Marketing Ch. 11 (exam 8)

101) A structured approach to assessing the sources and outcomes of brand equity and the manner in which marketing activities create the financial worth of the brand is called ________. A) the brand value chain B) the brand portfolio C) the brand life cycle D) brand partitioning E) brand positioning

A

103) Clarity, relevance, distinctiveness, and consistency are factors that influence the ________ multiplier of the brand value chain. A) program B) brand C) market D) customer E) profit

A

114) Apple's iPod shuffle is an example of ________. A) a subbrand B) a parent brand C) family brand D) a brand mix E) an umbrella brand

A

117) The introduction of Diet Coke by the Coca-Cola Company is an example of ________. A) line extension B) brand harmonization C) category extension D) brand dilution E) co-branding

A

118) A ________ consists of all products — original as well as line and category extensions — sold under a particular brand. A) brand line B) co-brand C) generic brand D) licensed product E) subbrand

A

12) When a consumer expresses thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, and beliefs associated with the brand, the consumer is expressing ________. A) brand knowledge B) ethnocentric bias C) self-serving bias D) cognitive dissonance E) brand identity

A

123) The hallmark of an optimal brand portfolio is ________. A) the ability of each brand to maximize equity in combination with all the other brands in it B) the ability of each brand to maximize its individual equity in isolation C) maximum brand overlap D) the eventual reduction of brand differentiation to create a unified brand appearance E) maximum internal competition within the firm

A

124) ________ brands are positioned with respect to competitors' brands so that more important (and more profitable) flagship brands can retain their desired positioning. A) Flanker B) Attacker C) Defender D) Cash cow E) Simulation

A

15) When a marketer expresses his or her vision of what a brand must be and do for consumers, he or she is expressing what is called a brand ________. A) promise B) personality C) identity D) position E) revitalization

A

17) Christian Louboutin is a footwear designer who launched his line of high-end women's shoes in France in 1991. Since 1992, his designs have incorporated the shiny, red-lacquered soles that have become his signature. These red-lacquered soles and high stilettos of Louboutin distinguish him from other designer shoe brands. In accordance with the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the following components of brand equity has Louboutin fulfilled in this scenario? A) energized differentiation B) relevance C) esteem D) knowledge E) advantage

A

19) BENGAY aspirin, Cracker Jack cereal, Frito-Lay lemonade, and Fruit of the Loom laundry detergent are examples where consumers' ________ dictated that the extensions were inappropriate for the brand. A) brand knowledge B) brand equity C) brand stature D) power grid E) brand salience

A

26) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, esteem and knowledge, the two pillars of brand equity together create brand ________, a "report card" on past performance and a current indicator of current value. A) stature B) parity C) strength D) personality E) architecture

A

28) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, leadership brands show ________. A) high levels of energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem B) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and energy are lower still C) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still D) low levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem E) high knowledge — evidence of past performance — a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation

A

31) Aromas Inc. introduced a new line of shower gels. To analyze consumer reaction, the company interviewed people who bought them. When Sarah was asked why she had chosen the new shower gel, she said she bought it because a friend recommended it. Sarah is at which level of the BrandDynamics Pyramid? A) presence B) bonding C) relevance D) performance E) advantage

A

37) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Can this brand deliver?" A) performance B) bonding C) advantage D) relevance E) presence

A

39) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps convey the message "Nothing else beats this brand"? A) bonding B) relevance C) advantage D) performance E) presence

A

42) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs. A) imagery B) judgment C) resonance D) salience E) performance

A

48) Which of the following "building block levels" corresponds to the branding objectives of points-of-parity and difference? A) performance and imagery B) judgment and feelings C) resonance and salience D) imagery and judgment E) salience and feelings

A

70) The brand name of New Zealand vodka 42BELOW refers to both a latitude that runs through New Zealand and the percentage of its alcohol content. From a marketing management perspective, which of the brand equity drivers is most applicable in the given scenario? A) the associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a place or thing B) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs C) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand D) the profitability associated with brand development E) the service and all accompanying marketing activities and programs

A

71) Brand ________ are devices that can be trademarked and serve to identify and differentiate the brand. A) elements B) value propositions C) perceptions D) images E) extensions

A

74) Which of the following is a defensive criterion for choosing brand elements? A) adaptable B) memorable C) meaningful D) likeable E) significance

A

78) ________ branding consists of activities and processes that help inform and inspire employees about brands. A) Internal B) Personal C) Individual D) External E) Co-

A

80) A brand ________ is a specialized group of consumers and employees whose identification and activities focus around the brand. A) community B) channel C) association D) personality E) cluster

A

1) The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________. A) measuring consumer brand loyalty B) identifying and establishing brand positioning C) planning and implementing brand marketing D) measuring and interpreting brand performance E) growing and sustaining brand value

B

102) Competitive superiority and channel support are factors that influence the ________ multiplier of the brand value chain. A) program B) customer C) brand D) profit E) market

B

11) Adam wants to buy a washing machine and is looking for something that is not too expensive. When he goes to make the purchase, he finds there are two options that meet his requirements. One is a Maytag product, while the other is a newly imported South Korean brand. Adam is not very familiar with the latter and does not hesitate in choosing Maytag. This example implies that ________. A) the imported brand will not survive the competition from Maytag B) Maytag has a positive customer brand equity C) the South Korean company has a low advertising budget D) the imported brand is unreliable E) the Maytag washing machine has better features than the imported brand

B

125) Two advantages of ________ are that they can facilitate new-product acceptance and provide positive feedback to the parent brand and company. A) product licensing B) brand extensions C) brand architecture D) brand audits E) brand dilutions

B

127) Even if sales of a brand extension are high and meet targets, the revenue may be coming from consumers switching to the extension from existing parent-brand offerings — in effect ________ the parent brand. A) diluting B) cannibalizing C) reinforcing D) eroding E) revamping

B

21) Starbucks uses social-media engagement to respond, listen to and connect with fans, which is important to them because it builds loyalty, which is one aspect of the ________ pillar of the BrandAsset® Valuator. A) energized differentiation B) esteem C) relevance D) knowledge E) strength

B

24) According to the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the components of brand equity measures the breadth of a brand's appeal? A) differentiation B) relevance C) esteem D) knowledge E) value

B

27) According to the BrandAsset® Valuator model, strong new brands show ________. A) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and energy are lower still B) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still C) high knowledge — evidence of past performance — a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation D) high levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem E) low levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem

B

33) Which of the following levels of the BrandDynamics Pyramid pertains to consumer's needs? A) advantage B) relevance C) bonding D) performance E) presence

B

35) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address the question "Do I know about this brand?" A) relevance B) presence C) performance D) advantage E) bonding

B

40) Brand salience ________. A) is customers' emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand B) is how often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations C) is how well the product or service meets customers' functional needs D) describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs E) describes the relationship customers have with the brand and the extent to which they feel they're "in sync" with it

B

115) When a firm uses an established brand to introduce a new product, it is called a brand ________. A) harmonization B) valuation C) extension D) positioning E) parity

C

119) A major advantage of a ________ strategy is that the company does not tie its reputation to the product. A) blanket family name B) licensing C) separate family brand name D) category extension E) brand revitalization

C

122) A brand ________ is the set of all brands and brand lines a particular firm offers for sale to buyers in a particular category. A) architecture B) position C) portfolio D) extension E) image

C

18) Christian Louboutin is a footwear designer who launched his line of high-end women's shoes in France in 1991. The brand caters to an elite clientele whose satisfaction with the brand has always been evident. Apart from being high-end, Louboutin footwear signifies power in elite social circles. Celebrities are often seen sporting "Loubs" at special occasions, such as movie premieres. This has resulted in people associating Louboutin footwear with class and power. In accordance with the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the following components of brand equity has Louboutin fulfilled in this scenario? A) knowledge B) energized differentiation C) esteem D) advantage E) presence

C

3) Branding is ________. A) all about creating unanimity between products B) the process of performing market research and selling products or services to customers C) endowing products and services with the power of a brand D) the process of comparing competing brands available in the market E) use of online interactive media to promote products and brands

C

32) If a consumer who is trying to decide between alternatives believes that a particular brand delivers acceptable product performance and can be shortlisted, she is in the ________ level of the BrandDynamics Pyramid. A) presence B) relevance C) performance D) advantage E) bonding

C

36) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Does this brand offer something better than the others?" A) performance B) presence C) advantage D) bonding E) relevance

C

38) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Does this brand offer me something?" A) advantage B) presence C) relevance D) bonding E) performance

C

46) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ describes the relationship customers have with the brand and the extent to which they feel they're "in sync" with it. A) imagery B) judgment C) resonance D) salience E) performance

C

68) From a marketing management perspective, there are three main sets of brand equity drivers. Which of these drivers was most applicable when McDonald's decided to use the "golden arches" and Ronald McDonald as symbols of their brand? A) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs B) the service and all accompanying marketing activities and programs C) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand D) associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to some other entity E) the profitability associated with brand development

C

69) Red Bull enlisted college students as "Red Bull student brand managers" to distribute samples, research drinking trends, design on-campus product promotion activities, and write stories for student newspapers. From a marketing management perspective, which of the following brand equity drivers is most applicable in the given scenario? A) the profitability associated with brand development B) associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a person C) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs D) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand E) associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a place

C

75) With respect to powerful brand elements, ________ is an extremely efficient means to build brand equity. This element functions as a useful "hook" to help consumers grasp what the brand is and what makes it special. A) the tangibility of a product B) a product's shape C) a slogan D) a patent E) a copyright

C

81) Names that become synonymous with product categories like Kleenex, Kitty Litter, Jell-O, and Xerox, need to ensure they retain their brand names remain ________ so they can retain their trademark rights and avoid becoming generic. A) meaningful B) likable C) protectable D) transferable E) adaptable

C

100) The ________ determines the marketing program's ability to affect the customer mindset and is a function of the quality of the program investment. A) customer multiplier B) market multiplier C) shareholder value D) program multiplier E) price elasticity

D

105) Brand ________ is the job of estimating the total financial worth of the brand. A) tracking B) auditing C) equity D) valuation E) harmonization

D

116) A parent brand that is associated with multiple products through brand extensions is also called a(n)________. A) category brand B) subbrand C) extension brand D) family brand E) line brand

D

120) Starbucks introduced ice creams in the same flavors as the Frappuccinos it sold in its coffee shops. This is an example of ________. A) brand dilution B) co-branding C) brand variants D) category extension E) brand harmonization

D

14) Which of the following is a marketing advantage of strong brands? A) no vulnerability to marketing crises B) more elastic consumer response to price increases C) guaranteed profits D) additional brand extension opportunities E) more inelastic consumer response to price decreases

D

2) The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors." A) copyright B) trademark C) slogan D) brand E) logo

D

20) According to the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the components of brand equity measures how aware and familiar consumers are with the brand? A) esteem B) energized differentiation C) relevance D) knowledge E) presence

D

23) High levels of brand ________, or the extent to which consumers feel they are "in sync" with the Fox News brand and engagement in Fox News programs, often leads to greater recall of the ads Fox News runs. A) salience B) feelings C) judgments D) resonance E) imagery

D

30) According to Young and Rubicam's BrandAsset® Valuator, a brand's ________ measures how well the brand is regarded and respected. A) differentiation B) energy C) relevance D) esteem E) knowledge

D

41) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ signifies how well the product or service meets customers' functional needs. A) judgment B) imagery C) salience D) performance E) resonance

D

43) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ focuses on customers' own personal opinions and evaluations. A) salience B) performance C) imagery D) judgment E) resonance

D

47) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ are customers' emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand. A) imagery statements B) judgments C) performances D) feelings E) resonances

D

49) With respect to the brand building pyramid, the branding objective of developing deep, broad brand awareness corresponds to which of the following "building block levels"? A) resonance B) imagery C) performance D) salience E) judgment

D

72) If a brand element can be used to introduce new products in the same or different categories, the brand element is said to be ________. A) memorable B) meaningful C) likeable D) transferable E) adaptable

D

79) AT&T's business campaign not only helped to change public perceptions of the company, it also signaled to employees that AT&T was determined to be a leader in telecommunication services. Which principle of internal branding does this example portray? A) choosing the right moment to capture employees' attention and imagination B) furnishing energizing and informative internal communication C) bringing the brand alive for employees D) linking internal and external marketing E) understanding how brand communities work

D

104) ________ are a means of understanding where, how much, and in what ways brand value is being created to facilitate day-to-day decision making. A) Internal marketing campaigns B) Brand portfolio audits C) Brand value chains D) Sales cycles E) Brand-tracking studies

E

121) A ________ is a set of all brand lines that a particular seller makes. A) brand platform B) brand image C) co-brand D) brand extension E) brand mix

E

126) According to Ries and Trout, Cadbury suffered from ________ when the company allowed its brand to become diluted by putting their name on such variants as mashed potatoes, powdered milk, and soups, apart from chocolates and candies. A) liquidity trap B) cognitive dissonance C) branding fallout D) cannibalization E) line-extension trap

E

22) ________, which combines the BrandAsset® Valuator dimensions of energized differentiation and relevance, is a leading indicator that predicts future growth and value. A) Brand stature B) A brand's power grid C) Brand presence D) Brand bonding E) Brand strength

E

25) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, energized differentiation and relevance, the two pillars of brand equity combine to determine what is called brand ________. A) position B) image C) depth D) knowledge E) strength

E

29) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, declining brands show ________. A) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and energy are lower still B) high relevance — appropriateness of brand's appeal — a lower level of energy and differentiation, and even lower knowledge C) high levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem D) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still E) high knowledge — evidence of past performance — a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation

E

34) A consumer who expresses rational and emotional attachments to a brand to the exclusion of most other brands has reached the ________ level in the BrandDynamics Pyramid. A) advantage B) relevance C) presence D) performance E) bonding

E

44) With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following "building block levels" would we expect the consumer to develop an intense, active loyalty? A) salience B) imagery C) feelings D) judgments E) resonance

E

45) With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following "building block levels" would we expect the consumer to develop positive and accessible reactions? A) resonance B) salience C) imagery D) performance E) feelings

E

73) If consumers can easily recall and recognize a brand element, the brand element is said to be ________. A) meaningful B) protectable C) adaptable D) transferable E) memorable

E

76) The traditional "marketing-mix" concept and the notion of the "four Ps" may not adequately describe modern marketing programs. ________ is about mixing and matching marketing activities to maximize their individual and collective effects. A) Personalized marketing B) Mass customization C) Globalized marketing D) Relationship marketing E) Integrated marketing

E

77) Mark feels that Shell delivers on its promises to supply the best gasoline possible to the public. His experiences with Shell have always been good resulting in positive brand contact. Mark is most likely experiencing brand ________. A) alliance B) essence C) harmonization D) parity E) bonding

E

99) A brand ________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer's product or service. A) value B) personality C) trait D) character E) contact

E

5) Physical goods, services, and stores can be branded, but ideas and people cannot.

False

4) Consumers may evaluate identical products differently depending on how they are branded.

True

50) One of the advantages of having a strong brand is the ability to have a more elastic consumer response to price decreases of the brand.

True