LabCE Blood Bank Incorrect Questions
Frozen red cells that have been prepared with high glycerol methods (40% glycerol) can be stored up to 10 years if held at which of the following temperatures?
-65C or lower
When collecting routine blood product donations, the venipuncture site is first cleaned with:
0.7% Iodophor compound
What is the minimum hemoglobin concentration required for autologous blood donation?
11 g/dL
In which of the following sections of CFR Title 21, Good manufacturing practices, would you find requirements for quality control testing of donor units of platelets?
21 CFR 640.25 Platelets - General Requirements
Which of the following donors could be accepted for blood donation?
24-year-old male who had a tooth extraction two months ago
What is the shelf-life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1?
35 days
Which best describes an A1 individual?
A and A1 antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in serum
A patient transfused with two units of packed cells spiked a fever of 99.5oF and complained of chills five days after transfusion. The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) was positive with anti-IgG, but negative with anti-C3d. Compatibility testing was performed on the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. The post-transfusion specimen was incompatible with one of the donor units transfused. An antibody screen was done on both the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. An antibody was detected in the post-transfusion specimen only and identified by panel studies as anti-Jka. This transfusion reaction is most likely:
A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
Which one of the following blood groups usually reacts LEAST strongly with anti-H?
A1
Which of the following blood groups reacts least strongly with anti-H?
A1B
Which procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample to monitor severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) can also be used to deliver intrauterine transfusions?
Cordocentesis
Which cluster of differentiation (CD) is used for the quantification of hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPC) after an HPC-apheresis collection?
CD34
Which of the following is the predominant immunoglobulin class for anti-A and anti-B antibodies in group B and group A individuals?
IgM
Which of the following statements best describes Rh antibodies?
Immune, IgG
All of the following can be indications of anemia and the potential need for a transfusion of packed red cells EXCEPT?
Increased haptoglobin
Which of the following choices is the basic technique used to detect unexpected antibodies with a commercial set of reagent cells?
Indirect antiglobulin test
Which of the following blood group antigen-antibody reactions is enhanced by using enzymes:
Jka
The McLeod phenotype is associated with which of the following antigen systems?
Kell
Which one of the following blood group systems may show a cell typing change during pregnancy?
Lewis
Platelet specific antigens, also referred to as human platelet antigens (HPAs), are expressed on which of the following?
Membrane glycoproteins
Compared to the primary immune response, the secondary immune response typically demonstrates:
More antibodies produced
Which of the following set of conditions would NOT allow HDFN to occur as a result of Rh incompatibility?
Mother Rh-neg, Father Rh-neg
An urticarial transfusion reaction is characterized by:
Rash and hives
What procedure is used by the laboratory personnel to confirm ABO typing by using cells with known blood groups?
Reverse typing
Which of the following is the MOST IMPORTANT first step to take when a patient is transfused with un-crossmatched RBCs that turn out to be incompatible?
Stop any transfusion in progress
The primary antibody response takes an average of how many days?
5-10 days
If an Rh group (DCe/dce) man marries an Rh group (dce/dce) woman, what is the probability that their offspring will be D negative?
50%
It's a busy Friday evening in the blood bank, and you have been receiving a steady stream of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room. Several of them have positive antibody screens, which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours (normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be ~14 g/dL). Your workup reveals a group O patient with the following antibodies: anti-K, anti-Fya. The prevalence of K negative donors in your donor population is 91%, while the prevalence of Fya negative donors is 37%. Two units of cross-matched RBCs are requested by the physician. How many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype in order to fulfill the request for two cross-matched units?
6 units of type O RBC units 33/100 = 2/x 33x = 200 x = 6.06
Platelets that are not collected by an apheresis method must be prepared within ________ of the collection of whole blood.
8 hours
Which of the following changes in titers would be considered significant when monitoring maternal antibodies using a doubling dilution?
8 to 32
A unit of leukocyte-reduced red blood cells must retain at least what percentage of red blood cells following leukoreduction?
85%
What is the minimum volume (milliliters) of Rh positive red blood cells that would be needed to produce anti-D in an Rh negative individual?
<0.1 mL
If the unit is going to be transfused within the collection facility, autologous blood must always be tested for which of the following before transfusion?
ABO, Rh
Which of the following refers to the most common procedure for donating whole blood for use by the general population?
Allogeneic donation
A sample has reactions occurring at immediate spin and AHG in a panel that show varying reaction strengths. There is no obvious pattern that matches a particular panel cell or single antigen profile and the auto-control was negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
An IgM and an IgG antibody
A patient demonstrates an antibody that reacts at the immediate spin phase, shows variable dosage, and has increased reactivity after treatment with enzymes. Which antibody does the patient most likely have?
Anti-P2
Which of the following antibodies is detected primarily in the antiglobulin phase of the crossmatch?
Anti-Fya
Upon admission for thoracic surgery, a patient's physician ordered a type and screen. The patient is O positive. After a positive antibody screen was obtained, an antibody identification was performed. The results are shown on the right. Which antibodies are most likely present and causing the reactions shown?
Anti-Fya and anti-C
What antibody is best described as common autoantibody that can be found in virtually all sera?
Anti-I
All of the following are the reacting substances that may be in the Coombs sera (antihuman globulin) EXCEPT?
Anti-IgM sources
All of the following antibodies are detected at immediate spin EXCEPT?
Anti-Jka
Which of the following antibodies usually show enhanced agglutination with the use of proteolytic enzymes?
Anti-Jka, -Jkb, -C, and -E
Of the following blood group antibodies, which has been most frequently associated with severe cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
Anti-K
All of the following are possible causes of the positive antibody screen EXCEPT?
Anti-Lua
Leukocyte reduction may be performed at the same time as which step in blood component collection?
At the same time the additive solution is added
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
Autoantibody class: IgM
Glycine-HCL/EDTA treatment of red cells can destroy which of the following antigens, allowing for confirmation of a suspected antibody and detecting additional antibodies?
Bg and Kell
A 28 year old female patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) following the delivery of her newborn. Her Complete Blood Count (CBC) results are normal. What would be the best blood product for this patient to receive?
Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor
Which of the following is used as a source for irradiation of blood products?
Cs137
Which of the following patients is eligible for RhIG?
D-negative woman, 28 weeks gestation, no unexpected antibodies
A rosette test to screen for fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) is indicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:
D-positive mother
Given the Wiener and Fisher-Race nomenclatures shown below, all of the following offsprings are possible from a mother who is R0R1 and a father who is R1r EXCEPT?
DcE/DcE
What is the MOST frequent disease complication of blood transfusions?
Hepatitis
What is a characteristic of a person who is weak D?
Demonstrates a reduced number of D antigen sites on the surface of the red cell
What is the cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)?
Destruction of neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother
For which of these reasons would a molecular method not be used?
Donor antibody screening
What would be the best way to determine how much RhIg should be given to a postpartum female who received RhIG antenatally and demonstrates the anti-D antibody at delivery?
Flow cytometry
Which of the following is the MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates an "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon?
Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A.
All of the following red blood cell phenotypes will react with Anti-Fy3, EXCEPT?
Fy(a-b-)
A patient has a probable anti-Fya; however, anti-c and anti-K have not been excluded. Which of the following cells would be the most useful cell to exclude both anti-c and anti-K efficiently in this patient?
Fya-; Fyb+; C-c+; K+k-
When testing for the quality of platelet concentrates, all of the following must be included EXCEPT?
Gas production
The parents' blood types are AB and O. What could be the only possible blood type(s) of their children?
Group A or B only
In which system are DR antigens are found?
HLA system
Which one of the physical examination results below may be cause to reject a donor from blood donation?
Hemoglobin of 12.0 g/dL
A spectrophotometric scan of amniotic fluid may be valuable in the determination of which of the following conditions:
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) codes for which antigens?
Human Leukocyte Antigens
Which of the following antigen groups is closely related to the ABO antigens on the red cell membrane?
I, i
Which class of immunoglobulins is implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?
IgG
Which of the following sources of error will give a false negative result in antihuman globulin testing?
Low pH of saline
What is the first line treatment for moderate to severe hemophilia A?
Lyophilized Factor VIII concentrate
In HDFN which of the following antigen-antibody reactions is occurring?
Maternal antibody is directed against fetal antigen.
If a patient is determined to have type AB blood, what antibody would be found in his/her serum?
No Anti-A, no Anti-B antibodies
What is the appropriate deferral period from donating blood for a 34-year-old female who miscarried in her first trimester?
No deferral
Can an autologous donor donate blood at 4 PM on Monday if she is having surgery at 10 AM on Wednesday?
No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is 72 hours.
Which blood group antibody(ies) would you find in a group AB individual?
None
An individual with group AB blood does not have which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells?
O
Which patient population benefits from HLA matching to provide patients with the best outcomes?
Organ transplant recipients
A patient front-grouped as AB but back-grouped as O. The screening cells and auto control were positive. If the testing was performed correctly, what is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?
Patient has a cold autoantibody
What is the most common treatment for hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) due to ABO incompatibility?
Phototherapy
Which of the following reagents is often used to perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) to determine if either IgG or complement (or both) is attached to a patient's red cells?
Polyspecific AHG
All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT:
Prevent recipient alloimmunization
In which situation is gamma irradiation of cellular blood components required?
Prevention of Graft-Versus-Host (GVH) disease
All of the following regarding Anti-A and Anti-B reagents used in forward typing for ABO typing are true EXCEPT?
The antibodies are IgG
A patient who demonstrates a history of an allergic reaction from red blood cell transfusions will benefit from receiving which red cell component?
Washed red blood cells
If an autologous blood component is shipped from the donor center without the completion of infectious disease testing, the unit must be labeled with:
The phrase "Donor Untested"
When giving a whole blood donation to a patient, what consideration must be made in regards to the ABO/Rh compatibility between the recipient and the donor?
The recipient and donor ABO and Rh types must be identical
What is considered the cause of urticarial transfusion reactions?
Transfusion of certain food allergens or drugs in plasma products
Which of the following noninfectious complications of blood transfusion is prevented by the irradiation of blood components?
Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)
Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Unexplained bleeding from surgical site
When performing an anti-human globulin (AHG) test, it is important to completely wash the red cells because:
Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum
Which of the following is considered a high-incidence antigen?
k (little k)
Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive?
prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother
