Martha

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

12. A form of them if breathing brathins advance stops directive is called that a allows hospital patients to tell health care pactitioners not to revive a. Durable power of attorney c. Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order d. Summons LO 12.3 13. Care provide d to relieve pain and make a patient's last days as comfortable as possible is referred to as a. ICU care b. Palliative care c. Curative care d. Hospital care 14. The training of medical students about palliative care is a. Not done b. Is a separate course in every medical school c. Is covered, but every medical school does it differently d. Is not taught until the student becomes an intern

15. Undergraduate nursing students a. Receive no training in palliative care b. Are not required to take a palliative care course until graduate school c. Have 17 competencies in palliative care they must demonstrate d. May take a course in counseling as an elective 16. Hospice care is found a. Only in hospitals b. Only in special facilities c. Only as home care d. In all of the above locations LO 12.4 17. Landmark events in the right to die movement include a. The Karen Ann Quinlan case b. The Nancy Cruzan case c. The Terry Schiavo case d. All of these 18. Physician-assisted death is legal a. In all 50 states b. Presently, only in six states c. Only when the patient agrees to be euthanized d. Never

13. Which of the following is listed as a major population change affecting the cost, access, and quality of health care in the United States? a. People are healthier. b. Affordable care has been achieved for all income levels of society. c. People no longer die of heart disease. d. Life expectancy and life span have increased across the U.S. population. 14. Which of the following best defines the term fertility rate within a population? a. The total number of live births recorded in each state for one year b. The total number of live births per 1,000 women aged 15 to 44 years c. The total number of live births within a specific population group. d. The total number of births in an entire country for one year. LO 13.4

15. What is the process called that involves correcting defective genes responsible for disease? a. Genetics b. Genomics c. Pharmacology d. Gene editing 16. Which of the following does not involve a technique using a biologic? a. A child is vaccinated against polio b. A person receives an allergy shot. c. A patient receives a bone transplant. d. A cancer patient receives radiation treatment. 17. Which of the following is a medical technology likely to increase its current trend toward minia a. 3D printing b. Gene therapy c. Imaging d. Pharmacogenomics 8. What is the process called that is currently revolutionizing gene manipulation? a. The endeGene therapy b. Pharmacogenomics c. CRISPR-Cas d. Genomics LO 13.4

rl o know law is designed to protect a. Employers b. Government c. The public Employees 10.3 LO what federal publication is the primary source for locating OSHA standards? a. Publication of Labor Statistics b. CDC list of OSHA regulations ÖWeb site of OSHA d. Workers' Compensation Guide Which of the following does not govern work done in a clinical setting? a. Hazard Communication Standard b. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard c. Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act Gsocial Security Act

15. Which of the following is an OSHA regulation that applies to hazardous equipment in the workplace? a. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard General Duty Clause c. Chemical Hygiene Plan d. None of these sh. Which of the following is not true of OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard? a. Requires medical offices to have a written hazard communication program b. Requires employers to obtain and post a Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical in use in the workplace Ols never been revisetions communications manual manual be be kept kept up-to-date upodate and and accessible acesile to to all employees d. Requires a hazard r protective equipment when handling hazardous materials 1. Safety for employees handling hazardous materials in the medical office requires employees to b. Post Safety Data Sheets for hazardous chemicals in use c. Initial and date records of safety training CDAll of these . The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act c Requires laboratories to obtain certification as been extensively amended since it was first written tablished minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing All of these

h no-fault federat law compensates for childhood vaccine injury? a. Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution National Childhood Vaceine Injury Act of 1986 C. Smallpox Emergency Personnel Protection Act of 2003 d. None of these Vhich of the followving vaccination information tion is is not not a. The date the vaccine was administered documented documented in in a a patient's patient's medical medical record? b. The vaccine manufacturer c. The vaccine lot number OThe date the vaccine was ordered 5. Which of the following injuries are reportable to law enforcement or to the health department? a. A restaurant worker falls off a ladder while changing a lightbulb. A woman tells her physician that her broken ribs occurred when her husband beat her C. A child is severely injured in an automobile accident. d. None of these LO 9.4

16 which of the following is Ш the responsibility of the medical assistant working in a facility where physi cians prescribe and administer controlled substances? a. Checking to be sure that all controlled substances are kept in a locked cabinet or safe b. Reminding the physician to keep his or her "black bag in a safe place c. and Ordering prescription blanks that are serially numbered or otherwise printed to help detect alterations theft Checking with the patient's pharmacist to be sure prescriptions have been filled 17. Prescriptions for which of the following categories of drugs may not be renewed? a. Schedule I O Schedule II c. Schedule IV d. Schedule v 18, one exception, drugs in this category have no accepted medical use and are used for research pur- poses only a. Schedule V b. Schedule II OSchedule I d. Schedule III a, patients who currently have prescriptions for the stolen drug must be notified if controlled substances are stolen from a medical facility? The state medical board OThe nearest DEA office and the local police The nearest FDA office

ates of allowing a terminally ill physician-assisted death for assistance in dying refer to the process as d. passive euthanasia c. involuntary euthanasia b physician -assisted suicide 20. How many times did Oregon voters pass a Death with Dignity Act? a. One b. Tiwo c. Three d. Only once, then the legislature acted LO 12.5 21. Which reco mmendation paved the way for organ transplantation in the United States? Uniform Patient Self-Determination Act b. Uniform Rights of the Terminally II A c. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act d. Uniform Death with Dignity Acts n Which legislation established organ procurement and transplantation networks in the United States? a. Uniform Rights of the Terminally III Act b. Death with Dignity Acts c. DNR order d. National Organ Transplant Act

23. Which of the following is true of organ transplants? a. Organ donors or their families must pay if a transplant occurs. b. Only individuals under the age of 55 can serve as organ or tissue donors. c. Prospective donors should inform family members of their wishes. d. Only family members can donate certain organs for transplantation. 24. The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act does not include the provisions) that b. Donations made through a will are not to be held up in probate a. Persons 18 and older and of sound mind may donate organs and tissues for transplantation Except in autopsies, the donor's rights override c. Organs are not accepted from patients over 60 years of age the rights of others LO 12.6 3. Which of the following best describes grie? a. An emotion one feels when loss has occurred b. The wish to die c. An emotion that should be denied d. None of these

a. Wearing protective equipment when appropriate 19. Which of the following helps control infections in the medical office? b. Disposing of sharps appropriately c . Cleaning / disinfecting work areas ASAll of these LO 10.4 20. Which laws allow an injured employee to file a claim with the state or federal government? CWorkers' compensation b. Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act c. General Duty Clause d. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act 21. Which of the following is generally yota reason for an exemployee to be denied an unempl a. Quit job without cause b. Fired for misconduct Quit due to sexual harassment d. Quit when spouse was transferred 22. Which of the following are generally not eligible for unemployment a. Women who quit to give birth b. Men who quit to care for young children ndependent contractors and the self-employed Seasonal employees, such as construction workers

23. Which of the following questions is illegal to ask a job applicant? a. Why did you leave your previous employment? b. Why do you want to work here? c. What are your 5-year employment goals? e you have children? 24. A W-2 form typically does not include Change in employe's marital status b. Employer's tax identification number c. Total wages paid d. Employee's Social Security number funds is called 25. A type of insurance that allows employers to collect if employees embezzle or otherwise steal business a. Disability insurance b. Workers' compensation c. Unemployment insurance urety bond

25. Minors may be declared emancipated only if they a. Go to court and request emancipation b. Receive parental permission to request emancipation c. Are self-supporting d. None of these 26. Once declared emancipated, a minor can lose that status if he or she a. Was married but divorces b. Was in the military but is discharged c. Was self-supporting but loses a job d. None of these

27. A physician or other health care practitioner who treats a minor in a non emergency situation, without parental consent, risks being charged with a. Kidnapping b. Assault and/or battery c. Violating the Civil Rights Act d. No charges can ever be made

Kübler-Ross's five stages of coping with a death or with a terminal illness do not include which of the following? a. Acceptance b. Bargaining c. Depression d. All of these are included 27. Which of the following is not true of the stages of grief? a. All grieving people progress through the stages in order b. Grieving people may not experience one or more of the stages of grief. c. A person may experience the second stage of grief before the first or the third stage before the second. d. A person may go back and forth among the stages until resolution is accomplished.

28. Which of the following behaviors is probably most helpful to a dying person? a. Ignoring the fact that the person is dying b. Avoiding any discussion of future events c. Giving the person your attention and listening well d. Telling jokes

1. Before the twentieth century, death most likely occurred a. In a hospital b. In a hospice c. At home d. At work 2. The purpose of the Uniform Determination of Death Act was to a. Define guidelines for determining when death actually occurs b. Teach caregivers how to prepare patients for death c. Teach caregivers how to use technology to prolong life d. None of these

3. The Uniform Determination of Death Act defines as a means of determining when death actually occurs. a. Cessation of breathing b. Brain death c. Blood pressure reading d. Cessation of ability to speak 4. Coma is best defined as a. A deep sleep b. Severe mental impairment c. A deep stupor from which the person cannot be roused by external stimuli d. Cessation of all brain function

3. Which of the following is not recommended for completing birth and death certificates? a. Make entries in ink or in a typewritten form. Use rubber stamps for all signatures. c. Do not skip any blanks. d. Check entries for correct spelling 4. Which of the following is not included on a death certificate? a. Cause of death b. Name of attending physician, if any c. Time of death OName of decedent's next of kin

5. Ph ysicians may not sign a death certificate in which of the following situations? Death is suspicious. Physician was treating the patient. c. D eath occurred in the home. d. Death occurred in the hospital.

6. Which of the following best defines a corone r? a. A public official who must be a physician b. A public official who is elected by popular ball ot C. A public official who is appointed by the governor DA public official who investigates and holds inquests over those who die from unknown or vio- lent causes 7. A coroner or medical examiner signs a death certificate if a. The death is possibly due to criminal b. The death was not attended by a physician within a specified length of time. causes or is otherwise suspicious. c. The death is due to causes undetermined by the physician. All of these LO 9.2 8. State public health laws derive indirectly from a. A federal law called U.S. Public Health Law 6The Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution c. City ordinances d. None of these

9. Briefly define the term federalism Looperation among federal, state, and local governments. b. Federal law is accepted as the law of the land. c. State law overrides federal law. d. Municipal law overrides state law. 10. Which of the following falls within the supervision of a state's public health department? a. Licensing of public health nurses b. Admitting cases of infectious disease to hospitals OMandatory vaccinating of schoolchildren d. Prescribing treatment for STIs LO 9.3 11. Which of the following should be reported to the health department? a. Otitis media (middle ear infection) b. Strep throat c. Influenza Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 12. Which of the following will most likely require notification of the appropriate health agencies? a. Auto accident Dstaph infection c. Strep throat d. Phenylketon uria (PKU-a genetic disease sometimes diagnosed in infants)

6. Susan's father developed see if she has the gene to develop the disease. What type of genetic testing will she have? Huntington's disease when she was 28. She is healthy but wants to be tested to a. Predictive genetic testing b. Diagnostic genetic testing c. Carrier genetic testing d. Preimplantation genetic testing 7. A permanent change in DNA is called a a. Gene b. Chromosome c. Mutation d. Genome 8. Which of the following is the least invasive and least risky test to determine if harmful genes are present in a fetus? a. Amniocentesis b. Maternal blood test c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Carrier DNA testing

9. In which of the following situations might DNA testing be indicated? a. A man involved in a paternity suit b. Parents who suspect they brought the wrong baby home from the hospital c. A woman who is a suspect in a murder d. All of these 10. Genetic discrimination is best described as a. A government-sponsored project b. A form of favoritism in employment c. Different ial treatment of individuals based on their actual or presumed genetic differences d. None of these

nborn Victims of Violence Act Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) Smallpox Emergency Personnel Protection Act of 2003 (SEPPA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) e. Amendments to the Older Americans Act fControlled Substances Act

Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act of 1974 b Public health statutes

to be in a persistent vegetative state t breathe on their own Car be aroused by external stimuli severe brain damage Ha efore pronouncing a d Are in a deep coma nonrespo nonresponsive and unconscious wing is not a condition denoting death has occurred? patient dead, physicians may perform certain tests. breathe without assistance Cannot h Cannot stand unaided Has no coughing or gagging reflex d Pupils' lack of response to light indicate a decline in the number of nonmandatory autopsies performed in hospitals. 1ollowing is a probable reason for the decline? a. Fewer patients are dying. of deceased patients are often reluctant to give permission for an autopsy c. No one wants to perform them. law does not allow hospitals to perform autopsies.

If one has 6 months or less to live, he or she is said to be a. Under palliative care b. Eligible for curative care c. Terminally ill d. Not eligible for hospice care 9. The general term used to represent the patient's health care interests is describe documents serving to appoint an individual, chosen by the patient, to Advance directive b. Curative care directive c. Palliative care directive d. Guardian ad litem 0. An authoriza tion in advance to withdraw artificial life support is a. Assault b. Battery c. An advance directive d. Uniform Anatomical Gift directive the Patient Self-Determination Act does not provide for uenting the existence of an advance directive in the patient's medircal record patient has an advance di ompliance with state laws respecting ondscrimination regarding whether or not a advance directives who influence a patient's decision in preparing an Legal prosecution of health care practitioners advance directive

icial insemination may be an acceptable remedy for a. Pregnancy b. Infertility c. Surrogacy d. Cloning 7. Which of the following best defines in vitro fertilization? a. The union of egg and sperm b. The fusion of egg and cell nucleus c. Fertilization taking place outside a woman's body d. Cloning 18. Which of the following best defines surrogacy? a. A woman bears a child for another woman. b. A woman is artificially inseminated. c. Fertilization takes place outside a woman's body. d. None of these

L0 11.5 Match each definition with the correct term by writing the letter in the space provided. a. Civil Rights Act 19. The government serves as a child's parent. c. Safe haven laws d. Best interest of the child nated safe locations. state laws that allow a parent to abandon abled take their authority from which federal regulation? concerning newborns who are severely for minor children 20, The common standard when the government makes decisions b. Parens patriae 21. Federal regulations newborns to desig- e. Common law f. Child Abuse Amendments have a right to 23. In the past, decide what medical care children this has dictated that parents receive. states, which of the following age groups can receive some types of medical care without parental ermist permission? a. Mature minors Minors over age 14 c. Minors under age 18 d. None of these

20. A medical faci lity must keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a contr file for a. 6 years b. 9 years c. 10 years years 21. Which of the following is not a requirement for physicians who prescribe, dispense, and administer c on- trolled substances? a. Register with the Drug Enforcement Administration through a division office. b. Note on a patient's chart when controlled substances are administered or dispensed. c. Make a written inventory of drug supplies every 2 years, and keep such records an additional 2 years. d) Renew permits for prescribing and dispensing controlled substances every 6 months.

Match each definition with the correct term by writing the letter in the space provided 22. Tests and approves drugs for public use. 23. Also known as the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 24. As a branch of the Department of Justice, regulates the sale and use of drugs. 25. Require reports of communicable diseases and certain injuries, as mandated by state laws. 26. Mandates reporting of child abuse 27. Created a no-fault compensation program for health care practitioners and/or emergency responders injured by the smallpox vaccine 28. The federal law that makes killing or injuring a fetus a crime separate from killing or injuring the pregnant where the federal government has mother in cases jurisdiction.

1. Under the concept of employment-at-will, who has the right to terminate employment? a. The government Both the employer and the employee c. The business owner d. The employee's legal representative 2. When might an employee who is fired sue his or her former employer for wrongful discharge? a. Never b. Only 1 year after the discharge OAt any time if the employee was discharged for an illegal reason d. Six months after the discharge 3. Which of the following reasons for discharge is not illegal under antidiscrimination laws? a. The employee is too old. b. The employee joined a union. The employee has been unable to master the requirements of the job. d. The employee is too religious. ich of the following common law concepts protects an employee who reports his employer's illega! chemical dumping activities? a. Employment-at-will O'ublic policy

Ten

1. Tho se who have a vested interest in the American health care industry are called a. Employers b. The public c. Stakeholders d. Insurers 2. Which of the following is not true of a nonprofit organization? a. Nonprofits work for a positive income at the end of the year. b. It has shareholders. c. It has goals in service of its mission statement. d. It operates under different laws than for-profit companies. 3. Three key issues of concern to everyone within the American health care industry are a. Cost, access, quality b. Cost, availability, insurance C. Competition, education, quality d. Cost, access, hospitalization LO 13.2 4. What is the largest contributor to the health care dollar? a. Taxes b. Private donations c. Health insurance d. Employers

W

26. Established the EEOC. 27. Makes it illegal to discriminate because of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. f28. Protects employees aged 40 or older. 29. Protects employees who engage in union or other organiza- tional activities. 30. Regulates private pension funds and employer benefit programs 31. Requires equal pay for equal work. 32. Ensures a safe work environment. C33. Regulates child labor and provides for minimum wages and overtime pay 34. Provides for Medicare , unemployment insurance , disability and OASI through FICA funding. 35. Protects individuals who are disabled or mentally il 36. Provides minimum federal standards for quality laboratory testing.

Wagner Adt Socal Security Ac Fair Labor Standards Act Equal Pay Act f Civil Rights Act of 1964 Age Discrimination in Employment Act Occupational Safety and Health Act h. Rehabilitation Act / Employee Retirement Income Security Act Pregnancy Discrimination Act h. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act/ Amendments

term by writing experimental treatment for hereditary diseases 2. The process that produced Dolly the sheep cialized cells considered most valuable for purposes of genetic manipulation ized cells that can become almost any kind of cell become only one type of body cell 15 Those cells that can

a. Multipotent b. Stem cells c. Gene therapy d. Cloning e. Pluripotent

5. What area of health care spends the largest amount of the health care dollar? a. Physician services b. Hospital care c. Prescriptions d. Nursing homes 6. Which of the following is not true under ACA? a. Everyone can get health care insurance for free b. Preexisting conditions must be allowed. c. Consumers can get health insurance through their employer if offered. d. There are tax penalties if you do not have health insurance. LO 13.3 7. List three steps vital for access to health care to exist 8. Which of the following is not a reason for the relatively high rate of infant mortality in the United States? a. High cost b. Restricted access to health care c. Fewer births than other nations d. High rate of uninsured

efficiency, and effectiveness of health 9. What is the name of the lead federal agency responsible for tracking and improving the quality, safety care for Americans? a. AHRQ b. HIPAA c. PPACA d. NHQR 10. Which of the followving, established via implementation of the 2010 ACA, set goals for improving health care quality a. HIPAA b. National Quality Strategy c. Department of Health and Human Services d. Social Security ment, heredity, lifestyle and health practices, risk factors, and so on? 11. What is the term for the statistically probable number of years a newborn ought to live, based on environ- a. Lifetime b. Life expectancy c. Life span d. Adulthood 12. What is the number of years an individual actually lives called? a. Life span b. Life expectancy c. Adulthood d. Childhood


संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

Intro to Nursing Concepts, PrepUs Ch 4

View Set

Islamic Studies Semester 2 Final Study Guide

View Set

Opera Composers during Baroque Period

View Set