Lowdermilk - Chapter 8
The practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of days in each menstrual cycle. The fertile period is determined after monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The beginning of the fertile period is estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from the shortest. If the woman's cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, then her fertile period would be day _____ through day ______.
ANS: 6; 19 To avoid pregnancy, the couple must abstain from intercourse on days 6 through 19. Ovulation occurs on day 12 (plus or minus 2 days either way).
Which is the most common technique used for the termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester? a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E) b. Methotrexate administration c. Prostaglandin administration d. Vacuum aspiration
ANS: A D&E can be performed at any point up to 20 weeks of gestation. It is more commonly performed between 13 and 16 weeks of gestation. Methotrexate is a cytotoxic drug that causes early abortion by preventing fetal cell division. Prostaglandins are also used for early abortion and work by dilating the cervix and initiating uterine wall contractions. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester.
Which statement regarding emergency contraception is correct? a. Emergency contraception requires that the first dose be taken within 120 hours of unprotected intercourse. b. Emergency contraception may be taken right after ovulation. c. Emergency contraception has an effectiveness rate in preventing pregnancy of approximately 50%. d. Emergency contraception is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia.
ANS: A Emergency contraception should be taken as soon as possible or within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. If taken before ovulation, follicular development is inhibited, which prevents ovulation. The risk of pregnancy is reduced by as much as 75%. The most common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea.
Which term best describes the conscious decision concerning deciding when to conceive or avoid pregnancy as opposed to the intentional prevention of pregnancy during intercourse? a. Family planning b. Birth control c. Contraception d. Assisted reproductive therapy
ANS: A Family planning is the process of deciding when and if to have children. Birth control is the device and/or practice used to reduce the risk of conceiving or bearing children. Contraception is the intentional prevention of pregnancy during sexual intercourse. Assisted reproductive therapy is one of several possible treatments for infertility.
A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which is the most important action the nurse should perform during the assessment process in preparation to discuss the implementation of this method? a. Obtain a history of the woman's menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b. Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes. d. Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control.
ANS: A The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on the use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but these experiences are not the most important aspect to assess for the discussion of the calendar method.
Which comment by the nurse would be most helpful in instruct the woman on how best to reduce her risk of developing toxic shock syndrome (TSS)? (Select all that apply.) a. "You should always leave your diaphragm in place for at 6 hours after intercourse." b. "You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent TSS." c. "You can use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle as long as you clean it well." d. "Make sure you don't leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24 hours" e. Report a fever of 38.4 0 C to your health care provider immediately."
ANS: A The nurse should instruct the client on the proper use and removal of the diaphragm and include the danger signs of TSS. The diaphragm must remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy, but it should not remain in place longer than 8 hours to avoid the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used during menses. A fever of 38.4 0 C or higher could be a symptom of TSS and should be reported immediately.
A woman who has undergone an induced abortion be instructed to return to the emergency department when what situation exists? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever higher than 38° C b. Chills c. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge d. Bleeding greater than 2 pads in 2 hours e. Abdominal tenderness and or pain
ANS: A, B, C, D, E The client should report to a health care facility for any of the following symptoms: fever higher than 38° C, chills, bleeding more than two saturated pads in 2 hours or heavy bleeding lasting for days, foul-smelling discharge, abdominal tenderness or pain, and cramping or backache.
The nurse, responsible for providing health teaching regarding the side effects of combined oral contraceptives (COCs), should discuss what issues? (Select all that apply.) a. Gallbladder disease b. Myocardial infarction c. Hypotension d. Breast tenderness e. Dry skin and scalp
ANS: A, B, D Serious side effects include stroke, myocardial infarction, hypertension, gallbladder disease, and liver tumors. More common side effects include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, increased appetite, and oily skin and scalp
The nurse is reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. Which information regarding this procedure is important for the nurse to share? (Select all that apply.) a. "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." b. "Tubal ligation is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won't be able to get pregnant." c. "Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)." d. "Sterilization offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)." e. "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."
ANS: A, D A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation. However, sterilization offers no protection against STIs and is not 100% effective. Typically, the menstrual cycle remains the same after a tubal ligation.
Which contraceptive method should the nurse identify as protecting against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. Same protection with all methods
ANS: B Barrier methods, such as condoms, protect against STIs and the HIV the best of all contraceptive methods. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods, such as birth control pills, offer no protection against STIs or the HIV.
A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Oral contraceptives are a highly effective method, but they have some side effects." b. "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." c. "Oral contraceptives will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication." d. "The pill is a good choice for a woman of your age and with your personal history."
ANS: B Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are simultaneously taken with anticonvulsants. Stating that the pill is an effective birth control method with side effects is a true statement, but this response is not the most appropriate. The anticonvulsant reduces the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. Stating that the pill is a good choice for a woman of her age and personal history does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.
Which action should the nurse first take when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception? a. Obtain data about the frequency of coitus. b. Determine the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception.. c. Assess the woman's willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus. d. Evaluate the woman's contraceptive life plan.
ANS: B Determining the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception and her commitment to any particular method is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the client's level of knowledge is determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost, comfort level, protection from STIs, and her partner's willingness to participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive involvement, and the partner's objections. Assessing the woman's willingness to touch herself is a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express an interest in using one of the fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the client's plan regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.
A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). Which response by the nurse is the most accurate? a. "The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation." b. "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought" c. "The additional lubrication improves sex." d. "Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."
ANS: B Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.
Which information is most important to provide to the client interested in using the lactational amenorrhea method for contraception? a. LAM is effective until the infant is 9 months of age. b. This popular method of birth control works best if the mother is exclusively breastfeeding. c. Its typical failure rate is 5%. d. Feeding intervals should be 6 hours during the day.
ANS: B The LAM works best if the mother is exclusively or almost exclusively breastfeeding. Disruption of the breastfeeding pattern increases the risk of pregnancy. After the infant is 6 months of age or menstrual flow has resumed, effectiveness decreases. The typical failure rate is 1% to 2%. Feeding intervals should be no greater than 4 hours during the day and 6 hours at night.
Importantly, the nurse must be aware of which information related to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs)? a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b. Copper IUDs can serve as an emergency contraception under certain situations. c. IUDs offer the same protection against STIs as the diaphragm. d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.
ANS: B The woman has up to 5 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. The return to fertility is immediate after the removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection against STIs. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.
While educating the client regarding the risks and benefits of a vasectomy, which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Sterilization should be performed under general anesthesia. b. Pain, bleeding, and infection are possible complications. c. For several months, pregnancy may still be possible. d. Vasectomy may affect potency. e. Secondary sex characteristics are unaffected.
ANS: B, C, E Vasectomy is the most commonly used procedure for male sterilization and is performed on an outpatient basis under local anesthesia. Pain, bleeding, swelling, and infection are considered complications. Reversal is generally unsuccessful; however, it may take several weeks to months for all sperm to be cleared from the sperm ducts. Another form of contraception is necessary until the sperm counts are zero. Vasectomy has no effect on potency, and secondary sex characteristics are not affected.
Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such as medroxyprogesterone acetate as a contraceptive choice? a. The ideal candidate wants menstrual regularity and predictability. b. The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care.
ANS: C Advantages of medroxyprogesterone acetate includes its contraceptive effectiveness, compared with the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives, and the requirement of only four injections a year. The disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. The use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.
In the acronym BRAIDED, which letter is used to identify the key components of informed consent that the nurse must document? a. B stands for birth control. b. R stands for reproduction. c. A stands for alternatives. d. I stands for ineffective.
ANS: C In the acronym BRAIDED, A stands for alternatives and information about other viable methods. B stands for benefits and information about the advantages of a particular birth control method and its success rates. R stands for risks and information about the disadvantages of a particular method and its failure rates. I stands for inquiries and the opportunity to ask questions.
The nurse is providing contraceptive instruction to a young couple who are eager to learn. The nurse should be cognizant of which information regarding the natural family planning method? a. The natural family planning method is the same as coitus interruptus or "pulling out." b. This contraception method uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon. c. This practice is the only contraceptive method acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. d. The natural family planning method relies on barrier methods during the fertility phases.
ANS: C Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. "Pulling out" is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers.
A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. What advice should the nurse provide to protect this client from an unintended pregnancy? a. Limit sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill. b. Use condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as the client takes an antibiotic. c. Take one pill at the same time every day. d. Throw away the pack and use a backup method if two pills are missed during week 1 of her cycle.
ANS: C To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or an abortion, then another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormonal levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, then she should take two pills a day for 2 days and finish the package and use a backup contraceptive method for the next 7 consecutive days.
What is the importance of obtaining informed consent when educating a client regarding contraceptive methods? a. Contraception is an invasive procedure that requires hospitalization. b. The method may require a surgical procedure to insert a device. c. The contraception method chosen may be unreliable. d. The method chosen has potentially dangerous side effects.
ANS: D Being aware of the potential side effects is important for couples who are making an informed decision about the use of contraceptives. The only contraceptive method that is a surgical procedure and requires hospitalization is sterilization. Some methods have greater efficacy than others, and this efficacy should be included in the teaching.
Which statement regarding the term contraceptive failure rate is the most accurate? a. The contraceptive failure rate refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span. b. It refers to the minimum rate that must be achieved to receive a government license. c. The contraceptive failure rate increases over time as couples become more careless. d. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.
ANS: D Contraceptive effectiveness varies from couple to couple, depending on how well a contraceptive method is used and how well it suits the couple. The contraceptive failure rate measures the likelihood of accidental pregnancy in the first year only. Failure rates decline over time because users gain experience.
A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, "My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up." What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a. "This probably means that you're pregnant." b. "Don't worry; it's probably nothing." c. "Have you been sick this month?" d. "You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle."
ANS: D The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of a lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation, which is being measured using the BBT method. A comment such as, "Don't worry; it's probably nothing," discredits the client's concerns. Illness is most likely the cause of an increase in BBT.
A client currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse to explain the major differences between the cervical cap and the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it's less messy." b. "The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse." c. "Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient." d. "The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later."
ANS: D The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.
Nurses should be cognizant of what information regarding the non-contraceptive medical effects of combination oral contraceptives (COCs)? a. COCs can cause TSS if the prescription is wrong. b. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding is usually a little more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week for those who use COCs. c. COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers. d. Effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.
ANS: D The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. TSS can occur in some who use the diaphragm, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.
