MCB 2004L mastering questions FINAL

The development of which disease is promoted by mosquito-borne malarial infections? infectious mononucleosis ("mono") Burkitt's lymphoma Hodgkin's disease cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

Burkitt's lymphoma

Tularemia is considered to be a potential bioterrorism agent due its high infective dose.

False

Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus.

False

Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems.

False

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? vancomycin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis ethambutol inhibits mycolic acid synthesis streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis streptogramin inhibits protein synthesis bacitracin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

ethambutol inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

The development of multi-drug resistance in Staphylococcus aureus is a classic example of ______. genetic engineering Koch's postulates evolution drug-induced cytotoxic reactions

evolution

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by improper food storage. travel to an underdeveloped country. eating contaminated food. a blood transfusion. extended use of antibiotics.

extended use of antibiotics.

Which of the following are symptoms of influenza infection? fever headache diarrhea muscle pain

fever headache muscle pain

Sulfanilamides interfere with __________. protein synthesis in fungi protein synthesis in helminths folic acid synthesis in bacteria anaerobic metabolism in protozoa

folic acid synthesis in bacteria

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. helminths. gram-positive bacteria. viruses. gram-negative bacteria.

helminths.

Vaccines can be used to protect at-risk individuals from all of the following liver diseases EXCEPT __________. hepatitis C hepatitis A hepatitis D hepatitis B

hepatitis C

Which of the following leads to all the others? toxemia scalded skin syndrome TSST-1 staphylococcal infection sudden drop in blood pressure

staphylococcal infection

Which of the following is treated with antibiotics? tetanus streptococcal pneumonia botulism polio

streptococcal pneumonia

Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition? isoniazid ethambutol trimethoprim sulfonamide streptomycin

streptomycin

A characteristic symptom of plague is swollen lymph nodes. small red spots on the skin. nausea and vomiting. rose-colored spots. recurrent fever.

swollen lymph nodes.

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by Giardia. Trichinella. Salmonella. Staphylococcus aureus. rotavirus.

rotavirus.

A 9-month-old baby with a macular rash is brought to the hospital. Parents report that the rash started on the face, spread to the rest of the body, and was preceded by coldlike symptoms. There are small reddish spots in the baby's mouth. What is the diagnosis? smallpox shingles rubeola chickenpox

rubeola

Which of the following types of infection can result in infertility? bacterial vaginosis leptospirosis ophthalmia neonatorum salpingitis

salpingitis

Exfoliative toxin is responsible for otitis externa. scalded skin syndrome. thrush. impetigo. fever blisters.

scalded skin syndrome.

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells? antiprotozoan drugs antifungal drugs semisynthetic penicillins antihelminthic drugs nucleotide analogs

semisynthetic penicillins

During his presentation to the Microbiology Club, Cody mentions that the cholera epidemic in 2010 came shortly after an earthquake. He also mentions that other cholera epidemics had occurred following natural disasters such as flooding. Which of the following has the greatest impact on the number of cholera cases after a natural disaster? increases in the rodent population flood waters mixed with ocean water sewage contamination in drinking water dead bodies piling up in the streets

sewage contamination in drinking water

Which of the following is/are associated with secondary stage syphilis? skin rashes of varying appearance a chancre weakening of the aorta personality changes and seizures

skin rashes of varying appearance

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the accessory structures. mouth. stomach and small intestine. small intestine and large intestine. stomach.

small intestine and large intestine.

Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT salmonellosis. trichinellosis. shigellosis. staphylococcal food poisoning. beef tapeworm.

staphylococcal food poisoning.

Now that we have looked at ways to prevent breeding in mosquitos, another possible prevention is to limit the vector geographically, but recent climate changes have led to changes in location where the mosquito can now be found. Which of the following climate change scenarios has allowed for this increase in vector habitat? warmer temperatures in southern regions with increased rainfall warmer temperatures in southern regions with normal rainfall warmer temperatures in northern regions with increased rainfall warmer temperatures in northern regions with normal rainfall

warmer temperatures in northern regions with increased rainfall

Drug resistance occurs against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. because bacteria are normal microbiota. when antibiotics are used indiscriminately. when antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear.

when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible? xenotransplant isograft allograft autograft All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.

xenotransplant

The primary victims of the influenza pandemic of 1918-1919 were young adults. members of the military. infants and the elderly. residents of the U.S. residents of Spain; therefore, it was known as the "Spanish Flu."

young adults.

Efflux pumps

Active transport Antimicrobial moved from inside to outside of cell Turning on transport mechanisms

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tuberculosis infection? The adaptive immune response is mostly cell mediated, because Mycobacterium tuberculosis lives and reproduces inside macrophages. A TB diagnosis can be rapidly confirmed because the organism that causes this disease grows quickly. Treatment requires a minimum of 6 months of antibiotic therapy. An individual could become infected by standing next to an infected person who is coughing.

A TB diagnosis can be rapidly confirmed because the organism that causes this disease grows quickly.

As an epidemiologist, Dr. Thompson is interested in determining the frequency with which a specified event occurs within a particular population at a certain instant or during a particular period. This measure is known as a rate. In epidemiologic practice, an attack rate is the most commonly used method of determining the extent or frequency with which a disease is experienced by a population of individuals. In this instance, Dr. Thompson is interested in knowing what percentage of the individuals who attended the July 4 celebration became ill. What is the attack rate of food poisoning among the group who attended the July 4 celebration? 40/150(100)= 26.6% 105/150(100)= 70.0% 40/65(100)= 61.5% 65/105(100)= 61.9%

105/150(100)= 70.0% The 40 individuals who were treated plus the 65 individuals who had symptoms but did not seek treatment represent the total number of ill individuals. This value (105) divided by the number attending (150) multiplied by 100 represents the attack rate.

What diagnostic test would be most useful at this stage of Dr. Peterson's diagnosis? A lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). A blood draw followed by culture in order to determine if Claire is septicemic. A neurologic exam, X-ray, and CT Scan to determine what is causing Claire's headache and its rapid progression. A throat swab followed by culture to determine the cause of Claire's sore throat.

A lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). In suspected cases of meningitis, a sample of CSF can be used for a variety of relatively quick diagnostic tests—the speed of results is essential in effective treatment. The lumbar puncture will not only be diagnostic of disease, but will allow for identification of the causative agent (Gram negative, Gram positive, or viral). This information is crucial for prompt treatment, which is essential for patient survival.

Which of the following is true regarding systemic anaphylactic reactions? A systemic reaction can be fatal in only a few minutes. Systemic reactions are commonly associated with antigens that are ingested or inhaled. Systemic reactions can result in a dramatic decrease in blood pressure. Systemic reactions always involve the respiratory system. Systemic reactions are commonly associated with injected antigens. Systemic reactions can be treated only with an injection of epinephrine.

A systemic reaction can be fatal in only a few minutes Systemic reactions can result in a dramatic decrease in blood pressure. Systemic reactions are commonly associated with injected antigens.

Assuming Rh compatibility is present, individuals with which of the following blood types would be able to receive donor blood from any of the four blood types (A, B, AB, and O)? A B AB O

AB

One of the methods recommended by the CDC is to prevent infected individuals from receiving mosquito bites during the first week of their infection. How does this help prevent further spread of infection? Additional mosquito bites will allow transmission to occur person-to-person without the vector. Preventing additional mosquito bites will minimize the pathogenicity of the virus. Additional bites would increase the chances of an uninfected vector acquiring the virus. Preventing additional mosquito bites keeps the patient from suffering a subsequent infection.

Additional bites would increase the chances of an uninfected vector acquiring the virus.

STI home test kits are still relatively new on the market. Given their newness, it is necessary to weigh the benefits and the risks to doing the tests at home.

Advantage: increased treatment improved communication anyone can purchase and use Disadvantage: information leaks increased costs kits can make mistakes

John mentioned that while in the Caribbean, he had been very careful to wear bug spray when outside and to use a mosquito net around the bed at night. Why were these protective measures not enough to keep him from being infected? Aedes mosquitoes prefer to live outdoors and feed at dusk. Bug spray is not effective against them at all. Aedes mosquitoes prefer the blood of human beings and only feed at dusk, like most other mosquitoes. Aedes mosquitoes are small enough to get through the holes in the mosquito net that John put around his bed. Aedes mosquitoes prefer to live inside buildings, are more resistant to bug spray, and feed during the day.

Aedes mosquitoes prefer to live inside buildings, are more resistant to bug spray, and feed during the day.

Which of the following could be true of tuberculosis of the kidney? The patient would likely have a positive skin test. The patient would likely be infected with MDR TB or XDR TB. The disease could be subsequent to a normal primary infection. The disease could be subsequent to a reactivated latent infection. All of the above could be true.

All of the above could be true.

She makes an appointment with her physician. Nicole receives her test results, which indicate that she is positive for syphilis, but not for gonorrhea. What treatment will her doctor most likely prescribe? Antifungals Antibiotics Antiparasitics Antivirals

Antibiotics Antibiotics such as penicillin would be the best method for treating a syphilis infection. The sooner it is detected, the better the chances for completely treating the infection. If left untreated, the syphilis can progress into secondary, latent, or tertiary syphilis. Only primary and secondary syphilis can be treated.

Why did you not prescribe antibiotics in this case? Antibiotics can weaken the immune system. Using antibiotics can accelerate drug resistance in Staph. Antibiotics have side effects. Antibiotics will kill off beneficial bacteria.

Antibiotics can weaken the immune system. Using antibiotics can accelerate drug resistance in Staph. Antibiotics have side effects. Antibiotics will kill off beneficial bacteria.

Some members of the normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens when given the proper conditions. The example given in the activity is the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile in an individual undergoing antibiotic therapy. Why might antibiotics increase the chances of an opportunistic infection by the normal microbiota? Antibiotics increase the cell-mediated (T cell) immune responses to opportunistic bacteria. Antibiotics increase the production of toxins by opportunistic pathogens in specific body locations. Antibiotics that are nonspecific may affect pathogens as well as members of the normal microbiota. Antibiotics minimize the antibody-mediated (B cell) immune responses against bacterial opportunists.

Antibiotics that are nonspecific may affect pathogens as well as members of the normal microbiota. Antibiotics do not differentiate between pathogens and a host's natural microbiota, thus decreasing the overall number of both. As a result, antibiotics kill both "good" and "bad" bacteria within a host. This loss of normal microbiota can result in an overgrowth of other organisms and can lead to secondary infections. In women, yeast infections can occur as a secondary infection when antibiotics have been prescribed for a primary bacterial infection.

Which statement regarding Influenzavirus is true? Influenzavirus is a DNA virus. An individual who has cold symptoms and diarrhea probably has the flu. Antigenic shift can occur because the genome is in several pieces. The H and N designations refer to coat proteins.

Antigenic shift can occur because the genome is in several pieces.

Antimicrobial X targets a specific protein in the cytoplasm of the bacterial cell, causing the bacteria to stop growing, but does not kill them. A few bacteria start to grow in the presence of antibiotic X. Analysis of the bacteria that can now grow shows that they have changed the shape of the target for antimicrobial X. What conclusion can be made? Antimicrobial X is less effective against the new shape of its target. The change in shape of the target for antimicrobial X had no effect on the effectiveness of antimicrobial X. Antimicrobial X is more effective against the new shape of its target.

Antimicrobial X is less effective against the new shape of its target.

Lyme disease is caused by ____________ and is transmitted by __________. Ixodes; B. burgdorferi Ixodes; deer and field mice B. burgdorferi; deer and field mice B. burgdorferi; Ixodes

B. burgdorferi; Ixodes

Drug inactivation

Bacterial β-lactamases Antimicrobial altered

Which of the following mediators are involved in anaphylactic reactions? basophils IgE B cells mast cells T cells IgM

Basophils IgE mast cells

A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? Mycobacterium Corynebacterium Burkholderia Mycoplasma Bordetella

Bordetella

Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages? Mycobacterium tuberculosis Streptococcus pyogenes Bordetella pertussis respiratory syncytial virus Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Bordetella pertussis

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike? Both are based on β-lactam. Both are resistant to penicillinase. Both are resistant to stomach acids. Both are bactericidal. Both are broad spectrum.

Both are based on β-lactam.

What do hepatitis A and hepatitis B have in common? Both can be prevented by a vaccine. Both can result in a carrier state. Both are transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Both often result in a mild disease.

Both can be prevented by a vaccine.

Autopsy of a stillborn fetus reveals the cause of death to be meningitis. Cultures show the presence of a gram-positive rod. The likely pathogen is Haemophilus influenza.

False

Only HSV-2 can cause genital herpes.

False

A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with CTLs and activated macrophages. CTLs. tumor-specific antigens. CD+ T cells. activated macrophages.

CTLs and activated macrophages.

Thrush and vaginitis are caused by Candida albicans. Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus. Chlamydia trachomatis. herpesvirus.

Candida albicans.

The two most common STI organisms associated with PID in the United States are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. There are many similarities between these STIs. Which of the following statements comparing chlamydia and gonorrhea are true? Without prompt treatment, chlamydia and gonorrhea have a significantly high mortality rate. Chlamydia and gonorrhea can infect a patient and be transmitted without causing obvious symptoms. Chlamydia is found more often in women, whereas gonorrhea is found more often in men. It is impossible to contract chlamydia and gonorrhea from a single unprotected exposure. Patients may be coinfected with both gonorrhea and chlamydia. Chlamydia and gonorrhea infect only the cells of the urinary and reproductive tracts.

Chlamydia and gonorrhea can infect a patient and be transmitted without causing obvious symptoms. Chlamydia is found more often in women, whereas gonorrhea is found more often in men. Patients may be coinfected with both gonorrhea and chlamydia.

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT Listeria monocytogenes. Haemophilus influenza. Clostridium botulinum. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Clostridium botulinum.

All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT Salmonella typhi. Yersinia enterocolitica. Shigella spp. Clostridium perfringens. Escherichia coli.

Clostridium perfringens.

The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms? Bordetella Mycobacterium Haemophilus Corynebacterium

Corynebacterium

A Gram-positive bacterial strain is simultaneously treated with two different antimicrobials: Drug A, which targets a protein involved in cell wall synthesis, and Drug B, which targets ribosomes involved in translation. The bacteria continue to grow during the course of treatment, indicating resistance to both antimicrobials. What are all the possible resistance mechanisms this bacterial strain could have?

Decreased permeability Altered drug target Drug inactivation Efflux pumps

A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated.

False

Penicillin's target is transpeptidase, a protein involved in cell wall synthesis. For a Gram-positive bacterium, which of the following mechanisms would be most effective in resisting penicillin's effects? Drug inactivation via β-lactamases Decreased permeability via alteration of porins and use of efflux pumps to move the drug out of the cell Drug inactivation via β-lactamases and use of efflux pumps to move the drug out of the cell Drug inactivation via β-lactamases and altered target binding site

Drug inactivation via β-lactamases and altered target binding site

A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.

False

The abbreviation "GAS" refers to pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus.

False

Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics? tularemia anthrax plague Lyme disease Ebola

Ebola

Cystitis is most often caused by Escherichia coli. Leptospira interrogans. Candida albicans. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Escherichia coli.

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by Proteus. Escherichia coli. Pseudomonas. Klebsiella. Enterococcus.

Escherichia coli.

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is Giardia lamblia. Campylobacter jejuni. Escherichia coli. Salmonella enterica. Shigella spp.

Escherichia coli.

The name Propionibacterium is derived from the fact that the organism produces propionic acid during fermentative metabolism. Which of the following statements about fermentative metabolism is true? Fermentation is unfavorable because the production of acidic end-products provides an unfavorable environment for the organism's growth. Fermentation produces significantly less ATP than aerobic respiration; however it generates NAD+, which can be used in glycolysis. All fermentative organisms have the ability to perform ethanol fermentation. Fermentation does not yield any ATP for the cell.

Fermentation produces significantly less ATP than aerobic respiration; however it generates NAD+, which can be used in glycolysis. For fermentative organisms, ATP is typically generated only during glycolysis. Recall that glycolysis yields 2 ATP per glucose molecule for the organism. Although this may not seem significant compared to the amount of ATP that can be produced during oxidative phosphorylation, it is enough to meet the needs of the organism. Essential to this is the recycling of NADH that occurs during fermentation. As organisms convert pyruvate into other organic compounds such as propionic acid, they are able to oxidize NADH and regenerate NAD+ to be used in glycolysis. Without this ability, glycolysis (and ATP production) would cease.

A patient comes in with a possible Chikungunya infection. Rank the following

First Step uninfected mosquito feeds on an infected person replication of the virus inside the vector infected mosquito feeds on uninfected person patient has fever, headaches, and joint pain treatment with supportive therapy

A patient comes in with a possible C. difficile infection. Rank the following in order of occurrence.

First step: antibiotic therapy killing normal gut microbiota proliferation of Clostridium difficile Clostridium difficile toxin production intestinal inflammation and gas production fecal microbiota transplants Last step:

The hives that Sally is experiencing are a result of an anaphylactic reaction. This is a multistep reaction resulting from the interaction of the wasp venom and Sally's immune system. Each of the statements below is a step in the anaphylactic response.

First: IgE molecules bind to mast cells and basophils. Antigen molecules cross-link adjacent IgE molecules. Degranulation occurs. Chemical mediators such as histamine are released. Capillary permeability and smooth muscle contractions increase. Neutrophils and eosinophils move to the site. Last:

The at-home tests work similarly to pregnancy tests and are based on antigen-antibody reactions between the infectious agent and the patient's antibodies. Which class of antibody is most likely to give a result in the assay? IgE IgA IgM IgG

IgG

The successful infection of a host, and subsequent spread to another, results from a specific sequence of events known as the replication cycle. Each of the statements below describes an important step in the replication cycle of influenza.

Hemagglutinin (HA) spikes attach to host cells. Influenza enters the host cell. Nucleic acid enters the host cytoplasm. Influenza proteins are synthesized. Influenza nucleic acid is packaged in capsid. Influenza particles bud from the cell, releasing the virus into the surrounding environment.

__________ antibodies are found in mucosal secretions and help to protect the respiratory system from infection. IgE IgG IgA IgM

IgA

Why would conjugation to a protein carrier improve the efficacy (i.e. improve the immune response generated by the vaccine) of a polysaccharide vaccine? In contrast to polysaccharide vaccines, protein-conjugated vaccines elicit a strong T-cell dependent response. Proteins are much larger molecules than polysaccharides; therefore they stimulate a larger immune response. The protein carrier allows the vaccine conjugate to be transported to more sites involved in generating the immune response therefore the overall response that is generated will be stronger. Polysaccharides are not immunogenic and therefore do not elicit an immune response.

In contrast to polysaccharide vaccines, protein-conjugated vaccines elicit a strong T-cell dependent response.

What are some of the current challenges to production of the influenza vaccine? In order to yield a vaccine, the virus must be produced in eggs. The vaccine does not stimulate a strong antibody response because it is an intracellular pathogen. The production of vaccine is a lengthy process. Production is difficult because the vaccine is composed of all important strains identified during the previous flu season. The virus undergoes antigenic changes on a regular basis.

In order to yield a vaccine, the virus must be produced in eggs. The virus undergoes antigenic changes on a regular basis.

Which statement regarding the structure or function of the urinary system is FALSE? In females, the urethra conveys only urine to the exterior. In the male, the urethra conveys only urine to the exterior. Physiological valves prevent the backflow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys. Normal urine has some antimicrobial properties.

In the male, the urethra conveys only urine to the exterior.

Which of the findings listed below support the hypothesis? Increasing levels of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and chloride ions, as well as water, are secreted as toxin concentrations are increased from 25, 50, 100, and 150 units. Histological observation indicates that morphological alteration and sloughing of epithelial cells occurs up to a maximum of 1000 units. Oxidative metabolism of glucose by ileum cells occurs at a constant rate as toxin levels are increased. Protein levels within the ileum loop fluid are increased up to 1000 units of toxin.

Increasing levels of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and chloride ions, as well as water, are secreted as toxin concentrations are increased from 25, 50, 100, and 150 units. Histological observation indicates that morphological alteration and sloughing of epithelial cells occurs up to a maximum of 1000 units. Protein levels within the ileum loop fluid are increased up to 1000 units of toxin.

Some of the individuals who said they ate the barbecue with the sauce did not become ill. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for such an occurrence? Some individuals may have immunity to the illness because they have been previously exposed. Individuals who became ill may have consumed larger quantities of the food than individuals who did not become ill. Individuals who did not become ill are genetically less susceptible to the food poisoning agent. Not everyone who was questioned may accurately remember which foods they consumed.

Individuals who became ill may have consumed larger quantities of the food than individuals who did not become ill.

In this case study, the main focus has been on the organism Vibrio cholerae and the toxin it produces. Many organisms are capable of producing toxins that allow for pathogenesis, while others are able to infect the host directly and cause disease.

Infection: Salmonella enterica Vibrio cholerae Shigella sonnei Escherichia coli Intoxication: Staphylococcus aureus

Injuring the plasma membrane (antimicrobial action is...)

Inhibiting fatty acid synthesis

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis (antimicrobial action is...)

Inhibiting synthesis of peptide cross-links Inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis Inhibiting lipopolysaccharide synthesis Inhibiting bonding of N-acetyl glucosamine to N-acetylmuramic acid

Interfering with DNA replication (antimicrobial action is...)

Interfering with DNA polymerase Inhibiting DNA gyrase

Interfering with RNA synthesis (transcription) (antimicrobial action is...)

Interfering with RNA polymerase

Interfering with protein synthesis (antimicrobial action is...)

Interfering with activity of 30S ribosomal subunit Interfering with activity of 50S ribosomal subunit Interfering with peptide bond formation, catalyzed by the ribosome Interfering with attachment of tRNA to mRNA

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE? It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin. It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes. It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food. It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms. It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes.

It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes.

Which of the following is NOT true of acne? It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium. It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet. Mild cases are treated with topical agents. Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases. Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne.

It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE? It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy. It may be fatal to the unborn child. It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation. It does not occur with subclinical infections. It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy.

It does not occur with subclinical infections.

Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? It is transmitted by direct contact. It can lead to cervical cancer in women. It is treated by removing them. It is always precancerous. It is caused by papillomaviruses.

It is always precancerous.

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE? It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. It may be due to decreased uptake of a drug. It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation. It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. It may be carried on a plasmid.

It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.

Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE? It is caused by health care personnel. Its frequency of occurrence has decreased because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques. It begins as a focal infection. It is transmitted from mother to fetus. It is a complication of abortion or childbirth.

It is transmitted from mother to fetus.

Which of the following is true of the latent stage of syphilis infection? It may revert to primary syphilis. It is characterized by a chancre. It is characterized by a body-wide rash. It may never progress to tertiary syphilis.

It may never progress to tertiary syphilis.

Which of the following statements regarding antigenic shift are true? Antigenic shift results in relatively minor changes in the neuraminidase (NA) and hemagglutinin (HA) antigens. Little immunity to virus strains resulting from antigenic shift exists in the population. Antigenic shift results in a major change in the genetic composition of the virus. Viral strains resulting from antigenic shift contain RNA segments from different species. Antigenic shift results from frequent mutations that occur during replication of the RNA genome.

Little immunity to virus strains resulting from antigenic shift exists in the population. Antigenic shift results in a major change in the genetic composition of the virus. Viral strains resulting from antigenic shift contain RNA segments from different species.

As a child, Jamie suffered from rheumatic fever, which caused some major damage to one of her heart valves. She is OK, in general. However, she's been advised against getting body piercings, and her dentist gives her antibiotics before performing some dental procedures. What is the concern? Since Jamie has a heart murmur, her body is generally weaker, and she may not be able to fight off infections. Jamie is more likely to develop subacute bacterial endocarditis. Jamie is more likely to develop acute endocarditis. The fact that she contracted rheumatic fever seems to indicate that Jamie is particularly sensitive to Streptococcus pyogenes infection.

Jamie is more likely to develop subacute bacterial endocarditis.

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of Neisseria. Streptococcus. Lactobacillus. Mycobacterium. Candida.

Lactobacillus.

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? Haemophilus Neisseria Streptococcus Naegleria Listeria

Listeria

Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic

Many strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are resistant to penicillin because of the production of β-lactamases.

Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE? Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques. Hydrophobia is associated with the disease. It is caused by Lyssavirus. Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs. Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection.

Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.

Altered binding site

Mutation of drug target Structural changes of drug target

Identify the statements below that accurately describe the mechanisms through which organisms acquire antibiotic resistance. Mutations are the ultimate source of antibiotic-resistance genes. Antibiotic resistance is readily transmitted to the next generation during binary fission. Antibiotics cause an increase in the rate of horizontal gene transfer. Antibiotics cause mutations; heavy antibiotic use directly leads to mutations in microbes, giving rise to antibiotic resistance. Antibiotics select for those microbes that have developed resistance, increasing their frequency in the bacterial population. Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed horizontally via bacterial conjugation. Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed horizontally via transduction. Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed from one bacterium to another by bacterial transformation.

Mutations are the ultimate source of antibiotic-resistance genes. Antibiotic resistance is readily transmitted to the next generation during binary fission. Antibiotics select for those microbes that have developed resistance, increasing their frequency in the bacterial population. Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed horizontally via bacterial conjugation. Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed horizontally via transduction. Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed from one bacterium to another by bacterial transformation.

Which of the following microbes has NOT been associated with bacterial meningitis? Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis Haemophilus influenzae Mycobacterium leprae

Mycobacterium leprae

Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia? Mycoplasma Coccidioides Streptococcus Blastomyces Mycobacterium

Mycoplasma

Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract? Legionella Streptococcus Mycobacterium Chlamydophila Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma

What is the most likely sequence of events involved in the pathogenesis of meningococcal meningitis?

N. meningitidis enters and attaches to the nasopharyngeal epithelium. The organism passes through the mucosa and enters the blood. N. meningitidis crosses the blood-brain barrier. A massive influx of polymorphonuclear cells lead to increased pressure in the brain. Hearing, vision, motor skills impaired.

What is the likely cause for the drop in glucose levels? N. meningitidis produces a virulence factor which breaks down extracellular glucose so that immune cells are unable to use it as a source of energy. Upon infection of the CSF, the body actively transports glucose from the CSF as a mechanism of "starving" the bacteria. During infection glucose is preferentially taken up in anatomical locations required for generating the immune response (e.g. bone marrow); therefore glucose drops in other locations such as the CSF. N. meningitidis uses the glucose as a source of energy to fuel its growth.

N. meningitidis uses the glucose as a source of energy to fuel its growth.

Infants may acquire a serious form of conjunctivitis during birth if they are born to a mother infected with __________. Acanthamoeba species Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Based on Claire's medical history and the Gram stain results, which is the most likely causative organism? Streptococcus pneumoniae West Nile Virus (WNV) Neisseria meningitidis Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria meningitidis N. meningitidis is a Gram negative coccus (usually diplococcus). The Gram negative diplococci and large number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes are both clear in the micrograph of the CSF sample.

Which of the following characteristics are shared by the causative agents of bacterial meningitis? They're all Gram-negative. They are all diplococci. They are all prevented through the Hib vaccine. None of the above.

None of the above.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? endocarditis arthritis pelvic inflammatory disease meningitis None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.

None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? the length of the urethra sexual intercourse poor personal hygiene the proximity of the anus to the urethra None of the answers is correct; all of these are predisposing factors.

None of the answers is correct; all of these are predisposing factors.

Nicole received her diagnosis at her physician's office. Which of the following procedures was most likely used by the physician to confirm her infection? Nucleic Acid Amplification Testing (NAAT) UTI dipstick OraQuick Rapid Strep Test

Nucleic Acid Amplification Testing (NAAT)

You would like to determine which species of Staphylococcus your patient is infected with. Which test will allow you to eliminate some possibilities?

One of the most important phenotypic features that can be used to differentiate among Staph species is their ability to produce coagulase , an enzyme that causes blood clot formation.

Inflammatory response of acne

Overproduction of sebum leads to an accumulation in the follicle. P. acnes metabolizes glycerol in sebum, forming free fatty acids. Free fatty acids stimulate the release of proinflammatory cytokines within the follicle. The blood vessels surrounding the follicle dilate and become more permeable. Immune cells such as neutrophils and phagocytes move into the follicle to try to eliminate P. acnes. The buildup of dead cells, bacteria, and body fluids causes a raised pustule to appear on the skin surface.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Spirillum rat-bite fever Pasteurella cat-scratch disease Borrelia relapsing fever Yersinia plague Streptobacillus rat-bite fever

Pasteurella cat-scratch disease

Which statement regarding normal microbiota of the urinary and reproductive systems is true? Candida albicans is the predominant bacterium in the vagina. Normal urine has a high level of normal, nonpathogenic microbes. The male urethra is usually highly contaminated with microbes. Pregnancy and menopause are associated with higher rates of urinary tract infections.

Pregnancy and menopause are associated with higher rates of urinary tract infections.

Which of the following would be an effective treatment for bacterial meningitis? cephalosporins PCV MCV4 Hib vaccine

cephalosporins

A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by Propionibacterium acnes. Staphylococcus aureus. Acanthamoeba. Streptococcus pyogenes. herpes simplex virus.

Propionibacterium acnes.

Rapid efflux of the antibiotic

Pseudomonas aeruginosa has membrane pumps that export a number of different antibiotics from its cells.

More than half of the antibiotics used today are produced by __________. fungi plants Streptomyces species Streptococcus species

Streptomyces species

Sally decides to go through the desensitization program recommended by her doctor. What is the overall purpose/goal of this process? Desensitization will decrease the overall sensitivity of Sally's immune responses, eliminating its hyperactivity. The process will eliminate all of the wasp venom-specific IgE from Sally's body. During the desensitization process, the number of wasp venom-reactive mast cells will decrease. Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system.

Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system.

Alteration of the drug's target site

Resistance to clindamycin develops when mutations in bacteria alter the ribosomal binding site to which clindamycin would normally bind. MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is resistant to all β-lactam drugs because of a mutation in its penicillin-binding protein (PBP).

Prevention of penetration to the target site within the microbe

Resistance to tetracycline may result from modified pore proteins in the outer membrane that form a porin too small for the tetracycline to pass through.

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by Vibrio cholerae. Helicobacter pylori. Salmonella enterica. Shigella spp. Clostridium perfringens.

Salmonella enterica.

Part of the reason for Scott's acne is the overproduction of sebum. Scott's initial instinct is that shutting down production of sebum would be the quickest route to eliminating his acne; however, sebum actually plays an important role in maintaining the skin as a first line of defense against pathogens. Which of the following best describes the role of sebum as a component of the first line of defense? Sebum forms a protective layer over the skin. Sebum helps to keep the pH of the skin low, which inhibits the growth of microorganisms. Sebum creates an anaerobic environment, thereby preventing the growth of pathogenic organisms. Sebum contains enzymes that inhibit the growth of pathogens.

Sebum forms a protective layer over the skin. Sebum helps to keep the pH of the skin low, which inhibits the growth of microorganisms.

Natural selection is a gradual, nonrandom process by which biological traits become more or less frequent within a population. Which of the following are necessary conditions for natural selection to occur within a population of Staphylococcus aureus? Some individuals in the population reproduce more than others. Individuals in the population vary from one another. Traits are hereditary. Deleterious (harmful) genes are removed from the population. Traits that permit an individual to survive at least until reproduction will increase in frequency over time. Some individuals within the population are optimally adapted for survival. There is adaptation.

Some individuals in the population reproduce more than others. Individuals in the population vary from one another. Traits are hereditary. Traits that permit an individual to survive at least until reproduction will increase in frequency over time.

The most common NGU in the United States is treated with doxycycline. penicillin. cephalosporins. AZT. acyclovir.

cephalosporins.

Arrange the statement of events below in the order that best describes the sequence of events in the pathology of Clostridium perfringens poisoning once contaminated food has been ingested.

Sporulation and lysis of vegetative cells result in the release of CPE. CPE binds to claudin receptors of the tight junctions of intestinal epithelia. Absorption of fluids and ions across the epithelia is inhibited. Formation of the CPE-claudin complex results in active pore formation. Calcium ion influx results in activation of calpain. Cellular death and loss of epithelial layer of intestinal villi result in fluid secretion into lumen and diarrhea. Increases myoelectrical activity of intestine leads to severe cramping.

A child presents with large red patches of skin. The top layers are peeling off. Because the parents report that the child hasn't been burned, you suspect that the lesions are due to infection with __________. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

Staphylococcus aureus

John went to a picnic. He took home some leftover chicken and rice, heated it on the stove, ate it, and got sick two hours later. John thought the heating made his food safe because it would have killed any bacteria present. He didn't know that __________ produces a heat-stable toxin. Salmonella enterica Shigella dysenteriae Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio cholerae

Staphylococcus aureus

The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is Staphylococcus aureus. Microsporum. Candida. Sarcoptes. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Staphylococcus aureus.

Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin? Penicillium helminths penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae Mycoplasma Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes

To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus? Cephalosporium Paenibacillus Penicillium Streptomyces Bacillus

Streptomyces

Which statement regarding the skin is FALSE? Sweat contains an enzyme called lysozyme, which breaks down the cell walls of some bacteria. It is waterproof. The outer layer is composed of dead cells. Sweat glands produce sebum in addition to sweat.

Sweat glands produce sebum in addition to sweat.

Antibiotics inhibit microbial growth, and consider what changes in the microbe might enable it to resist the inhibitory effects of antibiotics. A mechanism that would enable a microorganism to resist the action of an antibiotic. Target site is modified, so that an antibiotic is unable to bind to its target. An altered target enhances the binding of antibiotic. A transport mechanism that rapidly transports antibiotic through the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm is developed. An enzyme that destroys the antibiotic is produced. A microbe develops a transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that rapidly pumps antibiotic out of the bacterial cell. Altered porins in the cell wall block passage of antibiotic through the cell wall.

Target site is modified, so that an antibiotic is unable to bind to its target. An enzyme that destroys the antibiotic is produced. A microbe develops a transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that rapidly pumps antibiotic out of the bacterial cell. Altered porins in the cell wall block passage of antibiotic through the cell wall.

Which statement regarding tests for microbial susceptibility to chemotherapeutic agents is FALSE? During a disk-diffusion test, a clear zone around the test disk indicates that growth was inhibited. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects. A broth dilution test is often used to determine MIC and MBC of an antimicrobial drug. During the Kirby-Bauer test, a Petri plate with agar medium is uniformly inoculated with a standardized amount of a test organism.

The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects.

Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning the Sabin and Salk vaccines? The Salk vaccine is easier to administer because it is given orally. The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form. The Salk vaccine is more effective in conferring immunity. The Salk vaccine is cheaper to make than the Sabin vaccine.

The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form.

A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having scarlet fever. diphtheria. the common cold. streptococcal pharyngitis. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms? Streptococcus Corynebacterium Bordetella Rhinovirus The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

The IgG molecules that are produced during desensitization function as blocking antibodies. These antibodies are extremely effective in providing protection from a hypersensitivity reaction. Why are blocking IgG antibodies so effective at protecting Sally from another anaphylactic response to wasp venom? The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind. The IgG molecules bind to mast cells and prevent IgE molecules from binding, thereby preventing degranulation. The IgG antibodies bind to the circulating IgE and block their binding to the mast cells. The IgG molecules bind to the mast cells; but when wasp venom binds, IgG blocks degranulation.

The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind.

The pathogenesis of Vibrio cholerae is due to the organism's ability to produce cholera toxin. This is an A-B toxin that affects host cells in the small intestine. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of the toxin? The cholera toxin causes the host cells to secrete large amounts of fluids and electrolytes. The cholera toxin binds to nerve cells and inhibits the relaxation of muscles. The cholera toxin binds to nerve cells and inhibits the release of neurotransmitters. The cholera toxin produces a superantigen and symptoms associated with toxic shock syndrome.

The cholera toxin causes the host cells to secrete large amounts of fluids and electrolytes. The production of a superantigen and toxic shock syndrome is the mechanism used by staphylococcal enterotoxin.

Which of the following NOT true for both hepatitis B and hepatitis C infection? The disease is prevented by vaccination. The infection is transmitted through blood and body fluids. The virus can cause a chronic disease. Diagnosis can be achieved through testing the blood for antibodies.

The disease is prevented by vaccination. There is a vaccine for hepatitis B.

Why is bacterial meningitis considered more life threatening than viral meningitis? The immune response generated against bacteria leads to a massive influx of immune cells in the meninges; this response is much less extreme in viral meningitis. Viral meningitis is easier to diagnose than bacterial meningitis; therefore treatment can begin earlier in infection. It is rare that viral particles are able to cross the blood brain barrier. N. meningitidis produces an exotoxin that specifically kills immune cells resulting in a decreased ability to fight the infection.

The immune response generated against bacteria leads to a massive influx of immune cells in the meninges; this response is much less extreme in viral meningitis.

Postexposure treatment for rabies includes vaccination and injection of immunoglobulin; why does postexposure vaccination work? The rabies exposure increases the speed of the adaptive immune response. The immune response to this vaccine is very rapid. The infection progresses so slowly that there is time for postexposure vaccination to generate immunity. The virus is highly exposed to the immune system once it enters the peripheral nerves.

The infection progresses so slowly that there is time for postexposure vaccination to generate immunity.

Decreased permeability

Turning off transport mechanisms Bacterial porins

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? The mortality rate is high. A healthy carrier state exists. It is a bacterial infection. Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested. It is often associated with poultry products.

The mortality rate is high.

Which statement regarding arboviral encephalitis is FALSE? The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination. Horses, as well as humans, are frequently affected by arboviruses. The incidence of disease increases during summer months. Most human cases of West Nile virus (WNV) are subclinical or very mild.

The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination.

What can you deduce from the treatment strategy for M. tuberculosis infection? The organism has some innate resistance to antibiotics. The organism is easily killed with antibiotics. The organism harbors a variety of resistance plasmids (R factors). The organism is easily spread during treatment.

The organism has some innate resistance to antibiotics.

An individual presents with a pinkish-red rash and a red sore throat. Gram-positive cocci are cultured from a throat swab. The cocci are growing in chains. Which of the following is the most likely conclusion? The patient has epiglottitis. The patient has diphtheria. The patient has scarlet fever. The patient has otitis media.

The patient has scarlet fever.

In untreated individuals, the mortality rate of cholera can be as high as 50%, but in individuals that are given oral rehydration therapy, fatalities are rare. Oral rehydration therapy involves treating the patients with an oral suspension of salt, sugar, and water. Which of the following choices explains why this suspension is used instead of pure water to treat cholera infections? Pure water would be lost through the intestinal tract in addition to what is already being lost, so it would make the diarrhea worse. The salt and sugar make the rehydration solution taste better, but pure water could also be used with the same effect. The salt and sugar in the rehydration solution will replace lost electrolytes and the water replaces the lost water. Pure water would be lost through the intestinal tract in addition to what is already being lost, so it would make the diarrhea worse.

The salt and sugar in the rehydration solution will replace lost electrolytes and the water replaces the lost water.

Which of the following findings are key to the cause of the outbreak? The sauce was prepared on an overcrowded steam table and, as a result, did not reach an appropriate temperature to kill any organisms. The meat was not cooked properly. The cooler was not maintained at an appropriate temperature. Large quantities of meat were prepared and kept warm for a long time before they were served.

The sauce was prepared on an overcrowded steam table and, as a result, did not reach an appropriate temperature to kill any organisms. Large quantities of meat were prepared and kept warm for a long time before they were served.

Which statement correctly describes the normal microbiota of the skin? The skin's normal microbiota are capable of growth at elevated salt concentrations. On superficial skin surfaces, certain anaerobic bacteria produce fatty acids from oil gland secretions. Most microorganisms that grow on the skin are sensitive to drying. Vigorous washing will eliminate all skin bacteria.

The skin's normal microbiota are capable of growth at elevated salt concentrations.

Which of the following statements concerning mumps virus infection is FALSE? The testes can become inflamed about 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. The virus is present in urine approximately 10 days after the onset of symptoms. The illness frequently begins with painful swelling of one or both parotid glands. The virus is transmitted in saliva and respiratory secretions.

The testes can become inflamed about 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms.

Which of the following statements concerning necrotizing fasciitis is FALSE? Some cases require limb amputation. The tissue damage is mainly due to the production of endotoxin, which stimulates a severe immune response. It is often associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome. It may be caused by several different organisms, but Streptococcus pyogenes is the most common.

The tissue damage is mainly due to the production of endotoxin, which stimulates a severe immune response.

Claire's symptoms are characteristic of many different infections. Why does Dr. Peterson suspect that Claire may have meningitis? There have been documented cases of meningitis in Claire's dorm. The closed, mixed environment of the college dorm allows for infection of susceptible students. Claire's attendance at the outdoor social functions with several hundred students present exposed her to hundreds of potential carriers. College students represent the population most affected by meningitis.

There have been documented cases of meningitis in Claire's dorm. The closed, mixed environment of the college dorm allows for infection of susceptible students.

Why is vaccination for rubella recommended? It has a high mortality rate in school-age children. Death from secondary infections is common. There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects. Health care workers have a high incidence of infection. It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.

There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects.

Based on the concept map, which of the following must happen during Lyme disease? A bull's-eye-shaped rash will develop. There is massive inflammation of the meninges. There is an adaptive immune response.

There is an adaptive immune response. Since antibodies are used in the diagnosis of the disease, there must be an adaptive immune response.

What is a likely result of the elevated WBC level in Claire's CSF? Due to the high number of WBCs that have moved to the CSF to fight the infection, the N. meningitidis will be quickly eliminated. Due to the massive influx of WBCs, the cerebral tissue will be destroyed as the WBCs move from the CSF to the tissue. Claire will be more susceptible to infections in other anatomical locations because the majority of her immune cells will be in her brain. There will be an extreme inflammatory response which will eventually lead to shock and ultimately to Claire's death.

There will be an extreme inflammatory response which will eventually lead to shock and ultimately to Claire's death.

There are a large number of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis at 70S ribosomes found in bacterial cells but do not interfere with protein synthesis at the 80S ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells. Some of these antibiotics bind to the smaller ribosomal subunit and interfere with the reading of the mRNA code, whereas others bind to the larger ribosomal subunit and inhibit the formation of peptide bonds. Unfortunately, some of the antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria exhibit some toxicity to the eukaryotic host cells as well. What is the most likely reason for this toxicity to the host cell? These antibiotics plug up the membrane transport mechanisms in eukaryotic cells. These antibiotics interfere with DNA replication in eukaryotic cell nuclei. These antibiotics bind to eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes. These antibiotics bond to eukaryotic tRNA. These antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis within eukaryotic mitochondria.

These antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis within eukaryotic mitochondria.

In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)? They can be controlled by vaccination. Congenital complications may occur. Encephalitis is a possible complication. They are caused by the same virus. They have a similar type of rash.

They can be controlled by vaccination.

Which of the following best describes the mode of action of aminoglycosides? They interfere with protein synthesis by changing the shape of the ribosome. They interfere with purine biosynthesis. They disrupt the cell wall. They disrupt the plasma membrane.

They interfere with protein synthesis by changing the shape of the ribosome.

Why should children younger than 1 year of age NOT be fed honey? They may contract tetanus. They may contract listeriosis. Mycobacterium leprae is present in honey. They may contract botulism.

They may contract botulism.

Which of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is TRUE? Treatment is tetracyclines. The symptoms resemble pneumococcal pneumonia. The causative agent cannot be cultured. Annual vaccination can prevent infection. The causative agent is a virus.

Treatment is tetracyclines.

Nicole knew that these were both sexually transmitted infections caused by bacteria. Which of the following is correct regarding the causative agents for these diseases? Giardia intestinalis causes syphilis, while Neisseria meningitidis causes gonorrhea. Trichomonas vaginalis causes syphilis, while Chlamydia trachomatis causes gonorrhea. Borrelia burgdorferi causes syphilis, while Shigella dysenteriae causes gonorrhea. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea.

Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete that causes syphilis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus that causes gonorrhea.

An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity.

True

An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent.

True

Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men.

True

Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.

True

Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate "self" from "nonself."

True

Blue-green pus is characteristic of Pseudomonas wound infections.

True

Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States.

True

Gastroenteritis due to ingestion of food contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus is due to intoxication by enterotoxins.

True

H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment.

True

HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.

True

Haemophilus influenzae is the most common bacterial cause of pinkeye.

True

It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract.

True

Lactic acid, an end product of fructose fermentation, causes breakdown of tooth enamel and, eventually, cavities.

True

Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands.

True

The varicella-zoster virus is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles.

True

If an anti-A serum is shown in this agglutination test, then the patient's blood contains A antigens.

True The A antigens on the blood binds with the A antibodies in the anti-A serum and forms clumps.

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? Two are always twice as effective as one. It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. It can prevent drug resistance. It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs.

Two are always twice as effective as one.

Cholera is a waterborne pathogen that causes severe gastrointestinal disease. The organism is a slightly curved, gram-negative rod that likes to grow in the small intestine and causes watery stools and violent vomiting. Cholera is caused by the bacterium, __________ and produces __________ that result in severe diarrhea. Vibrio cholera; Shiga toxin Escherichia coli; lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Staphylococcus aureus; exotoxins Vibrio cholera; exotoxins

Vibrio cholera; exotoxins The causative agent of cholera is Vibrio cholerae. This organism is a curve-shaped, gram-negative rod. It produces cholera toxin, which is an exotoxin that causes infected individuals to experience extreme diarrhea and vomiting.

Which of the following statements about meningitis is TRUE? A vaccine exists to protect people against only meningitis caused by H. influenzae. Meningitis is an infection of the cerebral tissue resulting when bacteria or viruses cross the blood brain barrier. There are more than 50 bacterial species commonly associated with meningitis. Viral meningitis, while less severe than bacterial meningitis, is more common in occurrence.

Viral meningitis, while less severe than bacterial meningitis, is more common in occurrence.

Why is it more difficult to treat viral infections than it is to treat bacterial infections? Viruses are very similar to human cells. Viruses are smaller than human cells. Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction. Viruses have cell walls.

Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction.

You have a culture of bacteria that you suspect is either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Is there any morphological difference between the two? No. There is absolutely no difference in the appearance of the cells. Yes. S. aureus tends to grow in clusters, whereas S. pyogenes tends to grow in chains. Yes. S. aureus is a coccus, whereas S. pyogenes is a bacillus (rod). Yes. S. aureus is gram-positive, and S. pyogenes is gram-negative.

Yes. S. aureus tends to grow in clusters, whereas S. pyogenes tends to grow in chains.

Dental plaque is an example of a biofilm. a pellicle. tooth enamel. dentin. gingivitis.

a biofilm.

Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for conidiospores. an acid-fast reaction. a coagulase reaction. pseudopods. pseudohyphae.

a coagulase reaction.

Which of the following is used to treat shingles? penicillin trifluridine acyclovir fungicide sulfonamide

acyclovir

Our patient needs antibiotics to overcome this infection and prevent any further complications. Which of the following would be the best choice? cephalosporin-class antibiotics, such as ceftriaxone. macrolide-class antibiotics, such as azithromycin. a combination therapy of cephalosporin-class AND macrolide-class.

a combination therapy of cephalosporin-class AND macrolide-class.

John's physician said that he might be suffering from Chikungunya fever, an emerging disease that once was limited to Asia, Africa, and Europe, but is now making appearances in the Caribbean and the United States. How did John most likely get infected? a snake bite a spider bite a mosquito bite a tick bite

a mosquito bite As mentioned in the big picture activity, Chikungunya is spread via mosquitoes, particularly those in the genera of Aedes. John was most likely bitten by a mosquito while in the Caribbean on his honeymoon.

When the wasps stung Sally, the injection of venom initiated a type I hypersensitivity reaction called anaphylaxis. Which of the following best describes a hypersensitivity reaction? a hyperactive immune response generated upon initial exposure to antigen an immune response characterized by an overproduction of T cytotoxic cells an immune response that results in an overproduction of IgG a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity

a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity

The bacteria appear to be in clusters, as opposed to chains. This suggests that your patient has ______. an infection whose source cannot be determined a staphylococcal infection a streptococcal infection

a staphylococcal infection

Mr. Lane had a blood transfusion yesterday afternoon. Dr. Carroll noted on the chart that Mr. Lane was doing well at 7:00 p.m. However, she noted Mr. Lane may need an additional unit of blood if his blood oxygen values did not return to normal ranges soon. The chart indicates that Mr. Lane had just started receiving an additional unit. Terry enters the room and finds Mr. Lane experiencing chills and shortness of breath. She notes that Mr. Lane's heart rate is high, his blood pressure low, and he has a fever. Mr. Lane is alert and complaining that he feels horrible. Terry talks to the floor nurse and finds that she has already stopped the transfusion and alerted the charge nurse, the doctor on call, and Dr. Carroll. The patient is most likely experiencing __________. an autoimmune disease a type I hypersensitivity an immunodeficiency disease a transfusion reaction

a transfusion reaction

Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT carbuncles. pimples. sties. acne. boils.

acne.

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? metronidazole acyclovir miconazole cephalosporins

acyclovir

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate? acyclovir surgery metronidazole penicillin miconazole

acyclovir

What is being studied by the human microbiome project? all microorganisms living in or on the Earth all microorganisms living in or on the human body only pathogenic microorganisms living in reservoirs such as water or soil only pathogenic microorganisms living in or on the human body

all microorganisms living in or on the human body the relationships are usually commensal (where the organism is providing a benefit to the host without harming it) or mutual (both organisms benefit). While bacteria make up a good percentage of these communities, other members can include fungi or archaea. On rare occasions, some members of the normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens.

Predict which of the following are reasonable outcomes of the cytokine storm during the 1918 flu pandemic. an enhanced immune response to influenza an excessive inflammatory response leading to extensive tissue damage increased fluid in the lungs and labored breathing increased mortality in elderly people less severe symptoms associated with the infection

an excessive inflammatory response leading to extensive tissue damage increased fluid in the lungs and labored breathing

Dr. Smith assures Scott that although inflammation may sound scary, there are several possible options for treating Scott's moderate acne. Which of the following would be the most appropriate for Scott's case? eliminating the intake of fatty foods a prescription for Accutane an oral antibiotic such as erythromycin topical treatment with a product containing benzoyl peroxide topical application of salicylic acid Clear Light, a nonchemical, light-based system

an oral antibiotic such as erythromycin topical treatment with a product containing benzoyl peroxide Clear Light, a nonchemical, light-based system

Which of the following does histamine NOT directly cause? increased vascular permeability anaphylactic shock smooth muscle contraction vasodilation

anaphylactic shock

The most effective means of preventing influenza is annual vaccination. administration of amantadine. pasteurization of milk. vector control. isolation of carriers.

annual vaccination.

Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population? scalp armpits forearms feet

armpits

Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic when the mother is blind. when the mother has genital herpes. as a routine precaution. when the mother has gonorrhea. when Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes.

as a routine precaution.

Which of the following terms does NOT describe syphilis? spirochete attenuated infectious fastidious

attenuated

Which of the following terms describes the cause of inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD)? immunodeficiency disease infection intoxication autoimmune disease

autoimmune disease IBD is considered to be an autoimmune disease because the tissue damage that results is due to the inflammatory response of the host. It is hypothesized that antibiotic therapies increase the incidence of IBD by removing host microbiota that would normally keep inflammation in check.

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against fungi. viruses. bacteria. protozoa.

bacteria

Fluoroquinolones are the treatment prescribed for otitis externa, which is due to a __________. viral infection parasitic infection bacterial infection fungal infection

bacterial infection

All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT previous tuberculosis infection. current tuberculosis infection. being near someone with tuberculosis. immunity to tuberculosis. vaccination.

being near someone with tuberculosis.

Terry believes Mr. Lane is having a transfusion reaction. She orders continuous cardiac monitoring and pulse oximetry to monitor the hemoglobin saturation. She has a fluid drip started with low-dose dopamine to maintain kidney blood flow and function. She orders acetaminophen for Mr. Lane's discomfort. While waiting for the doctor on call, Terry explains blood grouping antigens and antibodies to James, a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) trainee.

blood group A: A antigen on RBCB antibodies present blood group B: B antigen on RBCA antibodies present blood group AB: A & B antigen on RBC no antibodies present blood group O: no antigen on RBC A & B antibodies present

Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT rabies. Haemophilus meningitis. tetanus. Neisseria meningitis. botulism.

botulism.

The common cold __________. is preferably treated with antibiotics can result from deposition of a single rhinovirus on the nasal mucosa is caused by viruses that thrive at temperatures slightly above normal body temperature is usually caused by coronaviruses

can result from deposition of a single rhinovirus on the nasal mucosa

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? herpes gladiatorum cold sores herpes whitlow canker sores herpes encephalitis

canker sores

Chlamydia PID is just part of the overall spectrum of disease caused by Chlamydia organisms. Even though we now understand more about STIs and their complications, we are still exploring how the organisms "branch out" beyond just a single infection. Which of the following diseases have Chlamydia infection as an etiology? cervical cancer lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) inclusion conjunctivitis fetal birth defects (teratogenicity) trachoma infertility pneumonia acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

cervical cancer lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) inclusion conjunctivitis trachoma infertility pneumonia

An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have? fever blisters measles rubella scabies chickenpox

chickenpox

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Buruli ulcer Mycobacterium chickenpox poxvirus keratitis Acanthamoeba otitis externa - Pseudomonas conjunctivitis Chlamydia trachomatis

chickenpox poxvirus

The physician performs a pelvic exam, which reveals the presence of an abnormal thin, watery vaginal discharge and inflammation of the cervix. The physician then palpates the abdomen (examines by touch and pressure) and finds that the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are enlarged and tender. The organism is classified as gram-negative, but it stains very poorly compared to other classic gram-negative STI pathogens. The stain shows both a nonreplicating, extracellular infectious elementary body and a replicating, noninfectious reticulate body inside mucosal cells from the cervical epithelium swab. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis for the patient? gonorrhea leptospirosis chlamydia syphilis

chlamydia

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of amebic dysentery. cholera. bacillary dysentery. salmonellosis. tapeworm infestation.

cholera.

The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT competition with the normal flora of the lungs. the ciliary escalator. IgA antibodies. mucous secretions. alveolar macrophages.

competition with the normal flora of the lungs.

The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza virus's neuramidase, are shown in the figure. What is the method of action of Tamiflu? competitive inhibition prevents synthesis of virus spikes inhibits synthesis of neuramidase inhibits plasma membrane synthesis inhibits cell wall synthesis

competitive inhibition

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of IgA antibodies in joints. complement in joints. IgD and IgE complexes in joints. IgG and IgA complexes in joints. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.

complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.

Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed conjunctivitis trachoma ophthalmia neonatorum whitlow keratititis

conjunctivitis

Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by biological vectors. exposure to contaminated soil. contaminated food and water. unpasteurized milk. the respiratory route.

contaminated food and water.

The most common mode of HAV transmission is airborne. contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment. blood transfusion. contaminated hypodermic needles. contamination of food during preparation.

contamination of food during preparation.

Research has indicated that during the inflammatory response to P. acnes, both the classical and the alternative complement pathways are activated. Which of the following are outcomes of activating complement pathways? generation of antibodies against P. acnes cytolysis inflammation opsonization activation of T cytotoxic cells

cytolysis inflammation opsonization

Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta? anthrax Spirillum Borrelia Yersinia cytomegalovirus

cytomegalovirus

Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection? Toxoplasma Borrelia Spirillum Yersinia cytomegalovirus

cytomegalovirus

Predict which of the following outcomes would result from taking an antihistamine. decreased permeability of blood vessels decreased stimulation of mast cells increased breakdown of the histamine molecule decreased mucus secretions decreased contraction of respiratory smooth muscles decreased histamine-based stimulation of cells

decreased permeability of blood vessels decreased mucus secretions decreased histamine-based stimulation of cells

A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which of the following do you suspect? yellow fever Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever Lassa fever dengue typhus

dengue

Acne is the result of the inflammatory response. In this case, the inflammation is resulting in acne that is very painful (physically and emotionally) for Scott. However, inflammation is a critical component of a normal immune response. What are the main functions of the inflammatory response? producing antibodies, which can target and eliminate the invading organism destroying and eliminating the invading pathogen "walling off" the site of injury or infection repairing tissue damage resulting from inflammation generating an increase of body temperature to inhibit the growth of the invading organism

destroying and eliminating the invading pathogen "walling off" the site of injury or infection repairing tissue damage resulting from inflammation

Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. blockage of viral attachment. destruction of viral ribosomes. termination of viral DNA. inhibition of viral proteases.

destruction of viral ribosomes.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza? diarrhea chills muscle aches fever headache

diarrhea

Tuberculosis is the name of the ___________ caused by the _________ Mycobacterium tuberculosis. disease; bacterium primary infection; virus primary infection; bacterium latent infection; bacterium

disease; bacterium

Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) frequently work by disrupting the plasma membrane. complementary base pairing with DNA. hydrolyzing peptidoglycan. inhibiting cell-wall synthesis. inhibiting protein synthesis.

disrupting the plasma membrane.

All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT complications include laryngitis and otitis media. the duration of symptoms is approximately one week. early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms. it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses. it is transmitted via aerosols and contact.

early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms.

One of the proposed treatments for IBD mentioned in the activity is transplant of microbes from one individual to another using what is referred to as "fecal microbiota transplantation" (FMT), which includes treatment with oral "poop pills" and also injection of donated stool samples into the rectum. The idea behind this treatment is to replenish microbiota that has been lost from the digestive tract. This treatment has shown to be successful in helping patients with C. difficile infections. Which of the following represents another means of replenishing the microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract? eating bread containing Penicillium drinking beer with active yeast cultures eating fried rice containing Staphylococcus aureus eating yogurt containing live Lactobacillus cultures

eating yogurt containing live Lactobacillus cultures

The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is treatment of uninfected humans. treatment of infected wild animals. avoidance of endemic areas. treatment of infected humans. elimination of the mosquito population.

elimination of the mosquito population.

A possible complication of chickenpox is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. congenital rubella syndrome. macular rash. encephalitis. fever blisters.

encephalitis.

Epstein-Barr virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT infectious mononucleosis. Burkitt's lymphoma. nasopharyngeal carcinoma. endocarditis. Hodgkin's disease.

endocarditis.

Dr. Smith prescribes oral erythromycin for Scott. She also recommends that he consider using an over-the-counter gel or cream containing benzoyl peroxide. Although this regimen should be effective at treating Scott's acne, there are some possible side effects. Which of the following are possible side effects of Scott's treatment? selection of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria gastrointestinal problems resulting from a reduction/elimination of normal intestinal flora immunosuppression due to prolonged use of oral antibiotics inflammatory bowel disease excessive drying of the skin

gastrointestinal problems resulting from a reduction/elimination of normal intestinal flora excessive drying of the skin

A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from genetically modified yeast. viruses grown in embryonated eggs. viruses grown in tissue culture. pooled gamma globulin. viral particles in patients.

genetically modified yeast.

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable? NGU genital herpes candidiasis syphilis gonorrhea

genital herpes

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? gonorrhea genital herpes chancroid syphilis LGV

genital herpes

Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of candidiasis. lymphogranuloma venereum. genital herpes. trichomoniasis. Gardnerella vaginosis.

genital herpes.

Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with halitosis. trench mouth. periodontitis. cavities. gingivitis.

gingivitis.

The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. glycogen; lactic acid protein; acetic acid urine; lactic acid mucosal cells; lactic acid glucose; ethanol

glycogen; lactic acid

The most common reportable disease in the United States is lymphogranuloma venereum. cystitis. syphilis. candidiasis. gonorrhea.

gonorrhea.

Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor. gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane. gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.

gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.

If penicillin G is chosen as the best treatment for a given infection, what microorganisms are most likely the cause? gram-negative bacteria fungi viruses gram-positive bacteria

gram-positive bacteria

All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT rod-shaped. resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics. growth in moist environments. production of pyocyanin. gram-positive cell wall.

gram-positive cell wall.

Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications are transmitted via contaminated water. have shorter incubation times. are more severe. are accompanied by high fever. are treated with antibiotics.

have shorter incubation times.

Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen? hay fever pollen dust mites peanuts

hay fever

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is nosocomial. blood transfusions. homosexual intercourse. heterosexual intercourse. intravenous drug use.

heterosexual intercourse.

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause immunosuppression. autoimmunity. immunologic enhancement. immunologic surveillance. immunotherapy.

immunosuppression

Which population is most likely to develop bacterial meningitis? senior citizens infants and young children healthy carriers

infants and young children

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? sucrose lactic acid crevicular fluid dentin lysozyme

lactic acid

What organ is most affected by hepatitis B virus? kidneys liver meninges spleen

liver

A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________. localized; asthma localized; urticaria localized; anaphylaxis systemic; urticaria

localized; urticaria

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? semisynthetic penicillins cephalosporins natural penicillins macrolides vancomycin

macrolides

Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because the infections move along peripheral nerves. no medications exist for treatment of these infections. antibiotics damage nervous tissue. many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier. it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.

many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier.

Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of measles. smallpox. chickenpox. fifth disease. rubella.

measles

All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT methicillin resistance. M proteins. hyaluronidase production. the ability to damage cell membranes. the ability to dissolve blood clots.

methicillin resistance.

Which of the following symptoms is LEAST characteristic of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning? moderate vomiting and fever sudden onset of diarrhea short incubation period severe abdominal cramping

moderate vomiting and fever

Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because mosquito populations increase. ameba populations increase in swimming pools. ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods. people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings. pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes.

mosquito populations increase.

All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water. the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus. the majority of cases are asymptomatic. initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine. most cases result in muscle paralysis.

most cases result in muscle paralysis.

Predict which of the following would be outcomes of treatment with Tamiflu. decreased production of the NA protein by the host cell overall decrease in the replication rate of influenza a decrease in the release of viral particles from the cell an increase in the ability of the immune system to combat the infection decreased ability of influenza to attach to host cells

overall decrease in the replication rate of influenza a decrease in the release of viral particles from the cell an increase in the ability of the immune system to combat the infection

Warts are caused by parvovirus. papillomavirus. Staphylococcus aureus. herpesvirus. poxvirus.

papillomavirus

Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? chloramphenicol erythromycin tetracycline streptomycin penicillin

penicillin

Which of the following is likely to spread MRSA among athletes? physical contact taping gels whirlpool baths shared equipment

physical contact taping gels whirlpool baths shared equipment

A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has tuberculosis. pneumococcal pneumonia. mycoplasmal pneumonia. the common cold. influenza.

pneumococcal pneumonia.

Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it invades epithelial cells. makes a capsule. possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl. makes HCl. hides in macrophages.

possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.

On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. These people were given human diploid cell vaccine. immune globulin injections. antibiotics. antiviral medications. postexposure prophylaxis.

postexposure prophylaxis.

Which of the following are incorrectly matched? parvovirus fifth disease varicella-zoster chickenpox HHV-6 roseola herpes zoster shingles poxvirus fever blisters

poxvirus fever blisters

The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in the figure. The effect is to prevent ribosome formation in bacteria. prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes. prevent transcription in prokaryotes. prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes. prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.

prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.

More than half of our antibiotics are produced by bacteria. synthesized in laboratories. produced by Fleming. produced by eukaryotic organisms. produced by fungi

produced by bacteria

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? produces endotoxins is aerobic is gram-positive forms endospores found in soil

produces endotoxins

Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis? puerperal sepsis Hantavirus infection tularemia anthrax brucellosis

puerperal sepsis

A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates urethritis. cystitis. pyelonephritis. gonorrhea. genital herpes.

pyelonephritis.

All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT pyocyanin production. salt. lysozyme production. tightly packed cells. keratin.

pyocyanin production.

Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. rabies. sheep scrapie. kuru. bovine spongiform encephalopathy.

rabies

Which of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants? adenovirus rhinovirus influenza Mycoplasma respiratory syncytial virus

respiratory syncytial virus

Consider a Kirby-Bauer disk-diffusion assay. If you put penicillin and streptomycin disks adjacent to one another, the zone of inhibition is greater than that obtained by either disk alone. This is an example of __________. mutual exclusion antagonism synergism RNA interference

synergism Synergism describes the combined effects of two or more drugs compared with their effects when taken separately.

Which of the following is treated with penicillin? genital herpes trichomoniasis syphilis candidiasis genital warts

syphilis

Al Capone contracted syphilis in his youth. By the time he was imprisoned in Alcatraz, he was suffering from syphilis-induced confusion and disorientation. What stage of syphilis did Mr. Capone have at this time? primary secondary tertiary

tertiary

Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is penicillin. tetanus immune globulin. none; no action is necessary. debridement. tetanus toxoid.

tetanus immune globulin.

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are penicillin G. macrolides. chloramphenicol. aminoglycosides. tetracyclines.

tetracyclines

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because the antibiotics persist in soil and water. bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics. the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal. the antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics. the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny.

the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

After reviewing your patient's medical history, you decide to list out the factors that you think will be most important to your diagnostic process. Review the following list and select the factors that you believe are most relevant to a diagnosis. the patient's age the patient's pets the fact that more than one person had similar symptoms the fact that the bite did not respond to treatment with antibiotic ointment the patient's parents' occupations the patient's location the patient's activities before and during the infection the patient's symptoms

the fact that more than one person had similar symptoms the fact that the bite did not respond to treatment with antibiotic ointment the patient's activities before and during the infection the patient's symptoms

Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system? the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women flushing action of urine pH of the urine physiological valves found in the ureter

the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because they have more genes than bacteria. they do not reproduce. they do not have ribosomes. their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. they replicate inside human cells.

their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

The eradication of smallpox was possible because it occurs only in the tropics. insect vectors were eliminated. it was a relatively mild disease. there are no animal reservoirs of the virus. it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox.

there are no animal reservoirs of the virus.

All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT they are rarely rejected. they include any tissue transplanted from a pig. they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus. they include corneal and brain tissue. they do not have lymphatic vessels.

they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.

A patient exhibiting arthritis secondary to Lyme disease is likely in which phase of the infection? fourth second third first

third

All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT chickenpox. measles. smallpox. tinea. rubella.

tinea.

The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is trachoma. inclusion conjunctivitis. keratoconjunctivitis. pinkeye. neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia.

trachoma.

Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection? treatable with penicillin affected mostly children not contagious transmitted by ticks accompanied by a rash

treatable with penicillin

Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine? influenza viruses grown in embryonated eggs whooping cough heat-killed bacteria pneumococcal pneumonia capsular polysaccharides diphtheria toxoid tuberculosis toxoid

tuberculosis toxoid

A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to varicella-zoster virus. Streptococcus pyogenes. herpes simplex virus. Staphylococcus aureus. Candida albicans.

varicella-zoster virus.