wilson Analogy c. Miller's Analogies d. none of the above Ans: b 39. Which of the following results of a study on integrity interviews discussed truthful applicants? a. reply without hesitation b. reject the idea of leniency for dishonesty c. acknowledge the probability of employee theft d. all of the above Ans: d 40. Hypothetical question scenarios in integrity tests use questions in which of the following areas? a. interpersonal deception b. security violation c. sexual harassment d. all of the above Ans: d 41. What type of interview technique uses highly structured questions and evaluates applicants on behaviorally defined dimensions? a. honesty tests b. behavior-based selection c. chain strategy d. quintamensional design Ans: b 42. Which of the following was NOT listed as a technique of conscious transparency? a. share information with applicants b. explain the purpose of questions c. promote restricted dialogue d. provide a less defensive climate Ans: c 43. Which of the following is a nontraditional interviewing approach? a. team, panel, or board b. chain format c. seminar format d. all of the above Ans: d 44. "Tell me about your job at XYZ corporation and your internship at KDKB," is an example of which question pitfall? a. leading push b. open to closed switch c. double-barreled inquisition d. bipolar trap Ans: c 45. Which of the following is NOT a question pitfall particular to the recruiting interview? a. evaluative response b. resume question c. EEO violation d. none of the above Ans: d 46. Using a variety of question strategies in interviews can eliminate a. self-promotion b. ingratiation c. both a and b. d. none of the above Ans: c 47. Which of the following is NOT one of the nontraditional approaches to recruiting? a. hypothetical situations b. case approach c. critical incidents d. education and training Ans: d 48. Before giving information to the applicant, the authors recommend asking which of the following questions? a. What do you know about our organization? b. What does your spouse do? c. Were you ever charged with a crime? d. Are you a Republican? Ans: a True or False 49. Honesty tests have a very low percentage of error in screening out honest applicants. a. True b. False Ans: b 50. "Tell me about yourself," is a good opening for a recruitment interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 51. Interviewers tend to make their decisions within the first four minutes. a. True b. False Ans: a 52. When recruiters ask about actual events that have occurred within their organization to see how the applicant would handle the problem, this is known as critical incident questions. a. True b. False Ans: a 53. The inverted funnel technique is useful to test applicants; switch to the funnel technique once the applicant is perceived as qualified. a. True b. False Ans: a 54. The closing of the interview may produce EEO violations. a. True b. False Ans: a 55. Applicants today are more interested in strong reputations than in brand name. a. True b. False Ans: a 56. Attraction to the interviewer is the strongest predictor of the applicant's attraction to the organization. a. True b. False Ans: a 57. According to Tom Peters, today "talent rules." a. True b. False Ans: a 58. Professionally conducted interviews also present good impressions of organizations. a. True b. False Ans: a 59. Interviewers only violate EEO laws unknowingly. a. True b. False Ans: b 60. It is okay to ask questions about a person's political beliefs in an employment interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 61. Covering factual information from the resume is acceptable in the recruiting interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 62. The authors suggest allowing applicants to speak 80% of the time in an interview in order to learn more about the applicant. a. True b. False Ans: a 63. Asking questions about a person's spouse during an interview is unlawful. a. True b. False Ans: a 64. It is a good idea to remove photos from applications due to potentially unlawful use. a. True b. False Ans: a 65. Resume scanning systems may identify a candidate who knows the system, but may not be the most qualified. a. True b. False Ans: a 66. The interview evaluation standardized section should contain biographical information. a. True b. False Ans: b 67. A task force of the American Psychological Association concluded that the honesty tests used currently identify individuals with a high propensity for stealing in the workplace. a. True b. False Ans: a 68. There are always two applicants in each interview, the real one and the make believe. a. True b. False Ans: a 69. It's okay to ask the applicant to call you by your first name during the opening of the employment interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 70. Some recruiters of sales persons often use an interviewee-controlled approach to hiring. a. True b. False Ans: a 71. The EEOC is concerned with intent, not effect. a. True b. False Ans: b 72. An applicant profile reduces the "birds-of-a-feather" syndrome. a. True b. False Ans: a 73. Establishing legally defensible criteria is an important step in avoiding lawsuits. a. True b. False Ans: a

chapter 7

Three types of resumes applicants might create today are a. blocked, indented, and chronological. b. functional, profile, and academic. c. scannable, profile, and blocked. d. chronological, functional, and scannable. Ans: d 17. Impressive career objectives are NOT a. brief. b. career-oriented. c. self-centered. d. precise. Ans: c 18. Which of the following is a major advantage of a functional resume format? a. It is easy to organize. b. It emphasizes experiences. c. It focuses attention on relevant skills. d. It is most commonly encountered by employers. Ans: c 19. Recruiters react more favorably toward applicants if they do all of the following except a. respond cautiously. b. smile. c. have expressive facial expressions. d. maintain eye contact without staring. Ans: a 20. Recent studies reveal that 50 percent of all speech acts in a sample of employment interviews were a. declarative statements. b. employer questions. c. applicant answers. d. employer answers. Ans: a 21. In a functional resume format, you should a. delete the career objective to save space. b. place your experiences under headings that highlight your qualifications. c. list work experiences in reverse chronological order. d. list references last. Ans: b 22. Successful applicants tend to a. give brief answers. b. include qualifiers in their answers. c. try to second-guess interviewers so they are ready to answer. d. use professional jargon. Ans: d 23. The essential first step to locating and obtaining the position you want is a. research on the company. b. buying a new wardrobe. c. self analysis. d. drafting a resume. Ans: c 24. Self analysis involves identifying which of the following? a. personality strengths and weaknesses b. professional strengths and weaknesses c. communicative strengths and weaknesses d. all of the above Ans: d 25. Most valued needs include all of the following except a. long range goals. b. free time. c. possessions. d. family. Ans: a 26. What information about the recruiter may be helpful to research prior to the interview? a. their position b. professional background c. personality d. all of the above Ans: d 27. Which of the factors below are things you should learn about the organization to which you are applying? a. potential mergers b. financial status c. geographical locations d. all of the above Ans: d 28. A study found which of the following to be true about a first impression in interviews? a. It's based on 7% spoken words b. It's based on 38% tone of voice c. It's based on 55% body language d. all of the above Ans: d 29 Which of the following is a website geared to assist in the interview process? a. www.references-etc.com b. www.askjeeves.com c. www.yahoochat.com d. www.monster.com Ans: d 30. The common two-step process of interviewing is a. screening, determinate. b. honesty, screening. c. determinate, hypothetical. d. hypothetical, screening. Ans: a 31. Recruiters usually have which of the following questions in mind? a. Can you do the job? b. Will you do the job? c. How well will you fit into the organization? d. all of the above Ans: d 32. Which of the following is NOT a service provided by placement agencies? a. develop resumes b. self analysis assistance c. assist with cover letters d. find your references Ans: d 33. Which of the following resume formats focuses attention on relevant skills to match an ideal applicant profile? a. functional b. chronological c. topical d. none of the above Ans: a 34. Which of the following are items NOT to include on your resume? a. age b. grade point average c. degrees earned d. last employer Ans: a 35. Which of the following are items that employers do NOT like on resumes? a. white space b. bullets c. typographical errors d. different printer fonts Ans: c 36. What is the name given to a collection of your work that shows you in action? a. digital story b. portfolio c. e-resume d. scannable resume Ans: b 37. What are factors to observe about the interviewer upon first contact? a. degree of liking b. similarities in age c. similarities in background d. all of the above Ans: d 38. Which of the following is NOT a common mistake made by women related to dress and appearance? a. too much jewelry b. clothing inappropriate c. scuffed shoes d. dirty nails Ans: d 39. Which of the following is a common mistake made by men related to dress and appearance? a. shirts that are too tight b. wrong style for body shape c. shoes wrong color d. all of the above Ans: d 40. Which of the following is NOT a recommended color of suit for a standard interview? a. brown b. blue c. gray d. black Ans: a 41. Which of the following nonverbal characteristics result in more favorable ratings by interviewers? a. smiling b. eye contact c. forceful voice d. all of the above Ans: d 42. If you are applying for a teaching job and were asked how you would handle a bomb scare if it happened at your school, what type of question strategy would that be? a. historical critical incident b. task oriented c. hypothetical d. past experience Ans: c 43. If the company's manager asks you how you would handle a problem her company is having with employee theft, which type of question strategy is that? a. current critical incident b. task oriented c. past experience d. hypothetical Ans: a 44. Ralston, Kirkwood, and Burant found that behavioral questions are asking applicants to a. make excuses. b. tell stories. c. lie. d. self-promote. Ans: b 45. Saying "um" or "uhh" is which of the following forms of nonassertive answer? a. qualifier b. nonfluency c. slang d. vagueness Ans: b 46. If you respond to an unlawful question by saying "Is this a test to see how I might respond to an unlawful question?," this technique is known as a. tactful inquiry. b. neutralizing. c. tongue-in-cheek test response. d. taking advantage of the question. Ans: c 47. Asking questions of the recruiter gives him/her what type of information about you? a. maturity b. professionalism c. interests d. all of the above Ans: d True or False 48. When handling rejection, don't be a victim. a. True b. False Ans: a 49. A resume is your silent sales representative. a. True b. False Ans: a 50. Interviewers prefer standard accents. a. True b. False Ans: a 51. Be prepared to answer unlawful questions tactfully and effectively. a. True b. False Ans: a 52. Use the cover letter to explain for what position you are applying. a. True b. False Ans: a 53. The interview is over before the interviewer walks you to the elevator or out to the door. a. True b. False Ans: b 54. It is important to follow-up an interview with a brief letter thanking the interviewer for his/her time. a. True b. False Ans: a 55. If you have done something wrong in the past, it is best to provide an excuse for the behavior. a. True b. False Ans: b 56. Unlawful questions are often asked during lunch or dinner. a. True b. False Ans: a 57. If a resume is included, the cover letter does not need to specify the position for which you are applying. a. True b. False Ans: b 58. If you do not know the person who is receiving your cover letter, using "To whom it may concern" is equally acceptable. a. True b. False Ans: b 59. A man should be able to insert one finger inside his buttoned collar or it is too tight. a. True b. False Ans: a 60. Two-page cover letters are acceptable. a. True b. False Ans: b 61. Volunteer experience should not be included on your resume. a. True b. False Ans: b 62. The chronological format lists experiences in chronological order. a. True b. False Ans: b 63. Passive verbs should be used in your resume. a. True b. False Ans: b 64. Most organizations reject candidates that have less than 50% of the required skills. a. True b. False Ans: a 65. The changing labor market suggests taking a part time position to gain work experience. a. True b. False Ans: a 66. On resumes, educational background is listed in reverse chronological order. a. True b. False Ans: a 67. Never use more than a one-page resume. a. True b. False Ans: b 68. Most universities have a free placement agency. a. True b. False Ans: a 69. On your resume, it is acceptable to have a nickname at the top of the page. a. True b. False Ans: b 70. On your resume, it is okay to use abbreviations for names of courses you have taken to shorten the length. a. True b. False Ans: b 71. In fee-paid positions, you pay an agency for finding you a job. a. True b. False Ans: b 72. In percentage agencies, the employer pays a fee to find them applicants. a. True b. False Ans: b 73. A recent study indicated that half of all "speech acts" in interviews are declarative statements rather than questions and answers. a. True b. False Ans: a 74. Some authorities recommend that an applicant should arrive a few minutes late to an interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 75. Some interviews are done via video conference. a. True b. False Ans: a 76. A factor to consider in your self analysis is your tolerance for risk in stock plans. a. True b. False Ans: a 77. You should develop your resume before you start conducting research on your field. a. True b. False Ans: b 78. Looking at potential upcoming mergers is an example of an area to research about organizations. a. True b. False Ans: a

chapter 8

Research suggests that the panel approach produces all of the following except a. higher validation of judgment. b. reduced perception of favoritism. c. less realistic promotion expectations. d. better developmental action planning. Ans: c 18. In Cash's Universal Performance Interviewing Model, the six basic words are a. right, wrong, stop, begin, never, caution. b. improvement, frustration, elimination, good, always, and now. c. start, stop, more, less, keep, now. d. failing, below average, average, satisfactory, above average, and excellent. Ans: c 19. A halo effect occurs when a. an interviewer gives favorable ratings to all job duties when the interviewee excels in only one. b. interviewers give negative ratings to all facets of performance because of a particular trait they dislike in others. c. interviewers refrain from assigning extreme ratings to facets of performance. d. interviewers believe that no one can perform at the necessary standards. Ans: a 20. When confronted with a serious performance problem, the interviewee should a. avoid suggesting ways to solve differences as quickly as possible. b. try to improve everything as quickly as possible. c. set priorities with both short- and long-range goals. d. tell the supervisor off to level the playing field. Ans: c 21. Catalytic coaching is which of the following? a. future, rather than past centered b. places responsibility on the employee c. deals with salary d. all of the above Ans: d 22. The Universal Performance Interviewing Model a. is based on the belief that managerial competencies lead to effective behaviors that lead to effective performance. b. involves the manager and the subordinate in a mutual setting of results-oriented goals. c. centers on four basic questions dealing with what is not being done, expectations not being met, what the person could do, and does the person have the necessary skills. d. involves skills used on a specific job being identified through a job analysis, standards being set, and the aid of industrial engineers. Ans: c 23. Goodall, Wilson, and Waagen warn that communication between "superiors" and "inferiors" in the review process leads to a. ritual forms of address. b. organizational stereotypes. c. inappropriate etiquette. d. a defensive climate. Ans: a 24. A developmental perspective sees the performance interview as all of the following except a. required by the organization. b. subordinate conducted. c. bottom-up controlled. d. results based. Ans: c 25. Shula and Blanchard offered a basic set of principles for coaching including all of the following except a. over-learning b. audible ready c. comic relief d. honesty based Ans: c 26. Which of the following guidelines are true for performance interviews? a. provide them on a regular basis b. provide them only when necessary c. avoid surprises during the interview d. both a and c Ans: d 27. Which of the following is NOT a result of an effective performance review system? a. compensation is more than salary b. achieve balance among all facets of the organization c. a high performance organization d. punish poor workers Ans: d 28. The first step to prepare for the interviewer role in the performance review is a. read your organization's regulations and policies for reviewing employees. b. set up the appointment. c. meet the review candidate. d. none of the above Ans: a 29. Performance review models establish which of the following? a. goals and expectations b. competencies c. performance d. all of the above Ans: d 30. Those evaluated using the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) Model report high levels of a. satisfaction. b. dissatisfaction. c. hostility. d. all of the above Ans: a 31. The MBO model classifies work under all of the following except a. throughputs. b inputs. c. outputs. d. feedback. Ans: a 32. According to Cash, which of the following techniques are best to be used first when presenting a problem to an employee? a. correction b. hint c. suggestion d. none of the above Ans: b 33. Each participant in the 360-degree approach comes to feedback sessions with a. behavior change input. b. coaching input. c. both a and b. d. pay recommendations. Ans: c 34. Don Shula and Ken Blanchard developed a basic set of principles for improving employee performance. They form what acronym? a. CHANGE b. CHOICE c. COACH d. PLAYBOOK Ans: c 35. Which of the following is an approach to conducting the performance review interview? a. appraisal b. developmental c. both a and b d. none of the above Ans: c 36. Using a panel approach to the performance review provides all of the following except a. higher judgment validation. b. better developmental action planning. c. more realistic promotion expectations. d. increased perception of favoritism. Ans: d 37. The phenomenon where all facets of an employee's ratings are negative due to the interviewer's dislike of the employee or his/her traits is a. halo effect. b. pitchfork effect. c. recency error. d. central tendency. Ans: b 38. Which of the following types of raters of performance tend NOT to point out weak areas and dwell on average or better areas of performance? a. competitive b. tight c. loose d. none of the above Ans: c 39. Goal setting should comprise what percentage of the interview process? a. 25% b. 95% c. 75% d. 10% Ans: c 40. Which of the following is NOT a valuable outcome of the performance review for the employee? a. chance to get meaningful feedback b. opportunity to display strengths c. to be shy and self-effacing d. opportunity to display accomplishments Ans: c 41. Fair and equitable treatment of each employee in a job class is called a. just cause. b. discipline. c. coaching. d. assessment. Ans: a 42. Monroe, Borzi, and DiSalvo found that responses to performance problems resulted in all of the following except a. apparent compliance. b. relational leverage. c. improvement. d. avoidance. Ans: c 43. Supervisors tend to be lenient with persons they perceive as a. likable. b. similar to themselves. c. possessing exceptional talent. d. all of the above Ans: d 44. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation suggested when conducting a difficult interview that might cause anger and/or animosity? a. consider delaying a confrontation b. ignore the problem c. include a witness or union representative d. hold the interview in a private location Ans: b True or False 45. All aspects of the employment process are covered by Civil Rights legislation. a. True b. False Ans: a 46. According to the MBO model, state results in terms of absolutes rather than ranges in the performance review. a. True b. False Ans: b 47. It is best to begin the performance review covering areas of excellence. a. True b. False Ans: a 48. Excessive praise may create anxiety. a. True b. False Ans: a 49. Documentation is the major requirement when demonstrating a need for termination. a. True b. False Ans: a 50. It is best to state your conclusions about an employee during the performance problem interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 51. The employee assists in selecting his/her evaluators in the 360-degree approach. a. True b. False Ans: a 52. Minorities are often watched more closely for infractions of rules. a. True b. False Ans: a 53. Younger workers perform better than older workers a. True b. False Ans: b 54. Prior to the performance review, the interviewer should not consult the employee's past record. a. True b. False Ans: b 55. It is not often how something is said but what is said that is important. a. True b. False Ans: b 56. The "pitchfork effect" comes about when an interviewer gives ambivalent ratings to all facets of performance because of a particular trait the interviewer likes in others. a. True b. False Ans: b 57. More frequent communication between supervisors and employees results in less favorable job-related performance ratings. a. True b. False Ans: b 58. Base your review on the individual, not on the performance. a. True b. False Ans: b 59. Evaluate poor performance immediately before damage to the organization and the employee is irreparable. a. True b. False Ans: a 60. In the Universal Performance Interviewing Model, the stop list should be the shortest. a. True b. False Ans: a 61. Authorities agree that goal setting should constitute 50 percent of the performance interview. a. True b. False Ans: b 62. When setting goals, there should be a focus on the past. a. True b. False Ans: b 63. It is important to sign off on agreements if forms are being filled out as part of a performance review. a. True b. False Ans: a 64. Employees often perceive supervisors using a BARS model to be unsupportive and report high levels of anxiety. a. True b. False Ans: b

chapter 9

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of open questions? c. They allow respondents to dwell on unimportant or irrelevant information. 15. Which of the following is not an advantage of open questions? a. They can consume a significant portion of time. 16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a highly closed question? d. Answers are easy to replicate, code, and tabulate and analyze. 17. "You agree, then, with this report?" is an example of a a. reflective probe. 18. If you feel a respondent has not completed an answer or is hesitant to go on, you might remain silent or use a a. nudging probe. 19. Which question is designed to check for accuracy of information attained during an interview? d. mirror probe 20. Which of the following is a loaded question? c. What are your experiences with those fools in the benefits office? 21. "Do you feel you can handle this position?" is an example of a d. yes (no) question. 22. If you need to verify or clarify an answer, use a a. reflective probe. 23. Questions are tools of the trade for interviewers and may be classified as: a. open/closed, primary/secondary, neutral/leading. 24. "Have you stopped speeding?" is an example of d. a loaded question. 25. The question, "How did you feel when the plane dropped 10,000 feet? Was it frightening?" is an example of which question pitfall? a. open to closed switch 26. Which of the following are types of questions? a. open or closed b. primary or secondary c. neutral or leading 27. "Tell me about your internships," is an example of what type of question? b. open 28. Which of the following is a disadvantage of open questions? a. they may provide irrelevant information b. interviewers have a difficult time maintaining control c. lengthy answers result 29. A question that limits the respondent's answer to two opposite choices is called a. bipolar. 30. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of closed questions? b. take more time 31. Which type of question introduces topics or new areas within a topic? b. primary 32. "I see" and "uh-huh" are examples of which type of probe? c. nudging 33. "Is there anything more you would like to say?" is an example of which type of probe? a. clearinghouse 34. If the interviewee does not seem to understand a question and you paraphrase it and ask it again, this is which type of probe? c. restatement 35. If the interviewer is unsure of what the respondent meant in his/her answer, which type of probe might be used? a. reflective 36. What probe summarizes a series of answers to confirm understanding? b. mirror 37. Leading questions may be a. intentional or unintentional. b. implicit or explicit. c. verbal or nonverbal. 38. Which of the following people routinely use loaded questions? a. recruiters b. police officers c. journalists 39. What types of words should one use at the beginning of questions to avoid the bipolar trap? a. what b. why c. how 40. If you ask more than one question when trying to ask one, it is called b. double-barreled inquisition. 41. When a sportscaster asks the obvious question, "Are you sorry your team lost?" they have committed what question pitfall? c. yes (no) response 42. What are ways to avoid the "don't ask, don't tell" pitfall? a. phrase questions carefully to lessen social and psychological constraints 43. Japanese often ask personal questions early in interactions. a. True 44. Open questions give more responsibility to the respondent. a. True 45. A question can be a nonverbal act that invites an answer. a. True 46. Closed questions communicate interest and trust in the respondent. b. False 47. Open-to-closed switch often occurs when the interviewer is still phrasing a question in their mind. a. True 48. Strings of closed questions fail to accomplish what a single open-ended question could do. a. True 49. Highly closed questions are those used in surveys. a. True 50. Interviewers talk more than interviewees when asking closed questions. a. True 51. Mirror and reflective probes are the same as leading questions. b. False 52. If you go along with the questioner to try to be cooperative, this may be the result of interviewer bias. a. True 53. Open questions are more likely to yield leading questions. b. False 54. The use of probing questions separates the skilled from the unskilled interviewer. a. True 55. A poorly phrased probing question may alter the meaning of the primary question. a. True 56. Leading questions allow respondents to decide upon answers without pressure from questioners. b. False 57. Interviewer bias refers to an interviewer who uses leading questions. b. False 60. A question is any statement or nonverbal act that invites an answer. a. True

chapter3

there are a number of common structures used in developing an interview guide. Among them are c. topical, time, and cause-effect. 16. Interview schedules can best be described as c. nonscheduled, moderately, highly, and highly scheduled standardized. 17. Closing an interview typically has three primary functions: b. terminate the interview but not the relationship, express supportiveness of the relationship, and summarize the interview. 18. There are ten closing techniques recommended for interviewers. Among them are: a. offer to answer questions, declare completion of your purpose, and express appreciation. 19. An interview guide consists of b. an outline of topics and subtopics. 20. A topical sequence can be described as c. arranging topics according to geographical areas. 21. A survey interviewer is most likely to use a d. highly scheduled standardized interview. 22. Opening techniques may a. orient the other party b. serve as complete openings c. build rapport 23. A police investigator is most likely to operate from b. a moderately scheduled interview. 24. The two-step process of the interview opening includes c. rapport and orientation. 25. Lillian Glass has discovered that men, when compared to women, b. tend to avoid eye contact. 26. Journalists traditionally employ which topical guide? b. what, when, where, who, how, and why 27. A failed departure takes place when c. you run into a party some time after you have said your goodbyes. 28. LaRay Barna writes that: a. The aura of similarity is a serious stumbling block to successful intercultural communication. 29. What factors may affect the norms for opening interviews? a. organizational traditions b. culture c. status differences 30. Which of the following is NOT an element of orientation in an interview? d. create feelings of goodwill 31. "I am conducting a survey of homeowners to discover their ideas on a bird habitat in the Nature Park," is an example of which type of opening technique? a. state the purpose 32. "A survey of homeowners has discovered that 85% of those in this neighborhood would like a bird habitat included in the new Nature Park." c. explains how a problem was discovered 33. Sales interviews often use which type of opening to motivate people to participate? a. offer an incentive or reward 34. Effective nonverbal openings depend on how you a. look. b. act. c. say. 35. Lillian Glass found which of the following male behavioral patterns? a. give fewer compliments b. avoid eye contact c. make direct accusations 36. Which of the following is NOT included in a traditional journalist's guide? d. source 37. A museum tour guide who prepares an interviewing guide for a group viewing paintings in one room will likely use what outline sequence? c. space 38. If a volunteer was interviewing individuals in the community about illiteracy and the services at the Literacy Project, which sequence for the outline might be useful? a. problem-solution 39. Which of the following use the moderately scheduled interview? a. journalists b. lawyers c. insurance investigators 40. In highly scheduled standardized interviews, respondents cannot do which of the following? a. explain b. amplify c. qualify 41. Which of the following type of interview provides the greatest breadth and depth of potential information? a. nonscheduled 42. Which of the following type of interview requires the greatest amount of pre-interview preparation? d. highly scheduled standardized 43. Which of the following requires the greatest amount of skill on the part of the interviewer? a. nonscheduled 44. Which schedule would be used if you are a journalist investigating a hit and run accident on State Street? b. moderately scheduled 45. Which of the following is NOT a common question sequence? d. matrix design 46. In a closing, both parties may a. express supportiveness b. summarize what has taken place c. signal termination of the meeting 47. What major elements must the interviewer be sure are present in the closing summary? a. information b. stages c. agreement 48. What question technique can serve as a closing? c. clearinghouse question 49. What type of inquiries are acceptable closing techniques? a. personal b. professional c. both b and c 50. Summarizing the interview is a common closing for what type of interview? a. sales b. performance c. counseling 51. Which of the following is NOT commonly an example of nonverbal closing actions? a. taking a seat 52. Open questions pose less threat to respondents. a. True 53. It is not wise to use more than one outline sequence in an interview. b. False 54. The quintamensional design is effective in assessing attitudes and beliefs. a. True 55. People in other cultures may not understand "we'll call you" as a closing. a. True 56. The law of primacy suggests that people recall the last thing said or done in an interview. b. False 57. False closings occur when your verbal and nonverbal messages signal the interview is coming to a close when it is not. a. True 58. Running into someone in a restaurant after an interview is complete is what Goffman calls a failed interview. b. False 59. Interviewer bias occurs when interviewees respond in ways they think you want them to respond. a. True 60. A nonscheduled interview includes all questions and the exact wording to be used with each interviewee. b. False 61. In highly scheduled interviews, probing questions, if they exist, are not planned. b. False 62. The highly scheduled standardized interview appears much like an oral objective test. a. True 63. A highly scheduled interview contains most major questions with possible probing questions under each. b. False 64. One should not combine schedule types in one interview. b. False 65. Schedules may be a manuscript. a. True 66. The tunnel sequence is also known as the string of beads. a. True 67. A funnel sequence works well with reluctant interviewees. b. False 68. Eye contact expectations are uniform across cultures. b. False 69. An interview guide is a carefully structured outline of topics and subtopics to be covered during an interview. a. True 70. A nonscheduled interview contains some topics and some questions written out in advance. b. False 71. When referring to the person who sent you to the interviewee, make sure that the interviewer knows, respects, and likes that person. a. True 72. "Got a second" is an overused interview opening. a. True 73. Never combine openings for interviews. b. False 74. When shaking hands, give a firm handshake. a. True 75. Rapport and orientation are often intermixed and serve the essential function of reducing relational uncertainty. a. True 76. Do not refer to strangers by first names unless asked to do so. a. True 77. LaRay Barna warns that "the aura of difference is a serious stumbling block to successful intercultural communication." b. False 78. The diamond sequence combines two funnel sequences. a. True

chapter4

Which of the following is NOT a rule for questions in informational interviews? b. Avoid questions that put the interviewee on the spot. 20. As an interviewer, you might prefer to be equal to the interviewee for all of the reasons below except a. the interviewer can control the interview 21. The informational interview requires the interviewer to do three things immediately: d. determine your goal, research the topic, and structure the interview. 22. Three advantages of recording interviews are a. enables you to relax and concentrate, you can hear and watch what was said hours later, you can pick up answers that might be inaudible at the time. 23. In informational interviews, you must learn to deal effectively with b. the emotional interviewee, the hostile interviewee, and the evasive interviewee. 24. According to Eric Nalder, the number one characteristic of an ideal journalist or informational interviewer is c. curiosity. 25. Ken Metzler recommends we avoid the term interview and call it a a. conversation b. talk c. chat 26. Research indicates that a. Mexican-Americans may rely more on emotion and intuition. 27. Which of the following should you NOT do as a respondent? c. assume you know what a question is before it is completed 28. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for selecting interviewees? b. talkativeness 29. Which of the following is part of the availability criteria? a. person is available for only a few minutes b. source is too far away c. source is unavailable until after a deadline 30. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the ability criteria? c. fear of risk 31. Which of the following is a reason potential respondents may be unwilling to meet with you? a. mistrust your organization b. fear harm to themselves c. feel information is no one else's business 32. Which type of interview severely limits the interviewer's control? a. press conference b. group interviews 33. Which of the following is a way to reduce hostility or avoid creating it? a. use neutral, open-ended questions 34. Which of the following are nonverbal techniques that may assist the interviewer with talkative interviewees? a. lean forward b. look at your notes c. glance at your watch 35. Evasive strategies include all of the following except d. embarrassment 36. Which of the following is a strategy for dealing with evasive interviewees? a. laugh and continue b. go on to other questions c. repeat a question 37. Research shows that African-Americans prefer a. indirect questions. b. equal turn taking. 38. The interviewee needs to also do his/her homework. Which of the following is something your authors recommend to consider? a. learn about the interviewer b. check organizational policies c. decide if someone else should be interviewed 39. Women tend to answer questions with questions. a. True 40. Men answer questions with declarations. a. True 41. Including errors in the final story may damage the future interviews with a person. a. True 42. According to Webb and Salancik, interviewers over time are unable to identify distortion in answers. b. False 43. If you want the interview to be spontaneous, provide the questions to the interviewee prior to and interview broadcast. b. False 44. According to Fred Fedler, broadcast interviews often allow for challenging questions. b. False 45. When an interviewer is equal, then rapport is more easily established. a. True 46. The informational interview is the most common type of interview. a. True 47. Use an informational probe before proceeding to new topics or before closing the interview. b. False 48. John and Denise Bittner suggest that crisis situation interviews should not be prolonged. a. True 49. The purpose of the informational interview is to get relevant and timely information as accurately and completely as possible in the shortest amount of time. a. True 50. Some journalists recommend that research time should be two times the actual interview. b. False 51. We are flattered when others take the time to learn about us. a. True 52. Journalist Pat Stith writes that, "some of the best stuff you're going to get will come in the last few minutes, when you're wrapping up the interview..." a. True 53. Reticence to talk is always related to the interview situation. b false 54. Experts agree on the amount of note taking that should take place during an interview. b false 55. Experts agree on the use of recorders during the interview process. b. False 56. It is acceptable to use the following statement to enhance willingness: "If you don't talk to us, we'll have to rely on other sources." a. True 57. Be wary of persons who are too eager to be interviewed. a. True 58. According to Pat Stith, most people follow "to be honest," with a lie. a. True 59. When establishing an atmosphere of mutual respect and trust, do not call the interviewee by first name or nickname. a. True 60. A space sequence is helpful when an interview will deal with places. a. True 61. Thomas Berner recommends that if a good question comes up in an answer to another question, ask that question right away. b. False 62. Men compared to women tend to talk less. b. False 63. Interviewers tend to ask too few questions. b. False 64. Women interviewees tend to answer questions with assertions. b. False 65. A report about interrogation interviews with insurgents in Iraq and Afghanistan noted that successful interrogators were nice to their subjects. True

chapter5

interviewing involves all of the following except

d. none of the above, persuading, information giving, counseling

the word interactional signifies an exchanging of all of the

expectations

A communicative exchange involving three people cannot be an interview because an interview involves two people.

false

A student meeting with her doctor and nurse practitioner to determine when she might be able to resume practice with the gymnastics team is not an interview.

false

Nonverbal signals are not part of creating and sharing.

false

Three supervisors discussing ways they might alter performance reviews in the second quarter of the year is an interview.

false

a persuasive interview is always formal

false

conference calls and real time internet exchange are not interviews

false

what distinguishes an interview from social conversation

predetermined and serious purpose

What is one problem the authors suggest is associated with e-mail interviews?

reluctance of parties to type lengthy answers to questions

questions are tools interviewers and interviewees employ for all of the following except

to disclose their own motives