MCAT Practice 1

The second purification step is which type of chromatographic separation? A. Affinity B. Size exclusion C. Cation exchange D. Anion exchange

Solution: A Displacement of the protein from the column in this step involved disrupting the binding of the (His)6 tag to the column. This is a classic example of affinity chromatography.

Although intense media coverage of the rising rates of drug dependence in the United States has increased public awareness, many individuals continue to engage in the recreational use of psychoactive drugs. The three major categories of recreational drugs are depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens. Although these categories encompass a diverse group of chemicals with different structures, most of them increase the activity of dopamine circuits in the brain's mesolimbic system. The factors that motivate recreational drug use change as an individual gains experience with a particular drug. With continued use of alcohol and some other drugs, the user requires larger and larger doses to experience the same effect. At this point, an individual continues to use the substance in order to maintain a basic level of functionality. For instance, a chronic cigarette smoker might immediately light a cigarette upon awakening to clear a foggy head and eliminate irritability. Chronic users are also increasingly likely to experience toxicity and medical complications. Ever increasing doses of most psychoactive drugs may lead to a condition in which the person craves and uses the substance despite its adverse consequences. Given the adverse consequences of chronic drug use, research has focused on determining the factors responsible for the onset of the behavior. Novice users are typically adolescents or young adults who view drug use as a means of gaining social acceptance from a peer group. The novelty of the sensory, motor, or emotional experiences produced by the drug high is another important factor for new users. Certain personality traits, such as impulse control and sensation seeking, have been found to be associated with drug use in adolescents. In a study designed to determine whether specific traits could predict drug use, high school seniors completed a questionnaire regarding their past use of tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drugs. To assess personality, the researchers developed a brief inventory (the HP5) based on the Five-Factor Model of personality. Participants responded to 20 self-statements on a four-point response scale, where higher scores indicate that the individual has the trait being assessed. The researchers found that scores on the HP5 "antagonism" and "impulsivity" scales were the most closely associated with initial drug experimentation. Adapted from M. Gunnarsson, J. P. Gustavsson, A. Tengström, J. Franck, and C. Fahlke, "Personality Traits and their Associations with Substance Use among Adolescents." Personality and Individual Differences. ©2008 Elsevier Ltd. Question Participants' scores on the antagonism scale are most likely associated with scores on which personality trait? A. Agreeableness B. Conscientiousness C. Sensation seeking D. Openness

Solution: A The passage states that, "To assess personality, the researchers developed a brief inventory (the HP5) based on the Five-Factor Model of personality." Agreeableness is one of the five personality traits identified by this model. People who score high on agreeableness are empathetic and helpful. A low agreeableness score is analogous to antagonism.

Based on the passage, participation in which study is most likely to be associated with a decrease in hippocampal volume in rats? A study on: A. the extinction of conditioned responses B. learned helplessness and avoidance learning C. the effectiveness of stimulants as reinforcers D. instinctive drift and classical conditioning

Solution: B Avoidance learning occurs when the individual responds to prevent the presentation of an aversive stimulus, while learned helplessness is a behavioral and physiological state that occurs as a result of exposure to uncontrollable aversive consequences. The inescapable aversive stimulus is a chronic stressor which would be predicted to be associated with decreased hippocampal volume.

A postsynaptic cell has a resting membrane potential of -65mV with a threshold potential of -55mV. Will an action potential be generated by a single stimulus that lowers the membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell by 15mV? A. Yes, because the stimulus caused the membrane potential to exceed the threshold potential B. No, because the stimulus hyperpolarized the membrane, producing an inhibitory effect C. Yes, because the stimulus had an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic membrane D. No, because the depolarizing effect of the stimulus did not exceed the threshold potential

Solution: B In order for a postsynaptic cell to produce an action potential, its membrane potential must reach a threshold potential. In the described cell, this requires a shift in membrane potential from -65 mV (its resting membrane potential) to -55 mV (its threshold potential). This will be achieved by a depolarizing stimulus, which increases membrane potential. However, the described stimulus will hyperpolarize the membrane by shifting the membrane potential from -65 mV to -80 mV. The resulting hyperpolarization is associated with inhibition of the postsynaptic cell and an inability of the cell to generate an action potential.

Cocaine belongs to which drug category mentioned in the passage? A. Sedatives B. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens D. Opioids

Solution: B Stimulants are psychoactive substances which increase central nervous system activity. Cocaine is an example of a stimulant.

If a researcher defines the concept of religiosity as the frequency an individual engages in religious meetings, rituals, or practices, that researcher has created a(n): A. hypothetical definition. B. conceptual definition. C. thematic definition. D. operational definition.

Solution: D Operationalization refers to how an abstract concept as a variable is observed through different measurements. The use of different measures, such as the frequency of attending religious rituals, is to operationalize the abstract concept of religiosity.

Research has implicated stress as a contributing factor to cognitive decline in aging. Stress-related hormones have been found to affect the hippocampus. Studies on animals have shown that chronic increases in stress-related hormones are associated with reduced dendritic spines, decreased long-term potentiation, and reduced neurogenesis in the hippocampus. Studies on humans show that people who have experienced posttraumatic stress disorder have reduced hippocampal volume. In contrast to stress, exercise has been shown to benefit learning and memory functioning in aged animals. A study was designed to investigate the relative effects of exercise and lifetime stress on hippocampal volume and cognitive functioning in humans. Participants were selected from older adults. To assess lifetime stress, participants were given a list of stressors and were asked to indicate the number of times they experienced each. To assess exercise engagement, they completed a questionnaire regarding their cardiovascular activity for the past ten years. To assess cognitive functioning, they were presented with a list of fifteen items categorizable as animals, clothing, and furniture. After participating in a 2-minute distraction task, they were asked to recall as many of the items as possible and categorize them. The volume of the hippocampus was also assessed for each participant. Based on the exercise assessment, participants were grouped into "high exercise" or "low exercise" categories. The results of the study showed that lifetime stress was negatively correlated with hippocampal volume and memory for low exercise participants, but no correlation was found between these variables for the high exercise participants. Adapted from D. Head, T. Singh, and J. M. Bugg, ©2012 American Psychological Association. Question The categorization aspect of the cognitive functioning assessment involves which type of memory? A. Sensory memory B. Short-term memory C. Episodic memory D. Semantic memory

Solution: D Semantic memory is memory for facts and knowledge. This is the memory system used for a categorization task which requires participants to use pre-existing knowledge to sort the items.

Which reactant and product (one equivalent each) are necessary to balance Reaction 1? A. Reactant = H2O, product = NO3_ B. Reactant = H2O, product = NH4+ C. Reactant = O2, product = NO3_ D. Reactant = O2, product = NH4+

Solution: B The reactant loses an ammonium ion and gains a water molecule. This balances both charge and mass on both sides of the chemical equation.

These experiments suggest that the mutant RB proteins do not: A. bind to E7. B. bind to E2F. C. arrest cells in G1. D. permit exit from G1.

Solution: A Based on the results shown in Figure 1, addition of E7 to wild-type RB results in a decrease in the percentage of cells in G1. However, when wild-type RB is replaced by mutant RB, this decrease is not observed. This indicates that the mutants are insensitive to E7, and do not likely interact with E7.

Samples from various time points of the proteolysis of TPMTwt were subjected to SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions. Which figure best depicts the expected appearance of the gel? (Note: The arrow indicates the movement of the protein through the gel.)

Solution: D As befits proteolysis, the number of lower molecular weight bands with time increases and the original protein band at the highest molecular weight diminishes with time.

According to social psychologists, people tend to respond to words and symbols as if they were the things to which they refer. What would the passage author be most likely to say about this tendency? A. It must be repeatedly overcome by engineers as a project progresses toward its physical realization. B. It accords with the distinction between the hypotheses of scientists and the proposals of engineers. C. It explains the failure to honor great engineers who have turned projects into objects. D. It implies an overemphasis on plans and working models in technological projects.

Solution A The author emphasizes that the beauty and appeal of a project before it results in the creation of a physical object is the project's quality as an imaginative fiction under the control of the engineer. The author also associates this conceptual stage with language and symbols: "In this stage of signs, language, and text, people influence the object" (paragraph 4). This suggests that, in the conceptual stage, it is best not to respond to the project as if it were a fixed object that already exists. For instance, the author compares the project to "A fiction with a variable structure" and states that "it is this flexibility to which we must aspire in tracking a technological project" (final paragraph).

The author's use of the word "resisters" gives the impression that the author wants to: A. discuss the migrants in a nonjudgmental way. B. emphasize that the migrants opposed authority. C. portray the migrants as unpatriotic citizens. D. suggest that the migrants' reasons for going to Canada were justified.

Solution: A "Resister" implies, in a neutral way, the migrants' motivation for leaving the U.S. The nonjudgmental tone that is created by this word choice is implied early in the passage since resister is chosen over more familiar (but also negative) terms: "Just over 100 resisters, known more commonly as 'draft dodgers' and 'deserters,' came to Canada in 1964" (first paragraph).

Consider the fully protonated amino acid shown. As the pH of a solution of this amino acid is raised, which group deprotonates first? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Solution: A As the pH is raised, the most acidic group deprotonates first. Of the choices, two are carboxylic acids, one is a hydroxyl group, and one is a protonated amine. The hydroxyl group is least acidic, while the protonated amine is less acidic (pKa ~ 10) than a carboxylic acid group (pKa ~ 5). Of the two carboxylic acid groups, the one next to the chlorine atoms will be more acidic since its conjugate base (an anion) will be stabilized by an inductive effect which dissipates negative charge building up.

Mice that overexpress PGC-1α specifically in their skeletal muscles are most likely to exhibit which phenotype relative to wild-type mice? A. Lower body weight B. Lower body temperature C. Higher physical activity D. Higher nonfasting blood glucose levels

Solution: A Based on the passage, overexpression of PGC-1α in skeletal muscle leads to increased subcutaneous fat UCP1 expression, and this UCP1 expression leads to more energy being dissipated as heat. Therefore, mice that overexpress PGC-1α specifically in their skeletal muscles most likely weigh less than do wild-type mice.

Which chromatographic technique would most likely separate a mixture of native carbonic anhydrase from carbonic anhydrase photochemically modified by CCl3CO2H? A. Anion-exchange chromatography B. Cation-exchange chromatography C. Gas-liquid chromatography D. Size-exclusion chromatography

Solution: A Because the passage states that native carbonic anhydrase has a net charge of -2.9 and the modified enzyme would have greater negative charge, anion-exchange chromatography can separate them as this technique separates proteins with different negative charges.

Contraction of the diaphragm results in: A. decreased intrathoracic pressure and inhalation. B. decreased intrathoracic pressure and exhalation. C. increased intrathoracic pressure and inhalation. D. increased intrathoracic pressure and exhalation.

Solution: A Diaphragm contraction results in increased thoracic volume and reduced intrathoracic pressure, which causes inhalation.

Biases can influence how we process new information and update our beliefs. In Study 1, researchers examined the conditions under which individuals are willing to update their beliefs about the frequency of various negative life events, such as Alzheimer's disease or robbery. In the first phase of the experiment, the participants were asked about their preconceived notions of the frequency of negative events. The researchers found a tendency to underestimate the frequency of negative events. The participants also believed that they were at a lower risk of experiencing negative events compared to other individuals. In the second phase of the experiment, the participants were given new information about the frequency of various negative events. Sometimes the new information was better than what the participant expected (for example, they were told that negative events occur less frequently than they had thought). Other times, the new information was worse than expected. The results showed that people were more likely to update their beliefs when the new information suggested that negative events were less likely than they expected. In Study 2, another group of participants watched a short clip depicting a car accident. A week later, the participants were presented with a written summary of the clip they viewed previously. For Group A, the written summary contained small errors that made the car accident in the video appear more serious than it really was. For Group B, the written summary contained small errors that made the car accident appear less serious than it really was. For the control group, the written summary contained no errors. After a delay of one more week, the participants were asked to retrieve their memory of the original video as accurately as they could. The researchers were interested in the participants' likelihood of creating false memories for the car accident. Adapted from T. Sharot, C. W. Korn, and R. J. Dolan, Nature Neuroscience. ©2011 Nature Publishing Group. Question The researchers who conducted Study 1 were interested in the individual differences between the participants in terms of how they update their beliefs. The participants' scores on which variable would be most likely to predict how they update their beliefs? A. Optimism B. Self-esteem C. Impression management D. Self-efficacy

Solution: A Findings from Study 1 demonstrate that participants are more likely to update their beliefs when the information is positive, which indicates an optimistic bias. Individuals higher in trait optimism may be more likely to show this tendency.

If the red line in the Balmer series has a wavelength of 656 nm, which of the following is closest to its frequency? A. 4.6 × 1014 Hz B. 4.6 × 10−​14 Hz C. 2.1 × 1015 Hz D. 2.1 × 10−​15 Hz

Solution: A For light that travels in vacuum, wavelength and frequency are related according to wavelength × frequency = 3.0 × 108 m/s. Solving for frequency yields (3.0 × 108 m/s)/(656 × 10-9 m) = 4.6 × 1014 Hz.

The LXCXE motif is described as being "highly conserved." Certain parts of the genome, such as that encoding the LXCXE motif, are highly conserved because they are: A. vital to an organism's survival. B. chemically incapable of mutation. C. stored in vesicles for later secretion. D. stored in cell compartments where they are unlikely to be secreted.

Solution: A From an evolutionary point of view, DNA sequences that are vital to an organism's life are conserved among species.

Using both structural and ecological perspectives, researchers examined childbearing among African American adolescents in metropolitan areas of the U.S. The structural perspective focuses on how living in low socioeconomic status (SES) neighborhoods can affect the risk of adolescent childbearing. This perspective is divided into two explanations. Structural explanation 1 posits that the shift of industrial production away from urban centers led to an outmigration of middle-class African American families and a subsequent concentration of poverty in some African American neighborhoods. Structural explanation 2 posits that residential segregation in urban areas concentrates poverty and contributes to neighborhood decline. The ecological perspective suggests that a neighborhood's impact on childbearing is mediated by characteristics and changes in families. The ecological perspective includes a potentiator model, which refers to correspondence between risks from the environment and those from the family, as well as a protective model, which describes how more affluent families tend to protect their adolescents from risks in the environment. Data were obtained from the Panel Study of Income Dynamics and were based on a sample of 940 African American females born between 1953 and 1968. By age 20, 37.7% of these females experienced a premarital birth (6.6% by age 16 and 22.8% by age 18). SES was derived from Census data and measured at age 14. Results indicated that living in a highly segregated neighborhood was associated with an elevated rate of premarital births, regardless of neighborhood SES. In addition, adolescents who lived in low-SES households, lived with one parent, had multiple siblings, or moved frequently experienced higher rates of a premarital first birth before age 20 as compared to those who did not experience these same conditions. Adapted from C. Sucoff and D. Upchurch. "Neighborhood context and the risk of childbearing among metropolitan-area black adolescents." American Sociological Review ©1998 Sage Publications Question Suburbanization is most likely to be studied by researchers working with which of the four theoretical perspectives from the passage? A. Structural explanation 1 B. Structural explanation 2 C. Potentiator model D. Protective model

Solution: A Structural explanation 1 is the correct answer because it focuses on the movement of people. Suburbanization is the out-migration from cities to suburbs, which often involves middle-class residents leaving behind low-income residents. Therefore, suburbanization is best explained with the out-migration of middle-class African American households.

Based on information presented in Table 1, which relationship between pH and charged functional groups is accurate? A. At pH 8.50, the ratio of the cationic to anionic functional groups in the NqrD subunit is equal to 1. B. At pH 7.00, half of the functional groups in the NqrE subunit are protonated. C. At pH 6.30, the net charge of the cationic and anionic functional groups in the NqrA subunit is equal to 1. D. At pH 6.00, the majority of the functional groups in the NqrF subunit are protonated.

Solution: A Table 1 shows that the isoelectric point of NqrD is 8.50. The ratio of the cationic (+) to anionic (-) functional groups in a protein at its pI is always equal to one.

The passage distinction between technology and science does NOT consider the: A. role of imagination in the process of scientific discovery. B. flexibility of technological concepts in the project stage. C. possibility that potential objects may never be realized. D. difference in the work done by engineers and scientists.

Solution: A The author suggests that scientific discovery is limited to reporting on already existing reality while engineering is imaginative and far less limited. The author states that "the fact remains that they [scientists] only disclose to us a world that came into being without the sciences or other human contributions" while "By contrast, in conceptualizing technological projects, engineers produce fictions. The technology concerned does not, and by definition could not, exist, since it is in the project phase" (first paragraph). While the author concedes that engineers must produce according to the existing rules of science, the author does not consider the imagination involved in the process of scientific discovery and instead represents it as a process of reporting on reality.

Communications scholar Bernard Armada writes that museums can "only cue us into segments of history — they can never represent 'the' past in all of its social, cultural, and political complexity". How would the passage author most likely respond to this claim? A. The author would disagree, citing the accuracy of the representations in the Delta Blues Museum. B. The author would say that this claim does not negate passage arguments about the Delta Blues Museum. C. The author would suggest that the past is likely more accessible and unidirectional than this quotation implies. D. The author would suggest that this point undermines the passage discussion of the Delta Blues Museum.

Solution: A The author suggests that the representations in the museum are, at the least, incomplete, rather than purely "accurate."

Suppose that studies have shown that niche tourists are often very knowledgeable about the subjects of their tourism. How would this information most likely affect passage arguments? A. It would complicate the claim about what tourists expect to find when they visit the Delta region. B. It would support the claim about the effect of museum displays on the image of authentic blues culture. C. It would have no impact on the arguments presented in the passage. D. It would weaken the claim about the effort of communities to accentuate their cultural heritage.

Solution: A The passage clearly suggests that the "truth" of blues history is more complex and multi-faceted than the dominant images that feature the economic hardship of musicians and communities would have it. The passage says that tourists are "ironically seeking the 'authentic' and 'genuine' blues experience," even as this is somewhat cynically constructed for them (final paragraph). But, if tourists were actually very knowledgeable about the blues, they would be less likely to be seeking this dominant image—so the scenario in the question would complicate passage claims about what tourists are seeking.

Which outcome most likely results from exposure of Ogg1-/- mice to TNFα A. Increase in cancer incidence B. Increase in Cxcl2 expression C. Decrease in cellular ROS levels D. Decrease in KD of TH5487 for its target

Solution: A The passage notes that exposure to pro-inflammatory agents such as TNFα leads to cellular production of ROS, which leads to generation of 8-oxo-G. The passage notes that this altered version of G is capable of forming Hoogsteen base pairs with A, leading to mutations within the DNA. Knockout mice would not have OGG1 available to repair the damaged DNA. Long-term lack of genetic stability would increase the incidence of cancer.

After 2-4 years of formal training, or through extensive experience in the hospitality industry, a sommelier (or wine steward) learns to distinguish among different broad categories of wine (such as a sauvignon blanc and cabernet sauvignon) and to make finer within-category distinctions (such as between two different types of pinot noir) based on smell, taste, color, and mouth feel. Expert sommeliers are better than novices in all of these activities. Sommeliers are under a great deal of pressure to perform the difficult task of describing wines correctly. The ability to pick out specific flavor notes from the overall wine flavor and name them accurately requires considerable practice. As more sugar is added, subtle changes in the sweetness of wine can be detected by both experts and novices. However, the lowest level of an odor that can be detected does not seem to be improved with training. One of the most basic distinctions in beverage flavor profiles is the difference between wines derived from red and white grapes. In one study, researchers found that experts used different vocabularies of words when describing red and white wines. Experts, they found, tended to use words that suggested dark or red objects (such as "cherry") for red wines and light or yellow objects (such as "honey") for white wines. To examine whether visual information was more relevant than a flavor profile in eliciting an accurate description of the wine's flavor, researchers had 54 novices—students training to become sommeliers—perform two different wine comparison sessions. In each individual testing session, people tasted two different wines, one red and one white, and described the two wines. In the second session, one week after the first, both of the wines were actually the same; the white wine had been colored red and substituted for the red wine. The results are shown in Figure 1. Figure 1Mean number of terms by condition Adapted from G. Morrot, F. Brochet, and D. Dubourdieu, "The Color of Odors." Brain and Language. ©2001 Elsevier. Question Which construct is most relevant to the description in paragraph 2 about the comparison of two wines with different levels of sweetness? A. Weber's law B. Perceptual constancy C. Natural selection D. Absolute threshold

Solution: A The passage states that "As more sugar is added, subtle changes in the sweetness of wine can be detected by both experts and novices." Weber's law states that the minimum change in intensity necessary for the subject to sense that the stimulus has changed is a ratio of the original stimulus intensity. This is relevant to detecting changing levels of sweetness in wine.

Two open flasks I and II contain different volumes of the same liquid. Suppose that the pressure is measured at a point 10 cm below the surface of the liquid in each container. How will the pressures compare? A. The pressures will be equal. B. Pressure in flask I will be less. C. Pressure in flask II will be less. D. The pressures cannot be compared from the information given.

Solution: A The pressure at a point 10 cm below the surface of the liquid is the same in both flasks because the pressure is equal to the liquid density multiplied by the gravitational acceleration multiplied by 10 cm.

Based on the reported Hill coefficient, in what way do the MCS oligomers affect inhibition? A. As one MCS oligomer binds to the ATPase, it makes it easier for the others to bind, leading to inhibition. B. As one MCS oligomer binds to the ATPase, it makes it more difficult for the others to bind, leading to inhibition. C. A single MCS oligomer binds to the ATPase, leading to inhibition. D. MCS oligomers randomly bind to the ATPase, leading to inhibition.

Solution: A The reported Hill coefficient of 2.56 indicates positive cooperativity because the value is greater than 1.0. Therefore, when one MCS oligomer binds to the ATPase, it makes it easier for others to bind. When there are sufficient MCS oligomers bound, they lead to inhibition of the ATPase.

In the statement, "The American government preferred to ignore the rest," what does the author mean by "the rest"? A. Other Americans who broke laws by migrating to Canada in opposition to the Vietnam War B. Americans who migrated to Canada and wanted to return after the Vietnam War C. Opponents of the Vietnam War who chose to practice civil disobedience in the U.S. D. The 80 percent of the people who migrated to Canada who were not Americans

Solution: A The topic of paragraph 2, where this statement appears, addresses estimates of the number of Americans who migrated to Canada in response to the Vietnam War, which ranges from 50,000 to 100,000 migrants. "[T]he rest" refers to the majority of these migrants: "By the end of the war, Senator Edward Kennedy chaired Justice Committee hearings in the U.S. Senate and instructed Justice Department officials to come forward with lists of who they were pursuing for war-related infractions. This list included 4,500 names. The American government preferred to ignore the rest" (paragraph 2).

Which type of heterocycle is found on two amino acid residues blocking access to W15? A. Imidazole B. Indole C. Pyrimidine D. Pyrrole

Solution: A The two amino acid residues blocking access to W15 are histidines, each with an imidazole ring-containing side chain.

Changes in the healthcare system have resulted in the transfer of some care activities away from hospitals to settings such as the patient's home. The responsibility for the day-to-day care of a patient then usually rests with family members. This changes the social roles and responsibilities for both the patient and family caregiver(s), which can raise particular issues when the patient has advanced cancer. The increased participation of family caregiving for cancer patients has led researchers and therapists to study the health and well-being of caregivers. This area of research focuses on balancing the psychosocial needs of the caregiver, so that he or she can more effectively attend to the needs of the patient. For example, caregivers often help with pain management for a family member with advanced cancer. Healthcare providers tend to focus on pharmacological pain control, but patients and caregivers also rely on nonpharmacological approaches to pain management, such as distraction, emotional support, and hot or cold therapies. The problem of pain management is usually solved after caregivers try multiple approaches and combinations of strategies until they find one that works for the patient. The problems facing family caregivers of advanced cancer patients differ based on the family's demographic characteristics. Research has found that caregivers with lower levels of income and education report more problems with the caregiving role. Caregiver distress that results from attending to a family member with advanced cancer also varies by gender and by age. Some of the factors, responses, and strategies that researchers and therapists have considered in the context of family caregiving are listed below. Factors that affect caregiving roles: Demographic characteristics (for example, age, gender, culture) Disease situation (for example, cancer site, stage, and treatment) Caregiver responses to care demands: Mental health (for example, depression, anxiety, burnout, distress) Physical health (for example, fatigue, insomnia, poor diet, morbidity) Strategies to assist family caregivers: Informational (for example, conferences, books, pamphlets, websites) Therapeutic (for example, support groups, counseling, classes) More research is still needed, such as studies that determine how support for caregivers could be improved and how providers can help caregivers manage their new roles. Adapted from B. A. Given, C. W. Given, and S. Kozachik, "Family Support in Advanced Cancer." ©2001 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Question When caring for a family member with advanced cancer, caregivers are often faced with the demands of completing many tasks for the patient while maintaining employment and other personal responsibilities. This situation describes which role dynamic? A. Role conflict B. Role adjustment C. Role strain D. Role engulfment

Solution: A This is the correct answer. Role conflict occurs when the separate roles that an individual occupies come into conflict. The conflicting demands of being a caregiver and being an employee best describes a role conflict.

An ester is prepared by the method of direct esterification using an esterase enzyme as a catalyst. Which of the following modifications will NOT appreciably increase the final yield of ester? A. Using 2 times as much enzyme B. Using 2 moles of RCOOH instead of 1 mole C. Using 2 moles of RCH2OH instead of 1 mole D. Removing RCOOCH2R from the reaction mixture as it is formed

Solution: A This modification will increase the rate of formation, not the final yield of ester.

In which phase(s) will the MCS precursor be predominantly found after the extraction step? The MCS precursor will: A. be found in the aqueous layer. B. be found in the tert-butyl methyl ether layer. C. be distributed equally between the aqueous layer and the tert-butyl methyl ether layer. D. form a precipitate between the aqueous and tert-butyl methyl ether layers.

Solution: B The passage described the MCS precursor as being lipophilic, which means that it would not dissolve as readily in the aqueous layer. Therefore, it should be found in the tert-butyl methyl ether layer, which is hydrophobic.

A 2 kg mass and a 5 kg mass are connected by a massless cord suspended over a massless and frictionless pulley. If the acceleration due to gravity is g, what will be the acceleration of the masses after they are released from rest? A. 2g/7 B. 3g/7 C. 5g/7 D. g

Solution: B According to Newton's second law, the net force acting on the 5-kg mass is given by the expression Fnet= 5 kg × a1 = 5 kg × g - T, where a1 is the acceleration after the release and T is the tension in the cord. The net force acting on the 2-kg mass is given by the expression Fnet= 2 kg × a2 = 2 kg × g - T. Because the two masses move simultaneously but in opposite directions after they are released, a1 = -a2 = a. Substituting the expression T = 5 kg × (g - a) into the equation of motion of the 2-kg mass yields -2 kg × a = 2 kg × g - 5 kg × (g - a) = -3 kg × g + 5 kg × a. Then 7 kg × a = 3 kg × g, hence a = 3g/7.

Which molecule is NOT formed during the steps of glycolysis? A. Fructose 6-phosphate B. Oxaloacetate C. Pyruvate D. 2-Phosphoglycerate

Solution: B Among the options, oxaloacetate is the only molecule that is formed during the citric acid cycle, not glycolysis.

The "auteur theory" of film and its champions emerged in post-World War II France when a group of young film enthusiasts encountered a deluge of Hollywood cinema (embargoed for part of the war) and expressed dissatisfaction with what they saw as a banal tradition in French cinema. At its heart, auteur theory contends that the director of a film is its "author." Filmmaker and writer Alexandre Astruc's influential 1948 article, "La Camera-Stylo" (or "The Camera-Pen") challenged cinema's reliance on literature as its primary source of storytelling. Astruc was convinced that cinema would replace the novel, but believed that cinema must first become more like the novel, in that filmmakers could express their obsessions and thoughts, even abstract ones, at the level of profundity and significance of an essay or novel. Astruc's notion of the cinematic auteur resonated strongly with the younger director and critic Francois Truffaut, who argued for a new French cinema grounded in radical and political impulses that he believed only a true auteur could provide. Truffaut's 1953 manifesto for a new French cinema reiterated Astruc's stylistic emphasis: the cinematic is expressed by the visual elements in a film (known to scholars as mise-en-scene), not the literary word. Film scholar John Caughie argues that "the attention to mise-en-scene...is probably the most important contribution of [auteur theory] to the development of a precise and detailed film criticism, engaging with the specific mechanisms of visual discourse, freeing it from literary models, and from the liberal commitments which were prepared to validate films on the basis of their themes alone." In Truffaut's view, Jean Renoir, Robert Bresson, Jean Cocteau, and others were the great French auteurs who created a cinema in the spirit of the other arts, yet pure in its own specific properties. What about Hollywood? If the auteur in European cinema was readily identifiable as an artist of integrity and therefore produced a complete work of art, it was because these directors were afforded the opportunity to work outside of a strict studio environment. Is it possible for the auteur to be identified in the great factory-produced art of America? As far as American film critic Andrew Sarris was concerned, the answer was definitively yes. If the French recognized the importance of Hollywood directors, why were American critics unable to see their contributions? Yet to make the case that popular culture and mass-produced art was worthy of critical discussion was no easy matter. Sarris sought to bring critical analysis to Hollywood cinema against a background of critical condescension. To do this, he identified the film's director as the criterion of value and opposed the contemporary practice of film criticism that relied on reviewing the star, screenwriter, and/or producer. Sarris established a set of evaluative criteria to determine the worth of the American director as auteur. These included technical competence, the presence of a distinct visual style, and the emergence of "interior meaning," which, Sarris maintained, arose from the tension between the director and the conditions of production within which the director worked (the system of film studios in Hollywood, CA). Clearly, Sarris's methodology slipped dangerously into overly subjective analysis. His goal, however, in "Toward a Theory of Film History," was to shake film criticism out of its resistance to engage with Hollywood cinema. Foreign films, documentaries, and avant-garde or experimental films were not morally superior. Ed Buscombe recommends that critics study three factors to create alternatives to the auteur approach: the effects of cinema on society; the effects of society (including ideology, economics, and technology) on cinema; and the effects of films on other films. Adapted from D.A. Gerstner, "The Practices of Authorship." From D.A. Gerstner and J. Staiger, eds., Authorship and Film. ©2003 Taylor & Francis Books. Question Based on the passage, where do the views of Sarris and Buscombe most likely converge? A. Sarris's evaluative criteria are consistent with Buscombe's first recommendation. B. Sarris's discussion of interior meaning is consistent with Buscombe's second recommendation. C. Sarris's argument about foreign films and documentaries conflicts with Buscombe's third recommendation. D. Sarris's overall approach to American directors supports Buscombe's overall approach to film criticism.

Solution: B Buscombe's second recommendation is that critics should study "the effects of society (including ideology, economics, and technology) on cinema" (final paragraph). This is in accord with the passage representation of Sarris's view of interior meaning, "which, Sarris maintained, arose from the tension between the director and the conditions of production within which the director worked (the system of film studios in Hollywood, CA)"

Which structural feature does NOT characterize modern economic systems? A. Division of labor B. Craft apprenticeship C. Occupational specialization D. Structural interdependence

Solution: B Craft apprenticeship indicates a lengthy training under an individual who is considered to have mastered the knowledge and the skills in a specific craft. In this relationship, the apprentice learns everything related to the craft from the experienced craftsperson. Therefore, craft apprenticeship requires a highly individualized relationship between the experienced craftsperson and the apprentice. In modern economic systems, some occupations, such as artisanal and small-scale products and services, still have vestiges of a craft apprenticeship; however, this stage is no longer a characteristic of modern economic systems which require formal education and training for employment.

Alzheimer's disease (AD) is the most common form of dementia. Loss of sensorimotor skills also occurs in patients with AD, but not until a later stage of the disease. In Study 1, researchers used magnetoencephalography (MEG) to map the cortical response of a thumb twitch that was evoked by electrical stimulation of the median nerve in the arm. Participants were patients with AD and controls without AD. The results showed that for AD patients, there was a spatial shift in cortical activity that was independent of latency or strength of the electrical current, compared to controls. The cortical shift was located at a posterior region of the somatosensory cortex and was determined not to be a result of brain atrophy known to occur in AD. In Study 2, researchers used magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to determine whether pharmacological agents slowed brain atrophy in AD patients. Participants were individuals diagnosed with mild to moderate AD and healthy controls (CONT). Participants with AD were on daily drug treatments of the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (AchEI) donepezil, which is used for mild to moderate AD, or a combination therapy (COM) of AchEI and the NMDA antagonist memantine, used for moderate to severe AD. The effects of pharmacological treatment on brain atrophy (A), cognitive scores (B), and daily living scores (C) in AD patients were compared to CONT participants (Figure 1). The cognitive score was determined by word recall, word recognition, comprehension of spoken language, and word naming tasks. The daily living score was determined by the ability to do routine tasks such as grooming, eating, and walking independently. Figure 1 Effects of drug treatment in AD patients compared to controls on brain atrophy (A), cognitive score (B), and daily living scores (C) (Note: * indicates a significant difference as indicated from the other group.) Adapted from A. K. Brem, N. J. Atkinson, E. E. Seligson, and A. Pascual-Leone, Frontiers in Psychiatry. ©2013 Frontiers in Psychiatry; C. Salustri, F. Tecchio, F. Zappasodi, L. Tomasevic, M. Ercolani, F. Moffa, E. Cassetta, P. M. Rossini, and R. Squitti, International Journal of Alzheimer's Disease. ©2013 Hindawi Publishing Corporation. Question In Study 2, the primary function of donepezil is to: A. increase the antagonistic effects of acetylcholine. B. increase the duration of acetylcholine action. C. inhibit the release of acetylcholine. D. inhibit the formation of acetylcholine.

Solution: B Donepezil is an AchEI, in which acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Within the synaptic cleft, acetylcholine activates post-synaptic acetylcholine receptors. In breaking down acetylcholine, acetylcholinesterase decreases activity of acetylcholine within the synapse. Consequently, by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, donepezil will slow acetylcholine degradation. This will maintain acetylcholine activity within the synaptic cleft for a longer duration.

Weber's characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy suggest that most formal organizations will: A. train employees to conduct a variety of tasks. B. select employees based on technical qualifications. C. require employees to seek consensus in decisions. D. evaluate employees based on individualized criteria.

Solution: B Employment in a formal organization is based on technical qualifications; therefore, this option is consistent with the characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy.

Which of the following claims regarding the negative outcomes of occupational stress is best supported by evidence in the passage? A. Occupational stress costs U.S. businesses $150 billion per year. B. Occupational stress leads to short- and long-term illnesses. C. Occupational stress results in losses to businesses due to reduced productivity. D. Occupational stress results in economic losses due to absences.

Solution: B For this claim, the author provides specific supporting evidence; the author does not simply state that stress causes both "short- and long-term illnesses," but offers specific examples of both: "In the short term, stress can lead to emotional distress, stomach disorder, headaches, sleeplessness, and loss of energy; in the long term, it can contribute to serious illness and even premature death, most likely due to cardiovascular disease" (first paragraph). More detailed evidence for the disease process is also provided in paragraph 5: "In the short term, such physiological changes can result in minor physical symptoms, such as headache or upset stomach. Chronic elevation of heart rate and blood pressure can contribute to more serious health conditions and ultimately heart disease in some individuals."

Of the following novels from the romantic era, which best exemplifies the theories about them presented in the passage? A. A novel that examines the inner life of an orphaned girl who becomes a governess in an isolated Gothic manor B. A novel that examines the detrimental effects of chancery, the system during this time for distributing money from a will C. A novel that follows the exploits of a medieval knight facing various challenges, including issues of prejudice D. A novel that examines the devastating effects of repressed knowledge

Solution: B The author argues that novelists worked "to symbolize, to comprehend, and to interpret in terms of value the increasing complexities of modern society . . ." (paragraph 2). This example of a novel, which explores the economic effects of a real-world legal system, describes a novel doing what the author argues nineteenth-century novelists did: grappling with the realities of an increasingly complex modern world.

The presence of others has been shown to influence individual behavior in a number of ways, including improved performance on basic or familiar tasks and inhibited performance on more complex tasks. In a study, researchers hypothesized that individual attitudes would also be influenced by the presence of others, even when there was no direct communication between the individual and those surrounding them. Participants were randomly assigned to complete a simple card-sorting task administered by a male or female research assistant. Half of the participants were administered the card-sorting task alone, while the other half were administered the task at a table along with other participants. The administrator of the card-sorting task displayed a positive (smiling, consistent eye contact, and pleasant tone of voice) or negative (scowling, poor eye contact, impatient foot tapping) attitude by using a variety of nonverbal cues toward half of the participants in each condition. Therefore, participants were in one of four treatment conditions: negative administrator alone, positive administrator alone, negative administrator with others, and positive administrator with others. After completion of the task, participants were asked to independently complete a questionnaire about demographic variables (such as age, gender, and race/ethnicity) and to rate their attitude toward the administrator of the card-sorting task (0 = extremely negative; 10 = extremely positive). Figure 1 shows the average attitude ratings that participants of the study assigned to the administrator in each experimental condition. Figure 1 Participant attitude toward administrator based on grouping condition Adapted from S. L. Thomas, L. J. Skitka, S. Christen, and M. Jurgena. ©2002 Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc. Question Which conclusion demonstrates a fundamental attribution error when interpreting the results of the study? A. Dispositional attributions of others' behavior are weaker when attitude ratings are influenced by the presence of others than when alone. B. Dispositional attributions of others' behavior are stronger when attitude ratings are influenced by the presence of others than when alone. C. Situational attributions of others' behavior are weaker when attitude ratings are influenced when alone than when in the presence of others. D. Situational attributions of others' behavior are stronger when attitude ratings are influenced by the presence of others than when alone.

Solution: B Fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to attribute people's behavior to dispositional traits, even when situational explanations are available. A strong tendency for making dispositional attributions in one of the study conditions demonstrates the fundamental attribution error.

Which comparison best determines whether IFNγ is necessary for antidepressant-induced increases in the expression of p11? Expression levels of p11 in: A. wild-type mice versus IFNγ knockout mice, both treated with p11 B. wild-type mice versus IFNγ knockout mice, both treated with an SSRI C. wild-type mice treated with IFNγ versus wild-type mice treated with an SSRI D. wild-type mice treated with IFNγ versus wild-type mice treated with ibuprofen

Solution: B In order to study antidepressant-induced increases in p11 expression, both test groups must be given an antidepressant, or SSRI. To study the additional effect of IFNγ, one test group should be non-affected (wild-type) and the other should lack IFNγ (IFNγ knockout).

Expression of the rHuEPO gene in E. coli bacteria produced an EPO protein that did not increase erythrocyte production when injected into humans. The most likely reason for this observation is that: A. prokaryotic ribosomes interpret the genetic code in a completely different manner than do eukaryotic ribosomes. B. E. coli cannot glycosylate EPO in the same way that it is glycosylated by eukaryotic cells. C. bacteria are unable to secrete eukaryotic proteins. D. only viruses contain the necessary cellular machinery to properly express recombinant proteins.

Solution: B Lack of EPO function could be caused by a failure of EPO to activate EPOR. Glycosylation is a process that is crucial for the structural conformation of the protein, in which structure is a main determinant of whether a particular ligand activates a receptor. Thus, differences in protein glycosylation could prevent EPO from properly activating EPOR.

Based on the passage, what does Robert Lucas most likely mean by the "usual economic forces" (paragraph 3)? A. The tendency of businesses to locate near their competitors B. The tendency to consider expense as a primary driver of choice C. The factors that lead cost of living to be high in many urban areas D. The preference people show for the newest and most valuable items

Solution: B Lucas says that the "usual economic forces" would suggest that people should not be drawn to cities. The author goes on immediately to ask, "why would young designers live in New York when they could live more comfortably in other cities with much lower costs of living?" The implication is that this question describes the usual economic forces at work, which, in this case, would be the forces that prioritize the tangible items or circumstances (leading to comfort) that one can get for one's money.

The gene for red-green color blindness is recessive and X-linked. What will be the expected phenotype of the children of a color-blind woman and a man who is not color-blind? A. All of the children will have normal color vision. B. All of the daughters will have normal color vision; all the sons will be color-blind. C. All of the sons will have normal color vision; all the daughters will be color-blind. D. Half of the daughters will have normal color vision, and half of the daughters will be color-blind; all the sons will be color-blind.

Solution: B Males are XY and females are XX. All sons will inherit the X chromosome carrying the color-blind mutation from their mother along with a Y chromosome from their father, and will be color-blind. Daughters, however, will inherit one color-blind X chromosome from their mother and the wild-type X chromosome from their father. As the mutation is inherited in a recessive manner, daughters will have normal color vision, but will be carriers of the mutation.

The resting potential of a neuron is primarily a result of the: A. release of neurotransmitters from the axon. B. distribution of ions across the plasma cell membrane. C. action of neurotransmitters on the postsynaptic receptor. D. active transport of Ca2+ ions across the plasma cell membrane.

Solution: B Membrane potential refers to the difference in charge distribution on opposing sides of a cell membrane. Within a neuron, the resting potential is determined by the normal, uneven distribution of ions between the outside and the inside of a cell.

People tend to form social and romantic relationships with individuals that they see frequently. Which construct is most likely to explain this tendency? A. Looking-glass self B. Mere exposure effect C. Social comparison D. Social facilitation

Solution: B Mere exposure effect refers to the preference for familiar stimuli over novel stimuli. When individuals develop a romantic attraction to people they see frequently, this may be due to the mere exposure effect.

Individual nucleotides within the backbone of the regulatory RNAs discussed in the passage are held together by: A. disulfide bridges. B. phosphodiester linkages. C. hydrogen bonds. D. glycosidic linkages.

Solution: B Phosphodiester bonds link the successive nucleotides in the sequence of nucleic acids.

If the combined mass of the TPMT substrate and cofactor was determined before the enzymatically catalyzed reaction and then compared to the combined mass of the product and the cofactor after the reaction, the net change in molecular weight will be: A. +15 g/mol. B. 0 g/mol. C. -15 g/mol. D. -16 g/mol.

Solution: B TPMT is a transferase. It is transferring the methyl group from the cofactor to the substrate. Hence, the total net change in mass would be 0 g/mol.

The migration of Vietnam-era American draft and military resisters to Canada began as a trickle in the mid-1960s and grew into a fast-flowing stream by the end of the decade. Just over 100 resisters, known more commonly as "draft dodgers" and "deserters," came to Canada in 1964. By 1965, the number was more than ten times that. Over 3,000 resisters came in 1967; from 5,000 to 8,000 came yearly through 1973. These were just the men. More women than men came, most as partners and spouses, and some on their own. This was the largest politically motivated migration from the United States since the Loyalists moved north to oppose the American Revolution. Americans formed about 20 percent of all immigrants to Canada during the period of the Vietnam War—more than any other immigrant group. Altogether more than an estimated 50,000 young Americans migrated to Canada in opposition to U.S. draft and military laws. If Americans of all ages are counted, the number is closer to 100,000. It will never be known exactly how many came or eventually stayed. Neither government kept count. By the end of the war, Senator Edward Kennedy chaired Justice Committee hearings in the U.S. Senate and instructed Justice Department officials to come forward with lists of who they were pursuing for war-related infractions. This list included 4,500 names. The American government preferred to ignore the rest. The Canadian government required no information as to why individuals came to Canada, and this enforced ignorance helped keep some hostile immigration officials honest in their treatment of war resisters seeking to enter the country. These officials were the gatekeepers to Canada, and they used interpretations of immigration law and regulations to control entry, sometimes to the disadvantage of draft resisters and, in the early stages, usually to the disadvantage of military resisters. The border was the point where resistance to American selective service and military law intersected with Canadian immigration law. This migration had serious social and political consequences for the arriving Americans as well as for Canada as a whole. Most American resisters initially came to Vancouver, Montreal, and Toronto. Many who entered elsewhere wound up in Toronto. Vancouver's labor force was tightly unionized, making jobs hard to find, and Montreal presented language problems. English-speaking and increasingly cosmopolitan Toronto became the place of settlement for the largest number of American resisters. The American resisters arrived in Canada with greater certainty about their reasons for coming than about the directions they expected their lives would take in Canada. More than three decades later, with the resisters having lived more than half of their years in Canada, it is possible to assess how the move affected their lives. Americans tend to be patriotic, and are apt to be unsympathetic to citizens who leave the country during wartime in acts of legal and political defiance against their government. Perhaps this is why neither Americans in general nor American social scientists in particular have given much attention to the exiles of the Vietnam generation. Also, like much else that happens outside of America's borders, exiles tend to be ignored and forgotten. Those both inside and outside the war resistance movement often saw the American war exiles as either making a self-serving "end run" around American law or withdrawing from the war resistance by going to Canada. To those in the U.S., the exiles remain a largely unknown and marginalized group. Yet exile was the end neither of the expatriates' life stories nor of their significance. Adapted from J. Hagan, Northern passage: American Vietnam War resisters in Canada. ©2001 the President and Fellows of Harvard College. Question The passage author seems mainly concerned with: A. justifying the migration of American war resisters to Canada during the Vietnam War. B. introducing the subject of Americans who migrated to Canada during the Vietnam War. C. explaining the reasons Americans migrated to Canada during the Vietnam War. D. establishing why it was so easy for Americans to migrate to Canada during the Vietnam War.

Solution: B The author provides an introductory overview of the topic, explaining the timeline of the migration of American resisters in the 1960s and 1970s, the reasons why the resisters could migrate and remain in Canada, and the reasons why this topic is understudied.

The results of the Study 1 and(or) Study 2 suggest that patients with AD show: A. significant structural loss of brain cells that can be prevented by pharmacological treatment. B. structural loss due to atrophy, but reorganization may preserve functional activity in some brain regions. C. functional loss in memory and structural loss due to atrophy that can be reversed through pharmacological treatment. D. functional loss in motor skills required for daily living without significant structural loss due to atrophy.

Solution: B The results of Study 2 show that there is cell loss and atrophy in the brains of AD patients. The results of Study 1 indicate that the brains of AD patients show neural plasticity, and loss of cells may result in reorganization and preserve functional connectivity.

A person pushes on a rolling cart with a force that diminishes with time because the person must walk faster to keep up with the accelerating cart. How much work does the person generate while pushing on the cart? A. 500 J B. 1000 J C. 2000 J D. 4000 J

Solution: B The work generated by the person while pushing the cart is equal to the area under the force-distance line, according to the definition of work. The area is equal to 1/2 × (100 N - 0 N) × (20 m - 0 m) = (100 N × 20 m)/2 = 1000 J.

What is the chemical structure of a component found in four of the five cofactors used by Na+-NQR?

Solution: B This is the structure of flavin, found in four of the five cofactors used by Na+-NQR

Which of the following is closest to the wavelength of a photon whose energy is 2 eV? A. 740 nm B. 620 nm C. 450 nm D. 310 nm

Solution: B Using hc = 4.1 × 10-15 eV•s × 3 × 108 m/s = 1230 eV•nm, and λ = hc/E, then E = 2 eV corresponds to λ = (1230 eV•nm)/(2 eV) = 615 nm, which is closest to 620 nm.

In the 1890s French artist Claude Monet devoted most of his time to painting the same subject, again and again, often from the exact same position—but in different kinds of light and in different seasons. These works were first exhibited together as each group was completed, and many of Monet's admirers at the time hoped—as Monet himself did—that some of the series could be kept together. Instead they were sold to collectors all over the world, a dispersion that evokes the breaking up and scattering of the panels of so many Renaissance altarpieces. Monet's series works were never exhibited together again in quantity until a 1990 exhibition at the Art Institute of Chicago. Hanging at right angles to each other in a corner of that exhibition were two paintings of Norway's Mount Kolsaas, one of which is unfinished. A comparison of the two helps us to see what makes these paintings magical. While the unfinished picture is immediately pleasing, one needs to turn to the finished picture to find a surface swarming with tiny details, each related to the others in a kind of organic interdependence. It is because this work lives in such details that the paintings' deepest beauty does not survive in reproductions; the work must be seen up close, slowly, canvas by canvas. Viewed this way, the surface of each painting suggests a wealth of inner movement, as the eye progresses from one tiny colored splotch or line to the next, as if viewing some mysterious microscopic living world. Yet there is much more than sensual pleasure here. As is the case with a number of other nineteenth- and early twentieth-century paintings, each work contains a knot of paradoxes. The physical world is present in these paintings with stunning immediacy. But at the same time, one cannot resist the feeling that each work is as carefully arranged, composed, and synthetically created as the gardens Monet cultivated at his home in Giverny. The overall compositions are often very simple, yet they seem carefully selected and perfectly balanced—too perfect to be an accident of nature. A related paradox can also be found not only in Monet's work, but in the work of a number of his contemporaries, particularly Cezanne. These artists apply paint in varying degrees of thickness to produce relief effects. This slight three-dimensionality heightens the viewer's sense of the physicality of the object depicted, while making it even more apparent that one is viewing pigment. We live in a culture cluttered with objects, with a surfeit of media noise and a glut of images that encourage only the most superficial visual impressions. If seen with care, Monet's work can help inspire a renewed vision. Rather than offering us wall decorations whose effects never change, he offers us pictures that have some of the completeness, complexity, and mutability of a living being. To those who perceive all else on our planet in hierarchical terms, Monet offers images that represent all parts of the world, from trees to rocks to the polluted smoke over London, as equally alive. To a civilization whose hypertrophied industrialization is steadily breaking down all the life-producing interconnections nature built up over millions of years, he offers an image of birds, boats, cliffs, sky, air, and light as all part of the same ecosystem. Indeed, it would not be going too far to say that these works offer a genuinely ecological vision. Adapted from F. Camper, An Ecological Vision: Monet in the 90s. ©1990 the Author. Question Which statement, if assumed to be true, most challenges the author's claim regarding reproductions of Monet's art? A. Many reproductions of Monet's art are indistinguishable from the originals to the casual viewer. B. Reproductions of paintings are not necessarily photographic reproductions. C. A good reproduction can heighten detail. D. Many reproductions of Monet's art sell for very high prices.

Solution: C "It is because this work lives in such details that the paintings' deepest beauty does not survive in reproductions" (paragraph 3) suggests that reproductions lack detail, which makes this option correct as it challenges this implication.

Which factor is most likely a potential confounding variable in the study described in the final paragraph? A. The presence of the red food coloring in the second session B. Number of red wine words successfully produced C. Whether the food coloring can be tasted by subjects D. The obesity levels of the subjects

Solution: C A confounding variable is a variable that varies with the independent variable and affects the dependent variable. If the food coloring did have a detectable taste, this would systematically vary depending on the level of the independent variable, as only the colored white wine would be affected.

Based on Table 1, what is most likely associated with a reduction in gram-positive bacteria? A. Increase in acetate production B. Increase in use of acetate C. Decrease in pH D. Decrease in PS production

Solution: C As indicated by the table, Ruminococcaceae consume H+. Reduction in gram-positive Ruminococcaceae results into higher levels of H+ and, as a consequence, an acidic pH.

In μM•s-1 and μM, what should the approximate values of kcat/KM and Ki be, respectively, when [I] = 180 μM? at kcat (s-1) of 0.250, kM is 00.149 (mM-1s-1) A. 33.5 and 15.7 B. 75 and 30.1 C. 150 and 60.3 D. 300 and 120.6

Solution: C Based on the data in Table 1, increasing [I] has no effect on kcat/KM, so it should remain at 150 μM•s-1. Also, Ki is an equilibrium constant, so it will not be affected by a change in [I].

What is the value of Kb for the conjugate base of a weak organic acid that has a pKa of 5? A. 10−​2.5 B. 10−​5 C. 10−​9 D. 10−​10

Solution: C Because pKb = 14 - pKa, this is the Kb for the conjugate base of an acid with a pKa of 5.

Which receptors are responsible for the color vision necessary to detect the food coloring described in the passage? A. Rods, found mainly in the fovea of the eye B. Rods, found mainly in the periphery of the eye C. Cones, found mainly in the fovea of the eye D. Cones, found mainly in the periphery of the eye

Solution: C Cones are the photoceptors responsible for color vision, and are mainly located in the fovea of the eye.

Historically, some literary critics have routinely disparaged certain popular genres, such as mystery, thriller, or romance novels. Assuming this to be true, how does it relate to passage claims? A. It supports Astruc's approach to the role that literature should play in relation to film. B. It calls into question the evaluative criteria developed by Sarris. C. It suggests that the attitude opposed by Sarris is not confined to film critics. D. It suggests that advocates of the auteur theory may have misjudged the typical tendencies of critics.

Solution: C In paragraphs 4 and 5, the author writes, "Yet to make the case that popular culture and mass-produced art was worthy of critical discussion was no easy matter. Sarris sought to bring critical analysis to Hollywood cinema against a background of critical condescension." This scenario described in the prompt (deprecation of popular literature), then, suggests that the attitude Sarris resisted was hardly confined to film critics.

Consider an experiment that consists of two ionic solutions separated by a membrane that contains a ligand-gated potassium channel. The lack of current generation in response to addition of ligand is explained by: I. lack of potassium in either solution. II. the presence of potassium in only one solution. III. equal concentrations of potassium in the two solutions. A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

Solution: C Lack of current means no net movement of ions, which only happens when the concentration of ions is the same on both sides of the membrane or there are no ions present that the channel is specific for (K+).

When the covalent attachment to alliinase is broken, PLP is still held rigidly in the active site by a salt bridge and a π-stacking interaction. These interactions are most likely provided by the side chains of which amino acids? (Note: The salt bridging amino acid is listed first.) A. Asp and Tyr B. Glu and Ser C. Arg and Tyr D. Lys and Ser

Solution: C PLP has a negatively charged phosphate that can make a salt bridge with the positively charged side chain of Arg, and the aromatic ring in the side chain of Tyr can form a π-stacking interaction.

Interested in developing ways to treat human strokes, researchers are attempting to develop forms of EPO that act on CNS neurons without affecting erythrocyte production in the bone marrow. One benefit of such a form of EPO in stroke treatment would be to: A. promote apoptosis of damaged CNS neurons without affecting blood oxygen levels. B. limit neuronal cell death without causing an immediate decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. C. prevent apoptosis in the CNS without causing a harmful increase in blood viscosity. D. promote healing in the CNS without increasing the risk of developing tumors.

Solution: C Preventing apoptosis is the first step to treating the adverse conditions of stroke. However, EPO-dependent stimulation of erythrocyte production results in an increase in blood viscosity. For this reason, a drug that can prevent apoptosis without increasing blood viscosity will be ideal to treat the consequences of stroke.

An example of an employee's perceived threat to "psychological well-being" (paragraph 4) suggested by the passage is: A. missing days of work without reason. B. working at a physically challenging job. C. having an argument with a co-worker. D. purposely doing work slowly or incorrectly.

Solution: C The author describes a number of different types of job stressors: "Other stressors concern interpersonal relationships at work, such as conflicts with co-workers or abusive behavior by supervisors" (paragraph 2). This would be an example of a perceived threat to an employee's "psychological well-being," rather than to the "physical well-being," a distinction that is made in paragraph 2.

Occupational stress has been recognized as one of the most significant workplace health hazards for employees in the United States and other developed countries. In the short term, stress can lead to emotional distress, stomach disorder, headaches, sleeplessness, and loss of energy; in the long term, it can contribute to serious illness and even premature death, most likely due to cardiovascular disease. Occupational stress costs U.S. businesses more than $150 billion per year because of absence, lost productivity, and health costs. Furthermore, occupational stress seems to be endemic to the modern workplace, as surveys have shown that a large proportion of workers report feeling highly stressed at work. There are a number of workplace factors, called job stressors, that make jobs stressful. Some stressors concern the nature of the job and job tasks. For example, jobs with heavy workloads requiring long periods of attention and jobs that are highly repetitive and boring will likely be perceived as stressful. Other stressors concern interpersonal relationships at work, such as conflicts with co-workers or abusive behavior by supervisors. Finally, there are stressors in the organizational context, such as having insufficient resources to do the job or unfair payment systems. One of the most important factors in determining the level of occupational stress experienced is the perception of control. Control can be over any aspect of work, including location, scheduling, and how tasks are done. Jobs differ tremendously in the amount and type of control they allow employees. At one extreme is factory work in which the employee must work at precisely determined times, performing specified tasks at intervals determined by a machine. At the other extreme are high-level management positions in which tasks can be done at any place, at any time, and in almost any manner employees see fit. Throughout the workday, employees experience and perceive conditions and events, most of which are typically benign and paid little attention. Certain events, however, are perceived and interpreted as somehow threatening to physical or psychological well-being—these are the perceived job stressors. The stressors result in negative emotional reactions, perhaps most commonly anger or anxiety. These emotions lead to strains, both behaviors and physical conditions associated with stress. Perceived control is an important element at all stages of this process. Job stressors can include anything that a person finds threatening, including the amount of work and work demands, constraints that interfere with work or prevent employees from getting their work done, interpersonal conflicts among employees, and uncertainty about tasks. Behavioral strains consist of actions people take to cope with stressors and the associated emotions. They can be constructive acts that successfully deal with stressors or acts that are destructive to the individual and the employer. Physical strains are related to both the fatigue of hard work and the physiology of negative emotion. Both kinds of physical strains can increase physiological arousal, resulting in elevated blood pressure and heart rate, as well as secretion of so-called stress hormones, such as adrenaline, into the bloodstream. In the short term, such physiological changes can result in minor physical symptoms, such as headache or upset stomach. Chronic elevation of heart rate and blood pressure can contribute to more serious health conditions and ultimately heart disease in some individuals. Compared with individuals who perceive they have low control, individuals who perceive they have high control will be less likely to interpret the environment as stressful, will have lower negative emotional responses, and will exhibit less strain. Adapted from P. E. Spector, "Employee Control and Occupational Stress." ©2002 American Psychological Society. Question Based on the passage, an employee's heavy smoking could be considered to be: A. an occupational stressor for the smoker. B. a buffer between control and stress. C. a destructive behavioral strain. D. a constructive coping behavior.

Solution: C The author explains that "Behavioral strains consist of actions people take to cope with stressors and the associated emotions. They can be constructive acts . . . or acts that are destructive to the individual and the employer" (paragraph 5). As heavy smoking is clearly harmful to the individual, and potentially to their employer, if they become sick, and is often used as a coping behavior," the smoking would be an example of a destructive behavioral strain.

If the energy of a photon is doubled, which of the following properties of the photon will also double? A. Amplitude B. Wavelength C. Frequency D. Intensity

Solution: C The energy of a photon is given by the relationship E = hf. If E is doubled, then frequency f is doubled, too, as Planck's constant h does not change.

Based on the information in the passage, the mutation that causes the LP phenotype is most likely located in: A. an intron within the lactase gene. B. the coding sequence of the lactase gene. C. an enhancer sequence of the lactase gene. D. the stop codon at the end of the lactase gene.

Solution: C The enhancer is a DNA region that is able to bind transcriptional activators in order to increase the expression of a particular gene. Since LP is caused by continuous lactase synthesis, this is the region most likely targeted by the mutation. Specifically, the mutation makes it easier for transcriptional activators to bind an enhancer sequence.

It has become fashionable, partly due to the work of urban studies theorist Richard Florida, to think of cities as big idea labs. While this theory is not incorrect, it is incomplete. Cities are indeed filled with the modern-day equivalent of the luftmenschen (the term translates from Yiddish as people who "lived on air"). In many sectors of the "creative industry," however, there comes a point when something tangible must be produced, and when, because of financial or time constraints, it makes sense to have it produced locally. Locating manufacturing close to the site of creation is not simply a matter of convenience; the process of production can inform and shape the creative process itself. Even as New York City was gaining in stature as a fashion capital in the latter half of the twentieth century, however, its share of U.S. garment production declined from a commanding 90 percent to less than 10 percent. Rodger Cohen, second-generation owner of Regal Originals, identifies himself as the only unionized pleater left in the city; in the 1980s, there were 400 of them. Although this development resulted from a complex mixture of forces, suffice it to say that advances in communications and transportation diminished New York City's inherent geographic advantage in manufacturing. The question, then, is not so much why the garment industry in New York City has shrunk, but rather why there continues to be a garment district at all. In asking this question, we might as well be asking why cities continue to exist. "If we postulate only the usual economic forces," observed economist Robert Lucas, "cities should fly apart." Why would young designers live in New York when they could live more comfortably in other cities with much lower costs of living? The answer is that people come to be near other people—to draw upon their expertise, to exchange ideas, to compete. Firms locate near one another to gain a sense of what the competition is doing, to hire talent, and to benefit from the kind of concentrated presence that offers one-stop shopping to out-of-town buyers. So the reason a city like New York still thrives, even after losing most of its industrial base, argues Richard Florida, is that economic success "no longer revolves around simply making and moving things." Instead, he writes, "it depends on generating and transporting ideas." Just as neuroscientists speculate that higher intelligence correlates with the number of network connections between neurons in the brain and the speed with which they communicate, the cities that function best are those with the "highest velocity" of ideas, and the most efficient and robust links between people. The service suppliers of the garment district act as an informal incubator. That word may conjure gleaming office parks more than it does old buildings with questionable elevators, but the end result is the same. The loss of even a single fabric supplier, like a ripple in a pond, is felt everywhere. Creativity in fashion, as in any art, can originate anywhere: from a splash of color on a billboard to a new stitch. It is not surprising that cities tend to be hubs of creativity—there are more things and people to be inspired by, more knowledge transfer, and, importantly, more ways to make creative ideas into reality. Urban planners should not necessarily try to preserve a specific industry, but to enable the seedbeds that help create and sustain an empire of images and aura such as New York City's fashion industry. Based on the passage, which statement is most likely to be true of luftmenschen? A. They tend to value innovation but do not necessarily have innovative ideas. B. They are more likely to be interested in the present than in the future. C. They are likely to be less pragmatic than theoretical. D. They are rarely found outside of urban environments.

Solution: C The passage describes the luftmenschen as those who "lived on air" (first paragraph) and then contrasts the presence of people like this with the reality that "there comes a point when something tangible must be made." These two things together suggest that the luftmenschen are less practical than theoretical.

Researchers measured the NF- κB occupancy of the Cxcl2 promoter following exposure to TNFα both in the presence and absence of TH5487. Based on the data presented in the passage, which figure depicts the expected results?

Solution: C The passage notes that cells increase ROS production in the presence of pro-inflammatory signals such as TNFα and that this leads to generation of 8-oxo-G. OGG1 binding of 8-oxo-G within the promoter drives NF-κB recruitment to the promoter. This means that NF-κB occupancy of the promoter should increase when the cell is exposed to TNFα.

Many blues musicians in the United States, particularly artists who grew up in the South during the first half of the twentieth century, experienced economic and other challenges and are often depicted as struggling artists with limited resources. At first glance, the Delta Blues Museum in Clarksdale, MS, seems not to portray blues artists in this conventional way. For instance, one exhibit chronicling the history of the blues includes a picture of Robert Johnson holding an acoustic guitar and wearing a fashionable pinstripe suit with a handkerchief neatly tucked in the front pocket. One of only two surviving photographs of Johnson, the picture was taken in a professional studio. The museum even contains a life-size mannequin of Muddy Waters dressed in an immaculate white suit and holding an expensive Gibson electric guitar. Beyond these visual representations of the artists as well-dressed and successful musicians, brief narratives from blues experts acknowledge the musicians' important contributions to American popular culture. Upon closer examination, however, these symbols of success are overshadowed by the museum's concerted efforts to construct what many people perceive as more "authentic" images of blues musicians. This strategy takes various forms. First, examples of blues artists' material struggles abound in the collection. In a memorial to Big Joe Williams, the guitarist is pictured playing his guitar on his porch. Although Williams is the focal point of the picture, the deteriorating porch and exterior wall, along with what appears to be a dirt driveway, suggest the musician's limited means. There are also a number of tattered instruments on display. Many of the exhibit's acoustic guitars, for example, are disfigured, reflecting the difficult and uncompromising lives of their former owners. The wooden body of Big Joe Williams's guitar, for example, is filled with scratches and nicks, the frets are worn, and the finish on the guitar neck is missing in several places, revealing a black undercoat. Visitors will also find well-used harmonicas and percussion instruments protected in a glass display case. Although technically "silent," the instruments play a song of the artist's history, craft, struggle, and legacy. While one cannot deny that many of these musicians were forced to survive in a world of poverty and grueling, labor-intensive employment, it is also true that some blues musicians, including B.B. King, Buddy Guy, Robert Cray, and others, amassed considerable personal fortunes. The museum's exhibits are constructed to satisfy the expectations of tourists who seek out images of what they perceive as an authentic blues culture. This display strategy not only works to legitimize and reinforce the image of the authentic blues singer, it also embodies larger marketing and promotional strategies designed to perpetuate the romantic vision of the Mississippi Delta as the mythical birthplace of the blues. For many blues tourists, the Delta serves as the last bastion of an authentic blues culture apparently untainted by the more commercial aspects of marketing and tourism. Despite this perception, several Southern states are capitalizing on the popularity of the blues and the potential financial windfall generated from tourists. According to ethnomusicologist Jeff Todd Titon, recent efforts reflect the "new blues tourism," an organized attempt to create a mediated experience for tourists ironically seeking an "authentic" and "genuine" blues experience. The new blues tourism is an example of niche tourism that capitalizes on the efforts of communities to accentuate their cultural heritage in an effort to increase their revenue from tourism as an industry. Adapted from S.A. King, Memory, mythmaking, and museums. ©2006 Southern Communication Journal. Question Which of the following is NOT offered as a part of the unconventional representations of blues musicians described in the first paragraph? A. Stylish clothes B. Professional photographs C. Elegant surroundings D. Valuable instruments

Solution: C The surroundings of Johnson and Waters are not discussed.

The graph represents the energy change in an exothermic reaction: A + B → C Which of the following expressions gives the activation energy for the reaction? A. E3 − E1 B. E2 − E1 C. E3 − E2 D. None of the above

Solution: C This expression gives the energetic barrier that the reactants must overcome before forming product. It is known as the activation energy.

Due to the assertion that the local environment influences adolescents' norms and values, the ecological perspective is most similar to which sociological theory? A. Social strain theory B. Disengagement theory C. Differential association theory D. Labeling theory

Solution: C This is the correct answer. Differential association theory focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment. The ecological perspective focuses on the risk factors in an adolescent's local environment. Therefore, both approaches focus on how an individual's social environment might impact their norms and values.

The period during which the romantic sensibility was created and came to dominate English poetry (roughly, 1775-1910) was the period that ushered in modern times. During it, England was industrialized; political power shifted within the nation; and scientific rationalism became increasingly important and influential. By 1800, a workable steam engine had been perfected. During the first two decades of the nineteenth century, the textile industry moved from "cottage production," like the clothes-making described in Wordsworth's poem "Michael," to a centralized system of factories and power looms. The widespread introduction of railroads occurred during the 1840s. By 1871, 55 percent of the population lived in villages, towns, or cities (as compared to 40 percent in 1800). In 1789, the French Revolution began; in 1832, the English Parliament was reconstituted so as to give heavier representation to the new urban bourgeois and less power to a group of privileged landowners; and throughout the last half of the century, English voting rights were being continually extended. Scientific rationalism invaded social studies with the theories of laissez-faire economists and utilitarian philosophers. While such philosophers laid increasing emphasis on the satisfaction of humanity's animal needs, the theories of Darwin and his predecessors dramatized the animality of human nature. In general, then, the period was one of increasing urbanization, mechanization, collectivization, and accumulation of financial power, and it was marked by a general decline of traditional attitudes and beliefs together with an increase in scientific skepticism, curiosity, and discovery. These changes affected imaginative literature in two markedly different ways. In the novel, which during the nineteenth century assumed major importance as a literary form, a powerful effort was made to symbolize, to comprehend, and to interpret in terms of value the increasing complexities of modern society, both in respect to individuals and to wide areas of relationship between individuals. The scope of the novel became vast, though simpler and more limited in texture than the greatest poetry. The important poets of that period—who were never the same people as the important novelists—reacted otherwise to their era. In general it may be said that they reacted away from most of the historical tendencies described above. Frequently the era drove them either inward to sensitive analyses of the individual soul or outward to remote and fascinating nations or centuries. To urbanization and the factory they opposed a natural landscape and rural countryside valued as never before; to collectivization they opposed an individualism almost anarchic in some of its forms; to animalism they opposed the spirit; to rationalism, the creative imagination; to skepticism, faith. By contrast to the contemporary novelists and to the poets of earlier centuries, they seem to have sought less to understand their world than to understand themselves. All my works, said the most famous poet of the era, are fragments of a great confession. For one reason or another, most of the major nineteenth-century poets had a hard struggle to win public recognition; and the modern popular stereotype of artists as iconoclastic, maladjusted, highly individualistic people in revolt against their era and misunderstood by family, friends, and the public alike dates from the romantic movement. It is not a conception that can be made to fit the known facts about the lives of all great poets—Virgil, Chaucer, and Shakespeare are among those who appear to be salient exceptions to it—but it applies with reasonable accuracy to others. Adapted from W. Frost, Romantic and Victorian Poetry ©1961 Prentice-Hall, Inc. Question The passage author most strongly implies which of the following ideas about the novel? A. The novel shared with poetry much of its romantic ideals. B. Novels were written by authors who could not handle the real world. C. The novel was not a major literary form before the nineteenth century. D. Novels were written by people who were primarily interested in acquiring financial power.

Solution: C This option is supported by the author's characterization of the novel: "In the novel, which during the nineteenth century assumed major importance as a literary form. . . " (paragraph 2). If the novel "assumed major importance" in the nineteenth century, the author then implies that it was not a "major literary form" before then.

Which statement is supported by the results of Study 2? Participants treated with: A. AchEI showed significantly better protection from brain atrophy compared to those treated with combination therapy. B. combination therapy showed significantly better cognitive ability compared to those in the AchEI group. C. combination therapy showed significant behavioral impairment compared to participants in the CONT group D. AchEI showed significant cognitive and behavioral improvement compared to those in the COM group

Solution: C This option is supported by the results because Figure 1, C. shows that daily activity scores of controls are significantly higher than those treated with combination therapy. This suggests that the combination therapy participants experience more behavioral impairment compared to control participants, as operationalized by daily activity.

A patient who experiences low self-esteem seeks the help of a therapist. The therapist finds that the patient's self-esteem problems started after his current relationship began. The patient describes his current partner as being highly successful and competent and reports feeling inferior to his partner. He reports that he "hates feeling that way." He has stopped attending social events with his partner because such events elevate his feelings of inferiority. However, despite his feelings of inferiority and envy, the patient also reports having extreme admiration and love for his partner. When researching for the case, the therapist reads a study on interpersonal attraction. The researchers asked participants to rate their actual self and their ideal self on 50 personality dimensions. These ratings were then used to develop two scores as proxy measures of actual and ideal self. Then, the participants were told that they were going to be paired with potential dates and were given information on their potential dates' scores on the same personality dimensions. The dates' scores were made up by the researchers to be either similar to or different from each participant's actual self or ideal scores. The study showed that participants reported greater interest in dates who were similar to their ideal selves than in dates who were similar to their actual selves. The therapist finds the study relevant to the patient's case but is reluctant to make direct inferences because she suspects that the participants' ratings of actual self may have been influenced by social desirability. The therapist decides that the self-evaluation maintenance model (SEM) may help explain the patient's case. The model posits that upward comparison (comparing oneself with a more successful other) can lead to negative self-evaluation, which causes psychological distress. The individual is motivated to eliminate this distress, either by downplaying the relevance of the dimension of comparison (for example, if the patient's partner is a successful mathematician, the patient can state that mathematical skills are not that important) or by weakening the social bonds with the successful other. Question Which statement is NOT a plausible application of psychodynamic theory to explain psychological responses to upward comparison? A. The superego demands that the individual should either match or surpass the partner on the dimension of comparison. B. The ego fails to satisfy the demands of the superego, and the individual experiences anxiety. C. The id attempts to use the pleasure principle to resolve the subconscious conflict caused by the superego. D. The ego uses rationalization by suggesting that the dimension of comparison is unimportant.

Solution: C While the id does operate according to the pleasure principle, according to psychodynamic theory, it is the responsibility of the ego and not the id to resolve subconscious conflict caused by the superego. Thus, this statement is not a plausible application of psychodynamic theory to explain psychological responses to upward comparison.

Based on the passage, the microbiome of CD-affected individuals will result in which physiological change? A. Increased polypeptide digestion B. Slower dietary fiber absorption C. Increased amount of propionate D. Decreased immune tolerance

Solution: D As explained in the passage, molecules such as butyrate, acetate, and propionate inhibit the inflammatory response against commensal bacteria of the GI tract. CD is an inflammatory condition, in which Table 1 indicates that many bacteria producing these anti-inflammatory molecules are reduced during CD. This is consistent with the interpretation that inflammation observed during CD is caused by decreased production of propionate, butyrate, and acetate, which decreases immune tolerance of commensal bacteria.

Based on Reaction 1, when 1.0 atm of CO(g) completely reacts to form carbon suboxide at 550°C in a sealed container, what is the final pressure in the container? 4CO(g) → C3O2(g) + CO2(g) A. 0.00 atm B. 0.10 atm C. 0.25 atm D. 0.50 atm

Solution: D Based on Reaction 1, 4 mol CO(g) forms 2 mol of gases. Because of the direct relationship between P and n at constant V and T, that means 1.0 atm CO(g) makes 0.50 atm of gases.

Based on the passage, which factor(s) was(were) likely to have influenced the size of New York's garment district? Great and unanticipated increases in manufacturing by competitor countries bumped the United States out of the lead. E-mail and inexpensive long-distance phone calls made it less necessary to be in close physical proximity to others in the industry. Flights to and from the United States increased in frequency and speed, while simultaneously decreasing in price. A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

Solution: D Both options II and III are supported as factors influencing the size of New York City's garment district. The author says: "suffice it to say, advances in communications and transportation diminished New York City's inherent geographic advantage in manufacturing" (paragraph 2). Option III is an example of an advance in transportation, while II is an advance in communication.

Comparing the bars for RB transfection with those of RB and CDK4 transfection in Figure 2 shows that: A. mutant RB is better at arresting cells in G1 than wild-type RB. B. CDK4 transfection causes more mutant RB to be phosphorylated. C. more cells are G1 arrested in CDK4-transfected cells. D. CDK4 transfection results in fewer cells being G1 arrested.

Solution: D Compared to RB transfection, transfection of both RB and CDK4 leads to a decrease in the number of cells in arrested G1. This observation was consistent among all of the RB proteins assessed.

In subsequent research, the study is expanded to examine how high-SES African American adolescents adapt to predominantly white neighborhoods. Which concept would be LEAST applicable to this follow-up study? A. Front stage self B. Intersectionality C. Social role conflict D. Demographic transition

Solution: D Demographic transition refers to the association between the level of socioeconomic development and the balance between fertility and mortality rates in a society. Because this approach focuses on the changes at the societal level, it would be least applicable to the follow-up study which requires a micro-level approach.

A graph of miRNA/RNA denaturation versus melting temperature is shown. The arrow in the graph indicates the curve representing the melting temperature for which miRNA, assuming 100% base complementarity with its target sequence? A. miR-142-5p B. miR-223 C. miR-10b D. miR-30a-3p

Solution: D In nucleic acid duplex structures, higher GC-content correlates with more stable duplex and thus higher melting temperature. miR-30a-3p has 11 G+C, and comparatively has the highest GC-content than the other miRs.

Blood glucose levels in a healthy individual as a function of time are shown. In response to changing glucose levels, which events occur at time points A and B? A. Hepatocytes secrete glucagon at point A, and the pancreatic alpha cells secrete insulin at point B. B. Pancreatic alpha cells secrete glucagon at point A, and pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin at point B. C. Pancreatic alpha cells secrete insulin at point A, and hepatocytes secrete glucagon at point B. D. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin at point A, and pancreatic alpha cells secrete glucagon at point B.

Solution: D Insulin is secreted in response to high blood glucose levels (point A) by pancreatic beta cells. Conversely, glucagon is secreted in response to low blood glucose levels (point B) from pancreatic alpha cells.

If the 25 μF capacitor in the defibrillator in Figure 1 is replaced with a 30 μF capacitor, what new power supply setting would produce the same amount of charge? A. 3600 V B. 3500 V C. 3000 V D. 2500 V

Solution: D On the 25 μF capacitor, the power supply stores a charge of 25 μF × 3000 V = 75 mC. On the 30 μF capacitor, the same charge is stored by a power supply that has a voltage of 75 mC/30 μF = 2500 V.

Based on the elaboration likelihood model, which type of processing was most likely induced by the administrator when interacting with the participants? A. High elaboration processing B. Central route processing C. Careful processing D. Peripheral route processing

Solution: D Peripheral characteristics of a communication refer to the message characteristics that are not central to the information and arguments presented in the message, such as the emotional appeals made to the audience or characteristics of the individual presenting the message. Peripheral route processing occurs when peripheral characteristics drive an individual's processing and attitude formation in a given social setting. In the passage example, the administrator uses peripheral cues (their behavior) to affect participants' attitudes toward them.

Based on the passage, which of the following is closest to the pressure exerted on the chest by a 10 × 5 cm rectangular paddle during defibrillation? (Note: 1 Pa = 1 N/m2.) A. 5 kPa B. 10 kPa C. 15 kPa D. 20 kPa

Solution: D Pressure is the ratio of the force applied perpendicular to a surface and the area of the surface. Because the normal component of the force is 100 N and the area is 10 cm × 5 cm = 50 cm2 = 0.005 m2, the pressure is (100 N)/(0.005 m2) = 20 kPa.

Which energy features characterize the energy profile of Reaction 2? A. High Ea and ΔG > 0 B. High Ea and ΔG < 0 C. Low Ea and ΔG > 0 D. Low Ea and ΔG < 0

Solution: D Reaction 2 was described as occurring spontaneously and rapidly. This means that ΔG < 0 (spontaneous) and with a low Ea (rapid).

Early experiences with caregivers become internalized into a working model of expectations about self and others that can provide the basis for subsequent responses to stressful experiences. Attachment theory research has explored how this internalized working model influences the way in which individuals respond to stress and utilize coping resources. A study examined the relationship between attachment style, distress, and use of coping strategies to regulate emotion in a sample of ambulance workers following exposure to a critical incident. Attachment style was measured with a questionnaire that assessed ambulance workers' feelings about close relationships along three attachment dimensions: secure, avoidant, and anxious-ambivalent. Only those ambulance workers whose scores reflected avoidant attachment were retained as participants in the study. Ambulance workers were then asked to identify a critical incident they encountered in the past. Use of coping strategies and support seeking within 24 hours of responding to a critical incident were measured. Additionally, somatic complaints, symptoms of burnout, depression, and distress, including recalling physical and emotional stress responses, were measured. Results revealed that an avoidant attachment style was significantly associated with distress and symptoms of burnout, depression, and somatic complaints following exposure to a critical incident. This attachment style was also significantly associated with few social contacts, low satisfaction with social support, and maladaptive coping strategies. Adapted from J. Halpern, R. G. Maunder, B. Schwartz, and M. Gurevich, "Attachment Insecurity, Responses to Critical Incident Distress, and Current Emotional Symptoms in Ambulance Workers," Stress Health. ©2012 John Wiley and Sons, Ltd. Question Assume that the researchers wanted to measure a behavioral component of ambulance workers' emotion regulation following exposure to a critical incident. Based on the study, which component is most likely to be assessed? A. Journal entries of ambulance workers' emotional reactions following the critical incident B. Ambulance workers' heart rates following the critical incident C. Ratings of likeability from coworkers following the critical incident D. Observations of workers' social interactions with others following the critical incident

Solution: D Social interactions are indicators of the behavioral component of an emotional response, and may be used for assessment when the researchers are interested in the behavioral markers of emotions.

If participants in the study rated the administrator's attitude more inconsistently in the "Alone" condition than in the "With Others" condition, then: A. the mean in the "Alone" condition would be higher than in the "With Others" condition. B. the mode in the "Alone" condition would be higher than in the "With Others" condition. C. the median in the "Alone" condition would be higher than in the "With Others" condition. D. the standard deviation in the "Alone" condition would be higher than in the "With Others" condition.

Solution: D Standard deviation is a measure of variance which is indicative of consistency of the scores in a data set. The question suggests that participants provided more consistent ratings in the "With Others" condition, suggesting that the "Alone" condition would have higher standard deviation, as described in the option.

Based on the passage, the "many blues tourists" referred to in paragraph 4 seek an experience most like: A. that of theater-goers who prefer to see plays performed in the language they were written in. B. that of film-goers who generally attend more popular films before they see more obscure films. C. that of sports fans who attend professional sporting events but rarely watch them on television. D. that of viewers who prefer to see artists' drawings that were never advertised for sale.

Solution: D The "many tourists" mentioned in the passage seek a blues culture "apparently untainted by the more commercial aspects of marketing and tourism" (paragraph 4). This is the only option that mentions an interest in something that is not for sale.

If the small bumps seen when half of the membrane is peeled away were chemically shown to consist of the lipid cholesterol, how would the Fluid Mosaic Model have to be modified? A. The proteins would have to be embedded less than halfway through the membrane. B. There could be no proteins in the membrane. C. The lipids would have to be embedded in the proteins. D. It would not necessarily have to be altered, but there would be less evidence supporting it.

Solution: D The Fluid Mosaic Model indicates that the hydrophilic regions of proteins are found on the membrane surfaces, while the hydrophobic regions are buried among phospholipid tails. This arrangement allows proteins to span the membrane. Consistently, the passage mentions that, upon peeling back the top membrane layer, small bumps are observed. This is consistent with the idea that proteins span the membrane. If these bumps were identified as cholesterol, this does not necessarily disprove the model. Instead, it is possible that membrane-spanning proteins remain adhered to the leaflet that has been peeled back.

Which physical property does NOT change with the amino acid substitution made in TPMT*5? A. Molecular weight B. Hydrophobicity C. Hydrogen bonding capability D. Net charge

Solution: D The L49S variant (TPMT*5) has the same charge as wild-type TPMT because the amino acid residues do not have charge.

The prevailing approach to improving population health emphasizes "shifting the mean" through prevention efforts that target large groups at high risk for particular conditions, or through mass interventions that encourage small but universal changes in individual behavior. This approach encourages the search for "blockbuster" public health interventions that can have the largest effects on determinants of population health and individual behavior. New business models, however, demonstrate that selling small quantities of many "niche" items can be more profitable than selling a few blockbuster items. In The Long Tail, Chris Anderson argues that niche markets—subsets of consumers interested in particular products—are more accessible today than ever, and that although the demand for any particular niche-focused product will be limited, there are so many niches that together these products make up a huge market. He mentions a large online bookstore, in which half of the top 10,000 books sold less than one copy per quarter. Understanding how and why businesses profit from this "long tail" of niche products (in other words, focusing on consumers at the ends of the distribution curve) has the potential to transform our thinking about strategies to improve public health. Health messages can be thought of as products targeted to specific subgroups of the population, many of which bear a disproportionate burden of disease because of heightened exposure to risk or unequal access to beneficial or health-promoting resources. Such population subgroups might include some racial and/or ethnic minorities, populations with low income, and those without health insurance. Focusing on vulnerable populations could work to complement, rather than replace, a population approach. The number and complexity of niche markets increase exponentially when we consider how certain illnesses and preventive services affect different population subgroups, with different constellations of demographic, geographic, and health status risk factors. Approaches might be targeted to groups as diverse as migrant farmworkers in rural communities, parents of children with asthma, and Alaskan natives aged 50 years and older. Creating effective, tailored health resources for this near-infinite number of combinations of subgroups and health issues is a daunting task. Traditionally, local organizations have created resources targeted to particular users, but they are unlikely to have the kind of funding, capacity, and infrastructure that larger organizations do. Furthermore, because there are few mechanisms for efficient sharing among niche-serving organizations, duplication is bound to occur. One study identified 116 different types of printed cancer education materials that targeted African Americans. The Internet has been invaluable in facilitating the distribution of niche products, making it easy for consumers to find niche products through the use of filters, recommendation systems, and ratings. The opportunity to sample an unfamiliar product before buying it—to read a chapter from a book, for instance—lowers the consumer risk. Finally, the ability to customize a product to a user's needs or preferences can increase its appeal. In order to create health communication materials targeted to specific populations, organizations can take advantage of Internet-based resources. The Make It Your Own (MIYO) system is an online tool that helps users create health communication materials for the specific populations they serve. Users "build" materials by choosing from a menu of evidence-based approaches recommended by the Guide to Community Preventive Services, then customize them by choosing from a library of images, messages, and graphic designs. MIYO renders their creations into electronic documents that can be printed, e-mailed, texted, used online, or distributed in other ways to target audiences. This approach might work as well for other evidence-based public health solutions, such as campaigns, social marketing, behavioral interventions, or worksite and/or school-based programs. Which statement would most weaken the likelihood that the MIYO system would help to create evidence-based public health solutions? A. The targeted users of the MIYO system are public health organizations rather than individuals. B. Incorporating the use of the Internet is not the only way to apply the long tail approach to public health interventions. C. The MIYO system does not necessarily make the goal of "blockbuster" interventions less desirable. D. Many public health challenges require social or political solutions that digital products and information alone cannot provide.

Solution: D The MIYO system is intended to address public health challenges, and the MIYO system depends on digital products and information. So if digital products and information cannot necessarily provide responses to "many public health challenges," this would clearly weaken the chance that MIYO could help to create the necessary solutions.

A prototype exists of a solar-fueled train with cars that are coupled electronically and that can decouple smoothly at branching points to carry passengers to their destinations without a change of trains. Experts say that this transportation system would eliminate traffic problems. How would the passage author probably answer the objection that the system would be too expensive to build? A. By counseling patience until a cheaper solution is found B. By predicting eventual savings in reduced highway costs C. By pointing out the inconvenience of traffic congestion D. By urging policy makers to plan ahead with imagination

Solution: D The author compares engineering to creative and imaginative practices like fiction writing and suggests that engineers create "A fiction with a variable structure—it is this flexibility to which we must aspire in tracking a technological project" (final paragraph). This call to aspire to flexibility when implementing projects is very similar to urging policy makers to plan ahead with imagination.

For which of the following assertions does the author provide an explanation in the passage? A. "More women than men came..." B. "The American government preferred to ignore the rest." C. "This migration had serious social and political consequences..." D. "Many [resisters] who entered elsewhere wound up in Toronto"

Solution: D The author gives several reasons as to why many of the resisters/migrants eventually moved to Toronto: "Vancouver's labor force was tightly unionized, making jobs hard to find, and Montreal presented language problems. English-speaking and increasingly cosmopolitan Toronto became the place of settlement for the largest number of American resisters" (paragraph 4).

Why does the author most likely emphasize that "the work must be seen up close, slowly, canvas by canvas" (paragraph 3)? A. To explain the lack of museum exhibitions of Monet's series works B. To suggest that Monet's work contains imperfections C. To indicate how the paradoxes in Monet's work can be understood D. To support a claim regarding the value of Monet's work

Solution: D The author recommends looking closely and slowly in order to see the detail, and it is in the detail that the author sees the value of Monet's work (paragraph 3 and especially final paragraph).

Based on information in the passage, one could predict that which of the following people would experience the LEAST amount of stress? A. A businessperson whose partner has taken charge of all major decisions B. A soldier whose daily routine is tightly structured and controlled by superiors C. A chronically ill patient whose physician makes all the decisions about the patient's treatment D. An athlete whose coach expects input from team players on which play or strategy to employ

Solution: D The author writes that "Compared with individuals who perceive they have low control, individuals who perceive they have high control will be less likely to interpret the environment as stressful . . ." (final paragraph). The person described in this option, who is part of a team where the members' "input" is expected and presumably welcomed by the coach, would thus be likely to exhibit less stress than the people described in each of the other options, none of whom are given decision-making power or input. Khan

Blood flows with a speed of 30 cm/s along a horizontal tube with a cross-section diameter of 1.6 cm. What is the blood flow speed in the part of the same tube that has a diameter of 0.8 cm? A. 7.5 cm/s B. 15 cm/s C. 60 cm/s D. 120 cm/s

Solution: D The flow is characterized by the continuity equation because no amount of blood is lost between the two locations. The continuity equation is 30 cm/s × π × ((1.6 cm)/2)2 = v × π × ((0.8 cm)/2)2. Solving for v yields v = 4 × 30 cm/s = 120 cm/s.

The ligand of hMPRα is derived from which compound? A. Glucose B. Phenylalanine C. Glycerol D. Cholesterol

Solution: D The ligand for hMPRα is the steroid progesterone. Steroids are a class of lipids that are derived from cholesterol.

A major obstacle to obtaining useful energy from a nuclear fusion reactor is containment of the fuel at the very high temperatures required for fusion. The reason such high temperatures are required is to: A. eliminate the strong nuclear force. B. remove electrical charge from reactants. C. decrease the density of the fuel. D. enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force.

Solution: D The probability of fusion increases with the decrease in the average distance between fuel particles that enables attractive nuclear forces to overcome the repelling nuclear forces acting at medium and long distances. An increase in the temperature is equivalent to an increase in the root-mean-square speed of the fuel particles that will travel the average distance between fuel reactants in smaller times. The associated increase in the kinetic energy of the particles relative to the center of mass of the nuclear fuel system essentially correlates with a decrease in the electrostatic potential barrier that repels particles of the same electric charge. In turn, this increases the probability of particles to undergo the tunnel effect by penetrating the electrostatic barrier. These combined effects enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force

The SNP resulted from what type of mutation? A. Purine to purine B. Purine to pyrimidine C. Pyrimidine to purine D. Pyrimidine to pyrimidine

Solution: D The radiograph indicates an SNP containing both a cytosine and thymine nucleotide, instead of just thymine. Since both nucleobases are pyrimidines, this indicates that the SNP resulted from the mutation of a pyrimidine to another pyrimidine.

A particular diploid organism is heterozygous in each of 3 unlinked genes. Considering only these 3 genes, how many different types of gametes can this organism produce? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

Solution: D There are 8 distinct gametes that can be formed from an diploid organism that is heterozygous at three unlinked genes. Each gene (A, B, and C) will have two alleles (1 and 2) which can be termed: A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, and C2. The resulting gamete combinations will be: A1, B1, C1; A1, B2, C1; A1, B2, C2; A1, B1, C2; A2, B1, C1; A2, B2, C1; A2, B2, C2; A2, B1, C2.

Which combination of theories from the passage is most likely to share assumptions with the life course approach? A. Structural explanation 1 and structural explanation 2 B. Structural explanation 1 and potentiator model C. Structural explanation 2 and protective model D. Potentiator model and protective model

Solution: D This option is the correct answer because the life course approach posits that early life events influence an individual's later life outcomes. Both the potentiator model and protective model focus on the risks a child might face in their environment which might increase premarital birth rates, as an outcome. These two models would be most consistent with a life course approach.

An ice cube at 0°C and 1 atm is heated to form steam at 100°C and 1 atm. Ignoring heat loss to the surroundings, what part of the process uses the most heat? (Note: Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g°C. Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g. Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g.) A. Melting the ice cube B. Heating all the water from 0°C to 50°C C. Heating all the water from 50°C to 100°C D. Vaporizing all the water

Solution: D Vaporizing all the water requires 540 cal/g, which is a greater heat requirement than specific heat or heat of fusion.

As accustomed as we have become to the idea that scientists "construct" theories and "produce" explanations, and regardless of the controversies among scientists, the fact remains that they only disclose to us a world that came into being without the sciences or other human contributions. Galileo may have conceptualized and formalized the phases of Venus, but the phases themselves had manifestly always existed. Galileo's fabricated hypothesis simply became the acknowledged fact. By contrast, in conceptualizing technological projects, engineers produce fictions. The technology concerned does not, and by definition could not, exist, since it is in the project phase. This tautology frees the analysis of technological proposals from the burden of confirmation necessary in the analysis of scientific hypotheses. One might argue, of course, that Diesel did not create the principles he applied in his engine any more than Galileo created the astronomical principles he observed, and some would even contend that the engine was therefore as much beyond the control of Diesel as Venus was beyond the control of Galileo. Even so, few would seriously defend the proposition that the diesel engine had always existed and needed only to be discovered. In reference to technology, Platonism is considered an extreme philosophical stance. The rejection of Platonism means greater freedom for those who study machinery than for those who study nature. The big issues of reality and plausibility do not bother the former. Engineers may freely create fictions, since the projection of a technological possibility from the present, or from five or fifty years in the future, to a time t, is a part of their job. They invent a nonexistent means of transportation, with paper passengers, opportunities yet to be created, hypothetical places to be served (often to be themselves designed from scratch), new component industries, an assumed technological revolution. They are novelists, with one difference: Their project, although initially indistinguishable from a novel, will either remain a possibility in a file or be transformed into an object. At first, projects and the objects to which they pertain are indistinguishable. The two concepts circulate from office to office in the form of plans, memos, discussions, scale models, and occasional synopses. In this stage of signs, language, and text, people influence the object. But once the project is realized and the object real, it is people, outside their offices, who are influenced by it—a Copernican revolution. The gulf between the world of symbols and the world of things is then apparent. The R-312 is no longer a fiction that carries me away in transports of delight; it is a bus that transports me along the Boulevard Saint-Michel. Still, the creators of technology do not rigidly differentiate symbol from thing, project from object, the novel that excites speculation from the reality inscribed in the nature of things. For as the R-312 passes progressively from fiction to fact, its engineers repeatedly pass between the speculative and the practical realms. The capacity to be liberated from an exclusive concern from reality and to soar into unrealized potential is the quality that gives technological fiction a beauty that the literary novel, a form inherited from the naturalistic nineteenth century, has difficulty in approaching. Only a fiction that is capable of gaining or losing reality can do justice to engineers, those great unhonored figures of culture and history. A fiction with a variable structure—it is this flexibility to which we must aspire in tracking a technological project. The term "Copernican revolution" refers to the demonstration by Copernicus that the apparent daily orbiting of Earth by the Sun is illusory and that Earth actually orbits the Sun. In applying this term to a different phenomenon (paragraph 4), what idea does the author evidently mean to imply? A. An object that is designed according to engineering principles is as real as a scientific finding. B. A project that may result in an object remains an illusion until its feasibility is demonstrated. C. When an object results from a technological project, it becomes equivalent to a natural object. D. When humans must adapt to an object designed by humans, the source of control has reversed.

Solution: D With the reference to the Copernican revolution, the illusion of an earth-centered cosmos is compared to human control over an object still in the conceptual and drafting stages of an engineering project: humans at this point control the object. When the object is created and exists in the physical world, the direction of control and influence reverses and the object now influences humans: "But once the project is realized and the object real, it is people, outside their offices, who are influenced by it—a Copernican revolution" (paragraph 4).