LAB STUDY GUIDE 3
99. The inoculated Simmon's citrate tube should be incubated at 37° C for _____ A. 2 to 5 days B. 1 to 2 days C. 72 hours D. 4 to 5 days E. None of the above
B. 1 to 2 days
87. During the MR-VP test, an inoculated tube should be broth incubated at 37°C for _____. A. 1 to 5 days B. 2 to 5 days C. 3 to 5 days D. 4 to 5 days E. None of the above
B. 2 to 5 days
52. If urea broth turns a hot pink color within ____ hours post inoculation, this indicates the presence of the enzyme urease. A. 72 B. 24 C. 4 D. 8 E. 48
B. 24
30. Iodine will stain starch a _____color. A. Blue B. Bluish-purple C. Purple D. Red E. None of the above
B. Bluish-purple
149. Which of the following yeast lives in our body as part of the normal gut microbiota? A. Saccharomyces cereviseae B. Candida albicans C. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
14. ________are the prime source of energy and carbon for the synthesis of cellular components. A. Enzymes B. Carbohydrates C. Lipids D. Simple sugars E. None of the above
B. Carbohydrates
152. Which of the following is most frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections? A. Enterococcus faecalis B. E. coli C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Klebsiella
B. E. coli
122. ______ is by far the most frequent causative agent of UTI. A. Proteus B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium difficile D. A and B E. B and C
B. Escherichia coli
64. Indole production from tryptophan differentiates _____ from other gastrointestinal bacteria. A. Proteus B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium difficile D. A and B E. B and C
B. Escherichia coli
92. Ammonia present in Simmon's citrate supplies the nitrogen source A. True B. False
B. False (ammonium salts)
74. Many Gram-negative bacteria can be distinguished by the metabolic pathway they utilize to ferment fructose. A. True B. False
B. False (to ferment glucose)
75. MR-VP broth is used to test for the pathway used to ferment fructose. A. True B. False
B. False (to ferment glucose)
71. ______production is seen as the formation of bubbles in the inverted Durham fermentation tube, and ammonia production by a change in color from red to fuchsia. A. H2O2 B. Gas C. Nitrogen D. Catalase E. None of the above
B. Gas
68. The black color produced when sulfur reacts with iron in the SIM medium indicates _______ A. Motility B. H2S production C. Tryptophan production D. Indole production E. None of the above
B. H2S production
147. The protective envelope like covering found on protozoa is called? A. Cuticle B. Pellicle C. Wax D. Dermis
B. Pellicle
129. A quantitative culture is prepared by placing a measured volume of urine on an agar plate and counting the number of ____that develop after incubation. A. Bacterium B. Colonies C. Plaque forming units D. Colony forming units E. None of the above
B. colonies
142. What is the shape of Stentor? A. Slipper shape B. Cone shape C. Oval shape D. None of the above
B. cone shape
103. Gelatinase is an example of an: A. Endoenzyme B. Exoenzyme C. Apoenzyme D. Coenzyme E. None of the above
B. exoenzyme
13. Gram stains alone can be used to identify microorganisms. A. True B. False
B. false
137. It is important to keep the sterile urine specimen container in close contact with your skin or clothing to keep the sample warm. A. True B. False
B. false
25. To inoculate a starch agar plate for the amylase test perform the streak plate technique of inoculation. A. True B. False
B. false
8. Microbes multiply during the refrigeration period and exhibit their respective enzymatic activities. A. True B. False
B. false
72. Escherichia coli produces alkaline by products and gas from lactose. A. True B. False
B. false (acid products)
93. Addition of nitrogen to Simmon's citrate would supply another carbon source besides citrate. A. True B. False
B. false (addition of peptides)
82. The ethanol, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen gases that may also be formed during the Methyl-Red test are detected in the test. A. True B. False
B. false (are not detected)
35. At room temperature or below, gelatin agar becomes liquid. A. True B. False
B. false (becomes solid)
28. A positive reaction to the amylase test will be a zone of inhibition around the microbial growth A. True B. False
B. false (colorless golden halo)
94. Simmon's citrate contains trypan blue, a pH indicator that is green at neutral pH but turns blue under alkaline conditions (pH greater than 7.6). A. True B. False
B. false (contains bromthymol blue)
76. MR-VP broth contains fructose as the only fermentable carbohydrate; peptone; and a phosphate buffer. A. True B. False
B. false (contains glucose)
90. Simmon's citrate is used to determine a nitrogen and energy source for microbial metabolism. A. True B. False
B. false (determine a carbon and energy source)
33. Protein hydrolysis can be detected using a gelatin slant agar tube A. True B. False
B. false (gelatin hydrolysis)
86. The formation of gases is detected in the Voges-Proskauer test. A. True B. False
B. false (not detected)
105. Amylose is branched chain polymer, and amylopectin is straight. A. True B. False
B. false (other way around)
134. Since urine is an excellent medium for bacterial growth, samples should be immediately frozen. A. True B. False
B. false (refrigerated)
91. Simmon's citrate contains sodium potassium as the only source of carbon. A. True B. False
B. false (sodium citrate as sole carbon source)
34. When in solution, gelatin agar liquefies at warm temperatures of about 15°C. A. True B. False
B. false (solidifies)
89. All bacteria can utilize citrate as their sole carbon and energy source. A. True B. False
B. false (some bacteria, not all)
108. Starch molecules are too small to enter the bacterial cell, and must be digested outside the cell. A. True B. False
B. false (too large)
26. After 24-48 hours of incubation at 37°C the amylase results can immediately be determined visually. A. True B. False
B. false (you have to flood with grams iodine)
48. Urea broth contains phenol red as a ___indicator. A. Temperature B. pH C. Nutrients D. Isoelectric point E. None of the above
B. pH
59. The coagulase test is done in _____and the sample is incubated at 37°C for 24 hours. A tube that solidifies (clots) shows the presence of coagulase. This reaction can occur as fast as 4 hours. A. sheep plasma B. rabbit plasma C. mouse plasma D. human plasma E. None of the above
B. rabbit plasma
69. Define carbohydrate fermentation A. Production of acid from sugars B. Production of acid and gas from sugars C. Breakdown of sugars such as glucose and lactose D. All of the above E. None of the above
D, All of the above
130. A calibrated loop that delivers 0.01 ml (10 μl) of urine sample is used to inoculate the plate. To determine the number of organisms per milliliter of urine, the colony count is divided by 0.01 ml. A. 1 ml B. 0.1ml C. 0.001 ml D. 0.01 ml E. None of the above
D. 0.01 ml
38. Inoculate the gelatin deep with a pure culture, using a stab with an inoculation needle and incubate at: A. 4°C for 48 hours B. 25°C for 48 hours C. 30°C for 48 hours D. 37°C for 48 hours E. None of the above
D. 37°C for 48 hours
138. Chocolate agar plates are used for identification of which of the following? A. Hemophilus species B. Neisseria Gonorrhea C. Corynebacterium Species D. A and B
D. A and B
150. Yeast cells reproduces asexually by dividing to create two genetically identical copies of themselves. Which of the following is the mechanism by which this process happens? A. Budding B. Binary fission C. conjugation D. A & B
D. A and B
79. The large amount of ______that are produced during the fermentation of glucose overcome the buffering system in the MR-VP broth and lower the pH of the medium to about 4.0. A. organic acids B. mixed acids C. butanediol D. A and B E. All of the above
D. A and B
84. Although there is no test to detect _____, the presence of its precursor, _______can be detected by the Voges-Proskauer test. A. 2,3 butanediol, acetylmethyl carbinol B. 2,3 butanediol, (acetoin) C. α-naphthol, KOH D. A and B E. None of the above
D. A and B
46. ____is a common cause of urinary tract infections. A. Proteus B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium difficile D. A and B E. B and C
D. A and B (proteus and e.coli
44. The urease enzyme splits ____ from the ____ molecule A. Ammonia, water B. Ammonia, oxygen C. Ammonia, carbon D. Ammonia, urea E. All of the above
D. Ammonia, urea
66. What does Erhlich's reagent do? A. Detects motility B. Detects H2S C. Detects tryptophan D. Detects indole
D. Detects indole
73. Motility assay: if SIM agar is inoculated properly, motile bacteria will move away from the line of inoculation and give a _____appearance. A. Slimy B. Undulating C. Swimming D. Fuzzy E. Sharp
D. Fuzzy
57. Coagulase is an enzyme, produced by____, which coagulates blood plasma. Coagulase helps the organism evade the host immune system by isolating itself from antibodies or cells that might attempt to phagocytize the bacteria. A. Micrococcus luteus B. S. pneumoniae C. S. epidermidis D. S. aureus E. None of the above
D. S. aureus
139. Normal Flora microorganisms include all of the following except: A. Escherichia B. Klebsiella-Enterobacter C. Proteus D. Shigella E. Citrobacter
D. Shigella (is a pathogen)
15. _______ such as glucose and galactose are important in both human and microbial metabolism. A. Enzymes B. Carbohydrates C. Lipids D. Simple sugars E. None of the above
D. Simple sugars
115. Define bacteriuria A. The presence of bacteria in blood B. The presence of bacteria in stool C. The presence of bacteria in saliva D. The presence of bacteria in urine E. None of the above
D. The presence of bacteria in urine
140. Which of the following is TRUE about the cilia? A. covers the surface of the cell B. propelling the cell through the water C. produces a feeding current that draws food particles to the cell. D. All of the above E. None of the above
D. all of the above
154. Which of the following organisms are pear shaped? A. Chilomastix mesnili B. Trichomonas hominis C. Giardia lamblia D. All of the above
D. all of the above
55. The presence of _____can be detected by adding a drop of 5% H2O2 to a colony and observing for the production of bubbles of O2. This test can also be performed in a drop of H2O2 on a slide. A. Casease B. Amylase C. Collagenase D. Catalase E. Superoxide dismutase
D. catalase
53. Catalase is a/an_____ that catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to water and oxygen. A. extracellular enzyme B. endotoxin C. secreted enzyme D. intracellular enzyme E. None of the above
D. intracellular enzyme
81. A positive Methyl-Red test, which is indicative of the lowered pH of ________, will produce a light-red (pinkish) color when methyl red is added to the MR-VP broth (after incubation). A. Ethanol production B. carbon dioxide synthesis C. formation of hydrogen gases D. mixed acid fermentation E. None of the above
D. mixed acid fermentation
114. When excreted, urine can become contaminated by the _____of the opening of the urethra and external genitalia. A. opportunistic flora B. pathogens C. epithelial cells D. normal flora E. None of the above
D. normal flora
32. In a ______amylase test reaction, the whole plate, including the area around the organism, remains a bluish-purple color, indicating that the organism did not have the enzyme amylase. A. Negative B. False-negative C. Positive D. False-Positive E. A and B
E. A and B
85. In the Voges-Proskauer test, ___________are added to the MR-VP broth. The components of the __________, react with the acetoin to yield products that produce a brick-red color. A. Barritt's Reagents B. α-naphthol and KOH C. 2,3 butanediol, (acetoin) D. α-naphthol, KOH E. A and B
E. A and B
109. Some bacteria secrete amylase that acts as an _____since it is secreted to the outside of the cell where it can hydrolyze the starch into smaller molecules that can be transported into the cell. A. Exoenzyme B. Endoenzyme C. Secreted enzyme D. Apoenzyme E. A and C
E. A and C
61. What is the benefit to a microbe in producing a protease such as gelatinase? A. Hydrolyze protein B. Hydrolyze lipid C. Hydrolyze starch D. Enable microbial penetration deeper into the body E. A and D
E. A and D (hydrolyzes protein and enables deeper microbial penetration)
12. Microbial reaction patterns to the following media can be used in the identification and the differentiation of microorganisms. A. Starch agar B. Nutrient gelatin C. Urea broth D. Hydrogen peroxide E. All of the above
E. All of the above
136. "Clean-catch" technique describes what? A. Proper collection of urine for culture B. Clean all external surfaces surrounding the urethra C. Discard the first stream of urine. D. Collect the "midstream" portion in a sterile specimen container. E. All of the above
E. All of the above
63. Bacterial identification is based on: A. Morphology B. Arrangement C. Staining characteristics D. Biochemical differences and genetic analysis E. All of the above
E. All of the above
70. Define coliforms: A. rod-shaped B. Gram-negative C. non-spore forming D. motile or non-motile E. All of the above
E. All of the above
62. Why is the breakdown of peroxide useful to a bacterium? A. Neutralize toxins B. Neutralize free radicals C. Neutralize reactive oxygen species D. Peroxide is used in microbial metabolism E. B and C
E. B and C
123. In addition, urinary tract infections are the most common nosocomial infections, accounting for approximately ____of all cases. A. 30% B. 31% C. 32% D. 33% E. None of the above
E. None of the above (39%)
65. If a red color is produced after incubation in SIM medium and after the addition of Erhlich's reagent, the bacterium hydrolyzes _____to indole. A. H2S B. Valine C. Phenylalanine D. Threonine E. Tryptophan
E. Tryptophan
111. The following are examples of protozoans of clinical importance: A. E. hystolytica B. I. butschlii C. Giardia D. Trichomonas E. All of the above
E. all of the above
112. The following are examples of helminthes of clinical importance: A. Taenia solium B. Enterobius C. Trichuris D. Ascaris E. All of the above
E. all of the above
40. To ensure gelatin hydrolysis after incubation for 24-48 hours, place tubes at 4°C for 30 min. and examine the tubes for: A. Liquefaction B. Polymerization C. Putrefaction D. Color change E. pH change
A. Liquefaction
16. In the case of microorganisms, most of the carbohydrates available to them are ________ that are made up of many ________ units. A. Polysaccharide, monosaccharide B. Monoaccharide, monosacccharide C. Monosaccharide, polysacccharide D. Disaccharide, trisacccharide E. None of the above
A. Polysaccharide, monosaccharide
155. Amoebas move by means of? A. Pseudopodia B. Flagella C. Cilia
A. Pseudopodia
151. Which of the following species of yeast is used in baking and alcoholic beverage production and in production of useful proteins? A. Saccharomyces cereviseae B. Candida albicans C. Cryptococcus neoformans
A. Saccharomyces cereviseae
22. Amylase is secreted through the cell membrane to degrade complex substances (starch) into smaller units (maltose), which can readily enter the cell. A. True B. False
A. true
23. Amylase acts on starch to yield maltose (a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules), which is then further digested by cells. A. True B. False
A. true
24. To inoculate a starch agar plate for the amylase test place a straight line of inoculum from a pure bacterial culture down the center of your starch plate. A. True B. False
A. true
27. You must carefully flood the starch agar plate with gram's iodine solution to analyze the amylase test results. A. True B. False
A. true
29. A clear zone around the microbial growth is an indication that starch has been hydrolyzed by bacterial amylase. A. True B. False
A. true
3. The pathogenesis of disease can involve digestion of tissues by extracellular enzymes or physical blocking of capillaries due to unlimited microbial growth. A. True B. False
A. true
31. Where amylase has digested the starch, there will be a colorless zone indicating that the starch was hydrolyzed. A. True B. False
A. true
36. When bacteria that produce the enzyme gelatinase are grown in a gelatin medium, the enzyme hydrolyzes the gelatin molecule and the medium cannot solidify, even at cold temperature. A. True B. False
A. true
4. The study of microbial metabolism is essential to a complete understanding of the host-parasite relationship. A. True B. False
A. true
42. A positive gelatinase result is indicated by liquefied agar in a tube that remains liquid even after being placed in the refrigerator. A. True B. False
A. true
45. Most enteric pathogens do not produce urease. A. True B. False
A. true
5. Microorganisms, as other forms of life, may alter their environment to a certain extent and use chemical compounds in solutions as sources of energy or components for growth and reproduction. A. True B. False
A. true
54. The catalase test is useful for a quick separation of catalase-positive Staphylococci from catalase-negative Streptococci and Enterococci. A. True B. False
A. true
56. Blood cells contain catalase. A. True B. False
A. true
58. Coagulase is not produced by S. epidermidis or by any other gram-positive coccus. A. True B. False
A. true
67. H2S production in SIM medium from sulfur containing amino acids differentiates Proteus vulgaris, Shigella and Salmonella from other gastrointestinal bacteria. A. True B. False
A. true
7. In order to observe microbial enzymatic activity, various kinds of specifically prepared media are inoculated with pure cultures of microorganisms. A. True B. False
A. true
77. MR-VP broth is used to test for two glucose fermentation pathways: the "mixed acid" fermentation (detected by the Methyl Red Test) and the "butanediol" fermentation (detected by the Voges-Proskauer Test). A. True B. False
A. true
78. Some organisms, typified by E. coli, carry out a "mixed acid" fermentation, named for the large amounts of organic acids that are produced as end-products during the fermentation of glucose, gases may also be produced. A. True B. False
A. true
88. Barritt's A reagent is α-naphthol and Barritt's B reagent is KOH A. True B. False
A. true
9. Many distinctive enzyme activities can be demonstrated by testing for the by-products resulting from the action of enzymes on specific substances within the special media. A. True B. False
A. true
98. The alkaline conditions of a positive Simmon's citrate test causes the bromothymol blue to change the medium color from green to blue. A. True B. False
A. true
21. Amylase is an extracellular enzyme A. True B. False
A. true
80. The test uses methyl red, a pH indicator that has a red color at a pH lower than 4.5 and a yellow color when the pH is above 6.0. A. 4.5, 6.0 B. 4.5, 5.0 C. 4.5, 7.0 D. 4.5, 8.0 E. None of the above
A. 4.5, 6.0
144. Which of the following is most common form of reproduction in protozoa? A. Asexual binary fission B. Conjugation C. Fusion of gametes
A. Asexual binary fission
148. Which of the following is produced by protozoa to protect its cell during times of environmental stress and poor nutrient availability? A. Dormant cysts B. Trophozoites C. None of the above
A. Dormant cysts
6. All cellular activities are mediated by: A. Enzymes B. Carbohydrates C. Lipids D. All of the above E. None of the above
A. Enzymes
83. Enterobacter forms ____ and ______, compounds that do not lower the pH of the medium. A. Ethanol and 2,3 butanediol B. 2,3 butanediol and acetylmethyl carbinol C. 2,3 butanediol and (acetoin) D. α-naphthol and KOH E. None of the above
A. Ethanol and 2,3 butanediol
60. How does the starch agar test demonstrate that amylase is an exoenzyme? A. Starch in the agar is hydrolyzed in the presence of amylase B. Starch in the microbe is hydrolyzed in the presence of amylase C. Lipids in the agar are hydrolyzed in the presence of amylase D. Casein in the agar is hydrolyzed in the presence of amylase E. None of the above
A. Starch in the agar is hydrolyzed in the presence of amylase
153. Which of the following has no cyst stage? A. Trichomonas hominis B. Giardia lamblia C. Chilomastix mesnili
A. Trichomonas hominis
96. The _____ in Simmon's citrate medium is transported into the bacterial cell by citrate permease and then hydrolyzed by citrase to form an acid and a gas. A. citrate B. pyruvic acid C. carbon dioxide D. none of the above E. all of the above
A. citrate
146. Flatworms absorb food directly via a nonliving covering known as? A. Cuticle B. Pellicle C. Wax D. Dermis
A. cuticle
1. Define niche A. ecological environment B. by-product of microbial metabolic activities C. microbial growth D. host-parasite relationship E. None of the above
A. ecological environment
37. Gelatinase is a: A. Protease B. DNAse C. Endonuclease D. All of the above E. None of the above
A. protease
43. _____ is an intestinal microbe with the ability to produce urease. A. Proteus B. M. luteus C. S. marscesans D. C. albicans E. S. cerevesiae
A. proteus
50. When urease is produced by an organism in urea broth, the ammonium that is released A. raises the pH B. decreases the pH C. maintains the pH D. neutralizes the pH E. None of the above
A. raises the pH
113. Under normal circumstances, the kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra (with the exception of the opening), and the urine within are____. A. Sterile B. Not Sterile C. Contaminated D. B and C E. None of the above
A. sterile
10. Microbial species can differ greatly and may be identified by the actions of their enzymes. A. True B. False
A. true
100. In the absence of a color change, evidence of growth on the slant is indicative of a positive Simmon's citrate test A. True B. False
A. true
102. Inoculate a tube of Nutrient Gelatin using a sterilized inoculating needle. Stab the medium straight down and pull it straight out. A. True B. False
A. true
11. By using a series of different media or biochemical tests, a pattern of activity can be established for a species. Such reaction patterns can be used in the identification and the differentiation of microorganisms. A. True B. False
A. true
110. End-product molecules of starch hydrolysis can be used by the bacteria for use in energy yielding, metabolic processes. A. True B. False
A. true
116. The presence of bacteria in voided urine does not necessarily indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI). A. True B. False
A. true
117. Normal urine that is simply contaminated during passage out of the body contains very few bacteria A. True B. False
A. true
118. 100-1,000 bacteria per milliliter of urine is considered within the normal range A. True B. False
A. true
119. Bacteria in urine are often normal skin organisms that are not common pathogens of the urinary tract; thus, they are easily identified as contaminants. A. True B. False
A. true
120. UTIs most often occur when normal intestinal flora present on the external urogenital surfaces become transplanted, invade the urethra, and then ascend into the bladder. A. True B. False
A. true
121. In most cases, these bacteria are opportunistic members of fecal flora. A. True B. False
A. true
126. To distinguish contamination of urine by normal urogenital flora from a urinary tract infection caused by the same organisms, it is necessary to determine the numbers of organisms present per milliliter of urine. A. True B. False
A. true
127. In general, a count in excess of 100,000 organisms per milliliter of urine and the predominance of only one species in a properly collected and transported urine specimen is considered clinically significant. A. True B. False
A. true
128. The presence of an excess of 100,000 organisms per milliliter of urine correlates with active infection of the bladder or kidneys. A. True B. False
A. true
131. 21 colonies ÷ 0.01 ml = 2100 colonies/ml A. True B. False
A. true
132. Culturing urine samples should begin soon after collection, before contaminants can multiply and distort the results. A. True B. False
A. true
133. Overgrowths in standing urine can lead to false positives. A. True B. False
A. true
135. Bacterial counts in the refrigerator will remain constant for up to 24 hours. A. True B. False
A. true
141. Paramecium has a slipper shape. A. True B. False
A. true
145. Helminths are capable of existing as parasites of humans and nonhuman animals. A. True B. False
A. true
17. Cellulose and starch are two common examples of polysaccharides that are made up of many monosacccharide units. A. True B. False
A. true
18. Cellulose and starch are polymers of glucose. A. True B. False
A. true
19. The basic difference between cellulose and starch is the structural arrangement of the glucose units, which leads to the chemical difference. A. True B. False
A. true
2. Microbes may attempt to adjust the environment (temperature, pH, etc.) to their optimal requirements in order to compete for nutrients. A. True B. False
A. true
20. The enzyme responsible for the hydrolysis of starch is called amylase. A. True B. False
A. true
41. To ensure gelatin hydrolysis after incubation for 24-48 hours, place tubes at 4°C for 30 min. and if all tubes are solidified, replace them in the incubator for further growth and re-examine them every: A. 6 hours for 2 days B. 12 hours for 3 days C. 24 hours for 3 days D. 24 hours for 2 days E. All of the above
C. 24 hours for 3 days
39. A gelatin deep agar tube will be liquid at: A. 4°C for 48 hours B. 25°C for 48 hours C. 37°C for 48 hours D. All of the above E. None of the above
C. 37°C for 48 hours
106. Bacteria that possess the enzyme amylase are able to split the starch molecule into shorter polysaccharide subunits called ____, ____, and ____. A. Dextrins, glycogen, glucose B. Dextrins, sucrose, glucose C. Dextrins, maltose, glucose D. Dextrins, fructose, glucose E. None of the above
C. Dextrins, maltose, glucose
49. Since urea is unstable and breaks down in the autoclave steam pressure, the media is sterilized by ____ A. Heat B. Formalin C. Filtration D. Glutaraldehyde E. None of the above
C. Filtration
101. Why is Simmon's citrate used as a "slant"? A. Maximize surface area for CO2 exchange B. Maximize surface area for H20 exchange C. Maximize surface area for O2 exchange D. Maximize surface area for carbon exchange E. None of the above
C. Maximize surface area for O2 exchange
124. UTIs as _____are usually associated with urinary catheterization. A. Opportunistic infections B. Fungal infections C. Nosocomial infections D. Communicable infections E. None of the above
C. Nosocomial infections
143. Which of the fallowing is statements is false? A. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms. B. Protozoans are unicellular organisms C. Protozoans possess a cell wall D. Protozoans are heterotrophic E. Protozoans are not photosynthetic
C. Protozoans possess a cell wall
47. Urea broth is a buffered solution of ____extract and urea. A. Soy B. Blood C. Yeast D. Carageenan E. C and D
C. Yeast
95. Since citrate utilization occurs under______, a slanted medium is used to maximize the surface area and contact with oxygen. A. anaerobic conditions B. microaerophile conditions C. aerobic conditions D. none of the above E. all of the above
C. aerobic conditions
104. A molecule of starch is composed of two glucose polymers: ___ and ____. A. alpha-D-glucose and amylose B. amylopectin and alpha-D-glucose C. amylose and amylopectin D. All of the above E. None of the above
C. amylose and amylopectin
97. The _____produced during the Simmon's citrate test diffuses out of the cell and reacts with Sodium ion and water in the medium to form compounds such as sodium carbonate, which raise the pH of the medium. A. citrate B. pyruvic acid C. carbon dioxide D. none of the above E. all of the above
C. carbon dioxide
107. Amylase belongs to the general class of enzymes called _____that use a water molecule to split their substrates into smaller end product molecules. A. Deoxyribonucleases B. Isomerases C. Hydrolases D. Enolases E. None of the above
C. hydrolases
51. When the pH increases, ______changes from a yellow-orange color (pH 6.8) to a pink color (pH 8.1 or more). A. trypan blue B. trypsin C. phenol red D. phenol orange E. phenol yellow
C. phenol red
125. Laboratory diagnosis of a urinary tract infection is made by culturing ___ A. Blood B. Serum C. Urine D. Fecal matter E. None of the above
C. urine