Lesson 2 Maternal Child

A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. The nurse's primary duty during the seizure is to: A) Stay with the client and call for help. B) Insert an oral airway. C) Administer oxygen by mask. D) Suction the mouth to prevent aspiration.

A.

In caring for an immediate after birth patient, you note petechiae and oozing from her IV site. You would monitor her closely for the clotting disorder: A. DIC B. AFE C. Hemorrhage D. HELLP Syndrome

A.

Early after birth hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss greater than: a. 500 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. b. 750 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. c. 1000 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery. d. 1500 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery.

a. 500 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery.

The nurse would expect which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor? a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased pulse rate c. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count d. Decreased blood pressure

a. Increased cardiac output

When assessing a multiparous woman who has just given birth to an 8-lb boy, the nurse notes that the woman's fundus is firm and has become globular in shape. A gush of dark red blood comes from her vagina. The nurse concludes that: a. the placenta has separated. b. a cervical tear occurred during the birth. c. the woman is beginning to hemorrhage. d. clots have formed in the upper uterine segment.

a. the placenta has separated.

What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause? a. Early deceleration—umbilical cord compression b. Late deceleration—uteroplacental inefficiency c. Variable deceleration—head compression d. Prolonged deceleration—cause unknown

b. Late deceleration—uteroplacental inefficiency

As relates to fetal positioning during labor, nurses should be aware that: a. position is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal. b. birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm below the spine. c. the largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter. d. engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labor.

b. birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm below the spine.

Which condition would not be classified as a bleeding disorder in late pregnancy? a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Spontaneous abortion d. Cord insertion

c.

What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding? a. Endometritis b. Wound infections c. Mastitis d. Urinary tract infections

c. Mastitis

When assessing a woman in labor, the nurse is aware that the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another is called fetal: a. lie. b. presentation. c. attitude. d. position.

c. attitude.

The factors that affect the process of labor and birth, known commonly as the five Ps, include all except: a. passenger. b. passageway. c. powers. d. pressure.

d. pressure.

In order to care for obstetric patients adequately, the nurse understands that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by: a. contracting the lower uterine segment. b. enlarging the internal size of the uterus. c. promoting blood flow to the cervix. d. pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.

d. pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.

Post birth uterine/vaginal discharge, called lochia: a. is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours. b. is usually greater after cesarean births. c. will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding. d. should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.

d. should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.

A patient who has undergone a dilation and curettage for early pregnancy loss is likely to be discharged the same day. The nurse must ensure that vital signs are stable, bleeding has been controlled, and the woman has adequately recovered from the administration of anesthesia. To promote an optimal recovery, discharge teaching should include: (Select all that apply.) a. iron supplementation. b. resumption of intercourse at 6 weeks following the procedure. c. referral to a support group if necessary. d. expectation of heavy bleeding for at least 2 weeks. e. emphasizing the need for rest.

A. iron supplementation C. referral to a support group if necessary E. emphasizing the need for rest

A pregnant woman has been receiving a mgsulfate infusion for tx of severe preeclampsia for 24h. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temp 37.3, pulse 88, RR of 10, BP 148/90, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The patient complains, "I'm so thirsty and warm." The nurse: A. calls for a stat mg sulfate level B. admin O2 C. DC mg sulfate infusion D. prep to admin hydralazine

C.

A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should concern her nurse? A. BP increase to 138/86 mmHG B. Wt gain of 0.5kg during the past 2 weeks C. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day

C.

In planning care for women with preeclampsia, nurses should be aware that: a. induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible. b. if at home, the woman should be confined to her bed, even with mild preeclampsia. c. a special diet low in protein and salt should be initiated. d. vaginal birth is still an option, even in severe cases.

a.

Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if: a. the pregnancy is less than 20 weeks. b. the fetus weighs less than 1000 g. c. the products of conception are passed intact. d. no evidence exists of intrauterine infection.

a.

The nurse caring for pregnant women must be aware that the most common medical complication of pregnancy is: a. hypertension. b. hyperemesis gravidarum. c. hemorrhagic complications. d. infections.

a.

Which order should the nurse expect for a patient admitted with a threatened abortion? a. Bed rest b. Ritodrine IV c. NPO d. Narcotic analgesia every 3 hours, prn

a. Bed rest

Which occurrence is associated with cervical dilation and effacement? a. Bloody show b. False labor c. Lightening d. Bladder distention

a. Bloody show

Approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage. Which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion? a. Chromosomal abnormalities b. Infections c. Endocrine imbalance d. Immunologic factors

a. Chromosomal abnormalities

Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the woman's position.

a. Early decelerations

Which description of the four stages of labor is correct for both definition and duration? a. First stage: onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation; less than 1 hour to 20 hours b. Second stage: full effacement to 4 to 5 cm; visible presenting part; 1 to 2 hours c. Third state: active pushing to birth; 20 minutes (multiparous women), 50 minutes (first-timer) d. Fourth stage: delivery of the placenta to recovery; 30 minutes to 1 hour

a. First stage: onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation; less than 1 hour to 20 hours

What PPH conditions are considered medical emergencies that require immediate treatment? a. Inversion of the uterus and hypovolemic shock b. Hypotonic uterus and coagulopathies c. Subinvolution of the uterus and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura d. Uterine atony and disseminated intravascular coagulation

a. Inversion of the uterus and hypovolemic shock

Nursing care measures are commonly offered to women in labor. Which nursing measure reflects application of the gate-control theory? a. Massaging the woman's back b. Changing the woman's position c. Giving the prescribed medication d. Encouraging the woman to rest between contractions

a. Massaging the woman's back

Several changes in the integumentary system that appear during pregnancy disappear after birth, although not always completely. What change is almost certain to be completely reversed? a. Nail brittleness b. Darker pigmentation of the areolae and linea nigra c. Striae gravidarum on the breasts, abdomen, and thighs d. Spider nevi

a. Nail brittleness

A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago. Where would the nurse expect to locate this woman's fundus? a. One centimeter above the umbilicus b. Two centimeters below the umbilicus c. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis d. Nonpalpable abdominally

a. One centimeter above the umbilicus

A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes rupture. Prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the top priority? a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position. b. Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline. c. Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth. d. Starting oxygen by face mask.

a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position.

Which factors influence cervical dilation? (Select all that apply.) a. Strong uterine contractions. b. The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix. c. The size of the female pelvis. d. The pressure applied by the amniotic sac. e. Scarring of the cervix.

a. Strong uterine contractions. b. The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix. d. The pressure applied by the amniotic sac. e. Scarring of the cervix.

Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment? a. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. b. The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. c. The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus. d. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.

a. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.

Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm c. External monitors in current use d. Fetus with a known heart defect

a. Unruptured membranes

The exact cause of preterm labor is unknown and believed to be multifactorial. Infection is thought to be a major factor in many preterm labors. Select the type of infection that has not been linked to preterm births. a. Viral b. Periodontal c. Cervical d. Urinary tract

a. Viral

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes.

a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman comprehends that accelerations with fetal movement: a. are reassuring. b. are caused by umbilical cord compression. c. warrant close observation. d. are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency

a. are reassuring.

A laboring woman is lying in the supine position. The most appropriate nursing action at this time is to: a. ask her to turn to one side. b. elevate her feet and legs. c. take her blood pressure. d. determine whether fetal tachycardia is present.

a. ask her to turn to one side.

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to: a. assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. b. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. c. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage. d. monitor uterine contractions.

a. assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs.

Knowing that the condition of the new mother's breasts will be affected by whether she is breastfeeding, nurses should be able to tell their patients all the following statements except: a. breast tenderness is likely to persist for about a week after the start of lactation. b. as lactation is established, a mass may form that can be distinguished from cancer by its position shift from day to day. c. in nonlactating mothers colostrum is present for the first few days after childbirth. d. if suckling is never begun (or is discontinued), lactation ceases within a few days to a week.

a. breast tenderness is likely to persist for about a week after the start of lactation.

With regard to breathing techniques during labor, maternity nurses should understand that: a. breathing techniques in the first stage of labor are designed to increase the size of the abdominal cavity to reduce friction. b. by the time labor has begun, it is too late for instruction in breathing and relaxation. c. controlled breathing techniques are most difficult near the end of the second stage of labor. d. the patterned-paced breathing technique can help prevent hyperventilation.

a. breathing techniques in the first stage of labor are designed to increase the size of the abdominal cavity to reduce friction.

The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by: a. change in position. b. oxytocin administration. c. regional anesthesia. d. intravenous analgesic.

a. change in position.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurse's first priority is to: a. change the woman's position. b. notify the care provider. c. assist with amnioinfusion. d. insert a scalp electrode.

a. change the woman's position.

A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by: a. contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. contractions about 1 minute apart. d. a contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.

a. contractions every 2 to 5 minutes.

In evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin induction, the nurse would expect: a. contractions lasting 80 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart. b. the intensity of contractions to be at least 110 to 130 mm Hg. c. labor to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation. d. At least 30 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation

a. contractions lasting 80 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart.

Perinatal nurses are legally responsible for: a. correctly interpreting fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes. b. greeting the patient on arrival, assessing her, and starting an intravenous line. c. applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider. d. making sure that the woman is comfortable.

a. correctly interpreting fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes.

A woman is experiencing back labor and complains of intense pain in her lower back. An effective relief measure would be to use: a. counterpressure against the sacrum. b. pant-blow (breaths and puffs) breathing techniques. c. effleurage. d. conscious relaxation or guided imagery.

a. counterpressure against the sacrum.

When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, the nurse recognizes that the most conclusive sign that uterine contractions are effective would be: a. dilation of the cervix. b. descent of the fetus. c. rupture of the amniotic membranes. d. increase in bloody show.

a. dilation of the cervix.

In assisting with the two factors that have an effect on fetal status (i.e., pushing and positioning), nurses should: a. encourage the woman's cooperation in avoiding the supine position. b. advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position. c. encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response. d. instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.

a. encourage the woman's cooperation in avoiding the supine position.

When managing the care of a woman in the second stage of labor, the nurse uses various measures to enhance the progress of fetal descent. These measures include: a. encouraging the woman to try various upright positions, including squatting and standing. b. telling the woman to start pushing as soon as her cervix is fully dilated. c. continuing an epidural anesthetic so pain is reduced and the woman can relax. d. coaching the woman to use sustained, 10- to 15-second, closed-glottis bearing-down efforts with each contraction.

a. encouraging the woman to try various upright positions, including squatting and standing

To care for a laboring woman adequately, the nurse understands that the __________ stage of labor varies the most in length? a. first b. second c. third d. fourth

a. first.

Leopold maneuvers would be an inappropriate method of assessment to determine: a. gender of the fetus. b. number of fetuses. c. fetal lie and attitude. d. degree of the presenting part's descent into the pelvis.

a. gender of the fetus.

A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would explain that "true" labor contractions: a. increase with activity such as ambulation. b. decrease with activity. c. are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters. d. alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.

a. increase with activity such as ambulation.

When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman's risk for _________________________ has increased. a. intrauterine infection b. hemorrhage c. precipitous labor d. supine hypotension

a. intrauterine infection

The most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth is: a. keeping the newborn's airway clear. b. fostering parent-newborn attachment. c. drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket. d. administering eyedrops and vitamin K.

a. keeping the newborn's airway clear.

Signs that precede labor include: (Select all that apply.) a. lightening. b. exhaustion. c. bloody show. d. rupture of membranes. e. decreased fetal movement.

a. lightening. c. bloody show. d. rupture of membranes.

The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located: a. over the uterine fundus. b. on the fetal scalp. c. inside the uterus. d. over the mother's lower abdomen.

a. over the uterine fundus.

The reported incidence of ectopic pregnancy in the United States has risen steadily over the past two decades. Causes include the increase in STDs accompanied by tubal infection and damage. The popularity of contraceptive devices such as the IUD has also increased the risk for ectopic pregnancy. The nurse who suspects that a patient has early signs of ectopic pregnancy should be observing her for symptoms such as: (Select all that apply.) a. pelvic pain. b. abdominal pain. c. unanticipated heavy bleeding. d. vaginal spotting or light bleeding. e. missed period.

a. pelvic pain. b. abdominal pain. d. vaginal spotting or light bleeding. e. missed period.

In relation to primary and secondary powers, the maternity nurse comprehends that: a. primary powers are responsible for effacement and dilation of the cervix. b. effacement generally is well ahead of dilation in women giving birth for the first time; they are closer together in subsequent pregnancies. c. scarring of the cervix caused by a previous infection or surgery may make the delivery a bit more painful, but it should not slow or inhibit dilation. d. pushing in the second stage of labor is more effective if the woman can breathe deeply and control some of her involuntary needs to push, as the nurse directs.

a. primary powers are responsible for effacement and dilation of the cervix.

The nurse providing newborn stabilization must be aware that the primary side effect of maternal narcotic analgesia in the newborn is: a. respiratory depression. b. bradycardia. c. acrocyanosis. d. tachypnea.

a. respiratory depression.

Induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is in the best interest to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse in the labor and delivery unit is often asked to schedule patients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction. These include: (Select all that apply.) a. rupture of membranes at or near term. b. convenience of the woman or her physician. c. chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac). d. postterm pregnancy. e. fetal death.

a. rupture of membranes at or near term. c. chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac). d. postterm pregnancy. e. fetal death.

Nurses should be aware of the differences experience can make in labor pain such as: a. sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labor. b. affective pain for nulliparous women usually is less than for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labor. c. women with a history of substance abuse experience more pain during labor. d. multiparous women have more fatigue from labor and therefore experience more pain.

a. sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labor.

A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly. The purpose of this pharmacologic treatment is to: a. stimulate fetal surfactant production. b. reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration. c. suppress uterine contractions. d. maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy

a. stimulate fetal surfactant production.

The perinatal nurse caring for the after birth woman understands that late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is most likely caused by: a. subinvolution of the placental site. b. defective vascularity of the decidua. c. cervical lacerations. d. coagulation disorders.

a. subinvolution of the placental site.

A woman gave birth to a 7-lb, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal, and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was approximately 1500 mL. When assessing the woman's vital signs, the nurse would be concerned to see: a. temperature 37.9° C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50. b. temperature 37.4° C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68. c. temperature 38° C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80. d. temperature 36.8° C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90.

a. temperature 37.9° C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50.

A means of controlling the birth of the fetal head with a vertex presentation is: a. the Ritgen maneuver. b. fundal pressure. c. the lithotomy position. d. the De Lee apparatus.

a. the Ritgen maneuver.

When using intermittent auscultation (IA) to assess uterine activity, the nurse should be cognizant that: a. the examiner's hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions. b. the frequency and duration of contractions is measured in seconds for consistency. c. contraction intensity is given a judgment number of 1 to 7 by the nurse and patient together. d. the resting tone between contractions is described as either placid or turbulent.

a. the examiner's hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions.

To help patients manage discomfort and pain during labor, nurses should be aware that: a. the predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen. b. referred pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions. c. the somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue. d. pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.

a. the predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by: a. the response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs). b. maternal pain control. c. accelerations in the FHR. d. an FHR above 110 beats/min

a. the response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs).

With regard to a woman's intake and output during labor, nurses should be aware that: a. the tradition of restricting the laboring woman to clear liquids and ice chips is being challenged because regional anesthesia is used more often than general anesthesia. b. intravenous (IV) fluids usually are necessary to ensure that the laboring woman stays hydrated. c. routine use of an enema empties the rectum and is very helpful for producing a clean, clear delivery. d. when a nulliparous woman experiences the urge to defecate, it often means birth will follow quickly.

a. the tradition of restricting the laboring woman to clear liquids and ice chips is being challenged because regional anesthesia is used more often than general anesthesia.

The perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period. Assessment reveals that the woman is experiencing profuse bleeding. The most likely etiology for the bleeding is: a. uterine atony. b. uterine inversion. c. vaginal hematoma. d. vaginal laceration.

a. uterine atony.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: a. variable decelerations. b. late decelerations. c. fetal bradycardia. d. fetal tachycardia.

a. variable decelerations.

The class of drugs known as opioid analgesics (butorphanol, nalbuphine) is not suitable for administration to women with known opioid dependence. The antagonistic activity could precipitate withdrawal symptoms (abstinence syndrome) in both mothers and newborns. Signs of opioid/narcotic withdrawal in the mother would include: (Select all that apply.) a. yawning, runny nose. b. increase in appetite. c. chills and hot flashes. d. constipation. e. irritability, restlessness.

a. yawning, runny nose. c. chills and hot flashes. e. irritability, restlessness.

A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1° C, pulse rate of 96 beats/min, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for: a. hydralazine. b. magnesium sulfate bolus. c. diazepam. d. calcium gluconate.

a..

A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1 is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure? a. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity b. Ultrasound for placental location c. Contraction stress test (CST) d. Internal fetal monitoring

b.

An abortion in which the fetus dies but is retained within the uterus is called a(n): a. inevitable abortion. b. missed abortion. c. incomplete abortion. d. threatened abortion.

b.

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is: a. bleeding. b. intense abdominal pain. c. uterine activity. d. cramping.

b.

The patient that you are caring for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. You become concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits: a. a sleepy, sedated affect. b. a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. c. deep tendon reflexes of 2. d. absent ankle clonus.

b.

Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean section? a. Partial abruptio placentae b. Total placenta previa c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Eclampsia

b.

A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant expresses fear about her impending labor and how she will manage. The nurse's best response is: a. "Don't worry about it. You'll do fine." b. "It's normal to be anxious about labor. Let's discuss what makes you afraid." c. "Labor is scary to think about, but the actual experience isn't." d. "You can have an epidural. You won't feel anything."

b. "It's normal to be anxious about labor. Let's discuss what makes you afraid."

Which statement by a newly delivered woman indicates that she knows what to expect about her menstrual activity after childbirth? a. "My first menstrual cycle will be lighter than normal and then will get heavier every month thereafter." b. "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles." c. "I will not have a menstrual cycle for 6 months after childbirth." d. "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and then will be light for several months after."

b. "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles."

A first-time mother is concerned about the type of medications she will receive during labor. She is in a fair amount of pain and is nauseous. In addition, she appears to be very anxious. You explain that opioid analgesics are often used with sedatives because: a. "The two together work the best for you and your baby." b. "Sedatives help the opioid work better, and they also will assist you to relax and relieve your nausea." c. "They work better together so you can sleep until you have the baby." d. "This is what the doctor has ordered for you."

b. "Sedatives help the opioid work better, and they also will assist you to relax and relieve your nausea."

A new patient and her partner arrive in the labor, delivery, recovery, and after birth unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby's heart rate should be. Your best response is: a. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job." b. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." c. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are." d. "Your doctor will explain all of that later."

b. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor."

Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains? a. A woman who experienced oligohydramnios b. A woman who is a gravida 4, para 4-0-0-4 c. A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant d. A woman whose infant weighed 5 lbs, 3 ounces

b. A woman who is a gravida 4, para 4-0-0-4

Which woman is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? a. A primiparous woman (G 2 P 1 0 0 1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress. b. A woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate and whose labor is being induced. c. A multiparous woman (G 3 P 2 0 0 2) with an 8-hour labor. d. A primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins.

b. A woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate and whose labor is being induced.

A patient whose cervix is dilated to 5 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor? a. Latent phase b. Active phase c. Second stage d. Third stage

b. Active phase

Nurses can help their patients by keeping them informed about the distinctive stages of labor. Which description of the phases of the first stage of labor is accurate? a. Latent: Mild, regular contractions; no dilation; bloody show; duration of 2 to 4 hours b. Active: Moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; duration of 3 to 6 hours c. Lull: No contractions; dilation stable; duration of 20 to 60 minutes d. Transition: Very strong but irregular contractions; 8- to 10-cm dilation; duration of 1 to 2 hours

b. Active: Moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; duration of 3 to 6 hours

A woman delivered a 9-lb, 10-ounce baby 1 hour ago. When you arrive to perform her 15-minute assessment, she tells you that she "feels all wet underneath." You discover that both pads are completely saturated and that she is lying in a 6-inch-diameter puddle of blood. What is your first action? a. Call for help. b. Assess the fundus for firmness. c. Take her blood pressure. d. Check the perineum for lacerations.

b. Assess the fundus for firmness.

A tiered system of categorizing FHR has been recommended by regulatory agencies. Nurses, midwives, and physicians who care for women in labor must have a working knowledge of fetal monitoring standards and understand the significance of each category. These categories include: (Select all that apply.) a. reassuring. b. Category I. c. Category II. d. nonreassuring. e. Category III.

b. Category I. c. Category II. e. Category III.

To teach patients about the process of labor adequately, the nurse knows that which event is the best indicator of true labor? a. Bloody show b. Cervical dilation and effacement c. Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet d. Uterine contractions every 7 minutes

b. Cervical dilation and effacement

The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum should expect that initial treatment to involve: a. corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. b. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. c. an antiemetic, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting. d. enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits

b. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

For women who have a history of sexual abuse, a number of traumatic memories may be triggered during labor. The woman may fight the labor process and react with pain or anger. Alternately, she may become a passive player and emotionally absent herself from the process. The nurse is in a unique position of being able to assist the patient to associate the sensations of labor with the process of childbirth and not the past abuse. The nurse can implement a number of care measures to help the patient view the childbirth experience in a positive manner. Which intervention would be key for the nurse to use while providing care? a. Telling the patient to relax and that it won't hurt much. b. Limiting the number of procedures that invade her body. c. Reassuring the patient that as the nurse you know what is best. d. Allowing unlimited care providers to be with the patient.

b. Limiting the number of procedures that invade her body.

. Which statement is the best rationale for assessing maternal vital signs between contractions? a. During a contraction, assessing fetal heart rates is the priority. b. Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions. c. Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions. d. Vital signs taken during contractions are not accurate

b. Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions.

Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan to assist the patient in recognizing early signs of complications? a. Palpate the fundus daily to ensure that it is soft. b. Notify the physician of any increase in the amount of lochia or a return to bright red bleeding. c. Report any decrease in the amount of brownish red lochia. d. The passage of clots as large as an orange can be expected.

b. Notify the physician of any increase in the amount of lochia or a return to bright red bleeding.

Maternal hypotension is a potential side effect of regional anesthesia and analgesia. What nursing interventions could you use to raise the patient's blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the woman in a supine position. b. Place the woman in a lateral position. c. Increase intravenous (IV) fluids. d. Administer oxygen. e. Perform a vaginal examination

b. Place the woman in a lateral position. c. Increase intravenous (IV) fluids. d. Administer oxygen.

What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken. a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask. c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask.

b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask.

The nurse, caring for a patient whose labor is being augmented with oxytocin, recognizes that the oxytocin should be discontinued immediately if there is evidence of: a. uterine contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes. b. a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability. c. the patient's needing to void. d. rupture of the patient's amniotic membranes.

b. a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability.

During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have: a. bradycardia. b. a normal baseline heart rate. c. tachycardia. d. hypoxia.

b. a normal baseline heart rate.

The role of the nurse with regard to informed consent is to: a. inform the patient about the procedure and have her sign the consent form. b. act as a patient advocate and help clarify the procedure and the options. c. call the physician to see the patient. d. witness the signing of the consent form.

b. act as a patient advocate and help clarify the procedure and the options.

With regard to the after birth uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. at the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g. b. after 2 weeks after birth it should not be palpable abdominally. c. after 2 weeks after birth it weighs 100 g. d. it returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks after birth

b. after 2 weeks after birth it should not be palpable abdominally.

Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that: a. the placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus. b. an expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications. c. it is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface. d. the major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.

b. an expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications.

With regard to systemic analgesics administered during labor, nurses should be aware that: a. systemic analgesics cross the maternal blood-brain barrier as easily as they do the fetal blood-brain barrier. b. effects on the fetus and newborn can include decreased alertness and delayed sucking. c. intramuscular (IM) administration is preferred over intravenous (IV) administration. d. IV patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) results in increased use of an analgesic.

b. effects on the fetus and newborn can include decreased alertness and delayed sucking.

A woman gave birth to a 7-lb, 3-ounce infant boy 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the woman's bladder is distended because her fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate after birth period, the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distention is: a. urinary tract infection. b. excessive uterine bleeding. c. a ruptured bladder. d. bladder wall atony.

b. excessive uterine bleeding.

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are: a. contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history. b. fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth. c. identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and her support person. d. last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.

b. fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth.

Through vaginal examination the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated, and the external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every 3.5 to 4 minutes. The nurse would report this as: a. first stage, latent phase. b. first stage, active phase. c. first stage, transition phase. d. second stage, latent phase.

b. first stage, active phase.

If an opioid antagonist is administered to a laboring woman, she should be told that: a. her pain will decrease. b. her pain will return. c. she will feel less anxious. d. she will no longer feel the urge to push.

b. her pain will return.

A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests: a. uterine atony. b. lacerations of the genital tract. c. perineal hematoma. d. infection of the uterus.

b. lacerations of the genital tract.

The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called: a. lightening. b. molding. c. Ferguson reflex. d. Valsalva maneuver.

b. molding.

A primary nursing responsibility when caring for a woman experiencing an obstetric hemorrhage associated with uterine atony is to: a. establish venous access. b. perform fundal massage. c. prepare the woman for surgical intervention. d. catheterize the bladder.

b. perform fundal massage.

Nurses should know some basic definitions concerning preterm birth, preterm labor, and low birth weight. For instance: a. the terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably. b. preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of pregnancy. c. low birth weight is anything below 3.7 lbs. d. in the United States early in this century, preterm birth accounted for 18% to 20% of all births.

b. preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of pregnancy.

After change-of-shift report the nurse assumes care of a multiparous patient in labor. The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall, lower back, and buttocks and down her thighs. Before implementing a plan of care, the nurse should understand that this type of pain is: a. visceral. b. referred. c. somatic. d. afterpain.

b. referred.

With regard to the after birth changes and developments in a woman's cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that: a. cardiac output, the pulse rate, and stroke volume all return to prepregnancy normal values within a few hours of childbirth. b. respiratory function returns to nonpregnant levels by 6 to 8 weeks after birth. c. the lowered white blood cell count after pregnancy can lead to false-positive results on tests for infections. d. a hypercoagulable state protects the new mother from thromboembolism, especially after a cesarean birth.

b. respiratory function returns to nonpregnant levels by 6 to 8 weeks after birth.

With regard to a pregnant woman's anxiety and pain experience, nurses should be aware that: a. even mild anxiety must be treated. b. severe anxiety increases tension, which increases pain, which in turn increases fear and anxiety, and so on. c. anxiety may increase the perception of pain, but it does not affect the mechanism of labor. d. women who have had a painful labor will have learned from the experience and have less anxiety the second time because of increased familiarity.

b. severe anxiety increases tension, which increases pain, which in turn increases fear and anxiety, and so on.

After an emergency birth, the nurse encourages the woman to breastfeed her newborn. The primary purpose of this activity is to: a. facilitate maternal-newborn interaction. b. stimulate the uterus to contract. c. prevent neonatal hypoglycemia. d. initiate the lactation cycle.

b. stimulate the uterus to contract.

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to: a. relieve pain. b. stimulate uterine contraction. c. prevent infection. d. facilitate rest and relaxation.

b. stimulate uterine contraction.

The nurse has received report regarding her patient in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. The nurse's interpretation of this assessment is that: a. the cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. b. the cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. c. the cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines. d. the cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

b. the cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.

The nurse should be aware that an effective plan to achieve adequate pain relief without maternal risk is most effective if: a. the mother gives birth without any analgesic or anesthetic. b. the mother and family's priorities and preferences are incorporated into the plan. c. the primary health care provider decides the best pain relief for the mother and family. d. the nurse informs the family of all alternative methods of pain relief available in the hospital setting.

b. the mother and family's priorities and preferences are incorporated into the plan.

Nurses alert to signs of the onset of the second stage of labor can be certain that this stage has begun when: a. the woman has a sudden episode of vomiting. b. the nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination. c. bloody show increases. d. the woman involuntarily bears down.

b. the nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination.

The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is the: a. amount of cervical dilation. b. total duration of labor. c. level of pain experienced. d. sequence of labor mechanisms.

b. total duration of labor.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. fetal hypoxemia.

b. umbilical cord compression.

With regard to dysfunctional labor, nurses should be aware that: a. women who are underweight are more at risk. b. women experiencing precipitous labor are about the only "dysfunctionals" not to be exhausted. c. hypertonic uterine dysfunction is more common than hypotonic dysfunction. d. abnormal labor patterns are most common in older women.

b. women experiencing precipitous labor are about the only "dysfunctionals" not to be exhausted.

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs are an indication of: a. anxiety due to hospitalization. b. worsening disease and impending convulsion. c. effects of magnesium sulfate. d. gastrointestinal upset.

b. worsening disease and impending convulsion.

Complications and risks associated with cesarean births include: (Select all that apply.) a. placental abruption. b. wound dehiscence. c. hemorrhage. d. urinary tract infections. e. fetal injuries.

b. wound dehiscence. c. hemorrhage. d. urinary tract infections. e. fetal injuries.

A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3° C, pulse rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The patient complains, "I'm so thirsty and warm." The nurse: a. calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level. b. administers oxygen. c. discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion. d. prepares to administer hydralazine.

c.

A woman arrives for evaluation of her symptoms, which include a missed period, adnexal fullness, tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. On examination the nurse notices an ecchymotic blueness around the woman's umbilicus and recognizes this assessment finding as: a. normal integumentary changes associated with pregnancy. b. Turner's sign associated with appendicitis. c. Cullen's sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. d. Chadwick's sign associated with early pregnancy.

c.

A woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion? a. Incomplete b. Inevitable c. Threatened d. Septic

c.

In providing nutritional counseling for the pregnant woman experiencing cholecystitis, the nurse would: a. assess the woman's dietary history for adequate calories and proteins. b. instruct the woman that the bulk of calories should come from proteins. c. instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and avoid fried foods. d. instruct the woman to eat a low-cholesterol, low-salt diet.

c.

Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to: a. improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency. b. shorten the duration of labor. c. prevent and treat convulsions. d. prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow.

c.

Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication? a. Complete hydatidiform mole b. Missed abortion c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy d. Abruptio placentae

c.

Nurses should be aware that HELLP syndrome: a. is a mild form of preeclampsia. b. can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms. c. is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. d. is associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality.

c.

Which condition indicates concealed hemorrhage when the patient experiences an abruptio placentae? a. Decrease in abdominal pain b. Bradycardia c. Hard, board-like abdomen d. Decrease in fundal height

c.

The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states: a. "I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning." b. "My bag of waters just broke." c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together." d. "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now."

c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together."

Changes in blood volume after childbirth depend on several factors such as blood loss during childbirth and the amount of extravascular water (physiologic edema) mobilized and excreted. A after birth nurse anticipates blood loss of: (Select all that apply.) a. 100 mL. b. 250 mL or less. c. 300 to 500 mL. d. 500 to 1000 mL. e. 1500 mL or greater.

c. 300 to 500 mL. d. 500 to 1000 mL.

At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infant's trunk is pink, but the hands and feet are blue. What is the correct Apgar score for this infant? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10

c. 9

A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. Two hours ago her vaginal examination revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced, and the presenting part was at station 0. Five minutes ago her vaginal examination indicated that there had been no change. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description? a. Prolonged latent phase b. Protracted active phase c. Arrest of active phase d. Protracted descent

c. Arrest of active phase

Which description of the phases of the second stage of labor is accurate? a. Latent phase: Feeling sleepy, fetal station 2+ to 4+, duration 30 to 45 minutes b. Active phase: Overwhelmingly strong contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, duration 5 to 15 minutes c. Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, average duration varied d. Transitional phase: Woman "laboring down," fetal station 0, duration 15 minutes

c. Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, average duration varied

Which action is correct when palpation is used to assess the characteristics and pattern of uterine contractions? a. Place the hand on the abdomen below the umbilicus and palpate uterine tone with the fingertips. b. Determine the frequency by timing from the end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction. c. Evaluate the intensity by pressing the fingertips into the uterine fundus. d. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes throughout the first stage of labor

c. Evaluate the intensity by pressing the fingertips into the uterine fundus.

Which documentation on a woman's chart on after birth day 14 indicates a normal involution process? a. Moderate bright red lochial flow b. Breasts firm and tender c. Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable d. Episiotomy slightly red and puffy

c. Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable

A laboring woman received an opioid agonist (meperidine) intravenously 90 minutes before she gave birth. Which medication should be available to reduce the postnatal effects of Demerol on the neonate? a. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) b. Promethazine (Phenergan) c. Naloxone (Narcan) d. Nalbuphine (Nubain)

c. Naloxone (Narcan)

The baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) is the average rate during a 10-minute segment. Changes in FHR are categorized as periodic or episodic. These patterns include both accelerations and decelerations. The labor nurse is evaluating the patient's most recent 10-minute segment on the monitor strip and notes a late deceleration. This is likely to be caused by which physiologic alteration? (Select all that apply.) a. Spontaneous fetal movement b. Compression of the fetal head c. Placental abruption d. Cord around the baby's neck e. Maternal supine hypotension

c. Placental abruption e. Maternal supine hypotension

Which hormone remains elevated in the immediate after birth period of the breastfeeding woman? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Human placental lactogen

c. Prolactin

When assessing the fetus using Leopold maneuvers, the nurse feels a round, firm, movable fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus and a long, smooth surface in the mother's right side close to midline. What is the likely position of the fetus? a. ROA b. LSP c. RSA d. LOA

c. RSA

A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor? a. She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b. She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d. She is experiencing pelvic dystocia.

c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.

It is paramount for the obstetric nurse to understand the regulatory procedures and criteria for admitting a woman to the hospital labor unit. Which guideline is an important legal requirement of maternity care? a. The patient is not considered to be in true labor (according to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act [EMTALA]) until a qualified health care provider says she is. b. The woman can have only her male partner or predesignated "doula" with her at assessment. c. The patient's weight gain is calculated to determine whether she is at greater risk for cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) and cesarean birth. d. The nurse may exchange information about the patient with family members

c. The patient's weight gain is calculated to determine whether she is at greater risk for cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) and cesarean birth.

What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? a. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate. b. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs). c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. d. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.

c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor.

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction.

c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction.

c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.

According to standard professional thinking, nurses should auscultate the fetal heart rate (FHR): a. every 15 minutes in the active phase of the first stage of labor in the absence of risk factors. b. every 20 minutes in the second stage, regardless of whether risk factors are present. c. before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes. d. more often in a woman's first pregnancy

c. before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes.

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions. The nurse evaluates the woman's understanding of the instructions when she states, "True labor contractions will: a. subside when I walk around." b. cause discomfort over the top of my uterus." c. continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower." d. remain irregular but become stronger."

c. continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower."

The maternity nurse understands that as the uterus contracts during labor, maternal-fetal exchange of oxygen and waste products: a. continues except when placental functions are reduced. b. increases as blood pressure decreases. c. diminishes as the spiral arteries are compressed. d. is not significantly affected.

c. diminishes as the spiral arteries are compressed

The least common cause of long, difficult, or abnormal labor (dystocia) is: a. midplane contracture of the pelvis. b. compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication. c. disproportion of the pelvis. d. low-lying placenta.

c. disproportion of the pelvis.

A nulliparous woman who has just begun the second stage of her labor would most likely: a. experience a strong urge to bear down. b. show perineal bulging. c. feel tired yet relieved that the worst is over. d. show an increase in bright red bloody show.

c. feel tired yet relieved that the worst is over.

As relates to the condition and reconditioning of the urinary system after childbirth, nurses should be aware that: a. kidney function returns to normal a few days after birth. b. diastasis recti abdominis is a common condition that alters the voiding reflex. c. fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight loss of more than 2 kg during the puerperium. d. with adequate emptying of the bladder, bladder tone usually is restored 2 to 3 weeks after childbirth.

c. fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight loss of more than 2 kg during the puerperium.

While providing care to a patient in active labor, the nurse should instruct the woman that: a. the supine position commonly used in the United States increases blood flow. b. the "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back. c. frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort. d. in a sitting or squatting position, her abdominal muscles will have to work harder.

c. frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort.

When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features, one of the main concerns is that she may: a. have outbursts of anger. b. neglect her hygiene. c. harm her infant. d. lose interest in her husband.

c. harm her infant.

Because the risk for childbirth complications may be revealed, nurses should know that the point of maximal intensity (PMI) of the fetal heart tone (FHT) is: a. usually directly over the fetal abdomen. b. in a vertex position heard above the mother's umbilicus. c. heard lower and closer to the midline of the mother's abdomen as the fetus descends and rotates internally. d. in a breech position heard below the mother's umbilicus.

c. heard lower and closer to the midline of the mother's abdomen as the fetus descends and rotates internally.

As relates to the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity, nurses should be aware that: a. the drugs can be given efficaciously up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks. b. there are no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications. c. its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids. d. if the patient develops pulmonary edema while receiving tocolytics, intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.

c. its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids.

Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early after birth period is: a. elevated temperature caused by after birth infection. b. increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth. c. loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy. d. increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.

c. loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate may be caused by: a. narcotics. b. barbiturates. c. methamphetamines. d. tranquilizers.

c. methamphetamines

The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion is: a. measuring urinary output. b. increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes. c. monitoring uterine response. d. evaluating cervical dilation.

c. monitoring uterine response.

With regard to after birth pains, nurses should be aware that these pains are: a. caused by mild, continuous contractions for the duration of the after birth period. b. more common in first-time mothers. c. more noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended. d. alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds.

c. more noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended.

The first and most important nursing intervention when a nurse observes profuse after birth bleeding is to: a. call the woman's primary health care provider. b. administer the standing order for an oxytocic. c. palpate the uterus and massage it if it is boggy. d. assess maternal blood pressure and pulse for signs of hypovolemic shock

c. palpate the uterus and massage it if it is boggy.

If the patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 25,000/mm on her second after birth day, the nurse should: a. tell the physician immediately. b. have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis. c. recognize that this is an acceptable range at this point after birth. d. begin antibiotic therapy immediately

c. recognize that this is an acceptable range at this point after birth.

The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to: a. stimulate crying and lung expansion. b. remove maternal blood from the skin surface. c. reduce heat loss from evaporation. d. increase blood supply to the hands and feet.

c. reduce heat loss from evaporation.

Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to: a. enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta. b. increase amniotic fluid volume. c. ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. d. stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.

c. ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.

With regard to the turns and other adjustments of the fetus during the birth process, known as the mechanism of labor, nurses should be aware that: a. the seven critical movements must progress in a more or less orderly sequence. b. asynclitism sometimes is achieved by means of the Leopold maneuver. c. the effects of the forces determining descent are modified by the shape of the woman's pelvis and the size of the fetal head. d. at birth the baby is said to achieve "restitution" (i.e., a return to the C-shape of the womb).

c. the effects of the forces determining descent are modified by the shape of the woman's pelvis and the size of the fetal head.

With regard to factors that affect how the fetus moves through the birth canal, nurses should be aware that: a. the fetal attitude describes the angle at which the fetus exits the uterus. b. of the two primary fetal lies, the horizontal lie is that in which the long axis of the fetus is parallel to the long axis of the mother. c. the normal attitude of the fetus is called general flexion. d. the transverse lie is preferred for vaginal birth.

c. the normal attitude of the fetus is called general flexion.

The nurse knows that the second stage of labor, the descent phase, has begun when: a. the amniotic membranes rupture. b. the cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination. c. the woman experiences a strong urge to bear down. d. the presenting part is below the ischial spines.

c. the woman experiences a strong urge to bear down.

A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. On physical examination the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. The nurse should suspect __________ and should confirm the diagnosis by ___________. a. disseminated intravascular coagulation; asking for laboratory tests b. von Willebrand disease; noting whether bleeding times have been extended c. thrombophlebitis; using real-time and color Doppler ultrasound d. coagulopathies; drawing blood for laboratory analysis

c. thrombophlebitis; using real-time and color Doppler ultrasound

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in: a. early decelerations. b. fetal dysrhythmias. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes.

c. uteroplacental insufficiency.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of: a. altered cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. meconium fluid.

c. uteroplacental insufficiency.

A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is more commonly known as: a. total. b. partial. c. complete. d. marginal.

d.

A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of: a. eclamptic seizure. b. rupture of the uterus. c. placenta previa. d. placental abruption.

d.

As related to the care of the patient with miscarriage, nurses should be aware that: a. it is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins. b. it occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies. c. it often can be attributed to careless maternal behavior such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise. d. if it occurs before the 12th week of pregnancy, it may manifest only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.

d.

Nurses should be aware that chronic hypertension: a. is defined as hypertension that begins during pregnancy and lasts for the duration of pregnancy. b. is considered severe when the systolic blood pressure (BP) is greater than 140 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg. c. is general hypertension plus proteinuria. d. can occur independently of or simultaneously with gestational hypertension.

d.

Childbirth may result in injuries to the vagina and uterus. Pelvic floor exercises also known as Kegel exercises will help to strengthen the perineal muscles and encourage healing. The nurse knows that the patient understands the correct process for completing these conditioning exercises when she reports: a. "I contract my thighs, buttocks, and abdomen." b. "I do 10 of these exercises every day." c. "I stand while practicing this new exercise routine." d. "I pretend that I am trying to stop the flow of urine midstream."

d. "I pretend that I am trying to stop the flow of urine midstream."

Which collection of risk factors most likely would result in damaging lacerations (including episiotomies)? a. A dark-skinned woman who has had more than one pregnancy, who is going through prolonged second-stage labor, and who is attended by a midwife. b. A reddish-haired mother of two who is going through a breech birth. c. A dark-skinned, first-time mother who is going through a long labor. d. A first-time mother with reddish hair whose rapid labor was overseen by an obstetrician.

d. A first-time mother with reddish hair whose rapid labor was overseen by an obstetrician.

Which condition is a transient, self-limiting mood disorder that affects new mothers after childbirth? a. After birth depression b. After birth psychosis c. After birth bipolar disorder d. After birth blues

d. After birth blues

Which method of pain management is safest for a gravida 3 para 2 admitted at 8 cm cervical dilation? a. Epidural anesthesia b. Narcotics c. Spinal block d. Breathing and relaxation techniques

d. Breathing and relaxation techniques

If nonsurgical treatment for late after birth hemorrhage is ineffective, which surgical procedure is appropriate to correct the cause of this condition? a. Hysterectomy b. Laparoscopy c. Laparotomy d. D&C

d. D&C

Which condition, not uncommon in pregnancy, is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium? a. Varicosities of the legs b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers d. Headaches

d. Headaches

Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement b. Early decelerations c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min d. Late decelerations

d. Late decelerations

Which statement correctly describes the effects of various pain factors? a. Higher prostaglandin levels arising from dysmenorrhea can blunt the pain of childbirth. b. Upright positions in labor increase the pain factor because they cause greater fatigue. c. Women who move around trying different positions are experiencing more pain. d. Levels of pain-mitigating -endorphins are higher during a spontaneous, natural childbirth.

d. Levels of pain-mitigating -endorphins are higher during a spontaneous, natural childbirth.

A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman? a. Lochia rubra b. Lochia sangra c. Lochia alba d. Lochia serosa

d. Lochia serosa

Which maternal event is abnormal in the early after birth period? a. Diuresis and diaphoresis b. Flatulence and constipation c. Extreme hunger and thirst d. Lochial color changes from rubra to alba

d. Lochial color changes from rubra to alba

You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your patient, who is in active labor. Suddenly you see the fetal heart rate (FHR) drop from its baseline of 125 beats/min down to 80 beats/min. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and perform a vaginal examination. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the fetal heart rate remains in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take? a. Call for staff assistance. b. Insert a Foley catheter. c. Start Pitocin. d. Notify the care provider immediately.

d. Notify the care provider immediately.

Which assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation? a. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid b. Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus c. Preterm labor and birth d. Postterm gestation

d. Postterm gestation

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. What finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

The nurse practicing in a labor setting knows that the woman most at risk for uterine rupture is: a. a gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births. b. a gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for delivery of a 10-lb infant. c. a gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and two cesarean births. d. a gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births.

d. a gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births.

In documenting labor experiences, nurses should know that a uterine contraction is described according to all these characteristics except: a. frequency (how often contractions occur). b. intensity (the strength of the contraction at its peak). c. resting tone (the tension in the uterine muscle). d. appearance (shape and height).

d. appearance (shape and height).

When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor, the nurse initially should: a. tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture. b. emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop. c. arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation. d. ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.

d. ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.

The obstetric nurse is preparing the patient for an emergency cesarean birth, with no time to administer spinal anesthesia. The nurse is aware and prepared for the greatest risk of administering general anesthesia to the patient. This risk is: a. respiratory depression. b. uterine relaxation. c. inadequate muscle relaxation. d. aspiration of stomach contents

d. aspiration of stomach contents

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. The nurse's initial response would be to: a. prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. notify the woman's primary health care provider. c. document the characteristics of the fluid. d. assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

d. assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses comprehend that both: a. can be used when membranes are intact. b. measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions. c. may need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring. d. can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.

d. can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.

The nurse caring for the after birth woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by: a. overproduction of colostrum. b. accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts. c. hyperplasia of mammary tissue. d. congestion of veins and lymphatics.

d. congestion of veins and lymphatics.

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. admitted for extended observation. c. discharged home with a sedative. d. discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

d. discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. admitted for extended observation. c. discharged home with a sedative. d. discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

d. discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a woman's progress in labor should: a. perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor. b. perform the examination with the woman in the supine position. c. wear two clean gloves for each examination. d. discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.

d. discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should: a. change the woman's position. b. discontinue the oxytocin infusion. c. insert an internal monitor. d. document the finding in the patient's record.

d. document the finding in the patient's record.

Maternity nurses often have to answer questions about the many, sometimes unusual ways people have tried to make the birthing experience more comfortable. For instance, nurses should be aware that: a. music supplied by the support person has to be discouraged because it could disturb others or upset the hospital routine. b. women in labor can benefit from sitting in a bathtub, but they must limit immersion to no longer than 15 minutes at a time. c. effleurage is permissible, but counterpressure is almost always counterproductive. d. electrodes attached to either side of the spine to provide high-intensity electrical impulses facilitate the release of endorphins.

d. electrodes attached to either side of the spine to provide high-intensity electrical impulses facilitate the release of endorphins.

The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is: a. altered cerebral blood flow. b. fetal hypoxemia. c. umbilical cord compression. d. fetal sleep cycles.

d. fetal sleep cycles.

For the labor nurse, care of the expectant mother begins with any or all of these situations, with the exception of: a. the onset of progressive, regular contractions. b. the bloody, or pink, show. c. the spontaneous rupture of membranes. d. formulation of the woman's plan of care for labor.

d. formulation of the woman's plan of care for labor.

In the current practice of childbirth preparation, emphasis is placed on: a. the Dick-Read (natural) childbirth method. b. the Lamaze (psychoprophylactic) method. c. the Bradley (husband-coached) method. d. having expectant parents attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method.

d. having expectant parents attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method.

A woman in the active phase of the first stage of labor is using a shallow pattern of breathing, which is about twice the normal adult breathing rate. She starts to complain about feeling light-headed and dizzy and states that her fingers are tingling. The nurse should: a. notify the woman's physician. b. tell the woman to slow the pace of her breathing. c. administer oxygen via a mask or nasal cannula. d. help her breathe into a paper bag.

d. help her breathe into a paper bag.

A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that: a. bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment. b. she will be unable to conceive in the future. c. a D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception. d. hemorrhage is the major concern.

d. hemorrhage is the major concern.

As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: a. hypotension. b. cord compression. c. maternal drug use. d. hypoxemia.

d. hypoxemia.

If a woman complains of back labor pain, the nurse could best suggest that she: a. lie on her back for a while with her knees bent. b. do less walking around. c. take some deep, cleansing breaths. d. lean over a birth ball with her knees on the floor.

d. lean over a birth ball with her knees on the floor.

The interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state is called the: a. involutionary period because of what happens to the uterus. b. lochia period because of the nature of the vaginal discharge. c. mini-tri period because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks. d. puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.

d. puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.

An 18-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 1, is admitted to the labor and birth unit with moderate contractions every 5 minutes that last 40 seconds. The woman states, "My contractions are so strong that I don't know what to do with myself." The nurse should: a. assess for fetal well-being. b. encourage the woman to lie on her side. c. disturb the woman as little as possible. d. recognize that pain is personalized for each individual

d. recognize that pain is personalized for each individual

With regard to the care management of preterm labor, nurses should be aware that: a. all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so hit-and-miss, teaching pregnant women the symptoms probably causes more harm through false alarms. b. Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor. c. preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver. d. the diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.

d. the diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.

In order to evaluate the condition of the patient accurately during labor, the nurse should be aware that: a. the woman's blood pressure will increase during contractions and fall back to prelabor normal between contractions. b. use of the Valsalva maneuver is encouraged during the second stage of labor to relieve fetal hypoxia. c. having the woman point her toes will reduce leg cramps. d. the endogenous endorphins released during labor will raise the woman's pain threshold and produce sedation

d. the endogenous endorphins released during labor will raise the woman's pain threshold and produce sedation

With regard to after birth ovarian function, nurses should be aware that: a. almost 75% of women who do not breastfeed resume menstruating within a month after birth. b. ovulation occurs slightly earlier for breastfeeding women. c. because of menstruation/ovulation schedules, contraception considerations can be postponed until after the puerperium. d. the first menstrual flow after childbirth usually is heavier than normal.

d. the first menstrual flow after childbirth usually is heavier than normal.

When using intermittent auscultation (IA) for fetal heart rate, nurses should be aware that: a. they can be expected to cover only two or three patients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment. b. the best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) when documenting results. c. if the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to EFM. d. ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor.

d. ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor.

When caring for a after birth woman experiencing hemorrhagic shock, the nurse recognizes that the most objective and least invasive assessment of adequate organ perfusion and oxygenation is: a. absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa. b. cool, dry skin. c. diminished restlessness. d. urinary output of at least 30 mL/hr.

d. urinary output of at least 30 mL/hr.