med surg 1 final

40. A client was fitted with an arm cast after fracturing the humerus. Twelve hours after the application of the cast, the client tells the nurse that the injured arm hurts. Analgesics do not relieve the pain. What would be the most appropriate nursing action? A. Prepare the client for opening or bivalving of the cast. B. Obtain a prescription for a different analgesic. C. Encourage the client to wiggle and move the fingers. D. Petal the edges of the client's cast.

ANS: A Rationale: Acute compartment syndrome involves a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the tissues distal to an area of injury that results in ischemic necrosis if prompt, decisive intervention does not occur. Removing or bivalving the cast is necessary to relieve pressure. Prescribing different analgesics does not address the underlying problem. Encouraging the client to move the fingers or perform range-of-motion exercises will not treat or prevent compartment syndrome. Petaling the edges of a cast with tape prevents abrasions and skin breakdown, not compartment syndrome.

4. A client was brought to the emergency department after a fall. The client is taken to the operating room to receive a right hip prosthesis. In the immediate postoperative period, what health education should the nurse emphasize? A. "Make sure you don't bring your knees close together." B. "Try to lie as still as possible for the first few days." C. "Try to avoid bending your knees until next week." D. "Keep your legs higher than your chest whenever you can."

ANS: A Rationale: After receiving a hip prosthesis, the affected leg should be kept abducted. Mobility should be encouraged within safe limits. There is no need to avoid knee flexion and the client's legs do not need to be higher than the level of the chest.

12. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client scheduled for hip replacement surgery in 1 month. During the preoperative teaching, the client gives the nurse a list of medications the client takes, along with their dosage and frequency. What intervention provides the client with the most accurate information? A. Instruct the client to stop taking St. John's wort at least 2 weeks prior to surgery due to its interaction with anesthetic agents. B. Instruct the client to continue taking ephedrine prior to surgery due to its beneficial effect on blood pressure. C. Instruct the client to discontinue levothyroxine sodium due to its effect on blood coagulation and the potential for heart dysrhythmias. D. Instruct the client to continue any herbal supplements unless otherwise instructed, and inform the client that these supplements have a minimal effect on the surgical procedure.

ANS: A Rationale: Because of the potential effects of herbal medications on coagulation and potential lethal interactions with other medications, the nurse must ask surgical clients specifically about the use of these agents, document their use, and inform the surgical team and anesthesiologist, anesthetist, or nurse anesthetist. Currently, it is recommended that the use of herbal products be discontinued at least 2 weeks before

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock following injuries from a motor vehicle accident. In addition to normal saline, which crystalloid fluid should the nurse prepare to administer?

ANS: A Rationale: Crystalloids are electrolyte solutions used for the treatment of hypovolemic shock. Lactated Ringer and 0.9% sodium chloride are isotonic crystalloid fluids commonly used to manage hypovolemic shock. Dextran and albumin are colloids, but Dextran, even as a colloid, is not indicated for the treatment of hypovolemic shock. The 3% NaCl is a hypertonic solution and is not isotonic.

4. A 35-year-old client presents at the emergency department with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what intervention should the nurse prioritize? A. Insertion of a nasogastric tube B. Insertion of a central venous catheter C. Administration of a mineral oil enema D. Administration of a glycerin suppository and an oral laxative

ANS: A Rationale: Decompression of the bowel through a nasogastric tube is necessary for all clients with small bowel obstruction. Peripheral IV access is normally sufficient. Enemas, suppositories, and laxatives are not indicated if an obstruction is present.

14. The perioperative nurse is writing a care plan for a client who has returned from surgery 2 hours ago. Which measure should the nurse implement to most decrease the client's risk of developing pulmonary emboli (PE)? A. Early ambulation B. Increased dietary intake of protein C. Maintaining the client in a supine position D. Administering aspirin with warfarin

ANS: A Rationale: For clients at risk for PE, the most effective approach for prevention is to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Active leg exercises to avoid venous stasis, early ambulation, and use of elastic compression stockings are general preventive measures. The client does not require increased dietary intake of protein directly related to prevention of PE, although it will assist in wound healing during the postoperative period. The client should not be maintained in one position, but frequently repositioned unless contraindicated by the surgical procedure. Aspirin should never be given with warfarin because it will increase the client's risk for bleeding.

8. A client presents to the clinic reporting vomiting and burning in the mid-epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the health care provider is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what? A. Infection with Helicobacter pylori B. Excessive stomach acid secretion C. An incompetent pyloric sphincter D. A metabolic acid-base imbalance

ANS: A Rationale: H. pylori infection may be determined by endoscopy and histologic examination of a tissue specimen obtained by biopsy, or a rapid urease test of the biopsy specimen. Excessive stomach acid secretion leads to gastritis; however, peptic ulcers are caused by colonization of the stomach by H. pylori. Sphincter dysfunction and acid-base imbalances do not cause peptic ulcer disease.

2. In an acute care setting, the nurse is assessing an unstable client. When prioritizing the client's care, the nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for hypovolemic shock in which of the following circumstances? A. Fluid volume circulating in the blood vessels decreases. B. There is an uncontrolled increase in cardiac output. C. Blood pressure regulation becomes irregular. D. The client experiences tachycardia and a bounding pulse.

ANS: A Rationale: Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume. Cardiac output is decreased, blood pressure decreases, and pulse is fast, but weak.

29. A client has questioned the nurse's administration of intravenous (IV) normal saline, asking, "Wouldn't sterile water be a more appropriate choice than saltwater?" Under what circumstances would the nurse administer electrolyte-free water intravenously? A. Never, because it rapidly enters red blood cells, causing them to rupture. B. When the client is severely dehydrated, resulting in neurologic signs and symptoms C. When the client is in excess of calcium and/or magnesium ions D. When a client's fluid volume deficit is due to acute or chronic kidney disease

ANS: A Rationale: IV solutions contain dextrose or electrolytes mixed in various proportions with water. Pure, electrolyte-free water can never be given by IV because it rapidly enters red blood cells and causes them to rupture.

10. The nurse is assessing an adult client following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes that the client has an increased use of accessory muscles and is reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse should recognize the possibility of which condition? A. Pneumothorax B. Cardiac ischemia C. Acute bronchitis D. Aspiration

ANS: A Rationale: If the pneumothorax is large and the lung collapses totally, acute respiratory distress occurs. The client is anxious, has dyspnea and air hunger, has increased use of the accessory muscles, and may develop central cyanosis from severe hypoxemia. These symptoms are not definitive of pneumothorax, but because of the client's recent trauma they are inconsistent with cardiac ischemia, bronchitis, and aspiration.

32. The surgical nurse is admitting a client from postanesthetic recovery following the client's below-the-knee amputation. The nurse recognizes the client's high risk for postoperative hemorrhage and should keep what equipment at the bedside? A. A tourniquet B. A syringe preloaded with vitamin K C. A unit of packed red blood cells, placed on ice D. A dose of protamine sulfate

ANS: A Rationale: Immediate postoperative bleeding may develop slowly or may take the form of massive hemorrhage resulting from a loosened suture. A large tourniquet should be in plain sight at the client's bedside so that, if severe bleeding occurs, it can be applied to the residual limb to control the hemorrhage. PRBCs cannot be kept at the bedside. Vitamin K and protamine sulfate are antidotes to warfarin and heparin, but are not given to treat active postsurgical bleeding.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a lobectomy for lung cancer. While assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion, the nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is rapidly dropping. The client reports shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects a pneumothorax has developed. Which further assessment finding would support the presence of a pneumothorax? A. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side B. Paradoxical chest wall movement with respirations C. Sudden loss of consciousness D. Muffled heart sounds

ANS: A Rationale: In the case of a simple pneumothorax, auscultating the breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Sudden loss of consciousness does not typically occur. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in pericardial tamponade.

19. The nurse is evaluating a newly admitted client's laboratory results, which include several values that are outside of reference ranges. Which of the following alterations would cause the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A. Increased serum sodium B. Decreased serum potassium C. Decreased hemoglobin D. Increased platelets

ANS: A Rationale: Increased serum sodium causes increased osmotic pressure, increased thirst, and the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. When serum osmolality decreases and thirst and ADH secretions are suppressed, the kidney excretes more water to restore normal osmolality. Levels of potassium, hemoglobin, and platelets do not directly affect ADH release.

37. A clinic nurse is conducting a preoperative interview with an adult client who will soon be scheduled to undergo cardiac surgery. What interview question most directly addresses the client's safety? A. "What prescription and nonprescription medications do you currently take?" B. "Have you previously been admitted to the hospital, either for surgery or for medical treatment?" C. "How long do you expect to be at home recovering after your surgery?" D. "Would you say that you tend to eat a fairly healthy diet?"

ANS: A Rationale: It is imperative to know a preoperative client's current medication regimen, including OTC medications and supplements. None of the other listed questions directly addresses an issue with major safety implications.

37. A critical care nurse is aware of the high incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in clients who are being treated for shock. What intervention should be specified in the client's plan of care while the client is ventilated? A. Performing frequent oral care B. Maintaining the client in a supine position C. Suctioning the client every 15 minutes unless contraindicated D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics, as prescribed

ANS: A Rationale: Nursing interventions that reduce the incidence of VAP must also be implemented. These include frequent oral care, aseptic suction technique, turning, and elevating the head of the bed at least 30 degrees to prevent aspiration. Suctioning should not be excessively frequent and prophylactic antibiotics are not normally indicated.

18. Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a client with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication? A. Peritonitis B. Gastritis C. Gastroesophageal reflux D. Acute pancreatitis

ANS: A Rationale: Perforation is the erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning. Chemical peritonitis develops within a few hours of perforation and is followed by bacterial peritonitis. Gastritis, reflux, and pancreatitis are not acute complications of a perforated ulcer.

6. A nurse is presenting an educational event to a local community group. When speaking about colorectal cancer, what risk factor should the nurse cite? A. High levels of alcohol consumption B. History of bowel obstruction C. History of diverticulitis D. Longstanding psychosocial stress

ANS: A Rationale: Risk factors include high alcohol intake; cigarette smoking; and high-fat, high-protein, low-fiber diet. Diverticulitis, obstruction, and stress are not noted as risk factors for colorectal cancer.

8. The nursing care plan for a client in traction specifies regular assessments for venous thromboembolism (VTE). When assessing a client's lower limbs, what sign or symptom is suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A. Increased warmth of the calf B. Decreased circumference of the calf C. Loss of sensation to the calf D. Pale-appearing calf

ANS: A Rationale: Signs of DVT include increased warmth, redness, swelling, and calf tenderness. These findings are promptly reported to the health care provider for definitive evaluation and therapy. Signs and symptoms of a DVT do not include a decreased circumference of the calf, a loss of sensation in the calf, or a pale-appearing calf.

12. The nurse is caring for a client at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the client. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis? A. Incentive spirometry B. Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) D. Bronchoscopy

ANS: A Rationale: Strategies to prevent atelectasis, which include frequent turning, early ambulation, lung-volume expansion maneuvers (deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry), and coughing, serve as the first-line measures to minimize or treat atelectasis by improving ventilation. In clients who do not respond to first-line measures or who cannot perform deep-breathing exercises, other treatments such as positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), continuous or intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB), or bronchoscopy may be used.

9. A client has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing client teaching, which information should the nurse prioritize? A. The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen B. The disease being a lifelong, chronic condition that will affect activities of daily living (ADLs) C. TB being self-limiting but taking up to 2 years to resolve D. The need to work closely with the occupational and physical therapists

ANS: A Rationale: Successful treatment of TB is highly dependent on careful adherence to the medication regimen. The disease is not self-limiting; occupational and physical therapy are not necessarily indicated. TB is curable.

7. A client who experienced a large upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this client should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence? A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea B. Tarry, foul-smelling stools C. Diaphoresis and sudden onset of abdominal pain D. Sudden thirst, unrelieved by oral fluid administration

ANS: A Rationale: Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of recurrent bleeding. Clients who have had one GI bleed are at risk for recurrence. Tarry stools are expected short-term findings after a hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is not normally associated with sudden thirst or diaphoresis.

36. A nurse is admitting a new client who has been admitted with a diagnosis of COPD exacerbation. How can the nurse best help the client achieve the goal of maintaining effective oxygenation? A. Teach the client strategies for promoting diaphragmatic breathing. B. Administer supplementary oxygen by simple face mask. C. Teach the client to perform airway suctioning. D. Assist the client in developing an appropriate exercise program.

ANS: A Rationale: The breathing pattern of most people with COPD is shallow, rapid, and inefficient; the more severe the disease, the more inefficient the breathing pattern. With practice, this type of upper chest breathing can be changed to diaphragmatic breathing, which reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and sometimes helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Suctioning is not normally necessary in clients with COPD. Supplementary oxygen is not normally delivered by simple face mask and exercise may or may not be appropriate.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a total arthroplasty of the right hip. How should the nurse position the client? A. Place a pillow between the legs. B. Turn the client on the surgical side. C. Avoid flexion of the right hip. D. Keep the right hip adducted at all times.

ANS: A Rationale: The hips should be kept in abduction by a pillow placed between the legs. When positioning the client in bed, the nurse should avoid placing the client on the operated hip. The right hip should not be flexed more than 90 degrees to avoid dislocation. The right hip should be maintained in an abducted position.

26. A nurse is caring for a client who had a right below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The nurse recognizes the importance of implementing measures that focus on preventing flexion contracture of the hip and maintaining proper positioning. What nursing action will best achieve these goals? A. Encouraging the client to turn from side to side and to assume a prone position B. Initiating ROM exercises of the hip and knee 10 to 12 weeks after the amputation C. Minimizing movement of the flexor muscles of the hip D. Encouraging the client to sit in a chair for at least 8 hours a day

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse encourages the client to turn from side to side and to assume a prone position, if possible, to stretch the flexor muscles and to prevent flexion contracture of the hip. Postoperative ROM exercises are started early because contracture deformities develop rapidly. ROM exercises include hip and knee exercises for clients with BKAs. The nurse also discourages sitting for prolonged periods of time.

14. A client who is being treated for pneumonia reports sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mm Hg. Which condition does the ABG reflect? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis

ANS: A Rationale: The pH is below 7.35, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis, but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.

20. The nurse is teaching the client on bed rest to perform quadriceps setting exercises. Which instruction should the nurse give the client? A. "Push the knees into the mattress." B. "Lie prone in bed." C. "Contract the buttock muscles." D. "Bend the knees."

ANS: A Rationale: To perform quadriceps setting exercises, the client lies in the supine (face up) position with legs extended, and pushes the knees into the bed while contracting the anterior thigh muscles. The client does not lie prone (face down), contract the buttocks, or bend the knees.

4. The ED nurse is assessing a client who is reporting dyspnea. The nurse auscultates the client's chest and hears wheezing throughout the lung fields. What might this indicate about the client? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Pneumonia C. Hemoptysis D. Hemothorax

ANS: A Rationale: Wheezing is a high-pitched, musical sound that is often the major finding in a client with bronchoconstriction or airway narrowing. Wheezing is not normally indicative of pneumonia (an infection of the lungs), hemoptysis (the expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract), or hemothorax (a collection of blood in the space between the chest wall and the lung).

5. A client is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. When planning this client's care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse prioritize? A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to bowel ischemia B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to impaired absorption C. Anxiety related to bowel obstruction and subsequent hospitalization D. Impaired skin integrity related to bowel obstruction

ANS: A Rationale: When the bowel is completely obstructed, the possibility of strangulation and tissue necrosis (i.e., tissue death) warrants surgical intervention. As such, this immediate physiologic need is a nursing priority. Nutritional support and management of anxiety are necessary, but bowel ischemia is a more immediate threat. Skin integrity is not threatened.

2. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When reviewing the client's most recent laboratory reports, the nurse notes that the client's magnesium levels are high. The nurse should prioritize assessment for what health problem? A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes B. Tachycardia C. Cool, clammy skin D. Acute flank pain

ANS: A Rationale: To gauge a client's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex is absent, this may indicate high serum magnesium. Tachycardia, flank pain, and cool, clammy skin are not typically associated with hypermagnesemia.

4. A nurse educator is teaching a group of recent nursing graduates about their occupational risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measures should the educator promote? Select all that apply. A. Immunization B. Use of standard precautions C. Consumption of a vitamin-rich diet D. Annual vitamin K injections E. Annual vitamin B12 injections

ANS: A, B Rationale: People who are at high occupational risk for contracting hepatitis B, including nurses and other health care personnel exposed to blood or blood products, should receive active immunization. The consistent use of standard precautions is also highly beneficial. Vitamin supplementation is unrelated to an individual's risk of HBV.

38. A client is being treated in the ICU for neurogenic shock secondary to a spinal cord injury. Despite aggressive interventions, the client's mean arterial pressure (MAP) has fallen to 55 mm Hg. The nurse should assess for the onset of acute kidney injury by referring to what laboratory findings? Select all that apply. A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level B. Urine specific gravity C. Alkaline phosphatase level D. Creatinine level E. Serum albumin level

ANS: A, B, D Rationale: Acute kidney injury (AKI) is characterized by an increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels, fluid and electrolyte shifts, acid-base imbalances, and a loss of the renal-hormonal regulation of BP. Urine specific gravity is also affected. Alkaline phosphatase and albumin levels are related to hepatic function.

34. The nurse is providing discharge education to a client who had hypophosphatemia while in the hospital. The client has a diet prescribed that is high in phosphate. Which foods should the nurse teach this client to include in the diet? Select all that apply. A. Milk B. Beef C. Potatoes D. Green vegetables E. Liver

ANS: A, B, E Rationale: If the client experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods rich in phosphorus, such as milk and milk products, meats, and beans, should be encouraged. Potatoes and green leafy vegetables are not rich in phosphorus.

30. The nurse is planning the care of a client who has type 1 diabetes and who will be undergoing knee replacement surgery. This client's care plan should reflect an increased risk of what postsurgical complication(s)? Select all that apply. A. Hypoglycemia B. Delirium C. Acidosis D. Glucosuria E. Fluid overload

ANS: A, C, D Rationale: Hypoglycemia may develop during anesthesia or postoperatively from inadequate carbohydrates or excessive administration of insulin. Other risks are acidosis and glucosuria. The risks of fluid overload and delirium are not normally increased.

30. A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. Which factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that apply. A. Decreased kidney mass B. Increased conservation of sodium C. Increased total body water D. Decreased renal blood flow E. Decreased excretion of potassium

ANS: A, D, E Rationale: Dehydration in older adults is common as a result of decreased kidney mass, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased renal blood flow, decreased ability to concentrate urine, inability to conserve sodium, decreased excretion of potassium, and a decrease of total body water.

31. The surgical nurse is preparing to send a client from the presurgical area to the OR and is reviewing the client's informed consent form. What are the criteria for legally valid informed consent? Select all that apply. A. Consent must be freely given. B. Consent must be notarized. C. Consent must be signed on the day of surgery. D. Consent must be obtained by a health care provider. E. Signature must be witnessed by a professional staff member.

ANS: A, D, E Rationale: Valid consent must be freely given, without coercion. Consent must be obtained by a health care provider, and the client's signature must be witnessed by a professional staff member. It does not need to be signed on the same day as the surgery and it does not need to be notarized.

1. A nurse is caring for a client who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the client about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe it? A. Inflammation of the lining of the stomach B. Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine C. Bleeding from the mucosa in the stomach D. Viral invasion of the stomach wall

ANS: B Rationale: A peptic ulcer is erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine. Peptic ulcers are often accompanied by bleeding and inflammation, but these are not the definitive characteristics.

4. A client with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the client is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acid-base imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Increased PaCO2 D. Metabolic acidosis

ANS: B Rationale: Extreme anxiety can lead to hyperventilation, the most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis. During hyperventilation, CO2 is lost through the lungs, creating an alkalotic state and a low PaCO2. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as pulmonary edema, and is exhibited by hypoventilation and decreased PaCO2. Metabolic acidosis results from the loss of bicarbonate, not CO2.

20. A nurse is providing care for a client whose recent colostomy has contributed to a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image Related to Colostomy. What intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A. Encourage the client to conduct online research into colostomies. B. Engage the client in dialogue about the implications of having the colostomy. C. Emphasize the fact that the colostomy was needed to alleviate a much more serious health problem. D. Emphasize the fact that the colostomy is temporary measure and is not permanent.

ANS: B Rationale: For many clients, being able to dialogue frankly about the effect of the ostomy with a nonjudgmental nurse is helpful. Emphasizing the benefits of the intervention is unlikely to improve the client's body image, since the benefits are likely already known. Online research is not likely to enhance the client's body image and some ostomies are permanent.

8. During the care of a preoperative client, the nurse has given the client a preoperative benzodiazepine. The client is now requesting to void. What action should the nurse take? A. Assist the client to the bathroom. B. Offer the client a bedpan or urinal. C. Wait until the client gets to the operating room and is catheterized. D. Have the client go to the bathroom.

ANS: B Rationale: If a preanesthetic medication is given, the client is kept in bed with the side rails raised because the medication can cause lightheadedness or drowsiness. If a client needs to void following administration of a sedative, the nurse should offer the client a bedpan. The client should not get out of bed because of the potential for lightheadedness.

35. An 11-year-old client has been brought to the emergency department by their parent, who reports that the client may be having a "really bad allergic reaction to peanuts" after trading lunches with a peer. The triage nurse's rapid assessment reveals the presence of respiratory and cardiac arrest. Which interventions should the nurse prioritize? A. Establishing central venous access and beginning fluid resuscitation B. Establishing a patent airway and beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) C. Establishing peripheral intravenous (IV) access and administering IV epinephrine D. Performing a comprehensive assessment and initiating rapid fluid replacement

ANS: B Rationale: If cardiac arrest and respiratory arrest are imminent or have occurred, CPR is performed. A patent airway is also an immediate priority. Epinephrine is not withheld pending IV access, and fluid resuscitation is not a priority.

13. A nurse caring for a client with a newly created ileostomy assesses the client and notes that the client has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours. The client also reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse. B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider. C. Encourage the client to mobilize in order to enhance motility. D. Contact the health care provider and obtain a swab of the stoma for culture.

ANS: B Rationale: It is important to report nausea and abdominal distention, which may indicate intestinal obstruction. This requires prompt medical intervention. Referral to the WOC nurse is not an appropriate short-term response, since medical treatment is necessary. Physical mobility will not normally resolve an obstruction. There is no need to collect a culture from the stoma because infection is unrelated to this problem.

25. The nurse caring for a client post colon resection is assessing the client on the second postoperative day. The nasogastric tube remains patent and is draining moderate amounts of greenish fluid. Which assessment finding would suggest that the client's potassium level is too low? A. Diarrhea B. Paresthesias C. Increased muscle tone D. Joint pain

ANS: B Rationale: Manifestations of hypokalemia include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, leg cramps, decreased bowel motility, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), and arrhythmias. The client would not have diarrhea because increased bowel motility is inconsistent with hypokalemia. Joint pain is not a symptom of hypokalemia, nor is increased muscle tone.

6. A nurse is assessing a client who has peptic ulcer disease. The client requests more information about the typical causes of Helicobacter pylori infection. What would it be appropriate for the nurse to instruct the client? A. Most affected clients acquired the infection during international travel. B. Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water. C. Many people possess genetic factors causing a predisposition to H. pylori infection. D. The H. pylori microorganism is endemic in warm, moist climates.

ANS: B Rationale: Most peptic ulcers result from infection with the gram-negative bacteria H. pylori, which may be acquired through ingestion of food and water. The organism is endemic to many areas, not only warm, moist climates. Genetic factors have not been identified.

30. What nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize to facilitate healing in a client who has suffered a hip fracture? A. Administer analgesics as required. B. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning. C. Maintain prone positioning at all times. D. Encourage internal and external rotation of the affected leg.

ANS: B Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs when turning prevents adduction and supports the client's legs. Administering analgesics addresses pain but does not directly protect bone remodeling and promote healing. Rotation of the affected leg can cause dislocation and must be avoided. Prone positioning does not need to be maintained at all times.

71. A nurse in the ICU is planning the care of a client who is being treated for shock. What statement best describes the pathophysiology of this client's health problem? A. Blood is shunted from vital organs to peripheral areas of the body. B. Cells lack an adequate blood supply and are deprived of oxygen and nutrients. C. Circulating blood volume is decreased with a resulting change in the osmotic pressure gradient. D. Hemorrhage occurs as a result of trauma, depriving vital organs of adequate perfusion.

ANS: B Rationale: Shock is a life-threatening condition with a variety of underlying causes. Shock is caused when the cells do not have an adequate blood supply and are deprived of oxygen and nutrients. In cases of shock, blood is shunted from peripheral areas of the body to the vital organs. Hemorrhage and decreased blood volume are associated with some, but not all, types of shock.

18. A client has recently been admitted to the orthopedic unit following total hip arthroplasty. The nurse assesses that the indwelling urinary catheter was removed one hour ago in the post-anesthesia care unit and that the client has not yet voided. Which action should the nurse take? A. Inform the primary provider promptly. B. Ask if the client needs to void. C. Perform intermittent catheterization. D. Obtain an order to reinsert the indwelling urinary catheter.

ANS: B Rationale: Since the indwelling urinary catheter was removed one hour earlier, the client would be expected to void within the next five hours (six hours after removal of the catheter). The nurse should ask the client if there is an urge to void. If the client does not feel the urge to void, the nurse should check periodically over the next 5 hours. Since not voiding within one hour of catheter removal is within normal, the nurse does not need to inform the health care provider, perform intermittent catheterization, or obtain an order to insert an indwelling catheter.

10. The surgical nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. The client reports tingling in the lips and fingers. The client also reports an intermittent spasm in the wrist and hand and exhibits increased muscle tone. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse first suspect? A. Hypophosphatemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hyperkalemia

ANS: B Rationale: Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Sensations of tingling may occur in the tips of the fingers, around the mouth, and, less commonly, in the feet. Hypophosphatemia creates central nervous dysfunction, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia creates hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Signs of hyperkalemia include paresthesias and anxiety.

32. The nurse is caring for an unconscious trauma client who needs emergency surgery. The client has an adult child, is legally divorced, and is planning to marry a partner in a few weeks. The client's parents are at the hospital with the other family members. The health care provider has explained the need for surgery, the procedure to be done, and the risks to the child, the parents, and the partner. Who should be asked to sign the surgery consent form? A. The partner B. The child C. The health care provider, acting as a surrogate D. The client's father

ANS: B Rationale: The client personally signs the consent if of legal age and mentally capable. Permission is otherwise obtained from a surrogate, who most often is a responsible family member (preferably next of kin) or legal guardian. In this instance, the child would be the appropriate person to ask to sign the consent form as the child is the closest relative at the hospital. The partner is not legally related to the client as the marriage has not yet taken place. The father would only be asked to sign the consent if no children were present to sign. The health care provider would not sign if family members were available.

27. A medical nurse educator is reviewing a client's recent episode of metabolic acidosis with members of the nursing staff. What should the educator describe about the role of the kidneys in metabolic acidosis? A. The kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. B. The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. C. The kidneys react rapidly to compensate for imbalances in the body. D. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the intracellular fluid.

ANS: B Rationale: The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. In respiratory and metabolic alkalosis, the kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The kidneys obviously cannot compensate for the metabolic acidosis created by kidney disease. Renal compensation for imbalances is relatively slow (a matter of hours or days).

9. A client with a right tibial fracture is being discharged home after having a cast applied. What instruction should the nurse provide in relationship to the client's cast care? A. "Cover the cast with a blanket until the cast dries." B. "Keep your right leg elevated above heart level." C. "Use a clean object to scratch itches inside the cast." D. "A foul smell from the cast is normal after the first few days."

ANS: B Rationale: The leg should be elevated to promote venous return and prevent edema. The cast shouldn't be covered while drying because this will cause heat buildup and prevent air circulation. No foreign object should be inserted inside the cast because of the risk of cutting the skin and causing an infection. A foul smell from a cast is never normal and may indicate an infection.

33. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The client was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The client appears malnourished and on day 3 of the client's admission, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why should the nurse start the infusion of TPN slowly? A. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hypercalcemia if calories are started too rapidly. B. Malnourished clients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. C. Malnourished clients who receive fluids too rapidly are at risk for hypernatremia. D. Clients receiving TPN need a slow initiation of treatment in order to allow digestive enzymes to accumulate.

ANS: B Rationale: The nurse identifies clients who are at risk for hypophosphatemia and monitors them. Because malnourished clients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk when calories are introduced too aggressively, preventive measures involve gradually introducing the solution to avoid rapid shifts of phosphorus into the cells. Clients receiving TPN are not at risk for hypercalcemia or hypernatremia if calories or fluids are started to rapidly. Digestive enzymes are not a relevant consideration.

38. The nurse is providing care for a client who has had a below-the-knee amputation. The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client resting in bed with the residual limb supported on a pillow. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Inform the surgeon of this finding. B. Explain the risks of flexion contracture to the client. C. Transfer the client to a sitting position. D. Encourage the client to perform active ROM exercises with the residual limb.

ANS: B Rationale: The residual limb should not be placed on a pillow because a flexion contracture of the hip may result. There is no acute need to contact the client's surgeon. Encouraging exercise or transferring the client does not address the risk of flexion contracture.

13. A client has just begun been receiving skeletal traction and the nurse is aware that muscles in the client's affected limb are spastic. How does this change in muscle tone affect the client's traction prescription? A. Traction must temporarily be aligned in a slightly different direction. B. Extra weight is needed initially to keep the limb in proper alignment. C. A lighter weight should be initially used. D. Weight will temporarily alternate between heavier and lighter weights.

ANS: B Rationale: The traction weights applied initially must overcome the shortening spasms of the affected muscles. As the muscles relax, the traction weight is reduced to prevent fracture dislocation and to promote healing. Weights never alternate between heavy and light.

13. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports increased shortness of breath after a prolonged episode of coughing. On assessment, the nurse notes an oxygen saturation of 84%, asymmetrical chest movement, and decreased breath sounds on the right side. Which condition should the nurse suspect and which interventions should the nurse implement based on these signs and symptoms? A. Expected response to coughing; give supplemental oxygen and encourage deep breathing exercises B. Pneumothorax; give supplemental oxygen and continue to monitor the client C. Oxygen toxicity; lower any supplemental oxygen and continue to monitor the client D. Chronic atelectasis; give supplemental oxygen and encourage deep breathing exercises

ANS: B Rationale: Development of a pneumothorax, a potentially life-threatening complication of COPD, may be spontaneous or related to severe coughing or large intrathoracic pressure changes. The combination of asymmetry of chest movement, differences in breath sounds, and a decreased pulse oximetry are indications of pneumothorax. In response, the nurse should administer supplemental oxygen and continue close bedside monitoring of this client. The signs and symptoms described are not normal findings after coughing or due to chronic atelectasis (alveolar collapse). While a decrease in saturation is expected after coughing, due to irritation of airways and decreased ability to fully oxygenate, the saturation was lower than expected. Oxygen toxicity occurs when too high of a concentration of oxygen is given over a period of time, which triggers a severe inflammatory response. Because no specific duration or amount of oxygen was listed and a hallmark of this condition is substernal discomfort and progressive respiratory difficulties, this was an unlikely choice.

7. A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who will soon undergo a cardiac bypass. The nurse's teaching plan includes exercises of the extremities. What is the purpose of teaching a client leg exercises prior to surgery? A. Leg exercises increase the client's muscle mass postoperatively. B. Leg exercises improve circulation and prevent venous thrombosis. C. Leg exercises help to prevent pressure sores to the sacrum and heels. D. Leg exercise help increase the client's level of consciousness after surgery.

ANS: B Rationale: Exercise of the extremities includes extension and flexion of the knee and hip joints (similar to bicycle riding while lying on the side) unless contraindicated by type of surgical procedure (e.g., hip replacement). When the client does leg exercises postoperatively, circulation is increased, which helps to prevent blood clots from forming. Leg exercises do not prevent pressure sores to the sacrum or increase the client's level of consciousness. Leg exercises have the potential to increase strength and mobility but are unlikely to make a change to muscle mass in the short term.

2. The nurse is assessing a client who had an ileostomy created three days ago for the treatment of irritable bowel disease. The nurse observes that the client's stoma is bright red and there are scant amounts of blood on the stoma. What is the nurse's best action? A. Contact the care provider to have the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit measured. B. Document these expected assessment findings. C. Apply barrier ointment to the stoma as prescribed. D. Cleanse the stoma with alcohol or chlorhexidine.

ANS: B Rationale: Redness and slight bleeding are expected, so no further intervention or assessment is likely necessary.

26. A critical care nurse is planning assessments in the knowledge that clients in shock are vulnerable to developing fluid replacement complications. For what signs and symptoms should the nurse monitor the client? Select all that apply. A. Hypovolemia B. Difficulty breathing C. Cardiovascular overload D. Pulmonary edema E. Hypoglycemia

ANS: B, C, D Rationale: Fluid replacement complications can occur, often when large volumes are given rapidly. Therefore, the nurse monitors the client closely for cardiovascular overload, signs of difficulty breathing, and pulmonary edema. Hypovolemia is what necessitates fluid replacement, and hypoglycemia is not a central concern with fluid replacement.

8. A client with hypokalemia is to receive intravenous (IV) potassium replacement. Which action should the nurse take when administering potassium intravenously? Select all that apply. A. Administer potassium by IV push. B. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine prior to potassium administration. C. Monitor complete blood count during potassium infusion. D. Follow the facility policy for infusion of potassium. E. Report a reduced urinary output to the health care provider.

ANS: B, D, E Rationale: Potassium should be administered by an infusion pump and should never be given by IV push to avoid rapid replacement. Because potassium is excreted by the kidneys, BUN, serum creatinine, and urinary output should be assessed prior to and during administration of IV potassium. Abnormal laboratory results or decreased or absent urinary output should be reported to the health care provider. Because potassium administration does not affect blood cells, the complete blood count does not need to be monitored during administration of potassium. The nurse should check facility policy on the administration of IV potassium to ensure safe care.

24. A nurse is assessing a client's stoma on postoperative day 3. The nurse notes that the stoma has a shiny appearance and a bright red color. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A. Irrigate the ostomy to clear a possible obstruction. B. Contact the primary care provider to report this finding. C. Document that the stoma appears healthy and well perfused. D. Document a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity.

ANS: C Rationale: A healthy, viable stoma should be shiny and pink to bright red. This finding does not indicate that the stoma is blocked or that skin integrity is compromised.

30. A client is scheduled for the creation of a continent ileostomy. What dietary guidelines should the nurse encourage during the weeks following surgery? A. A minimum of 30 g of soluble fiber daily B. Increased intake of free water and clear juices C. High intake of strained fruits and vegetables D. A high-calorie, high-residue diet

ANS: C Rationale: A low-residue diet is followed for the first 6 to 8 weeks. Strained fruits and vegetables are given. These foods are important sources of vitamins A and C. Adequate fluid intake is important, but it does not need to be particularly high. High fiber intake would lead to complications.

12. The nurse is caring for a client whose worsening infection places the client at high risk for shock. Which assessment finding would the nurse consider a potential sign of shock? A. Elevated systolic blood pressure B. Elevated mean arterial pressure (MAP) C. Shallow, rapid respirations D. Bradycardia

ANS: C Rationale: A symptom of shock is shallow, rapid respirations. Systolic blood pressure drops in shock, and MAP is less than 65 mm Hg. Bradycardia occurs in neurogenic shock; other states of shock have tachycardia as a symptom. Infection can lead to septic shock.

13. The nurse is caring for a client who has a peripheral IV in place for fluid replacement. When caring for the client's IV site, the nurse should: A. ensure that anticoagulants are placed on hold for the duration of IV therapy. B. replace the IV dressing with a new, clean dressing if it is soiled. C. ensure that the tubing is firmly anchored to the client's skin. D. periodically remove hair from 2 cm around the IV site.

ANS: C Rationale: Anchoring the IV tubing prevents it from being accidentally dislodged. Anticoagulants are not contraindicated during IV therapy. Soiled dressings should be replaced with a new sterile dressing, not a clean dressing. Hair removal is unnecessary.

5. A client with a total hip replacement has developed decreased breath sounds What is the nurse's best action? A. Place the client on bed rest. B. Request an antitussive medication from the health care provider. C. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer. D. Assess for signs and symptoms of systemic infection.

ANS: C Rationale: Atelectasis may occur in the client after surgery and can be prevented with the use of an incentive spirometer. Since bedrest increases the risk for atelectasis and pneumonia after surgery, the client should be encouraged to ambulate and sit up in a chair rather than lie in bed. Since the client should be encouraged to deep breath and cough, requesting an antitussive medication for the client would not be appropriate. Atelectasis is not a clinical manifestation of infection.

18. A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms? A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions B. Severe diarrhea C. An absence of blood in stool D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa

ANS: C Rationale: Bloody stool is far more common in cases of UC than in Crohn disease. Rectal involvement is nearly 100% in cases of UC (versus 20% in Crohn) and clients with UC typically experience severe diarrhea. UC is also characterized by a pattern of remissions and exacerbations, while Crohn disease often has a more prolonged and variable course.

11. The acute care nurse is providing care for an adult client who is in hypovolemic shock. The nurse recognizes that antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays a significant role in this health problem. What assessment finding will the nurse likely observe related to the role of antidiuretic hormone during hypovolemic shock? A. Increased hunger B. Decreased thirst C. Decreased urinary output D. Increased capillary perfusion

ANS: C Rationale: During hypovolemic shock, a state of hypernatremia occurs. Hypernatremia stimulates the release of ADH by the pituitary gland. ADH causes the kidneys to further retain water in an effort to raise blood volume and blood pressure. In a hypovolemic state the body shifts blood away from anything that is not a vital organ, so hunger is not an

1. A client is admitted to the ED reporting severe abdominal pain and vomiting "coffee-ground" like emesis. The client is diagnosed with a perforated gastric ulcer and is informed that they need surgery. When can the client most likely anticipate that the surgery will be scheduled? A. Within 24 hours B. Within the next week C. Without delay D. As soon as all the day's elective surgeries have been completed

ANS: C Rationale: Emergency surgeries are unplanned and occur with little time for preparation for the client or the perioperative team. An active bleed, which is indicated by the "coffee-ground" emesis, is considered an emergency, and the client requires immediate attention because the disorder may be life threatening. The surgery would not likely be deferred until after elective surgeries have been completed.

1. A nurse is working with a client who has chronic constipation. What should be included in client teaching to promote normal bowel function? A. Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis. B. Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis. C. Consume high-residue, high-fiber foods. D. Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense.

ANS: C Rationale: Goals for the client include restoring or maintaining a regular pattern of elimination by responding to the urge to defecate, ensuring adequate intake of fluids and high-fiber foods, learning about methods to avoid constipation, relieving anxiety about bowel elimination patterns, and avoiding complications. Ongoing use of pharmacologic aids should not be promoted, due to the risk of dependence. Increased mobility helps to maintain a regular pattern of elimination. The urge to defecate should be heeded.

22. A client's colorectal cancer has necessitated a hemicolectomy with the creation of a colostomy. In the 4 days since the surgery, the client has been unwilling to look at the ostomy or participate in any aspects of ostomy care. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to this observation? A. Ensure that the client knows that he or she will be responsible for care after discharge. B. Reassure the client that many people are fearful after the creation of an ostomy. C. Acknowledge the client's reluctance and initiate discussion of the factors underlying it. D. Arrange for the client to be seen by a social worker or spiritual advisor.

ANS: C Rationale: If the client is reluctant to participate in ostomy care, the nurse should attempt to dialogue about this with the client and explore the factors that underlie it. It is presumptive to assume that the client's behavior is motivated by fear. Assessment must precede referrals and emphasizing the client's responsibilities may or may not motivate the client.

30. The ICU nurse is caring for a client in neurogenic shock following an overdose of antianxiety medication. When assessing this client, the nurse should recognize what characteristic of neurogenic shock? A. Hypertension B. Cool, moist skin C. Bradycardia D. Signs of sympathetic stimulation

ANS: C Rationale: In neurogenic shock, the sympathetic system is not able to respond to body stressors. Therefore, the clinical characteristics of neurogenic shock are signs of parasympathetic stimulation. It is characterized by dry, warm skin rather than the cool, moist skin seen in hypovolemic shock. Another characteristic is hypotension with bradycardia, rather than the tachycardia that characterizes other forms of shock.

2. A client is admitted to the orthopedic unit in skeletal traction for a fractured proximal femur. Which explanation should the nurse give the client about skeletal traction? A. "Skeletal traction temporarily stabilizes the fracture before surgery." B. "Weights are attached to the leg using a boot." C. "Traction involves passing a pin through the bone." D. "Light weights must be used with skeletal traction."

ANS: C Rationale: In skeletal traction, a metal pin or wire is passed through the bone and traction is then applied using ropes and weights attached to the pins. Skin traction, not skeletal traction, stabilizes the fracture until surgery is performed and uses a boot or Velcro to attach the ropes and weights to the leg. Skeletal traction is used when greater weight (11 to 18 kg [25 to 40 lb]) is needed to achieve the therapeutic effect.

7. The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 79-year-old client newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide the nurse's assessment of the client's skin turgor? A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults. B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy. C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in clients over the age of 70.

ANS: C Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older clients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.

6. While assessing a client's peripheral IV site, the nurse observes edema and coolness around the insertion site. How should the nurse document this observation? A. Air embolism B. Phlebitis C. Infiltration D. Fluid overload

ANS: C Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of non-vesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. An air embolism occurs when air enters the vein; it does not have any local manifestations at the IV site but may produce palpitations, dyspnea, hypotension, and chest pain. Phlebitis, an inflammation of the vein, is characterized by redness, warmth, and tenderness at the IV site. Fluid volume overload produces systemic manifestations and is not apparent at the IV site.

16. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with COPD. What should the nurse teach the client about breathing exercises? A. Lie supine to facilitate air entry. B. Avoid pursed-lip breathing unless absolutely necessary. C. Use diaphragmatic breathing. D. Use chest breathing.

ANS: C Rationale: Inspiratory muscle training and breathing retraining may help improve breathing patterns in clients with COPD. Training in diaphragmatic breathing reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Pursed-lip breathing helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of small airways, and controls the rate and depth of respiration. Diaphragmatic breathing, not chest breathing, increases lung expansion. Supine positioning does not aid breathing.

23. A critical care nurse is aware of similarities and differences between the treatments for different types of shock. What intervention is used in all types of shock? A. Aggressive hypoglycemic control B. Administration of hypertonic IV fluids C. Early provision of nutritional support D. Aggressive antibiotic therapy

ANS: C Rationale: Nutritional support is necessary for all clients who are experiencing shock. Hyperglycemic (not hypoglycemic) control is needed for many clients. Hypertonic IV fluids are not normally utilized and antibiotics are necessary only in clients with septic shock.

12. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube was placed upon admission, and since that time the client has been on low intermittent suction. Upon review of the morning's blood work, the nurse notices that the client's potassium is below reference range. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of what imbalance? A. Hypercalcemia B. Metabolic acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis

ANS: C Rationale: Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis in which only gastric fluid is lost. Vomiting, gastric suction, and pyloric stenosis all remove potassium and can cause hypokalemia. This client would not be at risk for hypercalcemia; hyperparathyroidism and cancer account for almost all cases of hypercalcemia. The nasogastric tube is removing stomach acid and will likely raise pH. Respiratory acidosis is unlikely since no change was reported in the client's respiratory status.

5. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. During assessment, the nurse finds that the client is experiencing increased dyspnea. What is the most accurate measurement of the concentration of oxygen in the client's blood? A. A capillary blood sample B. Pulse oximetry C. An arterial blood gas (ABG) study D. A complete blood count (CBC)

ANS: C Rationale: The arterial oxygen tension (partial pressure or PaO2) indicates the degree of oxygenation of the blood, and the arterial carbon dioxide tension (partial pressure or PaCO2) indicates the adequacy of alveolar ventilation. ABG studies aid in assessing the ability of the lungs to provide adequate oxygen and remove carbon dioxide and the ability of the kidneys to reabsorb or excrete bicarbonate ions to maintain normal body pH.

11. A client who underwent a gastric resection 3 weeks ago is having their diet progressed on a daily basis. Following the latest meal, the client reports dizziness and palpitations. Inspection reveals that the client is diaphoretic. What is the nurse's best action? A. Insert a nasogastric tube promptly. B. Reposition the client supine. C. Monitor the client closely for further signs of dumping syndrome. D. Assess the client for signs and symptoms of aspiration.

ANS: C Rationale: The client's symptoms are characteristic of dumping syndrome, which results in a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. Aspiration is a less likely cause for the client's symptoms. Supine positioning will likely exacerbate the symptoms and insertion of an NG tube is contraindicated due to the nature of the client's surgery.

37. The nurse is assessing the client for the presence of a Chvostek sign. Which electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvostek sign indicate? A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkalemia

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse can induce Chvostek sign by tapping the client's facial nerve adjacent to the ear. A brief contraction of the upper lip, nose, or side of the face indicates Chvostek sign. Both hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may be indicated by a positive

31. The nurse is called to a client's room by a family member who voices concern about the client's status. On assessment, the nurse finds the client tachypneic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. The nurse also identifies 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this client's signs and symptoms? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperchloremia D. Hypophosphatemia

ANS: C Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia are the same as those of metabolic acidosis: hypervolemia and hypernatremia. Tachypnea; weakness; lethargy; deep, rapid respirations; diminished cognitive ability; and hypertension occur. If untreated, hyperchloremia can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, arrhythmias, and coma. A high chloride level is accompanied by a high sodium level and fluid retention. With hypocalcemia, tetany would be expected to occur. There would not be edema with hyponatremia. Signs or symptoms of hypophosphatemia are mainly neurologic.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery prior to her hysterectomy without oophorectomy. The nurse is witnessing the client's signature on a consent form. Which comment by the client would best indicate informed consent? A. "I know I'll be fine because the health care provider has done this procedure hundreds of times." B. "I know I'll have pain after the surgery but they'll do their best to keep it to a minimum." C. "The health care provider is going to remove my uterus and told me about the risk of bleeding." D. "Because the health care provider isn't taking my ovaries, I'll still be able to have children."

ANS: C Rationale: The surgeon must explain the procedure and inform the client of the benefits, alternatives, possible risks, complications, disfigurement, disability, and removal of body parts as well as what to expect in the early and late postoperative periods. The nurse clarifies the information provided, and, if the client requests additional information, the nurse notifies the health care provider.

35. While assessing the client, the nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the client's closed chest-drainage system. Which conclusion should the nurse reach? A. The system is functioning normally. B. The client has a pneumothorax. C. The system has an air leak. D. The chest tube is obstructed.

ANS: C Rationale: The water-seal chamber of a wet chest drainage system has a one-way valve or water seal that prevents air from moving back into the chest when the client inhales. There is an increase in the water level with inspiration and a return to the baseline level during exhalation; this is referred to as tidaling. Intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber is normal, but continuous bubbling can indicate an air leak, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The client with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the nurse should notice that the fluid has stopped fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.

13. A nurse is providing client education for a client with peptic ulcer disease secondary to chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. The client has recently been prescribed misoprostol. What would the nurse be most accurate in informing the client about the drug? A. It reduces the stomach's volume of hydrochloric acid B. It increases the speed of gastric emptying C. It protects the stomach's lining D. It increases lower esophageal sphincter pressure

ANS: C Rationale: Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that, like prostaglandin, protects the gastric mucosa. NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin production and predispose the client to peptic ulceration. Misoprostol does not reduce gastric acidity, improve emptying of the stomach, or increase lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

11. A nurse is planning the care of a client with emphysema who will soon be discharged. What teaching should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A. Taking prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed B. Adhering to the treatment regimen in order to cure the disease C. Avoiding airplanes, buses, and other crowded public places D. Setting realistic short- and long-term goals

ANS: D Rationale: A major area of teaching involves setting and accepting realistic short-term and long-term goals. Emphysema is not considered curable and antibiotics are not used on a preventative basis. The client does not normally need to avoid public places.

9. A client with a peptic ulcer disease has had metronidazole added to their current medication regimen. What health education related to this medication should the nurse provide? A. Take the medication on an empty stomach. B. Take up to one extra dose per day if stomach pain persists. C. Take at bedtime to mitigate the effects of drowsiness. D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

ANS: D Rationale: Alcohol must be avoided when taking metronidazole and the medication should be taken with food. This drug does not cause drowsiness and the dose should not be adjusted by the client.

25. A client has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction and has been admitted to the medical unit. The nurse's care should prioritize which of the following outcomes? A. Preventing infection B. Maintaining skin and tissue integrity C. Preventing nausea and vomiting D. Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

ANS: D Rationale: All of the listed focuses of care are important for the client with a small bowel obstruction. However, the client's risk of fluid and electrolyte imbalances is an immediate threat to safety, and is a priority in nursing assessment and interventions.

36. A client's most recent laboratory results show a slight decrease in potassium. The health care provider has opted to forgo drug therapy but has suggested increasing the client's dietary intake of potassium. What should the nurse recommend? A. Apples B. Fish C. Rice D. Bananas

ANS: D Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium. Apples, fish, and rice are not high in potassium.

33. A nurse is educating a client in anticipation of a procedure that will require a water-sealed chest drainage system. What should the nurse tell the client and the family that this drainage system is used for? A. Maintaining positive chest-wall pressure B. Monitoring pleural fluid osmolarity C. Providing positive intrathoracic pressure D. Removing excess air and fluid

ANS: D Rationale: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. They are not used to maintain positive chest-wall pressure, monitor pleural fluid, or provide positive intrathoracic pressure.

1. A nurse is caring for a client with liver failure and is performing an assessment of the client's increased risk of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this risk is related to the client's inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function? A. Alterations in glucose metabolism B. Retention of bile salts C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

ANS: D Rationale: Decreased production of several clotting factors may be partially due to deficient absorption of vitamin K from the GI tract. This probably is caused by the inability of liver cells to use vitamin K to make prothrombin. This bleeding risk is unrelated to the roles of glucose, bile salts, or albumin.

3. The emergency nurse is admitting a client experiencing a GI bleed who is believed to be in the compensatory stage of shock. What assessment finding would be most consistent with the early stage of compensation? A. Increased urine output B. Decreased heart rate C. Hyperactive bowel sounds D. Cool, clammy skin

ANS: D Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body shunts blood from the organs, such as the skin and kidneys, to the brain and heart to ensure adequate blood supply. As a result, the client's skin is cool and clammy. Also in this compensatory stage, blood vessels vasoconstrict, the heart rate increases, bowel sounds are hypoactive, and the urine output decreases.

31. A client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after stepping in a hole and falling. While assessing the client the nurse notes that the client's right leg is shorter than the left leg; the right hip is noticeably deformed and the client is in acute pain. Imaging does not reveal a fracture. What is the most plausible explanation for this client's signs and symptoms? A. Subluxated right hip B. Right hip contusion C. Hip strain D. Traumatic hip dislocation

ANS: D Rationale: Signs and symptoms of a traumatic dislocation include acute pain, change in positioning of the joint, shortening of the extremity, deformity, and decreased mobility. A subluxation would cause moderate deformity, or possibly no deformity. A contusion or strain would not cause obvious deformities.

12. A nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who has had a leg cast recently applied. The nurse is unable to palpate the client's dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulse and the client's foot is pale. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Warm the client's foot and determine whether circulation improves. B. Reposition the client with the affected foot dependent. C. Reassess the client's neurovascular status in 15 minutes. D. Promptly inform the primary care provider.

ANS: D Rationale: Signs of neurovascular dysfunction warrant immediate medical follow-up. It would be unsafe to delay. Warming the foot or repositioning the client may be of some benefit, but the care provider should be informed first.

15. A client who had a total hip replacement two days ago reports new onset calf tenderness to the nurse. Which action should the nurse take? A. Administer pain medication. B. Massage the client's calf. C. Apply antiembolic stockings. D. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: D Rationale: Since calf tenderness may be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse should notify the health care provider about this finding. The nurse should not administer pain medication since it is prescribed for surgical pain and this tenderness in the calf should not be masked until it is evaluated. The nurse should not massage the client's calf as this may dislodge a thrombus. Antiembolic stockings should be worn prophylactically to prevent DVT but are not applied to treat DVT.

5. A community health nurse is preparing for an initial home visit to a client discharged following a total gastrectomy for treatment of gastric cancer. What would the nurse anticipate that the plan of care is most likely to include? A. Enteral feeding via gastrostomy tube (G tube) B. Gastrointestinal decompression by nasogastric tube C. Periodic assessment for esophageal distension D. Administration of injections of vitamin B12

ANS: D Rationale: Since vitamin B12 is absorbed in the stomach, the client requires vitamin B12 replacement to prevent pernicious anemia. A gastrectomy precludes the use of a G tube. Since the stomach is absent, a nasogastric tube would not be indicated. As well, this is not possible in the home setting. Since there is no stomach to act as a reservoir and fluids and nutrients are passing directly into the jejunum, distension is unlikely.

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. The plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every four hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess which aspect of the client's health? A. Nutritional status B. Potassium balance C. Calcium balance D. Fluid volume status

ANS: D Rationale: Specific gravity measures the density of urine compared with water and can assess the ability of the kidneys to excrete or conserve water. Therefore, specific gravity will detect if the client has a fluid volume deficit or fluid volume excess. Nutrition, potassium, and calcium levels are not directly indicated.

15. The nurse is admitting a client who is insulin dependent to the same-day surgical suite for carpal tunnel surgery. How should this client's diagnosis of type 1 diabetes affect the care that the nurse plans? A. The nurse should administer a bolus of dextrose IV solution preoperatively. B. The nurse should keep the client NPO for at least 8 hours preoperatively. C. The nurse should initiate a subcutaneous infusion of long-acting insulin. D. The nurse should assess the client's blood glucose levels frequently.

ANS: D Rationale: The client with diabetes who is undergoing surgery is at risk for hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. Close glycemic monitoring is necessary. Dextrose infusion and prolonged NPO status are contraindicated. There is no specific need for an insulin infusion preoperatively.

21. A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of GI bleed. During shift assessment, the nurse finds the client to be tachycardic and hypotensive, and the client has an episode of hematemesis while the nurse is in the room. In addition to monitoring the client's vital signs and level of conscious, what would be a priority nursing action for this client? A. Place the client in a prone position. B. Provide the client with ice water to slow any GI bleeding. C. Prepare for the insertion of an NG tube. D. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: D Rationale: The nurse must always be alert for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis, which include hematemesis (vomiting of blood), tachycardia, and hypotension. If these occur, the health care provider is notified and the client's vital signs are monitored as the client's condition warrants. Putting the client in a prone position could lead to aspiration. Giving ice water is contraindicated as it would stimulate more vomiting.

5. The emergency-room nurse is caring for a trauma client who has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B. Metabolic alkalosis with compensatory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation D. Metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis

ANS: D Rationale: A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO2 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem.

10. A nurse is caring for a client who has had a total hip replacement. The nurse is reviewing health education prior to discharge. Which of the client's statements would indicate to the nurse that the client requires further teaching? A. "I'll need to keep several pillows between my legs at night." B. "I need to remember not to cross my legs. It's such a habit." C. "The occupational therapist is showing me how to use a 'sock puller' to help me get dressed." D. "I will need my husband to assist me in getting off the low toilet seat at home."

ANS: D Rationale: To prevent hip dislocation after a total hip replacement, the client must avoid bending the hips beyond 90 degrees. Assistive devices, such as a raised toilet seat, should be used to prevent severe hip flexion. Using an abduction pillow or placing several pillows between the legs reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing adduction and internal rotation of the legs. Likewise, teaching the client to avoid crossing the legs also reduces the risk of hip dislocation. A sock puller helps a client get dressed without flexing the hips beyond 90 degrees.

60yo pt with diabetes had bka 1 week ago. pt askes why does it feel like my leg is still attached, and why does it still hurt? the nurse explains in terms the patient can understand. the nurse describes what pathophysiologic effect? a. the proliferation of nociceptors during times of stress b. age related deterioration of the cns c. psychosocial dependence of pain meds d. the abnormal reorganization of the nervous sys.

D. at any point from the periphery to the cns the potential exists for the development of neuropathic pain.

26. A client has experienced symptoms of dumping syndrome following gastric surgery. To what physiologic phenomenon does the nurse attribute this syndrome? A. Irritation of the phrenic nerve due to diaphragmatic pressure B. Chronic malabsorption of iron and vitamins A and C C. Reflux of bile into the distal esophagus D. Influx of extracellular fluid into the small intestine

NS: D Rationale: The rapid bolus of hypertonic food from the stomach to the small intestines draws extracellular fluid into the lumen of the intestines to dilute the high concentrations of electrolytes and sugars, which results in intestinal dilation, increased intestinal transit, hyperglycemia, and the rapid onset of GI and vasomotor symptoms, which characterizes dumping syndrome. It is not a result of phrenic nerve irritation, malabsorption, or bile reflux.