Marketing Management Chap 6-11

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10) If a direct-mail marketer wished to direct promotional efforts toward the family of ________, efforts need to be directed toward parents and siblings of the family members. A) orientation B) procreation C) immediacy D) intimacy E) reference

10) When the Modern Museum of Art separated its consumers by whether they were culture-oriented or outdoor-oriented for its new exhibit on art that used natural materials, they were using ________ segmentation. A) psychographic lifestyle B) personality C) behavioral occasions D) social class E) demographic

100) Maria considers buying a car for herself, after she notices the advantages experienced by her best friend from his new car. Which of the following forms of stimulus has activated Maria's problem recognition process? A) external stimuli B) internal stimuli C) peer stimuli D) secondary stimuli E) marketing induced stimuli

100) Urgency, specific application, and size of order are examples of ________ segmentation variables for business markets. A) situational factors B) demographic C) purchasing approaches D) personal characteristics E) operating variables

114) Which of the following ways to convey a brand's category membership relates to well-known, noteworthy brands in a category helping a brand specify its category membership? A) comparing to exemplars B) communicating deliverability variables C) identifying counter examples D) announcing category benefits E) relying on the product descriptor

117) The introduction of Diet Coke by the Coca-Cola Company is an example of ________. A) line extension B) brand harmonization C) category extension D) brand dilution E) co-branding

117) When a marketer tries to alter a consumer's beliefs about a company's brand to get the consumer to rethink a purchase decision, the marketer is using ________. A) psychological repositioning B) competitive depositioning C) positioning D) repositioning E) biased positioning

12) When a consumer expresses thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, and beliefs associated with the brand, the consumer is expressing ________. A) brand knowledge B) ethnocentric bias C) self-serving bias D) cognitive dissonance E) brand identity

120) Steve has only 20 minutes to have lunch. Although he really likes McDonald's, the line is very long and he is concerned that he will not have a chance to get through the line and eat his lunch before he is due back at work. Steve perceives ________ risk in going to McDonald's today. A) time B) functional C) physical D) psychological E) social

138) If a marketing manager observes that his or her market shows no natural segments and consumers seem to have roughly the same preferences, the marketing manager will most likely be faced with a ________ preferences pattern. A) homogeneous B) heterogeneous C) diffused D) clustered E) scattered

145) All of the following are benefits of following the ________ approach to target market selection: a strong knowledge of the segment's needs, a strong market presence, operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion. A) single-segment concentration B) selective specialization C) product specialization D) market specialization E) full market coverage

154) Which of the following is a major complaint of multinationals operating in Europe? A) each country shows favoritism toward its nationals B) volatility of spending due to economic swings and cycles C) required paperwork D) bureaucracy E) decision-making delays

19) According to PRIZM, the ________ cluster is characterized by retired singles and couples, living on downscaled incomes in pre-1960 homes and apartments, who enjoy gardening, sewing, socializing at veterans clubs, and eating out at casual restaurants. A) Old Milltowns B) Young Digerati C) Winner's Circle D) Beltway Boomers E) Cosmopolitans

19) BENGAY aspirin, Cracker Jack cereal, Frito-Lay lemonade, and Fruit of the Loom laundry detergent are examples where consumers' ________ dictated that the extensions were inappropriate for the brand. A) brand knowledge B) brand equity C) brand stature D) power grid E) brand salience

22) Jose and Erika have just divorced. Which of the following demographic segmentation subsegment formats might be used by marketers to reach Jose or Erika? A) life stage B) benefits C) age segment D) personality type E) social class

28) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, leadership brands show ________. A) high levels of energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem B) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and energy are lower still C) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still D) low levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem E) high knowledge — evidence of past performance — a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation

31) Aromas Inc. introduced a new line of shower gels. To analyze consumer reaction, the company interviewed people who bought them. When Sarah was asked why she had chosen the new shower gel, she said she bought it because a friend recommended it. Sarah is at which level of the BrandDynamics Pyramid? A) presence B) bonding C) relevance D) performance E) advantage

37) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Can this brand deliver?" A) performance B) bonding C) advantage D) relevance E) presence

42) According to the VALS segmentation system, ________ are considered to be trendy and fun-loving people who are resource-constrained. They favor stylish products that emulate the purchases of those with greater material wealth. A) Strivers B) Survivors C) Experiencers D) Makers E) Believers

54) Which of the following techniques was suggested by Freud to trace a person's motivations from the stated instrumental ones to the more terminal ones? A) laddering B) word association C) role playing D) casting E) selective attention

55) Points-of-parity are important while designing brand mantras for brands facing ________. A) rapid growth B) market saturation C) slow and steady growth D) rapid decline E) stability in sales volume

66) If Starbucks considers quick-serve restaurants and convenience shops in its competitive frame of reference, then intended ________ might be quality, image, experience and variety, while intended ________ might be convenience and value. A) PODs; POPs B) POPs; PODs C) substantiators; image variables D) design variables; personality variables E) image variables; personality variables

70) The brand name of New Zealand vodka 42BELOW refers to both a latitude that runs through New Zealand and the percentage of its alcohol content. From a marketing management perspective, which of the brand equity drivers is most applicable in the given scenario? A) the associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a place or thing B) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs C) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand D) the profitability associated with brand development E) the service and all accompanying marketing activities and programs

78) Patrick J. Robinson and his associates have identified eight stages in the business buying-decision process. This model is called the ________ framework. A) buygrid B) buying/selling C) seller-centered D) commercial E) buy-analysis

1) All marketing strategy is built on STP: segmentation, targeting, and ________. A) positioning B) product C) planning D) promotion E) performance

101) A structured approach to assessing the sources and outcomes of brand equity and the manner in which marketing activities create the financial worth of the brand is called ________. A) the brand value chain B) the brand portfolio C) the brand life cycle D) brand partitioning E) brand positioning

101) In segmenting its markets, an aluminum company first looked at which end-use market to serve: automobile, residential, or beverage containers. This is an example of ________. A) macrosegmentation B) microsegmentation C) geographic segmentation D) global segmentation E) short-term segmentation

102) A marketer is interested in segmenting a business market on ________ if the marketer intends to segment the market based on industries and geographical areas to serve. A) demographic variables B) situational factors C) operating variables D) purchasing approaches E) personal characteristics

103) Clarity, relevance, distinctiveness, and consistency are factors that influence the ________ multiplier of the brand value chain. A) program B) brand C) market D) customer E) profit

104) A(n) ________ puts people into a frame of mind, such as liking or disliking an object, moving toward or away from it. A) attitude B) belief C) feeling D) position E) stance

105) Marketers need to identify the hierarchy of attributes that guide consumer decision making in order to understand different competitive forces and how these various sets get formed. This process of identifying the hierarchy is called ________. A) market partitioning B) brand association C) market valuation D) market estimation E) market identification

109) Anderson and Mervin have urged marketers to present flexible market offerings to all members of a segment. A flexible market offering consists of two parts. Which part contains the product and service elements that all segment members value? A) naked solution B) discretionary solution C) maximum solution D) pseudo solution E) virtual solution

109) With the ________ heuristic, the consumer sets a minimum acceptable cutoff level for each attribute and chooses the first alternative that meets the minimum standard for all attributes. A) conjunctive B) lexicographic C) elimination-by-aspects D) primary E) secondary

113) A well-known car manufacturing company introduces a new hatchback model by describing its distinctive features and then stressing the speed and safety qualities of the car. Which of the following is the company using to convey its membership in the hatchback segment? A) announcing category benefits B) comparing to exemplars C) relying on the product descriptor D) using channel differentiation E) maximizing negatively correlated attributes

114) Apple's iPod shuffle is an example of ________. A) a subbrand B) a parent brand C) family brand D) a brand mix E) an umbrella brand

118) A ________ consists of all products — original as well as line and category extensions — sold under a particular brand. A) brand line B) co-brand C) generic brand D) licensed product E) subbrand

118) With the ________ heuristic, the consumer chooses the best brand on the basis of its perceived most important attribute. A) lexicographic B) conjunctive C) elimination-by-aspects D) availability E) representativeness

12) If a marketing researcher uses such names or categories as Blue Blood Estates, Winner's Circle, Hometown Retired, or Shotguns and Pickups, when doing segmentation research, the marketing researcher is using ________ clusters. A) PRIZM B) behavioral C) psychographic D) demographic E) VALS

121) A key driver of sales frequency is the product ________ rate. A) consumption B) disposal C) refusal D) utility E) option

123) Orica Inc. competes in the market for commercial explosives. The company recently changed its business model from just selling explosives to managing an entire blast in a quarry. This customer-solution-based approach to the sale of explosives is an example of ________. A) systems selling B) straight rebuying C) customer referencing D) derived demand E) channel consolidation

123) The hallmark of an optimal brand portfolio is ________. A) the ability of each brand to maximize equity in combination with all the other brands in it B) the ability of each brand to maximize its individual equity in isolation C) maximum brand overlap D) the eventual reduction of brand differentiation to create a unified brand appearance E) maximum internal competition within the firm

124) ________ brands are positioned with respect to competitors' brands so that more important (and more profitable) flagship brands can retain their desired positioning. A) Flanker B) Attacker C) Defender D) Cash cow E) Simulation

13) The challenge for marketers in building a strong brand is ________. A) ensuring that customers have the right type of experiences with their products and marketing programs to create the desired brand knowledge B) pricing the product at a point that maximizes sales volume C) minimizing the number of people to whom the product is targeted in order to provide consumers with a personalized experience D) minimizing the impact of customer brand equity E) avoiding the usage of an established brand to introduce a new product in the market

136) In evaluating different market segments, the firm must look at two factors: the segment's overall attractiveness and the ________. A) company's objectives and resources B) effectiveness of the suppliers C) flexibility of legal rules governing the business D) socioeconomic infrastructure E) global nature of the product

142) Marketers usually identify niches by ________. A) dividing a segment into subsegments B) conducting VALS tests C) allowing consumers to gravitate toward product brands D) examining the demographics section of the handbook of marketing E) producing products that can be used in a variety of ways

142) Which of the following statements about the branding guidelines for a small business is true? A) A small business must creatively conduct low-cost marketing research. B) A small business must avoid leveraging secondary brand associations. C) A small business must separate the well-integrated brand elements to enhance both brand awareness and brand image. D) A small business must disintegrate the brand elements to maximize the contribution of each of the three main sets of brand equity drivers. E) A small business must focus on building more than two strong brands based on a number of associations.

144) Volkswagen concentrates on the small-car market and Porsche on the sports car market. These would be examples of what is called ________. A) single-segment concentration B) selective specialization C) product specialization D) market specialization E) full market coverage

145) Which of the following products is most likely to be characterized by low involvement but significant brand difference? A) toothpastes B) digital cameras C) packet of salt D) a milk carton E) furniture

146) With the ________ heuristic, predictions of usage are based on quickness and ease of use. A) availability B) representative C) anchoring D) adjustment E) semantic

15) When a marketer expresses his or her vision of what a brand must be and do for consumers, he or she is expressing what is called a brand ________. A) promise B) personality C) identity D) position E) revitalization

16) Brand personality analysts identified the popular music channel MTV as daring, spirited, and highly imaginative. As per Jennifer Aaker's research, which of the following brand personality traits best suits MTV? A) excitement B) sincerity C) competence D) ruggedness E) sophistication

17) Christian Louboutin is a footwear designer who launched his line of high-end women's shoes in France in 1991. Since 1992, his designs have incorporated the shiny, red-lacquered soles that have become his signature. These red-lacquered soles and high stilettos of Louboutin distinguish him from other designer shoe brands. In accordance with the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the following components of brand equity has Louboutin fulfilled in this scenario? A) energized differentiation B) relevance C) esteem D) knowledge E) advantage

18) Consumers often choose and use brands that have a brand personality consistent with how they see themselves, also known as the ________ self-concept. A) actual B) ideal C) others' D) prohibitive E) suggestive

2) The ________ market consists of all the organizations that acquire goods and services used in the production of other products or services that are sold, rented, or supplied to others. A) business B) consumer C) e-commerce D) global E) domestic

2) Which of the following would be the best illustration of a subculture? A) a religion B) a group of close friends C) your university D) a fraternity or sorority E) your occupation

2) ________ is the act of designing the company's offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market. A) Positioning B) Valuation C) Pricing D) Commercialization E) Launching

21) Newlyweds in the United States buy more in the first six months than an established household does in five years. Newlyweds are an example of a(n) ________ segment. A) life stage B) age C) behavior D) user status E) income

24) IKEA has achieved global recognition by offering consumers leading-edge Scandinavian furniture at affordable prices. IKEA is delivering value to consumers who are ________ constrained. A) money B) time C) brand D) value E) self-concept

24) Ultimately, the amount of steel sold to General Motors depends on the consumers' demand for GM cars and trucks. From the standpoint of the steel manufacturer, which of the following demand forms is most pertinent? A) derived demand B) inelastic demand C) geographic demand D) relational demand E) static demand

26) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, esteem and knowledge, the two pillars of brand equity together create brand ________, a "report card" on past performance and a current indicator of current value. A) stature B) parity C) strength D) personality E) architecture

27) Which of the following statements about Gen Yers is true? A) They are selective, confident, and impatient. B) They are more likely to associate retirement with "the beginning of the end." C) They are more pragmatic and individualistic. D) They were born between 1964 and 1978. E) They were the first generation to find surpassing their parents' standard of living a serious challenge.

28) Points-of-________ are product associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands. A) parity B) difference C) inflection D) presence E) divergence

28) The purchasing department buys office supplies on a routine basis from a pre-approved list of suppliers. This type of purchase is classified as a ________. A) straight rebuy B) modified rebuy C) new task D) secondary purchase E) procure-to-pay

3) The goal of positioning is to ________. A) locate the brand in the minds of consumers to maximize the potential benefit to the firm B) discover the different needs and groups existing in the marketplace C) target those customers marketers can satisfy in a superior way D) collect information about competitors that will directly influence the firms' strategy E) help the firm anticipate what the actions of its competitors will be

3) The process of selecting one or more market segments to enter is called market ________. A) targeting B) dominance C) positioning D) segmentation E) research

33) ________ is the science of using psychology and demographics to better understand consumers. A) Psychographics B) Interactionism C) Clustering D) Demographic transition E) Customerization

34) A brand must demonstrate ________, for it to function as a true point-of-difference. A) clear superiority of an attribute or benefit B) clear profitability to the company C) clear similarity to the attributes of other brands D) technological advances for an attribute or benefit E) exploitation of competitors' weakness

34) According to the VALS segmentation system, ________ are successful, sophisticated, active, "take-charge" people with high self-esteem. Their purchases often reflect cultivated tastes for relatively upscale, niche-oriented products and services. A) Innovators B) Thinkers C) Achievers D) Experiencers E) Believers

37) According to the VALS segmentation framework, consumers primarily motivated by ideals are guided by ________. A) knowledge B) social activity C) products that demonstrate success to their peers D) variety E) risk

39) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps convey the message "Nothing else beats this brand"? A) bonding B) relevance C) advantage D) performance E) presence

39) Philip Morris bought Miller Brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does not taste as good as normal beer. What did the company try to build when they conveyed the fact that the beer contained one third less calories and hence it is less filling? A) points-of-difference B) points-of-conflict C) points-of-parity D) points-of-presence E) points-of-inflection

42) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs. A) imagery B) judgment C) resonance D) salience E) performance

44) Dennis requests his father to buy him a PlayStation® for his birthday. With respect to consumer decision roles, which role is Dennis currently playing? A) initiator B) influencer C) decider D) buyer E) gatekeeper

45) The key to attracting potential users of a product or service, or even possibly nonusers, is ________. A) understanding the reasons they are not using it B) offering financial incentives for first-time use C) increasing the usage rate of existing users D) developing a new product that better meets their needs E) increasing advertising expenditures

48) When Amy goes shopping for clothes, she goes into every store in the mall looking for the best deal. She is very price conscious. On the basis of loyalty status, Amy can be described as a(n) ________. A) switcher B) split loyal C) shifting loyal D) hard-core loyal E) anti-loyal

48) Which of the following "building block levels" corresponds to the branding objectives of points-of-parity and difference? A) performance and imagery B) judgment and feelings C) resonance and salience D) imagery and judgment E) salience and feelings

49) American Express' "World-Class Service, Personal Recognition," Mary Kay's "Enriching women's lives," Hallmark's "Caring Shared," and Starbucks' "Rewarding Everyday Moments" are examples of brand ________. A) mantras B) parity C) identity D) architecture E) extension

50) Brand ________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the irrefutable essence or spirit of the brand positioning and ensure that the company's own employees understand what the brand represents. A) mantras B) symbols C) logos D) alliances E) extensions

51) Timken achieved record revenue despite a recession by ________. A) shifting attention into heavy processing, aerospace and defense industries B) shifting attention into the auto industry C) lowering prices on bearings for a tractor manufacturer's medium-sized tractors D) avoiding sales of high priced bearings for large tractors E) all of the above

52) BMW's "The ultimate driving machine," American Express' "Don't leave home without it," New York Times' "All the news that's fit to print," and AT&T's "Reach out and touch someone" are all examples of brand ________. A) slogan B) personality C) mission D) architecture E) vision

52) ________ is composed of all parties who participate in the purchasing decision-making process and share common goals and risks associated with their decisions. A) The buying center B) The marketing sales team C) Strategic management D) Engineering support E) The logistics center

56) For brands in more stable categories where extensions into more distinct categories are less likely to occur, the brand mantra may focus more exclusively on points-of-________. A) difference B) presence C) inflection D) parity E) conflict

57) One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand positioning is that many of the attributes or benefits that make up the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are ________. A) negatively correlated B) always correlated C) directly proportional D) never correlated E) positively correlated

6) Perdue's cogent reason why a target market should buy its chicken is "More tender golden chicken at a moderate premium price," also known as its ________. A) customer-focused value proposition B) competitive frame of reference C) points-of-parity D) straddle positioning E) perceptual map

64) As Rita scans the yellow pages section of her phonebook looking for a florist, she sees several other products and services advertised. Though interesting on first glance, she quickly returns to her primary task of finding a florist. The items that distracted her from her initial search were most likely stored in which of the following types of memory? A) short-term memory B) long-term memory C) middle memory D) subconscious memory E) subliminal memory

68) Subway restaurants are positioned as offering healthy, good-tasting sandwiches. When the competitive frame of reference is quick-serve restaurants like McDonald's, what is the POD? A) health B) taste C) convenience D) price E) brand

71) A supplier creates better information systems, and introduces barcoding, mixed pallets, and other methods of helping the consumer. The supplier is most likely to be differentiated on its ________. A) innovativeness B) reliability C) insensitivity D) resilience E) accuracy

71) Brand ________ are devices that can be trademarked and serve to identify and differentiate the brand. A) elements B) value propositions C) perceptions D) images E) extensions

74) Which of the following is a defensive criterion for choosing brand elements? A) adaptable B) memorable C) meaningful D) likeable E) significance

78) ________ branding consists of activities and processes that help inform and inspire employees about brands. A) Internal B) Personal C) Individual D) External E) Co-

79) According to Patrick J. Robinson, the eight stages in the business buying-decision process are known as ________. A) buyphases B) buybacks C) buyouts D) buyables E) buyoffs

8) Shoe manufacturers are not going to buy much more leather if the price of leather falls, nor will they buy much less leather if the price rises, unless they can find satisfactory substitutes. This is an example of ________. A) inelastic demand B) direct purchasing C) the acceleration effect D) a modified rebuy E) a straight rebuy

80) A brand ________ is a specialized group of consumers and employees whose identification and activities focus around the brand. A) community B) channel C) association D) personality E) cluster

84) Business buyers may get new ideas at a trade show, see an ad, or receive a call from a sales representative who offers a better product or a lower price compared to the current in-supplier. These situations motivate the ________ stage. A) problem recognition B) general need description C) order-routine specification D) supplier search E) performance review

93) Robert Jennings consultants help farmers deliver an incremental animal weight gain of 8 to 12 percent over competitors. This is an example of solutions ________. A) selling to enhance customer revenues B) selling to reduce customer costs C) selling to decrease customer risks D) selling to simplify customer purchasing E) to provide better partnership

99) A ________ plan establishes a long-term relationship in which the supplier promises to resupply the buyer as needed, at agreed-upon prices, over a specified period of time. A) stockless purchase B) direct stock purchase C) defined contribution D) stock purchase E) share purchase

103) A marketer is interested in segmenting a business market based on urgency of delivery and the size of the order. Which of the following major segmentation variables would the marketer most likely use to assist with the task? A) purchasing approaches B) situational factors C) operating variables D) personal characteristics E) demographic variables

106) A marketer interested in segmenting a business market based on ________ intends to eventually segment the market based on power structure and nature of existing relationship. A) situational factors B) purchasing approaches C) personal characteristics D) operating variables E) demographic variables

114) Even if consumers form brand evaluations, two general factors can intervene between the purchase intention and the purchase decision: one is unanticipated situational factors; what is the other factor? A) amount of purchasing power B) attitudes of others C) short-term memory capabilities D) ability to return merchandise E) the self-concept

115) Which of the following statements is true about the five forces identified by Michael Porter that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of a market or market segment? A) A segment is unattractive if the company's suppliers are unable to raise prices or reduce quantity supplied. B) A segment is unattractive if buyers possess strong or growing bargaining power. C) A segment is attractive when there are actual or potential substitutes for the product. D) A segment is attractive if it already contains numerous, strong, or aggressive competitors. E) The most attractive segment is one in which entry barriers are low and exit barriers are high.

123) A consumer is persuaded to buy a product by a message that requires little thought and is based on an association with a brand's positive consumption experiences from the past. In this situation, the consumer used a ________ route to arrive at this purchase decision. A) central B) peripheral C) behavioral D) subjective E) objective

125) Two advantages of ________ are that they can facilitate new-product acceptance and provide positive feedback to the parent brand and company. A) product licensing B) brand extensions C) brand architecture D) brand audits E) brand dilutions

131) Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau see ________ as based on deep metaphors that connect to people's memories, associations, and stories. A) cultural branding B) narrative branding C) brand journalism D) emotional branding E) personal branding

132) Which of the following relationships is characterized by much trust and commitment leading to a true partnership? A) mutually adaptive B) collaborative C) basic buying and selling D) customer supply E) cooperative systems

138) The type of buyer-supplier relationship in which buyers and sellers make many relationship-specific adaptations, but without necessarily achieving strong trust or cooperation, is referred to as ________. A) the customer is king B) mutually adaptive C) collaborative D) contractual transaction E) customer supply

148) Which of the following is NOT an example of a descriptive characteristic used to define segments? A) consumer demographics B) consumer responses to benefits C) consumer geography D) consumer psychographics E) family life cycle

16) According to PRIZM, the ________ cluster is characterized as being in their late forties and fifties, college-educated, upper-middle-class homeowners that married late, and are still raising children in comfortable suburban subdivisions and pursuing kid-centered lifestyles. A) Cosmopolitans B) Beltway Boomers C) Young Digerati D) Winner's Circle E) Old Milltowns

27) Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the statement: "attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand"? A) points-of-inflection B) points-of-difference C) points-of-parity D) points-of-value E) points-of-presence

4) The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________, which provides a cogent reason why the target market should buy the product. A) an award-winning promotional campaign B) a customer-focused value proposition C) a demand channel D) everyday low pricing E) employee value proposition

40) Brand salience ________. A) is customers' emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand B) is how often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations C) is how well the product or service meets customers' functional needs D) describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs E) describes the relationship customers have with the brand and the extent to which they feel they're "in sync" with it

52) A company can learn a great deal by analyzing the degrees of brand loyalty. For example, ________ can show the firm which brands are most competitive with its own. A) hard-core loyals B) split loyals C) shifting loyals D) switchers E) antiloyals

57) ________ is the process by which we select, organize, and interpret information inputs to create a meaningful picture of the world. A) Consumption B) Perception C) Acculturation D) Assimilation E) Cognitive dissonance

59) A ________ advantage is one that a company can use as a springboard to new advantages. A) sustainable B) leverageable C) realistic D) rational E) distinct

7) Regardless of the type of segmentation scheme used, the key is adjusting the marketing program to recognize ________. A) the level of disposable income earned by the target group B) customer differences C) the cost-benefit relationship of narrowing the target market D) customer complaints E) saturated markets

85) Business marketers can stimulate problem recognition by ________. A) ensuring a presence in trade directories B) direct mail, telemarketing, and calling on prospects C) encouraging the Better Business Bureau to release statistics D) using consumer advertising E) conducting surveys of existing customers

9) Brand ________ is the added value endowed to products and services. A) loyalty B) equity C) preference D) identity E) licensing

1) The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________. A) measuring consumer brand loyalty B) identifying and establishing brand positioning C) planning and implementing brand marketing D) measuring and interpreting brand performance E) growing and sustaining brand value

10) ________ brand equity is the differential effect that brand knowledge has on consumer response to the marketing of that brand. A) Mission-driven B) Customer-based C) Product-driven D) Service-driven E) Function-based

102) Competitive superiority and channel support are factors that influence the ________ multiplier of the brand value chain. A) program B) customer C) brand D) profit E) market

103) A(n) ________ is a descriptive thought that a person holds about something. A) attitude B) belief C) desire D) feeling E) emotion

107) A company can be said to have used ________ if the company distinguished among customers buying on the basis of price, service, and quality. A) global segmentation B) microsegmentation C) short-term segmentation D) macrosegmentation E) geographic segmentation

107) For the launch of "Trema," your company's new pocket organizer that can also be used as a cell phone, the CMO has decided that the product can be launched in international markets without any changes in its features or the marketing strategy. This introduction can be described as a ________. A) dual adaptation B) straight extension C) product adaptation D) forward invention E) backward invention

108) A ________ offering consists of two parts: a naked solution and discretionary options. A) differentiated market B) flexible market C) rigid market D) vertical market E) horizontal market

11) Adam wants to buy a washing machine and is looking for something that is not too expensive. When he goes to make the purchase, he finds there are two options that meet his requirements. One is a Maytag product, while the other is a newly imported South Korean brand. Adam is not very familiar with the latter and does not hesitate in choosing Maytag. This example implies that ________. A) the imported brand will not survive the competition from Maytag B) Maytag has a positive customer brand equity C) the South Korean company has a low advertising budget D) the imported brand is unreliable E) the Maytag washing machine has better features than the imported brand

110) The typical approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand's category membership before stating its point-of-________. A) parity B) difference C) conflict D) weakness E) presence

111) In which of the following examples is a company communicating category membership using a product descriptor? A) Use Zipex for quick and thorough cleaning. B) Barry's Oats, when you want nutrition and flavor. C) Clarity offers you the best prices for the best quality. D) Choose Grissom's for an unparalleled shopping experience. E) Chloe: All you need for a beautiful you.

115) A mobile phone manufacturing company observes that the main reason for an abrupt fall in sales volume is the unconventional design of their phones that consumers found inconvenient and unattractive. The findings prompt the company to adopt a new strategy. They redesigned the product models keeping the requirements of the end-user in mind. According to the expectancy value-model, the company's strategy can be termed as ________. A) psychological repositioning B) real repositioning C) competitive depositioning D) physiological depositioning E) prescriptive method

115) SJC is a new retailer that targets the youth market. SJC needs to make an impression using advertising, and decides to use funny or irreverent ads to get its point across. Each ad features one of SJC's competitors and conveys an advantage SJC has over that competitor. Which of the following is the company using to convey its membership in the retail segment? A) announcing category benefits B) comparing to exemplars C) relying on the product descriptor D) using channel differentiation E) maximizing negatively correlated attributes

116) Ford believes its cars to be of higher quality than General Motor's but thinks that consumers wrongly believe the opposite. Ford might employ a(n) ________ strategy to change buyers' perceptions of its competition. A) real repositioning B) competitive depositioning C) psychological repositioning D) biased repositioning E) attribute repositioning

12) When Gary was a high school student, he enjoyed rock music and regularly purchased hip clothing sported by his favorite rock band. However, five years later, when Gary became an accountant, his preference shifted toward formal clothing. Which of the following personal characteristics is likely to have had the most influence on Gary's preferences during his high school days? A) education B) age C) income D) gender E) physiological needs

124) Many business buyers prefer to buy a total solution to a problem from one seller. This process is also known as ________. A)s channel consolidation B) systems buying C) vertical buying D) horizontal buying E) supply buying

124) Richard Petty and John Cacioppo's ________ model, an influential model of attitude formation and change, describes how consumers make evaluations in both low- and high-involvement circumstances. A) introspective B) elaboration likelihood C) stimulus-response D) associative network memory E) expectancy-value

125) Which of the following is true about branding efforts at NetApp? A) The company's branding efforts were well organized in 2007. B) Landor created a new identity, architecture, and tagline for it in 2008. C) NetApp shows that business-to-business marketers do not need to worry about branding. D) Frankensites helped organize branding efforts. E) New Web sites for NetApp did not affect sales leads from inquiries.

127) According to the ________ criterion for useful market segments, a segment should be the largest possible homogenous group worth going after with a tailored marketing program. A) measurable B) substantial C) accessible D) differentiable E) actionable

127) Even if sales of a brand extension are high and meet targets, the revenue may be coming from consumers switching to the extension from existing parent-brand offerings — in effect ________ the parent brand. A) diluting B) cannibalizing C) reinforcing D) eroding E) revamping

133) The partners in ________ systems are united in operational ways, but neither demonstrates structural commitment through legal means or adaptation. A) mutually adaptive B) collaborative C) basic buying and selling D) customer supply E) cooperative

137) In ________ marketing, the firm ignores segment differences and goes after the whole market with one offer. A) niche B) mass C) guerrilla D) segmented E) differentiated

140) General Motors, a leading American multinational automaker, sells cars for every purpose, budget, and personality. This is an example of ________ marketing. A) undifferentiated B) differentiated C) concentrated D) niche E) micro

147) Which of the following best represents the chief advantage of pursuing a selective specialization multisegment strategy? A) It makes the company almost bulletproof to competitors' actions. B) It diversifies the firm's risk. C) It creates synergy between markets. D) It is a low-cost strategy. E) It treats all buyers the same and, therefore, lowers promotion costs.

148) Ben always reaches for the bright blue and yellow box of Ritz crackers when he visits the snack food aisle in the grocery store. He rarely even reads the box or checks the price. Which of the following heuristics is most likely being used by Ben? A) availability B) representative C) anchoring D) adjustment E) semantic

15) ________ refers to a set of distinguishing human psychological traits that lead to relatively consistent and enduring responses to environmental stimuli. A) Image B) Personality C) Psychological transformation D) Lifestyle E) Acculturation

152) In most countries, ________ are the major buyers of goods and services. They typically require suppliers to submit bids and often award the contract to the lowest bidder. A) consumer packaged-goods companies B) government organizations C) health services vendors D) educational institutions E) households

153) What is the name of the database that is used to collect, validate, store, and disseminate data in support of government agency acquisitions? A) General Services Administration database B) Central Contractor Registration database C) Customer Value Assessment database D) Vendor-Managed Inventory database E) Proposal Solicitation database

155) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of a customer equity perspective (relative to a brand equity perspective)? A) It offers limited guidance for go-to-market strategies. B) It has quantifiable measures of financial performance. C) It ignores the advantages of creating a strong brand. D) It overlooks the option value of brands. E) It does not fully account for social network effects or word-of-mouth.

19) Consumers often choose and use brands that have a brand personality consistent with how they think others view them, also known as the ________ self-concept. A) actual B) others' C) ideal D) dual E) perceptual

19) When Coca-Cola focused on developing its soft drink business but missed seeing the market for coffee bars and fresh-fruit-juice bars that eventually impinged on its soft-drink business, it was suffering from ________ because it defined competition in traditional category and industry terms. A) factor elimination B) marketing myopia C) factor reduction D) category points-of-parity E) reliance on product description

2) Establishing and communicating the distinctive benefit(s) of the company's market offering for each target segment is called ________. A) market research B) market positioning C) marketing effectiveness D) market segmentation E) market dominance

21) Starbucks uses social-media engagement to respond, listen to and connect with fans, which is important to them because it builds loyalty, which is one aspect of the ________ pillar of the BrandAsset® Valuator. A) energized differentiation B) esteem C) relevance D) knowledge E) strength

24) According to the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the components of brand equity measures the breadth of a brand's appeal? A) differentiation B) relevance C) esteem D) knowledge E) value

25) The demand for business goods is ultimately derived from the demand for ________. A) raw materials B) consumer goods C) services D) business solutions E) e-commerce

26) The ________ segment of the US premium wine market skews male, has an average age of 35, and uses wine as a badge to say who they are, so they are willing to pay more to make sure they're getting the right bottle. A) Savvy Shoppers B) Image Seekers C) Satisfied Sippers D) Enthusiast E) Overwhelmed

27) According to the BrandAsset® Valuator model, strong new brands show ________. A) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and energy are lower still B) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still C) high knowledge — evidence of past performance — a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation D) high levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem E) low levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem

30) As part of an antismoking crusade, the American Legacy Foundation hires teens as the "Truth Squad" to hand out T-shirts, bandanas, and dog tags at teen-targeted events. The American Legacy Foundation is using ________ to reach Generation Y. A) computer games B) street teams C) unconventional sports D) online buzz E) videos

33) Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as distinctive and superior to relevant competitors? A) desirability B) differentiability C) believability D) deliverability E) deviance

33) Which of the following levels of the BrandDynamics Pyramid pertains to consumer's needs? A) advantage B) relevance C) bonding D) performance E) presence

35) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address the question "Do I know about this brand?" A) relevance B) presence C) performance D) advantage E) bonding

39) Mature and reflective people who seek durability, functionality, and value in products are most likely to be categorized as ________ in the VALS system. A) Innovators B) Thinkers C) Achievers D) Experiencers E) Strivers

47) Straddle positions ________. A) help firms to analyze who their competitors are B) allow brands to expand their market coverage and potential customer base C) are a necessity while creating a firm's vision and mission statement D) assist firms in collecting information on competitors that will directly influence their strategy E) are ambiguous moral principles behind the operation and regulation of marketing

5) A(n) ________ group is one whose values or behavior an individual rejects. A) aspirational B) dissociative C) membership D) primary E) procreational

53) In the purchasing decision process, the ________ are those who request that something be purchased. They may be users or others in the organization. A) users B) initiators C) influencers D) deciders E) approvers

56) At the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs (shown as a pyramid in the text) are ________ needs. A) esteem B) self-actualization C) social D) safety E) physiological

58) ________ can work to the advantage of marketers with strong brands when consumers make neutral or ambiguous brand information more positive. A) Selective attention B) Selective distortion C) Selective retention D) Selective choice E) Selective embellishment

6) Joe is a computer service technician. People in his neighborhood usually depend on his suggestions for purchasing any computer accessory or hardware, as they believe that he has access to far more information on computer technology than the average consumer. The neighbors are also aware that Joe has the required knowledge and background for understanding the technical properties of the products. Within this context, Joe can be called a(n) ________. A) transactional leader B) opinion leader C) role model D) gate-keeper E) international marketer

6) Pittsburgh-based Consol Energy's coal business largely depends on orders from utilities and steel companies which, in turn, depend on broader economic demand from consumers for electricity and steel-based products like automobiles and appliances because of ________. A) fluctuating demand B) derived demand C) professional purchasing D) multiple buying influences E) multiple sales calls

61) ________ theory teaches marketers that they can build demand for a product by associating it with strong drives, using motivating cues, and providing positive reinforcement. A) Demand B) Learning C) Economic D) Psychological E) Demographic

62) Which of the following types of differentiation refers to companies effectively designing their distribution medium's coverage, expertise, and performance to make buying the product easier and more enjoyable and rewarding? A) services differentiation B) channel differentiation C) image differentiation D) product differentiation E) employee differentiation

65)

65) Which of the following is an example of image differentiation? A) Berry's has an intensive training program for its customer-facing staff, to ensure a consistent service standard. B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance with the hotel. C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than competitors. D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay more in stores. E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.

68) Amtex electronics, a consumer products brand, frequently advertises its products inside supermarkets and retail stores to promote the process of memory ________ and stimulate purchase. A) verification B) retrieval C) decoding D) formation E) augmentation

75) If you were an upper-level marketing executive of a large seller of trucks, which of the following strategies would be most appropriate in reaching buying center targets? A) Concentrate on key buying influencers. B) Use multilevel in-depth selling. C) Use trade-based promotions. D) Concentrate sales efforts on the support staff. E) Move all operations to the Internet.

83) The approach to cost reduction that studies whether components can be redesigned or standardized or made by cheaper methods of production without adversely impacting product performance is termed as ________. A) maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) B) product value analysis (PVA) C) vendor managed inventories (VMI) D) supplier performance management (SPM) E) supplier added value effort (SAVE)

89) With respect to e-procurement, which of the two types of e-hubs are Web sites organized around? A) vertical and horizontal hubs B) vertical and functional hubs C) functional hubs and organizational hubs D) supplier and user hubs E) manufacturer and supplier hubs

9) ________ are defined as companies that satisfy the same customer need. A) Communities B) Competitors C) Trendsetters D) Industries E) Task groups

91) The ________ approach to consumer research asks customers to attach a monetary value to alternative levels of a given attribute. The value of a given configuration is determined by adding the average values of each of the given attributes. A) benchmarking B) compositional C) importance rating D) focus-group E) conjoint analysis

97) Praxair Limited is a supplier of synthetic graphite to a number of electrode manufacturers in the United States. Its customers have shifted their ordering responsibilities to Praxair and the company regularly monitors its customers' inventory levels and has taken responsibility for replenishing the supplies automatically through continuous replenishment programs. Which of the following systems do Praxair and its customers follow with respect to order-routine specification? A) Supplier Added Value Effort ($AVE) B) Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI) C) Direct Concentrated Buying (DCB) D) Supplier Performance Management (SPM) E) Product Value Analysis (PVA)

99) If a marketer is seeking to segment a business market, which of the following variables is generally felt to be the most important? A) personal characteristics B) demographic variables C) situational factors D) operating variables E) purchasing approaches

A) gatekeepers B) buyers C) initiators D) approvers E) deciders

Marketing Management, 15e (Kotler) Chapter 7 Analyzing Business Markets 1) ________ refers to the decision-making process by which formal organizations establish the need for purchased products and services and identify, evaluate, and choose among alternative brands and suppliers. A) Marketing channels B) Organizational buying C) Corporate retailing D) Brand auditing E) Inventory control

117) Ford Motor Co. invested more than $1 billion on a radical new 2004 model called the X-Trainer, which combined the attributes of an SUV, a minivan, and a station wagon. To communicate its unique position — and to avoid association with its Explorer and Country Squire models — the vehicle, eventually called Freestyle, was designated a "sports wagon." According to the given scenario, Ford Motor Co. conveyed their brand's category membership by ________. A) announcing category benefits B) identifying counter examples C) relying on the product descriptor D) focusing on reliability E) comparing to exemplars

126) Which of the following companies used the slogan, "The Power to Know®" to connect with C-level executives in the largest companies? A) Lincoln Electric B) NetApp C) SAS D) Medline E) Plexco

129) ________ is a key industrial marketing strategy in bidding to build large-scale industrial products such as dams, pipelines, etc. A) Systems contracting B) Systems buying C) Systems selling D) Solutions buying E) Turnkey logistics

13) ________ are the most fashion-conscious of all racial and ethnic groups and are more likely to be influenced by their children when selecting a product for purchase, and less likely to be influenced by unfamiliar brands. A) Hispanic Americans B) Asian Americans C) African Americans D) LGBT customers E) American Indians

147) A consumer tells another consumer, "Every time I eat at Big Bill's Steakhouse, I get poor service." Whether this is true or not, it is the consumer's perception. This is an example of consumers basing future predictions on the quickness and ease with which a particular example of an outcome comes to mind. This scenario would be an illustration of the ________ heuristic. A) discrimination B) differentiation C) availability D) screening E) representativeness

20) Consumers who are highly sensitive to how others see them and who choose brands whose personalities fit the consumption situation are called ________. A) change agents B) self motivators C) self monitors D) self adapters E) opinion leaders

23) ________ portrays the "whole person" interacting with his or her environment. A) Attitude B) Personality C) Lifestyle D) Self-concept E) Subculture

25) When consumers use Tide TOTALCARE laundry detergent, which is used by consumers who want to obtain dry-cleaning type results at home, it is an example of ________, or switching spending from one category to another while preserving a desired experience. A) trading up B) trading down C) trading over D) being trapped in the middle E) treasure hunting

38) When BMW first made its strong competitive push into the US market in the early 1980s, it positioned the brand as the only automobile that offered both luxury (competing with Cadillac) and performance (competing with the Corvette), which is known as ________ because it uses points-of-difference and points-of-parity across categories. A) a competitive frame of reference B) zone of tolerance positioning C) straddle positioning D) red-ocean thinking E) perceptual mapping

4) Which of the following is true for business marketers? A) They deal with more and larger buyers than consumer marketers. B) They deal with more and smaller buyers than consumer marketers. C) They deal with fewer and larger buyers than consumer marketers. D) They deal with fewer and smaller buyers than consumer marketers. E) They deal with the same kind of buyers as consumer marketers.

41) Nivea became the leader in the skin cream class on the "gentle," "protective," and "caring" platform. The company further moved into classes such as deodorants, shampoos, and cosmetics. Attributes like gentle and caring were of no value unless consumers believed that its deodorant was strong enough, its shampoo would cleanse, and its cosmetics would be colorful enough. This is an example of ________. A) competitive points-of-parity B) competitive points-of-difference C) category points-of-parity D) category points-of-difference E) competitive points-of-presence

44) A marketer that wants to anchor a point-of-difference for Dove soap on brand benefits might emphasize which of the following? A) The soap is one-quarter cleansing cream. B) Dove products include bar soaps and shampoos. C) Dove soap helps users have softer skin. D) The soap brand has global presence. E) The brand has recently launched soap for men.

50) Which of the following is true about industrial buying decisions? A) They are purely rational. B) They are purely emotional. C) They service both the organization's and the individual's needs. D) Top executives are never insecure about buying products. E) Individual needs legitimate the buying process and its outcomes.

60) Marketers embed covert messages in ads or packaging of which the consumers are not consciously aware, yet it affects their behavior. This technique employed by the marketers targets the ________ of a consumer. A) selective attention B) selective distortion C) subliminal perception D) voluntary attention E) selective retention

7) For a high school student, Tim is highly concerned about environmental issues. He is a strong supporter of the garbage recycling and afforestation campaigns taken up by the environmental activists in his neighborhood. He wants to become a full time volunteer for their upcoming wildlife protection program and has even saved money to contribute to the cause. This group of environmental activists can be categorized under which of the following reference groups? A) primary group B) secondary group C) aspirational group D) dissociative group E) cognitive group

74) Small sellers should first concentrate their marketing efforts on reaching ________. A) approvers B) initiators C) influencers D) users E) initiators

92) In the ________ method for assessing customer value, customers are asked how costs of using a new product compare to those of using an incumbent product. A) direct survey B) importance ratings C) field value-in-use assessment D) benchmarking E) conjoint analysis

98) Which of the following methods is most likely to be used by buyers to review the performance of chosen suppliers? A) The buyer may contact different suppliers and ask for their evaluations. B) The buyers may rate the end-users on several criteria using a weighted-score method. C) The buyer might aggregate the cost of poor performance to come up with adjusted costs of purchase, including price. D) The buyers may aggregate the opinions of various competitors and come up with the adjusted cost of supply. E) The buyers might adopt the Supplier Added Value Effort technique to calculate supplier efficiency.

10) A(n) ________ is a group of firms offering a product or class of products that are close substitutes for one another. A) community B) task force C) industry D) focus group E) umbrella brand

105) A marketer is interested in segmenting a business market on ________ if the marketer intends to eventually segment the market based on loyalty and attitudes toward risk. A) situational factors B) purchasing approaches C) personal characteristics D) operating variables E) demographic variables

108) Gordon Jones is considering purchasing a computer from Best Buy. He has created a scale for rating eight different computers on three different characteristics. He plans to make a short list of only those computers that score at least a 7 on his scale on all three characteristics. Which of the following choice heuristics has he chosen? A) elimination-by-aspects heuristic B) lexicographic heuristic C) conjunctive heuristic D) anchoring and adjustment heuristic E) representativeness heuristic

109) Tums claims to have the most acid-reducing components of any antacid. In what way is the brand's category membership being conveyed? A) comparing to exemplars B) relying on the product descriptor C) announcing category benefits D) focusing on reliability E) persuasion based on believability

11) Robert is the owner of an automobile manufacturing company. He calls for a board meeting and tells his directors that he wants to build a car that lets the users experience power and exhilaration. He tells them that the car must allow his users to soar from 0-60 mph in about 4 seconds. He also adds in that the price of the car must be affordable enough for anybody making a good salary. In accordance with the given scenario, Robert is trying to segment the market on the basis of ________. A) occupation B) family size C) benefits D) nationality E) user status

110) ________ are rules of thumb or mental shortcuts in the decision process. A) Attitudes B) Beliefs C) Heuristics D) Discriminations E) Biases

112) Industrial tools claiming to have durability, and antacids announcing their efficacy convey a brand's category membership by ________. A) relying on the product descriptor B) comparing to exemplars C) announcing category benefits D) communicating deliverability variables E) identifying counter examples

115) When a firm uses an established brand to introduce a new product, it is called a brand ________. A) harmonization B) valuation C) extension D) positioning E) parity

116) When Tommy Hilfiger was an unknown brand, advertising announced his membership as a great US designer by associating him with Geoffrey Beene, Stanley Blacker, Calvin Klein, and Perry Ellis, who were recognized members of that category. Tommy Hilfiger conveyed the brand's category membership by ________. A) relying on the product descriptor B) focusing on reliability C) comparing to exemplars D) announcing category benefits E) identifying counter examples

119) A major advantage of a ________ strategy is that the company does not tie its reputation to the product. A) blanket family name B) licensing C) separate family brand name D) category extension E) brand revitalization

122) A brand ________ is the set of all brands and brand lines a particular firm offers for sale to buyers in a particular category. A) architecture B) position C) portfolio D) extension E) image

122) The level of engagement and active processing undertaken by the consumer in responding to a marketing stimulus is called ________. A) elaboration likelihood B) consumer disengagement C) consumer involvement D) variety seeking E) low involvement

125) In the ________ step of the market segmentation process, the marketer evaluates the segment using criteria such as market growth and market access. A) need-based segmentation B) segment identification C) segment attractiveness D) segment profitability E) segment "acid test"

127) Xerox offers a ________ approach to prospective clients when it offers a complete turnkey solution, including the operation and management of the client's information and communication need. A) guided selling B) fair trading C) systems buying D) cross-selling E) local purchasing

134) Value Central has a partnership of high trust and commitment with certain suppliers and gives them access to its sophisticated and detailed daily, individual store-based sales data. In exchange, those suppliers are responsible for managing Value Central's inventory of their products. This relationship is best described as ________. A) basic buying and selling B) contractual transaction C) collaborative D) customer supply E) customer is king

134) Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau relate to the authenticating voice, metaphors, symbols, themes, and leitmotifs? A) narrative arc B) context C) language D) setting E) cast

139) In ________ marketing, the firm operates in several market segments and designs different products for each segment. A) individual B) undifferentiated C) differentiated D) concentrated E) niche

139) ________ investments are those expenditures tailored to a particular company and value chain partner. A) Diversified B) Pooled C) Specific D) Umbrella E) General

14) Pampers divides its market demographically on the basis of ________ into prenatal, new baby, baby, toddler, and preschooler. A) life stage B) gender C) age D) income E) social class

140) Which of the following is a form of cheating or undersupply relative to an implicit or explicit contract which usually takes place when buyers cannot easily monitor supplier performance? A) institutional sale B) business buying C) opportunism D) vertical integration E) contractual transactionism

146) When a symphony orchestra targets people who have broad cultural interests, rather than only those who regularly attend concerts, the orchestra is targeting ________. A) market mavens B) strategic segments C) supersegments D) occasion segments E) psychodemographic segments

16) Identify the four pillars of brand equity, according to BrandAsset® Valuator model. A) relevance, performance, bonding, and advantage B) presence, performance, advantage, and bonding C) energized differentiation, relevance, esteem, and knowledge D) brand salience, brand feelings, brand imagery, and brand performance E) energized differentiation, esteem, brand feelings, and brand salience

17) According to PRIZM, the ________ cluster is characterized by educated, midscale, and multiethnic, urban couples in America's fast-growing cities. Concentrated in a handful of metropolitan areas such as Las Vegas, Miami, and Albuquerque, these households feature older home owners, empty nesters, and college graduates. A) Beltway Boomers B) Old Milltowns C) Cosmopolitans D) Young Digerati E) Winner's Circle

17) The Marlboro Man was depicted in the advertisements of Marlboro cigarettes as a rugged outdoor, tough cowboy type. This was done to establish what is called ________. A) trademarking B) a brand name C) a brand personality D) co-branding E) a brand reference

17) ________ refers to the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes. A) Consumer profitability analysis B) Competitive frame of reference C) Category membership D) Value membership E) Demand field

18) According to PRIZM, the ________ cluster is characterized as the nation's tech-savvy singles and couples, living in areas typically filled with trendy apartments and condos, fitness clubs and clothing boutiques, casual restaurants, and all types of bars — from juice to coffee to microbrew. A) Beltway Boomers B) Old Milltowns C) Young Digerati D) Cosmopolitans E) Winner's Circle

18) Christian Louboutin is a footwear designer who launched his line of high-end women's shoes in France in 1991. The brand caters to an elite clientele whose satisfaction with the brand has always been evident. Apart from being high-end, Louboutin footwear signifies power in elite social circles. Celebrities are often seen sporting "Loubs" at special occasions, such as movie premieres. This has resulted in people associating Louboutin footwear with class and power. In accordance with the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the following components of brand equity has Louboutin fulfilled in this scenario? A) knowledge B) energized differentiation C) esteem D) advantage E) presence

21) Within the context of Jennifer Aaker's analysis, identify the brand personality that can be associated with a new product whose promotional messages consistently portray it as being reliable, intelligent, and successful. A) sincerity B) excitement C) competence D) sophistication E) ruggedness

24) ________ are products such as the Mercedes Benz C-class and the American Express Blue card, that extend historically high-priced brands down-market while retaining their cachet. A) Hourglass products B) Mass market products C) Old Luxury brand extensions D) Masstige goods E) Accessible superpremium products

26) A given percentage increase in consumer demand can lead to a larger percentage increase in the demand for plant and equipment necessary to produce the additional output. Economists refer to this as ________. A) derived demand B) inelastic demand C) the acceleration effect D) a straight rebuy E) the sales cycle

29) If a marketing manager employs such marketing techniques as online buzz, student ambassadors, cool events, and street teams to reach target markets, the manager is most likely appealing to the ________ market. A) Generation Z B) Generation X C) Generation Y D) Silent generation E) Baby boomers

3) Branding is ________. A) all about creating unanimity between products B) the process of performing market research and selling products or services to customers C) endowing products and services with the power of a brand D) the process of comparing competing brands available in the market E) use of online interactive media to promote products and brands

3) How can a marketer overcome the negative effects of commoditization? A) convince target consumers that the firm's products are as good as those of competitors B) convince target consumers that price is irrelevant in determining quality C) convince target consumers that the firm's products are different from those of competitors D) convince target customers that buying the highest-priced product is no guarantee of quality E) convince target customers that all the products in the market are equivalent

3) The relatively homogeneous and enduring divisions in a society, which are hierarchically ordered and whose members share similar values, interests, and behavior constitute a ________. A) culture B) subculture C) social class D) family E) group

31) The business buyer has to make the fewest decisions when involved in a ________. A) modified rebuy B) regular buy C) straight rebuy D) new rebuy E) new task

31) Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as personally relevant to them? A) deliverability B) authenticity C) desirability D) differentiability E) feasibility

32) If a consumer who is trying to decide between alternatives believes that a particular brand delivers acceptable product performance and can be shortlisted, she is in the ________ level of the BrandDynamics Pyramid. A) presence B) relevance C) performance D) advantage E) bonding

36) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Does this brand offer something better than the others?" A) performance B) presence C) advantage D) bonding E) relevance

36) According to the VALS segmentation system, ________ are successful, goal-oriented people who focus on career and family. They favor premium products that demonstrate success to their peers. A) Thinkers B) Innovators C) Achievers D) Believers E) Experiencers

37) Philip Morris bought Miller Brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does not taste as good as normal beer. What does the company assure by stating that the beer tastes good? A) points-of-difference B) points-of-presence C) points-of-parity D) points-of-conflict E) points-of-inflection

38) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves people progressing through a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question "Does this brand offer me something?" A) advantage B) presence C) relevance D) bonding E) performance

38) Kim is a young professional who enjoys snowboarding and going to rock concerts with her friends. According to the VALS eight-part typology segmentation system, Kim is best described as a(n) ________. A) thinker B) achiever C) experiencer D) striver E) survivor

42) ________ are associations designed to overcome perceived weaknesses of the brand. A) Conceptual points-of-parity B) Category points-of-difference C) Competitive points-of-parity D) Competitive points-of-difference E) Category points-of-parity

43) According to the VALS segmentation system, ________ are conservative, conventional, and traditional people with concrete beliefs. They prefer familiar, US-made products and are loyal to established brands. A) Survivors B) Strivers C) Believers D) Makers E) Innovators

45) Marketers typically focus on brand ________ in choosing the points-of-parity and points-of-difference that make up their brand positioning. A) equity B) awareness C) benefits D) architecture E) extensions

45) Which of the following causes a difference between marketing in developed countries and marketing in developing countries? A) The cost of production varies substantially between the developed and the developing world. B) The disparity between the rich and the poor in the developing world is reducing. C) There are substantial cultural differences between the developed and the developing world. D) Marketing in developing countries is far more expensive than in the developed world. E) The developing countries have more trade barriers in place than the developed countries.

46) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ describes the relationship customers have with the brand and the extent to which they feel they're "in sync" with it. A) imagery B) judgment C) resonance D) salience E) performance

46) ________ are visual representations of consumer perceptions and preferences. A) Brand narratives B) Share of mind variables C) Perceptual maps D) Exemplars E) Points-of-parity

47) Linda was buying all her groceries from Home Needs supermarket for the past 5 years. She recently came across The Convenience Store, another supermarket just a few miles away from her place and started buying her groceries from them. Linda can be best described as a(n) ________. A) split loyal B) antiloyal C) shifting loyal D) hard-core loyal E) switcher

5) Which of the following best describes a car company's value proposition? A) We charge a 20 percent premium on our cars. B) We target safety-conscious upscale families. C) We sell the safest, most durable wagon. D) We are the market leader in the small car category. E) We focus on expanding in faster-growing markets.

5) Which of the following is a challenge in which business marketers differ from consumer marketers? A) understanding deep customer needs in new ways B) identifying new opportunities for organic business growth C) geographically concentrated buyers D) calculating better marketing performance and accountability metrics E) competing and growing in global markets, particularly China

50) If a buyer is loyal to two or three different brands of soap, this buyer's loyalty status can be described as being among the ________. A) switchers B) shifting loyals C) split loyals D) hard-core loyals E) antiloyals

52) In the exact moment you run out of laundry detergent and realize you need to pick some up at the store, you are in the ________ stage of the buying decision process. A) information search B) evaluation of alternatives C) problem recognition D) purchase decision E) postpurchase behavior

53) A brand mantra should be ________. A) original, ambiguous, and straightforward B) unique, complex, and inspirational C) communicative, simple, and inspirational D) competitive, sensitive, and simple E) unique, sensitive, and explanatory

53) ________ assumed that the psychological forces shaping people's behavior are largely unconscious, and that a person cannot fully understand his or her own motivations. A) Abraham Maslow B) Frederick Herzberg C) Sigmund Freud D) John Cacioppo E) Karl Marx

58) When purchasing disposable surgical gowns, Mercy Hospital's vice president of purchasing analyzes whether the hospital should buy disposable gowns or reusable gowns. If the findings favor disposable gowns, then the operating-room administrator compares various competitors' products and prices and makes a choice. Surgeons influence the decision retroactively by reporting their satisfaction with the particular brand. In this situation, the surgeons perform the role of the ________. A) decider B) initiator C) user D) gatekeeper E) buyer

58) ________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match. A) Brand positioning B) Market research C) Competitive advantage D) Competitor analysis E) Competitive intelligence

59) In which of the following is a person performing the role of an influencer? A) Dan decides on the product requirements and makes the final choice of suppliers. B) Luke has the authority to pick out the supplier and negotiate the terms of purchase. C) Liam heads the Tech team at LKG and provides information for evaluating the possible alternatives. D) LKG gets many calls from potential suppliers, and it is Leah's job to weed out the good prospects and refer them to others in LKG. E) Dana authorizes the actions of the deciders and buyers in LKG.

59) ________ is the tendency to interpret information in a way that will fit our preconceptions. A) Selective retention B) Cognitive dissonance C) Selective distortion D) Subliminal perception E) Selective embellishment

60) Which of the following types of differentiation relates to companies having better-trained personnel who provide superior customer service? A) channel differentiation B) services differentiation C) employee differentiation D) image differentiation E) product differentiation

62) Anne is a frequent purchaser of Yoplait strawberry yogurt. For once, she decides to try a different flavored yogurt. Instead of trying out the flavors offered by competing brands, Anne selects a different flavor offered by Yoplait. Here, her past experience with the brand prompts her to make the choice. Anne's behavior can be best described as ________. A) fallacy of proposition B) associative networking C) generalization D) heuristic thinking E) self-actualization

68) From a marketing management perspective, there are three main sets of brand equity drivers. Which of these drivers was most applicable when McDonald's decided to use the "golden arches" and Ronald McDonald as symbols of their brand? A) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs B) the service and all accompanying marketing activities and programs C) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand D) associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to some other entity E) the profitability associated with brand development

69) Red Bull enlisted college students as "Red Bull student brand managers" to distribute samples, research drinking trends, design on-campus product promotion activities, and write stories for student newspapers. From a marketing management perspective, which of the following brand equity drivers is most applicable in the given scenario? A) the profitability associated with brand development B) associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a person C) the product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs D) the initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand E) associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to a place

7) Sometimes a rise of only 10 percent in consumer demand can cause as much as a 200 percent rise in business demand for products for the next period. This is an example of ________. A) inelastic demand B) direct purchasing C) fluctuating demand D) derived demand E) a straight rebuy

70) Suppliers who are better at handling emergencies, product recalls, and inquiries are most likely to be differentiated based on their ________. A) innovativeness B) thoroughness C) resilience D) insensitivity E) reliability

75) With respect to powerful brand elements, ________ is an extremely efficient means to build brand equity. This element functions as a useful "hook" to help consumers grasp what the brand is and what makes it special. A) the tangibility of a product B) a product's shape C) a slogan D) a patent E) a copyright

76) ________ occurs when customers are given a perspective or point of view that allows the firm to "put its best foot forward." A) Gatekeeping B) Commoditization C) Framing D) Rebuying E) Bartering

77) Newer, more strategically oriented purchasing departments have a mission. Which of the following most accurately describes that mission? A) Make the most profit possible and remain independent of entanglements. B) Approach every purchasing opportunity as means to create interdependency. C) Seek the best value from fewer and better suppliers. D) Outsource the supply function. E) Abandon all strategies except for systems selling and buying.

8) If a marketer decides to segment a market based on neighborhoods, the marketer will have chosen the ________ method of segmentation. A) demographic B) psychographic C) geographic D) cultural E) behavioral

80) Which of the following is a step in the straight rebuy buyclass? A) problem recognition B) general need description C) product specification D) supplier search E) proposal solicitation

81) Names that become synonymous with product categories like Kleenex, Kitty Litter, Jell-O, and Xerox, need to ensure they retain their brand names remain ________ so they can retain their trademark rights and avoid becoming generic. A) meaningful B) likable C) protectable D) transferable E) adaptable

99) Brands that meet consumers' initial buying criteria are called the ________ set. A) total B) awareness C) consideration D) choice E) decision

A) active information search B) information search C) heightened attention D) purchase decision E) dynamic information search

100) The ________ determines the marketing program's ability to affect the customer mindset and is a function of the quality of the program investment. A) customer multiplier B) market multiplier C) shareholder value D) program multiplier E) price elasticity

107) The expectancy-value model of attitude formation posits that consumers evaluate products and services by combining their ________. A) needs B) wants C) desires D) brand beliefs E) consuming attitudes

128) The characteristic of useful market segments that relates to whether the segments can be effectively reached and served is whether the segment is ________. A) measurable B) substantial C) differentiable D) accessible E) actionable

131) If married and unmarried women respond similarly to a sale on perfume, these hypothetical segments fail the ________ criterion for useful market segments. A) measurable B) substantial C) accessible D) differentiable E) actionable

135) The relationship between a company and its office supplies vendor where competition rather than cooperation is the dominant form of governance is probably best described as ________. A) basic buying and selling B) contractual transaction C) collaborative D) customer supply E) customer is king

18) When Coca-Cola determines the bottled-water competitors for its Dasani brand by identifying the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes, it is determining Dasani's ________. A) customer-focused value proposition B) points-of-parity C) points-of-difference D) category membership E) brand mantra

31) Which of the following statements about Gen Xers is true? A) Gen Xers are more optimistic and team-oriented. B) Gen Xers are selective, confident, and impatient. C) Gen Xers are highly socially conscious and concerned about environmental issues. D) Gen Xers feel self-sufficiency and the ability to handle any circumstance are key. E) Technology is a barrier for Gen Xers.

4) A ________ consists of a group of customers who share a similar set of needs and wants. A) vertical marketing system B) market basket C) market share D) market segment E) market level

4) A person's ________ consist(s) of all the groups that have a direct (face-to-face) or indirect influence on his/her attitudes or behavior. A) subculture B) family C) social class D) reference groups E) social networks

43) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ focuses on customers' own personal opinions and evaluations. A) salience B) performance C) imagery D) judgment E) resonance

49) Mothers-to-be are potential users who will turn into heavy users of infant products and services. By targeting mothers-to-be as future heavy users, producers of these products and services are segmenting consumers on the basis of ________. A) attitude B) buyer-readiness stage C) loyalty status D) user status E) benefits

51) A brand ________ is a translation of the brand mantra that attempts to creatively engage consumers and others external to the company. A) vision B) extension C) architecture D) slogan E) alliance

51) The starting point for understanding consumer behavior is the ________ model in which marketing and environmental stimuli enter the consumer's consciousness, and a set of psychological processes combine with certain consumer characteristics to result in decision processes and purchase decisions. A) self-reliance B) self-perception C) psychogenic D) stimulus-response E) projective

54) In the purchasing decision process, the ________ are those who have the power to prevent sellers or information from reaching members of the buying center. A) approvers B) buyers C) initiators D) gatekeepers E) deciders

57) When purchasing disposable surgical gowns, Mercy Hospital's vice president of purchasing analyzes whether the hospital should buy disposable gowns or reusable gowns. If the findings favor disposable gowns, then the operating-room administrator compares various competitors' products and prices and makes a choice. Surgeons influence the decision retroactively by reporting their satisfaction with the particular brand. In this situation, the operating-room administrator performs the role of the ________. A) gatekeeper B) initiator C) user D) decider E) influencer

69) Suppliers who are dependable in their on-time delivery, order completeness, and order-cycle time are most likely to be differentiated based on ________. A) resilience B) innovativeness C) insensitivity D) reliability E) expertise

79) AT&T's business campaign not only helped to change public perceptions of the company, it also signaled to employees that AT&T was determined to be a leader in telecommunication services. Which principle of internal branding does this example portray? A) choosing the right moment to capture employees' attention and imagination B) furnishing energizing and informative internal communication C) bringing the brand alive for employees D) linking internal and external marketing E) understanding how brand communities work

8) The ________ defines which other brands a brand competes with and therefore which brands should be the focus of competitive analysis. A) consumer profitability analysis B) competitor indexing C) service blueprint D) competitive frame of reference E) cluster analysis

1) Which of the following statements about market segmentation is true? A) It involves changing the identity of a product, relative to the identity of competing products, in the collective minds of the target market. B) It is a process of evaluating each segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more to enter. C) It is a process of creating an image or identity of the product in the minds of the target market. D) It is a process of identifying and profiling distinct groups of buyers who differ in their needs and wants. E) It is the quality of how marketers go to market with the goal of optimizing their spending to achieve good results.

1) ________ is the study of how individuals, groups, and organizations select, buy, use, and dispose of goods, services, ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants. A) Target marketing B) Mind mapping C) Consumer activism D) Consumer behavior E) Product differentiation

101) A consumer who uses Google to find comparative reports on new automobiles, is most likely using which of the following information sources for assistance? A) personal B) public C) experiential D) commercial E) under-the-radar

102) With respect to consumer decision making, the ________ set is the set of strong contenders from which one will be chosen as a supplier of a good or service. A) total B) awareness C) consideration D) choice E) decision

105) Brand ________ is the job of estimating the total financial worth of the brand. A) tracking B) auditing C) equity D) valuation E) harmonization

108) Subway restaurants are positioned as offering healthy, great-tasting sandwiches. ________ positioning allows the brand to create a point-of-parity (POP) on taste and a point-of-difference (POD) on health with respect to quick-serve restaurants such as McDonald's and Burger King and, at the same time, a POP on health and a POD on taste with respect to health food restaurants and cafés. A) Category-based B) Need-based C) Noncomparitive D) Straddle E) Price-quality

11) The family in a buyer's life consisting of parents and siblings is the ________. A) family of procreation B) family of influence C) family of efficiency D) family of orientation E) purchasing family

113) Jeremy is concerned about his selection of a new hair spray because he is concerned it will not perform as well as his usual brand, which may result in embarrassing, flat hair in front of others. The type of risk Jeremy perceives is ________ risk. A) physical B) time C) financial D) social E) psychological

116) A parent brand that is associated with multiple products through brand extensions is also called a(n)________. A) category brand B) subbrand C) extension brand D) family brand E) line brand

120) Starbucks introduced ice creams in the same flavors as the Frappuccinos it sold in its coffee shops. This is an example of ________. A) brand dilution B) co-branding C) brand variants D) category extension E) brand harmonization

123) During which step of the segmentation process would the marketer group customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by the customer in solving a particular consumption problem? A) Step 2 — segment identification B) Step 3 — segment attractiveness C) Step 6 — segment "acid test" D) Step 1 — needs-based segmentation E) Step 7 — marketing-mix strategy

124) If an organization's marketing department wants to create "segment storyboards" to test the attractiveness of each segment's positioning strategy, it would most likely occur in the ________ step of the segmentation process. A) needs-based segmentation B) segment identification C) segment profitability D) segment "acid test" E) marketing-mix strategy

129) If your assignment was to create a value proposition and product-price positioning strategy for each segment, based on the segment's unique customer needs and characteristics, you would be in which of the following steps of the segmentation process? A) needs-based segmentation B) segment identification C) segment attractiveness D) segment positioning E) segment "acid-test"

130) A ________ relationship is a cooperative one where the seller adapts to meet the customers' needs without expecting much adaptation or change in exchange. A) customer supply B) cooperative system C) bare bones D) customer is king E) collaborative

131) In the ________ category of buyer-supplier relationships, competition rather than cooperation is the dominant form of governance. A) basic buying and selling B) bare bones C) contractual transaction D) customer supply E) collaborative

132) Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau relate to the time, place, and context of the brand story? A) cast B) pitch C) narrative arc D) setting E) language

14) Identify an economic circumstance that can greatly affect any product or brand choice. A) retirement B) values C) lifestyle D) borrowing power E) relocation

14) Which of the following is a marketing advantage of strong brands? A) no vulnerability to marketing crises B) more elastic consumer response to price increases C) guaranteed profits D) additional brand extension opportunities E) more inelastic consumer response to price decreases

149) Josh separated people who wanted a high quality lawn mower from people who wanted a low priced lawn mower, then saw if different characteristics were associated with each consumer-response segment. Josh was defining segments using ________ considerations. A) descriptive B) demographic C) psychographic D) behavioral E) geographic

149) ________ accounting refers to the manner in which consumers code, categorize, and evaluate financial outcomes of choices. A) Cost B) Financial C) Behavioral D) Mental E) Factual

154) In its focus on bottom-line financial value, the ________ approach often overlooks the "option value" of brands and their potential to affect future revenues and costs. A) brand equity B) brand value chain C) customer tracking D) customer equity E) brand extension

2) The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors." A) copyright B) trademark C) slogan D) brand E) logo

20) According to the BrandAsset® Valuator model, which of the components of brand equity measures how aware and familiar consumers are with the brand? A) esteem B) energized differentiation C) relevance D) knowledge E) presence

20) Those who favor localized marketing see national advertising as wasteful because it ________. A) gets too up close and personal with consumers B) drives up manufacturing and marketing costs by reducing economies of scale C) magnifies logistical problems D) fails to address local needs E) sends conflicting marketing messages

23) High levels of brand ________, or the extent to which consumers feel they are "in sync" with the Fox News brand and engagement in Fox News programs, often leads to greater recall of the ads Fox News runs. A) salience B) feelings C) judgments D) resonance E) imagery

29) The three criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of-difference are ________. A) comparability, authenticity, deliverability B) desirability, peculiarity, deliverability C) deviance, peculiarity, deformity D) desirability, deliverability, differentiability E) differentiability, authenticity, desirability

30) According to Young and Rubicam's BrandAsset® Valuator, a brand's ________ measures how well the brand is regarded and respected. A) differentiation B) energy C) relevance D) esteem E) knowledge

30) In a ________ purchasing situation, the buyer wants to make some change to existing product specifications, prices, delivery requirements, or other terms. A) new rebuy B) regular buy C) straight rebuy D) modified rebuy E) new task

30) The three criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of-difference include desirability, ________, and differentiability. A) discrimination B) customerization C) implementation D) deliverability E) demand

32) Which of the following statements accurately describes what demographers are calling the "boom-boom effect"? A) Consumers are demanding more "bang for their buck." B) Baby boomers still rule the marketplace. C) Generation Y and their concern about environmental issues will dominate the market in the future. D) Products that appeal to 21-year-olds also appeal to baby boomers. E) Companies must gain success quickly.

36) ________ are attributes or benefits that consumers view as essential to a legitimate and credible offering within a certain product or service class. A) Category points-of-difference B) Conceptual points-of-parity C) Competitive points-of-parity D) Category points-of-parity E) Competitive points-of-difference

40) Consumers might not consider a hand sanitizer truly a hand sanitizer unless they are gels designed to apply topically, contain alcohol that kills the germs present on the skin, and developed for use after washing hands or for those times when soap and water are not available. These service elements are considered ________. A) competitive points-of-difference B) competitive points-of-parity C) category points-of-difference D) category points-of-parity E) conceptual points-of-parity

41) According to the VALS segmentation system, ________ are considered to be elderly, passive people who are concerned about change and are loyal to their favorite brands. A) Believers B) Strivers C) Makers D) Survivors E) Experiencers

41) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ signifies how well the product or service meets customers' functional needs. A) judgment B) imagery C) salience D) performance E) resonance

47) With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand ________ are customers' emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand. A) imagery statements B) judgments C) performances D) feelings E) resonances

48) Which of the following statements about brand mantras is true? A) They guide only major decisions, they have no influence on mundane decisions. B) Their influence does not extend beyond tactical concerns. C) They must economically communicate what the brand is and avoid communicating what it is not. D) They can provide guidance about what ad campaigns to run and where and how to sell the brand. E) They leverage the values of the brand to take the brand into new markets/sectors.

49) With respect to the brand building pyramid, the branding objective of developing deep, broad brand awareness corresponds to which of the following "building block levels"? A) resonance B) imagery C) performance D) salience E) judgment

5) Hilton Hotels customizes rooms and lobbies according to location. Northeastern hotels are sleeker and more cosmopolitan. Southwestern hotels are more rustic. This is an example of ________ segmentation. A) demographic B) behavioral C) psychographic D) geographic E) cultural

51) Pete always buys Purina dog food for his dog because he believes that it is the best value for the nutritional content. Pete's loyalty status is best described as ________. A) split loyal B) shifting loyal C) consistent loyal D) hard-core loyal E) switcher

54) Brand mantras typically are designed to capture the brand's points-of-________, that is, what is unique about the brand. A) conflict B) parity C) inflection D) difference E) presence

56) If you performed the role of the ________ in a buying center, you would be the person that has the power to prevent sellers or information from reaching other members of the buying center. A) initiator B) influencer C) decider D) gatekeeper E) approver

61) In which of the following is a person performing the role of a gatekeeper? A) Dan decides on the product requirements and makes the final choice of suppliers. B) Luke has the authority to pick out the supplier and negotiate the terms of purchase. C) Liam heads the Tech team at LKG and provides information for evaluating the possible alternatives. D) LKG gets many calls from potential suppliers, and it is Leah's job to weed out the good prospects and refer them to others in LKG. E) Dana authorizes the actions of the deciders and buyers in LKG.

61) Singapore Airlines is well regarded in large part because of the excellence of its flight attendants. This is an example of ________ differentiation. A) image B) services C) product D) employee E) channel

62) Which of the following is true about the buying center? A) In a buying center, one person cannot play more than one role. B) A typical buying center has a maximum of five or six members. C) A buying center consists of only mid-level managers and below. D) It is the decision-making unit of a buying organization. E) Gatekeepers in a buying center are people who authorize the proposed actions of deciders or buyers.

64) Which of the following is an example of channel differentiation? A) Berry's has an intensive training program for its customer-facing employees, to ensure a consistent service standard. B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance with the hotel. C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than competitors. D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay more in stores. E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.

67) If a brand is developing an offering with multiple frames of reference, which of the following is NOT advisable? A) create a combined positioning that addresses all competitors B) prioritize competitors C) choose the most important set of competitors to serve as the competitive frame D) adopt lowest common denominator positioning E) develop the best possible positioning for each type or class of competitors

67) ________ refers to the process in which information gets out of memory. A) Memory encoding B) Memory decoding C) Memory classification D) Memory retrieval E) Memorization

7) Which of the following best describes BR Chicken's value proposition? A) We sell chicken at most major malls. B) We undertake home delivery services. C) We target quality-conscious consumers of chicken. D) We sell tender golden chicken at a moderate price. E) We charge a 10 percent premium on our chicken.

72) If a brand element can be used to introduce new products in the same or different categories, the brand element is said to be ________. A) memorable B) meaningful C) likeable D) transferable E) adaptable

81) A new-task buyclass decision begins with which of the following steps? A) supplier search B) general need description C) product specification D) problem recognition E) proposal solicitation

86) With respect to e-procurement, Acosta, Ahold, Best Buy, Carrefour, Family Dollar Stores, and several other companies joined forces to form a ________ called 1SYNC to use their combined leverage to obtain lower prices for raw materials. A) manufacturer's co-op B) supplier's co-op C) middleman group D) buying alliance E) buying cabal

87) Plastics.com allows plastics buyers to search the best prices among thousands of plastics sellers. Plastics.com is an example of a(n) ________. A) buying alliance B) barter market C) systems seller D) vertical market E) auction site

88) On an online ________, prices change by the minute. A) buying alliance B) barter market C) systems seller D) spot market E) catalog site

9) If a marketing manager segments the market into culture-, sports-, or outdoor-oriented groups, he or she is segmenting the market on the basis of ________. A) loyalty status B) behavioral occasions C) user status D) psychographic lifestyle E) readiness stage

9) Social classes differ in media preferences, with upper-class consumers often preferring ________ and lower-class consumers often preferring television. A) movies B) radio C) video or computer games D) magazines and books E) music downloads

90) Which of the following is an example of a functional hub? A) Plastics.com allows plastics buyers to search the best prices among thousands of plastics sellers. B) ChemConnect.com is an online exchange for buyers and sellers of bulk chemicals. C) SteelMart.com concentrates on steel buyers from the United States. D) SupplyLink.com offers manufacturers from different industries information on ensuring workplace safety. E) PaperTiger.com offers paper buyers a comprehensive look at the prices and quality in the paper market.

96) The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a(n) ________. A) product B) advertisement for the product C) salesperson from a previous visit D) problem or need E) internal cue

96) Through its dedicated research team, CISCO Systems Inc. has developed new value-added business solutions which enable its variant class-II capacitors to provide incremental productivity of 10 to 20 percent over its competitors. This is an example of the solutions to ________ form of solution selling. A) reduce customer costs B) decrease customer risks C) alter corporate culture D) enhance customer revenues E) partnerships

13) Marriage, childbirth, and divorce constitute the ________ that shape the consumption pattern of individuals. A) psychological life cycle B) product life cycle C) social status D) post-puberty cycles E) critical life events

141) Coca-Cola's original marketing strategy that offered a single drink Coca-Cola Classic in a single sized bottle with the advertising theme "Coke is it," is an example of ________ marketing. A) concentrated B) niche C) differentiated D) micro E) undifferentiated

143) Which of the following is NOT one of the specific branding guidelines for small businesses? A) Creatively conduct low-cost marketing research. B) Leverage as many secondary associations as possible. C) Focus on building one or two strong brands based on one or two key associations. D) Create buzz and a loyal brand community. E) Use a trial-and-error approach.

22) ________, which combines the BrandAsset® Valuator dimensions of energized differentiation and relevance, is a leading indicator that predicts future growth and value. A) Brand stature B) A brand's power grid C) Brand presence D) Brand bonding E) Brand strength

25) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, energized differentiation and relevance, the two pillars of brand equity combine to determine what is called brand ________. A) position B) image C) depth D) knowledge E) strength

27) The total demand for many business goods and services is only minimally affected by price changes. Thus, this demand is ________. A) derived B) fluctuating C) accelerated D) multiple E) inelastic

28) Rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted e-mail messages to members who receive exclusive news, previews, and opportunities to win prizes. The Foo Fighters are using ________ to reach Generation Y. A) student ambassadors B) unconventional sports C) cool events D) computer games E) online buzz

34) A consumer who expresses rational and emotional attachments to a brand to the exclusion of most other brands has reached the ________ level in the BrandDynamics Pyramid. A) advantage B) relevance C) presence D) performance E) bonding

35) The two basic forms of points-of-parity are ________ points-of-parity and ________ points-of-parity. A) conceptual; competitive B) strategic; conceptual C) category; deliverable D) competitive; peculiar E) category; competitive

60) In which of the following is a person performing the role of an approver? A) Dan decides on the product requirements and makes the final choice of suppliers. B) Luke has the authority to pick out the supplier and negotiate the terms of purchase. C) Liam heads the Tech team at LKG and provides information for evaluating the possible alternatives. D) LKG gets many calls from potential suppliers, and it is Leah's job to weed out the good prospects and refer them to others in LKG. E) Dana authorizes the actions of the deciders and buyers in LKG.

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66) The associative network memory model views long-term memory as ________. A) a subliminal perception B) the interplay of drives C) a strong internal stimulus impelling action D) a temporary and limited repository of information E) a set of nodes and links

69) Cognitive psychologists believe that memory is ________, so that once information becomes stored in memory, its strength of association decays very slowly. A) highly perceptual B) somewhat collective C) highly communicative D) often reflective E) extremely durable

73) If consumers can easily recall and recognize a brand element, the brand element is said to be ________. A) meaningful B) protectable C) adaptable D) transferable E) memorable

76) The traditional "marketing-mix" concept and the notion of the "four Ps" may not adequately describe modern marketing programs. ________ is about mixing and matching marketing activities to maximize their individual and collective effects. A) Personalized marketing B) Mass customization C) Globalized marketing D) Relationship marketing E) Integrated marketing

82) In reordering office supplies, the only stages that the buyer passes through are the product specification stage and the ________ stage. A) problem recognition B) general need description C) order-routine specification D) supplier search E) performance review

95) GM employees work at large customer facilities to reduce materials-management spending. This is an example of the solutions to ________ form of solution selling. A) encourage partnerships B) alter corporate culture C) enhance customer revenues D) decrease customer risks E) reduce customer costs

97) Which of the following is considered to be a more advanced form of information search wherein the person might phone friends or go online to search for information about a product or service? A) heightened attention B) short-term memory processing C) subliminal processing of information D) long-term memory processing E) active information search

104) A marketer is interested in segmenting a business market based on technology and customer capabilities. Which of the following major segmentation variables would the marketer most likely use to assist with the task? A) demographic variables B) purchasing approaches C) situational factors D) personal characteristics E) operating variables

104) ________ are a means of understanding where, how much, and in what ways brand value is being created to facilitate day-to-day decision making. A) Internal marketing campaigns B) Brand portfolio audits C) Brand value chains D) Sales cycles E) Brand-tracking studies

106) ________ are a person's enduring favorable or unfavorable evaluations, emotional feelings, and action tendencies toward some object or idea. A) Discriminations B) Values C) Beliefs D) Feelings E) Attitudes

112) If Ty chooses a smart phone simply because he perceives it to be rated highest on megapixels, which he believes is the most important attribute in a smart phone, he is using a(n) ________ to help make his purchase decision. A) compensatory model B) conjunctive heuristic C) elimination-by-aspects heuristic D) affect referral rule E) lexicographic heuristic

119) ________ risk occurs if the product fails to perform up to expectations. A) Physical B) Financial C) Social D) Psychological E) Functional

121) A ________ is a set of all brand lines that a particular seller makes. A) brand platform B) brand image C) co-brand D) brand extension E) brand mix

126) According to Ries and Trout, Cadbury suffered from ________ when the company allowed its brand to become diluted by putting their name on such variants as mashed potatoes, powdered milk, and soups, apart from chocolates and candies. A) liquidity trap B) cognitive dissonance C) branding fallout D) cannibalization E) line-extension trap

126) In the ________ step of the market segmentation process, the marketer determines which demographics, lifestyles, and usage behaviors make each needs-based segment distinct and identifiable. A) segment "acid test" B) segment attractiveness C) segment profitability D) need-based segmentation E) segment identification

128) If Ampex Support Systems is the single supplier for a local manufacturing company's MRO (maintenance, repair, operating) supplies and needs, Ampex Support Systems is considered as providing ________ for the manufacturer. A) guided selling B) purchasing support C) turnkey logistics D) decision support E) systems contracting

130) To meet the ________ criterion of useful market segments, it must be possible to formulate effective programs for attracting and serving the segments. A) measurable B) substantial C) accessible D) differentiable E) actionable

133) Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau relate to the way the narrative logic unfolds over time, including actions, desired experiences, defining events, and the moment of epiphany? A) language B) pitch C) cast D) setting E) narrative arc

136) In the ________ category of buyer-supplier relationship, although bonded by a close, cooperative relationship, the seller adapts to meet the customer's needs without expecting much adaptation or change on the part of the customer in exchange. A) contractual transaction B) cooperative system C) collaborative D) mutually adaptive E) customer is king

143) ________ combines operationally driven mass customization with customized marketing in a way that empowers consumers to design the product service offering of their choice. A) Consumptionism B) Viral marketing C) Virtual marketing D) Regionalization E) Customerization

15) The fact that Honda described its boxy Element as a "dorm room on wheels," but then attracted so many baby boomers that the average age of the Element turned out to be 42 is an illustration of the fact that baby boomers may be ________. A) male-oriented B) female-oriented C) Young Digerati D) Cosmopolitans E) psychologically young

151) The ________ market consists of schools, hospitals, nursing homes, prisons, and other institutions that must provide goods and services to people in their care. A) vertical B) nonprofit C) spot D) secondary business E) institutional

22) Ford Motors uses the ad caption "Magnify the Adventure" to promote its latest SUV, the Ford Endeavour. The ad features the car traveling through an uneven, rocky terrain. Within the context of Jennifer Aaker's brand personality analysis, Ford Endeavour is most likely to be strong on which of the following traits? A) sincerity B) intelligence C) imagination D) sophistication E) ruggedness

23) ________ are products such as Kiehl's skin care and Kendall-Jackson wines that are priced between average middle-market and superpremium Old Luxury brands and are also based on emotions. A) Old Luxury brand extensions B) Accessible superpremium products C) Luxury items D) Hourglass products E) Masstige goods

25) Marketers who target consumers on the basis of their ________ believe that they can influence purchase behavior by appealing to people's inner selves. A) time famine B) sophistication C) money constrain D) social class E) core values

29) According to BrandAsset® Valuator model, declining brands show ________. A) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and energy are lower still B) high relevance — appropriateness of brand's appeal — a lower level of energy and differentiation, and even lower knowledge C) high levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem D) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge are lower still E) high knowledge — evidence of past performance — a lower level of esteem, and even lower relevance, energy, and differentiation

29) Kenilworth Inc. is shifting from its rented four-room office to a standalone office building owned by the company itself. This can be classified as a ________. A) modified rebuy B) regular buy C) straight rebuy D) new rebuy E) new task

32) Jason Riggs' company is considered to be an in-supplier for a lawn mower manufacturer. However, recently the lawn mower company has put out a memo to in- and out-suppliers indicating that it would like to change product specifications and delivery schedules. Which of the following buying situations is most likely to be in operation given this data? A) straight rebuy B) single rebuy C) rakeback rebuy D) system buy E) modified rebuy

32) Which of the following criteria relates to the company having the internal resources and commitment to feasibly and profitably create and maintain the brand association in the minds of consumers? A) differentiability B) peculiarity C) desirability D) believability E) deliverability

33) If you decided to go into the systems contracting business, which of the following categories would constitute your main area of expertise? A) computer applications B) database management C) manufacturing D) promotion management E) MRO (maintenance, repair, operating) supplies

34) According to Webster and Wind, businesspeople are buying ________. A) products B) solutions to the organization's economic and strategic problem C) solutions to their own need for achievement and reward D) A & C E) B & C

35) The horizontal dimension in the VALS framework is ________. A) resources B) innovation C) maturity D) impulsiveness E) consumer motivation

40) A hardware store is interested in reaching people who are characterized by the VALS system as being practical, down-to-earth, and self-sufficient, who like to work with their hands, or the ________ category. A) Believers B) Strivers C) Survivors D) Experiencers E) Makers

43) As a marketing manager, which of the following would be the best purpose for your organization's competitive points-of-parity? A) to point out competitors' points-of-difference B) to emphasize competitors' points-of-difference C) to rationalize competitors' perceived points-of-difference D) to globalize competitors' perceived points-of-difference E) to negate competitors' perceived points-of-difference

44) With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following "building block levels" would we expect the consumer to develop an intense, active loyalty? A) salience B) imagery C) feelings D) judgments E) resonance

45) With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following "building block levels" would we expect the consumer to develop positive and accessible reactions? A) resonance B) salience C) imagery D) performance E) feelings

46) The sale of turkeys in the United States is highest in mid- to late November, as people buy turkeys to serve at Thanksgiving. Grocery stores that specifically advertise turkeys at this time of year are segmenting on the basis of ________. A) benefits B) user status C) buyer-readiness stage D) demographics E) occasion

49) Which of the following is true about buying centers? A) One person may play multiple roles. B) Several people can occupy the same role. C) A buying center typically has five or six members. D) A buying center can have dozens of members. E) All of the above are true.

53) A company can learn a great deal by analyzing the degrees of brand loyalty. For example, ________ can help identify the products' strengths. A) switchers B) split loyals C) antiloyals D) shifting loyals E) hard-core loyals

55) Which of the following theories developed by Frederick Herzberg distinguishes dissatisfiers from satisfiers? A) trait-role theory B) psychological constraint theory C) probability theory D) leadership model E) two-factor theory

6) When Nike attempts to get close to its customers at the local level by sponsoring local school teams and providing shoes, equipment, and clothing to many of them, Nike is using which of the following marketing formats? A) differentiated marketing B) affiliate marketing C) guerrilla marketing D) affinity marketing E) grassroots marketing

63) Dayton, Ohio-based Iams found success selling premium pet food through regional veterinarians, breeders, and pet stores. This is an example of ________ differentiation. A) service B) employee C) image D) product E) channel

77) Mark feels that Shell delivers on its promises to supply the best gasoline possible to the public. His experiences with Shell have always been good resulting in positive brand contact. Mark is most likely experiencing brand ________. A) alliance B) essence C) harmonization D) parity E) bonding

8) Jason writes a weekly column in his school's newspaper about movies he has seen, books he has read, and concerts he has attended. His column provides information and opinions. Feedback from his fellow students is positive, and they are appreciative of the advice that is given. Which of the following would be the most apt description of the role played by Jason? A) silent majority B) protestor C) protector D) adapter E) opinion leader

94) A supplier signs an agreement with a customer that states that $350,000 in savings will be earned by the customer over the next 18 months in exchange for a tenfold increase in the customer's share of supplies ordered by the customer. If the supplier achieves less than this promised savings, it will make up the difference. If the supplier achieves substantially more than promised, it participates in the extra savings. This is an example of ________. A) solution selling B) price fixing C) demand shifting D) systems buying E) risk and gain sharing

98) Of key interest to marketers are the major informational sources to which the consumer will turn and the relative importance of each. Which of the following can be considered an experiential information source? A) consumer-rating organizations B) mass media C) acquaintances D) Web sites E) personal handling and examination

99) A brand ________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer's product or service. A) value B) personality C) trait D) character E) contact

103) The buying process begins when someone places an order with a sales representative.

FALSE

122) In the context of Starbucks, 24-hour training program for baristas, stock options/health benefits, triple filtrated water, and a totally integrated system are examples of brand mantras within the brand positioning bull's-eye.

FALSE

134) With respect to a consumer buying situation that involves variety-seeking behavior, the market leader generally encourages variety seeking by offering lower prices or deals.

FALSE

136) Intrabrand shifts in a company's sales are always undesirable.

FALSE

153) Companies following a market specialization strategy offer one product to as many markets as possible.

FALSE

156) Customer equity is synonymous with brand equity.

FALSE

5) Physical goods, services, and stores can be branded, but ideas and people cannot.

FALSE

51) Brand equity arises from unanimity in consumer response.

FALSE

57) Illustrations of personality segmentation would include culture-oriented, sports-centered, or outdoor-oriented subsegments.

FALSE

73) Points-of-parity are attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand.

FALSE

74) Sensory memory is the virtually unlimited repository where information that we encounter as we go through life ends up.

FALSE

76) Brands like Victoria's Secret underwear and Kettle gourmet potato chips, which carry a significant premium over middle-market brands, but are easy to trade-up to because they are relatively low-ticket items in affordable categories, are called Masstige brands.

FALSE

80) Straddle positioning refers to a brand using different positioning with different categories of competitors.

FALSE

83) If a brand element has the characteristic of being memorable, the brand is credible and suggestive of the type of person who might use the brand.

FALSE

87) There are situations in which consumers know a brand's category membership but may not be convinced the brand is a valid member of the category.

FALSE

100) In the business market, small sellers concentrate on reaching as many participants as possible because their chances of success are slim.

FALSE

102) A performance review is the first step in the buygrid framework.

FALSE

104) Product value analysis is an approach to efficiency that studies whether components can be redesigned or made by more efficient methods of production without adversely impacting product performance.

FALSE

106) In buying alliances, participants offer to trade goods or services.

FALSE

107) Brand equity is essentially the same as brand valuation.

FALSE

108) When Interbrand uses competitive benchmarking and a structured evaluation of the brand's clarity, commitment, protection, responsiveness, relevance, differentiation, consistency, presence, and understanding to determine the likelihood the brand will realize forecasted Brand Earnings, it is calculating Brand Value.

FALSE

11) Commoditization strengthens customer loyalty.

FALSE

110) Purchasing approaches segmentation variables in the business marketplace include technology, user and nonuser status, and general purchasing policies.

FALSE

111) Most performance reviews are conducted by outside auditing agencies to avoid bias and internal discrepancies.

FALSE

116) The most attractive segment is one in which entry barriers are low and exit barriers are high.

FALSE

117) A segment is attractive when there are actual or potential substitutes for the product.

FALSE

119) All attempts to target marketing to children, minorities, or other special segments are discriminatory and unethical.

FALSE

12) The business market is essentially the same market as the consumer market.

FALSE

120) A good illustration of negatively correlated attributes or benefits is good taste versus bad taste.

FALSE

125) Every consumer must pass through all five stages of the buying process when in a buying situation.

FALSE

126) The buying process starts when the buyer decides to, or enters, a store or service provider's facility.

FALSE

127) A belief is a person's enduring favorable or unfavorable evaluation, emotional feeling, and action tendency toward some object or idea.

FALSE

13) The result of positioning is the successful creation of an employee-focused value proposition.

FALSE

130) When Honda expanded its brand into such areas as automobiles, snow blowers, and marine engines, it was pursuing a strategy called line extension.

FALSE

130) With noncompensatory models of consumer choice, positive and negative attribute considerations usually net out.

FALSE

132) Flankers are brands that may be kept around despite dwindling sales because they manage to maintain their profitability with virtually no marketing support.

FALSE

132) When consumers evaluate the risks associated with a purchase, only real risks with a high likelihood of occurrence should be considered.

FALSE

133) The role of a relatively high-priced brand in a portfolio is often to attract customers to the brand franchise or to "build traffic."

FALSE

135) Brand differentiation occurs when consumers no longer associate a brand with a specific product or highly similar products and start thinking less of the brand.

FALSE

137) ESPN Zone restaurants tap into competitive masculinity and American Girl dolls tap into mother-daughter relationship and the cross-generational transfer of femininity. These are examples of narrative arcs.

FALSE

137) In Hershey Kisses candy, Hershey would be considered a branded variant.

FALSE

138) Cultural branding is essential for small firms, but ineffective for large companies.

FALSE

14) Positioning requires that marketers define and communicate only the differences between their brand and its competitors.

FALSE

140) Cash cows, or fighter brands, include products like Busch Bavarian and Intel Celeron, which are positioned with respect to the competitors' brands so that more important and profitable flagship brands can retain their desired positioning.

FALSE

141) A brand that is seen as prototypical of a product category is easy to extend outside the category.

FALSE

144) The "customer is king" category of buyer-seller relationship is relatively simple, and one in which routine exchanges with moderately high levels of cooperation and information exchange occur.

FALSE

144) The most effective advertising strategy for an extension emphasizes the parent brand.

FALSE

145) Contracts are always sufficient to govern supplier transactions and prevent supplier opportunism.

FALSE

145) While creating a loyal brand community is useful for large companies, it is not cost-effective for small firms.

FALSE

150) Anchoring heuristic comes into play when consumers base their predictions on the quickness and ease with which a particular example of an outcome comes to mind.

FALSE

16) An increase in the demand for plant and equipment can lead to a much larger increase in consumer demand. This is known as the acceleration effect.

FALSE

21) A company is more likely to be hurt by current competitors than by emerging competitors or new technologies.

FALSE

22) The industry concept of competition reveals a broader set of actual and potential competitors than competition defined in just the market concept.

FALSE

23) Using the industry approach, competitors are defined as companies that satisfy the same customer need.

FALSE

26) Social class is the fundamental determinant of a person's wants and behavior.

FALSE

30) Secondary groups require continuous interaction to be effective and meaningful.

FALSE

31) When Ketan went to college he had a burning desire to join a social fraternity; for Ketan, the fraternity would be a dissociative group.

FALSE

34) The behavior people exhibit as they pass through certain life-cycle stages, such as becoming a parent, is largely fixed and does not change over time.

FALSE

35) For an employee at an organization, an annual appraisal can be considered a critical life event that impacts his or her consumption behavior.

FALSE

36) The buyer in a straight rebuy usually changes product specifications, prices, delivery requirements, or other terms.

FALSE

36) Whereas economic circumstances can have a profound effect on consumption, occupation does not impact how people spend their money and what they buy.

FALSE

37) According to the research conducted by Jennifer Aaker, one of the five traits of a product's brand personality is its physical structure.

FALSE

38) Most business buyers reject what is called systems buying from one seller.

FALSE

39) The five brand personality traits identified by Jennifer Aaker are consistently observed regardless of nationality or culture.

FALSE

40) A person's personality portrays the "whole person" interacting with his or her environment.

FALSE

41) Consumers who experience money constraints are prone to multitasking.

FALSE

52) The quantity, rather than quality, of a marketer's investment in brand building is the critical factor in building brand equity.

FALSE

54) According to the BrandZ model, "Bonded" consumers at the lower levels of the pyramid build stronger relationships with and spend more on the brand than those at the top.

FALSE

56) Brand salience describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs.

FALSE

56) Customer cloning is the practice of identifying the key characteristics of a market segment and then identifying multiple geographic areas where the majority of the population possesses those characteristics.

FALSE

57) Brand imagery is a consumer's emotional response and reaction with respect to the brand.

FALSE

58) Local marketing reflects a growing trend called macromarketing.

FALSE

60) Beltway Boomers are the nation's tech-savvy singles and couples living in fashionable neighborhoods on the urban fringe.

FALSE

62) Life stage defines a person's age.

FALSE

63) Income always predicts the best customers for a given product.

FALSE

63) People who authorize the proposed actions of deciders or buyers are initiators.

FALSE

65) Baby boomers are consumers who have been "wired" almost from birth — playing computer games, navigating the Web, downloading music, connecting with friends via instant messaging and mobile phones.

FALSE

65) The buying center is where consumers go to purchase their goods and services.

FALSE

66) Members of Generation Y are generally open to overt branding practices and a "hard sell," making product placements in computer and video games a popular way to reach this cohort.

FALSE

66) With respect to the buying center, approvers are people who have the power to prevent sellers or information from reaching members of the buying center.

FALSE

67) Initiators are those who authorize the proposed action of deciders or buyers.

FALSE

67) Unlike the more optimistic, team-oriented Gen Xers, Gen Yers are more pragmatic and individualistic.

FALSE

70) Psychogenic needs arise from the physiological states of tension such as hunger or discomfort.

FALSE

70) Small sellers concentrate on multilevel in-depth selling instead of reaching the key buying influencers.

FALSE

71) People in the same demographic group generally exhibit similar psychographic profiles.

FALSE

72) Associations that make up points-of-difference are based exclusively on product features.

FALSE

72) When Chrysler decided to offer the PT Cruiser, they did so based on the recommendations of Ernest Dichter, who helped them unlock the code, or the unconscious meaning people give to a particular market offering.

FALSE

73) In the VALS segmentation system, Thinkers are characterized as being successful, sophisticated, active, "take-charge" people with high self-esteem.

FALSE

74) Everyone who buys a given product wants the same benefits from it.

FALSE

75) Category points-of-parity are unique to a brand.

FALSE

75) The New Luxury goods category, which includes Kiehl's skin care and Kendall Jackson wine, and is based on emotions and priced between average middle-market brands and superpremium Old Luxury brands, is called accessible superpremium brands.

FALSE

75) When State Farm uses consumer research to create a mental map of consumers that indicates that consumers perceive State Farm as conservative, safe, responsive, and convenient, they are interested in subliminal perceptions.

FALSE

76) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs model, recognition, self-esteem, and status constitute a person's social needs.

FALSE

77) Believers favor stylish products that emulate the purchases of those with greater material wealth.

FALSE

77) Category points-of-parity are associations designed to overcome perceived weaknesses of the brand.

FALSE

78) Perception depends only on the physical stimuli experienced by the person.

FALSE

79) Trying to be all things to all people leads to highest-common-denominator positioning, which is typically effective.

FALSE

79) With respect to loyalty status, if a consumer is loyal to two or three brands, he or she is called shifting loyal.

FALSE

80) Hard-core loyals can show the firm which brands are most competitive with its own.

FALSE

80) Selective attention is the tendency to interpret information in a way that will fit our preconceptions.

FALSE

83) Consistent with the elaboration memory model, consumer brand knowledge in memory can be conceptualized as consisting of a brand node in memory with a variety of linked associations.

FALSE

84) Brands are built only by advertising.

FALSE

85) Brand mantras are typically designed to capture the brand's points-of-parity, that is, what is unique about the brand.

FALSE

88) Modifying a brand to suit group-level or individual needs is called staking.

FALSE

90) The indirect approach to assessing brand equity assesses the actual impact of brand knowledge on consumer response to different aspects of marketing.

FALSE

91) Companies cannot achieve differentiation by differentiating their channels, as this is not the purpose of a distribution channel.

FALSE

92) A good positioning should contain points-of-difference and points-of-parity that have rational but not emotional components.

FALSE

93) An important part of reinforcing brands is providing uniform and unchanging marketing support.

FALSE

110) Companies are increasingly reducing the number of suppliers they utilize, and there is a trend toward single sourcing.

TRUE

129) A firm's branding strategy is also called the brand architecture.

TRUE

135) Brand storytelling is a less-structured approach to brand positioning.

TRUE

14) Given the highly competitive nature of business-to-business markets, the biggest enemy to marketers here is commoditization.

TRUE

142) Corporate credibility depends on corporate expertise, corporate trustworthiness, and corporate likability.

TRUE

143) United Technologies is a good example of a house of brands strategy because it uses individual or separate family brand names including Otis elevators, Carrier heaters and air conditioners, Hamilton Sundstrand aerospace and industrial, and Sikorsky helicopters.

TRUE

151) Prospect theory maintains that consumers frame decision alternatives in terms of gains and losses according to a value function.

TRUE

64) "Toughies" are old school buyers who pit sellers against one another.

TRUE

64) Members of the same generational cohort share the same major cultural, political, and economic experiences and have similar outlooks and values.

TRUE

70) Psychographics is the science of using psychology and demographics to better understand consumers.

TRUE

85) Memory is a very constructive process. This means people do not remember information and events completely and accurately and often remember only bits and pieces that they fill in based on whatever else they know.

TRUE

10) The business market consists of all the organizations that acquire goods and services used in the production of other products or services that are sold, rented, or supplied to others.

TRUE

101) Framing occurs when customers are given a perspective or point of view that allows the firm to "put its best foot forward."

TRUE

105) On spot electronic markets, prices of products or commodities change by the minute.

TRUE

106) The brand audit can be used to set strategic direction for the brand.

TRUE

107) With respect to assessing customer value, in conjoint analysis customers are asked to rank their preference for alternative market offerings or concepts.

TRUE

108) One of the forms of solution selling is to provide solutions to enhance customer revenues.

TRUE

109) Risk and gain sharing can offset price reductions that customers request.

TRUE

11) All marketing strategy is built on segmentation, targeting, and positioning.

TRUE

111) Situational factor segmentation variables in the business marketplace include urgency, specific application, and size of order.

TRUE

112) With respect to market offerings, if a marketer emphasizes a naked solution, he or she is emphasizing the product and service elements that all segment members value.

TRUE

118) A segment is unattractive if the company's suppliers are able to raise prices or reduce quantity supplied.

TRUE

118) The product descriptor that follows the brand name is often a concise means of conveying category origin.

TRUE

119) If Barry compares his organization's products to those of leaders in the field, then he is conveying category membership by "comparing to exemplars."

TRUE

12) Positioning is the act of designing the company's offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market.

TRUE

121) A leverageable advantage is one that a company can use as a springboard to new advantages.

TRUE

123) One of the ways to communicate category membership is to rely on the product descriptor, like when Ford positioned its Freestyle automobile, which combined the attributes of an SUV, a mini-van, and a station wagon, as a "sports wagon."

TRUE

128) The expectancy-value model of attitude formation posits that consumers evaluate products and services by combining their brand beliefs according to importance.

TRUE

128) When a parent brand covers a new product within a product category it currently serves, it is called a line extension.

TRUE

129) If a company finds that a consumer has chosen a competitive product over their company's offering, one way to get the consumer back could be by developing a strategy wherein the company "shifts the buyer's ideals" on one or more levels.

TRUE

13) Business buyers often select suppliers who also buy from them.

TRUE

131) Increasing shelf presence and retailer dependence in the store is one of the reasons for introducing multiple brands in a category.

TRUE

131) Volvo has the reputation of being one of the safest cars on the road. For those that value safety, Volvo would be the logical choice. This is an example of the lexicographic heuristic of consumer choice.

TRUE

132) The last step in the seven-step marketing segmentation process would be to develop a marketing-mix strategy reflective of segment positioning strategies.

TRUE

133) Some brands have tapped into the hip-hop culture to market a brand in a modern multicultural way, as Apple did with its iPod.

TRUE

133) To be useful, market segments must be measurable.

TRUE

134) Brand extensions can reduce the costs of introductory launch campaigns and make it easier to convince retailers to stock and promote a new product.

TRUE

136) Narrative branding is based on deep metaphors that connect to people's memories, associations, and stories.

TRUE

138) Marketers must judge each potential brand extension by how effectively the brand leverages existing brand equity from the parent brand, as well as how effectively, in turn, it contributes to the parent brand's equity.

TRUE

139) Research indicates that high-quality brands stretch farther than average-quality brands, although both types of brands have boundaries.

TRUE

141) In buyer-seller relationships, the contractual transaction generally shows low levels of trust, cooperation, and interaction.

TRUE

142) A successful extension cannot only contribute to the parent brand image but also enable a brand to be extended even farther.

TRUE

143) One of the problems facing business-to-business on the Web is that many firms often impose more stringent requirements on their online business partners than they do on non-online partners.

TRUE

144) Small businesses must focus on building one or two strong brands based on one or two key associations.

TRUE

15) The business marketer normally deals with far fewer, large buyers than does the consumer marketer.

TRUE

15) The competitive frame of reference defines which other brands that a brand competes with.

TRUE

150) An undifferentiated marketing approach to full market coverage designs a marketing program for a product with a superior image that can be sold to the broadest number of buyers.

TRUE

151) An attractive niche consists of customers having a distinct set of needs.

TRUE

152) The ultimate level of segmentation leads to "segments of one," "customized marketing," or "one-to-one marketing."

TRUE

154) A company is customerized when it is able to respond to individual customers by customizing its products, services, and messages on a one-to-one basis.

TRUE

157) Customer lifetime value is affected by revenue and by the costs of customer acquisition, retention, and cross-selling.

TRUE

158) Both brand equity and customer equity emphasize the importance of customer loyalty and the notion that we create value by having as many customers as possible pay as high a price as possible.

TRUE

18) The total demand for many business goods and services is inelastic; that is, not greatly affected by price changes.

TRUE

20) Category membership is seen as the products that function as close substitutes of a brand.

TRUE

24) To analyze its competitors, a company needs to gather information about both the real and the perceived strengths and weaknesses of each competitor.

TRUE

27) An example of a subculture would be a person's geographic region.

TRUE

28) Groups that have an indirect influence on a person's attitude or behavior can be a part of his or her reference groups.

TRUE

29) Members within a social class tend to behave more alike compared to members from two different social classes.

TRUE

32) A person's position in a group is defined in terms of role and status.

TRUE

33) Marketers need to be aware of the status-symbol potential of brands because people usually choose products which reflect their role and their actual or desired status in a society.

TRUE

35) In the straight rebuy, "out-suppliers" try to get a small order and then enlarge their purchase share over time.

TRUE

37) The business buyer makes the fewest decisions in the straight rebuy situation and the most in the new-task situation.

TRUE

38) Brand personality is the specific mix of human traits that may be attributed to a particular brand.

TRUE

39) Systems selling is a key industrial marketing strategy in bidding to build large-scale industrial projects such as dams or pipelines.

TRUE

4) Consumers may evaluate identical products differently depending on how they are branded.

TRUE

40) Sellers benefit from systems contracting through lower operating costs as a result of steady demand and reduced paperwork.

TRUE

41) A prime contractor provides a turnkey solution, so-called because the buyer only has to turn one key to get the job done.

TRUE

50) One of the advantages of having a strong brand is the ability to have a more elastic consumer response to price decreases of the brand.

TRUE

53) According to BrandAsset® Valuator (BAV) model, knowledge is one of the key components of brand equity.

TRUE

54) Effective target marketing requires that marketers use market segmentation, market targeting, and market positioning to achieve success in the marketplace.

TRUE

55) A market segment consists of a group of consumers who share a similar set of needs and wants.

TRUE

55) Under the BrandZ model of brand strength, customers who are bonded to the brand believe "nothing else beats it."

TRUE

59) A local service company has decided to segment its market based on occupation; therefore, it has chosen a form of demographic segmentation for its approach.

TRUE

61) Demographic variables are popular because they are often associated with consumer needs and wants and they are easy to measure.

TRUE

68) Baby boomers are less likely to associate retirement with "the beginning of the end" and see it instead as a new chapter in their lives with new activities, interests, careers, or even relationships.

TRUE

68) Influencers influence the buying decision by helping define specifications and providing information for evaluating alternatives.

TRUE

69) In the buying center, several people can occupy a given role such as user or influencer, and one person may play multiple roles.

TRUE

69) The norms, language nuances, buying habits, and business practices of multicultural markets need to be factored into the initial formulation of a marketing strategy, rather than added as an afterthought.

TRUE

71) Sigmund Freud assumed that the psychological forces shaping people's behavior are largely unconscious, and that people cannot fully understand their motivations.

TRUE

72) The main dimensions of the VALS segmentation framework are consumer motivation and consumer resources.

TRUE

73) In Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a sense of belonging and love are examples of social needs.

TRUE

74) Points-of-parity may be shared among two or more brands.

TRUE

76) Category points-of-parity may change over time due to technological advances, legal developments, or consumer trends.

TRUE

77) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, satisfiers will make the major difference as to which brand the customer buys.

TRUE

78) A competitive point-of-parity negates competitors' perceived points-of-difference.

TRUE

78) Heavy users of a particular product are often a small percentage of the market but account for a high percentage of total consumption.

TRUE

79) People are more likely to notice stimuli whose deviations are large in relation to the normal size of the stimuli.

TRUE

81) Door-to-door workers in a political campaign use attitude to determine how much time to spend with each voter.

TRUE

81) Occasionally, a company will be able to straddle two frames of reference with one set of points-of-difference and points-of-parity.

TRUE

81) Selective retention works to the advantage of strong brands.

TRUE

82) Because of selective retention, we are likely to forget about the good points of competing products.

TRUE

82) One of the selection criteria for creating a successful brand element is that it should be protectable.

TRUE

82) Perceptual maps provide quantitative portrayals of market situations and the way consumers view different products, services, and brands along various dimensions.

TRUE

83) The purpose of brand mantras is to ensure that employees and external marketing partners understand what the brand is in order to represent it to the customers.

TRUE

84) Brand associations consist of all brand-related thoughts, feelings, perceptions, images, experiences, beliefs, attitudes, and so on that become linked to the brand node.

TRUE

84) Brand mantras must communicate both what a brand is and what it is not.

TRUE

85) To achieve integrated marketing, marketers need a variety of different marketing activities that consistently reinforce the brand promise.

TRUE

86) Brand equity can be built by linking the brand to sources, such as channels of distribution as well as to other brands.

TRUE

87) A brand promise will not be delivered unless everyone in a company lives the brand.

TRUE

88) The typical approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand's membership before stating its point-of-difference.

TRUE

89) A brand community can be a constant source of inspiration and feedback for product improvements or innovations.

TRUE

89) Competitive advantage is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match.

TRUE

9) Organizational buying is the decision-making process by which formal organizations establish the need for purchased products and services and identify, evaluate, and choose among alternative brands and suppliers.

TRUE

90) The means of differentiation that are often most compelling to consumers relate to aspects of the product and service.

TRUE

91) Spending on product research, development, and design constitutes investment in the brand value development process.

TRUE

92) When change is necessary, marketers should vigorously preserve and defend sources of brand equity.

TRUE

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