LMSW EXAM (618&628)
A young woman who is experiencing hallucinations is suffering from schizophrenia. Generally, a hallucination is referred to as: A. A positive symptom. B. A negative symptom. C. A substitute symptom. D. A delusional symptom.
A. A positive symptom.
The following best describes the term dystonia: A. Acute contractions of the tongue (stiff or thick tongue). B. Akathisia. C. Hallucinations. D. Tardive dyskinesia.
A. Acute contractions of the tongue (stiff or thick tongue).
When danger to self is suspected, it is best to do the following FIRST: A. Ask direct questions to screen for suicidal thoughts or plans. B. Immediately call the police, as there is no time to ask questions. C. Form a safety plan only if there is a concrete plan. D. None of the above.
A. Ask direct questions to screen for suicidal thoughts or plans.
In the DSM-IV-TR the term GAF stands for the: A. Global Assessment of Functioning. B. General Functioning. C. General Assessment of Feelings. D. Global Learning Perspective.
A. Global Assessment of Functioning.
Which of the following is the most prevalent characteristic of an individual with schizoid personality disorder? A. Is aloof and withdrawn. B. Is isolated. C. Exhibits ideas of reference. D. Is preoccupied with being criticized
A. Is aloof and withdrawn.
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a delusion? A. It is a false belief held despite evidence to the contrary. B. It is a sensory perception that occurs without stimuli. C. It is a belief that is generally followed by a hallucination. D. It is a sensory perception followed by a hallucination.
A. It is a false belief held despite evidence to the contrary.
Of the choices listed, which is the time frame in which the client experiences the active problematic symptoms for schizophrenia? A. More than 6 months. B. Less than 6 months. C. Less than 1 month. D. None of the above.
A. More than 6 months.
Computer-generated notes are common. The following statements are true EXCEPT: A. Never have a backup save function in your record system, as this is unethical. B. Passwords should be stored in a safe place. C. Client records must be stored in a safe and secure place. D. When working with famous people, one is allowed to use a fictitious name and must keep the real name linked to the fictitious name in a protected place.
A. Never have a backup save function in your record system, as this is unethical.
Which statement best describes the term multidisciplinary when collaborating with other disciplines? A. Professionals from multiple disciplines work together to address common problems, while also sharing information to address the needs of the client. B. The team develops the plan of action together with no independent thinking or boundaries across disciplines. C. Members of the team always supervise each member's work. D. Interdependence is stressed rather than networking.
A. Professionals from multiple disciplines work together to address common problems, while also sharing information to address the needs of the client.
Out of the choices listed, choose the statement that BEST describes the term obsessions: A. Recurring and distressing thoughts, images, and urges that disturb an individual's functioning. B. These are only related to the thoughts an individual cannot control. C. The idea that individuals cannot control their impulses. D. The repetitive behaviors or mental acts.
A. Recurring and distressing thoughts, images, and urges that disturb an individual's functioning.
Of the following psychotic disorders, which one would be MOST often referred to as a principal diagnosis with more than a 6-month time frame l? A. Schizophrenia. B. Schizophreniform disorder. C. Schizotypal personality disorder. D. Shared psychotic disorder.
A. Schizophrenia.
The DSM-5 is divided into three sections. Which statement is FALSE in regard to the organizational structure of the new DSM-5? A. Section I—Introduction, Section II—Directions on how to use the new updated manual, and Section III—Categorical diagnoses. B. Section II includes 20 disorder chapters and 2 supporting chapters. C. Section III—Subsections covered include assessment measures, cultural formulation, an alternative DSM-5 model for personality disorders, highlights of the changes from DSM-IV to DSM-5, a glossary of terms, and an alphabetical listing of DSM-5 diagnoses and codes (ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM). D. Seven appendixes are included providing supportive information.
A. Section I—Introduction, Section II—Directions on how to use the new updated manual, and Section III—Categorical diagnoses.
In the DSM-5, the Cultural Formulation Interview is a: A. Semistructured interview that outlines 16 questions. B. A survey that asks 15 questions of the participants. C. A Likert-type scale that rates the military member's feelings. D. An open-ended interview where the client asks the questions.
A. Semistructured interview that outlines 16 questions.
Dystonia is BEST described as: A. Sudden and painful muscle stiffness—for example, grimacing or difficulty with speech or swallowing. B. Upward rotation of the eyeballs. C. An extreme form of motor restlessness that can be mistaken for agitation—for example, constant pacing. D. Involuntary movements of any muscle group.
A. Sudden and painful muscle stiffness—for example, grimacing or difficulty with speech or swallowing.
When working with individuals suffering from a depressive disorder, using rapid assessment instruments may assist the practitioner in arriving at a more careful and comprehensive assessment and treatment plan. The following is an example of a scale that can be used for the overall assessment of the client's symptoms and functioning: A. The Mood Disorder Questionnaire. B. Mood-Related Pleasant Events Schedule (MRPES). C. Semantic Differential Feeling and Mood Scales (SDFMS). D. The Family Sense of Coherence (FSOC) and Family Adaption Scales (FAS).
A. The Mood Disorder Questionnaire.
The instrument for measuring disability in the DSM-5 is the: A. WHODAS. B. WHADAP. C. ICD-10. D. GAF-II.
A. WHODAS.
Of the conditions listed, which ones constitute the personality disorder referred to as Cluster A and characterized by odd and eccentric behavior? A.Paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. B. Antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder. C. Avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. D. Bereavement, malingering, and adolescent antisocial act.
A.Paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder.
L., who is diagnosed with schizophrenia, often misperceives all attempts of touch as frightening and does not appear to understand how to maintain professional or personal space in the counseling relationship or with her peers. It is said that this client is exhibiting signs of a disturbance of: A. Affect. B. Association. C. Autism. D. Ambivalence.
B. Association.
An individual who has one or more depressive episodes with at least one hypomanic episode may be suffering from: A. Bipolar I disorder. B. Bipolar II disorder. C. Major depressive disorder. D. None of the above.
B. Bipolar II disorder.
In DSM-5, taking into account the culture is generally referred to as: A. Cultural-bound syndromes. B. Cultural concepts of distress. C. Cultural aspects. D. Cultural formulations.
B. Cultural concepts of distress.
If a mistake is noted in a client's written record, you must acknowledge it before changing the documentation for accuracy. The best way to handle the mistake in the client's written case record is to: A. Simply erase the mistake and start over. B. Draw a thin line through what you want to change and then initial and date it. C. If they are computer notes, you can delete the information and start again. D. None of the above.
B. Draw a thin line through what you want to change and then initial and date it.
Sally states that she has been depressed for a long time, at least 2 years. She often reports feeling sad, lost, and alone. What is her most likely diagnosis? A. Depression. B. Dysthymia. C. Cyclothymia. D. Major depressive disorder.
B. Dysthymia.
The reason an individual is seen by a mental health professional or admitted to an inpatient facility according to the DSM-5 is termed the: A. Provisional diagnosis. B. Principal diagnosis. C. Course specifier. D. First diagnosis.
B. Principal diagnosis.
From the choices listed, select the one that BEST describes the term compulsions: A. Recurring and distressing thoughts, images, and urges. B. The repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. C. Recurring thoughts that are a cause of distress for the individual. D. None of the above.
B. The repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be applied rigidly.
In regard to a provisional diagnosis, it is important to remember this is: A. Only given to adults older than 40. B. Only given to children. C. A temporary diagnosis that needs to be monitored. D. None of the above.
C. A temporary diagnosis that needs to be monitored.
This disorder is characterized by having a persistent mood disturbance lasting at least 2 years, and the individual must not be without the symptoms for a period of 2 months: A. Bipolar I disorder. B. Bipolar II disorder. C. Cyclothymic disorder. D. None of the above.
C. Cyclothymic disorder.
The following are negative symptoms EXCEPT: A. Asociality. B. Alogia. C. Delusions. D. Avolition.
C. Delusions.
When a client suffers from schizophrenia, what is considered a common age of onset? A. 40s. B. Before age 6. C. Late teen years to mid 30s. D. In the early 60s.
C. Late teen years to mid 30s.
There are various types of record-keeping formats that mental health facilities utilize. The following is an example of a POR format: A. WHODAS. B. GAF. C. SOAP. D. None of the above.
C. SOAP.
The following are examples of common compulsions a person may experience EXCEPT: A. Repeating words. B. Counting. C. Cleaning. D. Fear of contamination.
D. Fear of contamination.
In major depressive disorder, there are nine potential symptoms outlined in criterion A, and to meet the minimal diagnostic criteria for the condition the client would need to have at least: A. Two of the nine. B. Eight of the nine. C. Three of the nine. D. Five of the nine.
D. Five of the nine.
A provisional diagnosis may be given if a principal diagnosis cannot be determined. This is often referred to as: A. The term for another medical condition. B. A one-size-fits-all diagnosis. C. A permanent diagnosis and cannot be changed. D. The best educated clinical guess.
D. The best educated clinical guess.
All of the following statements describe the interdisciplinary team approach EXCEPT: A. Each team member is encouraged to contribute, design, and implement the group goals for the healthcare service to be provided. B. Interdisciplinary professionals work together throughout the process of service provision. C. Interdependence is stressed throughout the referral, assessment, treatment, and planning process rather than through networking. D. The professionals work independently and then share the information gathered in a group setting.
D. The professionals work independently and then share the information gathered in a group setting.
The term WHODAS stands for: A. Generalized Assessment of Functioning Scale. B. World Health Organization Disaster Assessment Scale. C. World Health Organization Direct Assessment Scale. D. World Health Organization Disability Assessment Scale.
D. World Health Organization Disability Assessment Scale.
The following disorder(s) was/were recently added to the chapter on the depressive disorders in DSM-5: A. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder and premenstrual dysphoric disorder. B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. C. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder. D. No disorders have been added to the depressive disorders listed in the DSM-5.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
True or False. In the bipolar and related disorders, there is no coding that allows for specifying if there is partial remission or full remission.
False
True or False. Individuals experiencing anxiety-causing disturbances in function are quick to seek help from medical and mental health professionals.
False
A man is admitted to an inpatient facility with complaints of fatigue, no appetite, and little interest in daily activities. He also sits and stares into space for hours at a time. He reports that he has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. What would be the most appropriate diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia. B. Major depressive disorder. C. Specific phobia. D. Schizoaffective disorder.
Major depressive disorder.
The following are disorders listed as depressive disorders in the DSM-5 EXCEPT: A. Disruptive mood. B. Schizophrenia. C. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
Schizophrenia.
The following statements are true when dealing with the self-reporting of symptoms from clients EXCEPT: A. It is essential to consider the influence of life factors. B. Client interpretation and expression of symptoms can influence what is reported. C. Self-reporting of symptoms is always accurate and clear as to what the individual is experiencing. D. Cultural influences and complexities relative to a client's cultural identity must be addressed.
Self-reporting of symptoms is always accurate and clear as to what the individual is experiencing.
According to the DSM-5, when a client suffers from a medical condition and this medical condition can affect the mental health disorder, it should be included as part of the diagnostic assessment. True False
True
In the DSM-5 you can have more than one provisional diagnosis, and if so they are listed in terms of attention. True False
True
True or False. It is always important to assess for the possibility of danger to self or others if the individual makes reference to suicide, appears depressed, reports feeling better after a pronounced depression and the person's energy level is returning, and or has a history of suicide attempts.
True
True or False. It is believed by most professionals that psychosocial interventions are considered best practices (with or without medications) at targeting the behavioral and problematic components of OCD. True False
True
True or False. The most prominent characteristics that the depressive disorders have in common are the cognitive, somatic, and emotional changes reflective of the feelings of sadness and irritability.
True
True or False. The psychotic disorders involve some level of psychosis that results in distorted perceptions and affects the way an individual perceives reality. Therefore during this state an individual cannot function as others do.
True
True or False. When thinking about intervention plans, it is important to identify clear goals, objectives, and indicators for practice strategy, although the best intervention plans may need constant modification and renegotiating.
True
J. is a depressed client with a history of suicidal behavior. When should the social worker be most concerned about J. attempting suicide? A. When J. changes employment. B. When J.'s depression starts to lift. C. When J. withdraws from therapy. D. When J. complains he is having recurring cases of the blues.
When J.'s depression starts to lift.
The essential feature of BPD per the DSM is a pervasive pattern of instability with interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. True False
True
Trauma can be defined as the occurrence of emotionally traumatic events that can overwhelm an individual. True False
True
True or False. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and contemporary behavior therapy are interventions used to treat OCD spectrum disorders.
True
Children and adolescents suffering from this disorder often have aggressive behaviors directed toward people or animals. The disorder most likely being exhibited is: A. A conduct disorder. B. An oppositional disorder. C. Symptoms of abuse or neglect. D. Separation anxiety disorder.
A. A conduct disorder.
P., a 6-year-old child, frequently in trouble for severe and aggressive behaviors directed toward people or animals. The child is most likely exhibiting: A. A conduct disorder. B. An oppositional disorder. C. Symptoms of abuse or neglect. D. Separation anxiety disorder.
A. A conduct disorder.
A 15-year-old is brought to a therapist by her mother for substance abuse concerns. The 15-year-old denies having a problem with substance abuse, but expresses concerns about her family. The social worker should first: A. Acknowledge that the 15-year-old has concerns about the family. B. Refer the 15-year-old immediately for substance abuse counseling. C. Refer the 15-year-old for a substance abuse assessment. D. Refer the 15-year-old for a medical exam.
A. Acknowledge that the 15-year-old has concerns about the family.
The following assessment focuses on children: A. Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). B. SOAP. C. GARF. D. All of the above.
A. Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL).
The DSM-5 lists the essential feature of sexual dysfunction in response to the human sexual response cycle as: A. Having clinically significant difficulty in either responding to or experiencing sexual pleasure. B. Having clinically significant difficulty responding to sexual pleasure. C. Having clinically significant difficulty experiencing sexual pleasure. D. Having sexual desires that are not met 100% of the time.
A. Having clinically significant difficulty in either responding to or experiencing sexual pleasure.
In the DSM-5, gambling disorder has been moved. Where was this disorder in the previous edition of the DSM? A. It was under the impulse-control disorders. B. It was not moved, and remains where it was originally. C. It was not listed in the previous version. D. It was listed in with the children's disorders.
A. It was under the impulse-control disorders.
M. suffers from borderline personality disorder. Of the statements listed, which is NOT considered a typical characteristic of this type of personality disorder? A. Lack of control leading to repeated violent behaviors. B. Intense desire for control of relationships. C. Difficult long-term relationships. D. Self-destructive behavior.
A. Lack of control leading to repeated violent behaviors.
A client with OCD states that his greatest fear is that if he decreases the compulsive behavior it will increase his: A. Loss of control. B. Anxiety. C. Anger. D. Depression.
A. Loss of control.
Of the conditions listed, which ones constitute the personality disorder referred to as cluster A and characterized by odd and eccentric behavior? A. Paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. B. Antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder. C. Avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. D. Bereavement, malingering, and adolescent antisocial act.
A. Paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder.
The following statements are true about pyromania EXCEPT: A. The reason for the fire setting is related to social or political purposes. B. Pyromania involves multiple episodes of deliberate and purposeful fire setting. C. The reason behind the fire setting is to fulfill an intense personal desire. D. There are often feelings of relief and pleasure with a pronounced infatuation with the fire and the aftermath.
A. The reason for the fire setting is related to social or political purposes.
According to the DSM-5, how many personality disorders are there? A. 10. B. 10 plus 3. C. Axis 15. D. 21.
B. 10 plus 3.
A 15-year-old African American teenager found her mother shot to death a week ago. Since that time, she has not been able to sleep or eat. She has now been brought to the hospital. What is the best preliminary diagnosis? A. PTSD. B. Acute stress disorder. C. Major depressive disorder. D. Anxiety.
B. Acute stress disorder.
Changes have been made to the sexual dysfunctions in DSM-5 that can assist with placing the diagnosis. Which of the following statements is TRUE based on these changes? A. The time frame is now the same for all the sexual dysfunctions. B. All sexual dysfunctions (except substance- or medication-induced sexual dysfunction) require a minimum duration of approximately 6 months. C. Only one problem should be listed as the cause of the distress. D. Collateral sources should never be used to gather information.
B. All sexual dysfunctions (except substance- or medication-induced sexual dysfunction) require a minimum duration of approximately 6 months.
The following tests are used to determine drug use. Which listed test is MOST complete? A. Urine tests and hair tests. B. Breath analyzer, urine tests, hair tests, and oral fluid or saliva. C. Breath analyzer and urine tests. D. Breath analyzer, urine tests, and hair tests.
B. Breath analyzer, urine tests, hair tests, and oral fluid or saliva.
A client suffers from antisocial personality disorder. What is the best way to engage the client in the initial session? A. Contract. B. Develop mutually agreed goals. C. Identify the problem. D. Discuss the past problems.
B. Develop mutually agreed goals.
In clinical assessment when working with clients experiencing sexual dysfunctions, practitioners should obtain information on symptoms such as: A. Frequency and intensity only. B. Frequency, intensity, duration, setting, degree of sexual impairment, level of subjective distress, and how these symptoms can affect other areas of functioning. C. The duration and level of subjective distress only. D. No guidelines are suggested, and it is left to clinical judgment.
B. Frequency, intensity, duration, setting, degree of sexual impairment, level of subjective distress, and how these symptoms can affect other areas of functioning.
Anxious clients may be uncomfortable filling out assessment measures. Since this may happen, it is important to: A. Avoid self-report assessments at all times. B. Go slow, be sensitive to this issue, and gather collateral information when able. C. Rush the assessments, as this will ensure they are completed and out of the way. D. Seek collateral information only.
B. Go slow, be sensitive to this issue, and gather collateral information when able.
New to the DSM-5 is the disorder known as disinhibited social engagement disorder (DSED), and this disorder should not be confused with reactive attachment disorder (RAD). From the list, which is the primary difference between the two disorders? A. One is a childhood disorder; the other is not. B. In DSED the child will actively contact and interact with many adults, including the ones he or she is not familiar with; this is the opposite of RAD. C. Age of onset is at least 9 months for RAD but not DSED. D. RAD involves some form of extreme or insufficient care that resulted in the behaviors exhibited, but DSED does not.
B. In DSED the child will actively contact and interact with many adults, including the ones he or she is not familiar with; this is the opposite of RAD.
When working with a client that has a personality disorder and using planned brief treatment, it should include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Establishing goals. B. Maintaining neutrality. C. Identifying a clear focus. D.Alleviating presenting complaints.
B. Maintaining neutrality.
Personality disorders are listed in the DSM-5 under Other Personality Disorders, formerly known in the DSM-IV-TR as the Not Otherwise Specified category. Which statement lists these disorders? A. Bereavement, malingering, and adolescent antisocial act. B. Personality change due to another medical condition, other specified personality disorder, and unspecified personality disorder. C. Personality change due to another medical condition, and other specified personality disorder. D. Other specified personality disorder, and unspecified personality disorder.
B. Personality change due to another medical condition, other specified personality disorder, and unspecified personality disorder.
A social worker is working with a client suffering from borderline personality disorder; when the therapist goes over what was discussed in family therapy, and also goes over what was agreed to be worked on for the next session, this is called: A. Focusing. B. Summarizing. C. Rephrasing. D. Clarifying.
B. Summarizing.
When completing the diagnostic impression for ODD, it is important to assess the current level of severity this is BEST explained by: A. The number of symptoms. B. The number of places the symptoms can occur. C. The number of places the symptoms can occur plus the actual count of symptoms. D.The lower the number, the more settings are affected.
B. The number of places the symptoms can occur.
A male client reports to a social worker that he is impotent with his current partner; what explanation would LEAST likely contribute to his impotency? A. Medication for blood pressure. B. Having an extramarital affair. C. Age. D. Alcohol abuse.
C. Age
Metacognitions: A. Are critical to forming impressions about people as well as events. B. Include mental processes that provide the basis for trust and safety assessments. C. Both A and B are correct. D. None of the above describes metacognitions.
C. Both A and B
The substance use disorders (SUDs) can be applied to all 10 substances EXCEPT: A. Alcohol. B. Cocaine. C. Caffeine. D. None of the above.
C. Caffeine.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of cocaine withdrawal? A. Anxiety. B. Cravings. C. Delirium tremens. D. Paranoia.
C. Delirium tremens.
A social worker is working with a client who has PTSD. What best tells the social worker the client's ability to change? A. How he expresses problems. B. How he has handled stress in the past. C. How motivated the client is for change. D. Whether the client takes responsibility for behaviors.
C. How motivated the client is for change.
Which statement from the choices listed BEST describes the disorder known as paranoid personality disorder (PPD)? A. Individuals do not seek and or do not want to develop intimate relationships with others. B. This disorder can be referred to as most similar to schizophrenia. C. In this disorder, individuals assume the ill intent of others and believe that others might exploit, harm, or deceive them; at times they may think they have been injured by someone with no evidence that this occurred. D. This disorder includes deceit and manipulation of others and failure to adhere to social norms.
C. In this disorder, individuals assume the ill intent of others and believe that others might exploit, harm, or deceive them; at times they may think they have been injured by someone with no evidence that this occurred.
In the DSM-5, sexual dysfunctions may be given specifiers; which of the following are the specifiers used to denote the severity of the distress? A. In remission. B. Mild or severe symptoms only. C. Mild, moderate, or severe. D. Intermittent and stabilized.
C. Mild, moderate, or severe.
A person with which of the following personality disorders has the greatest difficulty expressing empathy for others? A. Borderline personality disorder. B. Paranoid personality disorder. C. Narcissistic personality disorder. D. Antisocial personality disorder.
C. Narcissistic personality disorder.
Collateral contact information adds valuable information in the assessment and treatment of children and adolescents. Which statement BEST describes examples of collateral contacts? A. Family and school only. B. Parents and family only. C. Parents, the school system, the community, and other informants who can provide vital information pertaining to the child's difficulties and can impact the treatment process. D. None of the above statements describe collateral contacts.
C. Parents, the school system, the community, and other informants who can provide vital information pertaining to the child's difficulties and can impact the treatment process.
What model is particularly useful in addressing metacognitive beliefs associated with rumination, major depression, panic disorder, social phobia, hypochondriasis, obsessive-compulsive symptoms, and worry? A. A-B-C-D-E model. B. Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT). C. Self-Regulatory Executive Function (S-REF) model. D. None of the above is useful.
C. Self-Regulatory Executive Function (S-REF) model.
A teenager is abusing methamphetamine. This drug is considered a: A. Depressant. B. Inhalant. C. Stimulant. D. Hallucinogen.
C. Stimulant.
A client who is addicted to alcohol is motivated to stop drinking. He is supposed to go to AA meetings but, before going, he gets extremely anxious, and this anxiety stops him from going to the meetings. The social worker should: A. Help the client to learn to deal with the stress. B. Refer him to a psychiatrist for medications. C. Teach him about stress reduction techniques. D. Tell him he has to go anyway.
C. Teach him about stress reduction techniques.
The average age for the onset of bipolar disorder is: A. Late adulthood. B. Early childhood. C. Late teens. D. About 20 years of age.
D. About 20 years of age.
The symptoms evidenced in schizophrenia have better outcomes when they occur: A. Gradually over many years. B. Suddenly in the third decade of life. C. At birth. D. After a traumatic event.
D. After a traumatic event.
When documenting the psychological aspects that can affect sexual response, the following important psychological aspect(s) should be noted: A. Feeling turned off. B. Anxiety. C. Power and control struggles. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above
In order for a sexual dysfunction to be a sexual disorder, the lack of sexual desire must be viewed as a persistent and recurrent problem that causes marked distress and interpersonal difficulty. Which response is NOT attributed to the sexual dysfunction? A. Another clinical diagnosis—for example, major depression or adjustment disorder. B. When it is related to a medical condition. C. When it is caused by substance abuse. D. All of the above are not attributed to a sexual dysfunction.
D. All of the above are not attributed to a sexual dysfunction.
When working with children and adolescents suffering from a mental disorder, it is important to remember: A. Children are physically, cognitively, intellectually, emotionally, socially, and developmentally different from adults. B. Children should not be assessed as if developmentally they are the same as adults. C. Influence by and dependence on peers and family are different from those of an adult. D. All of the above are true.
D. All of the above are true.
A recent physical is essential, as some medical conditions can inhibit orgasmic responses. Which of the following conditions is/are likely to inhibit orgasmic response? A. Diabetes. B. Endocrine and metabolic disorders and thyroid deficiency. C. Multiple sclerosis; spinal cord and peripheral nerve damage. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
In the diagnostic assessment of substance use disorders, which of the following areas need to be assessed? A. Impaired control and social impairment. B. Pharmacological criteria. C. Risky use. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
A social worker has been contacted to evaluate a 5 year-old boy. His teacher claims that he is hitting, pushing, and kicking other children and he often makes menacing gestures toward the other children. The social worker is most likely to suspect: A. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder. B. Sexual abuse. C. Parental neglect. D. Conduct disorder.
D. Conduct disorder.
An individual with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is NOT likely to display the following characteristic: A. Stinginess. B. Indecision. C. Perfectionism. D. Hallucinations.
D. Hallucinations.
A client becomes overly dramatic when reporting an event. She cries out repeatedly and stops talking periodically, stating that no matter how painful recounting the event is she must go on to finish her account of what happened. Her voice is very dramatic and the presentation appears to be exaggerated. What type of behavior is she most likely exhibiting? A. Dependent. B. Borderline. C.Passive aggressive. D. Histrionic.
D. Histrionic.
In completing the diagnostic assessment related to a sexual disorder, note all of the following EXCEPT: A. If the condition is lifelong or acquired. B. Whether it is general or situational, conjunct, or solitary. C.If it is due to a medical, substance, psychological, and/or combined factors. D. If present, all of the above should be listed.
D. If present, all of the above should be listed.
Of the statements listed, which best describes individuals suffering from schizoid personality disorder (SPD)? A. Individuals prefer to be in groups, as being alone makes them feel paranoid. B. Individuals seek out personal relationships, as they do not like to be alone. C. Individuals must have a minimum of all seven characteristics listed in criterion A. D. Individuals often avoid developing intimate and romantic sexual relationships with others.
D. Individuals often avoid developing intimate and romantic sexual relationships with others.
In the trauma and stressor-related disorders, anxiety: A. Is never present. B. Is always present. C. Is present half the time. D. May or may not be present.
D. May or may not be present.
A 13-year-old client is diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. Which of the following behaviors is NOT listed in the DSM as a symptom of the diagnosis? A. Argumentativeness. B. Swearing. C. Blaming others. D. Severe aggression to animals.
D. Severe aggression to animals.
An individual with histrionic personality disorder would be LEAST likely to display which of these characteristics? A. Egocentric and self-centered. B. Dramatic and explosive. C. Grandiose and self-indulgent. D. Shy and bashful.
D. Shy and bashful.
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and acute stress disorder (ASD) are very similar in symptoms and stressors, but the duration of the symptoms is different. In PTSD an individual must experience the symptoms for more than 1 month, whereas in ASD: A. No time frame for the onset of symptoms is outlined. B. The symptoms are experienced for a 6-month period without a break. C. The symptoms are similar except they occur immediately after the event with no time delay. D. The symptoms occur 3 days to 1 month after the stressor.
D. The symptoms occur 3 days to 1 month after the stressor.
When looking at specifiers and the sexual disorders listed in DSM-5, criteria are outlined for what constitutes the different levels of the disorders. True False
False
In the DSM-5, several of the criteria in the categories of substance abuse and substance dependence were combined to form substance use disorder. True False
TRUE
A common feature of individuals with narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is emotional coldness and absence of reciprocal interests with others. True False
True
In Section III of the DSM-5 an alternative model for personality disorders is presented. The consensus about the alternative model was that it was too drastic a change to be included in the DSM-5 but, given its relevance, it was added to Section III under the area for further study. True False
True
True or False. Utilizing the severity specifiers makes identifying the settings for possible treatment strategies easier, as you can focus on the areas where the problem behaviors are present. True False
True
True or False. When working with children and adolescents with disruptive behaviors, it is always important to complete risk assessment and, if warranted, a safety plan. True False
True
Disorders listed in the trauma- and stressor-related disorders section of the DSM-5 involve trauma that is experienced either directly or indirectly. True False
true
A husband and wife who have 11 years of drug recovery seek the help of a social worker for therapy. The couple reports that they are frequently arguing and cannot understand why this is happening. The social worker should first: A. Assess for relapse of one or both partners. B. Inquire about domestic violence. C. Work on communication techniques. D. Refer for substance abuse counseling.
A. Assess for relapse of one or both partners.
An individual who has one or more manic episodes, usually with a history of depressive episodes, may be suffering from: A. Bipolar I disorder. B. Bipolar II disorder. C. Major depressive disorder. D. None of the above.
A. Bipolar I disorder.
Understanding the sexual response cycle can provide valuable information when working with individuals who suffer from a sexual dysfunction. The following stages in the sexual response cycle are: A. Desire phase, excitement phase, orgasm phase, resolution phase. B. Excitement phase, desire phase, resolution phase. C. Resolution phase, orgasm phase, excitement phase. D. Resolution phase, excitement phase, orgasm phase.
A. Desire phase, excitement phase, orgasm phase, resolution phase.
A client suffering from borderline personality disorder has seen a therapist six times and is progressing. Yet, at the next session, the client states she does not like the therapist, as she is not getting adequate attention and not all is well. What is the client doing? A. Exhibiting manipulation. B. Exhibiting histrionic behavior. C. Expressing concerns. D. Having boundary issues.
A. Exhibiting manipulation.
Which is the most appropriate medication used in the treatment of bipolar disorder? A. Lithium. B. Paxil. C. Zoloft. D. Alprazolam.
A. Lithium.
A social worker is working with a client and is assessing how he responds to the orientation to person, place, time, and situation. Given this clinical scenario, which type of testing is the social worker most likely conducting? A. Mental status testing. B. Intelligence testing. C. Current events testing. D. Reality orientation.
A. Mental status testing.
Of the conditions listed, which one does NOT fit a personality disorder referred to as a cluster C and therefore does not share the theme of anxious and fearful behaviors that cluster C personality disorders do. A. Paranoid personality disorder. B. Avoidant personality disorder (AvPD). C. Dependent personality disorder (DPD). D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD).
A. Paranoid personality disorder.
Stress and stressful situations are a normal part of life. When the response to the traumatic or stressful event becomes excessive, problematic responses can affect every aspect of an individual's cognitive, behavioral, physiological, biological, and social responses. The extreme responses are categorized as trauma and stressor-related disorders. The following is an example of a disorder under this heading: A. Post-traumatic stress disorder. B. Bipolar disorder. C. Excoriation disorder. D. Conduct disorder.
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder.
A social worker is working with a 40-year-old client with no mental health history who had experienced several recent losses, decreased appetite, weight loss, and insomnia, and reports having auditory hallucinations telling him to kill himself. He expresses problems with his family. He is taking prescription medication for depression recently given to him by his family physician. The social worker should: A. Refer the client to a mental health clinic for a medical/medication evaluation. B. Refer the client to the local medical clinic for follow-up. C. Refer the client to a substance treatment facility. D. Call the client's family and invite them in for a session.
A. Refer the client to a mental health clinic for a medical/medication evaluation.
A client is seeing a social worker in treatment. The diagnosis the client has is schizophrenia with a long history of positive symptoms. What is the best practice recommendation for the further treatment for this client? A. Refer to a medication group. B. Refer to a task-centered group. C. Refer to a relaxation group. D. Refer to a family therapy group.
A. Refer to a medication group.
Major premises guided the changes made in the latest version of the DSM. The following statement BEST explains the major premises used to guide the revisions in the DSM-5: A. Revisions focused on improving clinical utility with limited prior restraints related to the degree of change between this latest revision and its predecessors. B. Revisions were based only on the professional opinions of those participating in the diagnostic work groups; no public opinion from other professionals was considered. C. Revisions were in process for approximately one year. D. Revisions for this latest edition focused on descriptive factors, not etiological factors like the earlier versions of the DSM.
A. Revisions focused on improving clinical utility with limited prior restraints related to the degree of change between this latest revision and its predecessors.
The DSM-5 is a valuable tool for clinicians with a focus on completing a diagnostic assessment. From the statements listed, which best describes a limitation of the DSM and all of its predecessors? A. The DSM does not suggest treatment. B. The DSM suggests medications. C. The DSM suggests intervention strategies. D. The DSM does not suggest diagnostic criteria.
A. The DSM does not suggest treatment.
Most counseling professionals are not qualified to examine or diagnose biomedical information. This information, however, can help the practitioner to become aware of how medical conditions can either influence or complicate the mental health issues an individual is experiencing. Therefore, professionals skilled in mental health are expected to do which of the following? A. The mental health professional should document and note any concerns in regard to the general physical health or medical condition when aware, and provide referrals as needed to foster comprehensive care. B. The only time biomedical information is gathered and relevant is if the individual is experiencing some kind of physical pain at the initial encounter with the mental health professional. C. A medical checkup is usually not initiated unless the counseling professional feels drug abuse is an issue. D. Medical checkups are almost never needed, as all patients have seen the doctor before initial contact with a mental health professional.
A. The mental health professional should document and note any concerns in regard to the general physical health or medical condition when aware, and provide referrals as needed to foster comprehensive care.
Which disorder included in the DSM-5 under obsessive-compulsive and related disorders is characterized by hair pulling? A. Trichotillomania disorder. B. Excoriation disorder. C. Body dysmorphic disorder. D. Hoarding disorder.
A. Trichotillomania disorder.
According to the DSM-5, other conditions that may be the focus of clinical attention are generally coded with a(n): A. V or Z. B. Q or W. C. Not coded. D. F or P.
A. V or Z.
The technique of choice for addressing the needs of a person with borderline personality disorder and his or her need to control in therapy is: A. Do not allow the client to have control of any part of the session. B. Allow the client to feel as if she or he has some control of the session. C. Confront the client on his or her use of diminishing defenses, and ignore the issue of control. D. Set up alliances with others in the group setting to address the control issues of the client.
B. Allow the client to feel as if she or he has some control of the session.
According to the DSM-5, life stressors and circumstances are generally coded: A. On Axis IV. B. As supporting information. C. With the WHODAS. D. As mental disorders.
B. As supporting information.
According to the parents of J. (an 8-year-old boy), the child exhibits very violent tendencies that they are not sure how to handle. The child often kicks, punches, and bites other children. This child's behavior is most representative of what diagnosis? A. Oppositional disorder. B. Conduct disorder. C. Separation anxiety disorder. D. Stuttering.
B. Conduct disorder
A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia begins to hallucinate. The social worker should: A. Engage with the hallucination to diminish the client's anxiety. B. Continue to provide ego support. C. Refer the patient to a psychiatrist for medication. D. Offer insight.
B. Continue to provide ego support.
Tolerance is defined as: A. The same amount of the drug used over and over to achieve the desired effect. B. Continued use with an increased amount of consumption of the same substance to achieve prior desired effects. C. The increase in the amount of consumption with the hopes of achieving better effects. D. None of the above.
B. Continued use with an increased amount of consumption of the same substance to achieve prior desired effects.
Several steps need to be identified when developing a treatment plan for a client suffering from mental health problems. From the following choices, which one is FALSE? A. Problem behaviors that are interfering with functioning need to be identified, and once identified they need to be linked to the intervention process. B. Family and support systems should be involved only when suicidal thoughts are being assessed. C. Involving the family and support system in the formulation and application can be very beneficial. D. None of the choices are false.
B. Family and support systems should be involved only when suicidal thoughts are being assessed.
What are two medical conditions that are MOST often overlooked and if not noted can relate directly to the diagnostic assessment? A. Previous history of stroke. B. Hearing and vision impairment. C. Medical conditions such as diabetes. D. A urinary tract infection in teenagers.
B. Hearing and vision impairment.
The DSM-5 reports that the typical age of onset for schizophrenia is: A. Late 30s. B. Late teens to mid-30s. C. Early childhood. D. None of the above.
B. Late teens to mid-30s.
Different types of teams can be utilized for service delivery. Which of the following are common examples of the types of teams utilized by mental health professionals? A. Multidisciplinary and interdisciplinary only. B. Multidisciplinary, interdisciplinary, or transdisciplinary. C. Interdisciplinary teams are the only ones utilized by mental health professionals. D. None of the above.
B. Multidisciplinary, interdisciplinary, or transdisciplinary
Maintaining confidentiality can be a struggle for practitioners working with a suicidal client. The following statements are true in regard to the release of confidential information A. If the client has authorized and given permission to release information, it is okay to release it. B. One should never release confidential information, as this is never appropriate. C. If there is imminent danger to self or others, it is okay to release confidential information. D. It is okay to release confidential information if required by third-party payers.
B. One should never release confidential information, as this is never appropriate.
If the time frame of active symptoms for schizophrenia has been met but the duration has not been 6 months, the most likely diagnosis is: A. Delusional disorder. B. Schizophreniform disorder. C. Brief reactive psychosis. D. Catatonia.
B. Schizophreniform disorder.
Of the following psychotic disorders, which one would be MOST often referred to as provisional? A. Schizophrenia. B. Schizophreniform disorder. C. Schizotypal personality disorder. D. Shared psychotic disorder.
B. Schizophreniform disorder.
According to the DSM-5 criteria, which of the following symptoms is most prevalent in persons with major depressive episode? A. Inflated self-esteem. B. Sleep disturbance. C. Hallucinations. D. Positive view of the future.
B. Sleep disturbance.
A 47-year-old male with a history of substance abuse is referred to a social worker by his physician because he is complaining of chest pains, nausea, and headaches. After a complete medical exam, the physician cannot find anything wrong with him. The patient denies using drugs in the past three years. After receiving this referral, where should the social worker focus first? A. Substance abuse. B. Family history of heart condition. C. Assess for any problems occurring in the home or at work. D. Assess for underlying mental health disorders.
C. Assess for any problems occurring in the home or at work.
When diagnosing children or adolescents, it is important to pay special attention to: A. A child's age, gender, family situation, and culture, and how these influences can affect any subsequent diagnosis. B. Whether the symptoms and behaviors are developmentally appropriate. C. Both A and B are correct. D. None of the above.
C. Both A and B are correct.
In the bipolar and related disorders, the following are examples of specifiers reflective of this group of disorders: A. With anxious distress. B. With mixed features. C. Both A and B are true. D. No specifiers are used in this grouping.
C. Both A and B are true.
Examples of changes in the DSM-5 include: A. A disorder was added termed Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD). B. Attempts to clarify the boundaries between what constitutes normal human functioning and what constitutes a mental disorder have been addressed. C. Both choices A and B are correct. D. Medications recommendations are made.
C. Both choices A and B are correct
ECT stands for: A. Effective counseling treatments. B. Effective cost treatments. C. Electroconvulsive therapy. D. POR format.
C. Electroconvulsive therapy.
The obsessive-compulsive and related disorders all share all this common theme: A. Individuals do not have the desire to stop the resulting behavior. B. Individuals have the desire but are not willing to stop the behaviors disturbing their functioning. C. Individuals have a desire to stop the resulting behavior, but also have an inability to do so. D. All are medication-induced disorders.
C. Individuals have a desire to stop the resulting behavior, but also have an inability to do so.
Which of the following is the time frame in which the client experiences the active problematic symptoms for brief psychotic disorder? A. More than 6 months. B. Less than 6 months. C. Less than 1 month. D. None of the above.
C. Less than 1 month.
In completing a diagnostic assessment, biomedical information is gathered based on the following factors: A. Only medical conditions and perceived overall health status are addressed. B. Medical conditions only are addressed. C. Medical conditions, perceived overall health status, maintenance, and continued health and wellness are addressed. D. The biomedical assessment is not important, as this does not affect mental health.
C. Medical conditions, perceived overall health status, maintenance, and continued health and wellness are addressed.
It is important to be culturally sensitive in completing the diagnostic assessment. The systematic assessment called the Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a 16-question assessment tool. Which statement BEST describes the instrument? A. Semistructured interviews with only one correct answer per question. B. Semistructured interviews with either wrong or right answers. C. Semistructured interviews with no wrong or right answers. D. There is one version, and this is for all age groups. No supplementary modules are available.
C. Semistructured interviews with no wrong or right answers.
Several scales have been used to assess for OCD. Which of the following is an example of a scale used to assess for OCD? A. SOAP. B. The Mood Disorder Questionnaire. C. The Contamination Cognitions Scale (CCS). D. None of the above.
C. The Contamination Cognitions Scale (CCS).
When documenting treatment for reimbursement as a mental health professional, the term assessment or diagnostic assessment is used in place of the term diagnosis. Which of the following is a reason to support this belief? A. Assessment is related to the medical model. B. A diagnosis is permanent and lifelong, and does not change over time, whereas a diagnostic assessment does. C. The diagnostic assessment takes into account more than the diagnosis, as supporting information is always included. D. The diagnosis takes into account holistic information related to the support system, whereas an assessment does not.
C. The diagnostic assessment takes into account more than the diagnosis, as supporting information is always included.
Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is a mental illness with a chronic, fluctuating course. Medication is often used in the treatment of individuals with BPD. The following statements are true EXCEPT: A. Often mood stabilizers and the atypical antipsychotics are used. B. Medication noncompliance is common. C. These individuals comply with medication regimens without the constant need to monitor. D. None of the above is true.
C. These individuals comply with medication regimens without the constant need to monitor.
A client suffering from a personality disorder has been seeing a social worker for the past year. She informs the social worker that she is dating two men and is ambivalent about which one to marry. The social worker and the client have been working on helping her to make a decision for months. The social worker has an opinion on which man is better for the client, and the client is asking for her opinion. The social worker's best response is: A. Refuse to give advice. B. Challenge the manipulation. C. Use reflection to get the client to examine her own ambivalence. D. Disclose the social worker's choice.
C. Use reflection to get the client to examine her own ambivalence.
A breath analyzer is used to test for the following in the system of an individual: A. Cocaine. B. Prescription drugs. C. Marijuana. D. Alcohol.
D. Alcohol.
Measurements that may be used to assist in assessment include: A. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT). B. Alcohol, Smoking, and Substance Involvement Screening Test (ASSIST). C. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST). D. All of the above.
D. All of the above
Changes have been made to the depressive disorders now listed in the DSM-5; which of the following statements are TRUE in regard to some of these changes when looking at the latest edition of the DSM for the depressive disorders? A. Dysthymia is now persistent depressive disorder. This diagnosis now includes some of the criteria related to dysthymia and some related to major depressive disorder chronic type from the DSM-IV-TR. B. Persistent depressive disorder is a depressive mood disorder characterized by a long and chronic course. C. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD) is a new diagnosis added to the DSM-5. D. All of the above are correct.
D. All of the above are correct.
In the assessment process, it is important for the professional to: A. Focus on client strengths and highlight the client's own resources for addressing problems. B. Be aware of the individual's worldview, as this will shape how the individual views the situation. C. Take into account the amount of information the client is willing to share and the accuracy of this information, gather an accurate definition of the problem, and address issues surrounding culture and race. D. All of the above are important to remember in completing the assessment.
D. All of the above are important to remember in completing the assessment.
After the diagnostic assessment information is gathered, this information will be used to start a treatment plan. Treatment plans need to: A. Be individualized. B. Reflect general as well as unique symptoms and needs the client is experiencing. C. Provide focus and structure for the mental health intervention. D. All of the above are true.
D. All of the above are true.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE with individuals suffering from oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)? A. Behaviors exhibited can include argumentativeness, defiance, and vindictiveness. B. For children and adolescents the behaviors are present for at least 6 months. C. If the child is under the age of 5, the behavior occurs on most days over a period of 6 months. D. All of the above are true.
D. All of the above are true.
Which of the following statements is/are true in regard to documentation? A. Clear and concise records help to document problem behaviors and coping styles. B. Identifying behavioral symptoms and impairments in functioning will help to guide the goals and objectives in the treatment plan. C. Case notes are used to assess goal accomplishment. D. All of the above statements are true.
D. All of the above statements are true.
The following are examples of different types of delusions: A. Fixed belief. B. Bizarre thoughts. C. Bizarre thoughts that lead to behaviors. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
The types of mood episodes that make up the bipolar and related disorders are: A. The manic. B. The hypomanic. C. The major depressive episodes. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
There are multiple factors that should be taken into consideration when assessing for OCD. Some of these include: A. Genetic/environmental factors—those with a history of OCD in the family have a higher risk of developing the disorder. B. Neurobiological factors—certain brain dysfunctions place an individual at greater risk. C. Stressful life events show the intensification of ritualistic behaviors. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
When completing a diagnostic impression, collateral sources include: A.Family. B. Friends. C. Friends only. D. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are correct
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE when discussing endogenous or melancholic depression? A. The symptoms of the depressed mood are related directly to internal biological factors. B. ECT is used in the treatment of endogenous depression. C. Both are often referred to as reactive depression. D. Both A and B are true statements.
D. Both A and B are true statements.
Which of the following disorders can have different criteria for children, in that 1 year of characteristic symptoms rather than 2 years is required? A. Schizophrenia. B. Bipolar I disorder. C. Bipolar II disorder. D. Cyclothymic disorder.
D. Cyclothymic disorder
A 27-year-old female reports to a social worker that at the beginning of the year, she was staying awake for days, went on shopping sprees, was sexually permissive, and had a persistently elevated mood. Now, however, she reports feeling very depressed and she cannot seem to get motivated to do anything. She states this alternation of moods has been happening continuously for at least a year, and she cannot seem to get a handle on her moods. What diagnosis best fits the client's condition? A. Dysthymia. B. Bipolar I disorder. C. Schizophrenia. D. Cyclothymic disorder.
D. Cyclothymic disorder.
Which of the following characteristics is NOT a prominent symptom in the diagnosis of schizophrenia? A. Bizarre and often fragmented delusions. B. Loose associations. C. Auditory hallucinations. D. Depersonalization.
D. Depersonalization.
A mentally ill man with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is paranoid and using alcohol. His parents reject him, state they want nothing more to do with him, and want him committed to a hospital permanently. The first thing the social worker should do to help the client while seeking admission to the hospital is: A. Explore his feelings regarding his parents' rejection. B. Explain why he must take his medicine. C. Explain the relationship between his alcoholism and his paranoia. D. Explain why he is being admitted to the hospital.
D. Explain why he is being admitted to the hospital.
In the DSM-5 the diagnosis of schizophrenia is based on a mixture of five characteristic signs and symptoms. Which of the following characteristics is NOT one of the five characteristic signs or symptoms? A. Delusions. B. Hallucinations. C. Disorganized speech. D. Manic symptoms.
D. Manic symptoms.
When a client has his or her first psychotic episode and therefore it does not meet the 6-month criterion for the diagnosis of schizophrenia, the client is initially labeled as having what type of disorder? A. No diagnosis. B. Schizoid personality disorder. C. Schizoaffective disorder. D. Schizophreniform disorder.
D. Schizophreniform disorder.
The following statements are TRUE regarding 12-step programs EXCEPT: A. This approach centers on the inability and powerlessness of the chemically affected person to control substance use, and requires the commitment to lifelong abstinence from alcohol and other substances of abuse. B. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a 12-step program. C. Narcotics Anonymous (NA) is a 12-step program. D. Twelve-step programs hold that all individuals must believe in a specific religion with this higher power for recovery to occur.
D. Twelve-step programs hold that all individuals must believe in a specific religion with this higher power for recovery to occur.
According to the DSM-5 criteria for major depressive disorder, which of the following symptoms must be presented in the 2-week period out of the nine primary symptoms listed in criterion A? A. Inflated self-esteem. B. Depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in daily activities consistently. C. Hallucinations. D. Sleep disturbance.
Depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in daily activities consistently.
The first clinical feature usually presented in major depression is: A. Dysphoria (a disturbance in mood). B. Anxiety. C. Extreme energy increases. D. Extreme fearfulness to attachments.
Dysphoria (a disturbance in mood).
Detoxification is the medically assisted process during which the client removes all substances and toxins from his or her system, and usually happens at the individual's home. True False
False
In regard to treatment, individuals with BPD have low treatment dropout rates. True False
False
The primary risk factors for the major depressive disorder are divided into the following areas: A. Manic and hypomanic episodes. B. Temporal, environmental, genetic, and physiological areas. C. Temporal and environmental areas. D. Temporal, environmental, genetic, and physiological areas, and course modifiers.
Temporal, environmental, genetic, and physiological areas, and course modifiers.
True or False. When utilizing the DSM-5, subtypes and course specifiers are encouraged. Subtypes help to clarify a diagnosis where the phenomenological criteria are mutually exclusive and exhaustive.
True