Jarvis testing bank: Chapters-- 5,6,7,10,11,12,17,21,22,23,24,25,26, & 30

A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the: a. Menstrual history, because it is generally nonthreatening. b. Obstetric history, because it includes the most important information. c. Urinary system history, because problems may develop in this area as well. d. Sexual history, because discussing it first will build rapport.

*A* Menstrual history is usually nonthreatening and therefore a good topic with which to begin the interview. Obstetric, urinary, and sexual histories are also part of the interview but not necessarily the best topics with which to start.

When palpating the abdomen of a 20-year-old patient, the nurse notices the presence of *tenderness in the left upper quadrant with deep palpation*. Which of these structures is most likely to be involved? a. Spleen b. Sigmoid colon c. Appendix d. Gallbladder

*A* The *spleen* is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. The gallbladder is in the right upper quadrant, the sigmoid colon is in the left lower quadrant, and the appendix is in the right lower quadrant

The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as: a. Anteverted and anteflexed. b. Retroverted and anteflexed. c. Retroverted and retroflexed. d. Superiorverted and anteflexed

*A* The uterus is freely movable, not fixed, and usually tilts forward and superior to the bladder (a position labeled as anteverted and anteflexed).

The nurse should use which test to check for large amounts of fluid around the patella? a. Ballottement b. Tinel sign c. Phalen test d. McMurray test

*A* *Ballottement* of the patella is reliable when large amounts of fluid are present. The Tinel sign and the Phalen test are used to check for carpal tunnel syndrome. The McMurray test is used to test the knee for a torn meniscus.

A patient states, "I can hear a crunching or grating sound when I kneel." She also states that "it is very difficult to get out of bed in the morning because of stiffness and pain in my joints." The nurse should assess for signs of what problem? a. Crepitation b. Bone spur c. Loose tendon d. Fluid in the knee joint

*A* *Crepitation* is an audible and palpable crunching or grating that accompanies movement and occurs when articular surfaces in the joints are roughened, as with rheumatoid arthritis. The other options are not correct.

A patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time *bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth.* The nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement? a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Adduction d. Extension

*A* *Flexion,* or bending a limb at a joint, is required to move the hand to the mouth. Extension is straightening a limb at a joint. Moving a limb toward the midline of the body is called adduction; abduction is moving a limb away from the midline of the body.

The nurse discovers speech problems in a patient during an assessment. The patient has spontaneous speech, but it is mostly absent or is reduced to a few stereotypical words or sounds. This finding reflects which type of aphasia? a. Global b. Broca's c. Dysphonic d. Wernicke's

*A* *Global aphasia* is the most common and severe form of aphasia. *Spontaneous speech is absent or reduced to a few stereotyped words or sounds, and prognosis for language recovery is poor*. (Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia are described in Table 5-4.) Dysphonic aphasia is not a valid condition.

The functional units of the musculoskeletal system are the: a. Joints. b. Bones. c. Muscles. d. Tendons.

*A* *Joints* are the functional units of the musculoskeletal system because they permit the mobility needed to perform the activities of daily living. The skeleton (bones) is the framework of the body. The other options are not correct.

A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a *change in her posture and is having lower back pain*. The nurse tells her that during pregnancy, women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. This shift in posture is known as: a. Lordosis. b. Scoliosis. c. Ankylosis. d. Kyphosis.

*A* *Lordosis* compensates for the enlarging fetus, which would shift the center of balance forward. This shift in balance, in turn, creates a strain on the low back muscles, felt as low back pain during late pregnancy by some women. Scoliosis is lateral curvature of portions of the spine; ankylosis is extreme flexion of the wrist, as observed with severe rheumatoid arthritis; and kyphosis is an enhanced thoracic curvature of the spine.

A woman has come to the clinic to seek help with a substance abuse problem. She admits to using cocaine just before arriving. Which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to find when examining this woman? a. Dilated pupils, pacing, and psychomotor agitation b. Dilated pupils, unsteady gait, and aggressiveness c. Pupil constriction, lethargy, apathy, and dysphoria d. Constricted pupils, euphoria, and decreased temperature

*A* A cocaine user's appearance includes pupillary dilation, tachycardia or bradycardia, elevated or lowered blood pressure, sweating, chills, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss. The person's behavior includes euphoria, talkativeness, hypervigilance, pacing, psychomotor agitation, impaired social or occupational functioning, fighting, grandiosity, and visual or tactile hallucinations

The nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record and notes that he is in a coma. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which number indicates that the patient is in a coma? a. 6 b. 12 c. 15 d. 24

*A* A fully alert, normal person has a score of 15, whereas a score of 7 or less reflects coma on the Glasgow Coma Scale (see Figure 23-59).

In the assessment of a 1-month-old infant, the nurse notices a lack of response to noise or stimulation. The mother reports that in the last week he has been sleeping all of the time, and when he is awake all he does is cry. The nurse hears that the infant's cries are very high pitched and shrill. What should be the nurse's appropriate response to these findings? a. Refer the infant for further testing. b. Talk with the mother about eating habits. c. Do nothing; these are expected findings for an infant this age. d. Tell the mother to bring the baby back in 1 week for a recheck.

*A* A high-pitched, shrill cry or cat-sounding screech occurs with central nervous system damage. Lethargy, hyporeactivity, and hyperirritability, as well as the parent's report of significant changes in behavior all warrant referral. The other options are not correct responses.

A 43-year-old woman is at the clinic for a routine examination. She reports that she has had a breast lump in her right breast for years. Recently, it has begun to change in consistency and is becoming harder. She reports that 5 years ago her physician evaluated the lump and determined that it "was nothing to worry about." The examination validates the presence of a mass in the right upper outer quadrant at 1 o'clock, approximately 5 cm from the nipple. It is firm, mobile, and nontender, with borders that are not well defined. The nurse replies: a. "Because of the change in consistency of the lump, it should be further evaluated by a physician." b. "The changes could be related to your menstrual cycles. Keep track of the changes in the mass each month." c. "The lump is probably nothing to worry about because it has been present for years and was determined to be noncancerous 5 years ago." d. "Because you are experiencing no pain and the size has not changed, you should continue to monitor the lump and return to the clinic in 3 months."

*A* A lump that has been present for years and is not exhibiting changes may not be serious but should still be explored. Any recent change or a new lump should be evaluated. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is assessing bruising on an injured patient. Which color indicates a new bruise that is less than 2 hours old? a. Red b. Purple-blue c. Greenish-brown d. Brownish-yellow

*A* A new bruise is usually red and will often develop a purple or purple-blue appearance 12 to 36 hours after blunt-force trauma. The color of bruises (and ecchymoses) generally progresses from purple-blue to bluish-green to greenish-brown to brownish-yellow before fading away.

A 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease has been trying to remove a corn on the bottom of her foot with a pair of scissors. The nurse will encourage her to stop trying to remove the corn with scissors because: a. The woman could be at increased risk for infection and lesions because of her chronic disease. b. With her diabetes, she has increased circulation to her foot, and it could cause severe bleeding. c. She is 75 years old and is unable to see; consequently, she places herself at greater risk for self-injury with the scissors. d. With her peripheral vascular disease, her range of motion is limited and she may not be able to reach the corn safely.

*A* A personal history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease increases a person's risk for skin lesions in the feet or ankles. The patient needs to seek a professional for assistance with corn removal.

A 21-year-old patient has a head injury resulting from trauma and is unconscious. There are no other injuries. During the assessment what would the nurse expect to find when testing the patient's deep tendon reflexes? a. Reflexes will be normal. b. Reflexes cannot be elicited. c. All reflexes will be diminished but present. d. Some reflexes will be present, depending on the area of injury.

*A* A reflex is a defense mechanism of the nervous system. It operates below the level of conscious control and permits a quick reaction to potentially painful or damaging situations

During an examination, the nurse notes a supernumerary nipple just under the patient's left breast. The patient tells the nurse that she always thought it was a mole. Which statement about this finding is correct? a. This variation is normal and not a significant finding. b. This finding is significant and needs further investigation. c. A supernumerary nipple also contains glandular tissue and may leak milk during pregnancy and lactation. d. The patient is correct—a supernumerary nipple is actually a mole that happens to be located under the breast.

*A* A supernumerary nipple looks like a mole, but close examination reveals a tiny nipple and areola; it is not a significant finding.

A patient tells the nurse that he has noticed that one of his moles has started to burn and bleed. When assessing his skin, the nurse pays special attention to the danger signs for pigmented lesions and is concerned with which additional finding? a. Color variation b. Border regularity c. Symmetry of lesions d. Diameter of less than 6 mm

*A* Abnormal characteristics of pigmented lesions are summarized in the mnemonic ABCD: asymmetry of pigmented lesion, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter greater than 6 mm.

The nurse knows that the best time to assess a woman's blood pressure during an initial prenatal visit is: a. At the end of the examination when she will be the most relaxed. b. At the beginning of the interview as a nonthreatening method of gaining rapport. c. During the middle of the physical examination when she is the most comfortable. d. Before beginning the pelvic examination because her blood pressure will be higher after the pelvic examination.

*A* Assessing the woman's blood pressure at the end of the examination, when it is hoped that she will be most relaxed, is the best time to assess blood pressure. The other options are not correct

To assess the head control of a 4-month-old infant, the nurse lifts up the infant in a prone position while supporting his chest. The nurse looks for what normal response? The infant: a. Raises the head, and arches the back. b. Extends the arms, and drops down the head. c. Flexes the knees and elbows with the back straight. d. Holds the head at 45 degrees, and keeps the back straight.

*A* At 3 months of age, the infant raises the head and arches the back as if in a swan dive. This response is the *Landau reflex*, which persists until 1 years of age (see Figure 23-43). The other responses are incorrect.

During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal? a. Cervix b. Uterus c. Ovaries d. Fallopian tubes

*A* At the end of the canal, the uterine cervix projects into the vagina.

The nurse is providing nutrition information to the mother of a 1-year-old child. Which of these statements represents accurate information for this age group? a. Maintaining adequate fat and caloric intake is important for a child in this age group. b. The recommended dietary allowances for an infant are the same as for an adolescent. c. The baby's growth is minimal at this age; therefore, caloric requirements are decreased. d. The baby should be placed on skim milk to decrease the risk of coronary artery disease when he or she grows older.

*A* Because of rapid growth, especially of the brain, both infants and children younger than 2 years of age should not drink skim or low-fat milk or be placed on low-fat diets. Fats (calories and essential fatty acids) are required for proper growth and central nervous system development.

While performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, the nurse notices the presence of bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs. The skin is puffy and tight but normal in color. No increased redness or tenderness is observed over his lower legs, and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong. In this situation, the nurse suspects that the likely cause of the edema is which condition? a. Heart failure b. Venous thrombosis c. Local inflammation d. Blockage of lymphatic drainage

*A* Bilateral edema or edema that is generalized over the entire body is caused by a central problem such as heart failure or kidney failure. Unilateral edema usually has a local or peripheral cause.

The nurse just noted from the medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse expects to find: a. Lesions that run together. b. Annular lesions that have grown together. c. Lesions arranged in a line along a nerve route. d. Lesions that are grouped or clustered together.

*A* Confluent lesions (as with urticaria [hives]) run together. Grouped lesions are clustered together. Annular lesions are circular in nature. Zosteriform lesions are arranged along a nerve route.

When documenting IPV and elder abuse, the nurse should include: a. Photographic documentation of the injuries. b. Summary of the abused patient's statements. c. Verbatim documentation of every statement made. d. General description of injuries in the progress notes.

*A* Documentation of IPV and elder abuse must include detailed nonbiased progress notes, the use of injury maps, and photographic documentation. Written documentation needs to be verbatim, within reason. Not every statement can be documented.

The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted for cirrhosis of the liver, secondary to chronic alcohol use. During the physical assessment, the nurse looks for cardiac problems that are associated with chronic use of alcohol, such as: a. Hypertension. b. Ventricular fibrillation. c. Bradycardia. d. Mitral valve prolapse.

*A* Even moderate drinking leads to hypertension and cardiomyopathy, with an increase in left ventricular mass, dilation of ventricles, and wall thinning. Ventricular fibrillation, bradycardia, and mitral valve prolapse are not associated with chronic heavy use of alcohol.

The nurse is examining a 6-month-old infant and places the infant's feet flat on the table and flexes his knees up. The nurse notes that the right knee is significantly lower than the left. Which of these statements is *true* of this finding? a. This finding is a positive Allis sign and suggests hip dislocation. b. The infant probably has a dislocated patella on the right knee. c. This finding is a negative Allis sign and normal for an infant of this age. d. The infant should return to the clinic in 2 weeks to see if his condition has changed.

*A* Finding one knee significantly lower than the other is a positive *Allis sign* and suggests hip dislocation. Normally, the tops of the knees are at the same elevation. The other statements are not correct.

A 14-year-old girl is anxious about not having reached menarche. When taking the health history, the nurse should ascertain which of the following? The age that: a. The girl began to develop breasts. b. Her mother developed breasts. c. She began to develop pubic hair. d. She began to develop axillary hair.

*A* Full development from stage 2 to stage 5 takes an average of 3 years, although the range is 1 to 6 years. Pubic hair develops during this time, and axillary hair appears 2 years after the onset of pubic hair. The beginning of breast development precedes menarche by approximately 2 years. Menarche occurs in breast development stage 3 or 4, usually just after the peak of the adolescent growth spurt, which occurs around age 12 years (see Figure 17-6).

The nurse is providing care for a 68-year-old woman who is complaining of constipation. What concern exists regarding her nutritional status? a. Absorption of nutrients may be impaired. b. Constipation may represent a food allergy. c. The patient may need emergency surgery to correct the problem. d. Gastrointestinal problems will increase her caloric demand.

*A* Gastrointestinal symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation may interfere with nutrient intake or absorption. The other responses are not correct.

During reporting, the nurse hears that a patient is experiencing hallucinations. Which is an example of a hallucination? a. Man believes that his dead wife is talking to him. b. Woman hears the doorbell ring and goes to answer it, but no one is there. c. Child sees a man standing in his closet. When the lights are turned on, it is only a dry cleaning bag. d. Man believes that the dog has curled up on the bed, but when he gets closer he sees that it is a blanket.

*A* Hallucinations are sensory perceptions for which no external stimuli exist. They may strike any sense: *visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, or gustatory.*

During a health history of a patient who complains of chronic constipation, the patient asks the nurse about high-fiber foods. The nurse relates that an *example of a high-fiber food* would be: a. Broccoli. b. Hamburger. c. Iceberg lettuce. d. Yogurt.

*A* High-fiber foods are either soluble type (e.g., beans, prunes, barley, broccoli) or insoluble type (e.g., cereals, wheat germ). The other examples are not considered high-fiber foods.

In a person with an upper motor neuron lesion such as a cerebrovascular accident, which of these physical assessment findings should the nurse expect? a. Hyperreflexia b. Fasciculations c. Loss of muscle tone and flaccidity d. Atrophy and wasting of the muscles

*A* Hyperreflexia, diminished or absent superficial reflexes, and increased muscle tone or spasticity can be expected with upper motor neuron lesions. The other options reflect a lesion of lower motor neurons (see Table 23-7).

The nurse is discussing BSEs with a postmenopausal woman. The best time for postmenopausal women to perform BSEs is: a. On the same day every month. b. Daily, during the shower or bath. c. One week after her menstrual period. d. Every year with her annual gynecologic examination

*A* Postmenopausal women are no longer experiencing regular menstrual cycles but need to continue to perform BSEs on a monthly basis. Choosing the same day of the month is a helpful reminder to perform the examination.

A patient is admitted to the unit after an automobile accident. The nurse begins the mental status examination and finds that the patient has dysarthric speech and is lethargic. The nurse's best approach regarding this examination is to: a. Plan to defer the rest of the mental status examination. b. Skip the language portion of the examination, and proceed onto assessing mood and affect. c. Conduct an in-depth speech evaluation, and defer the mental status examination to another time. d. Proceed with the examination, and assess the patient for suicidal thoughts because dysarthria is often accompanied by severe depression.

*A* In the mental status examination, the sequence of steps forms a hierarchy in which the most basic functions (consciousness, language) are assessed first. The first steps must be accurately assessed to ensure validity of the steps that follow. For example, if consciousness is clouded, then the person cannot be expected to have full attention and to cooperate with new learning. If language is impaired, then a subsequent assessment of new learning or abstract reasoning (anything that requires language functioning) can give erroneous conclusions.

When assessing a newborn infant's genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant's mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply: a. "This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks." b. "This finding could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician." c. "We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to ensure that they are within normal limits." d. "We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size."

*A* It is normal for a newborn's genitalia to be somewhat engorged. A sanguineous vaginal discharge or leukorrhea is normal during the first few weeks because of the maternal estrogen effect. During the early weeks, the genital engorgement resolves, and the labia minora atrophy and remain small until puberty.

During a mental status examination, the nurse wants to assess a patient's affect. The nurse should ask the patient which question? a. "How do you feel today?" b. "Would you please repeat the following words?" c. "Have these medications had any effect on your pain?" d. "Has this pain affected your ability to get dressed by yourself?"

*A* Judge mood and affect by body language and facial expression and by directly asking, "How do you feel today?" or "How do you usually feel?" The mood should be appropriate to the person's place and condition and should appropriately change with the topics

During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer? a. Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool b. Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash c. Endocervical specimen, potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation, and acetic acid wash d. Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount ("wet prep")

*A* Laboratories may vary in method, but usually the test consists of three specimens: endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool. The other tests (acetic acid wash, KOH preparation, and saline mount) are used to test for sexually transmitted infections.

A patient drifts off to sleep when she is not being stimulated. The nurse can easily arouse her by calling her name, but the patient remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be: a. Lethargic b. Obtunded c. Stuporous d. Semialert

*A* Lethargic (or somnolent) is when the person is not fully alert, drifts off to sleep when not stimulated, and can be aroused when called by name in a normal voice but looks drowsy. He or she appropriately responds to questions or commands, but thinking seems slow and fuzzy. He or she is inattentive and loses the train of thought. Spontaneous movements are decreased. (See Table 5-3 for the definitions of the other terms.)

To test for gross motor skill and coordination of a 6-year-old child, which of these techniques would be appropriate? Ask the child to: a. Hop on one foot. b. Stand on his head. c. Touch his finger to his nose. d. Make "funny" faces at the nurse.

*A* Normally, a child can hop on one foot and can balance on one foot for approximately 5 seconds by 4 years of age and can balance on one foot for 8 to 10 seconds at 5 years of age. Children enjoy performing these tests. Failure to hop after 5 years of age indicates incoordination of gross motor skills. Asking the child to touch his or her finger to the nose checks fine motor coordination; and asking the child to make "funny" faces tests CN VII. Asking a child to stand on his or her head is not appropriate

The nurse is reviewing the *principles of nociception*. During which phase of nociception does the conscious awareness of a painful sensation occur? a. Perception b. Modulation c. Transduction d. Transmission

*A* Perception is the third phase of nociception and indicates the conscious awareness of a painful sensation. During this phase, the sensation is recognized by higher cortical structures and identified as pain.

A woman brings her husband to the clinic for an examination. She is particularly worried because after a recent fall, he seems to have lost a great deal of his memory of recent events. Which statement reflects the nurse's best course of action? a. Perform a complete mental status examination. b. Refer him to a psychometrician. c. Plan to integrate the mental status examination into the history and physical examination. d. Reassure his wife that memory loss after a physical shock is normal and will soon subside.

*A* Performing a complete mental status examination is necessary when any abnormality in affect or behavior is discovered or when family members are concerned about a person's behavioral changes (e.g., memory loss, inappropriate social interaction) or after trauma, such as a head injury.

The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true as it applies to obtaining the health history of a postmenopausal woman? a. The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she has ever had vaginal bleeding. b. Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any history questions. c. The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness. d. Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting STIs; therefore, these questions can be omitted.

*A* Postmenopausal bleeding warrants further workup and referral. The other statements are not true.

While obtaining a health history of a 3-month-old infant from the mother, the nurse asks about the infant's ability to suck and grasp the mother's finger. What is the nurse assessing? a. Reflexes b. Intelligence c. CNs d. Cerebral cortex function

*A* Questions regarding reflexes include such questions as, "What have you noticed about the infant's behavior," "Are the infant's sucking and swallowing seem coordinated," and "Does the infant grasp your finger?" The other responses are incorrect.

During the assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices that his hands show tremors when he reaches for something and his head is always nodding. No associated rigidity is observed with movement. Which of these statements is most accurate? a. These findings are normal, resulting from aging. b. These findings could be related to hyperthyroidism. c. These findings are the result of Parkinson disease. d. This patient should be evaluated for a cerebellar lesion.

*A* Senile tremors occasionally occur. These benign tremors include an intention tremor of the hands, head nodding (as if saying yes or no), and tongue protrusion. Tremors associated with Parkinson disease include rigidity, slowness, and a weakness of voluntary movement. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is assessing the mental status of a child. Which statement about children and mental status is *true*? a. All aspects of mental status in children are interdependent. b. Children are highly labile and unstable until the age of 2 years. c. Children's mental status is largely a function of their parents' level of functioning until the age of 7 years. d. A child's mental status is impossible to assess until the child develops the ability to concentrate.

*A* Separating and tracing the development of only one aspect of mental status is difficult. All aspects are interdependent. For example, consciousness is rudimentary at birth because the cerebral cortex is not yet developed. The infant cannot distinguish the self from the mother's body. The other statements are not true.

When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that no pubic hair has grown in and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

*A* Sexual Maturity Rating stage 1 is the preadolescent stage. There is no pubic hair, and the mons and labia are covered with fine, vellus hair as on the abdomen (see Table 26-1).

The nurse is testing the deep tendon reflexes of a 30-year-old woman who is in the clinic for an annual physical examination. When striking the Achilles heel and quadriceps muscle, the nurse is unable to elicit a reflex. The nurse's next response should be to: a. Ask the patient to lock her fingers and pull. b. Complete the examination, and then test these reflexes again. c. Refer the patient to a specialist for further testing. d. Document these reflexes as 0 on a scale of 0 to 4+.

*A* Sometimes the reflex response fails to appear. Documenting the reflexes as absent is inappropriate this soon in the examination. The nurse should try to further encourage relaxation, varying the person's position or increasing the strength of the blow. Reinforcement is another technique to relax the muscles and enhance the response. The person should be asked to perform an isometric exercise in a muscle group somewhat away from the one being tested. For example, to enhance a patellar reflex, the person should be asked to lock the fingers together and pull.

A 70-year-old man is visiting the clinic for difficulty in passing urine. In the health history, he indicates that he has to *urinate frequently, especially at night*. He has* burning when he urinates and has noticed pain in his back*. Considering this history, what might the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment? a. Asymmetric, hard, and fixed prostate gland b. Occult blood and perianal pain to palpation c. Symmetrically enlarged, soft prostate gland d. Soft nodule protruding from the rectal mucosa

*A* Subjective symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include frequency, nocturia, hematuria, weak stream, hesitancy, pain or burning on urination, and continuous pain in lower back, pelvis, and thighs. Objective symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include a malignant neoplasm that often starts as a single hard nodule on the posterior surface, producing asymmetry and a change in consistency. As it invades normal tissue, multiple hard nodules appear, or the entire gland feels stone hard and fixed.

The nurse is administering a Mini-Cog test to an older adult woman. When asked to draw a clock showing the time of 10:45, the patient drew a clock with the numbers out of order and with an incorrect time. This result indicates which finding? a. Cognitive impairment b. Amnesia c. Delirium d. Attention-deficit disorder

*A* The Mini-Cog is a newer instrument that screens for cognitive impairment, often found with dementia. The result of an abnormal drawing of a clock and time indicates a cognitive impairment.

An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should: a. Use the Tanner scale on the five stages of sexual development. b. Describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age. c. Use the Jacobsen table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data. d. Reassure her that her development is within normal limits and tell her not to worry about the next step.

*A* The Tanner scale on the five stages of pubic hair development is helpful in teaching girls the expected sequence of sexual development (see Table 26-1). The other responses are not appropriate.

The ankle joint is the articulation of the tibia, fibula, and: a. Talus. b. Cuboid. c. Calcaneus. d. Cuneiform bones.

*A* The ankle or tibiotalar joint is the articulation of the *tibia, fibula, and talus*. The other bones listed are foot bones and not part of the ankle joint.

A woman has just learned that she is pregnant. What are some things the nurse should teach her about her breasts? a. She can expect her areolae to become larger and darker in color. b. Breasts may begin secreting milk after the fourth month of pregnancy. c. She should inspect her breasts for visible veins and immediately report these. d. During pregnancy, breast changes are fairly uncommon; most of the changes occur after the birth

*A* The areolae become larger and grow a darker brown as pregnancy progresses, and the tubercles become more prominent. (The brown color fades after lactation, but the areolae never return to their original color). A venous pattern is an expected finding and prominent over the skin surface and does not need to be reported. After the fourth month of pregnancy, colostrum, a thick, yellow fluid (precursor to milk), may be expressed from the breasts.

The nurse knows that determining whether a person is *oriented to his or her surroundings* will test the functioning of which structure(s)? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. CNs d. Medulla oblongata

*A* The cerebral cortex is responsible for thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement. The other structures are not responsible for a person's level of consciousness.

A 62-year-old man is experiencing *fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency, and urgency*. He also reports *urethral discharge and a dull aching pain* in the perineal and rectal area. These symptoms are most consistent with which condition? a. Prostatitis b. Polyps c. Carcinoma of the prostate d. BPH

*A* The common presenting symptoms of prostatitis are fever, chills, malaise, and urinary frequency and urgency. The individual may also have dysuria, urethral discharge, and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. These symptoms are not consistent with polyps. (See Table 25-3 for the descriptions of carcinoma of the prostate and BPH.)

The nurse is examining a patient who tells the nurse, "I sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn't have an odor." The nurse knows that this condition could be related to: a. Eccrine glands. b. Apocrine glands. c. Disorder of the stratum corneum. d. Disorder of the stratum germinativum.

*A* The eccrine glands are coiled tubules that directly open onto the skin surface and produce a dilute saline solution called sweat. Apocrine glands are primarily located in the axillae, anogenital area, nipples, and naval area and mix with bacterial flora to produce the characteristic musky body odor. The patient's statement is not related to disorders of the stratum corneum or the stratum germinativum.

The wife of a 65-year-old man tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a change in her husband's personality and ability to understand. He also cries very easily and becomes angry. The nurse recalls that the cerebral lobe responsible for these behaviors is the __________ lobe. a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Occipital d. Temporal

*A* The frontal lobe has areas responsible for personality, behavior, emotions, and intellectual function. The parietal lobe has areas responsible for sensation; the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception; and the temporal lobe is responsible for hearing, taste, and smell.

The nurse is reviewing statistics regarding breast cancer. Which woman, aged 40 years in the United States, has the highest risk for developing breast cancer? a. Black b. White c. Asian d. American Indian

*A* The incidence of breast cancer varies within different cultural groups. White women have a higher incidence of breast cancer than black women starting at age 45 years; but black women have a higher incidence before age 45 years. Asian, Hispanic, and American Indian women have a lower risk for development of breast cancer (American Cancer Society, 2009-2010).

The nurse is checking the range of motion in a patient's knee and knows that the knee is capable of which movement(s)? a. Flexion and extension b. Supination and pronation c. Circumduction d. Inversion and eversion

*A* The knee is a hinge joint, permitting flexion and extension of the lower leg on a single plane. The knee is not capable of the other movements listed.

During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the: a. Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. b. Vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands. c. Urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands. d. Paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.

*A* The labial structures encircle a boat-shaped space, or cleft, termed the vestibule. Within the vestibule are numerous openings. The urethral meatus and vaginal orifice are visible. The ducts of the paraurethral (Skene) glands and the vestibular (Bartholin) glands are present but not visible.

During an annual physical examination, a 43-year-old patient states that she does not perform monthly breast self-examinations (BSEs). She tells the nurse that she believes that mammograms "do a much better job than I ever could to find a lump." The nurse should explain to her that: a. BSEs may detect lumps that appear between mammograms. b. BSEs are unnecessary until the age of 50 years. c. She is correct—mammography is a good replacement for BSE. d. She does not need to perform BSEs as long as a physician checks her breasts annually.

*A* The monthly practice of BSE, along with clinical breast examination and mammograms, are complementary screening measures. Mammography can reveal cancers too small to be detected by the woman or by the most experienced examiner. However, interval lumps may become palpable between mammograms.

When performing a musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse knows that the correct approach for the examination should be: a. Proximal to distal. b. Distal to proximal. c. Posterior to anterior. d. Anterior to posterior.

*A* The musculoskeletal assessment should be performed in an orderly approach, head to toe, proximal to distal, from the midline outward. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is assisting with a BSE clinic. Which of these women reflect abnormal findings during the inspection phase of breast examination? a. Woman whose nipples are in different planes (deviated). b. Woman whose left breast is slightly larger than her right. c. Nonpregnant woman whose skin is marked with linear striae. d. Pregnant woman whose breasts have a fine blue network of veins visible under the skin.

*A* The nipples should be symmetrically placed on the same plane on the two breasts. With deviation in pointing, an underlying cancer may cause fibrosis in the mammary ducts, which pulls the nipple angle toward it. The other examples are normal findings (see Table 17-3).

During auscultation of fetal heart tones (FHTs), the nurse determines that the heart rate is 136 beats per minute. The nurse's next action should be to: a. Document the results, which are within normal range. b. Take the maternal pulse to verify these findings as the uterine souffle. c. Have the patient change positions and count the FHTs again. d. Immediately notify the physician for possible fetal distress.

*A* The normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute. The nurse should document the results as within the normal range. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is palpating a female patient's breasts during an examination. Which of these positions is most likely to make significant lumps more distinct during breast palpation? a. Supine with the arms raised over her head b. Sitting with the arms relaxed at her sides c. Supine with the arms relaxed at her sides d. Sitting with the arms flexed and fingertips touching her shoulders

*A* The nurse should help the woman to a supine position, tuck a small pad under the side to be palpated, and help the woman raise her arm over her head. These maneuvers will flatten the breast tissue and medially displace it. Any significant lumps will then feel more distinct.

A patient is newly diagnosed with benign breast disease. The nurse recognizes which statement about benign breast disease to be true? The presence of benign breast disease: a. Makes it hard to examine the breasts. b. Frequently turns into cancer in a woman's later years. c. Is easily reduced with hormone replacement therapy. d. Is usually diagnosed before a woman reaches childbearing age.

*A* The presence of benign breast disease (formerly fibrocystic breast disease) makes it hard to examine the breasts; the general lumpiness of the breast conceals a new lump. The other statements are not true.

When performing an examination of a woman who is 34 weeks' pregnant, the nurse notices a midline linear protrusion in the abdomen over the area of the rectus abdominis muscles as the woman raises her head and shoulders off of the bed. Which response by the nurse is *correct*? a. The presence of diastasis recti should be documented. b. This condition should be discussed with the physician because it will most likely need to be surgically repaired. c. The possibility that the woman has a hernia attributable to the increased pressure within the abdomen from the pregnancy should be suspected. d. The woman should be told that she may have a difficult time with delivery because of the weakness in her abdominal muscles.

*A* The separation of the abdominal muscles is called diastasis recti and frequently occurs during pregnancy. The rectus abdominis muscles will return together after pregnancy with abdominal exercise. This condition is not a true hernia.

During an assessment of a 62-year-old man, the nurse notices the patient has a stooped posture, shuffling walk with short steps, flat facial expression, and pill-rolling finger movements. These findings would be consistent with: a. Parkinsonism. b. Cerebral palsy. c. Cerebellar ataxia. d. Muscular dystrophy.

*A* The stooped posture, shuffling walk, short steps, flat facial expression, and pill-rolling finger movements are all found in parkinsonism. (See Table 23-8 for more information and for the descriptions of the other options.)

A new mother calls the clinic to report that part of her left breast is red, swollen, tender, very hot, and hard. She has a fever of 38.3° C. She also has had symptoms of influenza, such as chills, sweating, and feeling tired. The nurse notices that she has been breastfeeding for 1 month. From her description, what condition does the nurse suspect? a. Mastitis b. Paget disease c. Plugged milk duct d. Mammary duct ectasia

*A* The symptoms describe mastitis, which stems from an infection or stasis caused by a plugged duct. A plugged duct does not have infection present (see Table 17-7). (Refer to Table 17-6 for descriptions of Paget disease and mammary duct ectasia.)

Which finding is considered normal and expected when the nurse is performing a physical examination on a pregnant woman? a. Palpable, full thyroid b. Edema in one lower leg c. Significant diffuse enlargement of the thyroid d. Pale mucous membranes of the mouth

*A* The thyroid may be palpable during pregnancy. It should feel full, but smooth. Significant diffuse enlargement occurs with hyperthyroidism, thyroiditis, and hypothyroidism. Pale mucous membranes may indicate anemia. Bilateral lower extremity edema is common in pregnancy, but edema with pain in only one leg occurs with deep vein thrombosis.

The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which changes are associated with menopause? a. Uterine and ovarian atrophy, along with a thinning of the vaginal epithelium b. Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size c. Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions d. Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy

*A* The uterus shrinks because of its decreased myometrium. The ovaries atrophy to 1 to 2 cm and are not palpable after menopause. The sacral ligaments relax, and the pelvic musculature weakens; consequently, the uterus droops. The cervix shrinks and looks paler with a thick glistening epithelium. The vaginal epithelium atrophies, becoming thinner, drier, and itchy. The vaginal pH becomes more alkaline, and secretions are decreased, which results in a fragile mucosal surface that is at risk for vaginitis.

During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the *vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina*. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which condition? a. Candidiasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Atrophic vaginitis d. Bacterial vaginosis

*A* The woman with candidiasis often reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge. The vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous. The discharge is usually thick, white, and curdlike. Infection with trichomoniasis causes a profuse, watery, gray-green, and frothy discharge. Bacterial vaginosis causes a profuse discharge that has a "foul, fishy, rotten" odor. Atrophic vaginitis may have a mucoid discharge. (See Table 26-5 for complete descriptions of each option.)

Of the 33 vertebrae in the spinal column, there are: a. 5 lumbar. b. 5 thoracic. c. 7 sacral. d. 12 cervical.

*A* There are 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 3 to 4 coccygeal vertebrae in the spinal column

A 45-year-old farmer comes in for a skin evaluation and complains of hair loss on his head. His hair seems to be breaking off in patches, and he notices some scaling on his head. The nurse begins the examination suspecting: a. Tinea capitis. b. Folliculitis. c. Toxic alopecia. d. Seborrheic dermatitis.

*A* Tinea capitis is rounded patchy hair loss on the scalp, leaving broken-off hairs, pustules, and scales on the skin, and is caused by a fungal infection. Lesions are fluorescent under a Wood light and are usually observed in children and farmers; tinea capitis is highly contagious. (See Table 12-12, Abnormal Conditions of Hair, for descriptions of the other terms.)

Which of these tests would the nurse use to check the motor coordination of an 11-month-old infant? a. Denver II b. Stereognosis c. Deep tendon reflexes d. Rapid alternating movements

*A* To screen gross and fine motor coordination, the nurse should use the Denver II with its age-specific developmental milestones. Stereognosis tests a person's ability to recognize objects by feeling them and is not appropriate for an 11-month-old infant. Testing the deep tendon reflexes is not appropriate for checking motor coordination. Testing rapid alternating movements is appropriate for testing coordination in adults.

During the taking of the health history, a patient tells the nurse that "it feels like the room is spinning around me." The nurse would document this finding as: a. Vertigo. b. Syncope. c. Dizziness. d. Seizure activity.

*A* True vertigo is rotational spinning caused by a neurologic dysfunction or a problem in the vestibular apparatus or the vestibular nuclei in the brainstem. Syncope is a sudden loss of strength or a temporary loss of consciousness. Dizziness is a lightheaded, swimming sensation. Seizure activity is characterized by altered or loss of consciousness, involuntary muscle movements, and sensory disturbances.

The nurse recognizes which of these persons is at greatest risk for undernutrition? a. 5-month-old infant b. 50-year-old woman c. 20-year-old college student d. 30-year-old hospital administrator

*A* Vulnerable groups for undernutrition are infants, children, pregnant women, recent immigrants, persons with low incomes, hospitalized people, and aging adults.

A 59-year-old patient has a herniated intervertebral disk. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to see on physical assessment of this individual? a. Hyporeflexia b. Increased muscle tone c. Positive Babinski sign d. Presence of pathologic reflexes

*A* With a herniated intervertebral disk or lower motor neuron lesion, loss of tone, flaccidity, atrophy, fasciculations, and hyporeflexia or areflexia are demonstrated. No Babinski sign or pathologic reflexes would be observed (see Table 23-7). The other options reflect a lesion of upper motor neurons.

During an examination, the nurse finds that a patient has excessive dryness of the skin. The best term to describe this condition is: a. Xerosis. b. Pruritus. c. Alopecia. d. Seborrhea.

*A* Xerosis is the term used to describe skin that is excessively dry. Pruritus refers to itching, alopecia refers to hair loss, and seborrhea refers to oily skin.

The nurse is performing a digital examination of a patient's prostate gland and notices that a normal prostate gland includes which of the following characteristics? *Select all that apply.* a. 1 cm protrusion into the rectum b. Heart-shaped with a palpable central groove c. Flat shape with no palpable groove d. Boggy with a soft consistency e. Smooth surface, elastic, and rubbery consistency f. Fixed mobility

*A, B, E* The size of a normal prostate gland should be 2.5 cm long by 4 cm wide and should not protrude more than 1 cm into the rectum. The prostate should be heart-shaped, with a palpable central groove, a smooth surface, and elastic with a rubbery consistency. Abnormal findings include a flat shape with no palpable groove, boggy with a soft consistency, and fixed mobility.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is admitted with possible delirium. Which of these are manifestations of delirium? *Select all that apply.* a. Develops over a short period. b. Person is experiencing apraxia. c. Person is exhibiting memory impairment or deficits. d. Occurs as a result of a medical condition, such as systemic infection. e. Person is experiencing agnosia.

*A, C, D* Delirium is a disturbance of consciousness that develops over a short period and may be attributable to a medical condition. Memory deficits may also occur. Apraxia and agnosia occur with dementia.

The nurse assesses an older woman and suspects physical abuse. Which questions are appropriate for screening for abuse? *Select all that apply.* a. "Has anyone made you afraid, touched you in ways that you did not want, or hurt you physically?" b. "Are you being abused?" c. "Have you relied on people for any of the following: bathing, dressing, shopping, banking, or meals?" d. "Have you been upset because someone talked to you in a way that made you feel shamed or threatened?" e. "Have you relied on people for any of the following: bathing, dressing, shopping, banking, or meals?"

*A, C, D, E* Directly asking "Are you being abused?" is not an appropriate screening question for abuse because the woman could easily say "no," and no further information would be obtained. The other questions are among the questions recommended by the Elder Abuse Suspicion Index (EASI) when screening for elder abuse.

The nurse is preparing for a certification course in skin care and needs to be familiar with the various lesions that may be identified on assessment of the skin. Which of the following definitions are correct? *Select all that apply.* a. Petechiae: Tiny punctate hemorrhages, 1 to 3 mm, round and discrete, dark red, purple, or brown in color b. Bulla: Elevated, circumscribed lesion filled with turbid fluid (pus) c. Papule: Hypertrophic scar d. Vesicle: Known as a friction blister e. Nodule: Solid, elevated, and hard or soft growth that is larger than 1 cm

*A, D, E* A pustule is an elevated, circumscribed lesion filled with turbid fluid (pus). A hypertrophic scar is a keloid. A bulla is larger than 1 cm and contains clear fluid. A papule is solid and elevated but measures less than 1 cm.

During assessment of a patient's pain, the nurse is aware that certain nonverbal behaviors are associated with chronic pain. Which of these behaviors are associated with chronic pain? *Select all that apply.* a. Sleeping b. Moaning c. Diaphoresis d. Bracing e. Restlessness f. Rubbing

*A, D, F* Behaviors that have been associated with chronic pain include bracing, rubbing, diminished activity, sighing, and changes in appetite. In addition, those with chronic pain may sleep in an attempt at distraction. The other behaviors are associated with acute pain.

The nurse is assessing the breasts of a 68-year-old woman and discovers a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. When assessing this mass, the nurse is aware that characteristics of a cancerous mass include which of the following? *Select all that apply.* a. Nontender mass b. Dull, heavy pain on palpation c. Rubbery texture and mobile d. Hard, dense, and immobile e. Regular border f. Irregular, poorly delineated border

*A, D, F* Cancerous breast masses are solitary, unilateral, and nontender. They are solid, hard, dense, and fixed to underlying tissues or skin as cancer becomes invasive. Their borders are irregular and poorly delineated. They are often painless, although the person may experience pain. They are most common in the upper outer quadrant. A dull, heavy pain on palpation and a mass with a rubbery texture and a regular border are characteristics of benign breast disease.

An 85-year-old patient comments during his annual physical examination that he seems to be getting shorter as he ages. The nurse should explain that decreased height occurs with aging because: a. Long bones tend to shorten with age. b. The vertebral column shortens. c. A significant loss of subcutaneous fat occurs. d. A thickening of the intervertebral disks develops.

*B* Postural changes are evident with aging; decreased height is most noticeable and is due to shortening of the vertebral column. Long bones do not shorten with age. Intervertebral disks actually get thinner with age. Subcutaneous fat is not lost but is redistributed to the abdomen and hips.

When examining the face of a woman who is 28 weeks' pregnant, the nurse notices the presence of a butterfly-shaped increase in pigmentation on the face. The proper term for this finding in the documentation is: a. Striae. b. Chloasma. c. Linea nigra. d. Mask of pregnancy.

*B* *Chloasma* is a butterfly-shaped increase in pigmentation on the face. It is known as the mask of pregnancy, but when documenting, the nurse should use the correct medical term, chloasma. Striae is the term for stretch marks. The linea nigra is a hyperpigmented line that begins at the sternal notch and extends down the abdomen through the umbilicus to the pubis.

During a discussion for a men's health group, the nurse relates that the group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer is: a. Asian Americans. b. Blacks. c. American Indians. d. Hispanics.

*B* According to the American Cancer Society (2010), black men have a higher rate of prostate cancer than other racial groups.

A patient's annual physical examination reveals a lateral curvature of the thoracic and lumbar segments of his spine; however, this curvature disappears with forward bending. The nurse knows that this abnormality of the spine is called: a. Structural scoliosis. b. Functional scoliosis. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Dislocated hip.

*B* *Functional scoliosis* is flexible and apparent with standing but disappears with forward bending. Structural scoliosis is fixed; the curvature shows both when standing and when bending forward. (See Table 22-7 for description of herniated nucleus pulposus.) These findings are not indicative of a dislocated hip.

A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she "wets herself a little." She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is: a. Dysuria. b. Stress incontinence. c. Hematuria. d. Urge incontinence.

*B* *Stress incontinence* is involuntary urine loss with physical strain, sneezing, or coughing. Dysuria is pain or burning with urination. Hematuria is bleeding with urination. Urge incontinence is involuntary urine loss that occurs as a result of an overactive detrusor muscle in the bladder that contracts and causes an urgent need to void.

A semiconscious woman is brought to the emergency department after she was found on the floor in her kitchen. Her face, nail beds, lips, and oral mucosa are a bright cherry-red color. The nurse suspects that this coloring is due to: a. Polycythemia. b. Carbon monoxide poisoning. c. Carotenemia. d. Uremia.

*B* A bright cherry-red coloring in the face, upper torso, nail beds, lips, and oral mucosa appears in cases of carbon monoxide poisoning.

During a digital examination of the rectum, the nurse notices that the patient has hard feces in the rectum. The patient complains of feeling *"full," has a distended abdomen, and states that she has not had a bowel movement "for several days."* The nurse suspects which condition? a. Rectal polyp b. Fecal impaction c. Rectal abscess d. Rectal prolapse

*B* A fecal impaction is a collection of hard, desiccated feces in the rectum. The obstruction often results from decreased bowel motility, in which more water is reabsorbed from the stool. (See Table 25-2 for the descriptions of rectal polyps and abscesses; See Table 25-1 for a description of rectal prolapse.)

During a mental status assessment, which question by the nurse would best assess a person's judgment? a. "Do you feel that you are being watched, followed, or controlled?" b. "Tell me what you plan to do once you are discharged from the hospital." c. "What does the statement, 'People in glass houses shouldn't throw stones,' mean to you?" d. "What would you do if you found a stamped, addressed envelope lying on the sidewalk?"

*B* A person exercises judgment when he or she can compare and evaluate the alternatives in a situation and reach an appropriate course of action. Rather than testing the person's response to a hypothetical situation (as illustrated in the option with the envelope), the nurse should be more interested in the person's judgment about daily or long-term goals, the likelihood of acting in response to delusions or hallucinations, and the capacity for violent or suicidal behavior.

A 40-year-old black man is in the office for his annual physical examination. Which statement regarding the PSA blood test is *true*, according to the American Cancer Society? The PSA: a. Should be performed with this visit. b. Should be performed at age 45 years. c. Should be performed at age 50 years. d. Is only necessary if a family history of prostate cancer exists.

*B* According to the American Cancer Society (2006), the PSA blood test should be performed annually for black men beginning at age 45 years and annually for all other men over age 50 years.

A mother and her 13-year-old daughter express their concern related to the daughter's recent weight gain and her increase in appetite. Which of these statements represents information the nurse should discuss with them? a. Dieting and exercising are necessary at this age. b. Snacks should be high in protein, iron, and calcium. c. Teenagers who have a weight problem should not be allowed to snack. d. A low-calorie diet is important to prevent the accumulation of fat.

*B* After a period of slow growth in late childhood, adolescence is characterized by rapid physical growth and endocrine and hormonal changes. Caloric and protein requirements increase to meet this demand. Because of bone growth and increasing muscle mass (and, in girls, the onset of menarche), calcium and iron requirements also increase.

A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and asks the nurse, "What is osteoporosis?" The nurse explains that *osteoporosis* is defined as: a. Increased bone matrix. b. Loss of bone density. c. New, weaker bone growth. d. Increased phagocytic activity.

*B* After age 40 years, a loss of bone matrix (resorption) occurs more rapidly than new bone formation. The net effect is a gradual loss of bone density, or osteoporosis. The other options are not correct.

An imaginary line connecting the highest point on each iliac crest would cross the __________ vertebra. a. First sacral b. Fourth lumbar c. Seventh cervical d. Twelfth thoracic

*B* An imaginary line connecting the highest point on each iliac crest crosses the fourth lumbar vertebra. The other options are not correct.

When assessing the intensity of a patient's pain, which question by the nurse is appropriate? a. "What makes your pain better or worse?" b. "How much pain do you have now?" c. "How does pain limit your activities?" d. "What does your pain feel like?"

*B* Asking the patient "how much pain do you have?" is an assessment of the intensity of a patient's pain; various intensity scales can be used. Asking what makes one's pain better or worse assesses alleviating or aggravating factors. Asking whether pain limits one's activities assesses the degree of impairment and quality of life. Asking "what does your pain feel like" assesses the quality of pain.

The assessment of a 60-year-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. In testing his pain perception, the nurse decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When the nurse applies the sharp point of the pin on his arm several times, he is only able to identify these as one "very sharp prick." What would be the most accurate explanation for this? a. The patient has hyperesthesia as a result of the aging process. b. This response is most likely the result of the summation effect. c. The nurse was probably not poking hard enough with the pin in the other areas. d. The patient most likely has analgesia in some areas of arm and hyperalgesia in others.

*B* At least 2 seconds should be allowed to elapse between each stimulus to avoid summation. With summation, frequent consecutive stimuli are perceived as one strong stimulus. The other responses are incorrect.

A 25-year-old woman is in the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse will prepare to obtain which laboratory screening test at this time? a. Urine toxicology b. Complete blood cell count c. Alpha-fetoprotein d. Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis

*B* At the onset of pregnancy, a routine prenatal panel usually includes a complete blood cell count, serologic testing, rubella antibodies, hepatitis B screening, blood type and Rhesus factor, and antibody screen. A clean-catch urine sample is collected for urinalysis to rule out cystitis. Urine toxicology, although beneficial for women if active substance abuse is suspected or known, is not routinely performed. In the second trimester, maternal serum is analyzed for alpha-fetoprotein. Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis is offered to check whether a person carries the abnormal gene that causes cystic fibrosis but is not part of routine testing.

A 52-year-old woman has a papule on her nose that has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it has slowly grown larger. The nurse suspects which condition? a. Acne b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Melanoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma

*B* Basal cell carcinoma usually starts as a skin-colored papule that develops rounded, pearly borders with a central red ulcer. It is the most common form of skin cancer and grows slowly. This description does not fit acne lesions. (See Table 12-11 for descriptions of melanoma and squamous cell carcinoma.

When auscultating the anterior thorax of a pregnant woman, the nurse notices the presence of a murmur over the second, third, and fourth intercostal spaces. The murmur is continuous but can be obliterated by pressure with the stethoscope or finger on the thorax just lateral to the murmur. The nurse interprets this finding to be: a. Murmur of aortic stenosis. b. Most likely a mammary souffle. c. Associated with aortic insufficiency. d. Indication of a patent ductus arteriosus.

*B* Blood flow through the blood vessels, specifically the internal mammary artery, can often be heard over the second, third, and fourth intercostal spaces. This finding is called a *mammary souffle*, but it may be mistaken for a cardiac murmur. The other options are incorrect.

During a breast health interview, a patient states that she has noticed pain in her left breast. The nurse's most appropriate response to this would be: a. "Don't worry about the pain; breast cancer is not painful." b. "I would like some more information about the pain in your left breast." c. "Oh, I had pain like that after my son was born; it turned out to be a blocked milk duct." d. "Breast pain is almost always the result of benign breast disease."

*B* Breast pain occurs with trauma, inflammation, infection, or benign breast disease. The nurse will need to gather more information about the patient's pain rather than make statements that ignore the patient's concerns.

A patient repeats, "I feel hot. Hot, cot, rot, tot, got. I'm a spot." The nurse documents this as an illustration of: a. Blocking b. Clanging c. Echolalia d. Neologism

*B* Clanging is word choice based on sound, not meaning, and includes nonsense rhymes and puns. (See Table 5-6 for the definitions of the other terms.)

A woman at 25 weeks' gestation comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse notices that her face and lower extremities are swollen, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. The woman states that she has had headaches and blurry vision but thought she was just tired. What should the nurse suspect? a. Eclampsia b. Preeclampsia c. Diabetes type 1 d. Preterm labor

*B* Classic symptoms of preeclampsia include elevated blood pressure (greater than 140 mm Hg systolic or 90 mm Hg diastolic in a woman with previously normal blood pressure) and proteinuria. Onset and worsening symptoms may be sudden, and subjective signs include headaches and visual changes. Eclampsia is manifested by generalized tonic-clonic seizures. These symptoms are not indicative of diabetes mellitus (type 1 or 2) or preterm labor.

A 40-year-old man has come into the clinic with complaints of extreme pain in his toes. The nurse notices that his *toes are slightly swollen, reddened, and warm to the touch.* His complaints would suggest: a. Osteoporosis. b. Acute gout. c. Ankylosing spondylitis. d. Degenerative joint disease.

*B* Clinical findings for *acute gout* consist of redness, swelling, heat, and extreme pain like a continuous throbbing. Gout is a metabolic disorder of disturbed purine metabolism, associated with elevated serum uric acid. (See Table 22-1 for descriptions of the other terms.)

The ability that humans have to perform very skilled movements such as writing is controlled by the: a. Basal ganglia. b. Corticospinal tract. c. Spinothalamic tract. d. Extrapyramidal tract.

*B* Corticospinal fibers mediate voluntary movement, particularly very skilled, discrete, and purposeful movements, such as writing. The *corticospinal tract*, also known as the pyramidal tract, is a newer, "higher" motor system that humans have that permits very skilled and purposeful movements. The other responses are not related to skilled movements.

When reviewing the use of alcohol by older adults, the nurse notes that older adults have several characteristics that can increase the risk of alcohol use. Which would increase the bioavailability of alcohol in the blood for longer periods in the older adult? a. Increased muscle mass b. Decreased liver and kidney functioning c. Decreased blood pressure d. Increased cardiac outpu

*B* Decreased liver and kidney functioning increases the bioavailability of alcohol in the blood for longer periods. Aging people experience decreased muscle mass (not increased), which also increases the alcohol concentration in the blood because the alcohol is distributed to less tissue over time. Blood pressure and cardiac output are not factors regarding bioavailability.

A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? "A postmenopausal woman: a. Is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman." b. Should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions." c. Has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned." d. Is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle."

*B* Decreased vaginal secretions leave the vagina dry and at risk for irritation and pain with intercourse (dyspareunia). The other statements are incorrect.

The nurse is assessing the neurologic status of a patient who has a late-stage brain tumor. With the reflex hammer, the nurse draws a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and inward, across the ball of the foot. In response, the patient's toes fan out, and the big toe shows dorsiflexion. The nurse interprets this result as: a. Negative Babinski sign, which is normal for adults. b. Positive Babinski sign, which is abnormal for adults. c. Clonus, which is a hyperactive response. d. Achilles reflex, which is an expected response.

*B* Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes is a positive Babinski sign, also called up-going toes. This response occurs with upper motor neuron disease of the corticospinal (or pyramidal) tract and is an abnormal finding for adult

A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of severe sunburn and states, "I was out in the sun for just a couple of minutes." The nurse begins a medication review with her, paying special attention to which medication class? a. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs for pain b. Tetracyclines for acne c. Proton pump inhibitors for heartburn d. Thyroid replacement hormone for hypothyroidism

*B* Drugs that may increase sunlight sensitivity and give a burn response include sulfonamides, thiazide diuretics, oral hypoglycemic agents, and tetracycline.

During an examination, the nurse notices severe nystagmus in both eyes of a patient. Which conclusion by the nurse is correct? Severe nystagmus in both eyes: a. Is a normal occurrence. b. May indicate disease of the cerebellum or brainstem. c. Is a sign that the patient is nervous about the examination. d. Indicates a visual problem, and a referral to an ophthalmologist is indicated.

*B* End-point nystagmus at an extreme lateral gaze normally occurs; however, the nurse should carefully assess any other nystagmuses. Severe nystagmus occurs with disease of the vestibular system, cerebellum, or brainstem.

During an interview, a patient reveals that she is pregnant. She states that she is not sure whether she will breastfeed her baby and asks for some information about this. Which of these statements by the nurse is accurate? a. "Breastfed babies tend to be more colicky." b. "Breastfeeding provides the perfect food and antibodies for your baby." c. "Breastfed babies eat more often than infants on formula." d. "Breastfeeding is second nature, and every woman can do it."

*B* Exclusively breastfeeding for 6 months provides the perfect food and antibodies for the baby, decreases the risk of ear infections, promotes bonding, and provides relaxation.

A patient is being seen at the clinic for her 10-week prenatal visit. She asks when she will be able to hear the baby's heartbeat. The nurse should reply: a. "The baby's heartbeat is not usually heard until the second trimester." b. "The baby's heartbeat may be heard anywhere from the ninth to the twelfth week." c. "It is often difficult to hear the heartbeat at this point, but we can try." d. "It is normal to hear the heartbeat at 6 weeks. We may be able to hear it today."

*B* Fetal heart tones can be heard with the use of the Doppler device between 9 and 12 weeks. The other responses are incorrect.

A woman who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years is starting to notice that her fingers are drifting to the side. The nurse knows that this condition is commonly referred to as: a. Radial drift. b. Ulnar deviation. c. Swan-neck deformity. d. Dupuytren contracture.

*B* Fingers drift to the ulnar side because of stretching of the articular capsule and muscle imbalance caused by chronic rheumatoid arthritis. A radial drift is not observed. (See Table 22-4 for descriptions of swan-neck deformity and Dupuytren contracture.)

A patient who is 24 weeks' pregnant asks about wearing a seat belt while driving. Which response by the nurse is *correct*? a. "Seat belts should not be worn during pregnancy." b. "Place the lap belt below the uterus and use the shoulder strap at the same time." c. "Place the lap belt below the uterus but omit the shoulder strap during pregnancy." d. "Place the lap belt at your waist above the uterus and use the shoulder strap at the same time."

*B* For maternal and fetal safety, the nurse should instruct the woman to place the lap belt below the uterus and to use the shoulder strap. The other instructions are incorrect.

The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which position would be most appropriate in this situation? a. In the parent's lap b. In a frog-leg position on the examining table c. In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups d. Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended

*B* For school-age children, placing them on the examining table in a frog-leg position is best. With toddlers and preschoolers, having the child on the parent's lap in a frog-leg position is best.

A patient tells the nurse that, "All my life I've been called 'knock knees'." The nurse knows that another term for knock knees is: a. Genu varum. b. Genu valgum. c. Pes planus. d. Metatarsus adductus.

*B* Genu valgum is also known as knock knees and is present when more than 2.5 cm is between the medial malleoli when the knees are togethe

A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _______ cancer. a. Uterine b. Cervical c. Ovarian d. Endometrial

*B* HPV is the virus responsible for most cases of cervical cancer, not the other options.

During an interview, a woman has answered "yes" to two of the Abuse Assessment Screen questions. What should the nurse say next? a. "I need to report this abuse to the authorities." b. "Tell me about this abuse in your relationship." c. "So you were abused?" d. "Do you know what caused this abuse?"

*B* If a woman answers "yes" to any of the Abuse Assessment Screen questions, then the nurse should ask questions designed to assess how recent and how serious the abuse was. Asking the woman an open-ended question, such as "tell me about this abuse in your relationship" is a good way to start.

The nurse has completed an assessment on a patient who came to the clinic for a leg injury. As a result of the assessment, the nurse has determined that the patient has at-risk alcohol use. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate at this time? a. Record the results of the assessment, and notify the physician on call. b. State, "You are drinking more than is medically safe. I strongly recommend that you quit drinking, and I'm willing to help you." c. State, "It appears that you may have a drinking problem. Here is the telephone number of our local Alcoholics Anonymous chapter." d. Give the patient information about a local rehabilitation clinic.

*B* If an assessment has determined that the patient has at-risk drinking behavior, then the nurse should give a short but clear statement of assistance and concern. Simply giving out a telephone number or referral to agencies may not be enough.

A patient states during the interview that she noticed a new lump in the shower a few days ago. It was on her left breast near her axilla. The nurse should plan to: a. Palpate the lump first. b. Palpate the unaffected breast first. c. Avoid palpating the lump because it could be a cyst, which might rupture. d. Palpate the breast with the lump first but plan to palpate the axilla last.

*B* If the woman mentions a breast lump she has discovered herself, then the nurse should examine the unaffected breast first to learn a baseline of normal consistency for this individual.

A mother has noticed that her son, who has been to a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects: a. Eczema. b. Impetigo. c. Herpes zoster. d. Diaper dermatitis.

*B* Impetigo is moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin and most common in infants and children. Eczema is characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles with weeping, oozing, and crusts. Herpes zoster (i.e., chickenpox or varicella) is characterized by small, tight vesicles that are shiny with an erythematous base. Diaper dermatitis is characterized by red, moist maculopapular patches with poorly defined borders.

During an assessment of a 22-year-old woman who sustained a head injury from an automobile accident 4 hours earlier, the nurse notices the following changes: pupils were equal, but now the right pupil is fully dilated and nonreactive, and the left pupil is 4 mm and reacts to light. What do these findings suggest? a. Injury to the right eye b. Increased intracranial pressure c. Test inaccurately performed d. Normal response after a head injury

*B* In a person with a brain injury, a sudden, unilateral, dilated, and nonreactive pupil is ominous. CN III runs parallel to the brainstem. When increasing intracranial pressure pushes down the brainstem (uncal herniation), it puts pressure on CN III, causing pupil dilation. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is conducting a class on alcohol and the effects of alcohol on the body. How many standard drinks (each containing 14 grams of alcohol) per day in men are associated with increased deaths from cirrhosis, cancers of the mouth, esophagus, and injuries? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d .8

*B* In men, alcohol consumption of at least four standard drinks per day is associated with increased deaths from liver cirrhosis, cancers of the mouth, esophagus and other areas, and deaths from injuries and other external causes.

A nurse is assessing a patient's risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be: a. "You know that it's important to use condoms for protection, right?" b. "Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?" c. "Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?" d. "You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren't you?"

*B* In reviewing a patient's risk for STIs, the nurse should ask in a nonconfrontational manner whether condoms are being used during each episode of sexual intercourse. Asking a person whether he or she has an infection does not address the risk.

A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first? a. Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics. b. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. c. Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility. d. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.

*B* Infertility is considered after 1 year of engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse without conceiving. The other actions are not appropriate.

During a skin assessment, the nurse notices that a Mexican-American patient has skin that is yellowish-brown; however, the skin on the hard and soft palate is pink and the patient's scleras are not yellow. From this finding, the nurse could probably rule out: a. Pallor b. Jaundice c. Cyanosis d. Iron deficiency

*B* Jaundice is exhibited by a yellow color, which indicates rising levels of bilirubin in the blood. Jaundice is first noticed in the junction of the hard and soft palate in the mouth and in the scleras

During an interview, the nurse notes that the patient gets up several times to wash her hands even though they are not dirty. This behavior is an example of: a. Social phobia b. Compulsive disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Posttraumatic stress disorde

*B* Repetitive behaviors, such as handwashing, are behaviors that the person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession. The behaviors are aimed at preventing or reducing distress or preventing some dreaded event or situation.

The nurse is assessing the skin of a patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and notices multiple patchlike lesions on the temple and beard area that are faint pink in color. The nurse recognizes these lesions as: a. Measles (rubeola). b. Kaposi's sarcoma. c. Angiomas. d. Herpes zoster.

*B* Kaposi's sarcoma is a vascular tumor that, in the early stages, appears as multiple, patchlike, faint pink lesions over the patient's temple and beard areas. Measles is characterized by a red-purple maculopapular blotchy rash that appears on the third or fourth day of illness. The rash is first observed behind the ears, spreads over the face, and then spreads over the neck, trunk, arms, and legs. Cherry (senile) angiomas are small (1 to 5 mm), smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults over 30 years old. Herpes zoster causes vesicles up to 1 cm in size that are elevated with a cavity containing clear fluid.

The nurse knows that testing kinesthesia is a test of a person's: a. Fine touch. b. Position sense. c. Motor coordination. d. Perception of vibration.

*B* Kinesthesia, or position sense, is the person's ability to perceive passive movements of the extremities. The other options are incorrect.

An 80-year-old woman is visiting the clinic for a checkup. She states, "I can't walk as much as I used to." The nurse is observing for motor dysfunction in her hip and should ask her to: a. Internally rotate her hip while she is sitting. b. Abduct her hip while she is lying on her back. c. Adduct her hip while she is lying on her back. d. Externally rotate her hip while she is standing.

*B* Limited abduction of the hip while supine is the most common motion dysfunction found in hip disease. The other options are not correct.

A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red, macular, with a bull's eye pattern across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects: a. Rubeola. b. Lyme disease. c. Allergy to mosquito bites. d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

*B* Lyme disease occurs in people who spend time outdoors in May through September. The first disease state exhibits the distinctive bull's eye and a red macular or papular rash that radiates from the site of the tick bite with some central clearing. The rash spreads 5 cm or larger, and is usually in the axilla, midriff, inguinal, or behind the knee, with regional lymphadenopathy.

The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman's external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a *finding within normal limits*? a. Redness of the labia majora b. Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts c. Discharge that is foul smelling and irritating d. Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora

*B* No lesions should be noted, except for the occasional sebaceous cysts, which are yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm, nontender, and often multiple. The labia majora are dark pink, moist, and symmetric; redness indicates inflammation or lesions. Discharge that is foul smelling and irritating may indicate infection. In the nulliparous woman, the labia majora meet in the midline, are symmetric and plump.

While inspecting a patient's breasts, the nurse finds that the left breast is slightly larger than the right with the bilateral presence of Montgomery glands. The nurse should: a. Palpate over the Montgomery glands, checking for drainage. b. Consider these findings as normal, and proceed with the examination. c. Ask extensive health history questions regarding the woman's breast asymmetry. d. Continue with the examination, and then refer the patient for further evaluation of the Montgomery glands

*B* Normal findings of the breast include one breast (most often the left) slightly larger than the other and the presence of Montgomery glands across the areola.

When the nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) on a woman who is 32 weeks' pregnant, which of these would be considered a normal finding on a 0 to 4+ scale? a. Absent DTRs b. 2+ c. 4+ d. Brisk reflexes and the presence of clonus

*B* Normally during pregnancy, the DTRs are 1+ to 2+ and bilaterally equal. Brisk or greater than 2+ DTRs and the presence of clonus are abnormal and may be associated with an elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema in the preeclamptic woman.

The nurse is palpating a female patient's adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The *nurse's most appropriate course of action* would be to: a. Tell the patient that her examination is normal. b. Give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist. c. Suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings. d. Tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.

*B* Normally, the uterine wall feels firm and smooth, with the contour of the fundus rounded. Ovaries are not often palpable, but when they are, they normally feel smooth, firm, and almond shaped and are highly movable, sliding through the fingers. The fallopian tube is not normally palpable. No other mass or pulsation should be felt. Pulsation or palpable fallopian tube suggests ectopic pregnancy, which warran

During an examination of a 7-year-old girl, the nurse notices that the girl is showing breast budding. What should the nurse do next? a. Ask the young girl if her periods have started. b. Assess the girl's weight and body mass index (BMI). c. Ask the girl's mother at what age she started to develop breasts. d. Nothing; breast budding is a normal finding

*B* Research has shown that girls with overweight or obese BMI levels have a higher occurrence of early onset of breast budding (before age 8 years for black girls and age 10 years for white girls) and early menarche.

A patient is able to flex his right arm forward without difficulty or pain but is unable to abduct his arm because of pain and muscle spasms. The nurse should suspect: a. Crepitation. b. Rotator cuff lesions. c. Dislocated shoulder. d. Rheumatoid arthritis.

*B* Rotator cuff lesions may limit range of motion and cause pain and muscle spasms during abduction, whereas forward flexion remains fairly normal. The other options are not correct.

In obtaining a health history on a 74-year-old patient, the nurse notes that he drinks alcohol daily and that he has noticed a tremor in his hands that affects his ability to hold things. With this information, what response should the nurse make? a. "Does your family know you are drinking every day?" b. "Does the tremor change when you drink alcohol?" c. "We'll do some tests to see what is causing the tremor." d. "You really shouldn't drink so much alcohol; it may be causing your tremor."

*B* Senile tremor is relieved by alcohol, although not a recommended treatment. The nurse should assess whether the person is abusing alcohol in an effort to relieve the tremor.

A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if these changes could be attributable to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months earlier. The nurse should tell her: a. "HRT is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual." b. "HRT has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding." c. "Vaginal bleeding with HRT is very unusual; I suggest you come into the clinic immediately to have this evaluated." d. "It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week."

*B* Side effects of HRT include fluid retention, breast pain, and vaginal bleeding. The other responses are not correct

The nurse places a key in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. What term would the nurse use to describe this finding? a. Extinction b. Astereognosis c. Graphesthesia d. Tactile discrimination

*B* Stereognosis is the person's ability to recognize objects by feeling their forms, sizes, and weights. *Astereognosis* is an inability to identify objects correctly, and it occurs in sensory cortex lesions. Tactile discrimination tests fine touch. Extinction tests the person's ability to feel sensations on both sides of the body at the same point.

he nurse is examining the hip area of a patient and palpates a *flat depression on the upper, lateral side of the thigh* when the patient is standing. The nurse interprets this finding as the: a. Ischial tuberosity. b. Greater trochanter. c. Iliac crest. d. Gluteus maximus muscle.

*B* The *greater trochanter* of the femur is palpated when the person is standing, and it appears as a flat depression on the upper lateral side of the thigh. The iliac crest is the upper part of the hip bone; the ischial tuberosity lies under the gluteus maximus muscle and is palpable when the hip is flexed; and the gluteus muscle is part of the buttocks.

Which statement concerning the areas of the brain is *true*? a. The cerebellum is the center for speech and emotions. b. The hypothalamus controls body temperature and regulates sleep. c. The basal ganglia are responsible for controlling voluntary movements. d. Motor pathways of the spinal cord and brainstem synapse in the thalamus.

*B* The *hypothalamus* is a vital area with many important functions: body temperature controller, sleep center, anterior and posterior pituitary gland regulator, and coordinator of autonomic nervous system activity and emotional status. The cerebellum controls motor coordination, equilibrium, and balance. The basal ganglia control autonomic movements of the body. The motor pathways of the spinal cord synapse in various areas of the spinal cord, not in the thalamus.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal structures of the breast? The breast is made up of: a. Primarily muscle with very little fibrous tissue. b. Fibrous, glandular, and adipose tissues. c. Primarily milk ducts, known as lactiferous ducts. d. Glandular tissue, which supports the breast by attaching to the chest wall.

*B* The breast is made up of glandular, fibrous (including the suspensory ligaments), and adipose tissues.

During an interview the patient states, "I can feel this bump on the top of both of my shoulders—it doesn't hurt but I am curious about what it might be." The nurse should tell the patient that it is his: a. Subacromial bursa. b. Acromion process. c. Glenohumeral joint. d. Greater tubercle of the humerus.

*B* The bump of the scapula's acromion process is felt at the very top of the shoulder. The other options are not correct.

During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear: a. Stellate. b. Small and round. c. As a horizontal irregular slit. d. Everted.

*B* The cervical os in a nulliparous woman is small and round. In the parous woman, it is a horizontal, irregular slit that also may show healed lacerations on the sides (see Figure 26-13).

During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as: a. Uterine prolapse, graded first degree. b. Uterine prolapse, graded second degree. c. Uterine prolapse, graded third degree. d. A normal finding.

*B* The cervix should not be found to bulge into the vagina. Uterine prolapse is graded as follows: first degree—the cervix appears at the introitus with straining; second degree—the cervix bulges outside the introitus with straining; and third degree—the whole uterus protrudes, even without straining (essentially, the uterus is inside out).

When assessing a woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse looks for the classic symptoms associated with preeclampsia, which include: a. Edema, headaches, and seizures. b. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria. c. Elevated liver enzymes and high platelet counts. d. Decreased blood pressure and edema.

*B* The classic symptoms of preeclampsia are hypertension and proteinuria. Headaches may occur with worsening symptoms, and seizures may occur if preeclampsia is left untreated and leads to eclampsia. A serious variant of preeclampsia, the hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome, is an ominous picture. Edema is a common occurrence in pregnancy.

The nurse is reviewing aspects of substance abuse in preparation for a seminar. Which of these statements illustrates the concept of tolerance to an illicit substance? The person: a. Has a physiologic dependence on a substance. b. Requires an increased amount of the substance to produce the same effect. c. Requires daily use of the substance to function and is unable to stop using it. d. Experiences a syndrome of physiologic symptoms if the substance is not used.

*B* The concept of tolerance to a substance indicates that the person requires an increased amount of the substance to produce the same effect. Abuse indicates that the person needs to use the substance daily to function, and the person is unable to stop using it. Dependence is an actual physiologic dependence on the substance. Withdrawal occurs when cessation of the substance produces a syndrome of physiologic symptoms.

When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with an adolescent, a permission statement helps convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which statement is the best example of a permission statement? a. "It is okay that you have become sexually active." b. "Girls your age often have questions about sexual activity. Do you have any questions?" c. "If it is okay with you, I'd like to ask you some questions about your sexual history." d. "Girls your age often engage in sexual activities. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse."

*B* The examiner should start with a permission statement such as, "Girls your age often experience ..." A permission statement conveys the idea that it is normal to think or feel a certain way, and implying that the topic is normal and unexceptional is important.

During an assessment of the CNs, the nurse finds the following: asymmetry when the patient smiles or frowns, uneven lifting of the eyebrows, sagging of the lower eyelids, and escape of air when the nurse presses against the right puffed cheek. This would indicate dysfunction of which of these CNs? a. Motor component of CN IV b. Motor component of CN VII c. Motor and sensory components of CN XI d. Motor component of CN X and sensory component of CN VII

*B* The findings listed reflect a dysfunction of the motor component of the facial nerve (CN VII).

The nurse is preparing to conduct a mental status examination. Which statement is *true* regarding the mental status examination? a. A patient's family is the best resource for information about the patient's coping skills. b. Gathering mental status information during the health history interview is usually sufficient. c. Integrating the mental status examination into the health history interview takes an enormous amount of extra time. d. To get a good idea of the patient's level of functioning, performing a complete mental status examination is usually necessary.

*B* The full mental status examination is a systematic check of emotional and cognitive functioning. The steps described, however, rarely need to be taken in their entirety. Usually, one can assess mental status through the context of the health history interview.

A mother of a 1-month-old infant asks the nurse why it takes so long for infants to learn to roll over. The nurse knows that the reason for this is: a. A demyelinating process must be occurring with her infant. b. Myelin is needed to conduct the impulses, and the neurons of a newborn are not yet myelinated. c. The cerebral cortex is not fully developed; therefore, control over motor function gradually occurs. d. The spinal cord is controlling the movement because the cerebellum is not yet fully developed

*B* The infant's sensory and motor development proceeds along with the gradual acquisition of myelin, which is needed to conduct most impulses. Very little cortical control exists, and the neurons are not yet myelinated. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is assessing a patient's ischial tuberosity. To palpate the ischial tuberosity, the nurse knows that it is best to have the patient: a. Standing. b. Flexing the hip. c. Flexing the knee. d. Lying in the supine position.

*B* The ischial tuberosity lies under the gluteus maximus muscle and is palpable when the *hip is flexed.* The other options are not correct.

The two parts of the nervous system are the: a. Motor and sensory. b. Central and peripheral. c. Peripheral and autonomic. d. Hypothalamus and cerebral.

*B* The nervous system can be divided into two parts—central and peripheral. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system includes the 12 pairs of cranial nerves (CNs), the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and all of their branches

Which characteristic of the prostate gland would the nurse recognize as an abnormal finding while palpating the prostate gland through the rectum? a. Palpable central groove b. Tenderness to palpation c. Heart shaped d. Elastic and rubbery consistency

*B* The normal prostate gland should feel smooth, elastic, and rubbery; slightly movable; heart-shaped with a palpable central groove; and not be tender to palpation

A teenage girl has arrived complaining of pain in her left wrist. She was playing basketball when she fell and landed on her left hand. The nurse examines her hand and would expect a fracture if the girl complains of a: a. Dull ache. b. Deep pain in her wrist. c. Sharp pain that increases with movement. d. Dull throbbing pain that increases with rest.

*C* A fracture causes sharp pain that increases with movement. The other types of pain do not occur with a fracture.

During the examination portion of a patient's visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this position more comfortable for her? a. Ask her to place her hands and arms over her head. b. Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact. c. Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table. d. Allow her to keep her buttocks approximately 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.

*B* The nurse should elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact. The patient's arms should be placed at her sides or across the chest. Placing her hands and arms over her head only tightens the abdominal muscles. The feet should be placed into the stirrups, knees apart, and buttocks at the edge of the examining table. The stirrups are placed so that the legs are not abducted too far.

During a breast examination on a female patient, the nurse notices that the nipple is flat, broad, and fixed. The patient states it "started doing that a few months ago." This finding suggests: a. Dimpling. b. Retracted nipple. c. Nipple inversion. d. Deviation in nipple pointing.

*B* The retracted nipple looks flatter and broader, similar to an underlying crater. A recent retraction suggests cancer, which causes fibrosis of the whole duct system and pulls in the nipple. It also may occur with benign lesions such as ectasia of the ducts. The nurse should not confuse retraction with the normal long-standing type of nipple inversion, which has no broadening and is not fixed.

During a health history interview, a 38-year-old woman shares that she is thinking about having another baby. The nurse knows which statement to be *true* regarding pregnancy after 35 years of age? a. Fertility does not start to decline until age 40 years. b. Occurrence of Down syndrome is significantly more frequent after the age of 35 years. c. Genetic counseling and prenatal screening are not routine until after age 40 years. d. Women older than 35 years who are pregnant have the same rate of pregnancy-related complications as those who are younger than 35 years.

*B* The risk of Down syndrome increases as the woman ages, from approximately 1 in 1250 at age 25 years to 1 in 400 at age 35 years. Fertility declines with advancing maternal age. Women 35 years and older or with a history of a genetic abnormality are offered genetic counseling and the options of prenatal diagnostic screening tests. Because the incidence of chronic diseases increases with age, women older than 35 years who are pregnant more often have medical complications such as diabetes, obesity, and hypertension.

The nurse keeps in mind that a thorough skin assessment is extremely important because the skin holds information about a person's: a. Support systems. b. Circulatory status. c. Socioeconomic status. d. Psychological wellness.

*B* The skin holds information about the body's circulation, nutritional status, and signs of systemic diseases, as well as topical data on the integumentary system itself.

In performing a breast examination, the nurse knows that examining the upper outer quadrant of the breast is especially important. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant is: a. The largest quadrant of the breast. b. The location of most breast tumors. c. Where most of the suspensory ligaments attach. d. More prone to injury and calcifications than other locations in the breast.

*B* The upper outer quadrant is the site of most breast tumors. In the upper outer quadrant, the nurse should notice the axillary tail of Spence, the cone-shaped breast tissue that projects up into the axilla, close to the pectoral group of axillary lymph nodes

The nurse is assessing a patient who has liver disease for jaundice. Which of these assessment findings is indicative of true jaundice? a. Yellow patches in the outer sclera b. Yellow color of the sclera that extends up to the iris c. Skin that appears yellow when examined under low light d. Yellow deposits on the palms and soles of the feet where jaundice first appears

*B* The yellow sclera of jaundice extends up to the edge of the iris. Calluses on the palms and soles of the feet often appear yellow but are not classified as jaundice. Scleral jaundice should not be confused with the normal yellow subconjunctival fatty deposits that are common in the outer sclera of dark-skinned persons.

During the neurologic assessment of a "healthy" 35-year-old patient, the nurse asks him to relax his muscles completely. The nurse then moves each extremity through full range of motion. Which of these results would the nurse expect to find? a. Firm, rigid resistance to movement b. Mild, even resistance to movement c. Hypotonic muscles as a result of total relaxation d. Slight pain with some directions of movement

*B* Tone is the normal degree of tension (contraction) in voluntarily relaxed muscles. It shows a mild resistance to passive stretching. Normally, the nurse will notice a mild, even resistance to movement. The other responses are not correct

When assessing a patient's pain, the nurse knows that an example of visceral pain would be: a. Hip fracture. b. Cholecystitis. c. Second-degree burns. d. Pain after a leg amputation.

*B* Visceral pain originates from the larger interior organs, such as the gallbladder, liver, or kidneys

When evaluating a patient's pain, the nurse knows that an example of *acute pain* would be: a. Arthritic pain. b. Fibromyalgia. c. Kidney stones. d. Low back pain.

*C* Acute pain is short-term and dissipates after an injury heals, such as with kidney stones. The other conditions are examples of chronic pain during which the pain continues for 6 months or longer and does not stop when the injury heals.

The nurse suspects abuse when a 10-year-old child is taken to the urgent care center for a leg injury. The best way to document the history and physical findings is to: a. Document what the child's caregiver tells the nurse. b. Use the words the child has said to describe how the injury occurred. c. Record what the nurse observes during the conversation. d. Rely on photographs of the injuries.

*B* When documenting the history and physical findings of suspected child abuse and neglect, use the words the child has said to describe how his or her injury occurred. Remember, the abuser may be accompanying the child.

A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are: a. "If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina." b. "Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment." c. "If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you." d. "We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office."

*B* When instructing a patient before Pap smear is obtained, the nurse should follow these guidelines: Do not obtain during the woman's menses or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Instruct the woman not to douche, have intercourse, or put anything into the vagina within 24 hours before collecting the specimens. Any specimens will be obtained during the visit, not beforehand.

An older adult woman is brought to the emergency department after being found lying on the kitchen floor for 2 days; she is extremely dehydrated. What would the nurse expect to see during the examination? a. Smooth mucous membranes and lips b. Dry mucous membranes and cracked lips c. Pale mucous membranes d. White patches on the mucous membranes

*B* With dehydration, mucous membranes appear dry and the lips look parched and cracked. The other responses are not found in dehydration.

A patient is brought to the emergency department. He is *restless, has dilated pupils, is sweating, has a runny nose and tearing eyes, and complains of muscle and joint pains.* His girlfriend thinks he has influenza, but she became concerned when his temperature went up to 39.4° C. She admits that he has been a heavy drug user, but he has been trying to stop on his own. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing withdrawal symptoms from which substance? a. Alcohol b. Heroin c. Crack cocaine d. Sedatives

*B* Withdrawal symptoms of opiates, such as heroin, are similar to the clinical picture of influenza and include symptoms such as dilated pupils, lacrimation, runny nose, tachycardia, fever, restlessness, muscle and joint pains, and other symptoms. (Withdrawal symptoms from alcohol, cocaine, and sedatives are described in Table 6-7.)

The nurse is assessing the joints of a woman who has stated, "I have a long family history of arthritis, and my joints hurt." The nurse suspects that she has osteoarthritis. Which of these are symptoms of osteoarthritis? *Select all that apply.* a. Symmetric joint involvement b. Asymmetric joint involvement c. Pain with motion of affected joints d. Affected joints are swollen with hard, bony protuberances e. Affected joints may have heat, redness, and swelling

*B, C, D* In osteoarthritis, asymmetric joint involvement commonly affects hands, knees, hips, and lumbar and cervical segments of the spine. Affected joints have stiffness, swelling with hard bony protuberances, pain with motion, and limitation of motion. The other options reflect the signs of rheumatoid arthritis.

During an admission assessment of a patient with dementia, the nurse assesses for pain because the patient has recently had several falls. Which of these are appropriate for the nurse to assess in a patient with dementia? *Select all that apply.* a. Ask the patient, "Do you have pain?" b. Assess the patient's breathing independent of vocalization. c. Note whether the patient is calling out, groaning, or crying. d. Have the patient rate pain on a 1-to-10 scale. e. Observe the patient's body language for pacing and agitation.

*B, C, E* Patients with dementia may say "no" when, in reality, they are very uncomfortable because words have lost their meaning. Patients with dementia become less able to identify and describe pain over time, although pain is still present. People with dementia communicate pain through their behaviors. Agitation, pacing, and repetitive yelling may indicate pain and not a worsening of the dementia. (See Figure 10-10 for the Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia [PAINAD] scale, which may also be used to assess pain in persons with dementia.)

A 69-year-old patient has been admitted to an adult psychiatric unit because his wife thinks he is getting more and more confused. He laughs when he is found to be forgetful, saying "I'm just getting old!" After the nurse completes a thorough neurologic assessment, which findings would be indicative of Alzheimer disease? *Select all that apply.* a. Occasionally forgetting names or appointments b. Difficulty performing familiar tasks, such as placing a telephone call c. Misplacing items, such as putting dish soap in the refrigerator d. Sometimes having trouble finding the right word e. Rapid mood swings, from calm to tears, for no apparent reason f. Getting lost in one's own neighborhood

*B, C, E, F* Difficulty performing familiar tasks, misplacing items, rapid mood swings, and getting lost in one's own neighborhood can be warning signs of Alzheimer disease. Occasionally forgetting names or appointments, and sometimes having trouble finding the right word are part of normal aging. (For other examples of Alzheimer disease, see Table 23-2.)

The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing staff on the epidermal layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The *epidermis* is: a. Highly vascular. b. Thick and tough. c. Thin and nonstratified. d. Replaced every 4 weeks.

*D* The epidermis is thin yet tough, replaced every 4 weeks, avascular, and stratified into several zones.

The nurse is examining a 62-year-old man and notes that he has bilateral gynecomastia. The nurse should explore his health history for which related conditions? *Select all that apply.* a. Malnutrition b. Hyperthyroidism c. Type 2 diabetes mellitus d. Liver disease e. History of alcohol abuse

*B, D, E* Gynecomastia occurs with Cushing syndrome, liver cirrhosis, adrenal disease, hyperthyroidism, and numerous drugs, such as alcohol and marijuana use, estrogen treatment for prostate cancer, antibiotics (metronidazole, isoniazid), digoxin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, diazepam, and tricyclic antidepressants.

The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass's characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? *Select all that apply.* a. Heavy and solid b. Mobile and fluctuant c. Mobile and solid d. Fixed e. Smooth and round f. Poorly defined

*B, E* An ovarian cyst (fluctuant ovarian mass) is usually asymptomatic and would feel like a smooth, round, fluctuant, mobile, nontender mass on the ovary. A mass that is heavy, solid, fixed, and poorly defined suggests malignancy. A benign mass may feel mobile and solid.

A patient has been admitted to a hospital after the staff in the nursing home noticed a pressure ulcer in his sacral area. The nurse examines the pressure ulcer and determines that it is a stage II ulcer. Which of these findings are characteristic of a stage II pressure ulcer? *Select all that apply.* a. Intact skin appears red but is not broken. b. Partial thickness skin erosion is observed with a loss of epidermis or dermis. c. Ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. d. Localized redness in light skin will blanch with fingertip pressure. e. Open blister areas have a red-pink wound bed. f. Patches of eschar cover parts of the wound.

*B, E* Stage I pressure ulcers have intact skin that appears red but is not broken, and localized redness in intact skin will blanche with fingertip pressure. Stage II pressure ulcers have partial thickness skin erosion with a loss of epidermis or also the dermis; open blisters have a red-pink wound bed. Stage III pressure ulcers are full thickness, extending into the subcutaneous tissue; subcutaneous fat may be seen but not muscle, bone, or tendon. Stage IV pressure ulcers involve all skin layers and extend into supporting tissue, exposing muscle, bone, and tendon. Slough (stringy matter attached to the wound bed) or eschar (black or brown necrotic tissue) may be present.

A patient repeatedly seems to have difficulty coming up with a word. He says, "I was on my way to work, and when I got there, the thing that you step into that goes up in the air was so full that I decided to take the stairs." The nurse will note on his chart that he is using or experiencing: a. Blocking b. Neologism c. Circumlocution d. Circumstantiality

*C* *Circumlocution* is a roundabout expression, substituting a phrase when one cannot think of the name of the object.

During a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. This finding is documented as: a. Unidactyly. b. Syndactyly. c. Polydactyly. d. Multidactyly.

*C* *Polydactyly* is the presence of extra fingers or toes. Syndactyly is webbing between adjacent fingers or toes. The other terms are not correct.

A patient comes in for a physical examination and complains of "freezing to death" while waiting for her examination. The nurse notes that her skin is pale and cool and attributes this finding to: a. Venous pooling. b. Peripheral vasodilation. c. Peripheral vasoconstriction. d. Decreased arterial perfusion.

*C* A chilly or air-conditioned environment causes vasoconstriction, which results in false pallor and coolness (see Table 12-1).

A patient has a severed spinal nerve as a result of trauma. Which statement is true in this situation? a. Because there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, no effect results if only one nerve is severed. b. The dermatome served by this nerve will no longer experience any sensation. c. The adjacent spinal nerves will continue to carry sensations for the dermatome served by the severed nerve. d. A severed spinal nerve will only affect motor function of the patient because spinal nerves have no sensory component.

*C* A dermatome is a circumscribed skin area that is primarily supplied from one spinal cord segment through a particular spinal nerve. The dermatomes overlap, which is a form of biologic insurance; that is, if one nerve is severed, then most of the sensations can be transmitted by the spinal nerve above and the spinal nerve below the severed nerve.

The nurse is planning health teaching for a 65-year-old woman who has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and has aphasia. Which of these questions is most important to use when assessing mental status in this patient? a. "Please count backward from 100 by seven." b. "I will name three items and ask you to repeat them in a few minutes." c. "Please point to articles in the room and parts of the body as I name them." d. "What would you do if you found a stamped, addressed envelope on the sidewalk?"

*C* Additional tests for persons with aphasia include word comprehension (asking the individual to point to articles in the room or parts of the body), reading (asking the person to read available print), and writing (asking the person to make up and write a sentence).

The nurse is palpating the fundus of a pregnant woman. Which statement about palpation of the fundus is *true*? a. The fundus should be hard and slightly tender to palpation during the first trimester. b. Fetal movement may not be felt by the examiner until the end of the second trimester. c. After 20 weeks' gestation, the number of centimeters should approximate the number of weeks' gestation. d. Fundal height is usually less than the number of weeks' gestation, unless an abnormal condition such as excessive amniotic fluid is present.

*C* After 20 weeks' gestation, the number of centimeters should approximate the number of weeks' gestation. In addition, at 20 weeks' gestation, the examiner may be able to feel fetal movement and the head can be balloted.

The nurse is assessing a 1-week-old infant and is testing his muscle strength. The nurse lifts the infant with hands under the axillae and notices that the infant starts to "slip" between the hands. The nurse should: a. Suspect a fractured clavicle. b. Suspect that the infant may have a deformity of the spine. c. Suspect that the infant may have weakness of the shoulder muscles. d. Conclude that this is a normal finding because the musculature of an infant at this age is undeveloped.

*C* An infant who starts to "slip" between the nurse's hands shows weakness of the shoulder muscles. An infant with normal muscle strength wedges securely between the nurse's hands. The other responses are not correct.

A 13-year-old girl is interested in obtaining information about the cause of her acne. The nurse should share with her that acne: a. Is contagious. b. Has no known cause. c. Is caused by increased sebum production. d. Has been found to be related to poor hygiene.

*C* Approximately 90% of males and 80% of females will develop acne; causes are increased sebum production and epithelial cells that do not desquamate normally.

he nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. The best way for the nurse to do this would be to: a. Administer the FACT test. b. Ask him to describe his first job. c. Give him the Four Unrelated Words Test. d. Ask him to describe what television show he was watching before coming to the clinic.

*C* Ask questions that can be corroborated, which screens for the occasional person who confabulates or makes up answers to fill in the gaps of memory loss. The Four Unrelated Words Test tests the person's ability to lay down new memories and is a highly sensitive and valid memory test.

When taking the health history on a patient with a seizure disorder, the nurse assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of these would be the best question for obtaining this information? a. "Does your muscle tone seem tense or limp?" b. "After the seizure, do you spend a lot of time sleeping?" c. "Do you have any warning sign before your seizure starts?" d. "Do you experience any color change or incontinence during the seizure?"

*C* Aura is a subjective sensation that precedes a seizure; it could be auditory, visual, or motor. The other questions do not solicit information about an aura.

Generally, the changes normally associated with menopause occur because the cells in the reproductive tract are: a. Aging. b. Becoming fibrous. c. Estrogen dependent. d. Able to respond to estrogen.

*C* Because cells in the reproductive tract are estrogen dependent, decreased estrogen levels during menopause bring dramatic physical changes. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is assessing for inflammation in a dark-skinned person. Which technique is the best? a. Assessing the skin for cyanosis and swelling b. Assessing the oral mucosa for generalized erythema c. Palpating the skin for edema and increased warmth d. Palpating for tenderness and local areas of ecchymosis

*C* Because inflammation cannot be seen in dark-skinned persons, palpating the skin for increased warmth, for taut or tightly pulled surfaces that may be indicative of edema, and for a hardening of deep tissues or blood vessels is often necessary.

The nurse auscultates a functional systolic murmur, grade II/IV, on a woman in week 30 of her pregnancy. The remainder of her physical assessment is within normal limits. The nurse would: a. Consider this finding abnormal, and refer her for additional consultation. b. Ask the woman to run briefly in place and then assess for an increase in intensity of the murmur. c. Know that this finding is normal and is a result of the increase in blood volume during pregnancy. d. Ask the woman to restrict her activities and return to the clinic in 1 week for re-evaluation.

*C* Because of the increase in blood volume, a functional systolic murmur, grade II/IV or less, can be heard in 95% of pregnant women. The other actions are not appropriate.

The nurse is examining a 2-month-old infant and notices *asymmetry of the infant's gluteal folds*. The nurse should assess for other signs of what disorder? a. Fractured clavicle b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Hip dislocation

*D* Unequal gluteal folds may accompany hip dislocation after 2 to 3 months of age, but some asymmetry may occur in healthy children. Further assessment is needed. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is preparing for a class in early detection of breast cancer. Which statement is true with regard to breast cancer in black women in the United States? a. Breast cancer is not a threat to black women. b. Black women have a lower incidence of regional or distant breast cancer than white women. c. Black women are more likely to die of breast cancer at any age. d. Breast cancer incidence in black women is higher than that of white women after age 45.

*C* Black women have a higher incidence of breast cancer before age 45 years than white women and are more likely to die of their disease. In addition, black women are significantly more likely to be diagnosed with regional or distant breast cancer than are white women. These racial differences in mortality rates may be related to an insufficient use of screening measures and a lack of access to health care.

A woman is in the family planning clinic seeking birth control information. She states that her breasts "change all month long" and that she is worried that this is unusual. What is the nurse's best response? The nurse should tell her that: a. Continual changes in her breasts are unusual. The breasts of nonpregnant women usually stay pretty much the same all month long. b. Breast changes in response to stress are very common and that she should assess her life for stressful events. c. Because of the changing hormones during the monthly menstrual cycle, cyclic breast changes are common. d. Breast changes normally occur only during pregnancy and that a pregnancy test is needed at this time.

*C* Breasts of the nonpregnant woman change with the ebb and flow of hormones during the monthly menstrual cycle. During the 3 to 4 days before menstruation, the breasts feel full, tight, heavy, and occasionally sore. The breast volume is smallest on days 4 to 7 of the menstrual cycle.

A patient who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years comes to the clinic to ask about changes in her fingers. The nurse will assess for signs of what problems? a. Heberden nodes b. Bouchard nodules c. Swan-neck deformities d. Dupuytren contractures

*C* Changes in the fingers caused by chronic rheumatoid arthritis include *swan-neck* and boutonniere deformities. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodules are associated with osteoarthritis. Dupuytren contractures of the digits occur because of chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia (see Table 22-4).

A 42-year-old woman complains that she has noticed several small, slightly raised, bright red dots on her chest. On examination, the nurse expects that the spots are probably: a. Anasarca. b. Scleroderma. c. Senile angiomas. d. Latent myeloma.

*C* Cherry (senile) angiomas are small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk of adults over 30 years old.

The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient and knows that this finding is expected in which condition? a. Severe obesity b. Childhood growth spurts c. Severe dehydration d. Connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma

*C* Decreased skin turgor is associated with severe dehydration or extreme weight loss.

A female patient has denied any abuse when answering the Abuse Assessment Screen, but the nurse has noticed some other conditions that are associated with IPV. Examples of such conditions include: a. Asthma. b. Confusion. c. Depression. d. Frequent colds.

*C* Depression is one of the conditions that is particularly associated with IPV. Abused women also have been found to have more chronic health problems, such as neurologic, gastrointestinal, and gynecologic symptoms; chronic pain; and symptoms of suicidality and posttraumatic stress disorder.

A man who was found wandering in a park at 2 AM has been brought to the emergency department for an examination; he said he fell and hit his head. During the examination, the nurse asks him to use his index finger to touch the nurse's finger, then his own nose, then the nurse's finger again (which has been moved to a different location). The patient is clumsy, unable to follow the instructions, and overshoots the mark, missing the finger. The nurse should suspect which of the following? a. Cerebral injury b. Cerebrovascular accident c. Acute alcohol intoxication d. Peripheral neuropathy

*C* During the finger-to-finger test, if the person has clumsy movement with overshooting the mark, either a cerebellar disorder or acute alcohol intoxication should be suspected. The person's movements should be smooth and accurate. The other options are not correct.

During the examination of a woman in her second trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices the presence of a small amount of yellow drainage from the nipples. The nurse knows that this is: a. An indication that the woman's milk is coming in. b. A sign of possible breast cancer in a pregnant woman. c. Most likely colostrum and considered a normal finding at this stage of the pregnancy. d. Too early in the pregnancy for lactation to begin and refers the woman to a specialist.

*C* During the second trimester, colostrum, the precursor of milk, may be expressed from the nipples. Colostrum is yellow and contains more minerals and protein but less sugar and fat than mature milk. The other options are incorrect.

A woman who is 8 weeks' pregnant is visiting the clinic for a checkup. Her systolic blood pressure is 30 mm Hg higher than her prepregnancy systolic blood pressure. The nurse should: a. Consider this a normal finding. b. Expect the blood pressure to decrease as the estrogen levels increase throughout the pregnancy. c. Consider this an abnormal finding because blood pressure is typically lower at this point in the pregnancy. d. Recommend that she decrease her salt intake in an attempt to decrease her peripheral vascular resistance.

*C* During the seventh gestational week, blood pressure begins to drop as a result of falling peripheral vascular resistance. Early in the first trimester, blood pressure values are similar to those of prepregnancy measurements. In this case, the woman's blood pressure is higher than it should be.

During an examination, the nurse notes that a patient is exhibiting flight of ideas. Which statement by the patient is an example of flight of ideas? a. "My stomach hurts. Hurts, spurts, burts." b. "Kiss, wood, reading, ducks, onto, maybe." c. "Take this pill? The pill is red. I see red. Red velvet is soft, soft as a baby's bottom." d. "I wash my hands, wash them, wash them. I usually go to the sink and wash my hands."

*C* Flight of ideas is demonstrated by an abrupt change, rapid skipping from topic to topic, and practically continuous flow of accelerated speech. Topics usually have recognizable associations or are plays on words.

A mother brings her newborn baby boy in for a checkup; she tells the nurse that *he does not seem to be moving his right arm as much as his left and that he seems to have pain when she lifts him up under the arms*. The nurse suspects a fractured clavicle and would observe for: a. Negative Allis test. b. Positive Ortolani sign. c. Limited range of motion during the Moro reflex. d. Limited range of motion during Lasègue test.

*C* For a fractured clavicle, the nurse should observe for *limited arm range of motion and unilateral response to the Moro reflex.* The other tests are not appropriate for this type of fracture

The nurse suspects that a patient has carpal tunnel syndrome and wants to perform the *Phalen test.* To perform this test, the nurse should instruct the patient to: a. Dorsiflex the foot. b. Plantarflex the foot. c. Hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds. d. Hyperextend the wrists with the palmar surface of both hands touching, and wait for 60 seconds.

*C* For the Phalen test, the nurse should ask the person to hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand. The Phalen test reproduces numbness and burning in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome. The other actions are not correct when testing for carpal tunnel syndrome.

The nurse is assessing a 30-year-old unemployed immigrant from an underdeveloped country who has been in the United States for 1 month. Which of these problems related to his nutritional status might the nurse expect to find? a. Obesity b. Hypotension c. Osteomalacia (softening of the bones) d. Coronary artery disease

*C* General undernutrition, hypertension, diarrhea, lactose intolerance, osteomalacia, scurvy, and dental caries are among the more common nutrition-related problems of new immigrants from developing countries.

A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as grav _____, para _____, AB _____. a. 2; 2; 1 b. 3; 2; 0 c. 3; 2; 1 d. 3; 3; 1

*C* Gravida (grav) is the number of pregnancies. Para is the number of births. Abortions are interrupted pregnancies, including elective abortions and spontaneous miscarriages.

In examining a 70-year-old male patient, the nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia. Which of the following describes the nurse's best course of action? a. Recommend that he make an appointment with his physician for a mammogram. b. Ignore it. Benign breast enlargement in men is not unusual. c. Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes, and recommend that he see his physician. d. Explain that gynecomastia in men is usually associated with prostate enlargement and recommend that he be thoroughly screened.

*C* Gynecomastia may reappear in the aging man and may be attributable to a testosterone deficiency.

During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be: a. Syphilitic chancre. b. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis). c. HPV or genital warts. d. Pediculosis pubis (crab lice).

*C* HPV lesions are painless, warty growths that the woman may not notice. Lesions are pink or flesh colored, soft, pointed, moist, warty papules that occur in single or multiple cauliflower-like patches around the vulva, introitus, anus, vagina, or cervix. Herpetic lesions are painful clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema. Syphilitic chancres begin as a solitary silvery papule that erodes into a red, round or oval superficial ulcer with a yellowish discharge. Pediculosis pubis causes severe perineal itching and excoriations and erythematous areas (see Table 26-2).

During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion? a. "I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed." b. "I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period." c. "I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night." d. "I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom."

*C* Hormone shifts occur during the perimenopausal period, and associated symptoms of menopause may occur, such as hot flashes, night sweats, numbness and tingling, headache, palpitations, drenching sweats, mood swings, vaginal dryness, and itching. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is asking an adolescent about illicit substance abuse. The adolescent answers, "Yes, I've used marijuana at parties with my friends." What is the next question the nurse should ask? a. "Who are these friends?" b. "Do your parents know about this?" c. "When was the last time you used marijuana?" d. "Is this a regular habit?"

*C* If a patient admits to the use of illicit substances, then the nurse should ask, "When was the last time you used drugs?" and "How much did you take that time?" The other questions may be considered accusatory and are not conducive to gathering information.

The nurse knows that which statement is *true* regarding the pain experienced by infants? a. Pain in infants can only be assessed by physiologic changes, such as an increased heart rate. b. The FPS-R can be used to assess pain in infants. c. A procedure that induces pain in adults will also induce pain in the infant. d. Infants feel pain less than do adults.

*C* If a procedure or disease process causes pain in an adult, then it will also cause pain in an infant. Physiologic changes cannot be exclusively used to confirm or deny pain because other factors, such as medications, fluid status, or stress may cause physiologic changes. The FPS-R can be used starting at age 4 years.

The nurse has palpated a lump in a female patient's right breast. The nurse documents this as a small, round, firm, distinct, lump located at 2 o'clock, 2 cm from the nipple. It is nontender and fixed. No associated retraction of the skin or nipple, no erythema, and no axillary lymphadenopathy are observed. What information is missing from the documentation? a. Shape of the lump b. Consistency of the lump c. Size of the lump d. Whether the lump is solitary or multiple

*C* If the nurse feels a lump or mass, then he or she should note these characteristics: (1) location, (2) size—judge in centimeters in three dimensions: width × length × thickness, (3) shape, (4) consistency, (5) motility, (6) distinctness, (7) nipple, (8) the skin over the lump, (9) tenderness, and (10) lymphadenopathy.

The nurse is conducting a patient interview. Which statement made by the patient should the nurse more fully explore during the interview? a. "I sleep like a baby." b. "I have no health problems." c. "I never did too good in school." d. "I am not currently taking any medications."

*C* In every mental status examination, the following factors from the health history that could affect the findings should be noted: any known illnesses or health problems, such as alcoholism or chronic renal disease; current medications, the side effects of which may cause confusion or depression; the usual educational and behavioral level, noting this level as the patient's normal baseline and not expecting a level of performance on the mental status examination to exceed it; and responses to personal history questions, indicating current stress, social interaction patterns, and sleep habits.

During a session on substance abuse, the nurse is reviewing statistics with the class. For persons aged 12 years and older, which *illicit substance was most commonly used*? a. Crack cocaine b. Heroin c. Marijuana d. Hallucinogens

*C* In persons age 12 years and older who reported using during the past month, marijuana (hashish) was the most commonly used illicit drug reported.

A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for a monthly appointment. During the assessment, the nurse notices that she has a brown patch of hyperpigmentation on her face. The nurse continues the skin assessment aware that another finding may be: a. Keratoses. b. Xerosis. c. Chloasma. d. Acrochordons.

*C* In pregnancy, skin changes can include striae, linea nigra (a brownish-black line down the midline), chloasma (brown patches of hyperpigmentation), and vascular spiders. Keratoses are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that look crusted, scaly, and warty. Xerosis is dry skin. Acrochordons, or skin tags, occur more often in the aging adult.

A patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that he has been confined to his recliner chair for approximately 3 days with his feet down and he asks the nurse to evaluate his feet. During the assessment, the nurse might expect to find: a. Pallor b. Coolness c. Distended veins d. Prolonged capillary filling time

*C* Keeping the feet in a dependent position causes venous pooling, resulting in redness, warmth, and distended veins. Prolonged elevation would cause pallor and coolness. Immobilization or prolonged inactivity would cause prolonged capillary filling time (see Table 12-1).

During an examination, the nurse asks a patient to bend forward from the waist and notices that the patient has lateral tilting. When his leg is raised straight up, the patient complains of a *pain going down his buttock into his leg.* The nurse suspects: a. Scoliosis. b. Meniscus tear. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Spasm of paravertebral muscles.

*C* Lateral tilting and sciatic pain with straight leg raising are findings that occur with a *herniated nucleus pulposus*. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is explaining the mechanism of the growth of long bones to a mother of a toddler. Where does lengthening of the bones occur? a. Bursa b. Calcaneus c. Epiphyses d. Tuberosities

*C* Lengthening occurs at the *epiphyses,* or growth plates. The other options are not correct.

A 70-year-old woman who loves to garden has small, flat, brown macules over her arms and hands. She asks, "What causes these liver spots?" The nurse tells her, "They are: a. "Signs of decreased hematocrit related to anemia." b. "Due to the destruction of melanin in your skin from exposure to the sun." c. "Clusters of melanocytes that appear after extensive sun exposure." d. "Areas of hyperpigmentation related to decreased perfusion and vasoconstriction."

*C* Liver spots, or senile lentigines, are clusters of melanocytes that appear on the forearms and dorsa of the hands after extensive sun exposure. The other responses are not correct

The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a 41-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. When testing her *ability to feel the vibrations of a tuning fork,* the nurse notices that the patient is unable to feel vibrations on the great toe or ankle bilaterally, but she is able to feel vibrations on both patellae. Given this information, what would the nurse suspect? a. Hyperalgesia b. Hyperesthesia c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Lesion of sensory cortex

*C* Loss of vibration sense occurs with peripheral neuropathy (e.g., diabetes and alcoholism). Peripheral neuropathy is worse at the feet and gradually improves as the examiner moves up the leg, as opposed to a specific nerve lesion, which has a clear zone of deficit for its dermatome. The other responses are incorrect.

During a discussion about BSEs with a 30-year-old woman, which of these statements by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The best time to examine your breasts is during ovulation." b. "Examine your breasts every month on the same day of the month." c. "Examine your breasts shortly after your menstrual period each month." d. "The best time to examine your breasts is immediately before menstruation."

*C* The best time to conduct a BSE is shortly after the menstrual period when the breasts are the smallest and least congested.

A patient states, "I feel so sad all of the time. I can't feel happy even doing things I used to like to do." He also states that he is tired, sleeps poorly, and has no energy. To differentiate between a dysthymic disorder and a major depressive disorder, the nurse should ask which question? a. "Have you had any weight changes?" b. "Are you having any thoughts of suicide?" c. "How long have you been feeling this way?" d. "Are you having feelings of worthlessness?"

*C* Major depressive disorder is characterized by one or more major depressive episodes, that is, at least 2 weeks of depressed mood or loss of interest accompanied by at least four additional symptoms of depression. Dysthymic disorder is characterized by at least 2 years of depressed mood for more days than not, accompanied by additional depressive symptoms.

The nurse is aware that intimate partner violence (IPV) screening should occur with which situation? a. When IPV is suspected b. When a woman has an unexplained injury c. As a routine part of each health care encounter d. When a history of abuse in the family is known

*C* Many nursing professional organizations have called for routine, universal screening for IPV to assist women in getting help for the problem.

During an examination, the nurse can assess mental status by which activity? a. Examining the patient's electroencephalogram b. Observing the patient as he or she performs an intelligence quotient (IQ) test c. Observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction d. Examining the patient's response to a specific set of questions

*C* Mental status cannot be directly scrutinized like the characteristics of skin or heart sounds. Its functioning is inferred through an assessment of an individual's behaviors, such as consciousness, language, mood and affect, and other aspects.

The nurse is performing a mental status examination. Which statement is *true* regarding the assessment of mental status? a. Mental status assessment diagnoses specific psychiatric disorders. b. Mental disorders occur in response to everyday life stressors. c. Mental status functioning is inferred through the assessment of an individual's behaviors. d. Mental status can be directly assessed, similar to other systems of the body (e.g., heart sounds, breath sounds).

*C* Mental status functioning is inferred through the assessment of an individual's behaviors. It cannot be directly assessed like the characteristics of the skin or heart sounds.

A patient is being assessed for range-of-joint movement. The nurse asks him to *move his arm in toward the center of his body.* This movement is called: a. Flexion. b. Abduction. c. Adduction. d. Extension.

*C* Moving a limb toward the midline of the body is called adduction; moving a limb away from the midline of the body is called abduction. Flexion is bending a limb at a joint; and extension is straightening a limb at a joint.

The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the health history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination, the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are *abnormal*? a. Nabothian cysts are present. b. The cervical os is a horizontal slit. c. The cervical surface is granular and red. d. Stringy and opaque secretions are present.

*C* Normal findings: Nabothian cysts may be present on the cervix after childbirth. The cervical os is a horizontal, irregular slit in the parous woman. Secretions vary according to the day of the menstrual cycle, and may be clear and thin or thick, opaque, and stringy. The surface is normally smooth, but cervical eversion, or ectropion, may occur where the endocervical canal is rolled out. Abnormal finding: The cervical surface should not be reddened or granular, which may indicate a lesion.

When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse's interpretation of these results should be which of these? a. These findings are all within normal limits. b. Cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm. c. The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy. d. Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.

*C* Normally, the cervix feels smooth and firm, similar to the consistency of the tip of the nose. It softens and feels velvety at 5 to 6 weeks of pregnancy (Goodell sign). The cervix should be evenly rounded. With a finger on either side, the examiner should be able to move the cervix gently from side to side, and doing so should produce no pain for the patient. Hardness of the cervix may occur with malignancy. Immobility may occur with malignancy, and pain may occur with inflammation or ectopic pregnancy.

A patient contacts the office and tells the nurse that she is worried about her 10-year-old daughter having breast cancer. She describes a unilateral enlargement of the right breast with associated tenderness. She is worried because the left breast is not enlarged. What would be the nurse's best response? Tell the mother that: a. Breast development is usually fairly symmetric and that the daughter should be examined right away. b. She should bring in her daughter right away because breast cancer is fairly common in preadolescent girls. c. Although an examination of her daughter would rule out a problem, her breast development is most likely normal. d. It is unusual for breasts that are first developing to feel tender because they haven't developed much fibrous tissue.

*C* Occasionally, one breast may grow faster than the other, producing a temporary asymmetry, which may cause some distress; reassurance is necessary. Tenderness is also common.

A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic with a "horrible problem." He tells the nurse that he has just discovered a lump on his breast and is fearful of cancer. The nurse knows which statement about breast cancer in men is *true*? a. Breast masses in men are difficult to detect because of minimal breast tissue. b. Breast cancer in men rarely spreads to the lymph nodes. c. One percent of all breast cancers occurs in men. d. Most breast masses in men are diagnosed as gynecomastia

*C* One percent of all breast cancers occurs in men. The early spreading to axillary lymph nodes is attributable to minimal breast tissue.

When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening question would be least threatening? a. "Do you have any questions about growing up?" b. "What has your mother told you about growing up?" c. "When did you notice that your body was changing?" d. "I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you'll feel?"

*C* Open-ended questions such as, "When did you ...?" rather than "Do you ...?" should be asked. Open-ended questions are less threatening because they imply that the topic is normal and unexceptional.

A 14-year-old boy who has been diagnosed with *Osgood-Schlatter* disease reports painful swelling just below the knee for the past 5 months. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If these symptoms persist, you may need arthroscopic surgery." b. "You are experiencing degeneration of your knee, which may not resolve." c. "Your disease is due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, and your symptoms should resolve with rest." d. "Increasing your activity and performing knee-strengthening exercises will help decrease the inflammation and maintain mobility in the knee."

*C* Osgood-Schlatter disease is a painful swelling of the tibial tubercle just below the knee and most likely due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, occurring during rapid growth and most often in boys. The symptoms resolve with rest. The other responses are not appropriate.

During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of: a. Ovarian cyst. b. Endometriosis. c. Ovarian cancer. d. Ectopic pregnancy.

*C* Ovarian tumors that are solid, heavy, and fixed, with poorly defined mass are suggestive of malignancy. Benign masses may feel mobile and solid. An ovarian cyst may feel smooth, round, fluctuant, mobile, and nontender. With an ectopic pregnancy, the examiner may feel a palpable, tender pelvic mass that is solid, mobile, and unilateral. Endometriosis may have masses (in various locations in the pelvic area) that are small, firm, nodular, and tender to palpation, with enlarged ovaries.

Which statement indicates that the nurse understands the pain experienced by an older adult? a. "Older adults must learn to tolerate pain." b. "Pain is a normal process of aging and is to be expected." c. "Pain indicates a pathologic condition or an injury and is not a normal process of aging." d. "Older individuals perceive pain to a lesser degree than do younger individuals."

*C* Pain indicates a pathologic condition or an injury and should never be considered something that an older adult should expect or tolerate. Pain is not a normal process of aging, and no evidence suggests that pain perception is reduced with aging.

A black patient is in the intensive care unit because of impending shock after an accident. The nurse expects to find what characteristics in this patient's skin? a. Ruddy blue. b. Generalized pallor. c. Ashen, gray, or dull. d. Patchy areas of pallor.

*C* Pallor attributable to shock, with decreased perfusion and vasoconstriction, in black-skinned people will cause the skin to appear ashen, gray, or dull (see Table 12-2).

The nurse is teaching a class on preventing osteoporosis to a group of perimenopausal women. Which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group? a. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements b. Taking medications to prevent osteoporosis c. Performing physical activity, such as fast walking d. Assessing bone density annually

*C* Physical activity, such as fast walking, delays or prevents bone loss in perimenopausal women. The faster the pace of walking, the higher the preventive effect is on the risk of hip fracture. The other options are not correct.

A patient who is 20 weeks' pregnant tells the nurse that she feels more shortness of breath as her pregnancy progresses. The nurse recognizes which statement to be *true*? a. High levels of estrogen cause shortness of breath. b. Feelings of shortness of breath are abnormal during pregnancy. c. Hormones of pregnancy cause an increased respiratory effort. d. The patient should get more exercise in an attempt to increase her respiratory reserve.

*C* Progesterone and estrogen cause an increase in respiratory effort during pregnancy by increasing tidal volume. Increased tidal volume causes a slight drop in partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), causing the woman to have dyspnea occasionally. The other options are not correct.

A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say, "The physician is referring to the: a. "Blue dilation of blood vessels in a star-shaped linear pattern on the legs." b. "Fiery red, star-shaped marking on the cheek that has a solid circular center." c. "Confluent and extensive patch of petechiae and ecchymoses on the feet." d. "Tiny areas of hemorrhage that are less than 2 mm, round, discrete, and dark red in color."

*C* Purpura is a confluent and extensive patch of petechiae and ecchymoses and a flat macular hemorrhage observed in generalized disorders such as thrombocytopenia and scurvy. The blue dilation of blood vessels in a star-shaped linear pattern on the legs describes a venous lake. The fiery red, star-shaped marking on the cheek that has a solid circular center describes a spider or star angioma. The tiny areas of hemorrhage that are less than 2 mm, round, discrete, and dark red in color describes petechiae.

During the interview, a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The *nurse's most appropriate response* to this would be: a. "Oh, don't worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal." b. "Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?" c. "I'd like some information about the discharge. What color is it?" d. "Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?"

*C* Questions that help the patient reveal more information about her symptoms should be asked in a nonthreatening manner. Asking about the amount, color, and odor of the vaginal discharge provides the opportunity for further assessment. Normal vaginal discharge is small, clear or cloudy, and always nonirritating.

A patient states that the pain medication is "not working" and rates his postoperative pain at a 10 on a 1-to-10 scale. Which of these assessment findings indicates an acute pain response to poorly controlled pain? a. Confusion b. Hyperventilation c. Increased blood pressure and pulse d. Depression

*C* Responses to poorly controlled acute pain include tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, and hypoventilation. Confusion and depression are associated with poorly controlled chronic pain (see Table 10-1).

A patient is complaining of pain in his joints that is worse in the morning, better after he moves around for a while, and then gets worse again if he sits for long periods. The nurse should assess for other signs of what problem? a. Tendinitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Intermittent claudication

*C* Rheumatoid arthritis is worse in the morning when a person arises. Movement increases most joint pain, except the pain with rheumatoid arthritis, which decreases with movement. The other options are not correct.

A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, "Have you noticed any: a. "Changes in your urination patterns?" b. "Excessive vaginal bleeding?" c. "Unusual vaginal discharge or itching?" d. "Changes in your desire for intercourse?"

*C* Several medications may increase the risk of vaginitis. Broad-spectrum antibiotics alter the balance of normal flora, which may lead to the development of vaginitis. The other questions are not appropriate.

A patient has been admitted for severe psoriasis. The nurse expects to see what finding in the patient's fingernails? a. Splinter hemorrhages b. Paronychia c. Pitting d. Beau lines

*C* Sharply defined pitting and crumbling of the nails, each with distal detachment characterize pitting nails and are associated with psoriasis. (See Table 12-13 for descriptions of the other terms.)

A patient is unable to perform rapid alternating movements such as rapidly patting her knees. The nurse should document this inability as: a. Ataxia. b. Astereognosis. c. Presence of dysdiadochokinesia. d. Loss of kinesthesia.

*C* Slow clumsy movements and the inability to perform rapid alternating movements occur with cerebellar disease. The condition is termed *dysdiadochokinesia*. Ataxia is an uncoordinated or unsteady gait. Astereognosis is the inability to identify an object by feeling it. Kinesthesia is the person's ability to perceive passive movement of the extremities or the loss of position sense.

During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower and more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. All other neurologic findings are normal. The nurse should interpret that these findings indicate: a. CN dysfunction. b. Lesion in the cerebral cortex. c. Normal changes attributable to aging. d. Demyelination of nerves attributable to a lesion.

*C* Some aging adults show a slower response to requests, especially for those calling for coordination of movements. The findings listed are normal in the absence of other significant abnormal findings. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had neurosurgery. To assess for increased intracranial pressure, what would the nurse include in the assessment? a. CNs, motor function, and sensory function b. Deep tendon reflexes, vital signs, and coordinated movements c. Level of consciousness, motor function, pupillary response, and vital signs d. Mental status, deep tendon reflexes, sensory function, and pupillary response

*C* Some hospitalized persons have head trauma or a neurologic deficit from a systemic disease process. These people must be closely monitored for any improvement or deterioration in neurologic status and for any indication of increasing intracranial pressure. The nurse should use an abbreviation of the neurologic examination in the following sequence: level of consciousness, motor function, pupillary response, and vital signs.

The nurse is examining a 3-year-old child who was brought to the emergency department after a fall. Which bruise, if found, would be of most concern? a. Bruise on the knee b. Bruise on the elbow c. Bruising on the abdomen d. Bruise on the shin

*C* Studies have shown that children who are walking often have bruises over the bony prominences of the front of their bodies. Other studies have found that bruising in atypical places such as the buttocks, hands, feet, and abdomen were exceedingly rare and should arouse concern.

The area of the nervous system that is responsible for mediating reflexes is the: a. Medulla. b. Cerebellum. c. Spinal cord. d. Cerebral cortex.

*C* The *spinal cord* is the main highway for ascending and descending fiber tracts that connect the brain to the spinal nerves; it is responsible for mediating reflexes.

While gathering equipment after an injection, a nurse accidentally received a prick from an improperly capped needle. To interpret this sensation, which of these areas must be intact? a. Corticospinal tract, medulla, and basal ganglia b. Pyramidal tract, hypothalamus, and sensory cortex c. Lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex d. Anterior spinothalamic tract, basal ganglia, and sensory cortex

*C* The *spinothalamic tract* contains sensory fibers that transmit the sensations of pain, temperature, and crude or light touch. Fibers carrying pain and temperature sensations ascend the lateral spinothalamic tract, whereas the sensations of crude touch form the anterior spinothalamic tract. At the thalamus, the fibers synapse with another sensory neuron, which carries the message to the sensory cortex for full interpretation. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is performing the Denver II screening test on a 12-month-old infant during a routine well-child visit. The nurse should tell the infant's parents that the Denver II: a. Tests three areas of development: cognitive, physical, and psychological b. Will indicate whether the child has a speech disorder so that treatment can begin. c. Is a screening instrument designed to detect children who are slow in development. d. Is a test to determine intellectual ability and may indicate whether problems will develop later in school.

*C* The Denver II is a screening instrument designed to detect developmental delays in infants and preschoolers. It tests four functions: gross motor, language, fine motor-adaptive, and personal-social. The Denver II is not an intelligence test; it does not predict current or future intellectual ability. It is not diagnostic; it does not suggest treatment regimens.

A 45-year-old woman is at the clinic for a mental status assessment. In giving her the Four Unrelated Words Test, the nurse would be concerned if she could not ____ four unrelated words ____. a. Invent; within 5 minutes b. Invent; within 30 seconds c. Recall; after a 30-minute delay d. Recall; after a 60-minute delay

*C* The Four Unrelated Words Test tests the person's ability to lay down new memories. It is a highly sensitive and valid memory test. It requires more effort than the recall of personal or historic events. To the person say, "I am going to say four words. I want you to remember them. In a few minutes I will ask you to recall them." After 5 minutes, ask for the four words. The normal response for persons under 60 years is an accurate three- or four-word recall after a 5-, 10-, and 30-minute delay.

The nurse is providing instructions to newly hired graduates for the mini-mental state examination (MMSE). Which statement best describes this examination? a. Scores below 30 indicate cognitive impairment. b. The MMSE is a good tool to evaluate mood and thought processes. c. This examination is a good tool to detect delirium and dementia and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness. d. The MMSE is useful tool for an initial evaluation of mental status. Additional tools are needed to evaluate cognition changes over time.

*C* The MMSE is a quick, easy test of 11 questions and is used for initial and serial evaluations and can demonstrate a worsening or an improvement of cognition over time and with treatment. It evaluates cognitive functioning, not mood or thought processes. MMSE is a good screening tool to detect dementia and delirium and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness.

While assessing a 7-month-old infant, the nurse makes a loud noise and notices the following response: abduction and flexion of the arms and legs; fanning of the fingers, and curling of the index finger and thumb in a C position, followed by the infant bringing in the arms and legs to the body. What does the nurse know about this response? a. This response could indicate brachial nerve palsy. b. This reaction is an expected startle response at this age. c. This reflex should have disappeared between 1 and 4 months of age. d. This response is normal as long as the movements are bilaterally symmetric.

*C* The Moro reflex is present at birth and usually disappears at 1 to 4 months. Absence of the Moro reflex in the newborn or its persistence after 5 months of age indicates severe central nervous system injury. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. As the nurse begins the mental status portion of the assessment, the nurse expects that this patient: a. Will have no decrease in any of his abilities, including response time. b. Will have difficulty on tests of remote memory because this ability typically decreases with age. c. May take a little longer to respond, but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined. d. Will exhibit had a decrease in his response time because of the loss of language and a decrease in general knowledge.

*C* The aging process leaves the parameters of mental status mostly intact. General knowledge does not decrease, and little or no loss in vocabulary occurs. Response time is slower than in a youth. It takes a little longer for the brain to process information and to react to it. Recent memory, which requires some processing, is somewhat decreased with aging, but remote memory is not affected.

he articulation of the mandible and the temporal bone is known as the: a. Intervertebral foramen. b. Condyle of the mandible. c. Temporomandibular joint. d. Zygomatic arch of the temporal bone.

*C* The articulation of the mandible and the temporal bone is the temporomandibular joint. The other responses are not correct.

A 30-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has been very unsteady and has had difficulty in maintaining her balance. Which area of the brain that is related to these findings would concern the nurse? a. Thalamus b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. Extrapyramidal tract

*C* The cerebellar system coordinates movement, maintains equilibrium, and helps maintain posture. The thalamus is the primary relay station where sensory pathways of the spinal cord, cerebellum, and brainstem form synapses on their way to the cerebral cortex. The brainstem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla and has various functions, especially concerning autonomic centers. The extrapyramidal tract maintains muscle tone for gross automatic movements, such as walking.

The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct? a. Bimanual, speculum, and rectovaginal b. Speculum, rectovaginal, and bimanual c. Speculum, bimanual, and rectovaginal d. Rectovaginal, bimanual, and speculum

*C* The correct sequence is speculum examination, then bimanual examination after removing the speculum, and then rectovaginal examination. The examiner should change gloves before performing the rectovaginal examination to avoid spreading any possible infection.

During an internal examination of a woman's genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum? a. The woman is instructed to bear down, the speculum blades are opened and applied in a swift, upward movement. b. The blades of the speculum are inserted on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. The woman is asked to bear down after the speculum is inserted. c. The woman is instructed to bear down, the width of the blades are horizontally turned, and the speculum is inserted downward at a 45-degree angle toward the small of the woman's back. d. The blades are locked open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, pressure is applied to the introitus and the blades are inserted downward at a 45-degree angle to bring the cervix into view.

*C* The examiner should instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman's back. (See the text under "Speculum Examination" for more detail.)

A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman is being seen in the clinic for her annual examination. She is concerned about changes in her breasts that she has noticed over the past 5 years. She states that her breasts have decreased in size and that the elasticity has changed so that her breasts seem "flat and flabby." The nurse's best reply would be: a. "This change occurs most often because of long-term use of bras that do not provide enough support to the breast tissues." b. "This is a normal change that occurs as women get older and is due to the increased levels of progesterone during the aging process." c. "Decreases in hormones after menopause causes atrophy of the glandular tissue in the breast and is a normal process of aging." d. "Postural changes in the spine make it appear that your breasts have changed in shape. Exercises to strengthen the muscles of the upper back and chest wall will help prevent the changes in elasticity and size."

*C* The hormonal changes of menopause cause the breast glandular tissue to atrophy, making the breasts more pendulous, flattened, and sagging.

patient is visiting the clinic for an evaluation of a swollen, painful knuckle. The nurse notices that the knuckle above his ring on the left hand is swollen and that he is unable to remove his wedding ring. This joint is called the _________ joint. a. Interphalangeal b. Tarsometatarsal c. Metacarpophalangeal d. Tibiotalar

*C* The joint located just above the ring on the finger is the *metacarpophalangeal joint*. The interphalangeal joint is located distal to the metacarpophalangeal joint. The tarsometatarsal and tibiotalar joints are found in the foot and ankle. (See Figure 22-10 for a diagram of the bones and joints of the hand and fingers.

During a physical examination, a 45-year-old woman states that she has had a crusty, itchy rash on her breast for approximately 2 weeks. In trying to find the cause of the rash, which question would be important for the nurse to ask? a. "Is the rash raised and red?" b. "Does it appear to be cyclic?" c. "Where did the rash first appear—on the nipple, the areola, or the surrounding skin?" d. "What was she doing when she first noticed the rash, and do her actions make it worse?"

*C* The location where the rash first appeared is important for the nurse to determine. Paget disease starts with a small crust on the nipple apex and then spreads to the areola. Eczema or other dermatitis rarely starts at the nipple unless it is a result of breastfeeding. It usually starts on the areola or surrounding skin and then spreads to the nipple (see Table 17-6).

A patient who is in her first trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she is experiencing significant nausea and vomiting and asks when it will improve. The nurse should reply: a. "Did your mother have significant nausea and vomiting?" b. "Many women experience nausea and vomiting until the third trimester." c. "Usually, by the beginning of the second trimester, the nausea and vomiting improve." d. "At approximately the time you begin to feel the baby move, the nausea and vomiting will subside."

*C* The nausea, vomiting, and fatigue of pregnancy improve by the 12th week. Quickening, when the mother recognizes fetal movement, occurs at approximately 18 to 20 weeks.

A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby checkup. The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of which of these factors? a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the newborn. b. Sebaceous glands are overproductive in the newborn. c. The newborn's skin is more permeable than that of the adult. d. The amount of vernix caseosa dramatically rises in the newborn.

*C* The newborn's skin is thin, smooth, and elastic and is relatively more permeable than that of the adult; consequently, the infant is at greater risk for fluid loss. The subcutaneous layer in the infant is inefficient, not thick, and the sebaceous glands are present but decrease in size and production. Vernix caseosa is not produced after birth.

When the nurse is testing the triceps reflex, what is the expected response? a. Flexion of the hand b. Pronation of the hand c. Extension of the forearm d. Flexion of the forearm

*C* The normal response of the triceps reflex is extension of the forearm. The normal response of the biceps reflex causes flexion of the forearm. The other responses are incorrect.

A patient has been in the intensive care unit for 10 days. He has just been moved to the medical-surgical unit, and the admitting nurse is planning to perform a mental status examination. During the tests of cognitive function, the nurse would expect that he: a. May display some disruption in thought content. b. Will state, "I am so relieved to be out of intensive care." c. Will be oriented to place and person, but the patient may not be certain of the date. d. May show evidence of some clouding of his level of consciousness.

*C* The nurse can discern the orientation of cognitive function through the course of the interview or can directly and tactfully ask, "Some people have trouble keeping up with the dates while in the hospital. Do you know today's date?" Many hospitalized people have trouble with the exact date but are fully oriented on the remaining items.

Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview? a. "Now, it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?" b. "Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?" c. "Women often have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?" d. "Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?"

*C* The nurse should begin with an open-ended question to assess individual needs. The nurse should include appropriate questions as a routine part of the health history, because doing so communicates that the nurse accepts the individual's sexual activity and believes it is important. The nurse's comfort with the discussion prompts the patient's interest and, possibly, relief that the topic has been introduced. The initial discussion establishes a database for comparison with any future sexual activities and provides an opportunity to screen sexual problems.

During the physical examination, the nurse notices that a female patient has an inverted left nipple. Which statement regarding this is most accurate? a. Normal nipple inversion is usually bilateral. b. Unilateral inversion of a nipple is always a serious sign. c. Whether the inversion is a recent change should be determined. d. Nipple inversion is not significant unless accompanied by an underlying palpable mass.

*C* The nurse should distinguish between a recently retracted nipple from one that has been inverted for many years or since puberty. Normal nipple inversion may be unilateral or bilateral and usually can be pulled out; that is, if it is not fixed. Recent nipple retraction signifies acquired disease (see Table 17-3).

The nurse is conducting a class on BSE. Which of these statements indicates the proper BSE technique? a. The best time to perform BSE is in the middle of the menstrual cycle. b. The woman needs to perform BSE only bimonthly unless she has fibrocystic breast tissue. c. The best time to perform a BSE is 4 to 7 days after the first day of the menstrual period. d. If she suspects that she is pregnant, then the woman should not perform a BSE until her baby is born.

*C* The nurse should help each woman establish a regular schedule of self-care. The best time to conduct a BSE is right after the menstrual period, or the fourth through seventh day of the menstrual cycle, when the breasts are the smallest and least congested. The pregnant or menopausal woman who is not having menstrual periods should be advised to select a familiar date to examine her breasts each month—for example, her birth date or the day the rent is due.

During an examination of a woman, the nurse notices that her left breast is slightly larger than her right breast. Which of these statements is true about this finding? a. Breasts should always be symmetric. b. Asymmetry of breast size and shape is probably due to breastfeeding and is nothing to worry about. c. Asymmetry is not unusual, but the nurse should verify that this change is not new. d. Asymmetry of breast size and shape is very unusual and means she may have an inflammation or growth

*C* The nurse should notice symmetry of size and shape. It is common to have a slight asymmetry in size; often the left breast is slightly larger than the right. A sudden increase in the size of one breast signifies inflammation or new growth.

The nurse is preparing to teach a woman about BSE. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "BSE is more important than ever for you because you have never had any children." b. "BSE is so important because one out of nine women will develop breast cancer in her lifetime." c. "BSE on a monthly basis will help you become familiar with your own breasts and feel their normal variations." d. "BSE will save your life because you are likely to find a cancerous lump between mammograms."

*C* The nurse should stress that a regular monthly BSE will familiarize the woman with her own breasts and their normal variations. BSE is a positive step that will reassure her of her healthy state. While teaching, the nurse should focus on the positive aspects of BSE and avoid citing frightening mortality statistics about breast cancer, which may generate excessive fear and denial that can obstruct a woman's self-care actions.

While assessing a patient who is hospitalized and bedridden, the nurse notices that the patient has been incontinent of stool. The stool is* loose and gray-tan in color*. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates which of the following? a. Occult blood b. Inflammation c. Absent bile pigment d. Ingestion of iron preparations

*C* The presence of gray-tan stool indicates absent bile pigment, which can occur with obstructive jaundice. The ingestion of iron preparations and the presence of occult blood turns the stools to a black color. Jellylike mucus shreds mixed in the stool would indicate inflammation.

A patient is especially worried about an area of skin on her feet that has turned white. The health care provider has told her that her condition is vitiligo. The nurse explains to her that vitiligo is: a. Caused by an excess of melanin pigment b. Caused by an excess of apocrine glands in her feet c. Caused by the complete absence of melanin pigment d. Related to impetigo and can be treated with an ointment

*C* Vitiligo is the complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas of white or light skin on the face, neck, hands, feet, body folds, and around orifices—otherwise, the depigmented skin is normal.

A patient with a lack of oxygen to his heart will have pain in his chest and possibly in the shoulder, arms, or jaw. The nurse knows that the best explanation why this occurs is which one of these statements? a. A problem exists with the sensory cortex and its ability to discriminate the location. b. The lack of oxygen in his heart has resulted in decreased amount of oxygen to the areas experiencing the pain. c. The sensory cortex does not have the ability to localize pain in the heart; consequently, the pain is felt elsewhere. d. A lesion has developed in the dorsal root, which is preventing the sensation from being transmitted normally.

*C* The sensory cortex is arranged in a specific pattern, forming a corresponding map of the body. Pain in the right hand is perceived at a specific spot on the map. Some organs, such as the heart, liver, and spleen, are absent from the brain map. Pain originating in these organs is referred because no felt image exists in which to have pain. Pain is felt by proxy, that is, by another body part that does have a felt image. The other responses are not correct explanations.

An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Inviting her mother to be present during the examination b. Avoiding the lithotomy position for this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing c. Raising the head of the examination table and giving her a mirror so that she can view the examination d. Fully draping her, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact

*C* The techniques of the educational or mirror pelvic examination should be used. This is a routine examination with some modifications in attitude, position, and communication. First, the woman is considered an active participant, one who is interested in learning and in sharing decisions about her own health care. The woman props herself up on one elbow, or the head of the table is raised. Her other hand holds a mirror between her legs, above the examiner's hands. The young woman can see all that the examiner is doing and has a full view of her genitalia. The mirror works well for teaching normal anatomy and its relationship to sexual behavior. The examiner can ask her if she would like to have a family member, friend, or chaperone present for the examination. The drape should be pushed down between the patient's legs so that the nurse can see her face.

To palpate the temporomandibular joint, the nurse's fingers should be placed in the depression __________ of the ear. a. Distal to the helix b. Proximal to the helix c. Anterior to the tragus d. Posterior to the tragus

*C* The temporomandibular joint can be felt in the depression anterior to the tragus of the ear. The other locations are not correct

Which term refers to a wound produced by the tearing or splitting of body tissue, usually from blunt impact over a bony surface? a. Abrasion b. Contusion c. Laceration d. Hematoma

*C* The term laceration refers to a wound produced by the tearing or splitting of body tissue. An abrasion is caused by the rubbing of the skin or mucous membrane. A contusion is injury to tissues without breakage of skin, and a hematoma is a localized collection of extravasated blood.

During a health history interview, a female patient states that she has noticed a few drops of clear discharge from her right nipple. What should the nurse do next? a. Immediately contact the physician to report the discharge. b. Ask her if she is possibly pregnant. c. Ask the patient some additional questions about the medications she is taking. d. Immediately obtain a sample for culture and sensitivity testing.

*C* The use of some medications, such as oral contraceptives, phenothiazines, diuretics, digitalis, steroids, methyldopa, and calcium channel blockers, may cause clear nipple discharge. Bloody or blood-tinged discharge from the nipple, not clear, is significant, especially if a lump is also present. In the pregnant female, colostrum would be a thick, yellowish liquid, and it would be normally expressed after the fourth month of pregnancy.

While examining a 75-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the skin over her right breast is thickened and the hair follicles are exaggerated. This condition is known as: a. Dimpling. b. Retraction. c. Peau d'orange. d. Benign breast disease.

*C* This condition is known as peau d'orange. Lymphatic obstruction produces edema, which thickens the skin and exaggerates the hair follicles. The skin has a pig-skin or orange-peel appearance, and this condition suggests cancer.

A patient's pregnancy test is positive, and she wants to know when the baby is due. The first day of her last menstrual period was June 14, and that period ended June 20. Using the Nägele rule, what is her expected date of delivery? a. March 7 b. March 14 c. March 21 d. March 27

*C* To determine the expected date of delivery using the Nägele rule, 7 days are added to the first day of the last menstrual period; then 3 months are subtracted. Therefore, adding 7 days to June 14 would be June 21 and subtracting 3 months would make the expected delivery date March 21.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of "always dropping things and falling down." While testing rapid alternating movements, the nurse notices that the woman is unable to pat both of her knees. Her response is extremely slow and she frequently misses. What should the nurse suspect? a. Vestibular disease b. Lesion of CN IX c. Dysfunction of the cerebellum d. Inability to understand directions

*C* When a person tries to perform rapid, alternating movements, responses that are slow, clumsy, and sloppy are indicative of cerebellar disease. The other responses are incorrect

A 30-year-old female patient is describing *feelings of hopelessness and depression.* She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the nurse's best response in this situation? a. "Do you have a weapon?" b. "How do other people treat you?" c. "Are you feeling so hopeless that you feel like hurting yourself now?" d. "People often feel hopeless, but the feelings resolve within a few weeks."

*C* When the person expresses feelings of hopelessness, despair, or grief, assessing the risk of physical harm to him or herself is important. This process begins with more general questions. If the answers are affirmative, then the assessment continues with more specific questions.

When a breastfeeding mother is diagnosed with a breast abscess, which of these instructions from the nurse is correct? The mother needs to: a. Continue to nurse on both sides to encourage milk flow. b. Immediately discontinue nursing to allow for healing. c. Temporarily discontinue nursing on the affected breast, and manually express milk and discard it. d. Temporarily discontinue nursing on affected breast, but manually express milk and give it to the baby.

*C* With a breast abscess, the patient must temporarily discontinue nursing on the affected breast, manually express the milk, and then discard it. Nursing can continue on the unaffected side.

A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. Which statement does the nurse know to be *correct* regarding ovarian cancer? a. Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms. b. The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer. c. Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening. d. Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.

*C* With ovarian cancer, the patient may have abdominal pain, pelvic pain, increased abdominal size, bloating, and nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms; or she may be asymptomatic. The Pap smear does not detect the presence of ovarian cancer. Annual transvaginal ultrasonography may detect ovarian cancer at an earlier stage in women who are at high risk for developing it.

The nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult patient. When stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, the nurse notices the plantar flexion of the toes. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Positive Babinski sign b. Plantar reflex abnormal c. Plantar reflex present d. Plantar reflex 2+ on a scale from "0 to 4+"

*C* With the same instrument, the nurse should draw a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and across the ball of the foot, similar to an upside-down J. The normal response is plantar flexion of the toes and sometimes of the entire foot. A positive Babinski sign is abnormal and occurs with the response of dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes. The plantar reflex is not graded on a 0 to 4+ scale.

The nurse notices that a patient has had a pale, yellow, greasy stool, or steatorrhea, and recalls that this is caused by: a. Occult bleeding. b. Absent bile pigment. c. Increased fat content. d. Ingestion of bismuth preparations.

*C* Steatorrhea (pale, yellow, greasy stool) is caused by increased fat content in the stools, as in malabsorption syndrome. Occult bleeding and ingestion of bismuth products cause a black stool, and absent bile pigment causes a gray-tan stool.

During a group prenatal teaching session, the nurse teaches Kegel exercises. Which statements would be appropriate for this teaching session? *Select all that apply.* a. "Kegel exercises help keep your uterus strong during the pregnancy." b. "Kegel exercises should be performed twice a day." c. "Kegel exercises should be performed 50 to 100 times a day." d. "To perform Kegel exercises, slowly squeeze to a peak at the count of eight, and then slowly release to a count of eight." e. "To perform Kegel exercises, rapidly perform alternating squeeze-release exercises up to the count of eight."

*C, D* Kegel exercises can be performed to prepare for and to recover from birth. The nurse should direct the woman to squeeze slowly to a peak at the count of eight and then to release slowly to the count of eight. The nurse can prescribe this exercise to be performed 50 to 100 times a day.

A 32-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has noticed "very sudden, jerky movements" mainly in her hands and arms. She says, "They seem to come and go, primarily when I am trying to do something. I haven't noticed them when I'm sleeping." This description suggests: a. Tics. b. Athetosis. c. Myoclonus. d. Chorea.

*D* *Chorea* is characterized by sudden, rapid, jerky, purposeless movements that involve the limbs, trunk, or face. Chorea occurs at irregular intervals, and the movements are all accentuated by voluntary actions. (See Table 23-5 for the descriptions of athetosis, myoclonus, and tics.)

The nurse notices that a woman in an exercise class is unable to jump rope. The nurse is aware that to jump rope, one's shoulder has to be capable of: a. Inversion. b. Supination. c. Protraction. d. Circumduction.

*D* *Circumduction* is defined as moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder. The other options are not correct.

he nurse is palpating the abdomen of a woman who is 35 weeks' pregnant and notices that the fetal head is facing downward toward the pelvis. The nurse would document this as fetal: a. Lie. b. Variety. c. Attitude. d. Presentation.

*D* *Fetal presentation* describes the part of the fetus that is entering the pelvis first. Fetal lie is orientation of the fetal spine to the maternal spine. Fetal attitude is the position of fetal parts in relation to each other, and fetal variety is the location of the fetal back to the maternal pelvis.

The nurse is explaining to a patient that there are shock absorbers in his back to cushion the spine and to help it move. The nurse is referring to his: a. Vertebral column. b. Nucleus pulposus. c. Vertebral foramen. d. Intervertebral disks.

*D* *Intervertebral disks* are elastic fibrocartilaginous plates that cushion the spine similar to shock absorbers and help it move. The vertebral column is the spinal column itself. The nucleus pulposus is located in the center of each disk. The vertebral foramen is the channel, or opening, for the spinal cord in the vertebrae.

A 68-year-old woman has come in for an assessment of her rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse notices raised, firm, nontender nodules at the olecranon bursa and along the ulna. These nodules are most commonly diagnosed as: a. Epicondylitis. b. Gouty arthritis. c. Olecranon bursitis. d. Subcutaneous nodules

*D* *Subcutaneous nodules* are raised, firm, and nontender and occur with rheumatoid arthritis in the olecranon bursa and along the extensor surface of the ulna. (See Table 22-3 for a description of the other conditions.)

8A man who has had gout for several years comes to the clinic with a problem with his toe. On examination, the nurse notices the presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe; one has burst open with a chalky discharge.* This finding is known as: a. Callus. b. Plantar wart. c. Bunion. d. Tophi.

*D* *Tophi* are collections of monosodium urate crystals resulting from chronic gout in and around the joint that cause extreme swelling and joint deformity. They appear as hard, painless nodules (tophi) over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe and they sometimes burst with a chalky discharge (see Table 22-6). (See Table 22-6 for descriptions of the other conditions.)

During an assessment of a 20-year-old man, the nurse finds a small palpable lesion with a tuft of hair located directly over the coccyx. The nurse knows that this lesion would *most likely* be a: a. Rectal polyp. b. Pruritus ani. c. Carcinoma. d. Pilonidal cyst.

*D* A *pilonidal cyst* or sinus is a hair-containing cyst or sinus located in the midline over the coccyx or lower sacrum. It often opens as a dimple with a visible tuft of hair and, possibly, an erythematous halo. (See Table 25-1 for more information, and also for the description of a pruritus ani. See Table 25-2 for the descriptions of rectal polyps and carcinoma.)

While the nurse is taking the history of a 68-year-old patient who sustained a head injury 3 days earlier, *he tells the nurse that he is on a cruise ship and is 30 years old.* The nurse knows that this finding is indicative of a(n): a. Great sense of humor. b. Uncooperative behavior. c. Inability to understand questions. d. Decreased level of consciousness.

*D* A change in consciousness may be subtle. The nurse should notice any decreasing level of consciousness, disorientation, memory loss, uncooperative behavior, or even complacency in a previously combative person. The other responses are incorrect.

A young swimmer comes to the sports clinic complaining of a very sore shoulder. He was running at the pool, slipped on some wet concrete, and tried to catch himself with his outstretched hand. He landed on his outstretched hand and has not been able to move his shoulder since. The nurse suspects: a. Joint effusion. b. Tear of rotator cuff. c. Adhesive capsulitis. d. Dislocated shoulder.

*D* A dislocated shoulder occurs with trauma involving abduction, extension, and external rotation (e.g., falling on an outstretched arm or diving into a pool). (See Table 22-2 for descriptions of the other conditions.)

A 60-year-old woman has developed *reflexive sympathetic dystrophy* after arthroscopic repair of her shoulder. A *key feature* of this condition is that the: a. Affected extremity will eventually regain its function. b. Pain is felt at one site but originates from another location. c. Patient's pain will be associated with nausea, pallor, and diaphoresis. d. Slightest touch, such as a sleeve brushing against her arm, causes severe and intense pain.

*D* A key feature of reflexive sympathetic dystrophy is that a typically innocuous stimulus can create a severe, intensely painful response. The affected extremity becomes less functional over time.

Which of these statements about the peripheral nervous system is *correct*? a. The CNs enter the brain through the spinal cord. b. Efferent fibers carry sensory input to the central nervous system through the spinal cord. c. The peripheral nerves are inside the central nervous system and carry impulses through their motor fibers. d. The peripheral nerves carry input to the central nervous system by afferent fibers and away from the central nervous system by efferent fibers.

*D* A nerve is a bundle of fibers outside of the central nervous system. The peripheral nerves carry input to the central nervous system by their sensory afferent fibers and deliver output from the central nervous system by their efferent fibers. The other responses are not related to the peripheral nervous system

The nurse notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding, the nurse reports this as a: a. Bulla. b. Wheal. c. Nodule. d. Papule.

*D* A papule is something one can feel, is solid, elevated, circumscribed, less than 1 cm in diameter, and is due to superficial thickening in the epidermis. A bulla is larger than 1 cm, superficial, and thin walled. A wheal is superficial, raised, transient, erythematous, and irregular in shape attributable to edema. A nodule is solid, elevated, hard or soft, and larger than 1 cm.

During an examination, the nurse notices a patterned injury on a patient's back. Which of these would cause such an injury? a. Blunt force b. Friction abrasion c. Stabbing from a kitchen knife d. Whipping from an extension cord

*D* A patterned injury is an injury caused by an object that leaves a distinct pattern on the skin or organ. The other actions do not cause a patterned injury.

The nurse has completed the musculoskeletal examination of a patient's knee and has found a positive bulge sign. The nurse interprets this finding to indicate: a. Irregular bony margins. b. Soft-tissue swelling in the joint. c. Swelling from fluid in the epicondyle. d. Swelling from fluid in the suprapatellar pouch.

*D* A positive bulge sign confirms the presence of swelling caused by fluid in the suprapatellar pouch. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is providing patient education for a man who has been diagnosed with a rotator cuff injury. The nurse knows that a rotator cuff injury involves the: a. Nucleus pulposus. b. Articular processes. c. Medial epicondyle. d. Glenohumeral joint.

*D* A rotator cuff injury involves the *glenohumeral joint*, which is enclosed by a group of four powerful muscles and tendons that support and stabilize it. The nucleus pulposus is located in the center of each intervertebral disk. The articular processes are projections in each vertebral disk that lock onto the next vertebra, thereby stabilizing the spinal column. The medial epicondyle is located at the elbow.

When the nurse asks a 68-year-old patient to stand with his feet together and arms at his side with his eyes closed, he starts to sway and moves his feet farther apart. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Ataxia. b. Lack of coordination. c. Negative Homans sign. d. Positive Romberg sign.

*D* Abnormal findings for the Romberg test include swaying, falling, and a widening base of the feet to avoid falling. A positive Romberg sign is a loss of balance that is increased by the closing of the eyes. Ataxia is an uncoordinated or unsteady gait. Homans sign is used to test the legs for deep-vein thrombosis.

A patient is complaining of severe knee pain after twisting it during a basketball game and is requesting pain medication. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Completing the physical examination first and then giving the pain medication b. Telling the patient that the pain medication must wait until after the x-ray images are completed c. Evaluating the full range of motion of the knee and then medicating for pain d. Administering pain medication and then proceeding with the assessment

*D* According to the American Pain Society (1992), "In cases in which the cause of acute pain is uncertain, establishing a diagnosis is a priority, but symptomatic treatment of pain should be given while the investigation is proceeding. With occasional exceptions, (e.g., the initial examination of the patient with an acute condition of the abdomen), it is rarely justified to defer analgesia until a diagnosis is made. In fact, a comfortable patient is better able to cooperate with diagnostic procedures."

A 9-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sport physical examination. After some initial shyness she finally asks, "Am I normal? I don't seem to need a bra yet, but I have some friends who do. What if I never get breasts?" The nurse's best response would be: a. "Don't worry, you still have plenty of time to develop." b. "I know just how you feel, I was a late bloomer myself. Just be patient, and they will grow." c. "You will probably get your periods before you notice any significant growth in your breasts." d. "I understand that it is hard to feel different from your friends. Breasts usually develop between 8 and 10 years of age."

*D* Adolescent breast development usually begins between 8 and 10 years of age. The nurse should not belittle the girl's feelings by using statements like "don't worry" or by sharing personal experiences. The beginning of breast development precedes menarche by approximately 2 years.

A 65-year-old patient remarks that she just cannot believe that her breasts "sag so much." She states it must be from a lack of exercise. What explanation should the nurse offer her? After menopause: a. Only women with large breasts experience sagging. b. Sagging is usually due to decreased muscle mass within the breast. c. A diet that is high in protein will help maintain muscle mass, which keeps the breasts from sagging. d. The glandular and fat tissue atrophies, causing breast size and elasticity to diminish, resulting in breasts that sag.

*D* After menopause, the glandular tissue atrophies and is replaced with connective tissue. The fat envelope also atrophies, beginning in the middle years and becoming significant in the eighth and ninth decades of life. These changes decrease breast size and elasticity; consequently, the breasts droop and sag, looking flattened and flabby

When assessing aging adults, the nurse knows that one of the first things that should be assessed before making judgments about their mental status is: a. Presence of phobias b. General intelligence c. Presence of irrational thinking patterns d. Sensory-perceptive abilities

*D* Age-related changes in sensory perception can affect mental status. For example, vision loss (as detailed in Chapter 14) may result in apathy, social isolation, and depression. Hearing changes are common in older adults, which produces frustration, suspicion, and social isolation and makes the person appear confused.

A 70-year-old woman tells the nurse that every time she gets up in the morning or after she's been sitting, she gets "really dizzy" and feels like she is going to fall over. The nurse's best response would be: a. "Have you been extremely tired lately?" b. "You probably just need to drink more liquids." c. "I'll refer you for a complete neurologic examination." d. "You need to get up slowly when you've been lying down or sitting."

*D* Aging is accompanied by a progressive decrease in cerebral blood flow. In some people, this decrease causes dizziness and a loss of balance with a position change. These individuals need to be taught to get up slowly. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is bathing an 80-year-old man and notices that his skin is wrinkled, thin, lax, and dry. This finding would be related to which factor in the older adult? a. Increased vascularity of the skin b. Increased numbers of sweat and sebaceous glands c. An increase in elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat d. An increased loss of elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat

*D* An accumulation of factors place the aging person at risk for skin disease and breakdown: the thinning of the skin, a decrease in vascularity and nutrients, the loss of protective cushioning of the subcutaneous layer, a lifetime of environmental trauma to skin, the social changes of aging, a increasingly sedentary lifestyle, and the chance of immobility.

A patient has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. During a recent interview, he shows the nurse a picture of a man holding a decapitated head. He describes this picture as horrifying but then laughs loudly at the content. This behavior is a display of: a. Confusion b. Ambivalence c. Depersonalization d. Inappropriate affect

*D* An inappropriate affect is an affect clearly discordant with the content of the person's speech. (See Table 5-5 for the definitions of the other terms.)

During an assessment, the nurse asks a female patient, "How many alcoholic drinks do you have a week?" Which answer by the patient would indicate at-risk drinking? a. "I may have one or two drinks a week." b. "I usually have three or four drinks a week." c. "I'll have a glass or two of wine every now and then." d. "I have seven or eight drinks a week, but I never get drunk."

*D* For women, having seven or more drinks a week or three or more drinks per occasion is considered at-risk drinking, according to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism.

A 23-year-old patient in the clinic appears anxious. Her speech is rapid, and she is fidgety and in constant motion. Which of these questions or statements would be most appropriate for the nurse to use in this situation to assess attention span? a. "How do you usually feel? Is this normal behavior for you?" b. "I am going to say four words. In a few minutes, I will ask you to recall them." c. "Describe the meaning of the phrase, 'Looking through rose-colored glasses.'" d. "Pick up the pencil in your left hand, move it to your right hand, and place it on the table."

*D* Attention span is evaluated by assessing the individual's ability to concentrate and complete a thought or task without wandering. Giving a series of directions to follow is one method used to assess attention span.

A pregnant woman is interested in breastfeeding her baby and asks several questions about the topic. Which information is appropriate for the nurse to share with her? a. Breastfeeding is best when also supplemented with bottle feedings. b. Babies who are breastfed often require supplemental vitamins. c. Breastfeeding is recommended for infants for the first 2 years of life. d. Breast milk provides the nutrients necessary for growth, as well as natural immunity.

*D* Breastfeeding is recommended for full-term infants for the first year of life because breast milk is ideally formulated to promote normal infant growth and development, as well as natural immunity. The other statements are not correct.

A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, "How often do I need to have this Pap test done?" Which reply by the nurse is *correct*? a. "It depends. Do you smoke?" b. "A Pap test needs to be performed annually until you are 65 years of age." c. "If you have two consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests." d. "After age 30 years, if you have three consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years."

*D* Cervical cancer screening with the Pap test continues annually until age 30 years. After age 21, regardless of sexual history or activity, women should be screened every 3 years until age 30, then every 5 years until age 65.

A 65-year-old man with emphysema and bronchitis has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. On assessment, the nurse might expect to see which finding? a. Anasarca b. Scleroderma c. Pedal erythema d. Clubbing of the nails

*D* Clubbing of the nails occurs with congenital cyanotic heart disease and neoplastic and pulmonary diseases. The other responses are assessment findings not associated with pulmonary diseases

A patient has been admitted to the hospital with vertebral fractures related to osteoporosis. She is in extreme pain. This type of pain would be classified as: a. Referred. b. Cutaneous. c. Visceral. d. Deep somatic.

*D* Deep somatic pain comes from sources such as the blood vessels, joints, tendons, muscles, and bone. Referred pain is felt at one site but originates from another location. Cutaneous pain is derived from the skin surface and subcutaneous tissues. Visceral pain originates from the larger, interior organs.

A 20-year-old construction worker has been brought into the emergency department with heat stroke. He has delirium as a result of a fluid and electrolyte imbalance. For the mental status examination, the nurse should first assess the patient's: a. Affect and mood b. Memory and affect c. Language abilities d. Level of consciousness and cognitive abilities

*D* Delirium is a disturbance of consciousness (i.e., reduced clarity of awareness of the environment) with reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention. Delirium is not an alteration in mood, affect, or language abilities.

A woman is leaving on a trip to Hawaii and has come in for a checkup. During the examination the nurse learns that she has diabetes and takes oral hypoglycemic agents. The patient needs to be concerned about which possible effect of her medications? a. Increased possibility of bruising b. Skin sensitivity as a result of exposure to salt water c. Lack of availability of glucose-monitoring supplies d. Importance of sunscreen and avoiding direct sunlight

*D* Drugs that may increase sunlight sensitivity and give a burn response include sulfonamides, thiazide diuretics, oral hypoglycemic agents, and tetracycline.

A woman who is 28 weeks' pregnant has bilateral edema in her lower legs after working 8 hours a day as a cashier at a local grocery store. She is worried about her legs. What is the nurse's best response? a. "You will be at risk for development of varicose veins when your legs are edematous." b. "I would like to listen to your heart sounds. Edema can indicate a problem with your heart." c. "Edema is usually the result of too much salt and fluids in your diet. You may need to cut down on salty foods." d. "As your baby grows, it slows blood return from your legs, causing the swelling. This often occurs with prolonged standing."

*D* Edema of the lower extremities occurs because of the enlarging fetus, which impairs venous return. Prolonged standing worsens the edema. Typically, the bilateral, dependent edema experienced with pregnancy is not the result of a cardiac pathologic condition.

Normal. The nurse understands that this condition is due to hyperemia and knows that it can be caused by: a. Decreased amounts of bilirubin in the blood b. Excess blood in the underlying blood vessels c. Decreased perfusion to the surrounding tissues d. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries

*D* Erythema is an intense redness of the skin caused by excess blood (hyperemia) in the dilated superficial capillaries

Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are called: a. Bursa. b. Tendons. c. Cartilage. d. Ligaments.

*D* Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are called ligaments. The other options are not correct.

A 19-year-old woman comes to the clinic at the insistence of her brother. She is wearing black combat boots and a black lace nightgown over the top of her other clothes. Her hair is dyed pink with black streaks throughout. She has several pierced holes in her nares and ears and is wearing an earring through her eyebrow and heavy black makeup. The nurse concludes that: a. She probably does not have any problems. b. She is only trying to shock people and that her dress should be ignored. c. She has a manic syndrome because of her abnormal dress and grooming. d. More information should be gathered to decide whether her dress is appropriate.

*D* Grooming and hygiene should be noted—the person is clean and well groomed, hair is neat and clean, women have moderate or no makeup, and men are shaved or their beards or moustaches are well groomed. Care should be taken when interpreting clothing that is disheveled, bizarre, or in poor repair because these sometimes reflect the person's economic status or a deliberate fashion trend.

A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with *vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever.* On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy present is also present. The most likely cause of these lesions is: a. Pediculosis pubis. b. Contact dermatitis. c. HPV. d. Herpes simplex virus type 2.

*D* Herpes simplex virus type 2 exhibits clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema that erupt on the genital areas. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is also present. The woman reports local pain, dysuria, and fever. (See Table 26-2 for more information and the descriptions of the other conditions.)

In assessing a 70-year-old patient who has had a recent cerebrovascular accident, the nurse notices right-sided weakness. What might the nurse expect to find when testing his reflexes on the right side? a. Lack of reflexes b. Normal reflexes c. Diminished reflexes d. Hyperactive reflexes

*D* Hyperreflexia is the exaggerated reflex observed when the monosynaptic reflex arc is released from the influence of higher cortical levels. This response occurs with upper motor neuron lesions (e.g., a cerebrovascular accident). The other responses are incorrect.

Which of these clinical situations would the nurse consider to be outside normal limits? a. A patient has had one pregnancy and states that she believes she may be entering menopause. Her breast examination reveals breasts that are soft and slightly sagging. b. A patient has never been pregnant. Her breast examination reveals large pendulous breasts that have a firm, transverse ridge along the lower quadrant in both breasts. c. A patient has never been pregnant and reports that she should begin her period tomorrow. Her breast examination reveals breast tissue that is nodular and somewhat engorged. She states that the examination was slightly painful. d. A patient has had two pregnancies, and she breastfed both of her children. Her youngest child is now 10 years old. Her breast examination reveals breast tissue that is somewhat soft, and she has a small amount of thick yellow discharge from both nipples.

*D* If any discharge appears, the nurse should note its color and consistency. Except in pregnancy and lactation, any discharge is abnormal. In nulliparous women, normal breast tissue feels firm, smooth, and elastic; after pregnancy, the tissue feels soft and loose. Premenstrual engorgement is normal, and consists of a slight enlargement, tenderness to palpation, and a generalized nodularity. A firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue in the lower quadrants, known as the inframammary ridge, is especially noticeable in large breasts.

During the assessment of a woman in her 22nd week of pregnancy, the nurse is *unable to hear fetal heart tones* with the fetoscope. The nurse should: a. Immediately notify the physician, then wait 10 minutes and try again. b. Ask the woman if she has felt the baby move today. c. Wait 10 minutes, and try again. d. Use ultrasound to verify cardiac activity.

*D* If no fetal heart tones are heard during auscultation with a fetoscope, then the nurse should verify cardiac activity using ultrasonography. An ultrasound should be immediately done and before notifying the physician or causing the woman distress by asking about fetal movement.

A 26-year-old woman was robbed and beaten a month ago. She is returning to the clinic today for a follow-up assessment. The nurse will want to ask her which one of these questions? a. "How are things going with the trial?" b. "How are things going with your job?" c. "Tell me about your recent engagement!" d. "Are you having any disturbing dreams?"

*D* In posttraumatic stress disorder, the person has been exposed to a traumatic event. The traumatic event is persistently reexperienced by recurrent and intrusive, distressing recollections of the event, including images, thoughts, or perceptions; recurrent distressing dreams of the event; and acting or feeling as if the traumatic event were recurring.

During an examination, the nurse asks the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver and notices that the patient has a moist, red, doughnut-shaped protrusion from the anus. The nurse knows that this finding is consistent with a: a. Rectal polyp. b. Hemorrhoid. c. Rectal fissure. d. Rectal prolapse.

*D* In rectal prolapse, the rectal mucous membrane protrudes through the anus, appearing as a moist red doughnut with radiating lines. It occurs after a Valsalva maneuver, such as straining at passing stool or with exercising (see Table 25-1). (See Table 25-2 for a description of rectal polyps and Table 25-1 for the descriptions of a rectal fissure and hemorrhoids.)

A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. Which statement does the nurse know to be true regarding this visit? a. Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking. b. She will not need to have a Pap smear performed. c. The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard. d. The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand adequately to avoid a painful examination.

*D* In the aging adult woman, natural lubrication is decreased; therefore, to avoid a painful examination, the nurse should take care to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand adequately. Menopause, with the resulting decrease in estrogen production, shows numerous physical changes. The cervix shrinks and looks pale and glistening. With the bimanual examination, the uterus feels smaller and firmer and the ovaries are not normally palpable. Women should continue cervical cancer screening up to age 65 years if they have an intact cervix and are in good health. Women who have had a total hysterectomy do not need cervical cancer screening if they have 3 consecutive negative Pap tests or 2 or more consecutive negative HIV and Pap tests within the last 10 years.

During the aging process, the hair can look gray or white and begin to feel thin and fine. The nurse knows that this occurs because of a decrease in the number of functioning: a. Metrocytes. b. Fungacytes. c. Phagocytes. d. Melanocytes.

*D* In the aging hair matrix, the number of functioning melanocytes decreases; as a result, the hair looks gray or white and feels thin and fine. The other options are not correct.

A patient has had a "terrible itch" for several months that he has been continuously scratching. On examination, the nurse might expect to find: a. A keloid. b. A fissure. c. Keratosis. d. Lichenification

*D* Lichenification results from prolonged, intense scratching that eventually thickens the skin and produces tightly packed sets of papules. A keloid is a hypertrophic scar. A fissure is a linear crack with abrupt edges, which extends into the dermis; it can be dry or moist. Keratoses are lesions that are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that appear crusted, scaly, and warty.

The nurse is assessing orientation in a 79-year-old patient. *Which of these responses would lead the nurse to conclude that this patient is oriented?* a. "I know my name is John. I couldn't tell you where I am. I think it is 2010, though." b. "I know my name is John, but to tell you the truth, I get kind of confused about the date." c. "I know my name is John; I guess I'm at the hospital in Spokane. No, I don't know the date." d. "I know my name is John. I am at the hospital in Spokane. I couldn't tell you what date it is, but I know that it is February of a new year—2010."

*D* Many aging persons experience social isolation, loss of structure without a job, a change in residence, or some short-term memory loss. These factors affect orientation, and the person may not provide the precise date or complete name of the agency. You may consider aging persons oriented if they generally know where they are and the present period. They should be considered oriented to time if the year and month are correctly stated. Orientation to place is accepted with the correct identification of the type of setting (e.g., hospital) and the name of the town.

As a mandatory reporter of elder abuse, which must be present before a nurse should notify the authorities? a. Statements from the victim b. Statements from witnesses c. Proof of abuse and/or neglect d. Suspicion of elder abuse and/or neglect

*D* Many health care workers are under the erroneous assumption that proof is required before notification of suspected abuse can occur. Only the suspicion of elder abuse or neglect is necessary.

A father brings in his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. The nurse should test skin mobility and turgor over the infant's: a. Sternum. b. Forehead. c. Forearms. d. Abdomen.

*D* Mobility and turgor are tested over the abdomen in an infant. Poor turgor, or tenting, indicates dehydration or malnutrition. The other sites are not appropriate for checking skin turgor in an infant.

A woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant is in the clinic for her first obstetric visit. She asks the nurse, *"How many drinks a day is safe for my baby?" *The nurse's best response is: a. "You should limit your drinking to once or twice a week." b. "It's okay to have up to two glasses of wine a day." c. "As long as you avoid getting drunk, you should be safe." d. "No amount of alcohol has been determined to be safe during pregnancy."

*D* No amount of alcohol has been determined to be safe for pregnant women. The potential adverse effects of alcohol use on the fetus are well known; women who are pregnant should be screened for alcohol use, and abstinence should be recommended.

The nurse is using the danger assessment (DA) tool to evaluate the risk of homicide. Which of these statements best describes its use? a. The DA tool is to be administered by law enforcement personnel. b. The DA tool should be used in every assessment of suspected abuse. c. The number of "yes" answers indicates the woman's understanding of her situation. d. The higher the number of "yes" answers, the more serious the danger of the woman's situation.

*D* No predetermined cutoff scores exist on the DA. The higher the number "yes" answers, the more serious the danger of the woman's situation. The use of this tool is not limited to law enforcement personnel and is not required in every case of suspected abuse.

The nurse is reviewing risk factors for breast cancer. Which of these women have risk factors that place them at a higher risk for breast cancer? a. 37 year old who is slightly overweight b. 42 year old who has had ovarian cancer c. 45 year old who has never been pregnant d. 65 year old whose mother had breast cancer

*D* Risk factors for breast cancer include having a first-degree relative with breast cancer (mother, sister, or daughter) and being older than 50 years of age. (Refer to Table 17- 2 for other risk factors.)

The nurse is examining a 3-month-old infant. While the nurse holds his or her thumbs on the infant's inner mid thighs and the fingers on the outside of the infant's hips, touching the greater trochanter, the nurse adducts the legs until the his or her thumbs touch and then abducts the legs until the infant's knees touch the table. The nurse does not notice any "clunking" sounds and is confident to record a: a. Positive Allis test. b. Negative Allis test. c. Positive Ortolani sign. d. Negative Ortolani sign.

*D* Normally, this maneuver feels smooth and has no sound. With a positive Ortolani sign, however, the nurse will feel and hear a "clunk," as the head of the femur pops back into place. A positive Ortolani sign also reflects hip instability. The Allis test also tests for hip dislocation but is performed by comparing leg lengths.

When assessing a patient's nutritional status, the nurse recalls that the best definition of optimal nutritional status is sufficient nutrients that: a. Are in excess of daily body requirements. b. Provide for the minimum body needs. c. Provide for daily body requirements but do not support increased metabolic demands. d. Provide for daily body requirements and support increased metabolic demands.

*D* Optimal nutritional status is achieved when sufficient nutrients are consumed to support day-to-day body needs and any increased metabolic demands resulting from growth, pregnancy, or illness.

A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her health history, the nurse should ask: a. "Do you have a history of heart murmurs?" b. "Will you be in a monogamous relationship?" c. "Have you carefully thought this choice through?" d. "If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?"

*D* Oral contraceptives, together with cigarette smoking, increase the risk for cardiovascular side effects. If cigarettes are used, then the nurse should assess the patient's smoking history. The other questions are not appropriate.

For the first time, the nurse is seeing a patient who has no history of nutrition-related problems. The initial nutritional screening should include which activity? a. Calorie count of nutrients b. Anthropometric measures c. Complete physical examination d. Measurement of weight and weight history

*D* Parameters used for nutrition screening typically include weight and weight history, conditions associated with increased nutritional risk, diet information, and routine laboratory data. The other responses reflect a more in-depth assessment rather than a screening.

A newborn infant has Down syndrome. During the skin assessment, the nurse notices a transient mottling in the trunk and extremities in response to the cool temperature in the examination room. The infant's mother also notices the mottling and asks what it is. The nurse knows that this mottling is called: a. Café au lait. b. Carotenemia. c. Acrocyanosis. d. Cutis marmorata.

*D* Persistent or pronounced cutis marmorata occurs with infants born with Down syndrome or those born prematurely and is a transient mottling in the trunk and extremities in response to cool room temperatures. A café au lait spot is a large round or oval patch of light-brown pigmentation. Carotenemia produces a yellow-orange color in light-skinned persons. Acrocyanosis is a bluish color around the lips, hands and fingernails, and feet and toenails.

A patient has had arthritic pain in her hips for several years since a hip fracture. She is able to move around in her room and has not offered any complaints so far this morning. However, when asked, she states that her pain is "bad this morning" and rates it at an 8 on a 1-to-10 scale. What does the nurse suspect? The patient: a. Is addicted to her pain medications and cannot obtain pain relief. b. Does not want to trouble the nursing staff with her complaints. c. Is not in pain but rates it high to receive pain medication. d. Has experienced chronic pain for years and has adapted to it.

*D* Persons with chronic pain typically try to give little indication that they are in pain and, over time, adapt to the pain. As a result, they are at risk for underdetection.

A female patient has nausea, breast tenderness, fatigue, and amenorrhea. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The nurse interprets that this patient is experiencing __________ signs of pregnancy. a. Positive b. Possible c. Probable d. Presumptive

*D* Presumptive signs of pregnancy are those that the woman experiences and include amenorrhea, breast tenderness, fatigue, nausea, and increased urinary frequency. Probable signs are those that are detected by the examiner, such as an enlarged uterus or changes in the cervix. Positive signs of pregnancy are those that document direct evidence of the fetus such as fetal heart tones or positive cardiac activity on ultrasound.

Which of these statements best describes the action of the hormone progesterone during pregnancy? a. Progesterone produces the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin. b. Duct formation in the breast is stimulated by progesterone. c. Progesterone promotes sloughing of the endometrial wall. d. Progesterone maintains the endometrium around the fetus.

*D* Progesterone prevents the sloughing of the endometrial wall and maintains the endometrium around the fetus. Progesterone increases the alveoli in the breast and keeps the uterus in a quiescent state. The other options are not correct.

A *4-year-old* boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She says he points to his stomach and says, "It hurts so bad." Which pain assessment tool would be the best choice when assessing this child's pain? a. Descriptor Scale b. Numeric rating scale c. Brief Pain Inventory d. Faces Pain Scale—Revised (FPS-R)

*D* Rating scales can be introduced at the age of 4 or 5 years. The FPS-R is designed for use by children and asks the child to choose a face that shows "how much hurt (or pain) you have now." Young children should not be asked to rate pain by using numbers.

A man has come in to the clinic for a skin assessment because he is worried he might have skin cancer. During the skin assessment the nurse notices several areas of pigmentation that look greasy, dark, and "stuck on" his skin. Which is the best prediction? a. Senile lentigines, which do not become cancerous b. Actinic keratoses, which are precursors to basal cell carcinoma c. Acrochordons, which are precursors to squamous cell carcinoma d. Seborrheic keratoses, which do not become cancerous

*D* Seborrheic keratoses appear like dark, greasy, "stuck-on" lesions that primarily develop on the trunk. These lesions do not become cancerous. Senile lentigines are commonly called liver spots and are not precancerous. Actinic (senile or solar) keratoses are lesions that are red-tan scaly plaques that increase over the years to become raised and roughened. They may have a silvery-white scale adherent to the plaque. They occur on sun-exposed surfaces and are directly related to sun exposure. They are premalignant and may develop into squamous cell carcinoma. Acrochordons are skin tags and are not precancerous.

A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting __________ sign and __________ sign. a. Tanner; Hegar b. Hegar; Goodell c. Chadwick; Hegar d. Goodell; Chadwick

*D* Shortly after the first missed menstrual period, the female genitalia show signs of the growing fetus. The cervix softens (Goodell sign) at 4 to 6 weeks, and the vaginal mucosa and cervix look cyanotic (Chadwick sign) at 8 to 12 weeks. These changes occur because of increased vascularity and edema of the cervix and hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the cervical glands. Hegar sign occurs when the isthmus of the uterus softens at 6 to 8 weeks. Tanner sign is not a correct response.

A woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of heartburn and indigestion. When discussing this with the woman, the nurse considers which explanation for these problems? a. Tone and motility of the gastrointestinal tract increase during the second trimester. b. Sluggish emptying of the gallbladder, resulting from the effects of progesterone, often causes heartburn. c. Lower blood pressure at this time decreases blood flow to the stomach and gastrointestinal tract. d. Enlarging uterus and altered esophageal sphincter tone predispose the woman to have heartburn.

*D* Stomach displacement from the enlarging uterus plus altered esophageal sphincter and gastric tone as a result of progesterone predispose the woman to heartburn. The tone and motility of the gastrointestinal tract are decreased, not increased, during pregnancy. Emptying of the gallbladder may become more sluggish during pregnancy but is not related to indigestion. Rather, some women are predisposed to gallstone formation. A lower blood pressure may occur during the second semester, but it does not affect digestion.

Which statement is best for the nurse to use when preparing to administer the Abuse Assessment Screen? a. "We are required by law to ask these questions." b. "We need to talk about whether you believe you have been abused." c. "We are asking these questions because we suspect that you are being abused." d. "We need to ask the following questions because domestic violence is so common in our society."

*D* Such an introduction alerts the woman that questions about domestic violence are coming and ensures the woman that she is not being singled out for these questions.

The nurse is palpating the uterus of a woman who is 8 weeks' pregnant. Which finding would be considered to be most consistent with this stage of pregnancy? a. The uterus seems slightly enlarged and softened. b. It reaches the pelvic brim and is approximately the size of a grapefruit. c. The uterus rises above the pelvic brim and is approximately the size of a cantaloupe. d. It is about the size of an avocado, approximately 8 cm across the fundus.

*D* The 8-week pregnant uterus is approximately the size of an avocado, 7 to 8 cm across the fundus. The 6-week pregnant uterus is slightly enlarged and softened. The 10-week pregnant uterus is approximately the size of a grapefruit and may reach the pelvic brim. The 12-week pregnant uterus will fill the pelvis. At 12 weeks, the uterus is sized from the abdomen.

During a health history, a 22-year old woman asks, "Can I get that vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV)? I have genital warts and I'd like them to go away!" What is the nurse's best response? a. "The HPV vaccine is for girls and women ages 9 to 26 years, so we can start that today." b. "This vaccine is only for girls who have not yet started to become sexually active." c. "Let's check with the physician to see if you are a candidate for this vaccine." d. "The vaccine cannot protect you if you already have an HPV infection."

*D* The HPV vaccine is appropriate for girls and women age 9 to 26 years and is administered to prevent cervical cancer by preventing HPV infections before girls become sexually active. However, it cannot protect the woman if an HPV infection is already present.

Which of these correctly describes the average length of pregnancy? a. 38 weeks b. 9 lunar months c. 280 days from the last day of the last menstrual period d. 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period

*D* The average length of pregnancy is 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period, which is equal to 40 weeks, 10 lunar months, or roughly 9 calendar months.

A professional tennis player comes into the clinic complaining of a sore elbow. The nurse will assess for tenderness at the: a. Olecranon bursa. b. Annular ligament. c. Base of the radius. d. Medial and lateral epicondyle.

*D* The epicondyles, the head of the radius, and the tendons are common sites of inflammation and local tenderness, commonly referred to as tennis elbow. The other locations are not affected.

The nurse is testing the function of CN XI. Which statement best describes the response the nurse should expect if this nerve is intact? The patient: a. Demonstrates the ability to hear normal conversation. b. Sticks out the tongue midline without tremors or deviation. c. Follows an object with his or her eyes without nystagmus or strabismus. d. Moves the head and shoulders against resistance with equal strength.

*D* The following normal findings are expected when testing the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI): The patient's sternomastoid and trapezius muscles are equal in size; the person can forcibly rotate the head both ways against resistance applied to the side of the chin with equal strength; and the patient can shrug the shoulders against resistance with equal strength on both sides. Checking the patient's ability to hear normal conversation checks the function of CN VIII. Having the patient stick out the tongue checks the function of CN XII. Testing the eyes for nystagmus or strabismus is performed to check CNs III, IV, and VI.

The nurse is performing a mental status assessment on a 5-year-old girl. Her parents are undergoing a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which action or statement might lead the nurse to be concerned about the girl's mental status? a. She clings to her mother whenever the nurse is in the room. b. She appears angry and will not make eye contact with the nurse. c. Her mother states that she has begun to ride a tricycle around their yard. d. Her mother states that her daughter prefers to play with toddlers instead of kids her own age while in daycare.

*D* The mental status assessment of infants and children covers behavioral, cognitive, and psychosocial development and examines how the child is coping with his or her environment. Essentially, the nurse should follow the same Association for Behavioral and Cognitive Therapies (ABCT) guidelines as those for the adult, with special consideration for developmental milestones. The best examination technique arises from a thorough knowledge of the developmental milestones (described in Chapter 2). Abnormalities are often problems of omission (e.g., the child does not achieve a milestone as expected).

When reviewing the musculoskeletal system, the nurse recalls that *hematopoiesis* takes place in the: a. Liver. b. Spleen. c. Kidneys. d. Bone marrow.

*D* The musculoskeletal system functions to encase and protect the inner vital organs, to support the body, to produce red blood cells in the bone marrow (hematopoiesis), and to store minerals. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is assessing for clubbing of the fingernails and expects to find: a. Nail bases that are firm and slightly tender. b. Curved nails with a convex profile and ridges across the nails. c. Nail bases that feel spongy with an angle of the nail base of 150 degrees. d. Nail bases with an angle of 180 degrees or greater and nail bases that feel spongy.

*D* The normal nail is firm at its base and has an angle of 160 degrees. In clubbing, the angle straightens to 180 degrees or greater and the nail base feels spongy.

During the taking of the health history of a 78-year-old man, his wife states that he occasionally has problems with short-term memory loss and confusion: "He can't even remember how to button his shirt." When assessing his sensory system, which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. The nurse would not test the sensory system as part of the examination because the results would not be valid. b. The nurse would perform the tests, knowing that mental status does not affect sensory ability. c. The nurse would proceed with an explanation of each test, making certain that the wife understands. d. Before testing, the nurse would assess the patient's mental status and ability to follow directions.

*D* The nurse should ensure the validity of the sensory system testing by making certain that the patient is alert, cooperative, comfortable, and has an adequate attention span. Otherwise, the nurse may obtain misleading and invalid results.

A 50-year-old woman is in the clinic for weakness in her left arm and leg that she has noticed for the past week. The nurse should perform which type of neurologic examination? a. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Neurologic recheck examination c. Screening neurologic examination d. Complete neurologic examination

*D* The nurse should perform a complete neurologic examination on an individual who has neurologic concerns (e.g., headache, weakness, loss of coordination) or who is showing signs of neurologic dysfunction. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to define a person's level of consciousness. The neurologic recheck examination is appropriate for those who are demonstrating neurologic deficits. The screening neurologic examination is performed on seemingly well individuals who have no significant subjective findings from the health history

The nurse is assessing a patient's pain. The nurse knows that the most reliable indicator of pain would be the: a. Patient's vital signs. b. Physical examination. c. Results of a computerized axial tomographic scan. d. Subjective report.

*D* The subjective report is the most reliable indicator of pain. Physical examination findings can lend support, but the clinician cannot exclusively base the diagnosis of pain on physical assessment findings.

The nurse is performing a breast examination. Which of these statements best describes the correct procedure to use when screening for nipple and skin retraction during a breast examination? Have the woman: a. Bend over and touch her toes. b. Lie down on her left side and notice any retraction. c. Shift from a supine position to a standing position, and note any lag or retraction. d. Slowly lift her arms above her head, and note any retraction or lag in movement.

*D* The woman should be directed to change position while checking the breasts for signs of skin retraction. Initially, she should be asked to lift her arms slowly over her head. Both breasts should move up symmetrically. Retraction signs are due to fibrosis in the breast tissue, usually caused by growing neoplasms. The nurse should notice whether movement of one breast is lagging.

During an assessment of a 32-year-old patient with a *recent head injury*, the nurse notices that the *patient responds to pain by extending, adducting, and internally rotating his arms. His palms pronate, and his lower extremities extend with plantar flexion.* Which statement concerning these findings is most accurate? This patient's response: a. Indicates a lesion of the cerebral cortex. b. Indicates a completely nonfunctional brainstem. c. Is normal and will go away in 24 to 48 hours. d. Is a very ominous sign and may indicate brainstem injury.

*D* These findings are all indicative of decerebrate rigidity, which is a very ominous condition and may indicate a brainstem injury

A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a *sudden fever of 38.3° C and abdominal pain*. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has *rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature*. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of: a. Endometriosis. b. Uterine fibroids. c. Ectopic pregnancy. d. Pelvic inflammatory disease.

*D* These signs and symptoms are suggestive of acute pelvic inflammatory disease, also known as acute salpingitis (see Table 26-7). (For the descriptions of endometriosis and uterine fibroids, see Table 26-6; for a description of ectopic pregnancy, see Table 26-7.)

A patient has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). He is trying very hard to communicate. He seems driven to speak and says, "I buy obie get spirding and take my train." What is the best description of this patient's problem? a. Global aphasia b. Broca's aphasia c. Echolalia d. Wernicke's aphasia

*D* This type of communication illustrates Wernicke's or receptive aphasia. The person can hear sounds and words but cannot relate them to previous experiences. Speech is fluent, effortless, and well articulated, but it has many paraphasias (word substitutions that are malformed or wrong) and neologisms (made-up words) and often lacks substantive words. Speech can be totally incomprehensible. Often, a great urge to speak is present. Repetition, reading, and writing also are impaired. Echolalia is an imitation or the repetition of another person's words or phrases. (See Table 5-4 for the definitions of the other disorders.

he nurse is reviewing the principles of pain. Which type of pain is due to an abnormal processing of the pain impulse through the peripheral or central nervous system? a. Visceral b. Referred c. Cutaneous d. Neuropathic

*D* To assess the quality of a person's pain, the patient is asked to describe the pain in his or her own words.

A mother brings her child into the clinic for an examination of the scalp and hair. She states that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches with broken-off, stublike hair in some places; she is worried that this condition could be some form of premature baldness. The nurse tells her that it is: a. Folliculitis that can be treated with an antibiotic. b. Traumatic alopecia that can be treated with antifungal medications. c. Tinea capitis that is highly contagious and needs immediate attention. d. Trichotillomania; her child probably has a habit of absentmindedly twirling her hair.

*D* Trichotillomania, self-induced hair loss, is usually due to habit. It forms irregularly shaped patches with broken-off, stublike hairs of varying lengths. A person is never completely bald. It occurs as a child absentmindedly rubs or twirls the area while falling asleep, reading, or watching television. (See Table 12-12, Abnormal Conditions of Hair, for descriptions of the other terms.)

During a home visit, the nurse notices that an older adult woman is caring for her bedridden husband. The woman states that this is her duty, she does the best she can, and her children come to help when they are in town. Her husband is unable to care for himself, and she appears thin, weak, and exhausted. The nurse notices that several of his prescription medication bottles are empty. This situation is best described by the term: a. Physical abuse. b. Financial neglect. c. Psychological abuse. d. Unintentional physical neglect.

*D* Unintentional physical neglect may occur, despite good intentions, and is the failure of a family member or caregiver to provide basic goods or services. Physical abuse is defined as violent acts that result or could result in injury, pain, impairment, or disease. Financial neglect is defined as the failure to use the assets of the older person to provide services needed by him or her. Psychological abuse is defined as behaviors that result in mental anguish.

During a woman's 34th week of pregnancy, she is told that she has preeclampsia. The nurse knows which statement concerning preeclampsia is *true*? a. Preeclampsia has little effect on the fetus. b. Edema is one of the main indications of preeclampsia. c. Eclampsia only occurs before delivery of the baby. d. Untreated preeclampsia may contribute to restriction of fetal growth.

*D* Untreated preeclampsia may progress to eclampsia, which is manifested by generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Eclampsia may develop as late as 10 days postpartum. Before the syndrome becomes clinically manifested, it is affecting the placenta through vasospasm and a series of small infarctions. The placenta's capacity to deliver oxygen and nutrients may be seriously diminished, and fetal growth may be restricted. Edema is common in pregnancy and is not an indicator of preeclampsia.

Which of these individuals would the nurse consider at *highest risk for a suicide attempt?* a. Man who jokes about death b. Woman who, during a past episode of major depression, attempted suicide c. Adolescent who just broke up with her boyfriend and states that she would like to kill herself d. Older adult man who tells the nurse that he is going to "join his wife in heaven" tomorrow and plans to use a gun

*D* When the person expresses feelings of sadness, hopelessness, despair, or grief, assessing any possible risk of physical harm to him or herself is important. The interview should begin with more general questions. If the nurse hears affirmative answers, then he or she should continue with more specific questions. A precise suicide plan to take place in the next 24 to 48 hours with use of a lethal method constitutes high risk.

The nurse notices that a school-aged child has bluish-white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated approximately 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient? a. Pink, papular rash on the face and neck b. Pruritic vesicles over her trunk and neck c. Hyperpigmentation on the chest, abdomen, and back of the arms d. Red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face

*D* With measles (rubeola), the examiner assesses a red-purple, blotchy rash on the third or fourth day of illness that appears first behind the ears, spreads over the face, and then over the neck, trunk, arms, and legs. The rash appears coppery and does not blanch. The bluish-white, red-based spots in the mouth are known as Koplik spots.

A 78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. The nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. His left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. What type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing? a. Scissors gait b. Cerebellar ataxia c. Parkinsonian gait d. Spastic hemiparesis

*D* With spastic hemiparesis, the arm is immobile against the body. Flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers occurs, and adduction of the shoulder, which does not swing freely, is observed. The leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. Causes of this type of gait include cerebrovascular accident. (See Table 23-6 for more information and for the descriptions of the other abnormal gaits.

When assessing muscle strength, the nurse observes that a patient has complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance. What grade of muscle strength should the nurse record using a 0- to 5-point scale? a. 2 b.3 c.4 d.5

*D* Complete range of motion against gravity is normal muscle strength and is recorded as grade 5 muscle strength. The other options are not correct.

A patient describes feeling an unreasonable, irrational fear of snakes. His fear is so persistent that he can no longer comfortably look at even pictures of snakes and has made an effort to identify all the places he might encounter a snake and avoids them. The nurse recognizes that he: a. Has a snake phobia. b. Is a hypochondriac; snakes are usually harmless. c. Has an obsession with snakes. d. Has a delusion that snakes are harmful, which must stem from an early traumatic incident involving snakes.

A A phobia is a strong, persistent, irrational fear of an object or situation; the person feels driven to avoid it. (See Table 5-7 for the definitions of the other terms.)

During morning rounds, the nurse asks a patient, "How are you today?" The patient responds, "You today, you today, you today!" and mumbles the words. This speech pattern is an example of: a. Echolalia b. Clanging c. Word salad d. Perseveration

A* Echolalia occurs when a person imitates or repeats another's words or phrases, often with a mumbling, mocking, or a mechanical tone.

The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment on a 15-year-old girl who tells the nurse that she is "so fat." Assessment reveals that she is 5 feet 4 inches and weighs 110 pounds. The nurse's appropriate response would be: a. "How much do you think you should weigh?" b. "Don't worry about it; you're not that overweight." c. "The best thing for you would be to go on a diet." d. "I used to always think I was fat when I was your age."

A Adolescents' increased body awareness and self-consciousness may cause eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa or bulimia, conditions in which the real or perceived body image does not favorably compare with an ideal image. The nurse should not belittle the adolescent's feelings, provide unsolicited advice, or agree with her.

During a nutritional assessment, why is it important for the nurse to ask a patient what medications he or she is taking? a. Certain drugs can affect the metabolism of nutrients. b. The nurse needs to assess the patient for allergic reactions. c. Medications need to be documented in the record for the physician's review. d. Medications can affect one's memory and ability to identify food eaten in the last 24 hours.

A Analgesics, antacids, anticonvulsants, antibiotics, diuretics, laxatives, antineoplastic drugs, steroids, and oral contraceptives are drugs that can interact with nutrients, impairing their digestion, absorption, metabolism, or use. The other responses are not correct.

In teaching a patient how to determine total body fat at home, the nurse includes instructions to obtain measurements of: a. Height and weight. b. Frame size and weight. c. Waist and hip circumferences. d. Mid-upper arm circumference and arm span.

A Body mass index, calculated by using height and weight measurements, is a practical marker of optimal weight for height and an indicator of obesity. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment on an 80-year-old patient. The nurse knows that physiologic changes can directly affect the nutritional status of the older adult and include: a. Slowed gastrointestinal motility. b. Hyperstimulation of the salivary glands. c. Increased sensitivity to spicy and aromatic foods. d. Decreased gastrointestinal absorption causing esophageal reflux.

A Normal physiologic changes in aging adults that affect nutritional status include slowed gastrointestinal motility, decreased gastrointestinal absorption, diminished olfactory and taste sensitivity, decreased saliva production, decreased visual acuity, and poor dentition.

If a 29-year-old woman weighs 156 pounds, and the nurse determines her ideal body weight to be 120 pounds, then how would the nurse classify the woman's weight? a. Obese b. Mildly overweight c. Suffering from malnutrition d. Within appropriate range of ideal weight

A Obesity, as a result of caloric excess, refers to weight more than 20% above ideal body weight. For this patient, 20% of her ideal body weight would be 24 pounds, and greater than 20% of her body weight would be over 144 pounds. Therefore, having a weight of 156 pounds would be considered obese.

When considering a nutritional assessment, the nurse is aware that the most common anthropometric measurements include: a. Height and weight. b. Leg circumference. c. Skinfold thickness of the biceps. d. Hip and waist measurements.

A The most commonly used anthropometric measures are height, weight, triceps skinfold thickness, elbow breadth, and arm and head circumferences.

The nurse is evaluating patients for obesity-related diseases by calculating the waist-to-hip ratios. Which one of these patients would be at increased risk? a. 29-year-old woman whose waist measures 33 inches and hips measure 36 inches b. 32-year-old man whose waist measures 34 inches and hips measure 36 inches c. 38-year-old man whose waist measures 35 inches and hips measure 38 inches d. 46-year-old woman whose waist measures 30 inches and hips measure 38 inches

A The waist-to-hip ratio assesses body fat distribution as an indicator of health risk. A waist-to-hip ratio of 1.0 or greater in men or 0.8 or greater in women is indicative of android (upper body obesity) and increasing risk for obesity-related disease and early death. The 29-year-old woman has a waist-to-hip ratio of 0.92, which is greater than 0.8. The 32-year-old man has a waist-to-hip ratio of 0.94; the 38-year-old man has a waist-to-hip ratio of 0.92; the 46-year-old woman has a waist-to-hip ratio of 0.78.

A patient visits the clinic to ask about smoking cessation. He has smoked heavily for 30 years and wants to stop "cold turkey." He asks the nurse, "What symptoms can I expect if I do this?" Which of these symptoms should the nurse share with the patient as possible symptoms of nicotine withdrawal? *Select all that apply.* a. Headaches b. Hunger c. Sleepiness d. Restlessness e. Nervousness f. Sweating

A, B, D, E Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include vasodilation, headaches, anger, irritability, frustration, anxiety, nervousness, awakening at night, difficulty concentrating, depression, hunger, impatience, and the desire to smoke (see Table 6-7).

The nurse is assessing the body weight as a percentage of ideal body weight on an adolescent patient who was admitted for suspected anorexia nervosa. The patient's usual weight was 125 pounds, but today she weighs 98 pounds. The nurse calculates the patient's ideal body weight and concludes that the patient is: a. Experiencing mild malnutrition. b. Experiencing moderate malnutrition. c. Experiencing severe malnutrition. d. Still within expected parameters with her current weight.

B By dividing her current weight by her usual weight and then multiplying by 100, a percentage of 78.4% is obtained, which means that her current weight is 78.4% of her ideal body weight. A current weight of 80% to 90% of ideal weight suggests mild malnutrition; a current weight of 70% to 80% of ideal weight suggests moderate malnutrition; a current weight of less than 70% of ideal weight suggests severe malnutrition.

In performing an assessment on a 49-year-old woman who has imbalanced nutrition as a result of dysphagia, which data would the nurse expect to find? a. Increase in hair growth b. Inadequate nutrient food intake c. Weight 10% to 20% over ideal d. Sore, inflamed buccal cavity

B Dysphagia, or impaired swallowing, interferes with adequate nutrient intake.

A 21-year-old woman has been on a low-protein liquid diet for the past 2 months. She has had adequate intake of calories and appears well nourished. After further assessment, what would the nurse expect to find? a. Poor skin turgor b. Decreased serum albumin c. Increased lymphocyte count d. Triceps skinfold less than standard

B Kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition) is due to diets that may be high in calories but contain little or no protein (e.g., low-protein liquid diets, fad diets, and long-term use of dextrose-containing intravenous fluids). The serum albumin would be less than 3.5 g/dL.

During an assessment of a patient who has been homeless for several years, the nurse notices that his tongue is magenta in color, which is an indication of a deficiency in what mineral and/or vitamin? a. Iron b. Riboflavin c. Vitamin D and calcium d. Vitamin C

B Magenta tongue is a sign of riboflavin deficiency. In contrast, a pale tongue is probably attributable to iron deficiency. Vitamin D and calcium deficiencies cause osteomalacia in adults, and a vitamin C deficiency causes scorbutic gums.

he nurse is reviewing the nutritional assessment of an 82-year-old patient. Which of these factors will most likely affect the nutritional status of an older adult? a. Increase in taste and smell b. Living alone on a fixed income c. Change in cardiovascular status d. Increase in gastrointestinal motility and absorption

B Socioeconomic conditions frequently affect the nutritional status of the aging adult; these factors should be closely evaluated. Physical limitations, income, and social isolation are frequent problems that interfere with the acquisition of a balanced diet. A decrease in taste and smell and decreased gastrointestinal motility and absorption occur with aging. Cardiovascular status is not a factor that affects an older adult's nutritional status.

A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would: a. Tell the patient to watch the lesion and report back in 2 months. b. Refer the patient because of the suggestion of melanoma on the basis of her symptoms. c. Ask additional questions regarding environmental irritants that may have caused this condition. d. Tell the patient that these signs suggest a compound nevus, which is very common in young to middle-aged adults.

B The ABCD danger signs of melanoma are asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter. In addition, individuals may report a change in size, the development of itching, burning, and bleeding, or a new-pigmented lesion. Any one of these signs raises the suggestion of melanoma and warrants immediate referral.

If a patient reports a recent breast infection, then the nurse should expect to find ________ node enlargement. a. Nonspecific b. *Ipsilateral axillary* c. Contralateral axillary d. Inguinal and cervical

B The breast has extensive lymphatic drainage. Most of the lymph, more than 75%, drains into the ipsilateral, or same side, axillary nodes.

A patient tells the nurse that his food simply does not have any taste anymore. The nurse's best response would be: a. "That must be really frustrating." b. "When did you first notice this change?" c. "My food doesn't always have a lot of taste either." d. "Sometimes that happens, but your taste will come back."

B With changes in appetite, taste, smell, or chewing or swallowing, the examiner should ask about the type of change and when the change occurred. These problems interfere with adequate nutrient intake. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is obese for signs of metabolic syndrome. This condition is diagnosed when three or more certain risk factors are present. Which of these assessment findings are risk factors for metabolic syndrome? *Select all that apply.* a. Fasting plasma glucose level less than 100 mg/dL b. Fasting plasma glucose level greater than or equal to 110 mg/dL c. Blood pressure reading of 140/90 mm Hg d. Blood pressure reading of 110/80 mm Hg e. Triglyceride level of 120 mg/dL

B, C Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when three or more of the following risk factors are present: (1) fasting plasma glucose level greater than or equal to 100 mg/dL; (2) blood pressure greater than or equal to 130/85 mm Hg; (3) waist circumference greater than or equal to 40 inches for men and 35 inches for women; (4) high-density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 40 in men and less than 50 in women; and (5) triglyceride levels greater than or equal to 150 mg/dL (ATP III, 2001).

A patient with a known history of heavy alcohol use has been admitted to the ICU after he was found unconscious outside a bar. The nurse closely monitors him for symptoms of withdrawal. Which of these symptoms may occur during this time? *Select all that apply.* a. Bradycardia b. Coarse tremor of the hands c. Transient hallucinations d. Somnolence e. Sweating

B, C, E Symptoms of uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal start shortly after the cessation of drinking, peak at the second day, and improve by the fourth or fifth day. Symptoms include coarse tremors of the hands, tongue, and eyelids; anorexia; nausea and vomiting; autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., tachycardia, sweating, elevated blood pressure); and transient hallucinations, among other symptoms (see Table 6-7).

A 16-year-old girl is being seen at the clinic for gastrointestinal complaints and weight loss. The nurse determines that many of her complaints may be related to erratic eating patterns, eating predominantly fast foods, and high caffeine intake. In this situation, which is most appropriate when collecting current dietary intake information? a. Scheduling a time for direct observation of the adolescent during meals b. Asking the patient for a 24-hour diet recall, and assuming it to be reflective of a typical day for her c. Having the patient complete a food diary for 3 days, including 2 weekdays and 1 weekend day d. Using the food frequency questionnaire to identify the amount of intake of specific foods

C Food diaries require the individual to write down everything consumed for a certain time period. Because of the erratic eating patterns of this individual, assessing dietary intake over a few days would produce more accurate information regarding eating patterns. Direct observation is best used with young children or older adults.

Which of these interventions is most appropriate when the nurse is planning nutritional interventions for a healthy, active 74-year-old woman? a. Decreasing the amount of carbohydrates to prevent lean muscle catabolism b. Increasing the amount of soy and tofu in her diet to promote bone growth and reverse osteoporosis c. Decreasing the number of calories she is eating because of the decrease in energy requirements from the loss of lean body mass d. Increasing the number of calories she is eating because of the increased energy needs of the older adult

C Important nutritional features of the older years are a decrease in energy requirements as a result of loss of lean body mass, the most metabolically active tissue, and an increase in fat mass.

Which of these conditions is due to an inadequate intake of both protein and calories? a. Obesity b. Bulimia c. Marasmus d. Kwashiorkor

C Marasmus, protein-calorie malnutrition, is due to an inadequate intake of protein and calories or prolonged starvation. Obesity is due to caloric excess; bulimia is an eating disorder. Kwashiorkor is protein malnutrition

A 50-year-old patient has been brought to the emergency department after a housemate found that the patient could not get out of bed alone. He has lived in a group home for years but for several months has not participated in the activities and has stayed in his room. The nurse assesses for signs of undernutrition, and an x-ray study reveals that he has osteomalacia, which is a deficiency of: a. Iron. b. Riboflavin. c. Vitamin D and calcium. d. Vitamin C

C Osteomalacia results from a deficiency of vitamin D and calcium in adults. Iron deficiency would result in anemia, riboflavin deficiency would result in magenta tongue, and vitamin C deficiency would result in scurvy.

In performing an assessment of a woman's axillary lymph system, the nurse should assess which of these nodes? a. Central, axillary, lateral, and sternal b. Pectoral, lateral, anterior, and sternal c. Central, lateral, pectoral, and subscapular d. Lateral, pectoral, axillary, and suprascapular

C The breast has extensive lymphatic drainage. Four groups of axillary nodes are present: (1) central, (2) pectoral (anterior), (3) subscapular (posterior), and (4) lateral.

A 50-year-old woman with elevated total cholesterol and triglyceride levels is visiting the clinic to find out about her laboratory results. What would be important for the nurse to include in patient teaching in relation to these tests? a. The risks of undernutrition should be included. b. Offer methods to reduce the stress in her life. c. Provide information regarding a diet low in saturated fat. d. This condition is hereditary; she can do nothing to change the levels.

C The patient with elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels should be taught about eating a healthy diet that limits the intake of foods high in saturated fats or trans fats. Reducing dietary fats is part of the treatment for this condition. The other responses are not pertinent to her condition.

How should the nurse perform a triceps skinfold assessment? a. After pinching the skin and fat, the calipers are vertically applied to the fat fold. b. The skin and fat on the front of the patient's arm are gently pinched, and then the calipers are applied. c. After applying the calipers, the nurse waits 3 seconds before taking a reading. After repeating the procedure three times, an average is recorded. d. The patient is instructed to stand with his or her back to the examiner and arms folded across the chest. The skin on the forearm is pinched.

C While holding the skinfold, the lever of the calipers is released. The nurse waits 3 seconds and then takes a reading. This procedure should be repeated three times, and an average of the three skinfold measurements is then recorded.

The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing staff on the dermis layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The *dermis*: a. Contains mostly fat cells. b. Consists mostly of keratin. c. Is replaced every 4 weeks. d. Contains sensory receptors.

D The dermis consists mostly of collagen, has resilient elastic tissue that allows the skin to stretch, and contains nerves, sensory receptors, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. It is not replaced every 4 weeks.

An older adult patient in a nursing home has been receiving tube feedings for several months. During an oral examination, the nurse notes that patient's gums are swollen, ulcerated, and bleeding in some areas. The nurse suspects that the patient has what condition? a. Rickets b. Vitamin A deficiency c. Linoleic-acid deficiency d. Vitamin C deficiency

D Vitamin C deficiency causes swollen, ulcerated, and bleeding gums, known as scorbutic gums. Rickets is a condition related to vitamin D and calcium deficiencies in infants and children. Linoleic-acid deficiency causes eczematous skin. Vitamin A deficiency causes Bitot spots and visual problems.

The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about breast milk. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Your breast milk is immediately present after the delivery of your baby." b. "Breast milk is rich in protein and sugars (lactose) but has very little fat." c. "The colostrum, which is present right after birth, does not contain the same nutrients as breast milk." d. "You may notice a thick, yellow fluid expressed from your breasts as early as the fourth month of pregnancy."

D After the fourth month, colostrum may be expressed. This thick yellow fluid is the precursor of milk, and it contains the same amount of protein and lactose but practically no fat. The breasts produce colostrum for the first few days after delivery. It is rich with antibodies that protect the newborn against infection; therefore, breastfeeding is important.

The nurse is preparing to measure fat and lean body mass and bone mineral density. Which tool is appropriate? a. Measuring tape b. Skinfold calipers c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)

D DEXA measures both bone mineral density and fat and lean body mass. BIA measures fat and lean body mass but not bone mineral density. A measuring tape measures distance or length, and skinfold calipers are used to determine skinfold thickness

The nurse is discussing appropriate foods with the mother of a 3-year-old child. Which of these foods are recommended? a. Foods that the child will eat, no matter what they are b. Foods easy to hold such as hot dogs, nuts, and grapes c. Any foods, as long as the rest of the family is also eating them d. Finger foods and nutritious snacks that cannot cause choking

D Small portions, finger foods, simple meals, and nutritious snacks help improve the dietary intake of young children. Foods likely to be aspirated should be avoided (e.g., hot dogs, nuts, grapes, round candies, popcorn).

A patient is asked to indicate on a form how many times he eats a specific food. This method describes which of these tools for obtaining dietary information? a. Food diary b. Calorie count c. 24-hour recall d. Food-frequency questionnaire

D With this tool, information is collected on how many times per day, week, or month the individual eats particular foods, which provides an estimate of usual intake.

The nurse is reviewing statistics for lactose intolerance. In the United States, the incidence of lactose intolerance is higher in adults of which ethnic group? a. Blacks b. Hispanics c. Whites d. Asians

*A* A recent study found estimates of lactose-intolerance prevalence as follows: 19.5% for Blacks, 10% for Hispanics, and 7.72% for Whites.

During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be: a. Enlarged scrotal sac. b. Increased pubic hair. c. Decreased penis size. d. Increased rugae over the scrotum.

*C* In the aging man, the amount of pubic hair decreases, the penis size decreases, and the rugae over the scrotal sac decreases. The scrotal sac does not enlarge.

The nurse is describing a scaphoid abdomen. To the horizontal plane, a scaphoid contour of the abdomen depicts a ______ profile. a. Flat b. Convex c. Bulging d. Concave

*D* Contour describes the profile of the abdomen from the rib margin to the pubic bone; *a scaphoid contour is one that is concave from a horizontal plane* (see Figure 21-7).

The nurse suspects that a patient has a distended bladder. *How should the nurse assess for this condition?* a. Percuss and palpate in the lumbar region. b. Inspect and palpate in the epigastric region. c. Auscultate and percuss in the inguinal region. d. Percuss and palpate the midline area above the suprapubic bone.

*D* Dull *percussion* sounds would be elicited over a distended bladder, and the hypogastric area would seem firm to *palpation.*

During an assessment of a newborn infant, the nurse recalls that *pyloric stenosis* would be exhibited by: a. Projectile vomiting. b. Hypoactive bowel activity. c. Palpable olive-sized mass in the right lower quadrant. d. Pronounced peristaltic waves crossing from right to left.

*A* *Significant peristalsis, together with projectile vomiting, in the newborn suggests pyloric stenosis.* After feeding, pronounced peristaltic waves cross from left to right, leading to projectile vomiting. One can also palpate an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant.

A nurse notices that a patient has *ascites*, which indicates the presence of: a. Fluid. b. Feces. c. Flatus. d. Fibroid tumors.

*A* *Ascites is free fluid in the peritoneal cavity* and occurs with heart failure, portal hypertension, cirrhosis, hepatitis, pancreatitis, and cancer

A 59-year-old patient has been diagnosed with prostatitis and is being seen at the clinic for *complaints of burning and pain during urination*. He is experiencing: a. Dysuria. b. Nocturia. c. Polyuria. d. Hematuria.

*A* *Dysuria (burning with urination)* is common with acute cystitis, prostatitis, and urethritis. Nocturia is voiding during the night. Polyuria is voiding in excessive quantities. Hematuria is voiding with blood in the urine.

Which of these *percussion findings* would the nurse expect to find in a patient with a *large amount of ascites*? a. Dullness across the abdomen b. Flatness in the right upper quadrant c. Hyperresonance in the left upper quadrant d. Tympany in the right and left lower quadrants

*A* A large amount of ascitic fluid produces a dull sound to percussion

Just before going home, a new mother asks the nurse about the infant's umbilical cord. Which of these statements *is correct*? a. "It should fall off in 10 to 14 days." b. "It will soften before it falls off." c. "It contains two veins and one artery." d. "Skin will cover the area within 1 week."

*A* At birth, the umbilical cord is white and contains two umbilical arteries and one vein inside the Wharton jelly. The umbilical stump dries within a week, hardens, and *falls off in 10 to 14 days*. Skin will cover the area in 3 to 4 weeks

The mother of a 5-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has noticed her daughter "scratching at her bottom a lot the last few days." During the assessment, the nurse finds redness and raised skin in the anal area. This finding most likely indicates: a. Pinworms. b. Chickenpox. c. Constipation. d. Bacterial infection.

*A* In children, *pinworms* are a common cause of intense itching and irritated anal skin. The other options are not correct.

An older man is concerned about his sexual performance. The nurse knows that in the absence of disease, a *withdrawal from sexual activity later in life may be attributable to:* a. Side effects of medications. b. Decreased libido with aging. c. Decreased sperm production. d. Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse.

*A* In the absence of disease, a withdrawal from sexual activity may be attributable to side effects of medications such as antihypertensives, antidepressants, sedatives, psychotropics, antispasmotics, tranquilizers or narcotics, and estrogens. The other options are not correct.

When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is ventrally positioned. This finding is: a. Called hypospadias. b. A result of phimosis. c. Probably due to a stricture. d. Often associated with aging.

*A* Normally, the urethral meatus is positioned just about centrally. *Hypospadias* is the ventral location of the urethral meatus. The position of the meatus does not change with aging. Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin. A stricture is a narrow opening of the meatus.

The nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. Which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation? a. Skin on the scrotum is taut. b. Left testicle hangs lower than the right testicle. c. Scrotal skin has yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender. d. Testes move closer to the body in response to cold temperatures.

*A* Scrotal swelling may cause the skin to be taut and to display pitting edema. Normal scrotal skin is rugae, and asymmetry is normal with the left scrotal half usually lower than the right. The testes may move closer to the body in response to cold temperatures.

A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the nurse where sperm is produced. The nurse knows that sperm production occurs in the: a. Testes. b. Prostate. c. Epididymis. d. Vas deferens.

*A* Sperm production occurs in the testes, not in the other structures listed.

The nurse is preparing to palpate the rectum and should use which of these techniques? The nurse should: a. Flex the finger, and slowly insert it toward the umbilicus. b. First instruct the patient that this procedure will be painful. c. Insert an extended index finger at a right angle to the anus. d. Place the finger directly into the anus to overcome the tight sphincter.

*A* The nurse should gently place the pad of the index finger against the anal verge. The nurse will feel the sphincter tighten and then relax. As it relaxes, the nurse should flex the tip of the finger and slowly insert it into the anal canal in a direction toward the umbilicus. The nurse should never approach the anus at right angles with the index finger extended; doing so would cause pain. The nurse should instruct the patient that palpation is not painful but may feel like needing to move the bowels

*Which of these statements is most appropriate when the nurse is obtaining a genitourinary history from an older man?* a. "Do you need to get up at night to urinate?" b. "Do you experience nocturnal emissions, or 'wet dreams'?" c. "Do you know how to perform a testicular self-examination?" d. "Has anyone ever touched your genitals when you did not want them to?"

*A* The older male patient should be asked about the presence of nocturia. Awaking at night to urinate may be attributable to a diuretic medication, fluid retention from mild heart failure or varicose veins, or fluid ingestion 3 hours before bedtime, especially coffee and alcohol. The other questions are more appropriate for younger men.

During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient's *foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans.* The nurse recognizes that this condition is: a. Phimosis. b. Epispadias. c. Urethral stricture. d. Peyronie disease.

*A* With *phimosis*, the foreskin is nonretractable, forming a pointy tip of the penis with a tiny orifice at the end of the glans. The foreskin is advanced and so tight that it is impossible to retract over the glans. This condition may be congenital or acquired from adhesions related to infection. (See Table 24-3 for information on urethral stricture. See Table 24-4 for information on epispadias and Peyronie disease.)

The nurse is caring for a newborn infant. Thirty hours after birth, the infant passes a dark green meconium stool. The nurse recognizes this is important because the: a. Stool indicates anal patency. b. Dark green color indicates occult blood in the stool. c. Meconium stool can be reflective of distress in the newborn. d. Newborn should have passed the first stool within 12 hours after birth.

*A* The first stool passed by the newborn is dark green meconium and occurs within 24 to 48 hours of birth, indicating anal patency. The other responses are not correct.

A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for a problem that he refused to let his mother see. The nurse examines him, and finds that he has scrotal swelling on the left side. He had the mumps the previous week, and the nurse suspects that he has orchitis. Which of the following assessment findings support this diagnosis? *Select all that apply.* a. Swollen testis b. Mass that transilluminates c. Mass that does not transilluminate d. Scrotum that is nontender upon palpation e. Scrotum that is tender upon palpation f. Scrotal skin that is reddened

*A, C, E, F* With orchitis, the testis is swollen, with a feeling of weight, and is tender or painful. The mass does not transilluminate, and the scrotal skin is reddened. Transillumination of a mass occurs with a hydrocele, not orchitis

During a health history, a patient tells the nurse that he has trouble in starting his urine stream. This problem is known as: a. Urgency. b. Dribbling. c. Frequency. d. Hesitancy.

*D* Hesitancy is trouble in starting the urine stream. Urgency is the feeling that one cannot wait to urinate. Dribbling is the last of the urine before or after the main act of urination. Frequency is urinating more often than usual.

A 55-year-old man is in the clinic for a yearly checkup. He is worried because his father died of prostate cancer. The nurse knows which tests should be performed at this time? *Select all that apply.* a. Blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) b. Urinalysis c. Transrectal ultrasound d. Digital rectal examination (DRE) e. Prostate biopsy

*A, D* Prostate cancer is typically detected by testing the blood for PSA or by a DRE. It is recommended that both PSA and DRE be offered to men annually, beginning at age 50 years. If the PSA is elevated, then further laboratory work or a transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) and biopsy may be recommended.

The nurse is preparing to examine a patient who has been complaining of *right lower quadrant pain*. Which technique is correct during the assessment? The nurse should: a. Examine the tender area first. b. Examine the tender area last. c. Avoid palpating the tender area. d. Palpate the tender area first, and then auscultate for bowel sounds.

*B* The nurse should *save the examination of any identified tender areas until last*. This method avoids pain and the resulting muscle rigidity that would obscure deep palpation later in the examination. Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because percussion and palpation can increase peristalsis, which would give a false interpretation of bowel sounds.

A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these? a. Varicocele b. Epididymitis c. Spermatocele d. Testicular torsion

*B* *Epididymitis* presents as severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotum that is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination, the scrotum is enlarged, reddened, and exquisitely tender. The epididymis is enlarged and indurated and may be hard to distinguish from the testis. The overlying scrotal skin may be thick and edematous. (See Table 24-6 for more information and for the descriptions of the other terms.)

An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The nurse knows that this condition could be related to: a. Increased gastric acid secretion. b. Decreased gastric acid secretion. c. Delayed gastrointestinal emptying time. d. Increased gastrointestinal emptying time.

*B* *Gastric acid secretion decreases with aging* and may cause pernicious anemia (because it interferes with vitamin B12 absorption), iron-deficiency anemia, and malabsorption of calcium.

The nurse is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having "acid indigestion" all the time. The nurse knows that *esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause:* a. Diarrhea. b. Pyrosis. c. Dysphagia. d. Constipation.

*B* *Pyrosis*, or heartburn, is caused by esophageal reflux during pregnancy. The other options are not correct

When assessing the scrotum of a male patient, the nurse notices the presence of multiple firm, nontender, yellow 1-cm nodules. The nurse knows that these nodules are most likely: a. From urethritis. b. Sebaceous cysts. c. Subcutaneous plaques. d. From an inflammation of the epididymis.

*B* *Sebaceous cysts* are commonly found on the scrotum. These yellowish 1-cm nodules are firm, nontender, and often multiple. The other options are not correct.

During an abdominal assessment, the nurse would consider *which of these findings as normal?* a. Presence of a bruit in the femoral area b. Tympanic percussion note in the umbilical region c. Palpable spleen between the ninth and eleventh ribs in the left midaxillary line d. Dull percussion note in the left upper quadrant at the midclavicular line

*B* *Tympany* should predominate in all four quadrants of the abdomen because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the person is supine. Vascular bruits are not usually present. Normally, the spleen is not palpable. Dullness would not be found in the area of lung resonance (left upper quadrant at the midclavicular line).

During an abdominal assessment, the nurse is unable to hear bowel sounds in a patient's abdomen. *Before reporting this finding as silent bowel sounds*, the nurse should listen for at least: a. 1 minute. b. 5 minutes. c. 10 minutes. d. 2 minutes in each quadrant.

*B* Absent bowel sounds are rare. The nurse must listen for *5 minutes* before deciding that bowel sounds are completely absent.

When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices *deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles.* On the basis of this information, the nurse would: a. Squeeze the glans to check for the presence of discharge. b. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination. c. Assess the testicles for the presence of masses or painless lumps. d. Obtain a more detailed history, focusing on any scrotal abnormalities the patient has noticed.

*B* After adolescence, the scrotal skin is deeply pigmented and has large sebaceous follicles and appears corrugated.

The nurse is watching a new graduate nurse perform auscultation of a patient's abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a *correct understanding of the reason auscultation precedes percussion and palpation of the abdomen?* a. "We need to determine the areas of tenderness before using percussion and palpation." b. "Auscultation prevents distortion of bowel sounds that might occur after percussion and palpation." c. "Auscultation allows the patient more time to relax and therefore be more comfortable with the physical examination." d. "Auscultation prevents distortion of vascular sounds, such as bruits and hums, that might occur after percussion and palpation."

*B* Auscultation is performed first (after inspection) because percussion and palpation can increase peristalsis, which would give a false interpretation of bowel sounds.

The nurse is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is *true of bowel sounds?* Bowel sounds: a. Are usually loud, high-pitched, rushing, and tinkling sounds. b. Are usually high-pitched, gurgling, and irregular sounds. c. Sound like two pieces of leather being rubbed together. d. Originate from the movement of air and fluid through the large intestine.

*B* Bowel sounds are *high-pitched, gurgling, and cascading sounds* that irregularly occur from 5 to 30 times per minute. They originate from the movement of air and fluid through the small intestine.

A patient has hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse knows that *a potential cause of hypoactive bowel sounds is:* a. Diarrhea. b. Peritonitis. c. Laxative use. d. Gastroenteritis.

*B* Diminished or absent bowel sounds signal decreased motility from inflammation as exhibited with peritonitis, with paralytic ileus after abdominal surgery, or with late bowel obstruction.

After completing an assessment of a 60-year-old man with a family history of colon cancer, the nurse discusses with him early detection measures for colon cancer. The nurse should mention the need for a(n): a. Annual proctoscopy. b. Colonoscopy every 10 years. c. Fecal test for blood every 6 months. d. DREs every 2 years.

*B* Early detection measures for colon cancer include a DRE performed annually after age 50 years, an annual fecal occult blood test after age 50 years, a sigmoidoscopic examination every 5 years or a colonoscopy every 10 years after age 50 years, and a PSA blood test annually for men over 50 years old, except beginning at age 45 years for black men (American Cancer Society, 2006).

A 30-year-old woman is visiting the clinic because of "pain in my bottom when I have a bowel movement." The nurse should assess for which problem? a. Pinworms b. Hemorrhoids c. Colon cancer d. Fecal incontinence

*B* Having painful bowel movements, known as *dyschezia*, may be attributable to a local condition (hemorrhoid or fissure) or constipation. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. *Which statement is most appropriate?* a. "A good time to examine your testicles is just before you take a shower." b. "If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider." c. "The testicle is egg shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a lumpy consistency." d. "Perform a testicular examination at least once a week to detect the early stages of testicular cancer."

*B* If the patient notices a firm painless lump, a hard area, or an overall enlarged testicle, then he should call his health care provider for further evaluation. The testicle normally feels rubbery with a smooth surface. A good time to examine the testicles is during the shower or bath, when one's hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Testicular self-examination should be performed once a month

The structure that secretes a thin, milky alkaline fluid to enhance the viability of sperm is the: a. Cowper gland. b. Prostate gland. c. Median sulcus. d. Bulbourethral gland.

*B* In men, the prostate gland secretes a thin milky alkaline fluid that enhances sperm viability. The Cowper glands (also known as bulbourethral glands) secrete a clear, viscid mucus. The median sulcus is a groove that divides the lobes of the prostate gland and does not secrete fluid.

The nurse is assessing the abdomen of an older adult. Which statement regarding the older adult and abdominal assessment is *true*? a. Abdominal tone is increased. b. Abdominal musculature is thinner. c. Abdominal rigidity with an acute abdominal condition is more common. d. The older adult with an acute abdominal condition complains more about pain than the younger person.

*B* In the older adult, the *abdominal musculature is thinner and has less tone than that of the younger adult*, and abdominal rigidity with an acute abdominal condition is less common in the aging person. The older adult with an acute abdominal condition often complains less about pain than the younger person.

When performing a scrotal assessment, the nurse notices that the scrotal contents show a red glow with transillumination. On the basis of this finding the nurse would: a. Assess the patient for the presence of a hernia. b. Suspect the presence of serous fluid in the scrotum. c. Consider this finding normal, and proceed with the examination. d. Refer the patient for evaluation of a mass in the scrotum.

*B* Normal scrotal contents do not allow light to pass through the scrotum. However, serous fluid does transilluminate and shows as a red glow. Neither a mass nor a hernia would transilluminate

A patient is suspected of having inflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis. The nurse should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition? a. Obturator test b. Test for Murphy sign c. Assess for rebound tenderness d. Iliopsoas muscle test

*B* Normally, palpating the liver causes no pain. In a person with inflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis, pain occurs as the descending liver pushes the inflamed gallbladder onto the examining hand during inspiration *(Murphy test).* The person feels sharp pain and abruptly stops midway during inspiration.

The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying: a. "Puberty usually begins around 15 years of age." b. "The first sign of puberty is an enlargement of the testes." c. "The penis size does not increase until about 16 years of age." d. "The development of pubic hair precedes testicular or penis enlargement."

*B* Puberty begins sometime between age 9 for African Americans and age 10 for Caucasians and Hispanics. The first sign is an enlargement of the testes. Pubic hair appears next, and then penis size increases

The nurse is performing an examination of the anus and rectum. Which of these statements is *correct* and important to remember during this examination? a. The rectum is approximately 8 cm long. b. The anorectal junction cannot be palpated. c. Above the anal canal, the rectum turns anteriorly. d. No sensory nerves are in the anal canal or rectum.

*B* The anal columns are folds of mucosa that extend vertically down from the rectum and end in the anorectal junction. This junction is not palpable but is visible on proctoscopy. The rectum is 12 cm long; just above the anal canal, the rectum dilates and turns posteriorly

The external male genital structures include the: a. Testis. b. Scrotum. c. Epididymis. d. Vas deferens.

*B* The external male genital structures include the penis and scrotum. The testis, epididymis, and vas deferens are internal structures.

Which statement concerning the sphincters is correct? a. The internal sphincter is under voluntary control. b. The external sphincter is under voluntary control. c. Both sphincters remain slightly relaxed at all times. d. The internal sphincter surrounds the external sphincter.

*B* The external sphincter surrounds the internal sphincter but also has a small section overriding the tip of the internal sphincter at the opening. The external sphincter is under voluntary control. Except for the passing of feces and gas, the sphincters keep the anal canal tightly closed.

A 40-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has a hernia. He asks the nurse to *explain what a hernia is*. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "No need to worry. Most men your age develop hernias." b. "A hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles." c. "A hernia is the result of prenatal growth abnormalities that are just now causing problems." d. "I'll have to have your physician explain this to you."

*B* The nurse should explain that a hernia is a *protrusion of the abdominal viscera* through an abnormal opening in the muscle wall

During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be: a. Change in scrotal color. b. Decrease in the size of the penis. c. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum. d. Increase in the number of rugae over the scrotal sac.

*B* When assessing the genitals of an older man, the nurse may notice thinner, graying pubic hair and a decrease in the size of the penis. The size of the testes may be decreased, they may feel less firm, and the scrotal sac is pendulous with less rugae. No change in scrotal color is observed.

The nurse knows that during an abdominal assessment, *deep palpation* is used to determine: a. Bowel motility. b. Enlarged organs. c. Superficial tenderness. d. Overall impression of skin surface and superficial musculature.

*B* With deep palpation, the nurse should notice the location, size, consistency, and mobility of any palpable organs and the presence of any abnormal enlargement, tenderness, or masses.

The nurse suspects that a patient has appendicitis. Which of these procedures are appropriate for use when assessing for appendicitis or a perforated appendix? *Select all that apply.* a. Test for the Murphy sign b. Test for the Blumberg sign c. Test for shifting dullness d. Perform the iliopsoas muscle test e. Test for fluid wave

*B, D* Testing for the *Blumberg sign* (rebound tenderness) and performing the *iliopsoas muscle test* should be used when assessing for appendicitis. The Murphy sign is used when assessing for an inflamed gallbladder or cholecystitis. Testing for a fluid wave and shifting dullness is performed when assessing for ascites.

During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has *clusters of small vesicles on the glans, surrounded by erythema*. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are: a. Peyronie disease. b. Genital warts. c. Genital herpes. d. Syphilitic cancer.

*C* *Genital herpes, or herpes simplex virus 2* (HSV-2), infections are indicated with clusters of small vesicles with surrounding erythema, which are often painful and erupt on the glans or foreskin. (See Table 24-4 for the descriptions of the other options.)

The nurse is reviewing the assessment of an aortic aneurysm. Which of these statements is *true* regarding an aortic aneurysm? a. A bruit is absent. b. Femoral pulses are increased. c. A pulsating mass is usually present. d. Most are located below the umbilicus.

*C* *Most aortic aneurysms are palpable during routine examination and feel like a pulsating mass.* A bruit will be audible, and femoral pulses are present but decreased. Such aneurysms are located in the upper abdomen just to the left of midline.

The nurse is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. *Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:* a. Flatness, resonance, and dullness. b. Resonance, dullness, and tympany. c. Tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness. d. Resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.

*C* *Percussion* notes normally heard during the abdominal assessment may include *tympany*, which should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the person is supine;* hyperresonance*, which may be present with gaseous distention; and *dullness*, which may be found over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass.

A 45-year-old mother of two children is seen at the clinic for complaints of *"losing my urine when I sneeze."* The nurse documents that she is experiencing: a. Urinary frequency. b. Enuresis. c. Stress incontinence. d. Urge incontinence.

*C* *Stress incontinence is involuntary urine loss with physical strain, sneezing, or coughing that occurs as a result to weakness of the pelvic floor.* Urinary frequency is urinating more times than usual (more than five to six times per day). Enuresis is involuntary passage of urine at night after age 5 to 6 years (bed wetting). Urge incontinence is involuntary urine loss from overactive detrusor muscle in the bladder. It contracts, causing an urgent need to void.

A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having "stomach pains for 2 weeks" and describes his stools as being *"soft and black"* for approximately the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. The nurse is aware that these symptoms are mostly indicative of: a. Excessive fat caused by malabsorption. b. Increased iron intake, resulting from a change in diet. c. Occult blood, resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding. d. Absent bile pigment from liver problems.

*C* Black stools may be tarry as a result of occult blood (melena) from gastrointestinal bleeding or nontarry from ingestion of iron medications (not diet). Excessive fat causes the stool to become frothy. The absence of bile pigment causes clay-colored stools.

The nurse notices that a patient has had a *black, tarry stool* and recalls that a possible cause would be: a. Gallbladder disease. b. Overuse of laxatives. c. Gastrointestinal bleeding. d. Localized bleeding around the anus.

*C* Black stools may be tarry as a result of occult blood (melena) from gastrointestinal bleeding. Red blood in stools occurs with localized bleeding around the anus

The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia. a. Scrotal b. Femoral c. Direct inguinal d. Indirect inguinal

*C* Direct inguinal hernias occur most often in men over the age of 40 years. It is an acquired weakness brought on by heavy lifting, obesity, chronic cough, or ascites. The direct inguinal hernia is usually a painless, round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. (See Table 24-6 for a description of scrotal hernia. See Table 24-7 for the descriptions of femoral hernias and indirect inguinal hernias.)

An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the: a. Testis. b. Scrotum. c. Prostate. d. Vas deferens.

*C* Glandular structures accessory to the male genital organs are the prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands.

A 2-month-old uncircumcised infant has been brought to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. How would the nurse proceed with the genital examination? a. Eliciting the cremasteric reflex is recommended. b. The glans is assessed for redness or lesions. c. Retracting the foreskin should be avoided until the infant is 3 months old. d. Any dirt or smegma that has collected under the foreskin should be noted.

*C* If uncircumcised, then the foreskin is normally tight during the first 3 months and should not be retracted because of the risk of tearing the membrane attaching the foreskin to the shaft. The other options are not correct.

The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer? a. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. b. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration. c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. d. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.

*C* Men with undescended testicles (cryptorchidism) are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. The overall incidence of testicular cancer is rare. Although testicular cancer has no early symptoms, when detected early and treated before metastasizing, the cure rate is almost 100%.

A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with *physiologic cryptorchidism.* Considering this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe: a. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation. b. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis. c. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down. d. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legged.

*C* Migratory testes (physiologic cryptorchidism) are common because of the strength of the cremasteric reflex and the small mass of the prepubertal testes. The affected side has a normally developed scrotum and the testis can be milked down. The other responses are not correct.

While examining a patient, the nurse observes *abdominal pulsations between the xiphoid process and umbilicus*. The nurse would suspect that these are: a. Pulsations of the renal arteries. b. Pulsations of the inferior vena cava. c. Normal abdominal aortic pulsations. d. Increased peristalsis from a bowel obstruction.

*C* Normally, the pulsations from the aorta are observed beneath the skin in the epigastric area, particularly in thin persons who have good muscle wall relaxation

During a health history, the patient tells the nurse, *"I have pain all the time in my stomach. It's worse 2 hours after I eat, but it gets better if I eat again!"* Based on these symptoms, the nurse suspects that the patient has which condition? a. Appendicitis b. Gastric ulcer c. Duodenal ulcer d. Cholecystitis

*C* Pain associated with *duodenal ulcers* occurs 2 to 3 hours after a meal; it may relieved by more food. Chronic pain associated with gastric ulcers usually occurs on an empty stomach. Severe, acute pain would occur with appendicitis and cholecystitis.

A patient is complaining of a* sharp pain along the costovertebral angles*. The nurse is aware that this symptom is most often indicative of: a. Ovary infection. b. Liver enlargement. c. Kidney inflammation. d. Spleen enlargement.

*C* Sharp pain along the costovertebral angles occurs with *inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area*. The other options are not correct

When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, *which finding is considered normal?* a. Nontender subcutaneous plaques b. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular c. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression d. Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass, less than 1 cm under the surface of the testes

*C* Testes normally feel oval, firm and rubbery, smooth, and bilaterally equal and are freely movable and slightly tender to moderate pressure. The scrotal skin should not be dry, scaly, or nodular or contain subcutaneous plaques. Any mass would be an abnormal finding.

During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the *right lower quadrant*. The nurse interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures? a. Spleen b. Sigmoid c. Appendix d. Gallbladder

*C* The *appendix* is located in the right lower quadrant. When the iliopsoas muscle is inflamed, which occurs with an inflamed or perforated appendix, pain is felt in the right lower quadrant.

The nurse is examining only the rectal area of a woman and should place the woman in what position? a. Lithotomy b. Prone c. Left lateral decubitus d. Bending over the table while standing

*C* The nurse should place the female patient in the lithotomy position if the genitalia are being examined as well. The left lateral decubitus position is used for the rectal area alone.

A 46-year-old man requires an assessment of his sigmoid colon. Which instrument or technique is most appropriate for this examination? a. Proctoscope b. Ultrasound c. Colonoscope d. Rectal examination with an examining finger

*C* The sigmoid colon is 40 cm long, and the nurse knows that it is accessible to examination only with the colonoscope. The other responses are not appropriate for an examination of the entire sigmoid colon.

During an assessment, the nurse notices that a *patient's umbilicus is enlarged and everted*. It is positioned midline with no change in skin color. The nurse recognizes that the patient may have which condition? a. Intra-abdominal bleeding b. Constipation c. Umbilical hernia d. Abdominal tumor

*C* The umbilicus is normally midline and inverted with no signs of discoloration. With an *umbilical hernia*, the mass is enlarged and everted. The other responses are incorrect

During an examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has a red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge on his penis. On palpation, the nurse finds a nontender base that feels like a small button between the thumb and fingers. At this point the nurse suspects that this patient has: a. Genital warts. b. Herpes infection. c. Syphilitic chancre. d. Carcinoma lesion.

*C* This lesion indicates *syphilitic chancre*, which begins within 2 to 4 weeks of infection. (See Table 24-4 for the descriptions of the other options.)

During an assessment of the newborn, the nurse expects to see which finding when the anal area is slightly stroked? a. Jerking of the legs b. Flexion of the knees c. Quick contraction of the sphincter d. Relaxation of the external sphincter

*C* To assess sphincter tone, the nurse should check the anal reflex by gently stroking the anal area and noticing a quick contraction of the sphincter. The other responses are not correct.

A patient is having *difficulty swallowing medications and food*. The nurse would document that this patient has: a. Aphasia. b. Dysphasia. c. Dysphagia. d. Anorexia.

*C-* *Dysphagia* is a condition that occurs with disorders of the throat or esophagus and results in difficulty swallowing. Aphasia and dysphasia are speech disorders. Anorexia is a loss of appetite.

A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an "inguinal hernia." He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. The nurse should: a. Tell him not to worry and that most men his age develop hernias. b. Explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities. c. Refer him to his physician for additional consultation because the physician made the initial diagnosis. d. Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.

*D* A *hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the musculature.* The other options are not correct responses to the patient's question.

A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a physical examination. During the abdominal assessment, the nurse percusses the abdomen and notices an *area of dullness above the right costal margin of approximately 11 cm*. The nurse should: a. Document the presence of hepatomegaly. b. Ask additional health history questions regarding his alcohol intake. c. Describe this dullness as indicative of an enlarged liver, and refer him to a physician. d. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination.

*D* A *liver span of 10.5 cm is the mean for males and 7 cm for females*. Men and taller individuals are at the upper end of this range. Women and shorter individuals are at the lower end of this range. A liver span of 11 cm is within normal limits for this individual.

A patient's *abdomen is bulging and stretched in appearance.* The nurse should describe this finding as: a. Obese. b. Herniated. c. Scaphoid. d. Protuberant.

*D* A *protuberant abdomen is rounded, bulging, and stretched* (see Figure 21-7). A scaphoid abdomen caves inward.

Which of these statements is *true* regarding the penis? a. The urethral meatus is located on the ventral side of the penis. b. The prepuce is the fold of foreskin covering the shaft of the penis. c. The penis is made up of two cylindrical columns of erectile tissue. d. The corpus spongiosum expands into a cone of erectile tissue called the glans.

*D* At the distal end of the shaft, the corpus spongiosum expands into a cone of erectile tissue, the glans. The penis is made up of three cylindrical columns of erectile tissue. The skin that covers the glans of the penis is the prepuce. The urethral meatus forms at the tip of the glans.

During an abdominal assessment, the nurse tests for a fluid wave. A *positive fluid wave* test occurs with: a. Splenomegaly. b. Distended bladder. c. Constipation. d. Ascites.

*D* If ascites (fluid in the abdomen) is present, then the examiner will feel a fluid wave when assessing the abdomen. A fluid wave is not present with splenomegaly, a distended bladder, or constipation.

Which statement concerning the testes is *true*? a. The lymphatic vessels of the testes drain into the abdominal lymph nodes. b. The vas deferens is located along the inferior portion of each testis. c. The right testis is lower than the left because the right spermatic cord is longer. d. The cremaster muscle contracts in response to cold and draws the testicles closer to the body.

*D* When it is cold, the cremaster muscle contracts, which raises the scrotal sac and brings the testes closer to the body to absorb heat necessary for sperm viability. The lymphatic vessels of the testes drain into the inguinal lymph nodes. The vas deferens is located along the upper portion of each testis. The left testis is lower than the right because the left spermatic cord is longer.

When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is *correct*? a. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum b. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament c. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg when palpating for a hernia on the right side

*D* When palpating for the presence of a hernia on the right side, the male patient is asked to shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg. Auscultating for a bruit over the scrotum is not appropriate. When palpating for lymph nodes, the horizontal chain is palpated. The inguinal canal should be palpated whether a bulge is present or not.

The physician comments that a patient has abdominal *borborygmi.* The nurse knows that this term refers to: a. Loud continual hum. b. Peritoneal friction rub. c. Hypoactive bowel sounds. d. Hyperactive bowel sounds.

*D* *Borborygmi* is the term used for hyperperistalsis when the person actually feels his or her stomach growling.

The nurse is aware that *one change that may occur in the gastrointestinal system of an aging adult* is: a. Increased salivation. b. Increased liver size. c. Increased esophageal emptying. d. Decreased gastric acid secretion.

*D* *Gastric acid secretion decreases with aging.* As one ages, salivation decreases, esophageal emptying is delayed, and liver size decreases.

A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of "dull pain and pulling" in the scrotal area. On examination, the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This description is consistent with: a. Epididymitis. b. Spermatocele. c. Testicular torsion. d. Varicocele.

*D* A *varicocele* consists of dilated, tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord caused by incompetent valves within the vein. Symptoms include dull pain or a constant pulling or dragging feeling, or the individual may be asymptomatic. When palpating the mass, the examiner will feel a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis that collapses when the individual is supine and refills when the individual is upright. (See Table 24-6 for more information and for the descriptions of the other options.)

The nurse knows that a common assessment finding in a boy younger than 2 years old is: a. Inflamed and tender spermatic cord. b. Presence of a hernia in the scrotum. c. Penis that looks large in relation to the scrotum. d. Presence of a hydrocele, or fluid in the scrotum.

*D* A common scrotal finding in boys younger than 2 years of age is a hydrocele, or fluid in the scrotum. The other options are not correct.

While performing a rectal examination, the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass. What should the nurse do next? a. Continue with the examination, and document the finding in the chart. b. Instruct the patient to return for a repeat assessment in 1 month. c. Tell the patient that a mass was felt, but it is nothing to worry about. d. Report the finding, and refer the patient to a specialist for further examination.

*D* A firm or hard mass with an irregular shape or rolled edges may signify carcinoma. Any mass that is discovered should be promptly reported for further examination. The other responses are not correct.

A 22-year-old man comes to the clinic for an examination after falling off his motorcycle and landing on his left side on the handle bars. The nurse suspects that he may have injured his spleen. *Which of these statements is true regarding assessment of the spleen in this situation?* a. The spleen can be enlarged as a result of trauma. b. The spleen is normally felt on routine palpation. c. If an enlarged spleen is noted, then the nurse should thoroughly palpate to determine its size. d. An enlarged spleen should not be palpated because it can easily rupture.

*D* If an enlarged spleen is felt, then the nurse should refer the person and should not continue to palpate it. *An enlarged spleen is friable and can easily rupture with overpalpation.*

The nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient and notices urethral drainage. When collecting urethral discharge for microscopic examination and culture, the nurse should: a. Ask the patient to urinate into a sterile cup. b. Ask the patient to obtain a specimen of semen. c. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the urethra. d. Compress the glans between the examiner's thumb and forefinger, and collect any discharge.

*D* If urethral discharge is noticed, then the examiner should collect a smear for microscopic examination and culture by compressing the glans anteroposteriorly between the thumb and forefinger. The other options are not correct actions

The nurse is assessing a patient for possible *peptic ulcer disease*. Which condition or history often causes this problem? a. Hypertension b. Streptococcal infections c. Recurrent constipation with frequent laxative use d. Frequent use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

*D* Peptic ulcer disease occurs with the *frequent use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, alcohol use, smoking, and Helicobacter pylori infection.*

The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug's potential side effects is *prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation*, which is known as: a. Orchitis. b. Stricture. c. Phimosis. d. Priapism.

*D* Priapism is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual desire. Orchitis is inflammation of the testes. Stricture is a narrowing of the opening of the urethral meatus. Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin.

Which statement concerning the anal canal is *true*? The anal canal: a. Is approximately 2 cm long in the adult. b. Slants backward toward the sacrum. c. Contains hair and sebaceous glands. d. Is the outlet for the gastrointestinal tract.

*D* The anal canal is the outlet for the gastrointestinal tract and is approximately 3.8 cm long in the adult. It is lined with a modified skin that does not contain hair or sebaceous glands, and it slants forward toward the umbilicus.

While performing an assessment of the perianal area of a patient, the nurse notices that the pigmentation of anus is darker than the surrounding skin, the anal opening is closed, and a skin sac that is shiny and blue is noted. The patient mentioned that he has had pain with bowel movements and has occasionally noted some spots of blood. What would this assessment and history *most likely* indicate? a. Anal fistula b. Pilonidal cyst c. Rectal prolapse d. Thrombosed hemorrhoid

*D* The anus normally looks moist and hairless, with coarse folded skin that is more pigmented than the perianal skin, and the anal opening is tightly closed. The shiny blue skin sac indicates a *thrombosed hemorrhoid.*

The nurse is examining the glans and knows which finding is *normal* for this area? a. The meatus may have a slight discharge when the glans is compressed. b. Hair is without pest inhabitants. c. The skin is wrinkled and without lesions. d. Smegma may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.

*D* The glans looks smooth and without lesions and does not have hair. The meatus should not have any discharge when the glans is compressed. Some cheesy smegma may have collected under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.

During the assessment of an 18-month-old infant, the mother expresses concern to the nurse about the infant's inability to toilet train. What would be the nurse's best response? a. "Some children are just more difficult to train, so I wouldn't worry about it yet." b. "Have you considered reading any of the books on toilet training? They can be very helpful." c. "This could mean that there is a problem in your baby's development. We'll watch her closely for the next few months." d. "The nerves that will allow your baby to have control over the passing of stools are not developed until at least 18 to 24 months of age."

*D* The infant passes stools by reflex. Voluntary control of the external anal sphincter cannot occur until the nerves supplying the area have become fully myelinated, usually around 1 to 2 years of age. Toilet training usually starts after the age of 2 years.

When the nurse is conducting sexual history from a male adolescent, which statement would be most appropriate to use at the beginning of the interview? a. "Do you use condoms?" b. "You don't masturbate, do you?" c. "Have you had sex in the last 6 months?" d. "Often adolescents your age have questions about sexual activity."

*D* The interview should begin with a permission statement, which conveys that it is normal and acceptable to think or feel a certain way. Sounding judgmental should be avoided.

When performing a genital assessment on a middle-aged man, the nurse notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of* cauliflower-like* patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristic of: a. Carcinoma. b. Syphilitic chancres. c. Genital herpes. d. Genital warts.

*D* The lesions of genital warts are soft, pointed, moist, fleshy, painless papules that may be single or multiple in a cauliflower-like patch. They occur on the shaft of the penis, behind the corona, or around the anus, where they may grow into large grapelike clusters. (See Table 24-4 for more information and for the descriptions of the other options.)

A 13-year-old girl is visiting the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse should remember to include which of these tests in the examination? a. Testing for occult blood b. Valsalva maneuver c. Internal palpation of the anus d. Inspection of the perianal area

*D* The perianal region of the school-aged child and adolescent should be inspected during the examination of the genitalia. Internal palpation is not routinely performed at this age. Testing for occult blood and performing the Valsalva maneuver are also not necessary.

A 60-year-old man has just been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He has a friend who just died from cancer of the prostate. He is concerned this will happen to him. How should the nurse respond? a. "The swelling in your prostate is only temporary and will go away." b. "We will treat you with chemotherapy so we can control the cancer." c. "It would be very unusual for a man your age to have cancer of the prostate." d. "The enlargement of your prostate is caused by hormonal changes, and not cancer."

*D* The prostate gland commonly starts to enlarge during the middle adult years. BPH is present in 1 in 10 men at the age of 40 years and increases with age. It is believed that the hypertrophy is caused by hormonal imbalance that leads to the proliferation of benign adenomas. The other responses are not appropriate.

When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The *nurse's most appropriate* action or response is to: a. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him. b. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened. c. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later time. d. Reassure the patient that this is a normal response and continue with the examination.

*D* When the male patient has an erection, the nurse should reassure the patient that this is a normal physiologic response to touch and proceed with the rest of the examination. The other responses are not correct and may be perceived as judgmental.

When performing a genitourinary assessment on a 16-year-old male adolescent, the nurse notices a swelling in the scrotum that increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure and decreases when he is lying down. The patient complains of pain when straining. The nurse knows that this description is most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia. a. Femoral b. Incisional c. Direct inguinal d. Indirect inguinal

*D* With indirect inguinal hernias, pain occurs with straining and a soft swelling increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure, which may decrease when the patient lies down. These findings do not describe the other hernias. (See Table 24-7 for the descriptions of femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias.)

During reporting, the student nurse hears that a patient has *hepatomegaly* and recognizes that this term refers to: a. Enlarged liver. b. Enlarged spleen. c. Distended bowel. d. Excessive diarrhea.

A *A* The term *hepatomegaly* refers to an enlarged liver. The term splenomegaly refers to an enlarged spleen. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is percussing the seventh right intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver. *Which sound should the nurse expect to hear?* a. Dullness b. Tympany c. Resonance d. Hyperresonance

A *The liver* is located in the right upper quadrant and would elicit a *dull percussion* note.

Which structure is located in the *left lower quadrant* of the abdomen? a. Liver b. Duodenum c. Gallbladder d. Sigmoid colon

D The *sigmoid colon* is located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen