Kins Final

When a person is bearing weight in a standing position, the cartilage on the femoral condyle is subjected to what type of forces? A. compression and shear B. distraction and bending C. distraction and shear D. torsion and bending

A

Which ankle muscle is associated with the heightening or support of the medial longitudinal arch? A. tibialis posterior B. tibialis anterior C. gastrocnemius D. extensor digitorum longus

A

Which of the following is not a reverse action motion? A. bench press B. push up C. pull up D. hand standing push up

A

Which of the following muscles works to dynamically support the distal radioulnar joint? A. pronator quadratus B. pronator teres C. flexor carpi radialis longus D. palmaris longus

A

Which of the following statements is true concerning the biomechanics properties of ligaments if the rate of application of the force is increased? A. the ligament has increased stiffness B. the ligament will rupture at a longer length C. the ligament's modulus of elasticity will decrease D. the stiffness of the ligament is unchanged

A

Which term best describes a joint, that has a greater ROM than normal? A. hypermobile B. hypomobile C. contracture

A

a person hikes/elevates the right pelvis. What motion occurs at the left hip? A. abduction B. adduction C. flexion D. extension

A

if the shaft of the femur in the frontal plane is greater than 120 it is considered A. coxa valga B. femoral anterversion C. retroversion D. coxa vara

A

left pelvic rotation in standing correlates to which hip motion? A. R hip ER B. R hip IR C. L hip flexion D. L hip extension

A

open chain radiohumeral joint elbow flexion A. anterior roll, anterior glide B. posterior roll, posterior glide C. anterior roll, posterior glide D. posterior roll, anterior glide

A

what motion occurs at the patella femoral joint during knee extension? A. shifts laterally at the end B. shifts medially at the end C. moves inferiorly D. mobility decreases

A

when a person is bearing weight in a standing position, the cartilage on the femoral condyle is subjected to what type of forces? A. compression and shear B. tension and bending C. tension and shear D. torsion and bending

A

when a person is in prone and extends the hip, it is associated with: A. anterior pelvic tilting and trunk extension B. posterior pelvic tilting and trunk flexion C. anterior pelvic tilting and trunk flexion D. posterior pelvic tilt and trunk extension

A

which ankle muscle is associated with the heightening or support of the medial longitudinal arch? A. tibialis posterior B. tibialis anterior C. Gastrocnemius D. extensor digitorum longus

A

which of the following structural abnormalities may contribute to an increased Q-angle? A. femoral anteversion B. femoral retroversion C. medial tibial torsion D. tight adductor muscles

A

widening of femoral neck is named A. CAM femoroacetabular impingement B. PINCER femoracetabular impingement C.

A

A condyloid joint is an example of what kind of joint? A. uniaxial B. biaxial C. triaxial D. gliding

B

A patient presents with a full rotator cuff tear. What compensatory motion would most likely occur when the patient attempt to abduct the arm? A. scapular downward rotation B. scapular elevation C. scapular retraction D. scapular winging

B

A person is in a sitting position, and is attempting to hold the knee in a position of 45 degrees of flexion. The force acting on the lower leg is 100 N and has a moment arm of 15 cm. the knee extensors are creating a force of 100 N at a moment arm of 4 cm. What is going to happen? A. the knee is going to extend B. the knee is going to flex C. the knee is going to remain at 45 degrees D. there is not enough information to be able to determine what is going to happen

B

At the gleno-humeral joint, what are the expected arthrokinematics for horizontal adduction? (assume the humerus is the moving bone) A. anterior roll and anterior glide B. anterior roll and posterior glide C. posterior roll and anterior glide D. posterior roll and posterior glide

B

Concerning muscle contractions, which statement is true? A. during a "reverse action" muscle contraction the distal segment moves on the proximal segment B. in a concentric contraction, the torque produced by the muscle is greater than the torque produced by the external force C. muscle fibers always shorten in the same direction as the line of pull of the muscle-tendon unit D. the muscle can generate the most force at the shortest position because of being in an optimal length-tension relationship

B

Most functional activities take place in what elbow ROM? A. 0-100 degrees of flexion B. 30-130 degrees of flexion C. 45-140 degrees of flexion D. 60-120 degrees of flexion

B

Open chain knee flexion A. anterior roll - anterior glide B. posterior roll - posterior glide C. anterior roll - posterior glide D. posterior roll - anterior glide

B

Weakness of which muscle most likely is a cause of scapular winging during shoulder abduction? A. serrates anterior B. upper trapezius C. serrates posterior D. rhomboids

B

What 2 factors increase compression at the PFJ? A. increase knee flexion and decrease quad force B. increase knee flexion and quad force C. increase knee extension and decrease quad force D. increase knee extension and increase hamstring force

B

What is the effect of the windlass effect? A. increased lateral arch B. rigid foot C. mobile foot D. decreased lateral arch

B

What is true regarding hyaline cartilage? A. it becomes stiffer with slow loading B. it produces less friction than fibrocartilage C. it sustains the loading with the solid matrix first, then fluid pressure D. only the superficial portion is fed by capillaries

B

What type of finger deformity is associated with a ruptured central tendon? A. clawing deformity (MCP extension, PIP and DIP flexion) B. boutonnière deformity (MCP extension, PIP flexion and DIP extension) C. Swan's neck deformity (MCP flexion, PIP extension, and DIP flexion)

B

What type of lever has the external moment less than one? A. first B. second C. Third D. fourth

B

When a person is in single leg stance on the left side, and rotates the right side of the pelvis in a backward direction (in transverse plane), what other motion is occurring? A. left hip medial rotation B. left hip lateral rotation C. right hip medial rotation D. right hip lateral rotation

B

When compared to grasping a large object, grasping a small object firmly with a cylindrical grip requires: A. more wrist extension B. less wrist extension C. more ulnar deviation D. more radial deviation

B

Where is the center of gravity in an asymmetrical object such as a baseball bat? A. the geometric center B. toward the heavy end C. toward the light end D. need more information

B

Which activity would improve cartilage nutrition the most? A. lying supine B. riding bicycle C. therapist passively moving the joint

B

Which of the following best describes the arthrokinematics of the tibiofemoral joint during the descent phase of a squat movement? A. the femur rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly on the tibia B. the femur rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly on the tibia C. the tibia rolls posteriorly and glides posteriorly on the femur D. the tibia rolls anteriorly and glides anteriorly on the femur

B

Which of the following best describes torque? A. the force the muscle generates B. distance from the axis of rotation perpendicular to the line of force times force C. force times the distance measured along the lever (segment) from the line of force to the axis of rotation D. distance a muscle can move

B

Which of the following is torque? A. T = F (acceleration) B. Force X ( a line from axis of rotation perp to line of force) C. Force X (distance of center of mass to axis of rotation)

B

Which of the following is true about the biomechanics properties of a tendon or ligament if the width of the tissue is doubled? A. it can resist less force before failure B. it can resists more force before failure C. it has greater elongation before failure D. it has less elongation before failure

B

Which of the following is true of a plyometric exercise? A. produces more forceful contraction via stimulation of golgi tendon organs B. produces more forceful contraction via stimulation of muscle spindles C. contains 3 phases in following order: eccentric, concentric, amoritization D. contains 3 phases in following order: concentric amortization, eccentric

B

Which of the following statements is true regarding muscle fiber types? A. Type IIa muscle fibers create more force than ALL other types of skeletal muscle fibers B. the Type IIx muscle fiber fatigue faster than other types of skeletal muscle fibers C. Type I muscle fibers are dependent on glycolytic metabolism D. Type I muscle fibers have a large diameter compared with the other types of skeletal muscle fibers

B

Your patient attempts to strengthen his triceps by positioning his shoulders at the end range of extension and then extending his elbow. He reports weakness as he approaches the end range of elbow extension movement. Which of the following may best explain his report? A. active insufficiency of biceps B. active insufficiency of triceps C. passive insufficiency of biceps D. passive insufficiency of triceps

B

a ruptured central tendon will cause which finger deformity? A. swan neck deformity B. boutonniere deformity C. clawing deformity D. tenodesis

B

supination of the foot is associated with all of the following except: A. heightening of the longitudinal arches of the foot B. internal rotation of the tibia C. the closed-packed position of the foot D. the push-off phase of gait

B

which axis does rotating the head/neck rotate around? A. X axis B. Y axis C. Z axis D. transverse

B

A man is sitting on a chair. He brings himself up into a standing position. His tibiofemoral joint moves from flexed position to full extension during the maneuver. which of the following best describes the arthrokinematic motion at the tibiofemoral joint during this maneuver? A. posterior glide of the tibia on the femur B. anterior glide of the femur on the tibia C. posterior glide of the femur on the tibia D. posterior roll of the tibia on the femur

C

A person plantar flexes the foot and recruits the gastrocnemius muscle and the tibialis posterior muscle. If the gastrocnemius is the prime mover, what is the role of the tibialis posterior? A. agonist B. antagonist C. synergist

C

As your patient abducts her shoulder from 90 to 120 the moment arm of the deltoid muscle decreases. If torque (moment) produced by the deltoid remains constant, the force of deltoid would __________ as the shoulder abducts. A. become 0 N B. decrease C. increase D. remain the same

C

For the stress-strain curve in the figure below identify the point of ultimate failure. A. A B. B C. C D. none of the above

C

In a closed kinematic chain, pronation is associated with: A. internal rotation of tibia B. shock absorption during stance phase of gait C. both a and b D. neither a or b

C

In the stress strain curve above point A can best be described as: A. the point indicating the end of the elastic modulus B. the point where permanent deformation of tissue begins to occur C. the point where the uncrimping of the tissue ends D. the point where the greatest amount of force is being applied

C

In what type of lever is the mechanical advantage always less than one? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

C

Open chain hip flexion A. anterior roll - anterior glide B. posterior roll - posterior glide C. anterior roll - posterior glide D. posterior roll - anterior glide

C

Open chain hip flexion A. anterior roll, anterior glide B. posterior roll, posterior glide C. anterior roll, posterior glide D. posterior roll, anterior glide

C

The fibrous capsule layer (stratum fibrosum) of a synovial joint: A. has poor innervation B. has rich vascularization C. helps provide feedback about joint position and movement D. is responsible for producing synovial fluid

C

What are the arthrokinematics motion at the 1st MTP joint during a closed chain heel raise? A. phalange dorsal roll and dorsal glide B. phalange plantar roll and plantar glide C. metatarsal dorsal roll and plantar glide D. metatarsal plantar roll and dorsal glide

C

What is normal resting position of scapula? A. 0 degrees of anterior tilt B. 30 degrees of anterior tilt C. 10 degrees of upward rotation D. 30 degrees of upward rotation

C

What is the benefit of the patella in relation to producing a knee extension moment (torque) by the quadriceps muscle at the knee? A. the patella increases the magnitude of the force produced by the quadriceps muscle B. the patella decreases the magnitude of the force produced by the quadriceps muscle C. the patella changes the angle of pull of the quadriceps muscle, which increases the moment arm of the quadriceps force D. the patella changes the angle of pull of the quadriceps muscle, which decreases the moment arm of the quadriceps force

C

Which of the following forces can result in a rotary motion? A. compression B. distraction C. none of the above

C

Which of the following joints has 2 degrees of freedom of osteokinematic motion? A. third proximal interphalangeal PIP joint B. the joint between 1st and 2nd cervical vertebrae C. 1st metacarpal phalangeal (MCP) D. Hip

C

Which of the following statements is true when solving for the force components of a torque applied to a segment? A. the rotary component is always greater than the translators (parallel) component B. the translatory (parallel) component is always greater than the rotary component C. the angle of the pull of the force onto the segment determines if the rotary or translatory (parallel component is greater) D. the translatory (parallel) component is always perpendicular to the segment

C

Which of the following would constitute a closed kinematic chain activity of the left shoulder complex? A. combing your hair with your left hand B. throwing a frisbee with your left hand C. using your left arm to push yourself out of a chair D. waving with your left hand

C

You are passively stretching the hip flexors of a patient in the position of prone hip extension and knee flexion. You later note that the patient demonstrates greater hip extension PROM when you allow the knee to be straight during the stretching procedure. The reason for the improved hip extension PROM may best be explained by: A. activation of passive insufficiency that occurred in the second position B. elimination of active insufficiency that occurred during the original position C. elimination of passive insufficiency that occurred during original position D. elimination of both active and passive insufficiency that occurred during thee original position

C

Your patient holds a weigh tin his right hand. What type of muscle contraction is occurring in the elbow flexor muscles in the picture below. (load going down on wrist) A. isokinetic B. concentric C. eccentric D. isometric

C

what is the arthrokinematic motion of the femur on the tibia during sit to stand? A. anterior glide tibia on femur B. posterior glide tibia on femur C. posterior glide femur D. anterior glide tibia

C

which of the following forces can result in rotary motion? A. compression B. distraction C. none of the above

C

A fluid's resistance to flow is called: A. anisotropy B. creep C. modulus of elasticity D. viscosity

D

Determine the force needed to maintain your arm at 90 degrees. (horizontal in standing). the force acting on the arm is 600 N. the moment arm of arm = 10 cm. the moment arm of the deltoids = 5 cm A. 300 N B. 600 N C. 900 N D. 1200 N

D

Fill in the blanks: if the moving surface is ________, _________ occurs in the opposite direction as the movement of the bone. A. concave, rolling B. concave, gliding C. convex, rolling D. convex, gliding

D

In figure above, at which position does the weight have the greatest torque capabilities on the knee joint? A. knee bent to 90, foot on rolling ball B. knee bent to about 60 on rolling ball C. knee bent to about 45 on rolling ball D. knee extended at 0

D

In the figure below the biceps is acting on the forearm (B). What is the force of the biceps, when given the following moment arm of biceps is d = 0.1 m, and the torque (moment) due to the biceps is 10 Nm. A. 0.01 N B. 1 N C. 10 N D. 100 N

D

L hip flexion causes what motion at pelvis A. posterior tilt B. R anterior rotation C. anterior tilt D. L posterior rotation

D

L hip flexion causes what motion at the pelvis A. posterior tilt B. L anterior rotation C. anterior tilt D. L posterior rotation

D

Passive insufficiency of which knee joint muscle would limit knee flexion? A. biceps femoris B. popliteus C. vastus lateralis D. rectus femoris

D

Supination twist refers to which of the following? A. 1st and 2nd ray plantar flex B. 2nd and 3rd ray plantar flex C. 3rd and 4th ray plantar flex D. 4th and 5th ray plantar flex

D

The screw home mechanism of the knee in open chain involves the following: A. Medial rotation of the tibia during terminal knee extension B. medial rotation of the tibia during terminal knee flexion C. lateral rotation of the tibia during terminal knee flexion D. lateral rotation of tibia during terminal knee extension

D

What elbow position is most appropriate to immobilize a person to prevent the effects of immobilization on the biceps? A. 130 degrees flexion B. 90 degrees flexion C. 30 degrees flexion D. 5 degrees flexion

D

What is the function of the menisci A. shock absorption B. lubricate joint C. D. Both a and b

D

What motions combine for pronation in open chain? A. plantar flexion, inversion adduction B. plantar flexion, inversion, abduction C. dorsiflexion, inversion, adduction D. dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction

D

When a connective tissue is stretched to a fixed length over time the force required to keep that length would decrease. What is the mechanical behavior called? A. creep B. hysteresis C. strain-rate sensitivity D. stress-relaxation

D

When describing the biomechanics properties of cancellous bone and cortical bone, which of the following statements is true? A. cancellous bone is stiffer than cortical bone and can withstand less stress B. cancellous bone is stiffer than cortical bone and can withstand more stress before failure C. cortical bone is stiffer than cancellous bone and can withstand less stress before failure D. cortical bone is stiffer than cancellous bone and can withstand more stress before failure

D

Which doesn't limit ankle inversion? A. ATF B. Calcaneofibular ligament C. talofibular ligament D. deltoid ligament

D

Which doesn't limit ankle inversion? A. ATF B. calcaneofibular ligament C. tibiofibular ligament D. deltoid ligament

D

Which of the following best represents the closed pack position of the wrist? A. full wrist flexion B. 15 degrees of wrist flexion C. 10 degrees of wrist extension D. full wrist extension

D

Which of the following describes the phenomenon that when 2 forces come in contact, the second force will respond to the contact by the first force with equal magnitude and in opposite direction? A. Law of Acceleration B. law of determination C. law of inertia D. law of reaction

D

Which of the following would result in increased active muscle tension if the task required the muscle to produce greater torque/tension? A. decreased number of cross-bridges formed B. decreased number of motor units activated C. increased amount of perimysium and endomysium D. increased firing rate of the activated motor units

D

Which type of muscle structure is best described to produce a large torque around a joint? A. parallel muscles with a small moment arm B. pennate muscles with a small moment arm C. parallel muscles with a large moment arm D. pennate muscles with a large moment arm

D

open chain hip extension A. anterior roll - anterior glide B. posterior roll - posterior glide C. anterior roll - posterior glide D. posterior roll - anterior glide

D

open chain wrist extension A. ventral roll, ventral glide B. dorsal roll, dorsal glide C. ventral roll, dorsal glide D. dorsal roll, ventral glide

D

what are the functions of the menisci in the knee? A. absorb shock B. lubricate joint C. increase tibial-femoral contact area D. all of the above

D

what position would passive insufficiency of the finger flexors least likely to occur? A. 0 degrees wrist flexion B. 10 degrees of supination and 0 degrees wrist flexion C. full wrist extension D. full wrist flexion

D

An increase in temperature decreases the point of tissue failure. T or F

F

A patient has the following measurements: Left shoulder: 90 degrees ER, 70 degrees IR. Right shoulder: 110 degrees ER, 60 degrees IR. Which of the following would put him at risk of injury? A. total shoulder ROM B. limited IR on right shoulder C. limited ER on left shoulder D. none of the above, he isn't at risk for injury

A

Hip abduction from anatomic position would occur in which plane? A. frontal B. horizontal C. sagittal D. transverse

A

How does an increase in tissue temperature affect stiffness? A. decreases B. increases C. no change

A

If a person becomes a right transhumeral (amputation of arm at mid humerus) amputee, her center of gravity shifts: A. inferiorly and to the left B. inferiorly and to the right C. superiorly and to the left D. superiorly and to the right

A

In the figure, at which position does the weight produce the greatest parallel (also called linear or translator) force on the knee joint? A. knee bent to 90, foot on rolling ball B. knee bent to about 60 on rolling ball C. knee bent to about 45 on rolling ball D. knee extended at 0

A

In what position would you place the knee and ankle joints if you want to make the gastrocnemius passively insufficient? A. knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion B. knee extension and ankle plantarflexion C. knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion D. knee flexion and ankle plantarlfexion

A

Maintaining a posture for a prolonged period of time requires muscles that are slow to fatigue and able to make a small adjustments in muscle tension. Therefore, muscles with higher percentage of ________ muscle fibers would be very active during a maintained posture. A. Type I B. Type IIA C. Type IIx

A

Open chain knee extension: A. anterior roll - anterior glide B. posterior roll - posterior glide C. anterior roll - posterior glide D. posterior roll - anterior glide

A

Open chain shoulder abduction A. superior roll, inferior glide B. inferior roll, inferior glide C. superior roll, superior glide D. inferior roll, superior glide

A

Regarding force-velocity relationships, which statement is true? A. in a concentric contraction, a muscle creates more force the more slowly it contracts B. in an eccentric contraction, as the speed of lengthening increases, the potential muscle force decreases C. in an isometric contraction the speed of lengthening is always faster than for an eccentric contraction

A

What 3 motions combine to cause pronation in an open chain position? A. dorsiflexion, eversion and abduction B. dorsiflexion, inversion and adduction C. plantar flexion, inversion, and adduction D. plantar flexion, eversion and abduction

A

What is the cause of sarcopenia with aging? A. change in number of muscle fibers B. hypertrophy of muscle fibers C. muscular neural adaptation D. sarcopenia is not normal with aging

A

What is the definition of closed pack position? A. joint surfaces maximal congruent and the ligaments and capsule are taut B. joint surfaces minimal congruent and the ligaments and capsule are taut C. joint surfaces maximal congruent and the ligaments and capsule are loose D. joint surfaces minimal congruent and the ligaments and capsule are loose

A

What is widening of the femoral neck called? A. CAM femoracetabular impingement B. Pincer femoracetabular impingement C. hip retroversion D. hip anteversion

A

What motion occurs at the patella femoral joint during knee extension? A. shifts laterally at end B. shifts medially at end C. moves inferiorly D. mobility decreases

A

What region of the deformation curve is stretching completed to get permanent change? A. plastic B. complete failure C. toe D. elastic

A