Lewis Ch. 51 & 52 STIs, Breast Disorders

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Which patient probably has the highest risk of breast cancer? A. 60 year old obese man B. 58 year old woman with sedentary lifestyle C. 55 year old woman with fibrocystic breast changes D. 65 year old woman with a sister diagnosed with breast cancer

D. After the age of 60, the incidence of breast cancer increases dramatically and advanced age is the highest risk factor for females. Ninety-nine percent of breast cancer cases occur in women. A first degree relative with breast cancer is a contributing factor for breast cancer. Genetic mutation in BRCA1, BRCA 2, p53, ATM, and CHEK2 genes may increase the risk of breast cancer. Obesity and lack of physical activity are other contributing factors. Fibrocystic breast changes are neither a precursor of breast cancer nor a known risk factor for cancer

A young male patient is seeking treatment for recurrence of genital tingling, burning, and itching. The nurse will expect a prescription for which class of medications? a. Antivirals b. Antibiotics c. Vaccination d. Contraceptives

a. Antivirals

The best prognosis is indicated in the patient with breast cancer when diagnostic studies reveal A. negative axillary lymph nodes B. aneuploid DNA tumor content C. cells with high S-phase fractions D. An estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor negative tumor

a. Axillary lymph node status is one of the most important prognostic factors in primary breast cancer, the more nodes involved, the higher the risk for relapse or metastasis. Aneuploid DNA tumor content indicates that cells have abnormally high or low DNA content compared with normal cells and is associated with tumor aggressiveness. Cells in S-Phase have higher risk for recurrence and can produce earlier cancer death. Hormone-receptor negative tumors are usually poorly differentiated histologically, frequently recur and are usually unresponsive to hormonal therapy

A patient comes to the clinic after being informed by a sexual partner of possible recent exposure to syphilis. The nurse will examine the patient for what characteristic finding of syphilis in the primary clinical stage? a. Chancre b. Alopecia c. Condylomata lata d. Regional adenopathy

a. Chancre

What should teaching for patients with a sexually transmitted infection (STI) include (select all that apply.)? a. Treatment of sexual partners b. Douching may help to provide relief of itching. c. Importance of retesting after treatment to confirm cure d. Cotton undergarments are preferred over synthetic materials. e. Sexual abstinence is indicated during the communicable phase of the disease. f. Condoms should be used during as well as after treatment during sexual activity.

a. Treatment of sexual partners c. Importance of retesting after treatment to confirm cure d. Cotton undergarments are preferred over synthetic materials. e. Sexual abstinence is indicated during the communicable phase of the disease. f. Condoms should be used during as well as after treatment during sexual activity.

A 22-yr-old man is being treated at a college health care clinic for gonorrhea. What should the nurse include in patient teaching? a. "While being treated for the infection, you will not be able to pass this infection on to your sexual partner." b. "While you're taking the antibiotics, you will need to abstain from participating in sexual activity and drinking alcohol." c. "It's important to complete your full course of antibiotics in order to ensure that you become resistant to reinfection." d. "The symptoms of gonorrhea will resolve on their own, but it is important for you to abstain from sexual activity while this is occurring."

b. "While you're taking the antibiotics, you will need to abstain from participating in sexual activity and drinking alcohol."

A 52-yr-old man with a primary infection of genital herpes was prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) orally for 10 days. The patient returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which finding indicates that treatment is effective? a. Negative bacterial culture b. Absence of genital lesions c. Reduction of genital warts d. No drainage from chancre sore

b. Absence of genital lesions

The patient is being treated for a recurrent episode of Chlamydia. What should the nurse include in patient teaching? a. If you are treated, your sexual partner will not need to be treated. b. Abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after finishing the treatment. c. You will probably get gonorrhea if you have another recurrence of Chlamydia. d. Because you have been treated before, you do not need to take a full course of medication this time.

b. Abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after finishing the treatment.

A 24-yr-old patient is at the clinic with symptoms of purulent vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. She is sexually active and has multiple partners. What should the nurse explain as the rationale for Chlamydia screening? a. Chlamydia is frequently comorbid with HIV. b. Chlamydial infections may progress to sepsis. c. Untreated chlamydial infections can lead to infertility. d. Chlamydial infections are treatable only in the early stages of infection.

c. Untreated chlamydial infections can lead to infertility.

The history and physical of a 29-yr-old female patient are indicative of human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. What treatment option should be discussed with the patient? a. Gardasil b. Antibiotic therapy c. Wart removal options d. Treatment with antiviral drugs

c. Wart removal options

A 30-yr-old woman reports the recent appearance of itchy lesions on her vulva, some of which have recently burst. Which STI should the nurse suspect first? a. HIV b. Gonorrhea c. Chlamydia d. Genital herpes

d. Genital herpes

What describes the use of high dose brachytherapy (select all that apply)? A. Maybe completed in 5 days B. A primary treatment after mastectomy of breast C. Alternative to traditional radiation therapy for early stage breast cancer D. Used to treat possible local residual cancer cells following a mastectomy E. Used to reduce tumor size and stabilize metastatic lesions for pain relief.

A,C High-dose bracytherapy may be completed in 5 days and is an alternative to traditional, longer-term radiation for early stage breast cancer. External radiation for ealry stage breast cancer. external radiation is a primary treatment after mastectomy for breast cancer. Radiation as an adjuvant to surgery is used to treat possible residual cancer cells postmastectomy. Pallative radiation is used to reduce tumor size and relieve pain.

Which benign breast disorder occurs most often during lactation and is commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus? A. Mastitis B. Ductal ectasia C. Fibroadenoma D. Senescent gynecomastia

A. Mastitis occurs during lactation and is usually caused by Staph Aureus. Ductal ectasia involves subareolar area ducts and multicolored sticky nipple discharge and inflammatory signs. It is not associated with malignancy. Firbroadenam is the most common cause of benign breast lumps in women under 25 years of age and may because by increased estrogen sensitivity. A biopsy must be done to exclude malignancy. Senescent gynecmastia occurs in older men, probably from increased conversion of androgens to estrogen in peripheral circulation. It generally regress in 6 to 12 months

When teaching a 24-year-old woman desires to learn BSE, the nurses knows that it is important to do what? A. Provide time for a return demonstration. B. Emphasize the statistics related to breast cancer survival and mortality C. Have the woman set a consistent monthly date for performing the examination. D. Inform the woman that professional examinations are not necessary unless she finds an abnormality.

A. One of the major reasons why women do not examine their breast regularly is because of lack of confidence in BSE skill. A teaching program should include allowing time for women to ask questions and perform a return demonstration of the examination on themselves. Fear and denial often interferes with BSE even when women know that the perceived risk for cancer is high, know the statistics, and know that they should be done right after the menstrual period and specific dates are set for postmenstural women or those who have had hysterectomies.

A patient with a positive breast biopsy tells the nurse that she read about tamoxifen on the Internet and asks about its use. The best response by the nurse includes which information? A. Tamoxifen is the treatment of choice if the tumor has receptors for estrogen on its cells. B. Tamoxifen is the primary treatment of choice if the tumor has receptors for estrogen on its cell. C. Tamoxifen is used only to prevent the development of new primary tumors in women with high risk for breast cancer. D. Because tamoxifen has been shown to increase the risk for uterine cancer, it is used only when other treatment has not been successful.

A. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen agent that blocks the estrogen-receptor sites malignant cells and is the usual first choice of treatment in women with hormone receptor-positive tumors, with or without nodal involvement. Tamoxifen reduces the risk for recurrent breast cancer and also that for new primary tumors. The side effects of the drug are minimal and are the commonly associated with decreased estrogen

A patient undergoing a modified radical mastectomy for cancer of the breast is going to use tissue expansion and an implant for breast reconstruction. What should the nurse teach the patient about tissue expansion? A. Weekly injections of sterile saline into the expander will be required B. The expander cannot be placed until healing from the mastectomy is complete C. This method of breast reconstruction uses patient's own tissue to replace breast tissue D. The nipple from the affected breast will be saved to be grafted onto the reconstructed breast.

A. When an expander is used to stretch the skin and muscle at the mastectomy site, the expander is gradually increased in size by weekly injections of sterile saline until the site is larger enough for an implant to be inserted or remains in place to become the implant. Placement of the expander can be at the time of mastectomy or at a later date. An autologous tissue flap procedure is a type of the affected breast is removed at mastectomy, and a new nipple can be reconstructed after breast reconstruction from various normal tissue.

Which infection, reported in the health history of a woman who is having difficulty conceiving, will the nurse identify as a risk factor for infertility? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Treponema pallidum c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Herpes simplex virus type 2

ANS: A Complications of gonorrhea include scarring of the fallopian tubes, which can lead to tubal pregnancies and infertility. Syphilis, genital warts, and genital herpes do not lead to problems with conceiving, although transmission to the fetus (syphilis) or newborn (genital warts or genital herpes) is a concern

Which patient will the nurse plan on teaching about the Gardasil vaccine? a. A 24-year-old female who has not been sexually active b. A 34-year-old woman who has multiple sexual partners c. A 19-year-old woman who is pregnant for the first time d. A 29-year-old woman who is in a monogamous relationship

ANS: A Gardasil is recommended for females ages 9 through 26, preferably those who have never been sexually active. It is not recommended for women during pregnancy or for older women

A 46-year-old man who has had blood drawn for an insurance screening has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about past treatment for syphilis. b. Explain the need for blood and spinal fluid cultures. c. Obtain a specimen for fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) testing. d. Assess for the presence of chancres, flulike symptoms, or a bilateral rash on the trunk.

ANS: A Once antibody testing is positive for syphilis, the antibodies remain present for an indefinite period of time even after successful treatment, so the nurse should inquire about previous treatment before doing other assessments or testing. Culture, FAT-Abs testing, and assessment for symptoms may be appropriate, based on whether the patient has been previously treated for syphilis

A 29-year-old female patient is diagnosed with Chlamydia during a routine pelvic examination. The nurse knows that teaching regarding the management of the condition has been effective when the patient says which of the following? a. "My partner will need to take antibiotics at the same time I do." b. "Go ahead and give me the antibiotic injection, so I will be cured." c. "I will use condoms during sex until I finish taking all the antibiotics." d. "I do not plan on having children, so treating the infection is not important."

ANS: A Sex partners should be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection. Chlamydia is treated with oral antibiotics. Abstinence from sexual intercourse is recommended for 7 days after treatment, and condoms should be recommended during all sexual contacts to prevent infection. Chronic pelvic pain, as well as infertility, can result from untreated Chlamydia

A 20-year-old woman who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual physical exam reports being sexually active. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. testing for Chlamydia infection. b. immunization for herpes simplex. c. infertility associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). d. the relationship between the herpes virus and cervical cancer.

ANS: A Testing for Chlamydia is recommended for all sexually active females under age 25 by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. HPV infection does not cause infertility. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex, and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer

A 19-year-old patient has genital warts around her external genitalia and perianal area. She tells the nurse that she has not sought treatment until now because "the warts are so disgusting." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Disturbed body image related to feelings about the genital warts b. Ineffective coping related to denial of increased risk for infection c. Risk for infection related to lack of knowledge about transmission d. Anxiety related to impact of condition on interpersonal relationships

ANS: A The patient's statement that her lesions are disgusting suggests that disturbed body image is the major concern. There is no evidence to indicate ineffective coping or lack of knowledge about mode of transmission. The patient may be experiencing anxiety, but there is nothing in the data indicating that the genital warts are impacting interpersonal relationships.

8. Which infection, reported in the health history of a female patient who is having difficulty conceiving, will the nurse identify as a risk factor for infertility? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Treponema pallidum c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Herpes simplex virus type 2

15. Which patient will the nurse plan on teaching about the Gardasil vaccine? a. A 24-yr-old female patient who has not been sexually active b. A 34-yr-old female patient who has multiple sexual partners c. A 24-yr-old female patient who is pregnant for the first time d. A 34-yr-old female patient who is in a monogamous relationship

ANS: A Gardasil is recommended for female patients ages 9 through 26 years, preferably those who have never been sexually active. It is not recommended for women during pregnancy or for older women.

17. To evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which laboratory test result will the nurse review? a. Viral load testing c. Rapid HIV antibody testing b. Enzyme immunoassay d. Immunofluorescence assay

ANS: A The effectiveness of ART is measured by the decrease in the amount of virus detectable in the blood. The other tests are used to detect HIV antibodies, which remain positive even with effective ART.

1. The nurse is advising a clinic patient who was exposed a week ago to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) through unprotected sexual intercourse. The patient's antigen and antibody test has just been reported as negative for HIV. What instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. "You will need to be retested in 2 weeks." b. "You do not need to fear infecting others." c. "Since you don't have symptoms and you have had a negative test, you do not have HIV)." d. "We won't know for years if you will develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."

ANS: A HIV screening tests detect HIV-specific antibodies or antigens, but typically it takes a several week delay after initial infection before HIV can be detected on a screening test. Combination antibody and antigen tests (also known as fourth-generation tests) decrease the window period to within 3 weeks after infection. It is not known based on this information whether the patient is infected with HIV or can infect others.

12. A 29-yr-old female patient is diagnosed with Chlamydia during a routine pelvic examination. The nurse knows that teaching regarding the management of the condition has been effective when the patient says which of the following? a. "My partner will need to take antibiotics at the same time I do." b. "Go ahead and give me the antibiotic injection, so I will be cured." c. "I will use condoms during sex until I finish taking all the antibiotics." d. "I do not plan on having children, so treating the infection is not important."

2. A 20-yr-old female patient who is being seen in the family medicine clinic for an annual physical examination reports being sexually active. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. testing for Chlamydia infection. b. immunization for herpes simplex. c. infertility associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). d. the relationship between the herpes virus and cervical cancer.

ANS: A Testing for Chlamydia is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for all sexually active women younger than age 25 years. HPV infection does not cause infertility. There is no vaccine available for herpes simplex, and herpes simplex infection does not cause cervical cancer.

19. Eight years after seroconversion, a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient has a CD4+ cell count of 800/µL and an undetectable viral load. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? a. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep. b. Teach about the side effects of antiretroviral agents. c. Explain opportunistic infections and antibiotic prophylaxis. d. Monitor symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

ANS: A The CD4+ level for this patient is in the normal range, indicating that the patient is the stage of asymptomatic chronic infection when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count. Maintaining healthy lifestyle behaviors is an important goal in this stage. AIDS and increased incidence of opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal. Although the initiation of ART is highly individual, it would not be likely that a patient with a normal CD4+ level would receive ART.

11. Which information about a patient population would be most useful to help the nurse plan for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing needs? a. Age c. Symptoms b. Lifestyle d. Sexual orientation

ANS: A The current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention policy is to offer routine testing for HIV to all individuals age 13 to 64 years. Although lifestyle, symptoms, and sexual orientation may suggest increased risk for HIV infection, the goal is to test all individuals in this age range.

21. An older adult with chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who takes medications for coronary artery disease and hypertension has chosen to begin early antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Many drugs interact with antiretroviral medications. b. HIV infections progress more rapidly in older adults. c. Less frequent CD4+ level monitoring is needed in older adults. d. Hospice care is available for patients with terminal HIV infection.

ANS: A The nurse will teach the patient about potential interactions between antiretrovirals and the medications that the patient is using for chronic health problems. Treatment and monitoring of HIV infection is not affected by age. A patient beginning early ART is not a candidate for hospice. Progression of HIV is not affected by age although it may be affected by chronic disease.

10. A 19-yr-old patient has genital warts around her external genitalia and perianal area. She tells the nurse that she has not sought treatment until now because "the warts are so disgusting." Which nursing diagnosis is consistent with these data? a. Disturbed body image related to feelings about the genital warts b. Ineffective coping related to denial of increased risk for infection c. Risk for infection related to lack of knowledge about transmission d. Anxiety related to impact of condition on interpersonal relationships

4. A 46-yr-old patient who has had blood drawn for an insurance screening has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about past treatment for syphilis. b. Explain the need for blood and spinal fluid cultures. c. Schedule fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) testing. d. Assess for the presence of chancres, flulike symptoms, or a rash on the trunk.

ANS: A When antibody testing is positive for syphilis, the antibodies remain present for an indefinite period of time even after successful treatment, so the nurse should inquire about previous treatment before doing other assessments or testing. Culture, FAT-Abs testing, and assessment for symptoms may be appropriate based on whether the patient has been previously treated for syphilis.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has just been diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection. Which prophylactic measures will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Pneumococcal vaccine c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole e. Varicella zoster immune globulin

ANS: A, B, C Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection is a stage between acute HIV infection and a diagnosis of symptomatic chronic HIV infection. Although called asymptomatic, symptoms (e.g., fatigue, headache, low-grade fever, night sweats) often occur. Prevention of other infections is an important intervention in patients who are HIV positive, and these vaccines are recommended as soon as the HIV infection is diagnosed. Antibiotics and immune globulin are used to prevent and treat infections that occur later in the course of the disease when the CD4+ counts have dropped or when infection has occurred.

The nurse in the outpatient clinic notes that the following patients have not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which patients should the nurse plan to teach about benefits of the vaccine (select all that apply)? a. 24-year-old man who has a history of genital warts b. 18-year-old man who has had one male sexual partner c. 28-year-old woman who has never been sexually active d. 20-year-old woman who has a newly diagnosed Chlamydia infection e. 30-year-old woman whose sexual partner has a history of genital warts

ANS: A, B, D The HPV vaccines are recommended for male and female patients between ages 9 through 26. Ideally, the vaccines are administered before patients are sexually active, but they offer benefit even to those who already have HPV infection

3. The nurse in the outpatient clinic notes that the following patients have not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which patients should the nurse plan to teach about benefits of the vaccine (select all that apply)? a. A 24-yr-old male patient who has a history of genital warts b. An 18-yr-old male patient who has had one male sexual partner c. A 38-yr-old female patient who has never been sexually active d. A 20-yr-old female patient who has a newly diagnosed Chlamydia infection e. A 30-yr-old female patient whose sexual partner has a history of genital warts

ANS: A, B, D The HPV vaccines are recommended for male and female patients between ages 9 through 26 years. There are several types of HPV. Ideally, the vaccines are administered before patients are sexually active, but they offer benefit even to those who already have HPV infection because the vaccines protect against HPV types not already acquired.

3. The nurse plans a presentation for community members about how to decrease the risk for antibiotic-resistant infections. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Antibiotics may sometimes be prescribed to prevent infection. b. Continue taking antibiotics until all of the prescription is gone. c. Unused antibiotics that are more than a year old should be discarded. d. Antibiotics are effective in treating influenza associated with high fevers. e. Hand washing is effective in preventing many viral and bacterial infections.

ANS: A, B, E All prescribed doses of antibiotics should be taken. In some situations, such as before surgery, antibiotics are prescribed to prevent infection. There should not be any leftover antibiotics because all prescribed doses should be taken. However, if there are leftover antibiotics, they should be discarded immediately because the number left will not be enough to treat a future infection. Hand washing is generally considered the single most effective action in decreasing infection transmission. Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections such as influenza.

A 39-year-old patient with a history of IV drug use is seen at a community clinic. The patient reports difficulty walking, stating "I don't know where my feet are." Diagnostic screening reveals positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-Abs) tests. Based on the patient history, what will the nurse assess (select all that apply)? a. Heart sounds b. Genitalia for lesions c. Joints for swelling and inflammation d. Mental state for judgment and orientation e. Skin and mucous membranes for gummas

ANS: A, D, E The patient's clinical manifestations and laboratory tests are consistent with tertiary syphilis. Valvular insufficiency, gummas, and changes in mentation are other clinical manifestations of this stage

1. A 39-yr-old patient with a history of IV drug use is seen at a community clinic. The patient reports difficulty walking, stating, "I don't know where my feet are." Diagnostic screening reveals positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-Abs) test results. Based on the patient history, what will the nurse assess (select all that apply)? a. Heart sounds b. Genitalia for lesions c. Joints for swelling and inflammation d. Mental state for judgment and orientation e. Skin and mucous membranes for gummas

A 22-year-old patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg bid for 7 days. The nurse explains to the patient that this combination of antibiotics is prescribed to a. prevent reinfection during treatment. b. treat any coexisting chlamydial infection. c. eradicate resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae. d. prevent the development of resistant organisms.

ANS: B Because there is a high incidence of co-infection with gonorrhea and chlamydia, patients are usually treated for both. The other explanations about the purpose of the antibiotic combination are not accurate

A patient admitted with chest pain is also found to have positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) tests, rashes on the palms and the soles of the feet, and moist papules in the anal and vulvar area. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Assess for arterial aneurysms. b. Wear gloves for patient contact. c. Place the patient in a private room. d. Apply antibiotic ointment to the perineum.

ANS: B Exudate from any lesions with syphilis is highly contagious. Systemic antibiotics, rather than local treatment of lesions, are used to treat syphilis. The patient does not require a private room because the disease is spread through contact with the lesions. This patient has clinical manifestations of secondary syphilis and does not need to be monitored for manifestations of tertiary syphilis

A 48-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with gonococcal urethritis tells the nurse he had recent sexual contact with a woman but says she did not appear to have any disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that a. women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to males. b. women may not be aware they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection. c. women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or clinical manifestations. d. when gonorrhea infections occur in women, the disease affects only the ovaries and not the genital organs.

ANS: B Many women with gonorrhea are asymptomatic or have minor symptoms that are overlooked. The disease may affect both the genitals and the other reproductive organs and cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Women who can transmit the disease have active infections

A 32-year-old woman who is diagnosed with Chlamydia tells the nurse that she is very angry because her husband is her only sexual partner. Which response should the nurse make first? a. "You may need professional counseling to help resolve your anger." b. "It is understandable that you are angry with your husband right now." c. "Your feelings are justified and you should share them with your husband." d. "It is important that both you and your husband be treated for the infection."

ANS: B This response expresses the nurse's acceptance of the patient's feelings and encourages further discussion and problem solving. The patient may need professional counseling, but more assessment of the patient is needed before making this judgment. The nurse should also assess further before suggesting that the patient share her feelings with the husband because problems such as abuse might be present in the relationship. Although it is important that both partners be treated, the patient's current anger suggests that this is not the appropriate time to bring this up

22. The registered nurse (RN) caring for an HIV-positive patient admitted with tuberculosis can delegate which action to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Teach the patient how to dispose of tissues with respiratory secretions. b. Stock the patient's room with the necessary personal protective equipment. c. Interview the patient to obtain the names of family members and close contacts. d. Tell the patient's family members the reason for the use of airborne precautions.

ANS: B A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis would be placed on airborne precautions. Because all health care workers are taught about the various types of infection precautions used in the hospital, the UAP can safely stock the room with personal protective equipment. Obtaining contact information and patient teaching are higher-level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

3. A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg bid for 7 days. The nurse explains to the patient that this combination is prescribed to a. prevent reinfection during treatment. b. treat any coexisting chlamydial infection. c. eradicate resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae. d. prevent the development of resistant organisms.

ANS: B Because there is a high incidence of co-infection with gonorrhea and Chlamydia, patients are usually treated for both. The other explanations about the purpose of the antibiotic combination are not accurate.

6. A patient admitted with chest pain is also found to have positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) tests, rashes on the palms and the soles of the feet, and moist papules in the anal and vulvar area. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Assess for arterial aneurysms. b. Wear gloves for patient contact. c. Place the patient in a private room. d. Apply antibiotic ointment to the perineum.

5. A 48-yr-old male patient who has been diagnosed with gonococcal urethritis tells the nurse he had recent sexual contact with a woman but says she did not appear to have any disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that a. women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to men. b. women may not be aware they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection. c. women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or clinical manifestations. d. when gonorrhea infections occur in women, the disease affects only the ovaries and not the genital organs.

ANS: B Many women with gonorrhea are asymptomatic or have minor symptoms that are overlooked. The disease may affect both the genitals and the other reproductive organs and cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease. Women who can transmit the disease have active infections.

5. A pregnant woman with asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick." Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Because it is an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. Her newborn will be born with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral therapy (ART).

ANS: B Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided.

10. The nurse palpates enlarged cervical lymph nodes on a patient diagnosed with acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which action would be appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Instruct the patient to apply ice to the neck. b. Explain to the patient that this is an expected finding. c. Request that an antibiotic be prescribed for the patient. d. Advise the patient that this indicates influenza infection.

ANS: B Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stages of HIV infection. No antibiotic is needed because the enlarged nodes are probably not caused by bacteria. Lymphadenopathy is common with acute HIV infection and is therefore not likely the flu. Ice will not decrease the swelling in persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

14. A 32-yr-old patient who is diagnosed with Chlamydia tells the nurse that she is very angry because her husband is her only sexual partner. Which response should the nurse make first? a. "You may need professional counseling to help resolve your anger." b. "It is understandable that you feel angry about contracting an infection." c. "Your feelings are justified and you should share them with your husband." d. "It is important that both you and your husband be treated for the infection."

ANS: B This response expresses the nurse's acceptance of the patient's feelings and encourages further discussion and problem solving. The patient may need professional counseling, but more assessment of the patient is needed before making this judgment. The nurse should also assess further before suggesting that the patient share her feelings with the husband because problems such as abuse might be present in the relationship. Although it is important that both partners be treated, the patient's anger suggests that the feelings need to be acknowledged first.

2. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which personal protective equipment will the nurse put on before assessing a patient who is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile diarrhea (select all that apply)? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Shoe covers e. Eye protection

ANS: B, C Because the nurse will have substantial contact with the patient and bedding when doing an assessment, gloves and gowns are needed. Eye protection and masks are needed for patients in contact precautions only when spraying or splashing is anticipated. Shoe covers are not recommended in the CDC guidelines.

Which topics will the nurse include when preparing to teach a patient with recurrent genital herpes simplex (select all that apply)? a. Infected areas should be kept moist to speed healing. b. Sitz baths may be used to relieve discomfort caused by the lesions. c. Genital herpes can be cured by consistent use of antiviral medications. d. Recurrent genital herpes episodes usually are shorter than the first episode. e. The virus can infect sexual partners even when you do not have symptoms of infection.

ANS: B, D, E Patients are taught that shedding of the virus and infection of sexual partners can occur even in asymptomatic periods, that recurrent episodes resolve more quickly, and that sitz baths can be used to relieve pain caused by the lesions. Antiviral medications decrease the number of outbreaks, but do not cure herpes simplex infections. Infected areas may be kept dry if this decreases pain and itching

2. Which topics will the nurse include when preparing to teach a patient with recurrent genital herpes simplex (select all that apply)? a. Infected areas should be kept moist to speed healing. b. Sitz baths may be used to relieve discomfort caused by the lesions. c. Genital herpes can be cured by consistent use of antiviral medications. d. Recurrent genital herpes episodes usually are shorter than the first episode. e. The virus can infect sexual partners even when you do not have symptoms.

ANS: B, D, E Patients are taught that shedding of the virus and infection of sexual partners can occur even in asymptomatic periods, that recurrent episodes resolve more quickly, and that sitz baths can be used to relieve pain caused by the lesions. Antiviral medications decrease the number of outbreaks but do not cure herpes simplex infections. Infected areas may be kept dry if this decreases pain and itching.

20. Which of these patients who have arrived at the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) clinic should the nurse assess first? a. Patient whose rapid HIV-antibody test is positive b. Patient whose latest CD4+ count has dropped to 250/µL c. Patient who has had 10 liquid stools in the last 24 hours d. Patient who has nausea from prescribed antiretroviral drugs

ANS: C The nurse should assess the patient for dehydration and hypovolemia. The other patients also will require assessment and possible interventions, but do not require immediate action to prevent complications such as hypovolemia and shock.

When a 31-year-old male patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for gonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. When trying to determine the reason for the recurrent infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient? a. "Did you take the prescribed antibiotic for a week?" b. "Did you drink at least 2 quarts of fluids every day?" c. "Were your sexual partners treated with antibiotics?" d. "Do you wash your hands after using the bathroom?"

ANS: C A common reason for recurrence of symptoms is reinfection because infected partners have not been simultaneously treated. Because gonorrhea is treated with one dose of antibiotic, antibiotic therapy for a week is not needed. An adequate fluid intake is important, but a low fluid intake is not a likely cause for failed treatment. Poor hygiene may cause complications such as ocular trachoma but will not cause a failure of treatment

A woman is diagnosed with primary syphilis during her eighth week of pregnancy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the a. likelihood of a stillbirth. b. plans for cesarean section c. intramuscular injection of penicillin. d. antibiotic eye drops for the newborn.

ANS: C A single injection of penicillin is recommended to treat primary syphilis. This will treat the mother and prevent transmission of the disease to the fetus. Instillation of erythromycin into the eyes of the newborn is used to prevent gonorrheal eye infections. C-section is used to prevent the transmission of herpes to the newborn. Although stillbirth can occur if the fetus is infected with syphilis, treatment before the tenth week of gestation will eliminate in utero transmission to the fetus.

Which statement by a 24-year-old patient indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of primary genital herpes has been effective? a. "I will use acyclovir ointment on the area to relieve the pain." b. "I will use condoms for intercourse until the medication is all gone." c. "I will take the acyclovir (Zovirax) every 8 hours for the next week." d. "I will need to take all of the medication to be sure the infection is cured."

ANS: C The treatment regimen for primary genital herpes infections includes acyclovir 400 mg 3 times daily for 7 to 10 days. The patient is taught to abstain from intercourse until the lesions are gone. (Condoms should be used even when the patient is asymptomatic.) Acyclovir ointment is not effective in treating lesions or reducing pain. Herpes infection is chronic and recurrent

After the nurse has taught a patient with a newly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection about expedited partner therapy, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will tell my partner that it is important to be examined at the clinic." b. "I will have my partner take the antibiotics if any STI symptoms occur." c. "I will make sure that my partner takes all of the prescribed medication." d. "I will have my partner use a condom until I have finished the antibiotics."

ANS: C With expedited partner therapy, the patient is given a prescription or medications for the partner. The partner does not need to be evaluated by the health care provider, but is presumed to be infected and should be treated concurrently with the patient. Use of a condom will not treat the presumed STI in the partner

11. When a 31-yr-old male patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for gonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. Which question will the nurse ask to identify a possible cause of recurrent infection? a. "Did you take the prescribed antibiotic for a week?" b. "Did you drink at least 3 quarts of fluids every day?" c. "Were your sexual partners treated with antibiotics?" d. "Do you wash your hands after using the bathroom?"

15. A patient treated for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection for 6 years has developed fat redistribution to the trunk with wasting of the arms, legs, and face. What recommendation will the nurse give to the patient? a. Review foods that are higher in protein. b. Teach about the benefits of daily exercise. c. Discuss a change in antiretroviral therapy. d. Talk about treatment with antifungal agents.

ANS: C A frequent first intervention for metabolic disorders is a change in antiretroviral therapy (ART). Treatment with antifungal agents would not be appropriate because there is no indication of fungal infection. Changes in diet or exercise have not proven helpful for this problem.

9. A patient is diagnosed with primary syphilis during her eighth week of pregnancy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the a. likelihood of a stillbirth. b. plans for cesarean section c. intramuscular injection of penicillin. d. antibiotic eye drops for the newborn.

ANS: C A single injection of penicillin is recommended to treat primary syphilis. This will treat the mother and prevent transmission of the disease to the fetus. Instillation of erythromycin into the eyes of the newborn is used to prevent gonorrheal eye infections. C-section is used to prevent the transmission of herpes to the newborn. Although stillbirth can occur if the fetus is infected with syphilis, treatment before the 10th week of gestation will eliminate in utero transmission to the fetus.

3. A patient informed of a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most important at this time? a. Teach the patient how to reduce risky behaviors. b. Inform the patient about the available treatments. c. Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. d. Ask the patient to identify individuals who had intimate contact with the patient.

ANS: C After an initial positive antibody test result, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about the HIV status of other individuals.

18. The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and taking antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information is most important for the nurse to address when planning care? a. The patient complains of feeling "constantly tired." b. The patient can't explain the effects of indinavir (Crixivan). c. The patient reports missing some doses of zidovudine (AZT). d. The patient reports having no side effects from the medications.

ANS: C Because missing doses of ART can lead to drug resistance, this patient statement indicates the need for interventions such as teaching or changes in the drug scheduling. Fatigue is a common side effect of ART. The nurse should discuss medication actions and side effects with the patient, but this is not as important as addressing the skipped doses of AZT.

1. A male patient who has a profuse, purulent urethral discharge with painful urination is seen at the clinic. Which information will be most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Sexual orientation b. Immunization history c. Recent sexual contacts d. Contraceptive preference

ANS: C Information about sexual contacts is needed to help establish whether the patient has been exposed to a sexually transmitted infection and because sexual contacts also will need treatment. The other information also may be gathered but is not as important in determining the plan of care for the patient's current symptoms.

16. The nurse prepares to administer the following medications to a hospitalized patient with human immunodeficiency (HIV). Which medication is most important to administer at the scheduled time? a. Nystatin tablet b. Oral acyclovir (Zovirax) c. Oral saquinavir (Invirase) d. Aerosolized pentamidine (NebuPent)

ANS: C It is important that antiretrovirals be taken at the prescribed time every day to avoid developing drug-resistant HIV. The other medications should also be given as close as possible to the correct time, but they are not as essential to receive at the same time every day.

4. A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel obsessed with morbid thoughts about dying." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS." b. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful?" c. "Can you tell me more about the thoughts that you are having?" d. "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now."

ANS: C More assessment of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. The statements, "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS" and "It is important to focus on the good things in life" or suggesting an antidepressant discourage the patient from sharing any further information with the nurse and decrease the nurse's ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient.

12. A patient who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Clean drug injection equipment before each use." b. "Ask those who share equipment to be tested for HIV." c. "Consider participating in a needle-exchange program." d. "Avoid sexual intercourse when using injectable drugs."

ANS: C Participation in needle-exchange programs has been shown to decrease and control the rate of HIV infection. Cleaning drug equipment before use also reduces risk, but it might not be consistently practiced. HIV antibodies do not appear for several weeks to months after exposure, so testing drug users would not be very effective in reducing risk for HIV exposure. It is difficult to make appropriate decisions about sexual activity when under the influence of drugs.

6. Which patient exposure by the nurse is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis when the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown? a. Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgery b. Splash into the eyes while emptying a bedpan containing stool c. Needle stick with a needle and syringe used for a venipuncture d. Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions

ANS: C Puncture wounds are the most common means for workplace transmission of blood-borne diseases, and a needle with a hollow bore that had been contaminated with the patient's blood would be a high-risk situation. The other situations described would be much less likely to result in transmission of the virus.

23. The nurse designs a program to decrease the incidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in the adolescent and young adult populations. Which information should the nurse assign as the highest priority? a. Methods to prevent perinatal HIV transmission b. Ways to sterilize needles used by injectable drug users c. Prevention of HIV transmission between sexual partners d. Means to prevent transmission through blood transfusions

ANS: C Sexual transmission is the most common way that HIV is transmitted. The nurse should also provide teaching about perinatal transmission, needle sterilization, and blood transfusion, but the rate of HIV infection associated with these situations is lower.

7. Which statement by a 24-yr-old patient indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of primary genital herpes has been effective? a. "I will use acyclovir ointment on the area to relieve the discomfort." b. "I will use condoms for intercourse until the medication is all gone." c. "I will take the acyclovir (Zovirax) every 8 hours for the next week." d. "I will need to take all of the medication to be sure the infection is cured."

16. After the nurse has taught a patient with a newly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection (STI) about expedited partner therapy, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will tell my partner that it is important to be examined at the clinic." b. "I will have my partner take the antibiotics if any STI symptoms occur." c. "I will make sure that my partner takes all of the prescribed medication." d. "I will have my partner use a condom until I have finished the antibiotics."

ANS: C With expedited partner therapy, the patient is given a prescription or medications for the partner. The partner does not need to be evaluated by the health care provider but is presumed to be infected and should be treated concurrently with the patient. Use of a condom will not treat the presumed STI in the partner.

A 32-year-old man who has a profuse, purulent urethral discharge with painful urination is seen at the clinic. Which information will be most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Contraceptive use b. Sexual orientation c. Immunization history d. Recent sexual contacts

ANS: D Information about sexual contacts is needed to help establish whether the patient has been exposed to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) and because sexual contacts also will need treatment. The other information also may be gathered but is not as important in determining the plan of care for the patient's current symptoms

A 55-year-old woman in the sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic tells the nurse that she is concerned she may have been exposed to gonorrhea by her partner. To determine whether the patient has gonorrhea, the nurse will plan to a. interview the patient about symptoms of gonorrhea. b. take a sample of cervical discharge for Gram staining. c. draw a blood specimen or rapid plasma reagin (RPR) testing. d. obtain secretions for a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT).

ANS: D NAAT has a high sensitivity (similar to a culture) for gonorrhea. Because women have few symptoms of gonorrhea, asking the patient about symptoms may not be helpful in making a diagnosis. Smears and Gram staining are not useful because the female genitourinary tract has many normal flora that resemble N. gonorrhoeae. RPR testing is used to detect syphilis

9. The nurse will most likely prepare a medication teaching plan about antiretroviral therapy (ART) for which patient? a. Patient who is currently HIV negative but has unprotected sex with multiple partners b. Patient who was infected with HIV 15 years ago and now has a CD4+ count of 840/µL c. HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 160/µL who drinks a fifth of whiskey daily d. Patient who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and now has cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

ANS: D CMV retinitis is an AIDS-defining illness and indicates that the patient is appropriate for ART even though the HIV infection period is relatively short. An HIV-negative patient would not be offered ART. A patient with a CD4+ count in the normal range would not typically be started on ART. A patient who drinks alcohol heavily would be unlikely to be able to manage the complex drug regimen and would not be appropriate for ART despite the low CD4+ count.

2. A patient who has a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/L. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "The patient will develop symptomatic HIV infection within 1 year." b. "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of acute HIV infection." c. "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection." d. "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."

ANS: D Development of PCP meets the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. The other responses indicate earlier stages of HIV infection than is indicated by the PCP infection.

8. A patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected has a CD4+ cell count of 400/µL. Which factor is most important for the nurse to determine before the initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for this patient? a. CD4+ cell count trajectory b. HIV genotype and phenotype c. Patient's tolerance for potential medication side effects d. Patient's ability to follow a complex medication regimen

ANS: D Drug resistance develops quickly unless the patient takes ART medications on a strict, regular schedule. In addition, drug resistance endangers both the patient and community. The other information is also important to consider, but patients who are unable to manage and follow a complex drug treatment regimen should not be considered for ART.

13. A patient in the sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic tells the nurse that she is concerned she may have been exposed to gonorrhea. To determine whether the patient has gonorrhea, the nurse will plan to a. interview the patient about symptoms of gonorrhea. b. take a sample of cervical discharge for Gram staining. c. draw a blood specimen or rapid plasma reagin (RPR) testing. d. obtain secretions for a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT).

ANS: D NAAT has a high sensitivity (similar to a culture) for gonorrhea. Because women have few symptoms of gonorrhea, asking the patient about symptoms may not be helpful in making a diagnosis. Smears and Gram staining are not useful because the female genitourinary tract has many normal flora that resemble Neisseria gonorrhoeae. RPR testing is used to detect syphilis.

13. Which nursing action will be most useful in assisting a college student to adhere to a newly prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen? a. Give the patient detailed information about possible medication side effects. b. Remind the patient of the importance of taking the medications as scheduled. c. Encourage the patient to join a support group for students who are HIV positive. d. Check the patient's class schedule to help decide when the drugs should be taken

ANS: D The best approach to improve adherence is to learn about important activities in the patient's life and adjust the ART around those activities. The other actions are also useful, but they will not improve adherence as much as individualizing the ART to the patient's schedule.

14. A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection. Which outcome would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. The patient will be free from injury. b. The patient will receive immunizations. c. The patient will have adequate oxygenation. d. The patient will maintain intact perineal skin.

ANS: D The major manifestation of M. avium infection is loose, watery stools, which would increase the risk for perineal skin breakdown. The other outcomes would be appropriate for other complications (e.g., pneumonia, dementia, influenza) associated with HIV infection.

7. A young adult female patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive has a new prescription for efavirenz (Sustiva). Which information is most important to include in the medication teaching plan? a. Take this medication on an empty stomach. b. Take this medication with a full glass of water. c. You may have vivid and bizarre dreams as a side effect. d. Continue to use contraception while taking this medication.

ANS: D To prevent harm, it is most critical to inform patients that efavirenz can cause fetal anomalies and should not be used in patients who may be or may become pregnant. The other information is also accurate, but it does not directly prevent harm. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach with water and patients should be informed that many people who use the drug have reported vivid and sometimes bizarre dreams.

7. During examination of a 67-year-old man, the nurse notes bilateral enlargement of the breasts. The nurse's first action should be to a. palpate the breasts for the presence of any discrete lumps. b. explain that this is a temporary condition caused by hormonal changes. c. refer the patient for mammography and biopsy of the breast tissue. d. teach the patient about dietary changes to reduce the breast size.

Answer: A Rationale: If discrete, circumscribed lumps are present, the patient should be referred for further testing to determine whether breast cancer is present. Gynecomastia is usually a temporary change, but it can be caused by breast cancer. Mammography and biopsy will not be needed unless lumps are present in the breast tissue. Dietary changes will not affect the condition. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1348 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. Which of these nursing interventions for the patient who has had right-sided breast-conservation surgery and an axillary lymph node dissection is appropriate to assign to an LPN/LVN? a. Administering an analgesic 30 minutes before the scheduled arm exercises b. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury to the right arm c. Assessment of the patient's range of motion for the right arm d. Evaluation of the patient's understanding of discharge instructions about drain care

Answer: A Rationale: LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include administration and evaluation of the effects of analgesics. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation of a patient's understanding of instructions are more complex tasks that are more appropriate to RN-level education and scope of practice. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1356-1361 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

18. A 38-year-old woman is scheduled for a breast-conservation therapy with a lumpectomy. As the nurse prepares her for surgery, she begins to cry and says, "I just do not know how to handle all of this." An appropriate response to the patient by the nurse is, a. "Would you like to talk about how you are feeling right now?" b. "I can see you are really upset. Would you like to be alone for a while?" c. "The important thing is that the tumor was found and is going to be removed." d. "With this surgery you will have very little change in the appearance of your breast."

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse encourages the patient to express feelings about the diagnosis and surgery. The response beginning, "I can see you are really upset" may indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable being with the patient while she is upset. The response beginning, "The important thing is that the tumor was found" places the nurse's value system above the patient's current concerns. And the response, "With this surgery you will have very little change in the appearance of your breast" does not address all the patient's possible concerns and is not true. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1360 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

19. After the nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and lymph node dissection, which statement by the patient indicates that no further teaching is needed? a. "I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand." b. "I will need to do breast self-examination on my right breast monthly." c. "I will keep my left arm elevated until I go to bed." d. "I will remember to use my right arm and to rest the left one."

Answer: A Rationale: The patient should avoid any activity that might injure the left arm, such as reaching over a burner. Breast self-examination should be done to the right breast and the left mastectomy site. The left arm should be elevated when the patient is lying down also. The left arm should be used to improve range of motion and function. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1359-1360 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. When assessing a patient for breast cancer risk, the nurse considers that the patient has a significant family history of breast cancer if she has a a. cousin who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 38. b. mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 42. c. sister who died from ovarian cancer at age 56. d. grandmother who died from breast cancer at age 72.

Answer: B Rationale: A significant family history of breast cancer means that the patient has a first-degree relative who developed breast cancer, especially if the relative was premenopausal. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1348 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4. A patient with a small breast lump is advised to have a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy. The nurse explains that an advantage to this procedure is that a. only a small incision is necessary, resulting in minimal breast pain and scarring. b. if the specimen is positive for malignancy, the patient can be told at the visit. c. if the specimen is negative for malignancy, the patient's fears of cancer can be put to rest. d. FNA is guided by a mammogram, ensuring that cells are taken from the lesion.

Answer: B Rationale: An FNA should only be done when an experienced cytologist is available to read the specimen immediately. If the specimen is positive for malignancy, the patient can be given this information immediately. No incision is needed. If the specimen is negative for malignancy, the patient will require biopsy of the lump. FNA is not guided by mammography. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1345 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A 51-year-old woman at menopause is considering the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is concerned about the risk of breast cancer. When discussing this issue with the patient, the nurse explains that a. HRT does not appear to increase the risk for breast cancer unless there are other risk factors. b. she and her health care provider must weigh the benefits of HRT against the possible risks of breast cancer. c. HRT is a safe therapy for menopausal symptoms if there is no family history of BRCA genes. d. alternative therapies with herbs and natural drugs are as effective as estrogen in relieving the symptoms of menopause.

Answer: B Rationale: Because HRT has been linked to increased risk for breast cancer, the patient and provider must determine whether or not to use HRT. Breast cancer incidence is increased in women using HRT, independent of other risk factors. HRT increase the risk for non-BRCA-associated cancer as well as for BRCA-related cancers. Alternative therapies can be used but are not consistent in relieving menopausal symptoms. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1348 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. At a routine health examination, a woman whose mother had breast cancer asks the nurse about the genetic basis of breast cancer and the genes involved. The nurse explains that a. her risk of inheriting BRCA gene mutations is small unless her mother had both ovarian and breast cancer. b. changes in BRCA genes that normally suppress cancer growth can be passed to offspring, increasing the risk for breast cancer. c. because her mother had breast cancer, she has inherited a 50% to 85% chance of developing breast cancer from mutated genes. d. genetic mutations increase cancer risk only in combination with other risk factors such as obesity.

Answer: B Rationale: Family history is a risk factor for breast cancer, and the nurse should discuss testing for BRCA genes with the patient. Although the BRCA gene is associated with increased risk for breast and ovarian cancer, the patient may be at risk if her mother had either one. About 5% to 10% of patients with breast cancer may have a genetic abnormality that contributes to breast cancer development. Risk factors are cumulative, but a family history alone will increase breast cancer risk. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1349 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. A 20-year-old student comes to the student health center after discovering a small painless lump in her right breast. She is worried that she might have cancer because her mother had cervical cancer. The nurse's response to the patient is based on the knowledge that the most likely cause of the breast lump is a. fibrocystic complex. b. fibroadenoma. c. breast abscess. d. adenocarcinoma.

Answer: B Rationale: Fibroadenoma is the most frequent cause of breast lumps in women under 25 years of age. Fibrocystic changes occur most frequently in women ages 35 to 50. Breast abscess is associated with pain and other systemic symptoms. Breast cancer is uncommon in women younger than 25. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1347 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. When teaching a 22-year-old patient about breast self-examination (BSE), the nurse will instruct the patient that a. BSE will reduce the risk of dying from breast cancer. b. performing BSE right after the menstrual period will improve comfort. c. BSE should be done daily while taking a bath or shower. d. annual mammograms should be scheduled in addition to BSE.

Answer: B Rationale: Performing BSE at the end of the menstrual period will reduce the breast tenderness associated with the procedure. The evidence is not clear that BSE reduces breast cancer mortality. BSE should be done monthly. Annual mammograms are not routinely scheduled for women under age 40. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1344 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

11. A patient with a breast biopsy positive for cancer is to undergo lymphatic mapping and sentinel lymph node dissection (SLND). The nurse explains that this procedure a. can identify specific lymph nodes that have malignant cells, so only involved nodes need to be excised. b. reduces the need for extensive lymph node dissection for pathologic examination. c. eliminates the need for excision of more than one lymph node for staging of breast cancer. d. will confirm the absence of tumor spread if the sentinel lymph node is negative for malignant changes.

Answer: B Rationale: The SLND may eliminate further lymph node dissection if the initial nodes are negative for malignancy. The procedure identifies which lymph nodes drain first from the tumor site, but not which ones are malignant. Several lymph nodes may be dissected for pathologic examination. Tumor may have distant metastases even when no malignancies are found in the lymph nodes. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1351 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. A woman with a positive biopsy for breast cancer is considering whether to have a modified radical mastectomy or breast conservation surgery (lumpectomy) with radiation therapy. Which information should the nurse provide? a. The postoperative survival rate for each is about the same, but there is a decreased rate of cancer recurrence after mastectomy. b. The lumpectomy and radiation will preserve the breast, but this method can cause changes in breast sensitivity. c. The hair loss associated with post-lumpectomy chemotherapy is not acceptable to some patients. d. The treatment period for the mastectomy is shorter, and breast reconstruction can provide a normal-appearing breast.

Answer: B Rationale: The impact on breast function and appearance is less with lumpectomy and radiation, but there is some effect on breast sensitivity. The rate of cancer recurrence is the same for the two procedures. Chemotherapy may be used after either lumpectomy or mastectomy, but it is not always needed. The treatment period is shorter after mastectomy, but breast reconstruction does not provide a normal-appearing breast. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1352-1353 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. A patient has a permanent breast implant inserted in the outpatient surgery area. Which instructions will the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. Resume normal activities 2 to 3 days after the mammoplasty. b. Check wound drains for excessive blood or any foul odor. c. Wear a loose-fitting bra to decrease irritation of the sutures. d. Take aspirin every 4 hours to reduce inflammation.

Answer: B Rationale: The patient should be taught drain care because the drains will be in place for 2 or 3 days after surgery. Normal activities can be resumed after 2 to 3 weeks. A bra that provides good support is typically ordered. Aspirin will decrease coagulation and is typically not given after surgery. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1362 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. A 62-year-old patient complains to the nurse that mammograms are painful and a source of radiation exposure. She says she does breast self-examination (BSE) monthly and asks whether it is necessary to have an annual mammogram. The nurse's best response to the patient is, a. "If your mammogram was painful, it is especially important that you have it done annually." b. "An ultrasound examination of the breasts, which is not painful or a source of radiation, can be substituted for a mammogram." c. "Because of your age, it is even more important for you to have annual mammograms." d. "Unless you find a lump while examining your breasts, a mammogram every 2 years is recommended after age 60."

Answer: C Rationale: Annual mammograms are recommended for women over age 40 as long as they are in good health. The incidence of breast cancer increases in women over 60. Pain with a mammogram does not indicate any greater risk for breast cancer. Ultrasound may be used in some situations to differentiate cystic breast problems from cancer but is not a substitute for annual mammograms. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1344 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

5. A 33-year-old patient tells the nurse that she has fibrocystic breasts but reducing her sodium and caffeine intake and other measures have not made a difference in the fibrocystic condition. An appropriate patient outcome for the patient is a. calls the health care provider if any lumps are painful or tender. b. states the reason for immediate biopsy of new lumps. c. monitors changes in size and tenderness of all lumps in relation to her menstrual cycle. d. has genetic testing for BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 to determine her risk for breast cancer.

Answer: C Rationale: Because fibrocystic breasts may increase in size and tenderness during the premenstrual phase, the patient is taught to monitor for this change and to call if the changes persist after menstruation. Pain and tenderness are typical of fibrocystic breasts, and the patient should not call for these symptoms. New lumps may be need biopsy if they persist after the menstrual period, but the biopsy is not done immediately. The existence of fibrocystic breasts is not associated with the BRCA genes. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1346-1347 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

14. A patient at the clinic who has metastatic breast cancer has a new prescription for trastuzumab (Herceptin). The nurse will plan to a. teach the patient about the need to monitor serum electrolyte levels. b. ask the patient to call the health care provider before using any over-the-counter (OTC) pain relievers. c. instruct the patient to call if she notices ankle swelling. d. have the patient schedule frequent eye examinations.

Answer: C Rationale: Herceptin can lead to ventricular dysfunction, so the patient is taught to self-monitor for symptoms of heart failure. There is no need to monitor serum electrolyte levels. OTC pain relievers do not interact with Herceptin. Changes in visual acuity may occur with tamoxifen, but not with Herceptin. Cognitive Level: Analysis Text Reference: p. 1356 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

21. Following a modified radical mastectomy, a patient tells the nurse the health care provider has recommended a flap procedure for breast reconstruction but that she did not understand how this was done. The nurse explains that the most common procedure, a transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) flap, involves a. relocating muscle tissue from the back and using it to form a breast. b. removing a portion of an abdominal muscle to use as breast tissue. c. pulling part of the abdominal muscle up to the breast area through a tunnel in the chest. d. relocating the arteries from the abdominal muscle to improve circulation to the implant.

Answer: C Rationale: In the TRAM flap, part of the rectus abdominis muscle is tunneled to the breast area and molded to form a breast. In the latissimus dorsi musculocutaneous flap, muscle tissue from the back is used to replace breast tissue. The abdominal muscle is not detached but is still attached to the rectus muscle. The arteries are not relocated. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1362-1363 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. Which statement by a 32-year-old patient newly diagnosed with stage I breast cancer indicates to the nurse that the goals of therapy are being met? a. "I am not sure how my husband will react when I tell him about this cancer." b. "I am ready to die if that is God's plan for me." c. "I need to know all the options before making a decision about treatment." d. "I will do whatever the doctor thinks is best."

Answer: C Rationale: One goal for the patient with breast cancer is active participation in the decision-making process. The response beginning, "I am not sure how my husband will react" indicates that the goal of satisfaction with the support provided by significant others is still unmet. The response, "I am ready to die if that is God's plan for me" suggests that the patient may not be willing to have treatment. The response, "I will do whatever the doctor thinks is best" indicates that the patient is not participating actively in treatment decisions. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1359 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

16. A patient returns to the surgical unit following a right modified radical mastectomy with dissection of axillary lymph nodes. An appropriate intervention for the nurse to include in implementing postoperative care for the patient includes a. teaching the patient to use the ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) every 10 minutes for the best pain relief. b. insisting that the patient examine the surgical incision when the dressings are removed. c. posting a sign at the bedside warning against blood pressures or venipunctures in the right arm. d. encouraging the patient to obtain a permanent breast prosthesis as soon as she is discharged from the hospital.

Answer: C Rationale: The patient is at risk for lymphedema and infection if blood pressures or venipuncture are done on the right arm. The patient is taught to use the PCA as needed for pain control rather than at a set time. The nurse allows the patient to examine the incision and participate in care when the patient feels ready. Permanent breast prostheses are usually obtained about 6 weeks after surgery. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1358-1359 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. Following a modified radical mastectomy, the health care provider recommends chemotherapy even though the lymph nodes were negative for cancer cells. The patient tells the nurse that she does not know what to do about chemotherapy because she has heard that she may not even need chemotherapy and that the side effects are uncomfortable. The nursing diagnosis that best reflects the patient's problem is a. anxiety related to prospect of additional cancer therapy. b. fear related to uncomfortable side effects of chemotherapy. c. decisional conflict related to lack of knowledge about prognosis and treatment options. d. risk for ineffective health maintenance related to reluctance to consider additional treatment.

Answer: C Rationale: The patient's statements indicate that she is having difficulty making a decision about treatment because of a lack of understanding about prognosis and treatment. Although she may have some anxiety and fear, these are not the priorities at this time. The patient expresses concerns about chemotherapy rather than reluctance to consider additional treatment. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1356 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

22. A patient with an abnormal mammogram is scheduled for stereotactic core biopsy. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the procedure? a. "You will need to avoid eating or drinking anything for 6 hours before the procedure." b. "Any discomfort after the biopsy may be treated with mild pain relievers such as aspirin." c. "The core biopsy is evaluated immediately and you will get the results before leaving." d. "Several samples of tissue in the abnormal area will be obtained during the procedure."

Answer: D Rationale: During stereotactic breast biopsy, a biopsy gun is used to remove several core samples in the area of abnormality. The procedure is done using a local anesthetic, so there is no need to be NPO before the procedure. Aspirin should not be used because it will increase bleeding at the site. The biopsy is sent to pathology, and results are not usually available immediately. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1345 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

2. While the nurse is obtaining a nursing history from a 52-year-old patient who has found a small lump in her breast, which question is most pertinent? a. "Do you currently smoke cigarettes?" b. "Have you ever had any breast injuries?" c. "Is there any family history of fibrocystic breast changes?" d. "At what age did you start having menstrual periods?"

Answer: D Rationale: Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast cancer because of the prolonged exposure to estrogen that occurs. Cigarette smoking, breast trauma, and fibrocystic breast changes are not associated with increased breast cancer risk. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1349 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A 34-year-old woman has undergone a modified radical mastectomy for a breast tumor. The pathology report identified the tumor as a stage I, estrogen-receptor-positive adenocarcinoma. The nurse will plan on teaching the patient about a. raloxifene (Evista). b. estradiol (Estrace). c. trastuzumab (Herceptin). d. tamoxifen (Nolvadex).

Answer: D Rationale: Tamoxifen is used for estrogen-dependent breast tumors in premenopausal women. Raloxifene is used to prevent breast cancer, but it is not used post-mastectomy to treat breast cancer. Estradiol will increase the growth of estrogen-dependent tumors. Trastuzumab is used to treat tumors that have the HER-2/neu antigen. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1355 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. The nurse determines that teaching has been successful when the patient says, a. "I should keep my left arm supported in a sling when I am up until my incision is healed." b. "I may expose my left arm to the sun for several hours each day to increase circulation and promote healing." c. "I can do whatever exercises and activities I want as long as I do not elevate my left hand above my head." d. "I will continue to exercise my left arm with finger-walking up the wall or combing my hair."

Answer: D Rationale: The patient should continue with arm exercises to regain strength and range of motion. The left arm should be elevated to the level of the heart when the patient is up. Sun exposure is avoided because of the risk of sunburn. The left hand should be elevated at or above heart level to reduce swelling and lymphedema. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1359-1360 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Priority Decision: A 56-year-old patient is undergoing a mammoplasty for breast reconstruction following a mastectomy 1 year ago. During the preoperative preparation of the patient, what is important for nurse to do? A. Determine why the patient is choosing reconstruction surgery rather than the use of an external prosthesis B. Ensure that the patient is choosing reconstruction surgery rather than the use of an external prosthesis C. Inform the patient that implants used for breast reconstruction have been shown to cause immune-related diseases D. Let the patient know that, although the shape will be different from the other breast, the nipple can be reconstructed from other erectile tissue.

B It is most important for the patient planning a mammoplasty that she have a realistic idea about what the surgery can accomplish and about possible complications. Currently surgery cannot restore nipple sensation or erectility, and the breast will not fully resemble its premastectomy appearance, but the outcome is usually more acceptable than the mastectomy scar. The woman's motives for breast reconstruction should not be questioned. There have been allegations of immune related diseases associated with the use of silicone gel implants but after further evaluation the Food and Drug Administartion has approved these implants for use.

The health care provider of a patient with a positive biopsy of a 2-cm breast tumor has recommended a lumpectomy with radiation therapy or a modified radical mastectomy as treatment. The patient says that she does not know how to choose and asks the female nurse what she would do if she had to make the choice. What is the best response by the nurse to this patient? A. "It doesn't matter what I do. It is a decision you have to make for yourself." B. "There are advantages and disadvantages of both procedures. What do you know about these procedures?" C. "I would choose the modified radical mastectomy because it would ensure that the entire tumor was removed." D. "The lumpectomy maintains a nearly normal breast, but the survival rate is not as good as it is with a mastectomy."

B. Either treatment choice is indicated for women with early stage breast cancer because the 10 year survival rate with lumpectomy with radiation is about the same as the modified radical mastectomy. Each procedure has advantages and disadvantages that the patient must consider is making an informed choice and the nurse should make that information available to the patient to assist in decision making.

The nurse would be most concerned when the patient's breast examination reveals which findings? A. A large, tender, movable mass in the upper inner quadrant B. An immobile, hard, nontender lesion in the upper outer quadrant C. A 2-3 cm firm, defined, mobile mass in the lower outer quadrant D. A painful, immobile mass with reddened skin in the upper outer quadrant

B. On palpitation, malignant lesions are characteristically hard, irregulary shaped poorly delineated, nontender, and ninmobile and the most common site is the upper outer quadrant of the breast. Fibrocystic lesion are usually large tender, movable masses found throughout the breast tissue. A fibroadenoma is from, defined, and mobile. A painful, immobile mass under a reddend area of skin is most typical of a local abscess

Following a mastectomy, a patient develops lymphedema of the affected arm. What does the nurse teach the patient to do? A. Avoid skin-softening agents on the arm. B. Protect the arm from any type of trauma C. Abduct and adduct the arm at the shoulder hourly D. Keep the arm positioned so that it is in straight and dependent alignment

B. Removal of the axillary lymph nodes impairs lymph drainage from the affected arm and predisposes the patient to infection of the arm. The arm must be protected from even minor trauma. BP, venipunctures, and injections should not be done on the arm. The arm should never be dependent, even during sleep, and should be elevated to promote lymph drainage

A woman at the health clinic tells the nurse that she does not do breast self examination (BSE) because it just seems too much of a bother. What is the best response by the nurse about BSE? 1. It reduces mortality from breast cancer in women under the age of 50 2. It is useful to help women learn how their breast normally look and feel 3. BSE has little value in detection of cancer and is not recommend anymore 4. BSE is the most common way that malignant tumors of the breast are discovered

B. The value of breast self-examination is reducing mortality rates from breast cancer in women is currently controversial and under review. However, it is still a useful tool in helping women to become self-aware of how their breast normally look and feel. None of the other options have been validated at this time.

Which characteristic describe an intraductal papilloma (select all that apply)? A. Associated with breast trauma B. Occurs in 10% of women ages 15 to 40 C. Is more common in women ages 40 to 60 D. Has multicolored, sticky nipple discharge E. Is associated with an increased cancer risk F. Has wart-like growth in mammary ducts near nipple

C,E,F Intraductal papilloma is more common in women 40 to 60 years old, is associated with increased cancer risk, and is a wartlike growth in mammary ducts beneath the areola. Fat necrosis is associated with breast trauma, Fibroadenoma occurs in 10% of women ages 15 to 40 and well delineated, very mobile tumors.Multicolored, sticky nipple discharge is seen in ductal ectasia.

During the immediate postoperative period following a modified radical mastectomy, the nurse initially institutes which exercise for the affected arm? A. Have a patient brush or comb her hair with the affected arm. B. Perform full passive range of motion exercises to the affected arm. C. Ask the patient to flex and extend the fingers and wrist of the operative side. D. Have the patient crawl her fingers up the wall, raising her arm above her head.

C. As early as in the recovery room following a modified radical mastectomy, the patient should start flexing and extending the fingers and wrist of the affected arm with daily increases in activity. Postoperative mastectomy exercises, such as wall climbing with the fingers, shoulder rotation and extension, and hair care, are instituted gradually to prevent disruption of the wound

A patient has fibrocystic changes in her breast. The nurse explains to the patient that this condition is significant because it A. commonly becomes malignant over time B. can be controlled with hormone therapy (HT) C. make it more difficult to examine the breast D. will eventually cause atrophy of the normal breast tissue

C. Fibrocystic changes make breast difficult to examine because of fibrotic changes and multiple lumps. A woman with condition should be familiar with the characteristics changes in her breast and monitor them closely for new lumps that do not respond in a cyclic manner over 1 to 2 week. Estrogen antagonizes the condition and fibrocystic changes are not precancerous

Sentinel lymph biopsy (SLNB) is planned for a patient undergoing a modified radical mastectomy for breast cancer. What does the nurse teach the patient and her family about the purpose of this specific procedure? A. SNLB provides metastatic lymph nodes to test for responsiveness to chemotherapy B. If one sentinel lymph node is positive for malignant cells, all of the sentinel lymph nodes will be removed. C. A radioisotope indicates which lymph node are most likely to have metastasis, and all of those nodes are removed. D. If malignant cells are found in any sentinel nodes, a complete axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) will be done.

C. In sentinel lymph node biopsy (SNLB) radioisotopes or dye identify lymph nodes that drain from the tumor site, and they are removed. Those nodes are examined for malignant cells. If any of nodes have malignant cells, the next step is a complete axillary lymph node dissection (ALND). If the sentinel nodes are negative, no additional lymph nodes are removed.

A patient undergoing surgery and radiation for treatment of breast cancer has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image related to absences of the breast. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? A. Provide the patient with information about surgical breast reconstruction B. Restrict visitors and phone calls until he patient feels better about herself C. Arrange for a Reach to Recovery visitor or similar resource available in the community D. Encourage the patient to obtain a permanent breast prosthesis as soon as she is discharged from the hospital.

C. The Reach to Recovery program consists of volunteers, all women, who have had breast cancer and can answer questions about what to expect at home, how to tell people about the surgery, and what prosthetic devices are available. It is a valuable resource for patients who have breast cancer and should be used if available in the community. If a volunteer is not available, the nurse is responsible for assisting the patient in the same manner. Although the nurse can discuss wearing a prosthesis, a permanent prosthesis cannot be used until healing is complete and inflammation is resolved.

A 24-year-old female patient has breast cancer with estrogen receptor-negative cells. Which genomic assay test can be used to provide information about the likely recurrence and need for chemotherapy? A. CA 27-29 B. TNM system C. Oncotype DX D. Direct to consumer

C. Oncotype DX is the most commonly used early stage breast cancer genomic assay test o assay risk of recurrence and is the likely benefit of chemotherapy. CA 27-29 is a cancer marker producer by the MUCI gene. TNM is not a genomic assay but rather a system for staging cancer using tumor size, nodal involvement, and the presence of metastasis. Direct to consumer genetic test enable consumers to supply their own samples but does not include genetic counseling and only test single nucleotide variant, not representatives of disease.

While examining a patient's breasts, the nurse notes multiple, bilateral mobile lumps. To assess the patient further, what is the most appropriate question by the nurse? A. "Do you have high caffeine intake?" B. "When did you last have a mammogram?" C. "Is there a history of breast cancer in your mother or sisters?" D. "Do the size and tenderness of the lumps change with your menstrual cycle?"

D. Most breast lesion are benign, and many mobile cystic lesions change in response to menstrual cycle, whereas most malignant tumors do not. Caffeine has been associated with fibrocystic changes in some women, but research has not established caffeine as a cause of breast pain or cysts. Questions regarding a patients last mammogram of family history are not closely related to the nurse's findings

Which diagnostic test is most accurate and adventageous in terms of time and expense in diagnosis of malignant breast disorders? A. Mammography B. Excisional biopsy C. Fine-Needle aspiration D. Core (core needle) biopsy

D. A definitive diagnosis of breast cancer can be made only by a histological examination of biopsied tissue. A core (core needle) biopsy is as reliable as an excisional biopsy and has the advantages of decreased length of time for the procedure and recovery and reduced cost. A limitation of fine needle aspiration is that if negative results are found, more definitive biopsy procedures are required.

A patient undergoing either a mastectomy or a lumpectomy for treatment of breast cancer can also usually expect to undergo what other treatment? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation Therapy C. Hormonal Therapy D. Sentinel lymph node dissection

D. Sentinel lymph node dissection (SLND) has become the standard of care, with axillary lymph node dissection reserved for patients with clinical indications of disease in the axilla. SNLD provides prognostic information and helps to determine further treatment. A lumpectomy, or breast conservation surgery, is followed by radiation therapy to the entire breast and the use of chemotherapy or hormone therapy depends on the characteristics of the tumor and evidence of metastases

The nurse administers a Gardasil vaccine to an 18-yr-old female patient. After the injection, which patient instruction is priority? a. Avoid sexual activity for 24 to 48 hours. b. Remain lying down for at least 15 minutes. c. Return to the clinic in 6 months for a second dose. d. Use two methods of birth control to avoid pregnancy.

b. Remain lying down for at least 15 minutes.

A 19-yr-old man comes to the outpatient clinic for treatment of uncomplicated gonorrhea. Which patient statement requires immediate clarification by the nurse? a. "I should avoid alcohol intake for at least 2 weeks." b. "I will have my sexual partner come in for treatment." c. "After I start the antibiotic, it is safe to have sex again." d. "After the treatment, I do not need to return to the clinic for retesting."

c. "After I start the antibiotic, it is safe to have sex again."

In working with teenagers, what should the nurse include when teaching about prevention of STIs? a. Spermicidal jellies reduce the risk of getting STIs. b. STIs are easily cured so prevention is not important. c. Abstinence and then condoms are the best prevention. d. Douches for women and cleaning the penis will prevent STIs.

c. Abstinence and then condoms are the best prevention.

While summarizing teaching regarding genital herpes, which patient statement indicates a need for further instruction? a. "No cure is available for my genital herpes." b. "I will utilize my medication when I begin to have symptoms." c. "Genital herpes may be caused by herpes simplex virus type 1 or 2" d. "I am not able to infect a sexual partner unless I have active lesions."

d. "I am not able to infect a sexual partner unless I have active lesions."

The nurse obtains a history from a 34-yr-old woman diagnosed with a chlamydial infection. Which patient statement indicates additional teaching is required? a. "This infection can be cured by taking antibiotics." b. "It is important to use condoms for all sexual activity." c. "I will avoid sexual contact for 1 week after taking the antibiotics." d. "My sexual partner does not have symptoms and will not need treatment."

d. "My sexual partner does not have symptoms and will not need treatment."

Which event discovered during pregnancy would alert the nurse that a cesarean section delivery is indicated? a. Contact with an individual with syphilis 2 weeks ago b. Treatment for gonococcal pharyngitis before conception c. Treatment for Chlamydia trachomatis at her 20th week of gestation d. Active herpes simplex virus type 2 vesicles on her cervix at the time of delivery

d. Active herpes simplex virus type 2 vesicles on her cervix at the time of delivery

Lewis Ch. 51 & 52 STIs, Breast Disorders

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