Med Surg II-Test 2

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

25. A 34-year-old female patient with a new ileostomy asks how much drainage to expect. The nurse explains that after the bowel adjusts to the ileostomy, the usual drainage will be about _____ cups. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

ANS: A After the proximal small bowel adapts to reabsorb more fluid, the average amount of ileostomy drainage is about 500 mL daily. One cup is about 240 mL.

22. An 80-year-old patient with a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm arrives at the emergency department (ED) with severe back pain and absent pedal pulses. Which actions should the nurse take first? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Obtain blood for laboratory testing. c. Assess for the presence of an abdominal bruit. d. Determine any family history of kidney disease.

ANS: A Because the patient appears to be experiencing aortic dissection, the nurse's first action should be to determine the hemodynamic status by assessing blood pressure. The other actions also may be done, but they will not provide information that will determine what interventions are needed immediately for this patient.

24. The nurse is caring for a patient immediately after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. On assessment, the patient has absent popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses. The legs are cool and mottled. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist. b. Wrap both the legs in a warming blanket. c. Document the findings and recheck in 15 minutes. d. Compare findings to the preoperative assessment of the pulses.

ANS: A Lower extremity pulses may be absent for a short time after surgery because of vasospasm and hypothermia. Decreased or absent pulses together with a cool and mottled extremity may indicate embolization or graft occlusion. These findings should be reported to the physician immediately because this is an emergency situation. Because pulses are marked prior to surgery, the nurse would know whether pulses were present prior to surgery before notifying the health care providers about the absent pulses. Because the patient's symptoms may indicate graft occlusion or multiple emboli and a possible need to return to surgery, it is not appropriate to wait 15 minutes before taking action. A warming blanket will not improve the circulation to the patient's legs.

35. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is a. maintaining normal respiratory function. b. expressing satisfaction with pain control. c. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease. d. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

ANS: A Respiratory failure can occur as a complication of acute pancreatitis, and maintenance of adequate respiratory function is the priority goal. The other outcomes would also be appropriate for the patient.

12. Which intervention by a new nurse who is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) inserted indicates a need for more education about care of patients with ICDs? a. The nurse assists the patient to do active range of motion exercises for all extremities. b. The nurse assists the patient to fill out the application for obtaining a Medic Alert ID. c. The nurse gives amiodarone (Cordarone) to the patient without first consulting with the health care provider. d. The nurse teaches the patient that sexual activity usually can be resumed once the surgical incision is healed.

ANS: A The patient should avoid moving the arm on the ICD insertion site until healing has occurred in order to prevent displacement of the ICD leads. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate for this patient.

42. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Asterixis and lethargy b. Jaundiced sclera and skin c. Elevated total bilirubin level d. Liver 3 cm below costal margin

ANS: A The patient's findings of asterixis and lethargy are consistent with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Patients with acute liver failure can deteriorate rapidly from grade 1 or 2 to grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy and need early transfer to a transplant center. The other findings are typical of patients with hepatic failure and would be reported but would not indicate a need for an immediate change in the therapeutic plan.

12. Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose (Cephulac) is effective for a 72-year-old man who has advanced cirrhosis? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.

ANS: A The purpose of lactulose in the patient with cirrhosis is to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. Although lactulose may be used to treat constipation, that is not the purpose for this patient. Lactulose will not decrease nausea and vomiting or lower bilirubin levels.

25. When caring for a patient on the first postoperative day after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Presence of flatus b. Loose, bloody stools c. Hypoactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain with palpation

ANS: B Loose, bloody stools at this time may indicate intestinal ischemia or infarction, and should be reported immediately because the patient may need an emergency bowel resection. The other findings are normal on the first postoperative day after abdominal surgery.

46. A 33-year-old male patient with a gunshot wound to the abdomen undergoes surgery, and a colostomy is formed as shown in the accompanying figure. Which information will be included in patient teaching? a. Stool will be expelled from both stomas. b. This type of colostomy is usually temporary. c. Soft, formed stool can be expected as drainage. d. Irrigations can regulate drainage from the stomas.

ANS: B A loop, or double-barrel stoma, is usually temporary. Stool will be expelled from the proximal stoma only. The stool from the transverse colon will be liquid and regulation through irrigations will not be possible.

23. The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following? a. "I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days." b. "I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower." c. "I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks." d. "I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder."

ANS: B After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient will have Band-Aids in place over the incisions. Patients are discharged the same (or next) day and have few restrictions on activities of daily living. Drainage from the incisions would be abnormal, and the patient should be instructed to call the health care provider if this occurs. A low-fat diet may be recommended for a few weeks after surgery but will not be a life-long requirement.

24. The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old man who has cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern? a. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain with palpation. b. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended. c. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day. d. The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen.

ANS: B Asterixis indicates that the patient has hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatic coma may occur. The spider angiomas and right upper quadrant abdominal pain are not unusual for the patient with cirrhosis and do not require a change in treatment. The ascites and weight gain indicate the need for treatment but not as urgently as the changes in neurologic status.

17. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care after endovascular repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Record hourly chest tube drainage. b. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. c. Check the abdominal incision for any redness. d. Teach the reason for a prolonged recovery period.

ANS: B Because renal artery occlusion can occur after endovascular repair, the nurse should monitor parameters of renal function such as intake and output. Chest tubes will not be needed for endovascular surgery, the recovery period will be short, and there will not be an abdominal wound.

2. A patient has a 6-cm thoracic aortic aneurysm that was discovered during a routine chest x-ray. When obtaining an admission history from the patient, it will be most important for the nurse to ask about a. low back pain. b. trouble swallowing. c. abdominal tenderness. d. changes in bowel habits

ANS: B Difficulty swallowing may occur with a thoracic aneurysm because of pressure on the esophagus. The other symptoms will be important to assess for in patients with abdominal aortic aneurysms.

After a total proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy, the patient tells the nurse, "I cannot manage all these changes. I don't want to look at the stoma." What is the best action by the nurse? a. Reassure the patient that ileostomy care will become easier. b. Ask the patient about the concerns with stoma management. c. Develop a detailed written list of ostomy care tasks for the patient. d. Postpone any teaching until the patient adjusts to the ileostomy.

ANS: B Encouraging the patient to share concerns assists in helping the patient adjust to the body changes. Acknowledgment of the patient's feelings and concerns is important rather than offering false reassurance. Because the patient indicates that the feelings about the ostomy are the reason for the difficulty with the many changes, development of a detailed ostomy care plan will not improve the patient's ability to manage the ostomy. Although detailed ostomy teaching may be postponed, the nurse should offer teaching about some aspects of living with an ostomy.

11. Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy? a. Request that the patient stand on one foot. b. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward. c. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed. d. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.

ANS: B Extending the arms allows the nurse to check for asterixis, a classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The other tests might also be done as part of the neurologic assessment but would not be diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy.

23. Which information will the nurse include in teaching a patient who had a proctocolectomy and ileostomy for ulcerative colitis? a. Restrict fluid intake to prevent constant liquid drainage from the stoma. b. Use care when eating high-fiber foods to avoid obstruction of the ileum. c. Irrigate the ileostomy daily to avoid having to wear a drainage appliance. d. Change the pouch every day to prevent leakage of contents onto the ski

ANS: B High-fiber foods are introduced gradually and should be well chewed to avoid obstruction of the ileostomy. Patients with ileostomies lose the absorption of water in the colon and need to take in increased amounts of fluid. The pouch should be drained frequently but is changed every 5 to 7 days. The drainage from an ileostomy is liquid and continuous, so control by irrigation is not possible.

39. For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assessing the patient for jaundice b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal c. Palpating the abdomen for distention d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet

ANS: B Providing oral hygiene is within the scope of UAP. Assessments and assisting patients to choose therapeutic diets are nursing actions that require higher-level nursing education and scope of practice and would be delegated to licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or RNs.

10. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix). due. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer both drugs. b. Administer the spironolactone. c. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide. d. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the health care provider.

ANS: B Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and will help increase the patient's potassium level. The nurse does not need to talk with the doctor before giving the spironolactone, although the health care provider should be notified about the low potassium value. The furosemide will further decrease the patient's potassium level and should be held until the nurse talks with the health care provider.

37. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis? a. The patient's urine is bright yellow. b. The patient's stools are tan colored. c. The patient has increased pain after eating. d. The patient complains of chronic heartburn.

ANS: B Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve. The other data are not unusual for a patient with this diagnosis, although the nurse would also report the other assessment information to the health care provider.

9. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? a. Maintaining good nutrition b. Avoiding alcohol ingestion c. Taking lactulose (Cephulac) d. Using vitamin B supplements

ANS: B The disease progression can be stopped or reversed by alcohol abstinence. The other interventions may be used when cirrhosis becomes more severe to decrease symptoms or complications, but the priority for this patient is to stop the progression of the disease.

24. The nurse will determine that teaching a 67-year-old man to irrigate his new colostomy has been effective if the patient a. inserts the irrigation tubing 4 to 6 inches into the stoma. b. hangs the irrigating container 18 inches above the stoma. c. stops the irrigation and removes the irrigating cone if cramping occurs. d. fills the irrigating container with 1000 to 2000 mL of lukewarm tap water.

ANS: B The irrigating container should be hung 18 to 24 inches above the stoma. If cramping occurs, the irrigation should be temporarily stopped and the cone left in place. Five hundred to 1000 mL of water should be used for irrigation. An irrigation cone, rather than tubing, should be inserted into the stoma; 4 to 6 inches would be too far for safe insertion.

13. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient to cough every hour. b. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath. c. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours. d. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea.

ANS: B The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. In addition, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Coughing increases the pressure on the varices and increases the risk for bleeding. Balloon position is verified after insertion and does not require further verification. The esophageal balloon is deflated every 8 to 12 hours to avoid necrosis, but if the gastric balloon is deflated, the esophageal balloon may occlude the airway.

7. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Is there any history of IV drug use?" b. "Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?" c. "Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?" d. "Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?"

ANS: B The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.

14. To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor a. bilirubin levels. b. ammonia levels. c. potassium levels. d. prothrombin time.

ANS: B The protein in the blood in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be absorbed and may result in an increase in the ammonia level because the liver cannot metabolize protein very well. The prothrombin time, bilirubin, and potassium levels should also be monitored, but they will not be affected by the bleeding episode.

19. Which laboratory test result will the nurse monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient who has acute pancreatitis? a. Calcium b. Bilirubin c. Amylase d. Potassium

ANS: C Amylase is elevated in acute pancreatitis. Although changes in the other values may occur, they would not be useful in evaluating whether the prescribed therapies have been effective.

25. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective? a. The patient reports no chest pain. b. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. c. Stools test negative for occult blood. d. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

ANS: C Because the purpose of b-blocker therapy for patients with esophageal varices is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices, the best indicator of the effectiveness for propranolol is the lack of blood in the stools. Although propranolol is used to treat hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, the purpose for use in this patient is to decrease the risk for bleeding from esophageal varices.

40. Which activity in the care of a 48-year-old female patient with a new colostomy could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Document the appearance of the stoma. b. Place a pouching system over the ostomy. c. Drain and measure the output from the ostomy. d. Check the skin around the stoma for breakdown.

ANS: C Draining and measuring the output from the ostomy is included in UAP education and scope of practice. The other actions should be implemented by LPNs or RNs.

36. The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority? a. Offer psychologic support for depression. b. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices. c. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. d. Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas.

ANS: C Effective pain management will be necessary in order for the patient to improve nutrition, be receptive to teaching, or manage anxiety or depression.

26. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices? a. The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration. b. The medication will inhibit development of gastric ulcers. c. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins. d. The medication will decrease nausea and improve the appetite.

ANS: C Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acid gastric contents. Although ranitidine does decrease the risk for peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, these are not the primary purposes for H2-receptor blockade in this patient.

22. The nurse will teach a patient with chronic pancreatitis to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase) a. at bedtime. b. in the morning. c. with each meal. d. for abdominal pain.

ANS: C Pancreatic enzymes are used to help with digestion of nutrients and should be taken with every meal.

45. In reviewing the medical record shown in the accompanying figure for a patient admitted with acute pancreatitis, the nurse sees that the patient has a positive Cullen's sign. Indicate the area where the nurse will assess for this change. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

ANS: C The area around the umbilicus should be indicated. Cullen's sign consists of ecchymosis around the umbilicus. Cullen's sign occurs because of seepage of bloody exudates from the inflamed pancreas and indicates severe acute pancreatitis.

31. The nurse is caring for a patient with a descending aortic dissection. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Weak pedal pulses b. Absent bowel sounds c. Blood pressure 137/88 mm Hg d. 25 mL urine output over last hour

ANS: C The blood pressure is typically kept at less than 120 mm Hg systolic to minimize extension of the dissection. The nurse will need to notify the health care provider so that b-blockers or other antihypertensive medications can be prescribed. The other findings are typical with aortic dissection and should also be reported but do not require immediate action.

34. Which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood? a. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter. b. Draw blood for coagulation studies. c. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations. d. Place the patient in the supine position.

ANS: C The nurse's first action should be to determine the patient's hemodynamic status by assessing vital signs. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are also appropriate. However, the vital signs may indicate the need for more urgent actions. Because aspiration is a concern for this patient, the nurse will need to assess the patient's vital signs and neurologic status before placing the patient in a supine position.

17. To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse a. places the patient on NPO status. b. assists the patient to lie flat in bed. c. asks the patient to empty the bladder. d. positions the patient on the right side.

ANS: C The patient should empty the bladder to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient would be positioned in Fowler's position and would not be able to lie flat without compromising breathing. Because no sedation is required for paracentesis, the patient does not need to be NPO.

27. When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient about any arm pain. b. Retake the patient's blood pressure. c. Check the calcium level in the chart. d. Notify the health care provider immediately.

ANS: C The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for hypocalcemia, and the assessment data indicate a positive Trousseau's sign. The health care provider should be notified after the nurse checks the patient's calcium level. There is no indication that the patient needs to have the BP rechecked or that there is any arm pain.

23. After receiving report, which patient admitted to the emergency department should the nurse assess first? a. 67-year-old who has a gangrenous left foot ulcer with a weak pedal pulse b. 58-year-old who is taking anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation and has black stools c. 50-year-old who is complaining of sudden "sharp" and "worst ever" upper back pain d. 39-year-old who has right calf tenderness, redness, and swelling after a long plane ride

ANS: C The patient's presentation is consistent with dissecting thoracic aneurysm, which will require rapid intervention. The other patients do not need urgent interventions.

15. A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Restrict daily dietary protein intake. b. Reposition the patient every 4 hours. c. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress. d. Perform passive range of motion daily.

ANS: C The pressure-relieving mattress will decrease the risk for skin breakdown for this patient. Adequate dietary protein intake is necessary in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours will not be adequate to maintain skin integrity. Passive range of motion will not take the pressure off areas such as the sacrum that are vulnerable to breakdown.

Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago? a. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa b. Crackles at bilateral lung bases c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) d. No bowel movement for 4 days

ANS: C The risk of infection is high in the first few months after liver transplant and fever is frequently the only sign of infection. The other patient data indicate the need for further assessment or nursing actions and might be communicated to the health care provider, but they do not indicate a need for urgent action.

32. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first? a. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain b. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia c. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C) d. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

ANS: C This patient's history and fever suggest possible spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which would require rapid assessment and interventions such as antibiotic therapy. The clinical manifestations for the other patients are consistent with their diagnoses and do not indicate complications are occurring.

29. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis? a. Absent bowel sounds b. Abdominal tenderness c. Left upper quadrant pain d. Palpable abdominal mass

ANS: D A palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which will require rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common in acute pancreatitis and do not require rapid action to prevent further complications.

21. The nurse will ask a 64-year-old patient being admitted with acute pancreatitis specifically about a history of a. diabetes mellitus. b. high-protein diet. c. cigarette smoking. d. alcohol consumption.

ANS: D Alcohol use is one of the most common risk factors for pancreatitis in the United States. Cigarette smoking, diabetes, and high-protein diets are not risk factors.

1. When discussing risk factor modification for a 63-year-old patient who has a 5-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm, the nurse will focus discharge teaching on which patient risk factor? a. Male gender b. Turner syndrome c. Abdominal trauma history d. Uncontrolled hypertension

ANS: D All of the factors contribute to the patient's risk, but only hypertension can potentially be modified to decrease the patient's risk for further expansion of the aneurysm.

30. Which nursing intervention for a patient who had an open repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 2 days previously is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Monitor the quality and presence of the pedal pulses. b. Teach the patient the signs of possible wound infection. c. Check the lower extremities for strength and movement. d. Help the patient to use a pillow to splint while coughing.

ANS: D Assisting a patient who has already been taught how to cough is part of routine postoperative care and within the education and scope of practice for UAP. Patient teaching and assessment of essential postoperative functions such as circulation and movement should be done by RNs.

20. Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Abdominal tenderness and guarding d. Muscle twitching and finger numbness

ANS: D Muscle twitching and finger numbness indicate hypocalcemia, which may lead to tetany unless calcium gluconate is administered. Although the other findings should also be reported to the health care provider, they do not indicate complications that require rapid action.

28. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective? a. Bowel sounds are present. b. Grey Turner sign resolves. c. Electrolyte levels are normal. d. Abdominal pain is decreased.

ANS: D NG suction and NPO status will decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas and decrease pain. Although bowel sounds may be hypotonic with acute pancreatitis, the presence of bowel sounds does not indicate that treatment with NG suction and NPO status has been effective. Electrolyte levels may be abnormal with NG suction and must be replaced by appropriate IV infusion. Although Grey Turner sign will eventually resolve, it would not be appropriate to wait for this to occur to determine whether treatment was effective.

38. A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to a. choose low-fat foods from the menu. b. perform leg exercises hourly while awake. c. ambulate the evening of the operative day. d. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours.

ANS: D Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on prevention of respiratory complications because the surgical incision is high in the abdomen and impairs coughing and deep breathing. The other nursing actions are also important to implement but are not as high a priority as ensuring adequate ventilation.

30. Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)? a. Teach symptoms of variceal bleeding. b. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing. c. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake. d. Review the patient's current medication list.

ANS: D Some medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be eliminated. NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis, weight loss is usually indicated, and variceal bleeding would not be a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD.

3. Several hours after an open surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm, the UAP reports to the nurse that urinary output for the past 2 hours has been 40 mL. The nurse notifies the health care provider and anticipates an order for a(n) a. hemoglobin count. b. additional antibiotic. c. decrease in IV infusion rate. d. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.

ANS: D The decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion, and monitoring of renal function is needed. There is no indication that infection is a concern, so antibiotic therapy and a WBC count are not needed. The IV rate may be increased because hypovolemia may be contributing to the patient's decreased urinary output.

22. The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98, after having electrical cardioversion 2 hours ago b. A patient with new onset atrial fibrillation, rate 88, who has a first dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due c. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired two times today who has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due

ANS: D The frequent firing of the ICD indicates that the patient's ventricles are very irritable, and the priority is to assess the patient and administer the amiodarone. The other patients may be seen after the amiodarone is administered.

8. Which data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? a. Hemoglobin b. Temperature c. Activity level d. Albumin level

ANS: D The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. The other parameters should also be monitored, but they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms.

20. A patient develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/minute, has a blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and is complaining of feeling faint. Which actions should the nurse take next? a. Recheck the heart rhythm and BP in 5 minutes. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem). d. Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads.

ANS: D The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia, and treatment with TCP is appropriate. Continued monitoring of the rhythm and BP is an inadequate response. Calcium channel blockers will further decrease the heart rate, and the diltiazem should be held. The Valsalva maneuver will further decrease the rate.

11. After providing a patient with discharge instructions on the management of a new permanent pacemaker, the nurse knows that teaching has been effective when the patient states a. "I will avoid cooking with a microwave oven or being near one in use." b. "It will be 1 month before I can take a bath or return to my usual activities." c. "I will notify the airlines when I make a reservation that I have a pacemaker." d. "I won't lift the arm on the pacemaker side up very high until I see the doctor."

ANS: D The patient is instructed to avoid lifting the arm on the pacemaker side above the shoulder to avoid displacing the pacemaker leads. The patient should notify airport security about the presence of a pacemaker before going through the metal detector, but there is no need to notify the airlines when making a reservation. Microwave oven use does not affect the pacemaker. The insertion procedure involves minor surgery that will have a short recovery period.

44. A nurse is considering which patient to admit to the same room as a patient who had a liver transplant 3 weeks ago and is now hospitalized with acute rejection. Which patient would be the best choice? a. Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for liver cancer b. Patient who is receiving treatment for acute hepatitis C c. Patient who has a wound infection after cholecystectomy d. Patient who requires pain management for chronic pancreatitis

ANS: D The patient with chronic pancreatitis does not present an infection risk to the immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. The other patients either are at risk for infection or currently have an infection, which will place the immunosuppressed patient at risk for infection.

22. A 47-year-old female patient is transferred from the recovery room to a surgical unit after a transverse colostomy. The nurse observes the stoma to be deep pink with edema and a small amount of sanguineous drainage. The nurse should a. place ice packs around the stoma. b. notify the surgeon about the stoma. c. monitor the stoma every 30 minutes. d. document stoma assessment findings.

ANS: D The stoma appearance indicates good circulation to the stoma. There is no indication that surgical intervention is needed or that frequent stoma monitoring is required. Swelling of the stoma is normal for 2 to 3 weeks after surgery, and an ice pack is not needed.


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