Med Surg Quizlet Questions Test 4

An inpatient has returned to the medical unit after a barium enema. When assessing the patient's subsequent bowel patterns and stools, what finding should the nurse report to the physician?

streaks of blood present in the stool

A nurse is emptying an orthopedic surgery patient's closed suction drainage at the end of a shift. The nurse notes that the volume is within expected parameters but that the drainage has a foul odor. What is the nurse's best action? A) Aspirate a small amount of drainage for culturing. B) Advance the drain 1 to 1.5 cm. C) Irrigate the drain with normal saline. D) Inform the surgeon of this finding.

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse should promptly notify the surgeon of excessive or foul-smelling drainage. It would be inappropriate to advance the drain, irrigate the drain, or aspirate more drainage.

A patient has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and the nurse is reviewing his prescribed medication regimen with him. What is currently the most commonly used drug regimen for peptic ulcers?

Antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts

A patient with a peptic ulcer disease has had metronidazole (Flagyl) added to his current medication regimen. What health education related to this medication should the nurse provide?

Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

A client is awaiting bariatric surgery in the morning. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Answering questions the client has about surgery b. Beginning venous thromboembolism prophylaxis c. Informing the client that he or she will be out of bed tomorrow d. Teaching the client about needed dietary changes

B

A morbidly obese client is admitted to a community hospital that does not typically care for bariatric-sized clients. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the client's readiness to make lifestyle changes. b. Ensure adequate staff when moving the client. c. Leave siderails down to prevent pressure ulcers. d. Reinforce the need to be sensitive to the client.

B

A patient has come to the orthopedic clinic for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after fracturing his ankle. Diagnostic imaging reveals that bone union is not taking place. What factor may have contributed to this complication? A) Inadequate vitamin D intake B) Bleeding at the injury site C) Inadequate immobilization D) Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

C) Inadequate immobilization

A nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a hip fracture and who will require an extended hospital stay. The nurse should ensure that the patient does which of the following in order to prevent common complications associated with a hip fracture? A) Avoid requesting analgesia unless pain becomes unbearable. B) Use supplementary oxygen when transferring or mobilizing. C) Increase fluid intake and perform prescribed foot exercises. D) Remain on bed rest for 14 days or until instructed by the orthopedic surgeon.

C) Increase fluid intake and perform prescribed foot exercises.

Six weeks after an above-the-knee amputation (AKA), a patient returns to the outpatient office for a routine postoperative checkup. During the nurse's assessment, the patient reports symptoms of phantom pain. What should the nurse tell the patient to do to reduce the discomfort of the phantom pain? A) Apply intermittent hot compresses to the area of the amputation. B) Avoid activity until the pain subsides. C) Take opioid analgesics as ordered. D) Elevate the level of the amputation site.

C) Take opioid analgesics as ordered.

A patient is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after stepping in a hole and falling. While assessing him the nurse notes that his right leg is shorter than his left leg; his right hip is noticeably deformed and he is in acute pain. Imaging does not reveal a fracture. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for this patient's signs and symptoms? A) Subluxated right hip B) Right hip contusion C) Hip strain D) Traumatic hip dislocation

D) Traumatic hip dislocation

A patient who is obese is exploring bariatric surgery options and presented to a bariatric clinic for preliminary investigation. The nurse interviews the patient, analyzing and documenting the data. Which of the following nursing diagnoses may be a contraindication for bariatric surgery?

Deficient Knowledge Related to Risks and Expectations of Surgery

A patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for the treatment of obesity. When providing relevant health education for this patient, the nurse should ensure the patient is aware of what potential adverse effect of treatment?

Flatus with oily discharge

A nurse in the postanesthesia care unit admits a patient following resection of a gastric tumor. Following immediate recovery, the patient should be placed in which position to facilitate patient comfort and gastric emptying?

Fowler's

A nurse is assessing the abdomen of a patient just admitted to the unit with a suspected GI disease. Inspection reveals several diverse lesions on the patient's abdomen. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding?

GI disease often produce skin changes

A nurse is assessing a patient who has peptic ulcer disease. The patient requests more information about the typical causes of Helicobacter pylori infection. What would it be appropriate for the nurse to instruct the patient?

Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water.

A patient presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of vomiting and burning in her mid-epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the physician is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what?

Infection with Helicobacter pylori

A patient is recovering in the hospital following gastrectomy. The nurse notes that the patient has become increasingly difficult to engage and has had several angry outbursts at various staff members in recent days. The nurse's attempts at therapeutic dialogue have been rebuffed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Make appropriate referrals to services that provide psychosocial support.

Results of a patient's preliminary assessment prompted an examination of the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels, which have come back positive. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to this finding?

Prepare to meet the patient's psychosocial needs.

A patient's sigmoidoscopy has been successfully completed and the patient is preparing to return home. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include in the patient's discharge education?

The patient can resume a normal routine immediately

A patient with a recent history of intermittent bleeding is undergoing capsule endoscopy to determine the source of the bleeding. When explaining this diagnostic test to the patient, what advantage should the nurse describe?

the test in noninvasive

A group of nurses have attended an inservice on the prevention of occupationally acquired diseases that affect healthcare providers. What action has the greatest potential to reduce a nurse's risk of acquiring hepatitis C in the workplace? A) Disposing of sharps appropriately and not recapping needles B) Performing meticulous hand hygiene at the appropriate moments in care C) Adhering to the recommended schedule of immunizations D) Wearing an N95 mask when providing care for patients on airborne precautions

A

A 40-year-old obese woman reports that she wants to lose weight. Which question should the nurse ask first? a. "What factors led to your obesity?" b. "Which types of food do you like best?" c. "How long have you been overweight?" d. "What kind of activities do you enjoy?"

A

A 55-year-old female patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is undergoing radiofrequency ablation. The nurse should recognize what goal of this treatment? A) Destruction of the patient's liver tumor B) Restoration of portal vein patency C) Destruction of a liver abscess D) Reversal of metastasis

A

A client is in the bariatric clinic 1 month after having gastric bypass surgery. The client is crying and says "I didn't know it would be this hard to live like this." What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's coping and support systems. b. Inform the client that things will get easier. c. Re-educate the client on needed dietary changes. d. Tell the client lifestyle changes are always hard.

A

A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer of the liver whose condition has required the insertion of a percutaneous biliary drainage system. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of dark green fluid in the collection container. What is the nurse's best response to this assessment finding? A) Document the presence of normal bile output. B) Irrigate the drainage system with normal saline as ordered. C) Aspirate a sample of the drainage for culture. D) Promptly report this assessment finding to the primary care provider.

A

A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. While making the initial shift assessment, the nurse notes that the patient has a flapping tremor of the hands. The nurse should document the presence of what sign of liver disease? A) Asterixis B) Constructional apraxia C) Fetor hepaticus D) Palmar erythema

A

A nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a patient who will soon be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. What aspect of nursing care is the nurse's priority? A) Implementation of infection-control measures B) Close monitoring of skin integrity and color C) Frequent assessment of the patient's psychosocial status D) Administration of antiretroviral medications

A

A patient has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The patient's current medication regimen includes lactulose (Cephulac) four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention? A) Two to 3 soft bowel movements daily B) Significant increase in appetite and food intake C) Absence of nausea and vomiting D) Absence of blood or mucus in stool

A

A patient is being discharged after a liver transplant and the nurse is performing discharge education. When planning this patient's continuing care, the nurse should prioritize which of the following risk diagnoses? A) Risk for Infection Related to Immunosuppressant Use B) Risk for Injury Related to Decreased Hemostasis C) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Related to Impaired Gluconeogenesis D) Risk for Contamination Related to Accumulation of Ammonia

A

A patient with a liver mass is undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. What action should the nurse perform when assisting with this procedure? A) Position the patient on the right side with a pillow under the costal margin after the procedure. B) Administer 1 unit of albumin 90 minutes before the procedure as ordered. C) Administer at least 1 unit of packed red blood cells as ordered the day before the scheduled procedure. D) Confirm that the patient's electrolyte levels have been assessed prior to the procedure.

A

A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a patient who presented with complaints of general malaise. Assessment reveals the presence of jaundice and increased abdominal girth. What assessment question best addresses the possible etiology of this patient's presentation? A) "How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?" B) "To the best of your knowledge, are your immunizations up to date?" C) "Have you ever worked in an occupation where you might have been exposed to toxins?" D) "Has anyone in your family ever experienced symptoms similar to yours?"

A

During a health education session, a participant has asked about the hepatitis E virus. What prevention measure should the nurse recommend for preventing infection with this virus? A) Following proper hand-washing techniques B) Avoiding chemicals that are toxic to the liver C) Wearing a condom during sexual contact D) Limiting alcohol intake

A

The nurse is coaching a community group for individuals who are overweight. Which participant behavior is an example of the best exercise plan for weight loss? a. Walking for 40 minutes 6 or 7 days/week b. Lifting weights with friends 3 times/week c. Playing soccer for an hour on the weekend d. Running for 10 to 15 minutes 3 times/week

A

The nurse will be teaching self-management to patients after gastric bypass surgery. Which information will the nurse plan to include? a. Drink fluids between meals but not with meals. b. Choose high-fat foods for at least 30% of intake. c. Developing flabby skin can be prevented by exercise. d. Choose foods high in fiber to promote bowel function.

A

When teaching a patient about testing to diagnose metabolic syndrome, which topic would the nurse include? a. Blood glucose test b. Cardiac enzyme tests c. Postural blood pressures d. Resting electrocardiogram

A

A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug? A Metoclopramide (Reglan) B Omeprazole (Prilosec) C Lansoprazole (Prevacid) D Famotidine (Pepcid)

A Feedback: Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprozole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Famotidine (Pepcid) is an H2 receptor antagonist, which has a similar effect.

14. A patient has been diagnosed with achalasia based on his history and diagnostic imaging results. The nurse should identify what risk diagnosis when planning the patient's care? A) Risk for Aspiration Related to Inhalation of Gastric Contents B) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements Related to Impaired Absorption C) Risk for Decreased Cardiac Output Related to Vasovagal Response D) Risk for Impaired Verbal Communication Related to Oral Trauma

A Feedback: Achalasia can result in the aspiration of gastric contents. It is not normally an acute risk to the patient's nutritional status and does not affect cardiac output or communication.

A nurse is preparing to place a patient's ordered nasogastric tube. How should the nurse best determine the correct length of the nasogastric tube? A. Place distal tip to nose, then ear tip and end of xiphoid process. B Instruct the patient to lie prone and measure tip of nose to umbilical area. C Insert the tube into the patient's nose until secretions can be aspirated. D Obtain an order from the physician for the length of tube to insert.

A Feedback: Tube length is traditionally determined by (1) measuring the distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and from the earlobe to the xiphoid process, and (2) adding up to 6 inches for NG placement or at least 8 to 10 inches or more for intestinal placement, although studies do not necessarily confirm that this is a reliable technique. The physician would not prescribe a specific length and the umbilicus is not a landmark for this process. Length is not determined by aspirating from the tube.

A patient has a gastrostomy tube that has been placed to drain stomach contents by low intermittent suction. What is the nurse's priority during this aspect of the patient's care? A. Measure and record drainage. B. Monitor drainage for change in color. C. Titrate the suction every hour. D. Feed the patient via the G tube as ordered.

A Feedback: This drainage should be measured and recorded because it is a significant indicator of GI function. The nurse should indeed monitor the color of the output, but fluid balance is normally the priority. Frequent titration of the suction should not be necessary and feeding is contraindicated if the G tube is in place for drainage.

A nurse is admitting a patient to the postsurgical unit following a gastrostomy. When planning assessments, the nurse should be aware of what potential postoperative complication of a gastrostomy? A. Premature removal of the G tube B. Bowel perforation C. Constipation D. Development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

A Feedback: A significant postoperative complication of a gastrostomy is premature removal of the G tube. Constipation is a less immediate threat and bowel perforation and PUD are not noted to be likely complications.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has an order to discontinue the administration of parenteral nutrition. What should the nurse do to prevent the occurrence of rebound hypoglycemia in the patient? A. Administer an isotonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. B Administer a hypertonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. C Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% immediately prior to discontinuing the PN. D Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% 1 hour after discontinuing the PN.

A Feedback: After administration of the PN solution is gradually discontinued, an isotonic dextrose solution is administered for 1 to 2 hours to protect against rebound hypoglycemia. The other listed actions would likely cause hyperglycemia.

A patient's new onset of dysphagia has required insertion of an NG tube for feeding; the nurse has modified the patient's care plan accordingly. What intervention should the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? A Confirm placement of the tube prior to each medication administration. B Have the patient sip cool water to stimulate saliva production. C Keep the patient in a low Fowler's position when at rest. D Connect the tube to continuous wall suction when not in use.

A Feedback: Each time liquids or medications are administered, and once a shift for continuous feedings, the tube must be checked to ensure that it remains properly placed. If the NG tube is used for decompression, it is attached to intermittent low suction. During the placement of a nasogastric tube the patient should be positioned in a Fowler's position. Oral fluid administration is contraindicated by the patient's dysphagia.

A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus with minor cell changes. Which of the following principles should be integrated into the patient's subsequent care? A The patient will require an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. B Liver enzymes must be checked regularly, as H2 receptor antagonists may cause hepatic damage. C Small amounts of blood are likely to be present in the stools and are not cause for concern. D Antacids may be discontinued when symptoms of heartburn subside.

A Feedback: In the patient with Barrett's esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. In order to facilitate early detection of malignant cells, an upper endoscopy is recommended every 6 months. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for patients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or that are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for patients with GERD, they should be taken as ordered whether or not the patient is symptomatic.

A nurse is preparing to administer a patient's intravenous fat emulsion simultaneously with parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following principles should guide the nurse's action? A Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Yconnector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. B The nurse should prepare for placement of another intravenous line, as intravenous fat emulsions may not be infused simultaneously through the line used for PN. C Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Yconnector close to the infusion site after running the emulsion through a filter. D The intravenous fat emulsions can be piggybacked into any existing IV solution that is infusing.

A Feedback: Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Yconnector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. The patient does not need another intravenous line for the fat emulsion. The IVFE cannot be piggybacked into any existing IV solution that is infusing.

The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client who underwent surgery for gastric cancer. Which of the nurse's assessments most directly addresses a major complication of TPN? A Checking the patient's capillary blood glucose levels regularly B Having the patient frequently rate his or her hunger on a 10 point scale C Measuring the patient's heart rhythm at least every 6 hours D Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness each shift

A Feedback: The solution, used as a base for most TPN, consists of a high dextrose concentration and may raise blood glucose levels significantly, resulting in hyperglycemia. This is a more salient threat than hunger, though this should be addressed. Dysrhythmias and decreased LOC are not among the most common complications.

6. The school nurse is planning a health fair for a group of fifth graders and dental health is one topic that the nurse plans to address. What would be most likely to increase the risk of tooth decay? A) Organic fruit juice B) Roasted nuts C) Red meat that is high in fat D) Cheddar cheese

A Feedback: Dental caries may be prevented by decreasing the amount of sugar and starch in the diet. Patients who snack should be encouraged to choose less cariogenic alternatives, such as fruits, vegetables, nuts, cheeses, or plain yogurt. Fruit juice is high in sugar, regardless of whether it is organic.

36. A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative from a neck dissection. What would be the most appropriate nursing action to enhance the patient's appetite? A) Encourage the family to bring in the patient's favored foods. B) Limit visitors at mealtimes so that the patient is not distracted. C) Avoid offering food unless the patient initiates. D) Provide thorough oral care immediately after the patient eats.

A Feedback: Family involvement and home-cooked favorite foods may help the patient to eat. Having visitors at mealtimes may make eating more pleasant and increase the patient's appetite. The nurse should not place the complete onus for initiating meals on the patient. Oral care after meals is necessary, but does not influence appetite.

30. A patient's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the patient's superior laryngeal nerve. What area of assessment should the nurse consequently prioritize? A) The patient's swallowing ability B) The patient's ability to speak C) The patient's management of secretions D) The patient's airway patency

A Feedback: If the superior laryngeal nerve is damaged, the patient may have difficulty swallowing liquids and food because of the partial lack of sensation of the glottis. Damage to this particular nerve does not inhibit speech and only affects management of secretions and airway patency indirectly.

5. A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus with minor cell changes. Which of the following principles should be integrated into the patient's subsequent care? A) The patient will require an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. B) Liver enzymes must be checked regularly, as H2 receptor antagonists may cause hepatic damage. C) Small amounts of blood are likely to be present in the stools and are not cause for concern. D) Antacids may be discontinued when symptoms of heartburn subside.

A Feedback: In the patient with Barrett's esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. In order to facilitate early detection of malignant cells, an upper endoscopy is recommended every 6 months. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for patients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or that are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for patients with GERD, they should be taken as ordered whether or not the patient is symptomatic.

32. A patient has received treatment for oral cancer. The combination of medications and radiotherapy has resulted in leukopenia. Which of the following is an appropriate response to this change in health status? A) Ensure that none of the patient's visitors has an infection. B) Arrange for a diet that is high in protein and low in fat. C) Administer colony stimulating factors (CSFs) as ordered. D) Prepare to administer chemotherapeutics as ordered.

A Feedback: Leukopenia reduces defense mechanisms, increasing the risk of infections. Visitors who might transmit microorganisms are prohibited if the patient's immunologic system is depressed. Changes in diet, CSFs, and the use of chemotherapy do not resolve leukopenia.

37. A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug? A) Metoclopramide (Reglan) B) Omeprazole (Prilosec) C) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) D) Famotidine (Pepcid)

A Feedback: Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprozole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Famotidine (Pepcid) is an H2 receptor antagonist, which has a similar effect.

2. An elderly patient comes into the emergency department complaining of an earache. The patient and has an oral temperature of 100.2ºF and otoscopic assessment of the ear reveals a pearly gray tympanic membrane with no evidence of discharge or inflammation. Which action should the triage nurse take next? A) Palpate the patient's parotid glands to detect swelling and tenderness. B) Assess the temporomandibular joint for evidence of a malocclusion. C) Test the integrity of cranial nerve XII by asking the patient to protrude the tongue. D) Inspect the patient's gums for bleeding and hyperpigmentation.

A Feedback: Older adults and debilitated patients of any age who are dehydrated or taking medications that reduce saliva production are at risk for parotitis. Symptoms include fever and tenderness, as well as swelling of the parotid glands. Pain radiates to the ear. Pain associated with malocclusion of the temporomandibular joint may also radiate to the ears; however, a temperature elevation would not be associated with malocclusion. The 12th cranial nerve is not associated with the auditory system. Bleeding and hyperpigmented gums may be caused by pyorrhea or gingivitis. These conditions do not cause earache; fever would not be present unless the teeth were abscessed.

11. A nurse who provides care in an ambulatory clinic integrates basic cancer screening into admission assessments. What patient most likely faces the highest immediate risk of oral cancer? A) A 65-year-old man with alcoholism who smokes B) A 45-year-old woman who has type 1 diabetes and who wears dentures C) A 32-year-old man who is obese and uses smokeless tobacco D) A 57-year-old man with GERD and dental caries

A Feedback: Oral cancers are often associated with the use of alcohol and tobacco, which when used together have a synergistic carcinogenic effect. Most cases of oral cancers occur in people over the age of 60 and a disproportionate number of cases occur in men. Diabetes, dentures, dental caries, and GERD are not risk factors for oral cancer.

8. A medical nurse who is caring for a patient being discharged home after a radical neck dissection has collaborated with the home health nurse to develop a plan of care for this patient. What is a priority psychosocial outcome for a patient who has had a radical neck dissection? A) Indicates acceptance of altered appearance and demonstrates positive self-image B) Freely expresses needs and concerns related to postoperative pain management C) Compensates effectively for alteration in ability to communicate related to dysarthria D) Demonstrates effective stress management techniques to promote muscle relaxation

A Feedback: Since radical neck dissection involves removal of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, spinal accessory muscles, and cervical lymph nodes on one side of the neck, the patient's appearance is visibly altered. The face generally appears asymmetric, with a visible neck depression; shoulder drop also occurs frequently. These changes have the potential to negatively affect self-concept and body image. Facilitating adaptation to these changes is a crucial component of nursing intervention. Patients who have had head and neck surgery generally report less pain as compared with other postoperative patients; however, the nurse must assess each individual patient's level of pain and response to analgesics. Patients may experience transient hoarseness following a radical neck dissection; however, their ability to communicate is not permanently altered. Stress management is beneficial but would not be considered the priority in this clinical situation.

4. The nurse notes that a patient who has undergone skin, tissue, and muscle grafting following a modified radical neck dissection requires suctioning. What is the most important consideration for the nurse when suctioning this patient? A) Avoid applying suction on or near the suture line. B) Position patient on the non operative side with the head of the bed down. C) Assess the patient's ability to perform self-suctioning. D) Evaluate the patient's ability to swallow saliva and clear fluids.

A Feedback: The nurse should avoid positioning the suction catheter on or near the graft suture lines. Application of suction in these areas could damage the graft. Self-sectioning may be unsafe because the patient may damage the suture line. Following a modified radical neck dissection with graft, the patient is usually positioned with the head of the bed elevated to promote drainage and reduce edema. Assessing viability of the graft is important but is not part of the suctioning procedure and may delay initiating suctioning. Maintenance of a patent airway is a nursing priority. Similarly, the patient's ability to swallow is an important assessment for the nurse to make; however, it is not directly linked to the patient's need for suctioning.

33. A nurse is caring for a patient who has had surgery for oral cancer. When addressing the patient's long-term needs, the nurse should prioritize interventions and referrals with what goal? A) Enhancement of verbal communication B) Enhancement of immune function C) Maintenance of adequate social support D) Maintenance of fluid balance

A Feedback: Verbal communication may be impaired by radical surgery for oral cancer. Addressing this impairment often requires a long-term commitment. Immune function, social support, and fluid balance are all necessary, but communication is a priority issue for patients recovering from this type of surgery.

A patient's health decline necessitates the use of total parenteral nutrition. The patient has questioned the need for insertion of a central venous catheter, expressing a preference for a "normal IV." The nurse should know that peripheral administration of highconcentration PN formulas is contraindicated because of the risk for what complication? A Chemical phlebitis B Hyperglycemia C Dumping syndrome D Line sepsis

A Feedback: Formulations with dextrose concentrations of more than 10% should not be administered through peripheral veins because they irritate the intima (innermost walls) of small veins, causing chemical phlebitis. Hyperglycemia and line sepsis are risks with both peripheral and central administration of PN. PN is not associated with dumping syndrome.

Ans: Teaching about symptom management Feedback: Major nursing interventions in the spondyloarthropathies are related to symptom management and maintenance of optimal functioning. This is a priority over the use of assistive devices, smoking cessation, and exercise programs, though these topics may be of importance for some patients.

A 21-year-old male has just been diagnosed with a spondyloarthropathy. What will be a priority nursing intervention for this patient?

Ans: Scleroderma Feedback: Scleroderma starts insidiously with Raynaud's phenomenon and swelling in the hands. Later, the skin and the subcutaneous tissues become increasingly hard and rigid and cannot be pinched up from the underlying structures. This progression of symptoms is inconsistent with GCA, FM, or RA.

A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon several years earlier and has sought care because of a progressive worsening of her symptoms. The patient also states that many of her skin surfaces are "stiff, like the skin is being stretched from all directions." The nurse should recognize the need for medical referral for the assessment of what health problem?

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a gastrointestinal tube in place. Which of the following are indications for gastrointestinal intubation? Select all that apply. A. To remove gas from the stomach B. To administer clotting factors to treat a GI bleed C. To remove toxins from the stomach D. To open sphincters that are closed E. To diagnose GI motility disorders

A C D Feedback: GI intubation may be performed to decompress the stomach and remove gas and fluid, lavage (flush with water or other fluids) the stomach and remove ingested toxins or other harmful materials, diagnose disorders of GI motility and other disorders, administer medications and feedings, compress a bleeding site, and aspirate gastric contents for analysis. GI intubation is not used for opening sphincters that are not functional or for administering clotting factors.

A patient has come to the clinic complaining of pain just above her umbilicus. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes Sister Mary Joseph's nodules. The nurse should refer the patient to the primary care provider to be assessed for what health problem?

A GI malignancy

Ans: Assessment for pain Feedback: Bone biopsy can be painful and the nurse should prioritize relevant assessments. Dehiscence is not a possibility, since the incision is not linear. Signs and symptoms of infection would not be evident in the immediate recovery period and hematoma formation is not a common complication.

A bone biopsy has just been completed on a patient with suspected bone metastases. What assessment should the nurse prioritize in the immediate recovery period?

Ans: Osteoblasts Feedback: Osteoblasts function in bone formation by secreting bone matrix. Osteocytes are mature bone cells and osteoclasts are multinuclear cells involved in dissolving and resorbing bone. Lamellae are circles of mineralized bone matrix.

A child is growing at a rate appropriate for his age. What cells are responsible for the secretion of bone matrix that eventually results in bone growth?

Ans: Encourage her to have her pharmacy replace the tops with alternatives that are easier to open. Feedback: The patient's pharmacy will likely be able to facilitate a practical solution that preserves the patient's independence while still fostering adherence to treatment. There should be no need to change medications, and storing open medication containers is unsafe. Delegating medications to a family member is likely unnecessary at this point and promotes dependence.

A clinic nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The patient tells the nurse that she has not been taking her medication because she usually cannot remove the childproof medication lids. How can the nurse best facilitate the patient's adherence to her medication regimen?

Ans: Fatigue Related to Pain Feedback: Fibromyalgia is characterized by fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness. Impaired urinary elimination is not a common manifestation of the disease. Altered nutrition and disturbed sleep pattern are potential nursing diagnoses, but are not the priority.

A clinic nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with fibromyalgia. When developing a care plan for this patient, what would be a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

Ans: Bone densitometry Feedback: Bone densitometry is used to detect bone density and can be used to assess the risk of fracture in osteoporosis. Arthrography is used to detect acute or chronic tears of joint capsule or supporting ligaments. Bone scans can be used to detect metastatic and primary bone tumors, osteomyelitis, certain fractures, and aseptic necrosis. Arthroscopy is used to visualize a joint.

A clinic nurse is caring for a patient with a history of osteoporosis. Which of the following diagnostic tests best allows the care team to assess the patient's risk of fracture?

Ans: Increased uric acid levels Feedback: Gout is caused by hyperuricemia (increased serum uric acid). Gout is not categorized as an autoimmune disease and it does not result from metabolic acidosis or unstable serum calcium levels.

A clinic nurse is caring for a patient with suspected gout. While explaining the pathophysiology of gout to the patient, the nurse should describe which of the following?

Ans: The patient's functional status Feedback: The patient's functional status is a central focus of home assessment of the patient with RA. The nurse may also address the patient's understanding of the disease, complications, and social support, but the patient's level of function and quality of life is a primary concern.

A community health nurse is performing a visit to the home of a patient who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). On what aspect of the patient's health should the nurse focus most closely during the visit?

Ans: Spasticity Feedback: A muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. Soft and flabby muscle tone is defined as atony. A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as being flaccid. The state of readiness known as muscle tone (tonus) is produced by the maintenance of some of the muscle fibers in a contracted state.

A nurse is assessing a child who has a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. Assessment reveals that the child's muscles have greater-than-normal tone. The nurse should document the presence of which of the following?

Ans: The patient's body mass index is 34 (obese). Feedback: Risk factors for osteoarthritis include obesity and previous joint damage. Risk factors of OA do not include smoking or hypertension. Incidence increases with age, but a patient who is 58 would not yet face a significantly heightened risk.

A nurse is assessing a patient for risk factors known to contribute to osteoarthritis. What assessment finding would the nurse interpret as a risk factor?

Ans: Absence of feeling, capillary refill of 4 to 5 seconds, and cool skin Feedback: Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin with a cool temperature; capillary refill greater than 3 seconds; weakness or paralysis with motion; and paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, or absence of feeling. Jaundice, diaphoresis, and warmth are inconsistent with peripheral neurovascular dysfunction.

A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What assessment findings are most consistent with this diagnosis?

Ans: Evidence shows minimal benefits from most CAM therapies. Feedback: A recent systematic review of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) examined the efficacy of herbal medicine, acupuncture, Tai chi and biofeedback for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. Although acupuncture treatment for pain management showed some promise, in all modalities the evidence was ambiguous. There is not enough evidence of the effectiveness of CAM and more rigorous research is needed.

A nurse is assessing a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. The patient expresses his intent to pursue complementary and alternative therapies. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the patient?

Ans: The patient will express satisfaction with her ability to perform ADLs. Feedback: Pain management and optimal functional ability are major goals of nursing interventions for OA. Cure is not a possibility and it is unrealistic to expect a complete absence of signs and symptoms. Adherence to the plan of care is highly beneficial, but this is not the priority goal of care.

A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old patient with a history of osteoarthritis (OA). When planning the patient's care, what goal should the nurse include?

Ans: Ensuring that there are no metal objects on or in the patient Feedback: Absolutely no metal objects can be present during MRI—their presence constitutes a serious safety risk. The procedure takes up to 90 minutes. Nut allergies and infection are not contraindications to MRI.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has an MRI scheduled. What is the priority safety action prior to this diagnostic procedure?

Ans: "You'll be encouraged to drink water after the administration of the radioisotope injection." Feedback: It is important to encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids to help distribute and eliminate the isotopic after it is injected. There are important contraindications to the procedure, include pregnancy or an allergy to the radioisotope. The test requires the injection of an intravenous radioisotope and the scan is preformed 2 to 3 hours after the isotope is injected. A calcium solution is not utilized.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for a bone scan. What should the nurse teach the patient about this diagnostic test?

Ans: Fever Feedback: Following arthroscopy, the patient and family are informed of complications to watch for, including fever. Synovial fluid leakage is unlikely and crepitus would not develop as a postprocedure complication. Fasciculations are muscle twitches and do not involve joint integrity or function.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an arthroscopy as an outpatient and is getting ready to go home. The nurse should teach the patient to monitor closely for what postprocedure complication?

Ans: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein Feedback: Simultaneous elevation in the ESR and CRP have a sensitivity of 88% and a specificity of 98% in making the diagnosis of GCA when coupled with clinical findings. Erythrocyte counts, creatinine clearance, and D-dimer are not diagnostically useful.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is suspected of having giant cell arteritis (GCA). What laboratory tests are most useful in diagnosing this rheumatic disorder? Select all that apply.

Ans: A dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature Feedback: Bone pain is characteristically described as a dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature, whereas muscular pain is described as soreness or aching and is referred to as "muscle cramps." Fracture pain is sharp and piercing and is relieved by immobilization. Sharp pain may also result from bone infection with muscle spasm or pressure on a sensory nerve.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose cancer metastasis has resulted in bone pain. Which of the following are typical characteristics of bone pain?

Ans: Alkaline phosphatase Feedback: Alkaline phosphatase is elevated during early fracture healing and in diseases with increased osteoblastic activity (e.g., metastatic bone tumors). Elevated bilirubin, potassium, and creatinine would not be expected in a patient with metastatic bone tumors.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of cancer that has metastasized. What laboratory value would the nurse expect to be elevated in this patient?

Ans: Muscle atrophy Feedback: If a muscle is in disuse for an extended period of time, it is at risk of developing atrophy, which is the decrease in size. Clonus is a pattern of rhythmic muscle contractions and fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers; neither results from immobility. Lack of exercise is a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis.

A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been diagnosed with geriatric failure to thrive. This patient's prolonged immobility creates a risk for what complication?

Ans: Managing Raynaud's-type symptoms, Smoking cessation, The importance of vigilant skin care Feedback: Patient teaching for the patient with scleroderma focuses on management of Raynaud's phenomenon, smoking cessation, and meticulous skin care. Surgical treatment options do not exist and weight loss is not a central concern.

A nurse is creating a teaching plan for a patient who has a recent diagnosis of scleroderma. What topics should the nurse address during health education? Select all that apply.

Ans: Limiting intake of alcohol Feedback: Alcohol and red meat can precipitate an acute exacerbation of gout. Each of the other listed actions is consistent with good health, but none directly addresses the factors that exacerbate gout.

A nurse is educating a patient with gout about lifestyle modifications that can help control the signs and symptoms of the disease. What recommendation should the nurse make?

Ans: Thyroid hormone, Growth hormone, Estrogen Feedback: The balance between bone resorption and formation is influenced by the following factors: physical activity; dietary intake of certain nutrients, especially calcium; and several hormones, including calcitriol (i.e., activated vitamin D), parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin, thyroid hormone, cortisol, growth hormone, and the sex hormones estrogen and testosterone. Luteinizing hormone and vitamin B12 do not play a role in bone formation or resorption.

A nurse is explaining a patient's decreasing bone density in terms of the balance between bone resorption and formation. What dietary nutrients and hormones play a role in the resorption and formation of adult bones? Select all that apply.

Ans: Crepitus Feedback: Crepitus is a grating, crackling sound or sensation that occurs as the irregular joint surfaces move across one another, as in arthritic conditions. Fasciculations are involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Clonus is the rhythmic contractions of a muscle. Effusion is the collection of excessive fluid within the capsule of a joint.

A nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of a patient with arthritis. During passive range-of-motion exercises, the nurse hears an audible grating sound. The nurse should document the presence of which of the following?

Ans: Activities of daily living Feedback: The nursing assessment is primarily a functional evaluation, focusing on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living. The nurse also assesses strength, gait, and ROM, but these are assessed to identify their effect on functional status rather than to identify a medical diagnosis.

A nurse is performing a nursing assessment of a patient suspected of having a musculoskeletal disorder. What is the primary focus of the nursing assessment with a patient who has a musculoskeletal disorder?

Ans: Joint stiffness, especially in the morning Feedback: In addition to joint pain and swelling, another classic sign of RA is joint stiffness, especially in the morning. Joints are typically swollen, not atrophied, and systemic infection does not accompany the disease. Joints are often warm rather than cool.

A nurse is performing the health history and physical assessment of a patient who has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What assessment finding is most consistent with the clinical presentation of RA?

Ans: Butterfly rash Feedback: An acute cutaneous lesion consisting of a butterfly-shaped rash across the bridge of the nose and cheeks occurs in SLE. Petechiae are pinpoint skin hemorrhages, which are not a clinical manifestation of SLE. Patients with SLE do not typically experience jaundice or skin sloughing.

A nurse is performing the initial assessment of a patient who has a recent diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What skin manifestation would the nurse expect to observe on inspection?

Ans: Visual changes Feedback: Antimalarials may cause visual changes; regular ophthalmologic examinations are necessary.Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy, stomatitis is associated with gold therapy, and hirsutism is associated with corticosteroid therapy.

A nurse is planning patient education for a patient being discharged home with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been prescribed antimalarials for treatment, so the nurse knows to teach the patient to self-monitor for what adverse effect?

Ans: Ineffective Role Performance Related to Pain Feedback: Typically, patients with fibromyalgia have endured their symptoms for a long period of time. The neuropathic pain accompanying FM can often impair a patient's ability to perform normal roles and functions. Skin integrity is unaffected and the disease has no associated infection risk. Activity limitations may result in neglect, but not of a unilateral nature.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a long history of chronic pain, which has only recently been diagnosed as fibromyalgia. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this woman's care needs?

Ans: Assessment for headaches and jaw pain Feedback: Assessment of the patient with GCA focuses on musculoskeletal tenderness, weakness, and decreased function. Careful attention should be directed toward assessing the head (for changes in vision, headaches, and jaw claudication). There is not a particular clinical focus on the potential for bleeding, hand and foot pain, or thoracic pain.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a recent diagnosis of giant cell arteritis (GCA). What aspect of physical assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Ans: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Feedback: SLE has a high degree of neurologic involvement, and can result in central nervous system changes. The patient and family members are asked about any behavioral changes, including manifestations of neurosis or psychosis. Signs of depression are noted, as are reports of seizures, chorea, or other central nervous system manifestations. OA, RA, and gout lack this dimension.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a rheumatic disorder. The nurse's comprehensive assessment includes the patient's mood, behavior, LOC, and neurologic status. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?

Ans: Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) Feedback: In the past, a step-wise approach starting with NSAIDs was standard of care. However, evidence clearly documenting the benefits of early DMARD (methotrexate [Rheumatrex], antimalarials, leflunomide [Arava], or sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]) treatment has changed national guidelines for management. Now it is recommended that treatment with the non-biologic DMARDs begin within 3 months of disease onset. Allopurinol is used to treat gout. Opioids are not indicated in early RA. Prednisone is used in unremitting RA.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has just been diagnosed as being in the early stage of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should anticipate the administration of which of the following?

Ans: An elevated parathyroid hormone level Feedback: In the response to low calcium levels in the blood, increased levels of parathyroid hormone prompt the mobilization of calcium and the demineralization of bone. Increased calcitonin levels would exacerbate hypocalcemia. Vitamin D levels do not increase in response to low calcium levels. Potassium levels would likely be unaffected.

A nurse is providing care for a patient whose pattern of laboratory testing reveals longstanding hypocalcemia. What other laboratory result is most consistent with this finding?

Ans: How does the feeling in the affected extremity compare with the feeling in the unaffected extremity? Feedback: Questions that the nurse should ask regarding altered sensations include "How does this feeling compare to sensation in the unaffected extremity?" Asking questions about strength and color are not relevant and a family history is unlikely.

A nurse is taking a health history on a new patient who has been experiencing unexplained paresthesia. What question should guide the nurse's assessment of the patient's altered sensations?

Ans: Evaluating the effects of the musculoskeletal disorder on the patient's function Feedback: The nursing assessment of the patient with musculoskeletal dysfunction includes an evaluation of the effects of the musculoskeletal disorder on the patient. This is a vital focus of the health history and supersedes the assessment of genetic risk factors and adherence to treatment, though these are both valid inclusions to the interview. Assessment of ROM occurs during the physical assessment, not the interview.

A nurse is taking a health history on a patient with musculoskeletal dysfunction. What is the primary focus of this phase of the nurse's assessment?

Ans: "I have this ringing in my ears that just won't go away." Feedback: Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy. Salicylates do not normally cause drowsiness, intolerance of high-fat meals, or anorexia.

A nurse is working with a patient with rheumatic disease who is being treated with salicylate therapy. What statement would indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects of this drug?

Ans: Pricking the skin between the great and second toe Feedback: The nurse will evaluate the sensation of the peroneal nerve by pricking the skin centered between the great and second toe. None of the other listed actions elicits the function of one of the peripheral nerves.

A nurse on the orthopedic unit is assessing a patient's peroneal nerve. The nurse will perform this assessment by doing which of the following actions?

Ans: Scoliosis Feedback: Scoliosis is evidenced by an abnormal lateral curve in the spine, shoulders that are not level, an asymmetric waistline, and a prominent scapula, accentuated by bending forward. Lordosis is the curvature in the lower back; kyphosis is an exaggerated curvature of the upper back. This finding is not suggestive of muscular dystrophy.

A nurse's assessment of a teenage girl reveals that her shoulders are not level and that she has one prominent scapula that is accentuated by bending forward. The nurse should expect to read about what health problem in the patient's electronic health record?

Ans: Preserve and increase range of motion while limiting joint stress Feedback: Exercise is vital to the management of rheumatic disorders. Goals should be preserving and promoting mobility and joint function while limiting stress on the joint and possible damage. Cardiovascular exertion should remain within age-based limits and individual ability, but it is not a goal to minimize exertion. Increasing joint size is not a valid goal.

A nurse's plan of care for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis includes several exercise-based interventions. Exercises for patients with rheumatoid disorders should have which of the following goals?

Ans: Infection Feedback: When administering immunosuppressives such as Cytoxan, the nurse should be alert to manifestations of bone marrow suppression and infection. Confusion and sedation are atypical adverse effects. Malignant hyperthermia is a surgical complication and not a possible adverse effect.

A patient has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and the primary care provider has now prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). The nurse's subsequent assessments should address what potential adverse effect?

Ans: PMR has an association with the genetic marker HLA-DR4, Immunoglobulin deposits occur in PMR, PMR occurs predominately in Caucasians Feedback: The underlying mechanism involved with polymyalgia rheumatica is unknown. This disease occurs predominately in Caucasians and often in first-degree relatives. An association with the genetic marker HLA-DR4 suggests a familial predisposition. Immunoglobulin deposits in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries also suggest an autoimmune process. Purines are unrelated and it is not a result of physical degeneration.

A patient has been admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). The nurse should be aware of what aspects of PMR? Select all that apply.

Ans: Injection of a contrast agent into the knee joint prior to ROM exercises Feedback: During arthrography, a radiopaque contrast agent or air is injected into the joint cavity to visualize the joint structures such as the ligaments, cartilage, tendons, and joint capsule. The joint is put through its range of motion to distribute the contrast agent while a series of x-rays are obtained. Synovial fluid is not aspirated or replaced and corticosteroids are not administered.

A patient has been experiencing an unexplained decline in knee function and has consequently been scheduled for arthrography. The nurse should teach the patient about what process?

Ans: Arthrocentesis Feedback: Arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is carried out to obtain synovial fluid for purposes of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion. Arthrography, biopsy, and electromyography would not remove fluid and relieve pressure.

A patient has been experiencing progressive increases in knee pain and diagnostic imaging reveals a worsening effusion in the synovial capsule. The nurse should anticipate which of the following?

Ans: Contact the primary care provider immediately. Feedback: This major neurovascular problem is caused by pressure within a muscle compartment that increases to such an extent that microcirculation diminishes, leading to nerve and muscle anoxia and necrosis. Function can be permanently lost if the anoxic situation continues for longer than 6 hours. Therefore, immediate medical care is a priority over further nursing assessment. Assessment of calcium levels is unnecessary.

A patient has had a cast placed for the treatment of a humeral fracture. The nurse's most recent assessment shows signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Ans: Gastrointestinal Feedback: Assessment of systemic involvement with scleroderma requires a systems review with special attention to gastrointestinal, pulmonary, renal, and cardiac systems. Liver, GU, and neurologic functions are not central priorities.

A patient has just been told by his physician that he has scleroderma. The physician tells the patient that he is going to order some tests to assess for systemic involvement. The nurse knows that priority systems to be assessed include what?

Ans: Wrap the joint in a compression dressing. Feedback: Interventions to perform following an arthroscopy include wrapping the joint in a compression dressing, extending and elevating the joint, and applying ice or cold packs. Passive ROM exercises, static flexion, and heat are not indicated.

A patient has just had an arthroscopy performed to assess a knee injury. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement following this procedure?

Ans: Cortical bone Feedback: The long bone shaft, which is referred to as the diaphysis, is constructed primarily of cortical bone.

A patient injured in a motor vehicle accident has sustained a fracture to the diaphysis of the right femur. Of what is the diaphysis of the femur mainly constructed?

Ans: To avoid complications such as blindness Feedback: The nurse must emphasize to the patient the need for continued adherence to the prescribed medication regimen to avoid complications of giant cell arteritis, such as blindness. VTE, OP, and degenerative joint disease are not among the most common complications for GCA.

A patient is diagnosed with giant cell arteritis (GCA) and is placed on corticosteroids. A concern for this patient is that he will stop taking the medication as soon as he starts to feel better. Why must the nurse emphasize the need for continued adherence to the prescribed medication?

Ans: Shuffling gait Feedback: A variety of neurologic conditions are associated with abnormal gaits, such as a spastic hemiparesis gait (stroke), steppage gait (lower motor neuron disease), and shuffling gait (Parkinson's disease). A rapid gait is not associated with Parkinson's disease.

A patient is receiving ongoing nursing care for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. When assessing this patient's gait, what finding is most closely associated with this health problem?

Ans: That the patient emptied the bladder Feedback: Before the scan, the nurse asks the patient to empty the bladder, because a full bladder interferes with accurate scanning of the pelvic bones. Bowel cleansing and fasting are not indicated for a bone scan and an allergy to penicillins is not a contraindication.

A patient is scheduled for a bone scan to rule out osteosarcoma of the pelvic bones. What would be most important for the nurse to assess before the patient's scan?

Ans: Arthocentesis Feedback: Arthrocentesis involves needle aspiration of synovial fluid. Angiography is an x-ray study of circulation with a contrast agent injected into a selected artery. Myelography is an x-ray of the spinal subarachnoid space taken after the injection of a contrast agent into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture. Paracentesis is removal of fluid (ascites) from the peritoneal cavity through a small surgical incision or puncture made through the abdominal wall under sterile conditions.

A patient is suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis and her diagnostic regimen includes aspiration of synovial fluid from the knee for a definitive diagnosis. The nurse knows that which of the following procedures will be involved?

Ans: Altered serum calcium levels Feedback: Serum calcium levels are altered in patients with osteomalacia, parathyroid dysfunction, Paget's disease, metastatic bone tumors, or prolonged immobilization. Paget's disease is not directly associated with altered magnesium, potassium, or sodium levels.

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected Paget's disease. What assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

Ans: "OA is a considered a noninflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints." Feedback: OA is a degenerative arthritis with a noninflammatory etiology, characterized by the loss of cartilage on the articular surfaces of weight-bearing joints, with spur development. RA is characterized by inflammation of synovial membranes and surrounding structures. The diseases are not distinguished by the joints affected and neither has an infectious etiology.

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing to determine the etiology of recent joint pain. The patient asks the nurse about the difference between osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What is the best response by the nurse?

Ans: Fatigue Related to Anemia Feedback: Patients with SLE nearly always experience fatigue, which is partly attributable to anemia. Ammonia levels are not affected and hematocrit is typically low, not high. VTE is not one of the central complications of SLE.

A patient who has been newly diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been admitted to the medical unit. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the most plausible inclusion in the plan of care?

Ans: "Taking care of you in the best way involves monitoring your disease activity and how well the prescribed treatment is working." Feedback: The goals of treatment include preventing progressive loss of organ function, reducing the likelihood of acute disease, minimizing disease-related disabilities, and preventing complications from therapy. Management of SLE involves regular monitoring to assess disease activity and therapeutic effectiveness. Stating the benefit of face-to-face interaction does not answer the patient's question. Blood work is not necessarily drawn monthly and assessing medication adherence is not the sole purpose of visits.

A patient with SLE asks the nurse why she has to come to the office so often for "check-ups." What would be the nurse's best response?

Ans: Inform the primary care provider that a friction rub may be present. Feedback: Patients with SLE are susceptible to developing a pericardial friction rub, possibly associated with myocarditis and accompanying pleural effusions; this warrants prompt medical follow-up. This finding is not characteristic of pneumonia and does not constitute S3. Posterior auscultation is unlikely to yield additional meaningful data.

A patient with SLE has come to the clinic for a routine check-up. When auscultating the patient's apical heart rate, the nurse notes the presence of a distinct "scratching" sound. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Ans: "You seem like you're feeling angry. Is that something that we could talk about?" Feedback: The changes and the unpredictable course of SLE necessitate expert assessment skills and nursing care, as well as sensitivity to the psychological reactions of the patient. Offering to listen to the patient express anger can help the nurse and the patient understand its cause and begin to deal with it. Although stress can exacerbate the symptoms of SLE, telling the patient to calm down doesn't acknowledge her feelings. Ignoring the patient's feelings suggests that the nurse has no interest in what the patient has said. Offering to get the nursing supervisor also does not acknowledge the patient's feelings.

A patient with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been hospitalized on the medical unit. The nurse observes that the patient expresses angerand irritation when her call bell isn't answered immediately. What would be the most appropriate response?

Ans: Facilitate referrals to occupational and physical therapy Feedback: Patients with polymyositis may have symptoms similar to those of other inflammatory diseases. However, proximal muscle weakness is characteristic, making activities such as hair combing, reaching overhead, and using stairs difficult. Therefore, use of assistive devices may be recommended, and referral to occupational or physical therapy may be warranted. The muscle weakness is a product of the disease process, not lack of exercise. Skeletal muscle relaxants are not used in the treatment of polymyositis.

A patient with polymyositisis experiencing challenges with activities of daily living as a result of proximal muscle weakness. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

Ans: Gold-containing compounds Feedback: Stomatitis is an adverse effect that is associated with gold therapy. Steroids, antimalarials, and salicylates do not normally have this adverse effect.

A patient with rheumatic disease is complaining of stomatitis. The nurse caring for the patient should further assess the patient for the adverse effects of what medications?

Ans: Arrange for the patient to be assessed in her home environment. Feedback: Assessment in the patient's home setting can often reveal more meaningful data than an assessment in the health care setting. There is no indication that assisted living is a pressing need or that the patient would benefit from social work or a support group.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis comes into the clinic for a routine check-up. On assessment the nurse notes that the patient appears to have lost some of her ability to function since her last office visit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

Ans: Restrict consumption of foods high in purines. Feedback: Although severe dietary restriction is not necessary, the nurse should encourage the patient to restrict consumption of foods high in purines, especially organ meats. Calcium supplementation is not necessary and activity should be maintained as tolerated. Increased fluid intake is beneficial, but it is not necessary for the patient to consume more than 4 liters daily.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the joint of his right great toe and is eventually diagnosed with gout. When planning teaching for this patient, what management technique should the nurse emphasize?

Ans: "I'll make sure to monitor my body temperature on a regular basis." Feedback: Fever can signal an exacerbation and should be reported to the physician. Sunlight and other sources of ultraviolet light may precipitate severe skin reactions and exacerbate the disease. Fatigue can cause a flare-up of SLE. Patients should be encouraged to pace activities and plan rest periods. Corticosteroids must be gradually tapered because they can suppress the function of the adrenal gland. As well, these drugs should not be independently adjusted by the patient.

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is preparing for discharge. The nurse knows that the patient has understood health education when the patient makes what statement?

Ans: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) Feedback: In RA, the autoimmune reaction results in phagocytosis, producing enzymes within the joint that break down collagen, cause edema and proliferation of the synovial membrane, and ultimately form pannus. Pannus destroys cartilage and bone. SLE, osteoporosis, and polymyositis do not involve pannus formation.

A patient's decreased mobility is ultimately the result of an autoimmune reaction originating in the synovial tissue, which caused the formation of pannus. This patient has been diagnosed with what health problem?

Ans: The reparative phase Feedback: Callus formation takes place during the reparative phase of bone healing. The reactive phase occurs immediately after injury and the remodeling phase builds on the reparative phase. There is no discrete revascularization phase.

A patient's fracture is healing and callus is being deposited in the bone matrix. This process characterizes what phase of the bone healing process?

Ans: The drug should be used for as short a time as possible. Feedback: Corticosteroids are used for shortest duration and at lowest dose possible to minimize adverse effects. Daily blood work is not necessary and the patient does not need to stop other drugs prior to using corticosteroids.

A patient's rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has failed to respond appreciably to first-line treatments and the primary care provider has added prednisone to the patient's drug regimen. What principle will guide this aspect of the patient's treatment?

Ans: Arthritis Feedback: The leading cause of musculoskeletal-related disability in the United States is arthritis.

A public health nurse is organizing a campaign that will address the leading cause of musculoskeletal-related disability in the United States. The nurse should focus on what health problem?

A patient has experienced symptoms of dumping syndrome following bariatric surgery. To what physiologic phenomenon does the nurse attribute this syndrome?

A sudden release of peptides

The patient scheduled for a Syme amputation is concerned about the ability to eventually stand on the amputated extremity. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's concern? A) "You will eventually be able to withstand full weight-bearing after the amputation." B) "You will have minimal weight-bearing on this extremity but you'll be taught how to use an assistive device." C) "You likely will not be able to use this extremity but you will receive teaching on use of a wheelchair." D) "You will be fitted for a prosthesis which may or may not allow you to walk."

A) "You will eventually be able to withstand full weight-bearing after the amputation."

The surgical nurse is admitting a patient from postanesthetic recovery following the patient's below-the-knee amputation. The nurse recognizes the patient's high risk for postoperative hemorrhage and should keep which of the following at the bedside? A) A tourniquet B) A syringe preloaded with vitamin K C) A unit of packed red blood cells, placed on ice D) A dose of protamine sulfate

A) A tourniquet

A patient has returned to the postsurgical unit from the PACU after an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg. Results of the nurse's initial postsurgical assessment were unremarkable but the patient has called out. The nurse enters the room and observes copious quantities of blood at the surgical site. What should be the nurse's initial action? A) Apply a tourniquet. B) Elevate the residual limb. C) Apply sterile gauze. D) Call the surgeon.

A) Apply a tourniquet.

A nurse is caring for a patient who had a right below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The nurse recognizes the importance of implementing measures that focus on preventing flexion contracture of the hip and maintaining proper positioning. Which of the following measures will best achieve these goals? A) Encouraging the patient to turn from side to side and to assume a prone position B) Initiating ROM exercises of the hip and knee 10 to 12 weeks after the amputation C) Minimizing movement of the flexor muscles of the hip D) Encouraging the patient to sit in a chair for at least 8 hours a day

A) Encouraging the patient to turn from side to side and to assume a prone position

An emergency department nurse is assessing a 17-year-old soccer player who presented with a knee injury. The patient's description of the injury indicates that his knee was struck medially while his foot was on the ground. The nurse knows that the patient likely has experienced what injury? A) Lateral collateral ligament injury B) Medial collateral ligament injury C) Anterior cruciate ligament injury D) Posterior cruciate ligament injury

A) Lateral collateral ligament injury

An older adult patient experienced a fall and required treatment for a fractured hip on the orthopedic unit. Which of the following are contributory factors to the incidence of falls and fractured hips among the older adult population? Select all that apply. A) Loss of visual acuity B) Adverse medication effects C) Slowed reflexes D) Hearing loss E) Muscle weakness

A) Loss of visual acuity B) Adverse medication effects C) Slowed reflexes E) Muscle weakness

A patient who has undergone a lower limb amputation is preparing to be discharged home. What outcome is necessary prior to discharge? A) Patient can demonstrate safe use of assistive devices. B) Patient has a healed, nontender, nonadherent scar. C) Patient can perform activities of daily living independently. D) Patientis free of pain.

A) Patient can demonstrate safe use of assistive devices.

A 25-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident and injures his arm. The physician diagnoses the man with an intra-articular fracture and splints the injury. The nurse implements the teaching plan developed for this patient. What sequela of intra-articular fractures should the nurse describe regarding this patient? A) Post-traumatic arthritis B) Fat embolism syndrome (FES) C) Osteomyelitis D) Compartment syndrome

A) Post-traumatic arthritis

A patient was fitted with an arm cast after fracturing her humerus. Twelve hours after the application of the cast, the patient tells the nurse that her arm hurts. Analgesics do not relieve the pain. What would be the most appropriate nursing action? A) Prepare the patient for opening or bivalving of the cast. B) Obtain an order for a different analgesic. C) Encourage the patient to wiggle and move the fingers. D) Petal the edges of the patient's cast.

A) Prepare the patient for opening or bivalving of the cast.

A nurse is planning the care of an older adult patient who will soon be discharged home after treatment for a fractured hip. In an effort to prevent future fractures, the nurse should encourage which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Regular bone density testing B) A high-calcium diet C) Use of falls prevention precautions D) Use of corticosteroids as ordered E) Weight-bearing exercise

A) Regular bone density testing B) A high-calcium diet C) Use of falls prevention precautions E) Weight-bearing exercise

A nurse is writing a care plan for a patient admitted to the emergency department (ED) with an open fracture. The nurse will assign priority to what nursing diagnosis for a patient with an open fracture of the radius? A) Risk for Infection B) Risk for Ineffective Role Performance C) Risk for Perioperative Positioning Injury D) Risk for Powerlessness

A) Risk for Infection

A rehabilitation nurse is working with a patient who has had a below-the-knee amputation. The nurse knows the importance of the patient's active participation in self-care. In order to determine the patient's ability to be an active participant in self-care, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what variable? A) The patient's attitude B) The patient's learning style C) The patient's nutritional status D) The patient's presurgical level of function

A) The patient's attitude

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home on parenteral nutrition. What should an effective home care teaching program address? Select all that apply. A. Preparing the patient to troubleshoot for problems B. Teaching the patient and family strict aseptic technique C. Teaching the patient and family how to set up the infusion D. Teaching the patient to flush the line with sterile water E. Teaching the patient when it is safe to leave the access site open to air

A, B, C Feedback: An effective home care teaching program prepares the patient to store solutions, set up the infusion, flush the line with heparin, change the dressings, and troubleshoot for problems. The most common complication is sepsis. Strict aseptic technique is taught for hand hygiene, handling equipment, changing the dressing, and preparing the solution. Sterile water is never used for flushes and the access site must never be left open to air.

A patient has been discharged home on parenteral nutrition (PN). Much of the nurse's discharge education focused on coping. What must a patient on PN likely learn to cope with? Select all that apply. A. Changes in lifestyle B. Loss of eating as a social behavior C. Chronic bowel incontinence from GI changes D. Sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during nighttime infusions E. Stress of choosing the correct PN formulation

A, B, D Feedback: Patients must cope with the loss of eating as a social behavior and with changes in lifestyle brought on by sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during night time infusions. PN is not associated with bowel incontinence and the patient does not select or adjust the formulation of PN.

39. A nurse is caring for a patient in the late stages of esophageal cancer. The nurse should plan to prevent or address what characteristics of this stage of the disease? Select all that apply. A) Perforation into the mediastinum B) Development of an esophageal lesion C) Erosion into the great vessels D) Painful swallowing E) Obstruction of the esophagus

A, C, E Feedback: In the later stages of esophageal cancer, obstruction of the esophagus is noted, with possible perforation into the mediastinum and erosion into the great vessels. Painful swallowing and the emergence of a lesion are early signs of esophageal cancer.

A nurse educator is teaching a group of recent nursing graduates about their occupational risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measures should the educator promote? Select all that apply. A) Immunization B) Use of standard precautions C) Consumption of a vitamin-rich diet D) Annual vitamin K injections E) Annual vitamin B12 injections

A,B

A patient's physician has ordered a "liver panel" in response to the patient's development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse should expect to review what blood tests? Select all that apply. A) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B) C-reactive protein (CRP) C) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) E) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A,C,D

A patient with end-stage liver disease has developed hypervolemia. What nursing interventions would be most appropriate when addressing the patient's fluid volume excess? Select all that apply. A) Administering diuretics B) Administering calcium channel blockers C) Implementing fluid restrictions D) Implementing a 1500 kcal/day restriction E) Enhancing patient positioning

A,C,E

A female patient has presented to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain; the physician has ordered abdominal ultrasound to rule out cholecystitis (gallbladder infection). The patient expresses concern to the nurse about the safety of this diagnostic procedure. How should the nurse best respond?

Abdominal ultrasound poses no known safety risks of any kind

A patient comes to the bariatric clinic to obtain information about bariatric surgery. The nurse assesses the obese patient knowing that in addition to meeting the criterion of morbid obesity, a candidate for bariatric surgery must also demonstrate what?

Adequate understanding of required lifestyle changes

Ans: Decreased platelets Feedback: Thrombocytopenia occurs in bone marrow suppression. Hyperuricemia occurs in gout, but is not caused by bone marrow suppression. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate may occur from inflammation associated with gout, but is not related to bone marrow suppression. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate renal damage, but this is not associated with the use of allopurinol.

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) has been ordered for a patient receiving treatment for gout. The nurse caring for this patient knows to assess the patient for bone marrow suppression, which may be manifested by which of the following diagnostic findings?

Ans: Kyphosis Feedback: Kyphosis is the increase in thoracic curvature of the spine. Scoliosis is a deviation in the lateral curvature of the spine. Epiphyses are the ends of the long bones. Lordosis is the exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine.

An older adult patient has come to the clinic for a regular check-up. The nurse's initial inspection reveals an increased thoracic curvature of the patient's spine. The nurse should document the presence of which of the following?

Ans: Bone densitometry Feedback: Bone densitometry is considered the most accurate test for osteoporosis and for predicting a fracture. As such, it is more likely to be used than CT, MRI, or x-rays.

An older adult patient has symptoms of osteoporosis and is being assessed during her annual physical examination. The assessment shows that the patient will require further testing related to a possible exacerbation of her osteoporosis. The nurse should anticipate what diagnostic test?

A nurse caring for a patient who has had bariatric surgery is developing a teaching plan in anticipation of the patient's discharge. Which of the following is essential to include?

Eat several small meals daily spaced at equal intervals.

2. A nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient whose exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has required hospital admission. During an exacerbation of this health problem, the nurse would anticipate that the patients stools will have what characteristics? A) Watery with blood and mucus B) Hard and black or tarry C) Dry and streaked with blood D) Loose with visible fatty streaks

Ans: A Feedback: The predominant symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Stools may be bloody and contain mucus. Stools are not hard, dry, tarry, black or fatty in patients who have ulcerative colitis.

17. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with symptoms of an anorectal infection; cultures indicate that the patient has a viral infection. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Acyclovir (Zovirax) B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C) Penicillin (penicillin D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Ans: A Feedback: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is often given to patients with viral anorectal infections. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) and penicillin (penicillin G) are drugs of choice for bacterial infections. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used for other infections with a bacterial etiology; it is ineffective against viruses.

38. A teenage patient with a pilonidal cyst has been brought for care by her mother. The nurse who is contributing to the patients care knows that treatment will be chosen based on what risk? A) Risk for infection B) Risk for bowel incontinence C) Risk for constipation D) Risk for impaired tissue perfusion

Ans: A Feedback: Pilonidal cysts frequently develop into an abscess, necessitating surgical repair. These cysts do not contribute to bowel incontinence, constipation, or impaired tissue perfusion.

7. A patient is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. When planning this patients care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse prioritize? A) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion Related to Bowel Ischemia B) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Impaired Absorption C) Anxiety Related to Bowel Obstruction and Subsequent Hospitalization D) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Bowel Obstruction

Ans: A Feedback: When the bowel is completely obstructed, the possibility of strangulation and tissue necrosis (i.e., tissue death) warrants surgical intervention. As such, this immediate physiologic need is a nursing priority. Nutritional support and management of anxiety are necessary, but bowel ischemia is a more immediate threat. Skin integrity is not threatened.

A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of toxic hepatitis. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what potential clinical course of this health problem? Place the following events in the correct sequence. 1. Fever rises. 2. Hematemesis. 3. Clotting abnormalities. 4. Vascular collapse. 5. Coma. A) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

B

22. A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). When planning this patients care, the nurse should collaborate with the patient and prioritize what goal? A) Patient will accurately identify foods that trigger symptoms. B) Patient will demonstrate appropriate care of his ileostomy. C) Patient will demonstrate appropriate use of standard infection control precautions. D) Patient will adhere to recommended guidelines for mobility and activity.

Ans: A Feedback: A major focus of nursing care for the patient with IBS is to identify factors that exacerbate symptoms. Surgery is not used to treat this health problem and infection control is not a concern that is specific to this diagnosis. Establishing causation likely is more important to the patient than managing physical activity.

30. The nurse is providing care for a patient whose inflammatory bowel disease has necessitated hospital treatment. Which of the following would most likely be included in the patients medication regimen? A) Anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal B) Antiemetics on a PRN basis C) Vitamin B12 injections to prevent pernicious anemia D) Beta adrenergic blockers to reduce bowel motility

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse administers anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal as prescribed to decrease intestinal motility and administers analgesics as prescribed for pain. Antiemetics, vitamin B12 injections and beta blockers do not address the signs, symptoms, or etiology of inflammatory bowel disease.

27. A patient has a recent diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis and is undergoing diagnostic testing to determine pancreatic islet cell function. The nurse should anticipate what diagnostic test? A) Glucose tolerance test B) ERCP C) Pancreatic biopsy D) Abdominal ultrasonography

Ans: A Feedback: A glucose tolerance test evaluates pancreatic islet cell function and provides necessary information for making decisions about surgical resection of the pancreas. This specific clinical information is not provided by ERCP, biopsy, or ultrasound.

7. A patient has been scheduled for an ultrasound of the gallbladder the following morning. What should the nurse do in preparation for this diagnostic study? A) Have the patient refrain from food and fluids after midnight. B) Administer the contrast agent orally 10 to 12 hours before the study. C) Administer the radioactive agent intravenously the evening before the study. D) Encourage the intake of 64 ounces of water 8 hours before the study.

Ans: A Feedback: An ultrasound of the gallbladder is most accurate if the patient fasts overnight, so that the gallbladder is distended. Contrast and radioactive agents are not used when performing ultrasonography of the gallbladder, as an ultrasound is based on reflected sound waves.

5. A 35yearold male patient presents at the emergency department with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what intervention should the nurse prioritize? A) Insertion of a nasogastric tube B) Insertion of a central venous catheter C) Administration of a mineral oil enema D) Administration of a glycerin suppository and an oral laxative

Ans: A Feedback: Decompression of the bowel through a nasogastric tube is necessary for all patients with small bowel obstruction. Peripheral IV access is normally sufficient. Enemas, suppositories, and laxatives are not indicated if an obstruction is present.

24. An adult patient has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of acute pancreatitis. What nursing action should be included in this patient's plan of care? A) Measure the patient's abdominal girth daily. B) Limit the use of opioid analgesics. C) Monitor the patient for signs of dysphagia. D) Encourage activity as tolerated.

Ans: A Feedback: Due to the risk of ascites, the nurse should monitor the patient's abdominal girth. There is no specific need to avoid the use of opioids or to monitor for dysphagia, and activity is usually limited.

4. A patient's abdominal ultrasound indicates cholelithiasis. When the nurse is reviewing the patient's laboratory studies, what finding is most closely associated with this diagnosis? A) Increased bilirubin B) Decreased serum cholesterol C) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase level

Ans: A Feedback: If the flow of blood is impeded, bilirubin, a pigment derived from the breakdown of red blood cells, does not enter the intestines. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood increase. Cholesterol, BUN, and alkaline phosphatase levels are not typically affected.

37. A patient with ongoing back pain, nausea, and abdominal bloating has been diagnosed with cholecystitis secondary to gallstones. The nurse should anticipate that the patient will undergo what intervention? A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy B) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (MTBE) infusion C) Intracorporeal lithotripsy D) Extracorporeal shock wave therapy (ESWL)

Ans: A Feedback: Most of the nonsurgical approaches, including lithotripsy and dissolution of gallstones, provide only temporary solutions to gallstone problems and are infrequently used in the United States. Cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment.

36. A patient with a cholelithiasis has been scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Why is laparoscopic cholecystectomy preferred by surgeons over an open procedure? A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy poses fewer surgical risks than an open procedure. B) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be performed in a clinic setting, while an open procedure requires an OR. C) A laparoscopic approach allows for the removal of the entire gallbladder. D) A laparoscopic approach can be performed under conscious sedation.

Ans: A Feedback: Open surgery has largely been replaced by laparoscopic cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder through a small incision through the umbilicus). As a result, surgical risks have decreased, along with the length of hospital stay and the long recovery period required after standard surgical cholecystectomy. Both approaches allow for removal of the entire gallbladder and must be performed under general anesthetic in an operating theater.

8. A nurse is presenting an educational event to a local community group. When speaking about colorectal cancer, what risk factor should the nurse cite? A) High levels of alcohol consumption B) History of bowel obstruction C) History of diverticulitis D) Longstanding psychosocial stress

Ans: A Feedback: Risk factors include high alcohol intake; cigarette smoking; and high fat, high protein, low fiber diet. Diverticulitis, obstruction, and stress are not noted as risk factors for colorectal cancer.

A patient has been diagnosed with advanced stage breast cancer and will soon begin aggressive treatment. What assessment findings would most strongly suggest that the patient may have developed liver metastases? A) Persistent fever and cognitive changes B) Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly C) Peripheral edema unresponsive to diuresis D) Spontaneous bleeding and jaundice

B

6. A 37-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea and vomiting and severe abdominal pain. The patient's abdomen is rigid, and there is bruising to the patient's flank. The patient's wife states that he was on a drinking binge for the past 2 days. The ED nurse should assist in assessing the patient for what health problem? A) Severe pancreatitis with possible peritonitis B) Acute cholecystitis C) Chronic pancreatitis D) Acute appendicitis with possible perforation

Ans: A Feedback: Severe abdominal pain is the major symptom of pancreatitis that causes the patient to seek medical care. Pain in pancreatitis is accompanied by nausea and vomiting that does not relieve the pain or nausea. Abdominal guarding is present and a rigid or board-like abdomen may be a sign of peritonitis. Ecchymosis (bruising) to the flank or around the umbilicus may indicate severe peritonitis. Pain generally occurs 24 to 48 hours after a heavy meal or alcohol ingestion. The link with alcohol intake makes pancreatitis a more likely possibility than appendicitis or cholecystitis.

19. A nurse is assisting with serving dinner trays on the unit. Upon receiving the dinner tray for a patient admitted with acute gallbladder inflammation, the nurse will question which of the following foods on the tray? A) Fried chicken B) Mashed potatoes C) Dinner roll D) Tapioca pudding

Ans: A Feedback: The diet immediately after an episode of acute cholecystitis is initially limited to low-fat liquids. Cooked fruits, rice or tapioca, lean meats, mashed potatoes, bread, and coffee or tea may be added as tolerated. The patient should avoid fried foods such as fried chicken, as fatty foods may bring on an episode of cholecystitis.

A patient's electronic health record notes that the patient has hallux valgus. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect this patient to manifest? A) Deviation of a great toe laterally B) Abnormal flexion of the great toe C) An exaggerated arch of the foot D) Fusion of the toe joints

Ans: A Feedback: A deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally and there is a marked prominence of the medial aspect of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint and exostosis is referred to as hallux valgus (bunion). Hallux valgus does not result in abnormal flexion, abnormalities of the arch, or joint fusion.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who underwent foot surgery. The nurse is collaborating with the occupational therapist and discussing the use of assistive devices. On what variables does the choice of assistive devices primarily depend? A) Patient's general condition, balance, and weight-bearing prescription B) Patient's general condition, strength, and gender C) Patient's motivation, age, and weight-bearing prescription D) Patient's occupation, motivation, and age

Ans: A Feedback: Assistive devices (e.g., crutches, walker) may be needed. The choice of the devices depends on the patient's general condition and balance, and on the weight-bearing prescription. The patient's strength, motivation, and weight restrictions are not what the choice of assistive devices is based on.

A nurse is planning the care of an older adult patient with osteomalacia. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote vitamin D synthesis? A) Ensuring adequate exposure to sunlight B) Eating a low-purine diet C) Performing cardiovascular exercise while avoiding weight-bearing exercises D) Taking thyroid supplements as ordered

Ans: A Feedback: Because sunlight is necessary for synthesizing vitamin D, patients should be encouraged to spend some time in the sun. A low-purine diet is not a relevant action and thyroid supplements do not directly affect bone function. Action must be taken to prevent fractures, but weight-bearing exercise within safe parameters is not necessarily contraindicated.

An older adult woman's current medication regimen includes alendronate (Fosamax). What outcome would indicate successful therapy? A) Increased bone mass B) Resolution of infection C) Relief of bone pain D) Absence of tumor spread

Ans: A Feedback: Bisphosphonates such as Fosamax increase bone mass and decrease bone loss by inhibiting osteoclast function. These drugs do not treat infection, pain, or tumors.

An elderly female with osteoporosis has been hospitalized. Prior to discharge, when teaching the patient, the nurse should include information about which major complication of osteoporosis? A) Bone fracture B) Loss of estrogen C) Negative calcium balance D) Dowager's hump

Ans: A Feedback: Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increases the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause, not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, but a negative calcium balance is not a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager's hump results from bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature.

A patient tells the nurse that he has pain and numbness to his thumb, first finger, and second finger of the right hand. The nurse discovers that the patient is employed as an auto mechanic, and that the pain is increased while working. This may indicate that the patient could possibly have what health problem? A) Carpel tunnel syndrome B) Tendonitis C) Impingement syndrome D) Dupuytren's contracture

Ans: A Feedback: Carpel tunnel syndrome may be manifested by numbness, pain, paresthesia, and weakness along the median nerve. Tendonitis is inflammation of muscle tendons. Impingement syndrome is a general term that describes all lesions that involve the rotator cuff of the shoulder. Dupuytren's contracture is a slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia.

The health care team is caring for a patient with osteomalacia. It has been determined that the osteomalacia is caused by malabsorption. What is the usual treatment for osteomalacia caused by malabsorption? A) Supplemental calcium and increased doses of vitamin D B) Exogenous parathyroid hormone and multivitamins C) Colony-stimulating factors and calcitonin D) Supplemental potassium and pancreatic enzymes

Ans: A Feedback: If osteomalacia is caused by malabsorption, increased doses of vitamin D, along with supplemental calcium, are usually prescribed.

A nurse is assessing a patient who reports a throbbing, burning sensation in the right foot. The patient states that the pain is worst during the day but notes that the pain is relieved with rest. The nurse should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem? A) Morton's neuroma B) Pescavus C) Hallux valgus D) Onychocryptosis

Ans: A Feedback: Morton's neuroma is a swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve, which causes a throbbing, burning pain, usually relieved with rest. Pescavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. Hallux valgus (bunion) is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally and there is a marked prominence of the medial aspect of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint and exostosis. Onychocryptosis (ingrown toenail) occurs when the free edge of a nail plate penetrates the surrounding skin, laterally or anteriorly.

A patient presents to a clinic complaining of a leg ulcer that isn't healing; subsequent diagnostic testing suggests osteomyelitis. The nurse is aware that the most common pathogen to cause osteomyelitis is what? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Proteus C) Pseudomonas D) Escherichia coli

Ans: A Feedback: S. aureus causes over 50% of bone infections. Proteus, Pseudomonas, and E. coli are also causes, but to a lesser extent.

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department (ED) in distress. What assessment finding would lead the ED nurse to suspect that the patient has a perforated ulcer?

The patient has a rigid, boardlike abdomen that is tender.

A nurse is teaching a patient with osteomalacia about the role of diet. What would be the best choice for breakfast for a patient with osteomalacia? A) Cereal with milk, a scrambled egg, and grapefruit B) Poached eggs with sausage and toast C) Waffles with fresh strawberries and powdered sugar D) A bagel topped with butter and jam with a side dish of grapes

Ans: A Feedback: The best meal option is the one that contains the highest dietary sources of calcium and vitamin D. The best selection among those listed is cereal with milk, and eggs, as these foods contain calcium and vitamin D in a higher quantity over the other menu options.

A 32-year-old patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder tenderness, pain, and limited movement. Upon assessment the nurse finds edema. An MRI shows hemorrhage of the rotator cuff tendons and the patient is diagnosed with impingement syndrome. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote healing? A) Support the affected arm on pillows at night. B) Take prescribed corticosteroids as ordered. C) Put the shoulder through its full range of motion 3 times daily. D) Keep the affected arm in a sling for 2 to 4 weeks.

Ans: A Feedback: The patient should support the affected arm on pillows while sleeping to keep from turning onto the shoulder. Corticosteroids are not commonly prescribed and a sling is not normally necessary. ROM exercises are indicated, but putting the arm through its full ROM may cause damage during the healing process.

A nurse is collaborating with the physical therapist to plan the care of a patient with osteomyelitis. What principle should guide the management of activity and mobility in this patient? A) Stress on the weakened bone must be avoided. B) Increased heart rate enhances perfusion and bone healing. C) Bed rest results in improved outcomes in patients with osteomyelitis. D) Maintenance of baseline ADLs is the primary goal during osteomyelitis treatment

Ans: A Feedback: The patient with osteomyelitis has bone that is weakened by the infective process and must be protected by avoidance of stress on the bone.This risk guides the choice of activity in a patient with osteomyelitis. Bed rest is not normally indicated, however. Maintenance of prediagnosis ADLs may be an unrealistic short-term goal for many patients.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 12 hours postoperative following foot surgery. The nurse assesses the presence of edema in the foot. What nursing measure will the nurse implement to control the edema? A) Elevate the foot on several pillows. B) Apply warm compresses intermittently to the surgical area. C) Administer a loop diuretic as ordered. D) Increase circulation through frequent ambulation.

Ans: A Feedback: To control the edema in the foot of a patient who experienced foot surgery, the nurse will elevate the foot on several pillows when the patient is sitting or lying. Diuretic therapy is not an appropriate intervention for edema related to inflammation. Intermittent ice packs should be applied to the surgical area during the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery to control edema and provide some pain relief. Ambulation will gradually be resumed based on the guidelines provided by the surgeon.

An 80-year-old man in a long-term care facility has a chronic leg ulcer and states that the area has become increasingly painful in recent days. The nurse notes that the site is now swollen and warm to the touch. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for what health problem? A) Osteomyelitis B) Osteoporosis C) Osteomalacia D) Septic arthritis

Ans: A Feedback: When osteomyelitis develops from the spread of an adjacent infection, no signs of septicemia are present, but the area becomes swollen, warm, painful, and tender to touch. Osteoporosis is the most prevalent bone disease in the world. Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone. Septicarthritis occurs when joints become infected through spread of infection from other parts of the body (hematogenous spread) or directly through trauma or surgical instrumentation.

A nurse is caring for an adult patient diagnosed with a back strain. What health education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) Avoid lifting more than one-third of body weight without assistance. B) Focus on using back muscles efficiently when lifting heavy objects. C) Lift objects while holding the object a safe distance from the body. D) Tighten the abdominal muscles and lock the knees when lifting of an object.

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse will instruct the patient on the safe and correct way to lift objects—using the strong quadriceps muscles of the thighs, with minimal use of the weak back muscles. To prevent recurrence of acute low back pain, the nurse may instruct the patient to avoid lifting more than one-third of his weight without help. The patient should be informed to place the feet a hip-width apart to provide a wide base of support, the person should bend the knees, tighten the abdominal muscles, and lift the object close to the body with a smooth motion, avoiding twisting and jerking.

A patient was brought to the emergency department after a fall. The patient is taken to the operating room to receive a right hip prosthesis. In the immediate postoperative period, what health education should the nurse emphasize? A) "Make sure you don't bring your knees close together." B) "Try to lie as still as possible for the first few days." C) "Try to avoid bending your knees until next week." D) "Keep your legs higher than your chest whenever you can."

Ans: A Feedback: After receiving a hip prosthesis, the affected leg should be kept abducted. Mobility should be encouraged within safe limits. There is no need to avoid knee flexion and the patient's legs do not need to be higher than the level of the chest.

The nurse is helping to set up Buck's traction on an orthopedic patient. How often should the nurse assess circulation to the affected leg? A) Within 30 minutes, then every 1 to 2 hours B) Within 30 minutes, then every 4 hours C) Within 30 minutes, then every 8 hours D) Within 30 minutes, then every shift

Ans: A Feedback: After skin traction is applied, the nurse assesses circulation of the foot or hand within 15 to 30 minutes and then every 1 to 2 hours.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who will require a prolonged course of skeletal traction. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should prioritize interventions related to which of the following risk nursing diagnoses? A) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity B) Risk for Falls C) Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume D) Risk for Aspiration

Ans: A Feedback: Impaired skin integrity is a high-probability risk in patients receiving traction. Falls are not a threat, due to the patient's immobility. There are not normally high risks of fluid imbalance or aspiration associated with traction.

A nurse is providing anticipator guidance to a patient who is preparing for bariatric surgery. The nurse learns that the patient is anxious about numerous aspects of the surgery. What intervention is most appropriate to alleviate the patient's anxiety?

Facilitate the patient's contact with a support group.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery. What main goal should guide the nurse's choice of interventions? A) Improving the patient's level of function B) Helping the patient come to terms with limitations C) Administering medications safely D) Improving the patient's adherence to treatment

Ans: A Feedback: Improving function is the overarching goal after orthopedic surgery. Some patients may need to come to terms with limitations, but this is not true of every patient. Safe medication administration is imperative, but this is not a goal that guides other aspects of care. Similarly, adherence to treatment is important, but this is motivated by the need to improve functional status.

The nurse educator on an orthopedic trauma unit is reviewing the safe and effective use of traction with some recent nursing graduates. What principle should the educator promote? A) Knots in the rope should not be resting against pulleys. B) Weights should rest against the bed rails. C) The end of the limb in traction should be braced by the footboard of the bed. D) Skeletal traction may be removed for brief periods to facilitate the patient's independence.

Ans: A Feedback: Knots in the rope should not rest against pulleys, because this interferes with traction. Weights are used to apply the vector of force necessary to achieve effective traction and should hang freely at all times. To avoid interrupting traction, the limb in traction should not rest against anything. Skeletal traction is never interrupted.

A nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who presented with a lower extremity fracture. What signs and symptoms would suggest to the nurse that the patient may have aperoneal nerve injury? A) Numbness and burning of the foot B) Pallor to the dorsal surface of the foot C) Visible cyanosis in the toes D) Inadequate capillary refill to the toes

Ans: A Feedback: Peroneal nerve injury may result in numbness, tingling, and burning in the feet. Cyanosis, pallor, and decreased capillary refill are signs of inadequate circulation.

The nursing care plan for a patient in traction specifies regular assessments for venous thromboembolism (VTE). When assessing a patient's lower limbs, what sign or symptom is suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A) Increased warmth of the calf B) Decreased circumference of the calf C) Loss of sensation to the calf D) Pale-appearing calf

Ans: A Feedback: Signs of DVT include increased warmth, redness, swelling, and calf tenderness. These findings are promptly reported to the physician for definitive evaluation and therapy. Signs and symptoms of a DVT do not include a decreased circumference of the calf, a loss of sensation in the calf, or a pale-appearing calf.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day 1 right hip replacement. How should the nurse position the patient? A) Keep the patient's hips in abduction at all times. B) Keep hips flexed at no less than 90 degrees. C) Elevate the head of the bed to high Fowler's. D) Seat the patient in a low chair as soon as possible.

Ans: A Feedback: The hips should be kept in abduction by an abductor pillow. Hips should not be flexed more than 90 degrees, and the head of bed should not be elevated more than 60 degrees. The patient's hips should be higher than the knees; as such, high seat chairs should be used.

A patient broke his arm in a sports accident and required the application of a cast. Shortly following application, the patient complained of an inability to straighten his fingers and was subsequently diagnosed with Volkmann contracture. What pathophysiologic process caused this complication? A) Obstructed arterial blood flow to the forearm and hand B) Simultaneous pressure on the ulnar and radial nerves C) Irritation of Merkel cells in the patient's skin surfaces D) Uncontrolled muscle spasms in the patient's forearm

Ans: A Feedback: Volkmann contracture occurs when arterial blood flow is restricted to the forearm and hand and results in contractures of the fingers and wrist. It does not result from nerve pressure, skin irritation, or spasms.

A patient has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of Paget's disease. When reviewing the medication administration record, the nurse should anticipate what medications? Select all that apply. A) Calcitonin B) Bisphosphonates C) Alkaline phosphatase D) Calcium gluconate E) Estrogen

Ans: A, B Feedback: Bisphosphonates are the cornerstone of Paget therapy in that they stabilize the rapid bone turnover. Calcitonin is also used because it retards bone resorption by decreasing the number and availability of osteoclasts. Alkaline phosphatase is a naturally occurring enzyme, not a drug. Calcium gluconate and estrogen are not used in the treatment of Paget's disease.

23. A patient with pancreatic cancer has been scheduled for a pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure). During health education, the patient should be informed that this procedure will involve the removal of which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Gallbladder B) Part of the stomach C) Duodenum D) Part of the common bile duct E) Part of the rectum

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: A pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure or resection) is used for potentially resectable cancer of the head of the pancreas (Fig. 50-7). This procedure involves removal of the gallbladder, a portion of the stomach, duodenum, proximal jejunum, head of the pancreas, and distal common bile duct. The rectum is not affected.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a recent diagnosis of Paget's disease. When planning this patient's nursing care, interventions should address what nursing diagnoses? Select all that apply. A) Impaired Physical Mobility B) Acute Pain C) Disturbed Auditory Sensory Perception D) Risk for Injury E) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Patient's with Paget's disease are at risk of decreased mobility, pain, hearing loss, and injuries resulting from decreased bone density. Paget's disease does not affect blood glucose levels.

29. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with diverticulitis. Which of the following would be appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient? Select all that apply. A) Acute Pain Related to Increased Peristalsis and GI Inflammation B) Activity Intolerance Related to Generalized Weakness C) Bowel Incontinence Related to Increased Intestinal Peristalsis D) Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Anorexia, Nausea, and Diarrhea E) Impaired Urinary Elimination Related to GI Pressure on the Bladder

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Patients with diverticulitis are likely to experience pain and decreased activity levels, and are at risk of fluid volume deficit. The patient is unlikely to experience fecal incontinence and urinary function is not directly influenced.

3. A patient's assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. When the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? Select all that apply. A) "How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?" B) "Have you ever been tested for diabetes?" C) "Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones?" D) "Would you say that you eat a particularly high-fat diet?" E) "Does anyone in your family have cystic fibrosis?"

Ans: A, C Feedback: Eighty percent of patients with acute pancreatitis have biliary tract disease such as gallstones or a history of long-term alcohol abuse. Diabetes, high-fat consumption, and cystic fibrosis are not noted etiologic factors.

A patient has had a brace prescribed to facilitate recovery from a knee injury. What are the potential therapeutic benefits of a brace? Select all that apply. A) Preventing additional injury B) Immobilizing prior to surgery C) Providing support D) Controlling movement E) Promoting bone remodeling

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Braces (i.e., orthoses) are used to provide support, control movement, and prevent additional injury. They are not used to immobilize body parts or to facilitate bone remodeling.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is being assessed following complaints of severe and persistent low back pain. The patient is scheduled for diagnostic testing in the morning. Which of the following are appropriate diagnostic tests for assessing low back pain? that apply. A) Computed tomography (CT) B) Angiography C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) Ultrasound E) X-ray

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: A variety of diagnostic tests can be used to address lower back pain, including CT, MRI, ultrasound, and X-rays. Angiography is not related to the etiology of back pain.

15. A nurse is caring for a patient with constipation whose primary care provider has recommended senna (Senokot) for the management of this condition. The nurse should provide which of the following education points? A) Limit your fluid intake temporarily so you dont get diarrhea. B) Avoid taking the drug on a longterm basis. C) Make sure to take a multivitamin with each dose. D) Take this on an empty stomach to ensure maximum effect.

Ans: B Feedback: Laxatives should not be taken on an ongoing basis in order to reduce the risk of dependence. Fluid should be increased, not limited, and there is no need to take each dose with a multivitamin. Senna does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

4. A patient admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and complains of a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurses rapid assessment reveals that the patients abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurses best response? A) Administer a Fleet enema as ordered and remain with the patient. B) Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. C) Position the patient supine and insert an NG tube. D) Page the primary care provider and report that the patient may be obstructed.

Ans: B Feedback: The patients change in status is suggestive of perforation, which is a surgical emergency. Obstruction does not have this presentation involving fever and abdominal rigidity. An enema would be strongly contraindicated. An order is needed for NG insertion and repositioning is not a priority.

3. A patient has had an ileostomy created for the treatment of irritable bowel disease and the patient is now preparing for discharge. What should the patient be taught about changing this device in the home setting? A) Apply antibiotic ointment as ordered after cleaning the stoma. B) Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. C) Dispose of the clamp with each bag change. D) Cleanse the area surrounding the stoma with alcohol or chlorhexidine.

Ans: B Feedback: Guidelines for changing an ileostomy appliance are as follows. Skin should be washed with soap and water, and dried. A skin barrier should be applied to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. Clamps are supplied one per box and should be reused with each bag change. Topical antibiotics are not utilized, but an anti fungal spray or powder may be used.

10. A nursing instructor is discussing hemorrhoids with the nursing class. Which patients would the nursing instructor identify as most likely to develop hemorrhoids? A) A 45 year old teacher who stands for 6 hours per day B) A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation C) A 37 year old construction worker who does heavy lifting D) A 60 year old professional who is under stress

Ans: B Feedback: Hemorrhoids commonly affect 50% of patients after the age of 50. Pregnancy may initiate hemorrhoids or aggravate existing ones. This is due to increased constipation during pregnancy. The significance of pregnancy is greater than that of standing, lifting, or stress in the development of hemorrhoids.

37. A patient with a diagnosis of colon cancer is 2 days postoperative following bowel resection and anastomosis. The nurse has planned the patients care in the knowledge of potential complications. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Close monitoring of temperature B) Frequent abdominal auscultation C) Assessment of hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels D) Palpation of peripheral pulses and leg girth

Ans: B Feedback: After bowel surgery, it is important to frequently assess the abdomen, including bowel sounds and abdominal girth, to detect bowel obstruction. The resumption of bowel motility is a priority over each of the other listed assessments, even though each should be performed by the nurse.

28. A nurse is providing care for a patient whose recent colostomy has contributed to a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image Related to Colostomy. What intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A) Encourage the patient to conduct online research into colostomies. B) Engage the patient in the care of the ostomy to the extent that the patient is willing. C) Emphasize the fact that the colostomy was needed to alleviate a much more serious health problem. D) Emphasize the fact that the colostomy is temporary measure and is not permanent.

Ans: B Feedback: For some patients, becoming involved in the care of the ostomy helps to normalize it and enhance familiarity. Emphasizing the benefits of the intervention is unlikely to improve the patients body image, since the benefits are likely already known. Online research is not likely to enhance the patients body image and some ostomies are permanent.

20. A nurse caring for a patient with a newly created ileostomy assesses the patient and notes that the patient has had not ostomy output for the past 12 hours. The patient also complains of worsening nausea. What is the nurses priority action? A) Facilitate a referral to the woundostomy continence (WOC) nurse. B) Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the physician. C) Encourage the patient to mobilize in order to enhance motility. D) Contact the physician and obtain a swab of the stoma for culture.

Ans: B Feedback: It is important to report nausea and abdominal distention, which may indicate intestinal obstruction. This requires prompt medical intervention. Referral to the WOC nurse is not an appropriate short term response, since medical treatment is necessary. Physical mobility will not normally resolve an obstruction. There is no need to collect a culture from the stoma, because infection is unrelated to this problem.

16. The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected malabsorption. When taking this patients health history and performing the physical assessment, the nurse should recognize what finding as most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Recurrent constipation coupled with weight loss B) Foulsmelling diarrhea that contains fat C) Fever accompanied by a rigid, tender abdomen D) Bloody bowel movements accompanied by fecal incontinence

Ans: B Feedback: The hallmarks of malabsorption syndrome from any cause are diarrhea or frequent, loose, bulky, foul smelling stools that have increased fat content and are often grayish (steatorrhea). Constipation and bloody bowel movements are not suggestive of malabsorption syndromes. Fever and a tender, rigid abdomen are associated with peritonitis.

6. A patient admitted with inflammatory bowel disease asks the nurse for help with menu selections. What menu selection is most likely the best choice for this patient? A) Spinach B) Tofu C) Multigrain bagel D) Blueberries

Ans: B Feedback: Nutritional management of inflammatory bowel disease requires ingestion of a diet that is bland, low residue, high protein, and high vitamin. Tofu meets each of the criteria. Spinach, multigrain bagels, and blueberries are not low residue.

18. A nurse caring for a patient with colorectal cancer is preparing the patient for upcoming surgery. The nurse administers cephalexin (Keflex) to the patient and explains what rationale? A) To treat any undiagnosed infections B) To reduce intestinal bacteria levels C) To reduce bowel motility D) To reduce abdominal distention postoperatively

Ans: B Feedback: Antibiotics such a kanamycin (Kantrex), neomycin (Mycifradin), and cephalexin (Keflex) are administered orally the day before surgery to reduce intestinal bacterial. Preoperative antibiotics are not given to treat undiagnosed infections, reduce motility, or prevent abdominal distention.

22. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from the ERCP removal of gallstones. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of what complications? A) Pain and peritonitis B) Bleeding and perforation C) Acidosis and hypoglycemia D) Gangrene of the gallbladder and hyperglycemia

Ans: B Feedback: Following ERCP removal of gallstones, the patient is observed closely for bleeding, perforation, and the development of pancreatitis or sepsis. Blood sugar alterations, gangrene, peritonitis, and acidosis are less likely complications.

27. During a patients scheduled home visit, an older adult patient has stated to the community health nurse that she has been experiencing hemorrhoids of increasing severity in recent months. The nurse should recommend which of the following? A) Regular application of an OTC antibiotic ointment B) Increased fluid and fiber intake C) Daily use of OTC glycerin suppositories D) Use of an NSAID to reduce inflammation

Ans: B Feedback: Hemorrhoid symptoms and discomfort can be relieved by good personal hygiene and by avoiding excessive straining during defecation. A highresidue diet that contains fruit and bran along with an increased fluid intake may be all the treatment that is necessary to promote the passage of soft, bulky stools to prevent straining. Antibiotics, regular use of suppositories, and NSAIDs are not recommended, as they do not address the etiology of the health problem.

14. A patient has had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The patient is now complaining of right shoulder pain. What should the nurse suggest to relieve the pain? A) Aspirin every 4 to 6 hours as ordered B) Application of heat 15 to 20 minutes each hour C) Application of an ice pack for no more than 15 minutes D) Application of liniment rub to affected area

Ans: B Feedback: If pain occurs in the right shoulder or scapular area (from migration of the CO2 used to insufflate the abdominal cavity during the procedure), the nurse may recommend use of a heating pad for 15 to 20 minutes hourly, walking, and sitting up when in bed. Aspirin would constitute a risk for bleeding.

10. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) the following day. When providing anticipatory guidance for this patient, the nurse should describe what aspect of this diagnostic procedure? A) The need to protect the incision postprocedure B) The use of moderate sedation C) The need to infuse 50% dextrose during the procedure D) The use of general anesthesia

Ans: B Feedback: Moderate sedation, not general anesthesia, is used during ERCP. D50 is not administered and the procedure does not involve the creation of an incision.

9. A patient with chronic pancreatitis had a pancreaticojejunostomy created 3 months ago for relief of pain and to restore drainage of pancreatic secretions. The patient has come to the office for a routine postsurgical appointment. The patient is frustrated that the pain has not decreased. What is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse? A) "The majority of patients who have a pancreaticojejunostomy have their normal digestion restored but do not achieve pain relief." B) "Pain relief occurs by 6 months in most patients who undergo this procedure, but some people experience a recurrence of their pain." C) "Your physician will likely want to discuss the removal of your gallbladder to achieve pain relief." D) "You are probably not appropriately taking the medications for your pancreatitis and pain, so we will need to discuss your medication regimen in detail."

Ans: B Feedback: Pain relief from a pancreaticojejunostomy often occurs by 6 months in more than 85% of the patients who undergo this procedure, but pain returns in a substantial number of patients as the disease progresses. This patient had surgery 3 months ago; the patient has 3 months before optimal benefits of the procedure may be experienced. There is no obvious indication for gallbladder removal and nonadherence is not the most likely factor underlying the pain.

39. A nurse at an outpatient surgery center is caring for a patient who had a hemorrhoidectomy. What discharge education topics should the nurse address with this patient? A) The appropriate use of antibiotics to prevent postoperative infection B) The correct procedure for taking a sitz bath C) The need to eat a lowresidue, lowfat diet for the next 2 weeks D) The correct technique for keeping the perianal region clean without the use of water

Ans: B Feedback: Sitz baths are usually indicated after perianal surgery. A lowresidue, lowfat diet is not necessary and water is used to keep the region clean. Postoperative antibiotics are not normally prescribed.

31. A patient has been diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse is addressing the diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Pancreatitis. What pharmacologic intervention is most likely to be ordered for this patient? A) Oral oxycodone B) IV hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C) IM meperidine (Demerol) D) Oral naproxen (Aleve)

Ans: B Feedback: The pain of acute pancreatitis is often very severe and pain relief may require parenteral opioids such as morphine, fentanyl (Sublimaze), or hydromorphone (Dilaudid). There is no clinical evidence to support the use of meperidine for pain relief in pancreatitis. Opioids are preferred over NSAIDs.

38. A nurse is caring for a patient with gallstones who has been prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). The patient askshow this medicine is going to help his symptoms. The nurse should be aware of what aspect of this drug's pharmacodynamics? A) It inhibits the synthesis of bile. B) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol. C) It inhibits the secretion of bile. D) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of amylase.

Ans: B Feedback: UDCA acts by inhibiting the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol, thereby desaturating bile. UDCA does not directly inhibit either the synthesis or secretion of bile or amylase.

35. A patient is admitted to the unit with acute cholecystitis. The physician has noted that surgery will be scheduled in 4 days. The patient asks why the surgery is being put off for a week when he has a "sick gallbladder." What rationale would underlie the nurse's response? A) Surgery is delayed until the patient can eat a regular diet without vomiting. B) Surgery is delayed until the acute symptoms subside. C) The patient requires aggressive nutritional support prior to surgery. D) Time is needed to determine whether a laparoscopic procedure can be used.

Ans: B Feedback: Unless the patient's condition deteriorates, surgical intervention is delayed just until the acute symptoms subside (usually within a few days). There is no need to delay surgery pending an improvement in nutritional status, and deciding on a laparoscopic approach is not a lengthy process.

18. A patient with gallstones has been prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). The nurse understands that additional teaching is needed regarding this medication when the patient states: A) "It is important that I see my physician for scheduled follow-up appointments while taking this medication." B) "I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then gradually stop taking it." C) "If I lose weight, the dose of the medication may need to be changed." D) "This medication will help dissolve small gallstones made of cholesterol."

Ans: B Feedback: Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) has been used to dissolve small, radiolucent gallstones composed primarily of cholesterol. This drug can reduce the size of existing stones, dissolve small stones, and prevent new stones from forming. Six to 12 months of therapy is required in many patients to dissolve stones, and monitoring of the patient is required during this time. The effective dose of medication depends on body weight.

12. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient with pancreatic cysts that have necessitated drainage through the abdominal wall. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A) Disturbed Body Image B) Impaired Skin Integrity C) Nausea D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume

Ans: B Feedback: While each of the diagnoses may be applicable to a patient with pancreatic drainage, the priority nursing diagnosis is Impaired Skin Integrity. The drainage is often perfuse and destructive to tissue because of the enzyme contents. Nursing measures must focus on steps to protect the skin near the drainage site from excoriation. The application of ointments or the use of a suction apparatus protects the skin from excoriation.

12. An older adult who resides in an assisted living facility has sought care from the nurse because of recurrent episodes of constipation. Which of the following actions should the nurse first perform? A) Encourage the patient to take stool softener daily. B) Assess the patients food and fluid intake. C) Assess the patients surgical history. D) Encourage the patient to take fiber supplements.

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should follow the nursing process and perform an assessment prior to interventions. The patients food and fluid intake is more likely to affect bowel function than surgery.

A patient has been admitted to the hospital with a spontaneous vertebral fracture related to osteoporosis. Which of the following nursing diagnoses must be addressed in the plan of care? A) Risk for Aspiration Related to Vertebral Fracture B) Constipation Related to Vertebral Fracture C) Impaired Swallowing Related to Vertebral Fracture D) Decreased Cardiac Output Related to Vertebral Fracture

Ans: B Feedback: Constipation is a problem related to immobility and medications used to treat vertebral fractures. The patient's risks of aspiration, dysphagia, and decreased cardiac output are not necessarily heightened.

A patient has returned to the unit after undergoing limb-sparing surgery to remove a metastatic bone tumor. The nurse providing postoperative care in the days following surgery assesses for what complication from surgery? A) Deficient fluid volume B) Delayed wound healing C) Hypocalcemia D) Pathologic fractures

Ans: B Feedback: Delayed wound healing is a complication of surgery due to tissue trauma from the surgery. Nutritional deficiency is usually due to the effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy, which may cause weight loss. Pathologic fractures are not a complication of surgery.

A patient with diabetes is attending a class on the prevention of associated diseases. What action should the patient perform to reduce the risk of osteomyelitis? A) Increase calcium and vitamin intake. B) Perform meticulous foot care. C) Exercise 3 to 4 times weekly for at least 30 minutes. D) Take corticosteroids as ordered.

Ans: B Feedback: Diabetic foot ulcers have a high potential for progressing to osteomyelitis. Meticulous foot care can help mitigate this risk. Corticosteroids can exacerbate the risk of osteomyelitis. Increased intake of calcium and vitamins as well as regular exercise are beneficial health promotion exercises, but they do not directly reduce the risk of osteomyelitis.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated in the hospital for a spontaneous vertebral fracture related to osteoporosis. The nurse should address the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Fracture by implementing what intervention? A) Maintenance of high Fowler's positioning whenever possible B) Intermittent application of heat to the patient's back C) Use of a pressure-reducing mattress D) Passive range of motion exercises

Ans: B Feedback: Intermittent local heat and back rubs promote muscle relaxation following osteoporotic vertebral fractures. High Fowler's positioning is likely to exacerbate pain. The mattress must be adequately supportive, but pressure reduction is not necessarily required. Passive range of motion exercises to the back would cause pain and impair healing.

A patient has come to the clinic for a routine annual physical. The nurse practitioner notes a palpable, painless projection of bone at the patient's shoulder. The projection appears to be at the distal end of the humerus. The nurse should suspect the presence of which of the following? A) Osteomyelitis B) Osteochondroma C) Osteomalacia D) Paget's disease

Ans: B Feedback: Osteochondroma is the most common benign bone tumor. It usually occurs as a large projection of bone at the end of long bones (at the knee or shoulder). Osteomyelitis, osteomalacia, and Paget's disease do not involve the development of excess bone tissue.

A patient with diabetes has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis. The nurse notes that the patient's right foot is pale and mottled, cool to touch, with a capillary refill of greater than 3 seconds. The nurse should suspect what type of osteomyelitis? A) Hematogenous osteomyelitis B) Osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency C) Contiguous-focus osteomyelitis D) Osteomyelitis with muscular deterioration

Ans: B Feedback: Osteomyelitis is classified as hematogenous osteomyelitis (i.e., due to blood-borne spread of infection); contiguous-focus osteomyelitis, from contamination from bone surgery, open fracture, or traumatic injury (e.g., gunshot wound); and osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency, seen most commonly among patients with diabetes and peripheral vascular disease, most commonly affecting the feet. Osteomyelitis with muscular deterioration does not exist.

Which of the following patients should the nurse recognize as being at the highest risk for the development of osteomyelitis? A) A middle-age adult who takes ibuprofen daily for rheumatoid arthritis B) An elderly patient with an infected pressure ulcer in the sacral area C) A 17-year-old football player who had orthopedic surgery 6 weeks prior D) An infant diagnosed with jaundice

Ans: B Feedback: Patients who are at high risk of osteomyelitis include those who are poorly nourished, elderly, and obese. The elderly patient with an infected sacral pressure ulcer is at the greatest risk for the development of osteomyelitis, as this patient has two risk factors: age and the presence of a soft-tissue infection that has the potential to extend into the bone. The patient with rheumatoid arthritis has one risk factor and the infant with jaundice has no identifiable risk factors. The patient 6 weeks postsurgery is beyond the usual window of time for the development of a postoperative surgical wound infection.

A patient presents at a clinic complaining of pain in his heel so bad that it inhibits his ability to walk. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. This patient's plan of care should include what intervention? A) Wrapping the affected area in lamb's wool or gauze to relieve pressure B) Gently stretching the foot and the Achilles tendon C) Wearing open-toed shoes at all times D) Applying topical analgesic ointment to plantar surface each morning

Ans: B Feedback: Plantar fasciitis leads to pain that is localized to the anterior medial aspect of the heel and diminishes with gentle stretching of the foot and Achilles tendon. Dressings of any kind are not of therapeutic benefit and analgesic ointments do not address the pathology of the problem. Open-toed shoes are of no particular benefit.

13. A 16 yearold presents at the emergency department complaining of right lower quadrant pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. When planning this patients nursing care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Decreased Oral Intake B) Risk for Infection Related to Possible Rupture of Appendix C) Constipation Related to Decreased Bowel Motility and Decreased Fluid Intake D) Chronic Pain Related to Appendicitis

Ans: B Feedback: The patient with a diagnosis of appendicitis has an acute risk of infection related to the possibility of rupture. This immediate physiologic risk is a priority over nutrition and constipation, though each of these concerns should be addressed by the nurse. The pain associated with appendicitis is acute, not chronic.

A physician writes an order to discontinue skeletal traction on an orthopedic patient. The nurse should anticipate what subsequent intervention? A) Application of a walking boot B) Application of a cast C) Education on how to use crutches D) Passive range of motion exercises

Ans: B Feedback: After skeletal traction is discontinued, internal fixation, casts, or splints are then used to immobilize and support the healing bone. The use of a walking boot, crutches, or ROM exercises could easily damage delicate, remodeled bone.

A nurse is reviewing a patient's activities of daily living prior to discharge from total hip replacement. The nurse should identify what activity as posing a potential risk for hip dislocation? A) Straining during a bowel movement B) Bending down to put on socks C) Lifting items above shoulder level D) Transferring from a sitting to standing position

Ans: B Feedback: Bending to put on socks or shoes can cause hip dislocation. None of the other listed actions poses a serious threat to the integrity of the new hip.

A patient has recently been admitted to the orthopedic unit following total hip arthroplasty. The patient has a closed suction device in place and the nurse has determined that there were 320 mL of output in the first 24 hours. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Inform the primary care provider promptly. B) Document this as an expected assessment finding. C) Limit the patient's fluid intake to 2 liters for the next 24 hours. D) Administer a loop diuretic as ordered.

Ans: B Feedback: Drainage of 200 to 500 mL in the first 24 hours is expected. Consequently, the nurse does not need to inform the physician. Fluid restriction and medication administration are not indicated.

A patient has suffered a muscle strain and is complaining of pain that she rates at 6 on a 10-point scale. The nurse should recommend what action? A) Taking an opioid analgesic as ordered B) Applying a cold pack to the injured site C) Performing passive ROM exercises D) Applying a heating pad to the affected muscle

Ans: B Feedback: Most pain can be relieved by elevating the involved part, applying cold packs, and administering analgesics as prescribed. Heat may exacerbate the pain by increasing blood circulation, and ROM exercises would likely be painful. Analgesia is likely necessary, but NSAIDs would be more appropriate than opioids.

The orthopedic surgeon has prescribed balanced skeletal traction for a patient. What advantage is conferred by balanced traction? A) Balanced traction can be applied at night and removed during the day. B) Balanced traction allows for greater patient movement and independence than other forms of traction. C) Balanced traction is portable and may accompany the patient's movements. D) Balanced traction facilitates bone remodeling in as little as 4 days.

Ans: B Feedback: Often, skeletal traction is balanced traction, which supports the affected extremity, allows for some patient movement, and facilitates patient independence and nursing care while maintaining effective traction. It is not portable, however, and it cannot be removed. Bone remodeling takes longer than 4 days.

A patient is being prepared for a total hip arthroplasty, and the nurse is providing relevant education. The patient is concerned about being on bed rest for several days after the surgery. The nurse should explain what expectation for activity following hip replacement? A) "Actually, patients are only on bed rest for 2 to 3 days before they begin walking with assistance." B) "The physical therapist will likely help you get up using a walker the day after your surgery." C) "Our goal will actually be to have you walking normally within 5 days of your surgery." D) "For the first two weeks after the surgery, you can use a wheelchair to meet your mobility needs."

Ans: B Feedback: Patients post-THA begin ambulation with the assistance of a walker or crutches within a day after surgery. Wheelchairs are not normally utilized. Baseline levels of mobility are not normally achieved until several weeks after surgery, however.

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving traction. The nurse's assessment confirms that the patient is able to perform plantar flexion. What conclusion can the nurse draw from this finding? A) The leg that was assessed is free from DVT. B) The patient's tibial nerve is functional. C) Circulation to the distal extremity is adequate. D) The patient does not have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction.

Ans: B Feedback: Plantar flexion demonstrates function of the tibial nerve. It does not demonstrate the absence of DVT and does not allow the nurse to ascertain adequate circulation. The nurse must perform more assessments on more sites in order to determine an absence of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction.

While assessing a patient who has had knee replacement surgery, the nurse notes that the patient has developed a hematoma at the surgical site. The affected leg has a decreased pedal pulse. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Risk for Infection B) Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction C) Unilateral Neglect D) Disturbed Kinesthetic Sensory Perception

Ans: B Feedback: The hematoma may cause an interruption of tissue perfusion, so the most appropriate nursing diagnosis is Risk of Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction. There is also an associated risk for infection because of the hematoma, but impaired neurovascular function is a more acute threat. Unilateral neglect and impaired sensation are lower priorities than neurovascular status.

A patient with a right tibial fracture is being discharged home after having a cast applied. What instruction should the nurse provide in relationship to the patient's cast care? A) "Cover the cast with a blanket until the cast dries." B) "Keep your right leg elevated above heart level." C) "Use a clean object to scratch itches inside the cast." D) "A foul smell from the cast is normal after the first few days."

Ans: B Feedback: The leg should be elevated to promote venous return and prevent edema. The cast shouldn't be covered while drying because this will cause heat buildup and prevent air circulation. No foreign object should be inserted inside the cast because of the risk of cutting the skin and causing an infection. A foul smell from a cast is never normal and may indicate an infection.

A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is preparing for discharge following recovery from a total hip replacement. Which of the following outcomes must be met prior to discharge? A) Patient is able to perform ADLs independently. B) Patient is able to perform transfers safely. C) Patient is able to weight-bear equally on both legs. D) Patient is able to demonstrate full ROM of the affected hip.

Ans: B Feedback: The patient must be able to perform transfers and to use mobility aids safely. Each of the other listed goals is unrealistic for the patient who has undergone recent hip replacement.

A patient has just begun been receiving skeletal traction and the nurse is aware that muscles in the patient's affected limb are spastic. How does this change in muscle tone affect the patient's traction prescription? A) Traction must temporarily be aligned in a slightly different direction. B) Extra weight is needed initially to keep the limb in proper alignment. C) A lighter weight should be initially used. D) Weight will temporarily alternate between heavier and lighter weights.

Ans: B Feedback: The traction weights applied initially must overcome the shortening spasms of the affected muscles. As the muscles relax, the traction weight is reduced to prevent fracture dislocation and to promote healing. Weights never alternate between heavy and light.

A nurse is caring for a patient receiving skeletal traction. Due to the patient's severe limits on mobility, the nurse has identified a risk for atelectasis or pneumonia. What intervention should the nurse provide in order to prevent these complications? A) Perform chest physiotherapy once per shift and as needed. B) Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises. C) Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered. D) Administer nebulized bronchodilators and corticosteroids as ordered.

Ans: B Feedback: To prevent these complications, the nurse should educate the patient about performing deep-breathing and coughing exercises to aid in fully expanding the lungs and clearing pulmonary secretions. Antibiotics, bronchodilators, and steroids are not used on a preventative basis and chest physiotherapy is unnecessary and implausible for a patient in traction.

A patient with a total hip replacement is progressing well and expects to be discharged tomorrow. On returning to bed after ambulating, he complains of a new onset of pain at the surgical site. What is the nurse's best action? A) Administer pain medication as ordered. B) Assess the surgical site and the affected extremity. C) Reassure the patient that pain is a direct result of increased activity. D) Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of systemic infection.

Ans: B Feedback: Worsening pain after a total hip replacement may indicate dislocation of the prosthesis. Assessment of pain should include evaluation of the wound and the affected extremity. Assuming he's anxious about discharge and administering pain medication do not address the cause of the pain. Sudden severe pain is not considered normal after hip replacement. Sudden pain is rarely indicative of a systemic infection.

25. An adult patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease after ongoing challenges with constipation. The patient will be treated on an outpatient basis. What components of treatment should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A) Anticholinergic medications B) Increased fiber intake C) Enemas on alternating days D) Reduced fat intake E) Fluid reduction

Ans: B, D Feedback: Patients whose diverticular disease does not warrant hospital treatment often benefit from a high fiber, low fat diet. Neither enemas nor anticholinergics are indicated, and fluid intake is encouraged.

1. A nurse is working with a patient who has chronic constipation. What should be included in patient teaching to promote normal bowel function? A) Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis. B) Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis. C) Consume highresidue, highfiber foods. D) Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense.

Ans: C Feedback: Goals for the patient include restoring or maintaining a regular pattern of elimination by responding to the urge to defecate, ensuring adequate intake of fluids and highfiber foods, learning about methods to avoid constipation, relieving anxiety about bowel elimination patterns, and avoiding complications. Ongoing use of pharmacologic aids should not be promoted, due to the risk of dependence. Increased mobility helps to maintain a regular pattern of elimination. The urge to defecate should be heeded.

9. A patients screening colonoscopy revealed the presence of numerous polyps in the large bowel. What principle should guide the subsequent treatment of this patients health problem? A) Adherence to a highfiber diet will help the polyps resolve. B) The patient should be assured that these are a normal, agerelated physiologic change. C) The patients polyps constitute a risk factor for cancer. D) The presence of polyps is associated with an increased risk of bowel obstruction.

Ans: C Feedback: Although most polyps do not develop into invasive neoplasms, they must be identified and followed closely. They are very common, but are not classified as a normal, age related physiologic change. Diet will not help them resolve and they do not typically lead to obstructions.

26. A patients health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohns disease, rather that ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the patients signs and symptoms? A) A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions B) Severe diarrhea C) An absence of blood in stool D) Involvement of the rectal mucosa

Ans: C Feedback: Bloody stool is far more common in cases of UC than in Crohns. Rectal involvement is nearly 100% in cases of UC (versus 20% in Crohns) and patients with UC typically experience severe diarrhea. UC is also characterized by a pattern of remissions and exacerbations, while Crohns often has a more prolonged and variable course.

11. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a 21 yearold patient with a new diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. When planning family assessment, the nurse should recognize that which of the following factors will likely have the greatest impact on the patients coping after discharge? A) The familys ability to take care of the patients special diet needs B) The familys ability to monitor the patients changing health status C) The familys ability to provide emotional support D) The familys ability to manage the patients medication regimen

Ans: C Feedback: Emotional support from the family is key to the patients coping after discharge. A 21year old would be expected to self manage the prescribed medication regimen and the family would not be primarily responsible for monitoring the patients health status. It is highly beneficial if the family is willing and able to accommodate the patients dietary needs, but emotional support is paramount and cannot be solely provided by the patient alone.

33. A nurse is assessing a patients stoma on postoperative day 3. The nurse notes that the stoma has a shiny appearance and a bright red color. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Irrigate the ostomy to clear a possible obstruction. B) Contact the primary care provider to report this finding. C) Document that the stoma appears healthy and well perfused. D) Document a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity.

Ans: C Feedback: A healthy, viable stoma should be shiny and pink to bright red. This finding does not indicate that the stoma is blocked or that skin integrity is compromised.

24. An older adult has a diagnosis of Alzheimers disease and has recently been experiencing fecal incontinence. However, the nurse has observed no recent change in the character of the patients stools. What is the nurses most appropriate intervention? A) Keep a food diary to determine the foods that exacerbate the patients symptoms. B) Provide the patient with a bland, lowresidue diet. C) Toilet the patient on a frequent, scheduled basis. D) Liaise with the primary care provider to obtain an order for loperamide.

Ans: C Feedback: Because the patients fecal incontinence is most likely attributable to cognitive decline, frequent toileting is an appropriate intervention. Loperamide is unnecessary in the absence of diarrhea. Specific foods are not likely to be a cause of, or solution to, this patients health problem.

21. A nurse is working with a patient who is learning to care for a continent ileostomy (Kock pouch). Following the initial period of healing, the nurse is teaching the patient how to independently empty the ileostomy. The nurse should teach the patient to do which of the following actions? A) Aim to eventually empty the pouch every 90 minutes. B) Avoid emptying the pouch until it is visibly full. C) Insert the catheter approximately 5 cm into the pouch. D) Aspirate the contents of the pouch using a 60 mL piston syringe.

Ans: C Feedback: To empty a Kock pouch, the catheter is gently inserted approximately 5 cm to the point of the valve or nipple. The length of time between drainage periods is gradually increased until the reservoir needs to be drained only every 4 to 6 hours and irrigated once each day. It is not appropriate to wait until the pouch is full, and this would not be visible. The contents of the pouch are not aspirated.

11. A patient has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and is being prepared for discharge home. When providing health education, the nurse should prioritize which of the following topics? A) Management of fluid balance in the home setting B) The need for blood glucose monitoring for the next week C) Signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal complications D) Appropriate use of prescribed pancreatic enzymes

Ans: C Feedback: Because of the early discharge following laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient needs thorough education in the signs and symptoms of complications. Fluid balance is not typically a problem in the recovery period after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. There is no need for blood glucose monitoring or pancreatic enzymes.

32. A patient has just been diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. The patient is underweight and in severe pain and diagnostic testing indicates that over 80% of the patient's pancreas has been destroyed. The patient asks the nurse why the diagnosis was not made earlier in the disease process. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "The symptoms of pancreatitis mimic those of much less serious illnesses." B) "Your body doesn't require pancreatic function until it is under great stress, so it is easy to go unnoticed." C) "Chronic pancreatitis often goes undetected until a large majority of pancreatic function is lost." D) "It's likely that your other organs were compensating for your decreased pancreatic function."

Ans: C Feedback: By the time symptoms occur in chronic pancreatitis, approximately 90% of normal acinar cell function (exocrine function) has been lost. Late detection is not usually attributable to the vagueness of symptoms. The pancreas contributes continually to homeostasis and other organs are unable to perform its physiologic functions.

25. A community health nurse is caring for a patient whose multiple health problems include chronic pancreatitis. During the most recent visit, the nurse notes that the patient is experiencing severe abdominal pain and has vomited 3 times in the past several hours. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Administer a PRN dose of pancreatic enzymes as ordered. B) Teach the patient about the importance of abstaining from alcohol. C) Arrange for the patient to be transported to the hospital. D) Insert an NG tube, if available, and stay with the patient.

Ans: C Feedback: Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by recurring attacks of severe upper abdominal and back pain, accompanied by vomiting. The onset of these acute symptoms warrants hospital treatment. Pancreatic enzymes are not indicated and an NG tube would not be inserted in the home setting. Patient education is a later priority that may or may not be relevant.

34. A patient is admitted to the ICU with acute pancreatitis. The patient's family asks what causes acute pancreatitis. The critical care nurse knows that a majority of patients with acute pancreatitis have what? A) Type 1 diabetes B) An impaired immune system C) Undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis D) An amylase deficiency

Ans: C Feedback: Eighty percent of patients with acute pancreatitis have biliary tract disease or a history of long-term alcohol abuse. These patients usually have had undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis before their first episode of acute pancreatitis. Diabetes, an impaired immune function, and amylase deficiency are not specific precursors to acute pancreatitis.

5. A nurse who provides care in a walk-in clinic assesses a wide range of individuals. The nurse should identify which of the following patients as having the highest risk for chronic pancreatitis? A) A 45-year-old obese woman with a high-fat diet B) An 18-year-old man who is a weekend binge drinker C) A 39-year-old man with chronic alcoholism D) A 51-year-old woman who smokes one-and-a-half packs of cigarettes per day

Ans: C Feedback: Excessive and prolonged consumption of alcohol accounts for approximately 70% to 80% of all cases of chronic pancreatitis.

31. A patients colorectal cancer has necessitated a hemicolectomy with the creation of a colostomy. In the 4 days since the surgery, the patient has been unwilling to look at the ostomy or participate in any aspects of ostomy care. What is the nurses most appropriate response to this observation? A) Ensure that the patient knows that he or she will be responsible for care after discharge. B) Reassure the patient that many people are fearful after the creation of an ostomy. C) Acknowledge the patients reluctance and initiate discussion of the factors underlying it. D) Arrange for the patient to be seen by a social worker or spiritual advisor.

Ans: C Feedback: If the patient is reluctant to participate in ostomy care, the nurse should attempt to dialogue about this with the patient and explore the factors that underlie it. It is presumptive to assume that the patients behavior is motivated by fear. Assessment must precede referrals and emphasizing the patients responsibilities may or may not motivate the patient.

26. A student nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The student should prioritize which of the following assessments? A) Fluid output B) Oral intake C) Blood glucose levels D) BUN and creatinine levels

Ans: C Feedback: In addition to administering enteral or parenteral nutrition, the nurse monitors serum glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours. Output should be monitored but in most cases it is not more important than serum glucose levels. A patient on parenteral nutrition would have no oral intake to monitor. Blood sugar levels are more likely to be unstable than indicators of renal function.

29. The family of a patient in the ICU diagnosed with acute pancreatitis asks the nurse why the patient has been moved to an air bed. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "Air beds allow the care team to reposition her more easily while she's on bed rest." B) "Air beds are far more comfortable than regular beds and she'll likely have to be on bed rest a long time." C) "The bed automatically moves, so she's less likely to develop pressure sores while she's in bed." D) "The bed automatically moves, so she is likely to have less pain."

Ans: C Feedback: It is important to turn the patient every 2 hours; use of specialty beds may be indicated to prevent skin breakdown. The rationale for a specialty bed is not related to repositioning, comfort, or ease of movement.

30. A patient is receiving care in the intensive care unit for acute pancreatitis. The nurse is aware that pancreatic necrosis is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis. Consequently, the nurse should assess for what signs or symptoms of this complication? A) Sudden increase in random blood glucose readings B) Increased abdominal girth accompanied by decreased level of consciousness C) Fever, increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure D) Abdominal pain unresponsive to analgesics

Ans: C Feedback: Pancreatic necrosis is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis because of resulting hemorrhage, septic shock, and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Signs of shock would include hypotension, tachycardia and fever. Each of the other listed changes in status warrants intervention, but none is clearly suggestive of an onset of pancreatic necrosis.

21. A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The care plan includes reduced activity. What rationale for this intervention should be cited in the care plan? A) Bed rest reduces the patient's metabolism and reduces the risk of metabolic acidosis. B) Reduced activity protects the physical integrity of pancreatic cells. C) Bed rest lowers the metabolic rate and reduces enzyme production. D) Inactivity reduces caloric need and gastrointestinal motility.

Ans: C Feedback: The acutely ill patient is maintained on bed rest to decrease the metabolic rate and reduce the secretion of pancreatic and gastric enzymes. Staying in bed does not release energy from the body to fight the disease.

8. A patient who had surgery for gallbladder disease has just returned to the postsurgical unit from postanesthetic recovery. The nurse caring for this patient knows to immediately report what assessment finding to the physician? A) Decreased breath sounds B) Drainage of bile-colored fluid onto the abdominal dressing C) Rigidity of the abdomen D) Acute pain with movement

Ans: C Feedback: The location of the subcostal incision will likely cause the patient to take shallow breaths to prevent pain, which may result in decreased breath sounds. The nurse should remind patients to take deep breaths and cough to expand the lungs fully and prevent atelectasis. Acute pain is an expected assessment finding following surgery; analgesics should be administered for pain relief. Abdominal splinting or application of an abdominal binder may assist in reducing the pain. Bile may continue to drain from the drainage tract after surgery, which will require frequent changes of the abdominal dressing. Increased abdominal tenderness and rigidity should be reported immediately to the physician, as it may indicate bleeding from an inadvertent puncture or nicking of a major blood vessel during the surgical procedure.

39. A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient who has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the immediate recovery period, the nurse should recommend what foods? A) High-fiber foods B) Low-purine, nutrient-dense foods C) Low-fat foods high in proteins and carbohydrates D) Foods that are low-residue and low in fat

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse encourages the patient to eat a diet that is low in fats and high in carbohydrates and proteins immediately after surgery. There is no specific need to increase fiber or avoid purines. A low-residue diet is not indicated.

28. A patient has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of chronic pancreatitis. The patient has been stabilized and the nurse is now planning health promotion and educational interventions. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize? A) Educating the patient about expectations and care following surgery B) Educating the patient about the management of blood glucose after discharge C) Educating the patient about postdischarge lifestyle modifications D) Educating the patient about the potential benefits of pancreatic transplantation

Ans: C Feedback: The patient's lifestyle (especially regarding alcohol use) is a major determinant of the course of chronic pancreatitis. The disease is not often managed by surgery and blood sugar monitoring is not necessarily indicated for every patient after hospital treatment. Transplantation is not an option.

A nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology that may underlie a patient's decreased bone density. What hormone should the nurse identify as inhibiting bone resorption and promoting bone formation? A) Estrogen B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C) Calcitonin D) Progesterone

Ans: C Feedback: Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation, estrogen inhibits bone breakdown, and parathyroid increases bone resorption. Estrogen, which inhibits bone breakdown, decreases with aging. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases with aging, increasing bone turnover and resorption. Progesterone is the major naturally occurring human progestogen and plays a role in the female menstrual cycle.

A nurse is discussing conservative management of tendonitis with a patient. Which of the following may be an effective approach to managing tendonitis? A) Weight reduction B) Use of oral opioid analgesics C) Intermittent application of ice and heat D) Passive range of motion exercises

Ans: C Feedback: Conservative management of tendonitis includes rest of the extremity, intermittent ice and heat to the joint, and NSAIDs. Weight reduction may prevent future injuries but will not relieve existing tendonitis. Range-of-motion exercises may exacerbate pain. Opioids would not be considered a conservative treatment measure.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a bone tumor. The nurse is providing education to help the patient reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. What should the nurse teach the patient? A) Strive to achieve maximum weight-bearing capabilities. B) Gradually strengthen the affected muscles through weight training. C) Support the affected extremity with external supports such as splints. D) Limit reliance on assistive devices in order to build strength.

Ans: C Feedback: During nursing care, the affected extremities must be supported and handled gently. External supports (splints) may be used for additional protection. Prescribed weight-bearing restrictions must be followed. Assistive devices should be used to strengthen the unaffected extremities.

A nurse is caring for a patient with Paget's disease and is reviewing the patient's most recent laboratory values. Which of the following values is most characteristic of Paget's disease? A) An elevated level of parathyroid hormone and low calcitonin levels B) A low serum alkaline phosphatase level and a low serum calcium level C) An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level and a normal serum calcium level D) An elevated calcitonin level and low levels of parathyroid hormone

Ans: C Feedback: Patients with Paget's disease have normal blood calcium levels. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase concentration and urinary hydroxyproline excretion reflect the increased osteoblastic activity associated with this condition. Alterations in PTH and calcitonin levels are atypical.

A patient presents at a clinic complaining of back pain that goes all the way down the back of the leg to the foot. The nurse should document the presence of what type of pain? A) Bursitis B) Radiculopathy C) Sciatica D) Tendonitis

Ans: C Feedback: Sciatica nerve pain travels down the back of the thigh to the foot of the affected leg. Bursitis is inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in a joint. Radiculopathy is disease of a nerve root. Tendonitis is inflammation of muscle tendons.

A nursing educator is reviewing the risk factors for osteoporosis with a group of recent graduates. What risk factor of the following should the educator describe? A) Recurrent infections and prolonged use of NSAIDs B) High alcohol intake and low body mass index C) Small frame, female gender, and Caucasian ethnicity D) Male gender, diabetes, and high protein intake

Ans: C Feedback: Small-framed, nonobese Caucasian women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. Diabetes, high protein intake, alcohol use, and infections are not among the most salient risk factors for osteoporosis.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has osteomalacia. What major goal will guide the choice of medical and nursing interventions? A) Maintenance of skin integrity B) Prevention of bone metastasis C) Maintenance of adequate levels of activated vitamin D D) Maintenance of adequate parathyroid hormone function

Ans: C Feedback: The primary defect in osteomalacia is a deficiency of activated vitamin D, which promotes calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and facilitates mineralization of bone. Interventions are aimed at resolving the processes underlying this deficiency. Maintenance of skin integrity is important, but is not the primary goal in care. Osteomalacia is not a malignant process. Overproduction (not underproduction) of PTH can cause the disease.

The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a total hip replacement yesterday. What should the nurse do to prevent dislocation of the new prosthesis? A) Keep the affected leg in a position of adduction. B) Have the patient reposition himself independently. C) Protect the affected leg from internal rotation. D) Keep the hip flexed by placing pillows under the patient's knee.

Ans: C Feedback: Abduction of the hip helps to prevent dislocation of a new hip joint. Rotation and adduction should be avoided. While the hip may be flexed slightly, it shouldn't exceed 90 degrees and maintenance of flexion isn't necessary. The patient may not be capable of safe independent repositioning at this early stage of recovery.

An elderly patient's hip joint is immobilized prior to surgery to correct a femoral head fracture. What is the nurse's priority assessment? A) The presence of leg shortening B) The patient's complaints of pain C) Signs of neurovascular compromise D) The presence of internal or external rotation

Ans: C Feedback: Because impaired circulation can cause permanent damage, neurovascular assessment of the affected leg is always a priority assessment. Leg shortening and internal or external rotation are common findings with a fractured hip. Pain, especially on movement, is also common after a hip fracture.

A patient is admitted to the unit in traction for a fractured proximal femur and requires traction prior to surgery. What is the most appropriate type of traction to apply to a fractured proximal femur? A) Russell's traction B) Dunlop's traction C) Buck's extension traction D) Cervical head halter

Ans: C Feedback: Buck's extension is used for fractures of the proximal femur. Russell's traction is used for lower leg fractures. Dunlop's traction is applied to the upper extremity for supracondylar fractures of the elbow and humerus. Cervical head halters are used to stabilize the neck.

A patient is complaining of pain in her casted leg. The nurse has administered analgesics and elevated the limb. Thirty minutes after administering the analgesics, the patient states the pain is unrelieved. The nurse should identify the warning signs of what complication? A) Subcutaneous emphysema B) Skin breakdown C) Compartment syndrome D) Disuse syndrome

Ans: C Feedback: Compartment syndrome may manifest as unrelenting, uncontrollable pain. This presentation of pain is not suggestive of disuse syndrome or skin breakdown. Subcutaneous emphysema is not a complication of casting.

A 91-year-old patient is slated for orthopedic surgery and the nurse is integrated gerontologic considerations into the patient's plan of care. What intervention is most justified in the care of this patient? A) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics B) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) C) Use of a pressure-relieving mattress D) Use of a Foley catheter until discharge

Ans: C Feedback: Older adults have a heightened risk of skin breakdown; use of a pressure-reducing mattress addresses this risk. Older adults do not necessarily need TPN and the Foley catheter should be discontinued as soon as possible to prevent urinary tract infections. Prophylactic antibiotics are not a standard infection prevention measure.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a leg cast. The nurse observes that the patient uses a pencil to scratch the skin under the edge of the cast. How should the nurse respond to this observation? A) Allow the patient to continue to scratch inside the cast with a pencil but encourage him to be cautious. B) Give the patient a sterile tongue depressor to use for scratching instead of the pencil. C) Encourage the patient to avoid scratching, and obtain an order for an antihistamine if severe itching persists. D) Obtain an order for a sedative, such as lorazepam (Ativan), to prevent the patient from scratching.

Ans: C Feedback: Scratching should be discouraged because of the risk for skin breakdown or damage to the cast. Most patients can be discouraged from scratching if given a mild antihistamine, such as diphenhydramine, to relieve itching. Benzodiazepines would not be given for this purpose.

The nurse has identified the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Tissue Perfusion Related to Deep Vein Thrombosis in the care of a patient receiving skeletal traction. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk? A) Encourage independence with ADLs whenever possible. B) Monitor the patient's nutritional status closely. C) Teach the patient to perform ankle and foot exercises within the limitations of traction. D) Administer clopidogrel (Plavix) as ordered.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse educates the patient how to perform ankle and foot exercises within the limits of the traction therapy every 1 to 2 hours when awake to prevent DVT. Nutrition is important, but does not directly prevent DVT. Similarly, independence with ADLs should be promoted, but this does not confer significant prevention of DVT, which often affects the lower limbs. Plavix is not normally used for DVT prophylaxis.

A nurse is caring for a patient in skeletal traction. In order to prevent bony fragments from moving against one another, the nurse should caution the patient against which of the following actions? A) Shifting one's weight in bed B) Bearing down while having a bowel movement C) Turning from side to side D) Coughing without splinting

Ans: C Feedback: To prevent bony fragments from moving against one another, the patient should not turn from side to side; however, the patient may shift position slightly with assistance. Bearing down and coughing do not pose a threat to bone union.

34. A patient has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction and has been admitted to the medical unit. The nurses care should prioritize which of the following outcomes? A) Preventing infection B) Maintaining skin and tissue integrity C) Preventing nausea and vomiting D) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

Ans: D Feedback: All of the listed focuses of care are important for the patient with a small bowel obstruction. However, the patients risk of fluid and electrolyte imbalances is an immediate threat to safety, and is a priority in nursing assessment and interventions.

35. A patients large bowel obstruction has failed to resolve spontaneously and the patients worsening condition has warranted admission to the medical unit. Which of the following aspects of nursing care is most appropriate for this patient? A) Administering bowel stimulants as ordered B) Administering bulkforming laxatives as ordered C) Performing deep palpation as ordered to promote peristalsis D) Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection

Ans: D Feedback: The usual treatment for a large bowel obstruction is surgical resection to remove the obstructing lesion. Administration of laxatives or bowel stimulants are contraindicated if the bowel is obstructed. Palpation would be painful and has no therapeutic benefit.

19. A nurse is teaching a group of adults about screening and prevention of colorectal cancer. The nurse should describe which of the following as the most common sign of possible colon cancer? A) Development of new hemorrhoids B) Abdominal bloating and flank pain C) Unexplained weight gain D) Change in bowel habits

Ans: D Feedback: The most common presenting symptom associated with colorectal cancer is a change in bowel habits. The passage of blood is the second most common symptom. Symptoms may also include unexplained anemia, anorexia, weight loss, and fatigue. Hemorrhoids and bloating are atypical.

40. Which of the following is the most plausible nursing diagnosis for a patient whose treatment for colon cancer has necessitated a colonostomy? A) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Due to Changes in Digestion and Absorption B) Unilateral Neglect Related to Decreased Physical Mobility C) Risk for Excess Fluid Volume Related to Dietary Changes and Changes In Absorption D) Ineffective Sexuality Patterns Related to Changes in SelfConcept

Ans: D Feedback: The presence of an ostomy frequently has an effect on sexuality; this should be addressed thoughtfully in nursing care. None of the other listed diagnoses reflects the physiologic changes that result from colorectal surgery.

14. A nurse is talking with a patient who is scheduled to have a hemicolectomy with the creation of a colostomy. The patient admits to being anxious, and has many questions concerning the surgery, the care of a stoma, and necessary lifestyle changes. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? A) Reassure the patient that the procedure is relatively low risk and that patients are usually successful in adjusting to an ostomy. B) Provide the patient with educational materials that match the patients learning style. C) Encourage the patient to write down these concerns and questions to bring forward to the surgeon. D) Maintain an open dialogue with the patient and facilitate a referral to the woundostomy continence (WOC) nurse.

Ans: D Feedback: A wound ostomy continence (WOC) nurse is a registered nurse who has received advanced education in an accredited program to care for patients with stomas. The enterostomal nurse therapist can assist with the selection of an appropriate stoma site, teach about stoma care, and provide emotional support. The surgeon is less likely to address the patients psychosocial and learning needs. Reassurance does not address the patients questions, and education may or may not alleviate anxiety.

16. A patient has been treated in the hospital for an episode of acute pancreatitis. The patient has acknowledged the role that his alcohol use played in the development of his health problem, but has not expressed specific plans for lifestyle changes after discharge. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Educate the patient about the link between alcohol use and pancreatitis. B) Ensure that the patient knows the importance of attending follow-up appointments. C) Refer the patient to social work or spiritual care. D) Encourage the patient to connect with a community-based support group.

Ans: D Feedback: After the acute attack has subsided, some patients may be inclined to return to their previous drinking habits. The nurse provides specific information about resources and support groups that may be of assistance in avoiding alcohol in the future. Referral to Alcoholics Anonymous as appropriate or other support groups is essential. The patient already has an understanding of the effects of alcohol, and follow-up appointments will not necessarily result in lifestyle changes. Social work and spiritual care may or may not be beneficial.

2. A 55-year-old man has been newly diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and admitted to the acute medical unit. How should the nurse most likely explain the pathophysiology of this patient's health problem? A) "Toxins have accumulated and inflamed your pancreas." B) "Bacteria likely migrated from your intestines and became lodged in your pancreas." C) "A virus that was likely already present in your body has begun to attack your pancreatic cells." D) "The enzymes that your pancreas produces have damaged the pancreas itself."

Ans: D Feedback: Although the mechanisms causing pancreatitis are unknown, pancreatitis is commonly described as the autodigestion of the pancreas. Less commonly, toxic substances and microorganisms are implicated as the cause of pancreatitis.

40. A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain. The patient states that his family doctor told him he had gallstones. The ED nurse should recognize what possible complication of gallstones? A) Acute pancreatitis B) Atrophy of the gallbladder C) Gallbladder cancer D) Gangrene of the gallbladder

Ans: D Feedback: In calculous cholecystitis, a gallbladder stone obstructs bile outflow. Bile remaining in the gallbladder initiates a chemical reaction; autolysis and edema occur; and the blood vessels in the gallbladder are compressed, compromising its vascular supply. Gangrene of the gallbladder with perforation may result. Pancreatitis, atrophy, and cancer of the gallbladder are not plausible complications.

32. A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been experiencing severe Clostridium difficilerelated diarrhea. When reviewing the patients most recent laboratory tests, the nurse should prioritize which of the following? A) White blood cell level B) Creatinine level C) Hemoglobin level D) Potassium level

Ans: D Feedback: In elderly patients, it is important to monitor the patients serum electrolyte levels closely. Diarrhea is less likely to cause an alteration in white blood cell, creatinine, and hemoglobin levels.

33. A patient has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and has been admitted for care. Following initial treatment, the nurse should be aware that the patient is most likely to require which of the following? A) Inpatient rehabilitation B) Rehabilitation in the home setting C) Intensive physical therapy D) Hospice care

Ans: D Feedback: Pancreatic carcinoma has only a 5% survival rate at 5 years regardless of the stage of disease at diagnosis or treatment. As a result, there is a higher likelihood that the patient will require hospice care than physical therapy and rehabilitation.

36. A patient has been experiencing occasional episodes of constipation and has been unable to achieve consistent relief by increasing physical activity and improving his diet. What pharmacologic intervention should the nurse recommend to the patient for ongoing use? A) Mineral oil enemas B) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) C) Senna (Senokot) D) Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil)

Ans: D Feedback: Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) is a bulk forming laxative that is safe for ongoing use. None of the other listed laxatives should be used on an ongoing basis because of the risk of dependence.

20. A nurse is assessing an elderly patient with gallstones. The nurse is aware that the patient may not exhibit typical symptoms, and that particular symptoms that may be exhibited in the elderly patient may include what? A) Fever and pain B) Chills and jaundice C) Nausea and vomiting D) Signs and symptoms of septic shock

Ans: D Feedback: The elderly patient may not exhibit the typical symptoms of fever, pain, chills jaundice, and nausea and vomiting. Symptoms of biliary tract disease in the elderly may be accompanied or preceded by those of septic shock, which include oliguria, hypotension, change in mental status, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

15. A patient returns to the floor after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The nurse should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of what serious potential complication of this surgery? A) Diabetic coma B) Decubitus ulcer C) Wound evisceration D) Bile duct injury

Ans: D Feedback: The most serious complication after laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a bile duct injury. Patients do not face a risk of diabetic coma. A decubitus ulcer is unlikely because immobility is not expected. Evisceration is highly unlikely, due to the laparoscopic approach.

13. A home health nurse is caring for a patient discharged home after pancreatic surgery. The nurse documents the nursing diagnosis Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements on the care plan based on the potential complications that may occur after surgery. What are the most likely complications for the patient who has had pancreatic surgery? A) Proteinuria and hyperkalemia B) Hemorrhage and hypercalcemia C) Weight loss and hypoglycemia D) Malabsorption and hyperglycemia

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse arrives at this diagnosis based on the complications of malabsorption and hyperglycemia. These complications often lead to the need for dietary modifications. Pancreatic enzyme replacement, a low-fat diet, and vitamin supplementation often are also required to meet the patient's nutritional needs and restrictions. Electrolyte imbalances often accompany pancreatic disorders and surgery, but the electrolyte levels are more often deficient than excessive. Hemorrhage is a complication related to surgery, but not specific to the nutritionally based nursing diagnosis. Weight loss is a common complication, but hypoglycemia is less likely.

17. A patient is being treated on the acute medical unit for acute pancreatitis. The nurse has identified a diagnosis of Ineffective Breathing Pattern Related to Pain. What intervention should the nurse perform in order to best address this diagnosis? A) Position the patient supine to facilitate diaphragm movement. B) Administer corticosteroids by nebulizer as ordered. C) Perform oral suctioning as needed to remove secretions. D) Maintain the patient in a semi-Fowler's position whenever possible.

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse maintains the patient in a semi-Fowler's position to decrease pressure on the diaphragm by a distended abdomen and to increase respiratory expansion. A supine position will result in increased pressure on the diaphragm and potentially decreased respiratory expansion. Steroids and oral suctioning are not indicated.

1. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with cholecystitis, and is experiencing localized abdominal pain. When assessing the characteristics of the patient's pain, the nurse should anticipate that it may radiate to what region? A) Left upper chest B) Inguinal region C) Neck or jaw D) Right shoulder

Ans: D Feedback: The patient may have biliary colic with excruciating upper right abdominal pain that radiates to the back or right shoulder. Pain from cholecystitis does not typically radiate to the left upper chest, inguinal area, neck, or jaw.

23. A patient has been experiencing disconcerting GI symptoms that have been worsening in severity. Following medical assessment, the patient has been diagnosed with lactose intolerance. The nurse should recognize an increased need for what form of health promotion? A) Annual screening colonoscopies B) Adherence to recommended immunization schedules C) Regular blood pressure monitoring D) Frequent screening for osteoporosis

Ans: D Feedback: Persons with lactose intolerance often experience hypocalcemia and a consequent risk of osteoporosis related to malabsorption of calcium. Lactose intolerance does not create an increased need for screening for colorectal cancer, immunizations, or blood pressure monitoring.

An older adult patient sought care for the treatment of a swollen, painful knee joint. Diagnostic imaging and culturing of synovial fluid resulted in a diagnosis of septic arthritis. The nurse should prioritize which of the following aspects of care? A) Administration of oral and IV corticosteroids as ordered B) Prevention of falls and pathologic fractures C) Maintenance of adequate serum levels of vitamin D D) Intravenous administration of antibiotics

Ans: D Feedback: IV antibiotics are the major treatment modality for septic arthritis; the nurse must ensure timely administration of these drugs. Corticosteroids are not used to treat septic arthritis and vitamin D levels are not necessarily affected. Falls prevention is important, but septic arthritis does not constitute the same fracture risk as diseases with decreased bone density.

A patient presents at the clinic with complaints of morning numbness, cramping, and stiffness in his fourth and fifth fingers. What disease process should the nurse suspect? A) Tendonitis B) A ganglion C) Carpal tunnel syndrome D) Dupuytren's disease

Ans: D Feedback: In cases of Dupuytren's disease, the patient may experience dull, aching discomfort, morning numbness, cramping, and stiffness in the affected fingers. This condition starts in one hand, but eventually both hands are affected. This clinical scenario does not describe tendonitis, a ganglion, or carpal tunnel syndrome.

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for osteomalacia. Which of the following laboratory results is most suggestive of this diagnosis? A) High chloride, calcium, and magnesium B) High parathyroid and calcitonin levels C) Low serum calcium and magnesium levels D) Low serum calcium and low phosphorus level

Ans: D Feedback: Laboratory studies will reveal a low serum calcium and low phosphorus level.

An orthopedic nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day one following foot surgery. What nursing intervention should be included in the patient's subsequent care? A) Dressing changes should not be performed unless there are clear signs of infection. B) The surgical site can be soaked in warm bath water for up to 5 minutes. C) The surgical site should be cleansed with hydrogen peroxide once daily. D) The foot should be elevated in order to prevent edema.

Ans: D Feedback: Pain experienced by patients who undergo foot surgery is related to inflammation and edema. To control the anticipated edema, the foot should be elevated on several pillows when the patient is sitting or lying. Regular dressing changes are performed and the wound should be kept dry. Hydrogen peroxide is not used to cleanse surgical wounds.

A nurse is reviewing the care of a patient who has a long history of lower back pain that has not responded to conservative treatment measures. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Calcitonin B) Prednisone C) Aspirin D) Cyclobenzaprine

Ans: D Feedback: Short-term prescription muscle relaxants (e.g., cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril]) are effective in relieving acute low back pain. ASA is not normally used for pain control, due to its antiplatelet action and associated risk for bleeding. Calcitonin and corticosteroids are not used in the treatment of lower back pain.

A nurse is providing a class on osteoporosis at the local seniors' center. Which of the following statements related to osteoporosis is most accurate? A) Osteoporosis is categorized as a disease of the elderly. B) A nonmodifiable risk factor for osteoporosis is a person's level of activity. C) Secondary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause. D) Slow discontinuation of corticosteroid therapy can halt the progression of the osteoporosis.

Ans: D Feedback: When corticosteroid therapy is discontinued, the progression of osteoporosis is halted, but restoration of lost bone mass does not occur. Osteoporosis is not a disease of the elderly because its onset occurs earlier in life, when bone mass peaks and then begins to decline. A person's level of physical activity is a modifiable factor that influences peak bone mass. Lack of activity increases the risk for the development of osteoporosis. Primary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a plaster arm cast applied. Immediately postapplication, the nurse should provide what teaching to the patient? A) The cast will feel cool to touch for the first 30 minutes. B) The cast should be wrapped snuggly with a towel until the patient gets home. C) The cast should be supported on a board while drying. D) The cast will only have full strength when dry.

Ans: D Feedback: A cast requires approximately 24 to 72 hours to dry, and until dry, it does not have full strength. While drying, the cast should not be placed on a hard surface. The cast will exude heat while it dries and should not be wrapped.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is recovering in the hospital following orthopedic surgery. The nurse is performing frequent assessments for signs and symptoms of infection in the knowledge that the patient faces a high risk of what infectious complication? A) Cellulitis B) Septic arthritis C) Sepsis D) Osteomyelitis

Ans: D Feedback: Infection is a risk after any surgery, but it is of particular concern for the postoperative orthopedic patient because of the risk of osteomyelitis. Orthopedic patients do not have an exaggerated risk of cellulitis, sepsis, or septic arthritis when compared to other surgical patients.

A patient is scheduled for a total hip replacement and the surgeon has explained the risks of blood loss associated with orthopedic surgery. The risk of blood loss is the indication for which of the following actions? A) Use of a cardiopulmonary bypass machine B) Postoperative blood salvage C) Prophylactic blood transfusion D) Autologous blood donation

Ans: D Feedback: Many patients donate their own blood during the weeks preceding their surgery. Autologous blood donations are cost effective and eliminate many of the risks of transfusion therapy. Orthopedic surgery does not necessitate cardiopulmonary bypass and blood is not salvaged postoperatively. Transfusions are not given prophylactically.

A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient who is going home with a cast on his leg. What teaching point should the nurse emphasize in the teaching session? A) Using crutches efficiently B) Exercising joints above and below the cast, as ordered C) Removing the cast correctly at the end of the treatment period D) Reporting signs of impaired circulation

Ans: D Feedback: Reporting signs of impaired circulation is critical; signs of impaired circulation must be reported to the physician immediately to prevent permanent damage. For this reason, this education is a priority over exercise and crutch use. The patient does not independently remove the cast.

A nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a patient who has had a leg cast recently applied. The nurse is unable to palpate the patient's dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulse and the patient's foot is pale. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Warm the patient's foot and determine whether circulation improves. B) Reposition the patient with the affected foot dependent. C) Reassess the patient's neurovascular status in 15 minutes. D) Promptly inform the primary care provider.

Ans: D Feedback: Signs of neurovascular dysfunction warrant immediate medical follow-up. It would be unsafe to delay. Warming the foot or repositioning the patient may be of some benefit, but the care provider should be informed first.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in skeletal traction. To prevent the complication of skin breakdown in a patient with skeletal traction, what action should be included in the plan of care? A) Apply occlusive dressings to the pin sites. B) Encourage the patient to push up with the elbows when repositioning. C) Encourage the patient to perform isometric exercises once a shift. D) Assess the pin insertion site every 8 hours.

Ans: D Feedback: The pin insertion site should be assessed every 8 hours for inflammation and infection. Loose cover dressings should be applied to pin sites. The patient should be encouraged to use the overhead trapeze to shift weight for repositioning. Isometric exercises should be done 10 times an hour while awake.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a total hip replacement. The nurse is reviewing health education prior to discharge. Which of the patient's statements would indicate to the nurse that the patient requires further teaching? A) "I'll need to keep several pillows between my legs at night." B) "I need to remember not to cross my legs. It's such a habit." C) "The occupational therapist is showing me how to use a 'sock puller' to help me get dressed." D) "I will need my husband to assist me in getting off the low toilet seat at home."

Ans: D Feedback: To prevent hip dislocation after a total hip replacement, the patient must avoid bending the hips beyond 90 degrees. Assistive devices, such as a raised toilet seat, should be used to prevent severe hip flexion. Using an abduction pillow or placing several pillows between the legs reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing adduction and internal rotation of the legs. Likewise, teaching the patient to avoid crossing the legs also reduces the risk of hip dislocation. A sock puller helps a patient get dressed without flexing the hips beyond 90 degrees.

A patient with a fractured femur is in balanced suspension traction. The patient needs to be repositioned toward the head of the bed. During repositioning, what should the nurse do? A) Place slight additional tension on the traction cords. B) Release the weights and replace them immediately after positioning. C) Reposition the bed instead of repositioning the patient. D) Maintain consistent traction tension while repositioning.

Ans: D Feedback: Traction is used to reduce the fracture and must be maintained at all times, including during repositioning. It would be inappropriate to add tension or release the weights. Moving the bed instead of the patient is not feasible.

A nurse is providing an educational class to a group of older adults at a community senior center. In an effort to prevent osteoporosis, the nurse should encourage participants to ensure that they consume the recommended adequate intake of what nutrients? Select all that apply. A) Vitamin B12 B) Potassium C) Calcitonin D) Calcium E) Vitamin D

Ans: D, E Feedback: A diet rich in calcium and vitamin D protects against skeletal demineralization. Intake of vitamin B12and potassium does not directly influence the risk for osteoporosis. Calcitonin is not considered to be a dietary nutrient.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is postoperative day 2 following gastric surgery. The nurse's assessment should be planned in light of the possibility of what potential complications? Select all that apply.

Atelectasis Pneumonia Metabolic imbalances

A nurse is caring for a morbidly obese client. What comfort measure is most important for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Designating "quiet time" so the client can rest b. Ensuring siderails are not causing excess pressure c. Providing oral care before and after meals and snacks d. Relaying any reports of pain to the registered nurse

B

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of advanced cirrhosis. What assessment should the nurse prioritize in this patient's plan of care? A) Measurement of abdominal girth and body weight B) Assessment for variceal bleeding C) Assessment for signs and symptoms of jaundice D) Monitoring of results of liver function testing

B

A nurse is caring for a patient with a blocked bile duct from a tumor. What manifestation of obstructive jaundice should the nurse anticipate? A) Watery, blood-streaked diarrhea B) Orange and foamy urine C) Increased abdominal girth D) Decreased cognition

B

A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis secondary to heavy alcohol use. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals subtle changes in the patient's cognition and behavior. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Ensure that the patient's sodium intake does not exceed recommended levels. B) Report this finding to the primary care provider due to the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy. C) Inform the primary care provider that the patient should be assessed for alcoholic hepatitis. D) Implement interventions aimed at ensuring a calm and therapeutic care environment.

B

A participant in a health fair has asked the nurse about the role of drugs in liver disease. What health promotion teaching has the most potential to prevent drug-induced hepatitis? A) Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptom resolution. B) Adhere to dosing recommendations of OTC analgesics. C) Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely. D) Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential interactions.

B

A patient who underwent gastric banding 3 days ago is having her diet progressed on a daily basis. Following her latest meal, the patient complains of dizziness and palpitations. Inspection reveals that the patient is diaphoretic. What is the nurse's best action?

Monitor the patient closely for further signs of dumping syndrome.

A patient with a diagnosis of esophageal varices has undergone endoscopy to gauge the progression of this complication of liver disease. Following the completion of this diagnostic test, what nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A) Keep patient NPO until the results of test are known. B) Keep patient NPO until the patient's gag reflex returns. C) Administer analgesia until post-procedure tenderness is relieved. D) Give the patient a cold beverage to promote swallowing ability.

B

A patient with a history of injection drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis C. When collaborating with the care team to plan this patient's treatment, the nurse should anticipate what intervention? A) Administration of immune globulins B) A regimen of antiviral medications C) Rest and watchful waiting D) Administration of fresh-frozen plasma (FFP)

B

A patient with cirrhosis has experienced a progressive decline in his health; and liver transplantation is being considered by the interdisciplinary team. How will the patient's prioritization for receiving a donor liver be determined? A) By considering the patient's age and prognosis B) By objectively determining the patient's medical need C) By objectively assessing the patient's willingness to adhere to post-transplantation care D) By systematically ruling out alternative treatment options

B

After bariatric surgery, a patient who is being discharged tells the nurse, "I prefer to be independent. I am not interested in any support groups." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "I hope you change your mind so that I can suggest a group for you." b. "Tell me what types of resources you think you might use after this surgery." c. "Support groups have been found to lead to more successful weight loss after surgery." d. "Because there are many lifestyle changes after surgery, we recommend support groups."

B

After the nurse teaches a patient about the recommended amounts of foods from animal and plant sources, which menu selections indicate that the initial instructions about diet have been understood? a. 3 oz of lean beef, 2 oz of low-fat cheese, and a tomato slice b. 3 oz of roasted pork, a cup of corn, and a cup of carrot sticks c. Cup of tossed salad and nonfat dressing topped with a chicken breast d. Half cup of tuna mixed with nonfat mayonnaise and a half cup of celery

B

Several nurses have just helped a morbidly obese client get out of bed. One nurse accesses the client's record because "I just have to know how much she weighs!" What action by the client's nurse is most appropriate? a. Make an anonymous report to the charge nurse. b. State "That is a violation of client confidentiality." c. Tell the nurse "Don't look; I'll tell you her weight." d. Walk away and ignore the other nurse's behavior.

B

Which adult will the nurse plan to teach about risks associated with obesity? a. Man who has a BMI of 18 kg/m2 b. Man with a 42 in waist and 44 in hips c. Woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 24 kg/m2 d. Woman with a waist circumference of 34 inches (86 cm)

B

Which assessment action will help the nurse determine if an obese patient has metabolic syndrome? a. Take the patient's apical pulse. b. Check the patient's blood pressure. c. Ask the patient about dietary intake. d. Dipstick the patient's urine for protein.

B

Which finding for a patient who has been taking orlistat (Xenical) is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient frequently has liquid stools. b. The patient is pale and has many bruises. c. The patient complains of bloating after meals. d. The patient is experiencing a weight loss plateau.

B

Which information will the nurse prioritize in planning preoperative teaching for a patient undergoing a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass? a. Educating the patient about the nasogastric (NG) tube b. Instructing the patient on coughing and breathing techniques c. Discussing necessary postoperative modifications in lifestyle d. Demonstrating passive range-of-motion exercises for the legs

B

Which nursing action is appropriate when coaching obese adults enrolled in a behavior modification program? a. Having the adults write down the caloric intake of each meal b. Asking the adults about situations that tend to increase appetite c. Suggesting that the adults plan rewards, such as sugarless candy, for achieving their goals d. Encouraging the adults to eat small amounts frequently rather than having scheduled meals

B

Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patient's knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage? A Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals B Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated C Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks D Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.

B Feedback: The patient with GERD is encouraged to elevate the head of the bed on 6 to 8inch (15 to 20cm) blocks. Frequent meals are not specifically encouraged and the patient should avoid food and fluid within 2 hours of bedtime. All carbonated beverages should be avoided.

The nurse is preparing to insert a patient's ordered NG tube. What factor should the nurse recognize as a risk for incorrect placement? A. The patient is obese and has a "short neck." B. The patient is agitated. C. The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D. The patient is being treated for pneumonia.

B Feedback: Inappropriate placement may occur in patients with decreased levels of consciousness, confused mental states, poor or absent cough and gag reflexes, or agitation during insertion. A "short neck," GERD, and pneumonia are not linked to incorrect placement.

A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? Pyloric sphincter Lower esophageal sphincter Hypopharyngeal sphincter Upper esophageal sphincter

B Feedback: The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.

A patient is postoperative day 1 following gastrostomy. The nurse is planning interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection Related to Presence of Wound and Tube. What intervention is most appropriate? A. Administer antibiotics via the tube as ordered. B. Wash the area around the tube with soap and water daily. C. Cleanse the skin within 2 cm of the insertion site with hydrogen peroxide once per shift. D. Irrigate the skin surrounding the insertion site with normal saline before each use.

B Feedback: Infection can be prevented by keeping the skin near the insertion site clean using soap and water. Hydrogen peroxide is not used, due to associated skin irritation. The skin around the site is not irrigated with normal saline and antibiotics are not administered to prevent site infection.

A nurse is aware of the high incidence of catheterrelated bloodstream infections in patients receiving parenteral nutrition. What nursing action has the greatest potential to reduce catheterrelated bloodstream infections? A. Use clean technique and wear a mask during dressing changes. B. Change the dressing no more than weekly. C. Apply antibiotic ointment around the site with each dressing change. D. Irrigate the insertion site with sterile water during each dressing change.

B Feedback: The CDC (2011) recommends changing CVAD dressings not more than every 7 days unless the dressing is damp, bloody, loose, or soiled. Sterile technique (not clean technique) is used. Irrigation and antibiotic ointments are not used.

A nurse is initiating parenteral nutrition (PN) to a postoperative patient who has developed complications. The nurse should initiate therapy by performing which of the following actions? A Starting with a rapid infusion rate to meet the patient's nutritional needs as quickly as possible B Initiating the infusion slowly and monitoring the patient's fluid and glucose tolerance C Changing the rate of administration every 2 hours based on serum electrolyte values D Increasing the rate of infusion at mealtimes to mimic the circadian rhythm of the body

B Feedback: PN solutions are initiated slowly and advanced gradually each day to the desired rate as the patient's fluid and glucose tolerance permits. The formulation of the PN solutions is calculated carefully each day to meet the complete nutritional needs of the individual patient based on clinical findings and laboratory data. It is not infused more quickly at mealtimes

A patient is concerned about leakage of gastric contents out of the gastric sump tube the nurse has just inserted. What would the nurse do to prevent reflux gastric contents from coming through the blue vent of a gastric sump tube? A. Prime the tubing with 20 mL of normal saline. B. Keep the vent lumen above the patient's waist. C. Maintain the patient in a high Fowler's position. D. Have the patient pin the tube to the thigh.

B Feedback: The blue vent lumen should be kept above the patient's waist to prevent reflux of gastric contents through it; otherwise it acts as a siphon. A oneway antireflux valve seated in the blue pigtail can prevent the reflux of gastric contents out the vent lumen. To prevent reflux, the nurse does not prime the tubing, maintain the patient in a high Fowler's position, or have the patient pin the tube to the thigh.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition. When writing this patient's plan of care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should be included? A. Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction Related to Catheter Placement B. Ineffective Role Performance Related to Parenteral Nutrition C. Bowel Incontinence Related to Parenteral Nutrition D. Chronic Pain Related to Catheter Placement

B Feedback: The limitations associated with PN can make it difficult for patients to maintain their usual roles. PN does not normally cause bowel incontinence and catheters are not associated with chronic pain or neurovascular dysfunction.

12. A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone neck resection with a radial forearm free flap. The nurse's most recent assessment of the graft reveals that it has a bluish color and that mottling is visible. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Document the findings as being consistent with a viable graft. B) Promptly report these indications of venous congestion. C) Closely monitor the patient and reassess in 30 minutes. D) Reposition the patient to promote peripheral circulation.

B Feedback: A graft that is blue with mottling may indicate venous congestion. This finding constitutes a risk for tissue ischemia and necrosis; prompt referral is necessary.

A patient has sustained a long bone fracture and the nurse is preparing the patient's care plan. Which of the following should the nurse include in the care plan? A) Administer vitamin D and calcium supplements as ordered. B) Monitor temperature and pulses of the affected extremity. C) Perform passive range of motion exercises as tolerated. D) Administer corticosteroids as ordered.

B) Monitor temperature and pulses of the affected extremity.

9. A patient has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the patient to describe what sign or symptom? A) Burning pain on swallowing B) Regurgitation of undigested food C) Symptoms mimicking a heart attack D) Chronic parotid abscesses

B Feedback: An esophageal diverticulum is an outpouching of mucosa and submucosa that protrudes through the esophageal musculature. Food becomes trapped in the pouch and is frequently regurgitated when the patient assumes a recumbent position. The patient may experience difficulty swallowing; however, burning pain is not a typical finding. Symptoms mimicking a heart attack are characteristic of GERD. Chronic parotid abscesses are not associated with a diagnosis of esophageal diverticulum.

35. A patient returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours the nurse would notify the physician immediately for what? A) Presence of small blood clots in the drainage B) 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage C) Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain D) 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage

B Feedback: Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours. Milky drainage is indicative of a chyle fistula, which requires prompt treatment.

7. The nurse's comprehensive assessment of a patient includes inspection for signs of oral cancer. What assessment finding is most characteristic of oral cancer in its early stages? A) Dull pain radiating to the ears and teeth B) Presence of a painless sore with raised edges C) Areas of tenderness that make chewing difficult D) Diffuse inflammation of the buccal mucosa

B Feedback: Malignant lesions of the oral cavity are most often painless lumps or sores with raised borders. Because they do not bother the patient, delay in seeking treatment occurs frequently, and negatively affects prognosis. Dull pain radiating to the ears and teeth is characteristic of malocclusion. Inflammation of the buccal mucosa causes discomfort and often occurs as a side effect of chemotherapy. Tenderness resulting in pain on chewing may be associated with gingivitis, abscess, irritation from dentures, and other causes. Pain related to oral cancer is a late symptom.

16. A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Lower esophageal sphincter C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter D) Upper esophageal sphincter

B Feedback: The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.

20. A nurse in an oral surgery practice is working with a patient scheduled for removal of an abscessed tooth. When providing discharge education, the nurse should recommend which of the following actions? A) Rinse the mouth with alcohol before bedtime for the next 7 days. B) Use warm saline to rinse the mouth as needed. C) Brush around the area with a firm toothbrush to prevent infection. D) Use a toothpick to dislodge any debris that gets lodged in the socket.

B Feedback: The patient should be assessed for bleeding after the tooth is extracted. The mouth can be rinsed with warm saline to keep the area clean. A firm toothbrush or toothpick could injure the tissues around the extracted area. Alcohol would injure tissues that are healing.

27. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a rigid fixation of a mandibular fracture. When planning the discharge teaching for this patient, what would the nurse be sure to include? A) Increasing calcium intake to promote bone healing B) Avoiding chewing food for the specified number of weeks after surgery C) Techniques for managing parenteral nutrition in the home setting D) Techniques for managing a gastrostomy

B Feedback: The patient who has had rigid fixation should be instructed not to chew food in the first 1 to 4 weeks after surgery. A liquid diet is recommended, and dietary counseling should be obtained to ensure optimal caloric and protein intake. Increased calcium intake will not have an appreciable effect on healing. Enteral and parenteral nutrition are rarely necessary.

38. Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patient's knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage? A) Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated C) Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks D) Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.

B Feedback: The patient with GERD is encouraged to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch (15- to 20-cm) blocks. Frequent meals are not specifically encouraged and the patient should avoid food and fluid within 2 hours of bedtime. All carbonated beverages should be avoided.

3. A patient who had a hemiglossectomy earlier in the day is assessed postoperatively, revealing a patent airway, stable vital signs, and no bleeding or drainage from the operative site. The nurse notes the patient is alert. What is the patient's priority need at this time? A) Emotional support from visitors and staff B) An effective means of communicating with the nurse C) Referral to a speech therapist D) Dietary teaching focused on consistency of food and frequency of feedings

B Feedback: Verbal communication may be impaired by radical surgery for oral cancer. It is therefore vital to assess the patient's ability to communicate in writing before surgery. Emotional support and dietary teaching are critical aspects of the plan of care; however, the patient's ability to communicate would be essential for both. Referral to a speech therapist will be required as part of the patient's rehabilitation; however, it is not a priority at this particular time. Communication with the nurse is crucial for the delivery of safe and effective care.

Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate healing in a patient who has suffered a hip fracture? A) Administer analgesics as required. B) Place a pillow between the patient's legs when turning. C) Maintain prone positioning at all times. D) Encourage internal and external rotation of the affected leg.

B) Place a pillow between the patient's legs when turning.

A patient's enteral feedings have been determined to be too concentrated based on the patient's development of dumping syndrome. What physiologic phenomenon caused this patient's complication of enteral feeding? A Increased gastric secretion of HCl and gastrin because of high osmolality of feeds B Entry of large amounts of water into the small intestine because of osmotic pressure C Mucosal irritation of the stomach and small intestine by the high concentration of the feed D Acid-base imbalance resulting from the high volume of solutes in the feed

B Feedback: When a concentrated solution of high osmolality entering the intestines is taken in quickly or in large amounts, water moves rapidly into the intestinal lumen from fluid surrounding the organs and the vascular compartment. This results in dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is not the result of changes in HCl or gastrin levels. It is not caused by an acid-base imbalance or direct irritation of the GI mucosa.

A nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place for gastric decompression. What risk nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate component of the care plan? A Risk for Excess Fluid Volume Related to Enteral Feedings B Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to the Presence of NG Tube C Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Related to Enteral Feedings D Risk for Impaired Verbal Communication Related to Presence of NG Tube

B Feedback: NG tubes can easily damage the delicate mucosa of the nose, sinuses, and upper airway. An NG tube does not preclude verbal communication. This patient's NG tube is in place for decompression, so complications of enteral feeding do not apply.

A patient's physician has determined that for the next 3 to 4 weeks the patient will require parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should anticipate the placement of what type of venous access device? A Peripheral catheter B Nontunneled central catheter C Implantable port D Tunneled central catheter

B Feedback: Nontunneled central catheters are used for shortterm (less than 6 weeks) IV therapy. A peripheral catheter can be used for the administration of peripheral parenteral nutrition for 5 to 7 days. Implantable ports and tunneled central catheters are for longterm use and may remain in place for many years. Peripherally inserted central catheters (PICCs) are another potential option.

A patient's NG tube has become clogged after the nurse instilled a medication that was insufficiently crushed. The nurse has attempted to aspirate with a largebore syringe, with no success. What should the nurse do next? A Withdraw the NG tube 3 to 5 cm and reattempt aspiration. B Attach a syringe filled with warm water and attempt an inandout motion of instilling and aspirating. C Withdraw the NG tube slightly and attempt to dislodge by flicking the tube with the fingers. D Remove the NG tube promptly and obtain an order for reinsertion from the primary care provider.

B Feedback: When a tube is first noted to be clogged, a 30 to 60mL syringe should be attached to the end of the tube and any contents aspirated and discarded. Then the syringe should be filled with warm water, attached to the tube again, and a backandforth motion initiated to help loosen the clog. Removal is not warranted at this early stage and a flicking motion is not recommended. The tube should not be withdrawn, even a few centimeters.

who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The patient's care plan should include nursing actions relevant to what potential complications? Select all that apply. A. Dumping syndrome B Clotted or displaced catheter C Pneumothorax D Hyperglycemia E Line sepsis

B C D E Feedback: Common complications of PN include a clotted or displaced catheter, pneumothorax, hyperglycemia, and infection from the venous access device (line sepsis). Dumping syndrome applies to enteral nutrition, not PN.

A nurse's assessment of a patient's knee reveals edema, tenderness, muscle spasms, and ecchymosis. The patient states that 2 days ago he ran 10 miles and now it "really hurts to stand up." The nurse should plan care based on the belief that the patient has experienced what? A) A first-degree strain B) A second-degree strain C) A first-degree sprain D) A second-degree sprain

B) A second-degree strain

A nurse in a busy emergency department provides care for many patients who present with contusions, strains, or sprains. Treatment modalities that are common to all of these musculoskeletal injuries include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Massage B) Applying ice C) Compression dressings D) Resting the affected extremity E) Corticosteroids F) Elevating the injured limb

B) Applying ice C) Compression dressings D) Resting the affected extremity F) Elevating the injured limb

An older adult patient has fallen in her home and is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a suspected fractured hip. X-rays confirm a fracture of the left femoral neck. When planning assessments during the patient's presurgical care, the nurse should be aware of the patient's heightened risk of what complication? A) Osteomyelitis B) Avascular necrosis C) Phantom pain D) Septicemia

B) Avascular necrosis

A nurse admits a patient who has a fracture of the nose that has resulted in a skin tear and involvement of the mucous membranes of the nasal passages. The orthopedic nurse is aware that this description likely indicates which type of fracture? A) Compression B) Compound C) Impacted D) Transverse

B) Compound

A patient with a simple arm fracture is receiving discharge education from the nurse. What would the nurse instruct the patient to do? A) Elevate the affected extremity to shoulder level when at rest. B) Engage in exercises that strengthen the unaffected muscles. C) Apply topical anesthetics to accessible skin surfaces as needed. D) Avoid using analgesics so that further damage is not masked.

B) Engage in exercises that strengthen the unaffected muscles.

The nurse is providing care for a patient who has had a below-the-knee amputation. The nurse enters the patient's room and finds him resting in bed with his residual limb supported on pillow. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Inform the surgeon of this finding. B) Explain the risks of flexion contracture to the patient. C) Transfer the patient to a sitting position. D) Encourage the patient to perform active ROM exercises with the residual limb.

B) Explain the risks of flexion contracture to the patient.

The orthopedic nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of Volkmann's contracture if a patient has fractured which of the following bones? A) Femur B) Humerus C) Radial head D) Clavicle

B) Humerus

A nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered an unstable thoracolumbar fracture. Which of the following is the priority during nursing care? A) Preventing infection B) Maintaining spinal alignment C) Maximizing function D) Preventing increased intracranial pressure

B) Maintaining spinal alignment

An elite high school football player has been diagnosed with a shoulder dislocation. The patient has been treated and is eager to resume his role on his team, stating that he is not experiencing pain. What should the nurse emphasize during health education? A) The need to take analgesia regardless of the short-term absence of pain B) The importance of adhering to the prescribed treatment and rehabilitation regimen C) The fact that he has a permanently increased risk of future shoulder dislocations D) The importance of monitoring for intracapsular bleeding once he resumes playing

B) The importance of adhering to the prescribed treatment and rehabilitation regimen

A 61-year-old man is being admitted for bariatric surgery. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Demonstrate use of the incentive spirometer. b. Plan methods for bathing and turning the patient. c. Assist with IV insertion by holding adipose tissue out of the way. d. Develop strategies to provide privacy and decrease embarrassment.

C

A client just returned to the surgical unit after a gastric bypass. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Assess the client's pain. b. Check the surgical incision. c. Ensure an adequate airway. d. Program the morphine pump

C

A client tells the nurse about losing weight and regaining it multiple times. Besides eating and exercising habits, for what additional data should the nurse assess as the priority? a. Economic ability to join a gym b. Food allergies and intolerances c. Psychosocial influences on weight d. Reasons for wanting to lose weight

C

A few months after bariatric surgery, a 56-year-old man tells the nurse, "My skin is hanging in folds. I think I need cosmetic surgery." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The important thing is that you are improving your health." b. "The skinfolds will disappear once most of the weight is lost." c. "Cosmetic surgery is a possibility once your weight has stabilized." d. "Perhaps you would like to talk to a counselor about your body image."

C

A nurse attempted to assist a morbidly obese client back to bed and had immediate pain in the lower back. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Ask another nurse to help next time. b. Demand better equipment to use. c. Fill out and file a variance report. d. Refuse to assist the client again

C

A nurse has entered the room of a patient with cirrhosis and found the patient on the floor. The patient states that she fell when transferring to the commode. The patient's vital signs are within reference ranges and the nurse observes no apparent injuries. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Remove the patient's commode and supply a bedpan. B) Complete an incident report and submit it to the unit supervisor. C) Have the patient assessed by the physician due to the risk of internal bleeding. D) Perform a focused abdominal assessment in order to rule out injury.

C

A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient exhibits episodes of confusion, is difficult to arouse from sleep and has rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, the nurse should document what stage of hepatic encephalopathy? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

C

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe hemolytic jaundice. Laboratory tests show free bilirubin to be 24 mg/dL. For what complication is this patient at risk? A) Chronic jaundice B) Pigment stones in portal circulation C) Central nervous system damage D) Hepatomegaly

C

A patient who has undergone liver transplantation is ready to be discharged home. Which outcome of health education should the nurse prioritize? A) The patient will obtain measurement of drainage from the T-tube. B) The patient will exercise three times a week. C) The patient will take immunosuppressive agents as required. D) The patient will monitor for signs of liver dysfunction.

C

A patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has developed variceal bleeding and will imminently undergo variceal banding. What psychosocial nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely prioritize during this phase of the patient's treatment? A) Decisional Conflict B) Deficient Knowledge C) Death Anxiety D) Disturbed Thought Processes

C

A patient with liver disease has developed jaundice; the nurse is collaborating with the patient to develop a nutritional plan. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the patient's plan? A) Increased potassium intake B) Fluid restriction to 2 L per day C) Reduction in sodium intake D) High-protein, low-fat diet

C

A patient with portal hypertension has been admitted to the medical floor. The nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments related to the manifestations of this health problem? A) Assessment of blood pressure and assessment for headaches and visual changes B) Assessments for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism C) Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement D) Blood glucose monitoring q4h

C

A previously healthy adult's sudden and precipitous decline in health has been attributed to fulminant hepatic failure, and the patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse should be aware that the treatment of choice for this patient is what? A) IV administration of immune globulins B) Transfusion of packed red blood cells and fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) C) Liver transplantation D) Lobectomy

C

After successfully losing 1 lb weekly for several months, a patient at the clinic has not lost any weight for the last month. The nurse should first a. review the diet and exercise guidelines with the patient. b. instruct the patient to weigh and record weights weekly. c. ask the patient whether there have been any changes in exercise or diet patterns. d. discuss the possibility that the patient has reached a temporary weight loss plateau.

C

Diagnostic testing has revealed that a patient's hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is limited to one lobe. The nurse should anticipate that this patient's plan of care will focus on what intervention? A) Cryosurgery B) Liver transplantation C) Lobectomy D) Laser hyperthermia

C

The nurse is caring for a 54-year-old female patient on the first postoperative day after a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass procedure. Which assessment finding should be reported immediately to the surgeon? a. Bilateral crackles audible at both lung bases b. Redness, irritation, and skin breakdown in skinfolds c. Emesis of bile-colored fluid past the nasogastric (NG) tube d. Use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) several times an hour for pain

C

To evaluate an obese patient for adverse effects of lorcaserin (Belviq), which action will the nurse take? a. Take the apical pulse rate. b. Check sclera for jaundice. c. Ask about bowel movements. d. Assess for agitation or restlessness.

C

What information will the nurse include for an overweight 35-year-old woman who is starting a weight-loss plan? a. Weigh yourself at the same time every morning and evening. b. Stick to a 600- to 800-calorie diet for the most rapid weight loss. c. Low carbohydrate diets lead to rapid weight loss but are difficult to maintain. d. Weighing all foods on a scale is necessary to choose appropriate portion sizes.

C

Which statement by the nurse is most likely to help a morbidly obese 22-year-old man in losing weight on a 1000-calorie diet? a. "It will be necessary to change lifestyle habits permanently to maintain weight loss." b. "You will decrease your risk for future health problems such as diabetes by losing weight now." c. "You are likely to notice changes in how you feel with just a few weeks of diet and exercise." d. "Most of the weight that you lose during the first weeks of dieting is water weight rather than fat."

C

A patient who suffered a stroke had an NG tube inserted to facilitate feeding shortly after admission. The patient has since become comatose and the patient's family asks the nurse why the physician is recommending the removal of the patient's NG tube and the insertion of a gastrostomy tube. What is the nurse's best response? A. It eliminates the risk for infection. B. Feeds can be infused at a faster rate. C. Regurgitation and aspiration are less likely. D. It allows caregivers to provide personal hygiene more easily.

C Feedback: Gastrostomy is preferred over NG feedings in the patient who is comatose because the gastroesophageal sphincter remains intact, making regurgitation and aspiration less likely than with NG feedings. Both tubes carry a risk for infection; this change in care is not motivated by the possibility of faster infusion or easier personal care.

You are caring for a patient who was admitted to have a lowprofile gastrostomy device (LPGD) placed. How soon after the original gastrostomy tube placement can an LPGD be placed? A 2 weeks B 4 to 6 weeks C 2 to 3 months D 4 to 6 months

C Feedback: An alternative to the PEG device is a lowprofile gastrostomy device (LPGD). LPGDs may be inserted 2 to 3 months after initial gastrostomy tube placement

A patient is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a fractured femur after a motorcycle accident. The patient has been placed in traction until his femur can be rodded in surgery. For what early complications should the nurse monitor this patient? Select all that apply. A) Systemic infection B) Complex regional pain syndrome C) Deep vein thrombosis D) Compartment syndrome E) Fat embolism

C) Deep vein thrombosis D) Compartment syndrome E) Fat embolism

A nurse is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of latestage Alzheimer's disease. The patient has just returned to the medical unit to begin supplemental feedings through an NG tube. Which of the nurse's assessments addresses this patient's most significant potential complication of feeding? A Frequent assessment of the patient's abdominal girth B Assessment for hemorrhage from the nasal insertion site C Frequent lung auscultation D Vigilant monitoring of the frequency and character of bowel movements

C Feedback: Aspiration is a risk associated with tube feeding; this risk may be exacerbated by the patient's cognitive deficits. Consequently, the nurse should auscultate the patient's lungs and monitor oxygen saturation closely. Bowel function is important, but the risk for aspiration is a priority. Hemorrhage is highly unlikely and the patient's abdominal girth is not a main focus of assessment.

The management of the patient's gastrostomy is an assessment priority for the home care nurse. What statement would indicate that the patient is managing the tube correctly? A "I clean my stoma twice a day with alcohol." B "The only time I flush my tube is when I'm putting in medications." C "I flush my tube with water before and after each of my medications." D "I try to stay still most of the time to avoid dislodging my tube."

C Feedback: Frequent flushing is needed to prevent occlusion, and should not just be limited to times of medication administration. Alcohol will irritate skin surrounding the insertion site and activity should be maintained as much as possible.

Prior to a patient's scheduled jejunostomy, the nurse is performing the preoperative assessment. What goal should the nurse prioritize during the preoperative assessment? A. Determining the patient's nutritional needs B. Determining that the patient fully understands the postoperative care required C. Determining the patient's ability to understand and cooperate with the procedure D. Determining the patient's ability to cope with an altered body image

C Feedback: The major focus of the preoperative assessment is to determine the patient's ability both to understand and cooperate with the procedure. Body image, nutritional needs, and postoperative care are all important variables, but they are not the main focuses of assessment during the immediate preoperative period.

A patient receiving tube feedings is experiencing diarrhea. The nurse and the physician suspect that the patient is experiencing dumping syndrome. What intervention is most appropriate? A Stop the tube feed and aspirate stomach contents. B Increase the hourly feed rate so it finishes earlier. C Dilute the concentration of the feeding solution. D Administer fluid replacement by IV.

C Feedback: Dumping syndrome can generally be alleviated by starting with a dilute solution and then increasing the concentration of the solution over several days. Fluid replacement may be necessary but does not prevent or treat dumping syndrome. There is no need to aspirate stomach contents. Increasing the rate will exacerbate the problem.

A nurse is providing health promotion education to a patient diagnosed with an esophageal reflux disorder. What practice should the nurse encourage the patient to implement? A Keep the head of the bed lowered. B Drink a cup of hot tea before bedtime. C Avoid carbonated drinks. D Eat a low protein diet.

C Feedback: For a patient diagnosed with esophageal reflux disorder, the nurse should instruct the patient to keep the head of the bed elevated. Carbonated drinks, caffeine, and tobacco should be avoided. Protein limitation is not necessary.

A nursing educator is reviewing the care of patients with feeding tubes and endotracheal tubes (ET). The educator has emphasized the need to check for tube placement in the stomach as well as residual volume. What is the main purpose of this nursing action? A Prevent gastric ulcers B Prevent aspiration C Prevent abdominal distention D Prevent diarrhea

C Feedback: Protecting the client from aspirating is essential because aspiration can cause pneumonia, a potentially lifethreatening disorder. Gastric ulcers are not a common complication of tube feeding in clients with ET tubes. Abdominal distention and diarrhea can both be associated with tube feeding, but prevention of these problems is not the primary rationale for confirming placement.

A nurse is participating in a patient's care conference and the team is deciding between parenteral nutrition (PN) and a total nutritional admixture (TNA). What advantages are associated with providing TNA rather than PN? A TNA can be mixed by a certified registered nurse. B TNA can be administered over 8 hours, while PN requires 24hour administration. C TNA is less costly than PN. D TNA does not require the use of a micron filter.

C Feedback: TNA is mixed in one container and administered to the patient over a 24hour period. A 1.5micron filter is used with the TNA solution. Advantages of the TNA over PN include cost savings. Pharmacy staff must prepare both solutions.

The nurse is assessing placement of a nasogastric tube that the patient has had in place for 2 days. The tube is draining green aspirate. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Inform the physician that the tube may be in the patient's pleural space. B. Withdraw the tube 2 to 4 cm. C. Leave the tube in its present position. D Advance the tube up to 8 cm.

C Feedback: The patient's aspirate is from the gastric area when the nurse observes that the color of the aspirate is green. Further confirmation of placement is necessary, but there is likely no need for repositioning. Pleural secretions are pale yellow.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative from having a gastrostomy tube placed. What should the nurse do on a daily basis to prevent skin breakdown? A. Verify tube placement. B. Loop adhesive tape around the tube and connect it securely to the abdomen. C. Gently rotate the tube. D. Change the wettodry dressing.

C Feedback: The nurse verifies the tube's placement and gently rotates the tube once daily to prevent skin breakdown. Verifying tube placement and taping the tube to the abdomen do not prevent skin breakdown. A gastrostomy wound does not have a wettodry dressing.

A patient has presented to the emergency department with an injury to the wrist. The patient is diagnosed with a third-degree strain. Why would the physician order an x-ray of the wrist? A) Nerve damage is associated with third-degree strains. B) Compartment syndrome is associated with third-degree strains. C) Avulsion fractures are associated with third-degree strains. D) Greenstick fractures are associated with third-degree strains.

C) Avulsion fractures are associated with third-degree strains.

A school nurse is assessing a student who was kicked in the shin during a soccer game. The area of the injury has become swollen and discolored. The triage nurse recognizes that the patient has likely sustained what? A) Sprain B) Strain C) Contusion D) Dislocation

C) Contusion

31. A patient who underwent surgery for esophageal cancer is admitted to the critical care unit following postanesthetic recovery. Which of the following should be included in the patient's immediate postoperative plan of care? A) Teaching the patient to self-suction B) Performing chest physiotherapy to promote oxygenation C) Positioning the patient to prevent gastric reflux D) Providing a regular diet as tolerated

C Feedback: After recovering from the effects of anesthesia, the patient is placed in a low Fowler's position, and later in a Fowler's position, to help prevent reflux of gastric secretions. The patient is observed carefully for regurgitation and dyspnea because a common postoperative complication is aspiration pneumonia. In this period of recovery, self-suctioning is also not likely realistic or safe. Chest physiotherapy is contraindicated because of the risk of aspiration. Nutrition is prioritized, but a regular diet is contraindicated in the immediate recovery from esophageal surgery.

22. A patient has undergone surgery for oral cancer and has just been extubated in postanesthetic recovery. What nursing action best promotes comfort and facilitates spontaneous breathing for this patient? A) Placing the patient in a left lateral position B) Administering opioids as ordered C) Placing the patient in Fowler's position D) Teaching the patient to use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system

C Feedback: After the endotracheal tube or airway has been removed and the effects of the anesthesia have worn off, the patient may be placed in Fowler's position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. Lateral positioning does not facilitate oxygenation or comfort. Medications do not facilitate spontaneous breathing.

28. A community health nurse serves a diverse population. What individual would likely face the highest risk for parotitis? A) A patient who is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy in the home setting B) A patient who has a chronic venous ulcer C) An older adult whose medication regimen includes an anticholinergic D) A patient with poorly controlled diabetes who receives weekly wound care

C Feedback: Elderly, acutely ill, or debilitated people with decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for parotitis. Anticholinergic medications inhibit saliva production. Antibiotics, diabetes, and wounds are not risk factors for parotitis.

15. A nurse is providing health promotion education to a patient diagnosed with an esophageal reflux disorder. What practice should the nurse encourage the patient to implement? A) Keep the head of the bed lowered. B) Drinka cup of hot tea before bedtime. C) Avoid carbonated drinks. D) Eat a low-protein diet.

C Feedback: For a patient diagnosed with esophageal reflux disorder, the nurse should instruct the patient to keep the head of the bed elevated. Carbonated drinks, caffeine, and tobacco should be avoided. Protein limitation is not necessary.

13. A nurse is assessing a patient who has just been admitted to the postsurgical unit following surgical resection for the treatment of oropharyngeal cancer. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Assess ability to clear oral secretions. B) Assess for signs of infection. C) Assess for a patent airway. D) Assess for ability to communicate.

C Feedback: Postoperatively, the nurse assesses for a patent airway. The patient's ability to manage secretions has a direct bearing on airway patency. However, airway patency is the overarching goal. This immediate physiologic need is prioritized over communication, though this is an important consideration. Infection is not normally a threat in the immediate postoperative period.

34. A patient with cancer of the tongue has had a radical neck dissection. What nursing assessment would be a priority for this patient? A) Presence of acute pain and anxiety B) Tissue integrity and color of the operative site C) Respiratory status and airway clearance D) Self-esteem and body image

C Feedback: Postoperatively, the patient is assessed for complications such as altered respiratory status, wound infection, and hemorrhage. The other assessments are part of the plan of care for a patient who has had a radical neck dissection, but are not the nurse's chief priority.

17. A patient who has had a radical neck dissection is being prepared for discharge. The discharge plan includes referral to an outpatient rehabilitation center for physical therapy. What would the goals of physical therapy for this patient include? A) Muscle training to relieve dysphagia B) Relieving nerve paralysis in the cervical plexus C) Promoting maximum shoulder function D) Alleviating achalasia by decreasing esophageal peristalsis

C Feedback: Shoulder drop occurs as a result of radical neck dissection. Shoulder function can be improved by rehabilitation exercises. Rehabilitation would not be initiated until the patient's neck incision and graft, if present, were sufficiently healed. Nerve paralysis in the cervical plexus and other variables affecting swallowing would be managed by a speech therapist rather than a physical therapist.

24. A patient has undergone rigid fixation for the correction of a mandibular fracture suffered in a fight. What area of care should the nurse prioritize when planning this patient's discharge education? A) Resumption of activities of daily living B) Pain control C) Promotion of adequate nutrition D) Strategies for promoting communication

C Feedback: The patient who has had rigid fixation should be instructed not to chew food in the first 1 to 4 weeks after surgery. A liquid diet is recommended, and dietary counseling should be obtained to ensure optimal caloric and protein intake. The nature of this surgery threatens the patient's nutritional status; this physiologic need would likely supersede the resumption of ADLs. Pain should be under control prior to discharge and communication is not precluded by this surgery.

18. A nurse is addressing the prevention of esophageal cancer in response to a question posed by a participant in a health promotion workshop. What action has the greatest potential to prevent esophageal cancer? A) Promotion of a nutrient-dense, low-fat diet B) Annual screening endoscopy for patients over 50 with a family history of esophageal cancer C) Early diagnosis and treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease D) Adequate fluid intake and avoidance of spicy foods

C Feedback: There are numerous risk factors for esophageal cancer but chronic esophageal irritation or GERD is among the most significant. This is a more significant risk factor than dietary habits. Screening endoscopies are not recommended solely on the basis of family history.

A young patient is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the patient is uncharacteristically confused. What diagnostic test should be performed on this patient? A) Electrolyte assessment B) Electrocardiogram C) Arterial blood gases D) Abdominal ultrasound

C) Arterial blood gases

A nurse is planning the care of a patient with osteomyelitis that resulted from a diabetic foot ulcer. The patient requires a transmetatarsal amputation. When planning the patient's postoperative care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse most likely include in the plan of care? A) Ineffective Thermoregulation B) Risk-Prone Health Behavior C) Disturbed Body Image D) Deficient Diversion Activity

C) Disturbed Body Image

A patient is being treated for a fractured hip and the nurse is aware of the need to implement interventions to prevent muscle wasting and other complications of immobility. What intervention best addresses the patient's need for exercise? A) Performing gentle leg lifts with both legs B) Performing massage to stimulate circulation C) Encouraging frequent use of the overbed trapeze D) Encouraging the patient to log roll side to side once per hour

C) Encouraging frequent use of the overbed trapeze

A nurse is performing a shift assessment on an elderly patient who is recovering after surgery for a hip fracture. The nurse notes that the patient is complaining of chest pain, has an increased heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. The nurse further notes that the patient is febrile and hypoxic, coughing, and producing large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse recognizes that this is a medical emergency and calls for assistance, recognizing that this patient is likely demonstrating symptoms of what complication? A) Avascular necrosis of bone B) Compartment syndrome C) Fat embolism syndrome D) Complex regional pain syndrome

C) Fat embolism syndrome

A 20 year-old is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. The patient has an open fracture of his tibia. The wound is highly contaminated and there is extensive soft-tissue damage. How would this patient's fracture likely be graded? A) Grade I B) Grade II C) Grade III D) Grade IV

C) Grade III

A nurse is participating in the emergency care of a patient who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the nurse anticipate? A) Infusion of intravenous heparin B) IV administration of albumin C) STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route D) IV administration of octreotide (Sandostatin)

D

A client asks the nurse about drugs for weight loss. What response by the nurse is best? a. "All weight-loss drugs can cause suicidal ideation." b. "No drugs are currently available for weight loss." c. "Only over-the-counter medications are available." d. "There are three drugs currently approved for this."

D

A local public health nurse is informed that a cook in a local restaurant has been diagnosed with hepatitis A. What should the nurse advise individuals to obtain who ate at this restaurant and have never received the hepatitis A vaccine? A) The hepatitis A vaccine B) Albumin infusion C) The hepatitis A and B vaccines D) An immune globulin injection

D

A nurse is amending a patient's plan of care in light of the fact that the patient has recently developed ascites. What should the nurse include in this patient's care plan? A) Mobilization with assistance at least 4 times daily B) Administration of beta-adrenergic blockers as ordered C) Vitamin B12 injections as ordered D) Administration of diuretics as ordered

D

A nurse is caring for a patient with liver failure and is performing an assessment in the knowledge of the patient's increased risk of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this risk is related to the patient's inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function? A) Alterations in glucose metabolism B) Retention of bile salts C) Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes D) Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

D

A nurse is performing an admission assessment for an 81-year-old patient who generally enjoys good health. When considering normal, age-related changes to hepatic function, the nurse should anticipate what finding? A) Similar liver size and texture as in younger adults B) A nonpalpable liver C) A slightly enlarged liver with palpably hard edges D) A slightly decreased size of the liver

D

A patient with esophageal varices is being cared for in the ICU. The varices have begun to bleed and the patient is at risk for hypovolemia. The patient has Ringer's lactate at 150 cc/hr infusing. What else might the nurse expect to have ordered to maintain volume for this patient? A) Arterial line B) Diuretics C) Foley catheter D) Volume expanders

D

A patient with liver cancer is being discharged home with a biliary drainage system in place. The nurse should teach the patient's family how to safely perform which of the following actions? A) Aspirating bile from the catheter using a syringe B) Removing the catheter when output is £ 15 mL in 24 hours C) Instilling antibiotics into the catheter D) Assessing the patency of the drainage catheter

D

A patient with liver cancer is being discharged home with a hepatic artery catheter in place. The nurse should be aware that this catheter will facilitate which of the following? A) Continuous monitoring for portal hypertension B) Administration of immunosuppressive drugs during the first weeks after transplantation C) Real-time monitoring of vascular changes in the hepatic system D) Delivery of a continuous chemotherapeutic dose

D

After vertical banded gastroplasty, a 42-year-old male patient returns to the surgical nursing unit with a nasogastric tube to low, intermittent suction and a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) machine for pain control. Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care? a. Offer sips of fruit juices at frequent intervals. b. Irrigate the nasogastric (NG) tube frequently. c. Remind the patient that PCA use may slow the return of bowel function. d. Support the surgical incision during patient coughing and turning in bed.

D

A nurse is preparing to administer a patient's scheduled parenteral nutrition (PN). Upon inspecting the bag, the nurse notices that the presence of small amounts of white precipitate are present in the bag. What is the nurse's best action? A. Recognize this as an expected finding. B. Place the bag in a warm environment for 30 minutes. C. Shake the bag vigorously for 10 to 20 seconds. D. Contact the pharmacy to obtain a new bag of PN.

D Feedback: Before PN infusion is administered, the solution must be inspected for separation, oily appearance (also known as a "cracked solution"), or any precipitate (which appears as white crystals). If any of these are present, it is not used. Warming or shaking the bag is inappropriate and unsafe.

A patient with dysphagia is scheduled for PEG tube insertion and asks the nurse how the tube will stay in place. What is the nurse's best response? A. Adhesive holds a flange in place against the abdominal skin. B. A stitch holds the tube in place externally. C. The tube is stitched to the abdominal skin externally and the stomach wall internally. D. An internal retention disc secures the tube against the stomach wall.

D Feedback: A PEG tube is held in place by an internal retention disc (flange) that holds it against the stomach wall. It is not held in place by stitches or adhesives.

A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after telling a family member that he deliberately took an overdose of NSAIDs a few minutes earlier. If lavage is ordered, the nurse should prepare to assist with the insertion of what type of tube? A Nasogastric tube B Levin tube C Gastric sump D Orogastric tube

D Feedback: An orogastric tube is a largebore tube inserted through the mouth with a wide outlet for removal of gastric contents; it is used primarily in the emergency department or an intensive care setting. Nasogastric, Levin, and gastric sump tubes are not used for this specific purpose.

A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education? A "Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief." B "It's best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because they're harder to swallow." C "Many patients obtain relief by taking overthecounter antacids 30 minutes before eating." D "Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often."

D Feedback: Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube for feeding. During shift assessment, the nurse auscultates a new onset of bilateral lung crackles and notes a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. The patient's oxygen saturation is 89% by pulse oximetry. After ensuring the patient's immediate safety, what is the nurse's most appropriate action? A Perform chest physiotherapy. B Reduce the height of the patient's bed and remove the NG tube. C Liaise with the dietitian to obtain a feeding solution with lower osmolarity. D Report possible signs of aspiration pneumonia to the primary care provider.

D Feedback: The patient should be assessed for further signs of aspiration pneumonia. It is unnecessary to remove the NG tube and chest physiotherapy is not indicated. A different feeding solution will not resolve this complication.

A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient with a nasogastric tube. How should the nurse direct other members of the care team to check correct placement of the tube? A Auscultate the patient's abdomen after injecting air through the tube. B Assess the color and pH of aspirate. C Locate the marking made after the initial x-ray confirming placement. D Use a combination of at least two accepted methods for confirming placement.

D Feedback: There are a variety of methods to check tube placement. The safest way to confirm placement is to utilize a combination of assessment methods.

1. A nurse is providing oral care to a patient who is comatose. What action best addresses the patient's risk of tooth decay and plaque accumulation? A) Irrigating the mouth using a syringe filled with a bacteriocidal mouthwash B) Applying a water-soluble gel to the teeth and gums C) Wiping the teeth and gums clean with a gauze pad D) Brushing the patient's teeth with a toothbrush and small amount of toothpaste

D Feedback: Application of mechanical friction is the most effective way to cleanse the patient's mouth. If the patient is unable to brush teeth, the nurse may brush them, taking precautions to prevent aspiration; or as a substitute, the nurse can achieve mechanical friction by wiping the teeth with a gauze pad. Bacteriocidal mouthwash does reduce plaque-causing bacteria; however, it is not as effective as application of mechanical friction. Water-soluble gel may be applied to lubricate dry lips, but it is not part of oral care.

23. A nurse is performing health education with a patient who has a history of frequent, serious dental caries. When planning educational interventions, the nurse should identify a risk for what nursing diagnosis? A) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion B) Impaired Skin Integrity C) Aspiration D) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements

D Feedback: Because digestion normally begins in the mouth, adequate nutrition is related to good dental health and the general condition of the mouth. Any discomfort or adverse condition in the oral cavity can affect a person's nutritional status. Dental caries do not typically affect the patient's tissue perfusion or skin integrity. Aspiration is not a likely consequence of dental caries.

21. A patient has been diagnosed with a malignancy of the oral cavity and is undergoing oncologic treatment. The oncologic nurse is aware that the prognosis for recovery from head and neck cancers is often poor because of what characteristic of these malignancies? A) Radiation therapy often results in secondary brain tumors. B) Surgical complications are exceedingly common. C) Diagnosis rarely occurs until the cancer is endstage. D) Metastases are common and respond poorly to treatment.

D Feedback: Deaths from malignancies of the head and neck are primarily attributable to local-regional metastasis to the cervical lymph nodes in the neck. This often occurs by way of the lymphatics before the primary lesion has been treated. This local-regional metastasis is not amenable to surgical resection and responds poorly to chemotherapy and radiation therapy. This high mortality rate is not related to surgical complications, late diagnosis, or the development of brain tumors.

19. An emergency department nurse is admitting a 3-year-old brought in after swallowing a piece from a wooden puzzle. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication in order to relax the esophagus to facilitate removal of the foreign body? A) Haloperidol B) Prostigmine C) Epinephrine D) Glucagon

D Feedback: Glucagon is administered prior to removal of a foreign body because it relaxes the smooth muscle of the esophagus, facilitating insertion of the endoscope. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug and is not indicated. Prostigmine is prescribed for patients with myastheniagravis. It increases muscular contraction, an effect opposite that which is desired to facilitate removal of the foreign body. Epinephrine is indicated in asthma attack and bronchospasm.

29. A nurse is providing care for a patient whose neck dissection surgery involved the use of a graft. When assessing the graft, the nurse should prioritize data related to what nursing diagnosis? A) Risk for Disuse Syndrome B) Unilateral Neglect C) Risk for Trauma D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

D Feedback: Grafted skin is highly vulnerable to inadequate perfusion and subsequent ischemia and necrosis. This is a priority over chronic pain, which is unlikely to be a long-term challenge. Neglect and disuse are not risks related to the graft site.

25. A radial graft is planned in the treatment of a patient's oropharyngeal cancer. In order to ensure that the surgery will be successful, the care team must perform what assessment prior to surgery? A) Assessing function of cranial nerves V, VI, and IX B) Assessing for a history of GERD C) Assessing for signs or symptoms of atherosclerosis D) Assessing the patency of the ulnar artery

D Feedback: If a radial graft is to be performed, an Allen test on the donor arm must be performed to ensure that the ulnar artery is patent and can provide blood flow to the hand after removal of the radial artery. The success of this surgery is not primarily dependent on CN function or the absence of GERD and atherosclerosis.

A patient with gastritis required hospital treatment for an exacerbation of symptoms and receives a subsequent diagnosis of pernicious anemia due to malabsorption. When planning the patient's continuing care in the home setting, what assessment question is most relevant?

Does anyone in your family have experience at giving injections?

26. A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day 1 following neck dissection surgery. The nurse is performing an assessment of the patient and notes the presence of high-pitched adventitious sounds over the patient's trachea on auscultation. The patient's oxygen saturation is 90% by pulse oximetry with a respiratory rate of 31 breaths per minute. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Encourage the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises hourly. B) Reposition the patient into a prone or semi-Fowler's position and apply supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula. C) Activate the emergency response system. D) Report this finding promptly to the physician and remain with the patient.

D Feedback: In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses for stridor (coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration) by listening frequently over the trachea with a stethoscope. This finding must be reported immediately because it indicates obstruction of the airway. The patient's current status does not warrant activation of the emergency response system, and encouraging deep breathing and repositioning the patient are inadequate responses.

40. A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education? A) "Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief." B) "It's best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because they're harder to swallow." C) "Many patients obtain relief by taking over-the-counter antacids 30 minutes before eating." D) "Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often."

D Feedback: Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.

10. A nurse is caring for a patient who is acutely ill and has included vigilant oral care in the patient's plan of care. Why are patients who are ill at increased risk for developing dental caries? A) Hormonal changes brought on by the stress response cause an acidic oral environment B) Systemic infections frequently migrate to the teeth C) Hydration that is received intravenously lacks fluoride D) Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can cause cavities

D Feedback: Many ill patients do not eat adequate amounts of food and therefore produce less saliva, which in turn reduces the natural cleaning of the teeth. Stress response is not a factor, infections generally do not attack the enamel of the teeth, and the fluoride level of the patient is not significant in the development of dental caries in the ill patient.

A nurse has obtained an order to remove a patient's NG tube and has prepared the patient accordingly. After flushing the tube and removing the nasal tape, the nurse attempts removal but is met with resistance. Because the nurse is unable to overcome this resistance, what is the most appropriate action? A Gently twist the tube before pulling. B. Instill a digestive enzyme solution and reattempt removal in 10 to 15 minutes. C. Flush the tube with hot tap water and reattempt removal. D Report this finding to the patient's primary care provider.

D Feedback: If the tube does not come out easily, force should not be used, and the problem should be reported to the primary provider. Enzymes are used to resolve obstructions, not to aid removal. For safety reasons, hot water is never instilled into a tube. Twisting could cause damage to the mucosa.

An emergency department patient is diagnosed with a hip dislocation. The patient's family is relieved that the patient has not suffered a hip fracture, but the nurse explains that this is still considered to be a medical emergency. What is the rationale for the nurse's statement? A) The longer the joint is displaced, the more difficult it is to get it back in place. B) The patient's pain will increase until the joint is realigned. C) Dislocation can become permanent if the process of bone remodeling begins. D) Avascular necrosis may develop at the site of the dislocation if it is not promptly resolved.

D) Avascular necrosis may develop at the site of the dislocation if it is not promptly resolved.

Radiographs of a boy's upper arm show that the humerus appears to be fractured on one side and slightly bent on the other. This diagnostic result suggests what type of fracture? A) Impacted B) Compound C) Compression D) Greenstick

D) Greenstick

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient from the emergency department after receiving treatment for an ankle sprain. While providing discharge education, the nurse should encourage which of the following? A) Apply heat for the first 24 to 48 hours after the injury. B) Maintain the ankle in a dependent position. C) Exercise hourly by performing rotation exercises of the ankle. D) Keep an elastic compression bandage on the ankle.

D) Keep an elastic compression bandage on the ankle.

A patient who has had an amputation is being cared for by a multidisciplinary rehabilitation team. What is the primary goal of this multidisciplinary team? A) Maximize the efficiency of care B) Ensure that the patient's health care is holistic C) Facilitate the patient's adjustment to a new body image D) Promote the patient's highest possible level of function

D) Promote the patient's highest possible level of function

A nurse is preparing to discharge an emergency department patient who has been fitted with a sling to support her arm after a clavicle fracture. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do? A) Elevate the arm above the shoulder 3 to 4 times daily. B) Avoid moving the elbow, wrist, and fingers until bone remodeling is complete. C) Engage in active range of motion using the affected arm. D) Use the arm for light activities within the range of motion.

D) Use the arm for light activities within the range of motion.

Ans: "For many people, lack of nutrition can cause a loss of bone density." Feedback: Nutrition has a profound effect on bone density, especially later life. Genetics are also an important factor, but nutrition has a more pronounced effect. The pathophysiology of bone density is well understood and psychosocial stress has a minimal effect.

Diagnostic tests show that a patient's bone density has decreased over the past several years. The patient asks the nurse what factors contribute to bone density decreasing. What would be the nurse's best response?

A patient is receiving education about his upcoming Billroth I procedure (gastroduodenostomy). This patient should be informed that he may experience which of the following adverse effects associated with this procedure?

Diarrhea and feelings of fullness

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the epigastric region. What assessment question during the health interview would most help the nurse determine if the patient has a peptic ulcer?

Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat?

A patient has received a diagnosis of gastric cancer and is awaiting a surgical date. During the preoperative period, the patient should adopt what dietary guidelines?

Eat small, frequent meals with high calorie and vitamin content.

A patient is one month postoperative following restrictive bariatric surgery. The patient tells the clinic nurse that he has been having trouble swallowing for the past few days. What recommendation should the nurse make?

Eating more slowly and chewing food more thoroughly

A nurse is caring for a patient who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the patient about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe a peptic ulcer?

Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine

A patient was treated in the emergency department and critical care unit after ingesting bleach. What possible complication of the resulting gastritis should the nurse recognize?

Esophageal or pyloric obstruction related to scarring

A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient whose high body mass index (BMI) corresponds to class III obesity. In order to ensure empathic and patient-centered care, the nurse should do which of the following?

Examine one's own attitudes towards obesity in general and the patient in particular.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse knows that the indications for starting parenteral nutrition (PN) for this patient are what? A 5% deficit in body weight compared to preillness weight and increased caloric need B Calorie deficit and muscle wasting combined with low electrolyte levels C Inability to take in adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days D Significant risk of aspiration coupled with decreased level of consciousness

Feedback: The indications for PN include an inability to ingest adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days. Weight loss, muscle wasting combined with electrolyte imbalances, and aspiration indicate a need for nutritional support, but this does not necessary have to be parenteral.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a subclavian central line who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). In preparing a care plan for this patient, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A Risk for Activity Intolerance Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter B Risk for Infection Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter C Risk for Functional Urinary Incontinence Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter D Risk for Sleep Deprivation Related to the presence of a Subclavian Catheter

Feedback: The high glucose content of PN solutions makes the solutions an idea culture media for bacterial and fungal growth, and the central venous access devices provide a port of entry. Prevention of infection is consequently a high priority. The patient will experience some inconveniences with regard to toileting, activity, and sleep, but the infection risk is a priority over each of these.

A patient presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of recurrent sharp stomach pain that is relieved by eating. The nurse suspects that the patient may have an ulcer. How would the nurse explain the formation and role of acid in the stomach to the patient?

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by glands in the stomach in response to the actual or anticipated presence of food."

A nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and whose bowel preparation will include polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage prior to the procedure. The presence of what health problem would contraindicate the use of this form of bowel preparation?

Inflammatory bowel disease Rationale: The use of a lavage solution is contraindicated in patients with intestinal obstruction or inflammatory bowel disease. It can safely be used with patients who have polyps, colon cancer, or diverticulitis.

A patient has been admitted to the hospital after diagnostic imaging revealed the presence of a gastric outlet obstruction (GOO). What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Insertion of an NG tube for decompression

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for a tumor of the small intestine. What are the most likely symptoms that prompted the patient to first seek care?

Intermittent pain and bloody stool

A nurse is providing patient education for a patient with peptic ulcer disease secondary to chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. The patient has recently been prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). What would the nurse be most accurate in informing the patient about the drug?

It protects the stomach's lining

A patient who is obese has been unable to lose weight successfully using lifestyle modifications and has mentioned the possibility of using weight-loss medications. What should the nurse teach the patient about pharmacologic interventions for the treatment of obesity?

Medications can be helpful, but few people achieve and maintain their desired weight loss with medications alone.

A community health nurse is preparing for an initial home visit to a patient discharged following a total gastrectomy for treatment of gastric cancer. What would the nurse anticipate that the plan of care is most likely to include?

Monthly administration of injections of vitamin B12

A patient has sought care because of recent dark-colored stools. As a result, a fecal occult blood test has been ordered. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following prior to collecting a stool sample?

NSAIDS

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of GI bleed. During shift assessment, the nurse finds the patient to betachycardic and hypotensive, and the patient has an episode of hematemesis while the nurse is in the room. In addition to monitoring the patient's vital signs and level of conscious, what would be a priority nursing action for this patient?

Notify the physician.

A nurse is promoting increased protein intake to enhance a patient's wound healing. The nurse knows that enzymes are essential in the digestion of nutrients such as protein. What is the enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein?

Pepsin Rationale: The enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein is pepsin. Intrinsic factor combines with vitamin B12 for absorption by the ileum. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats and amylase aids in the digestion of starch

Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a patient with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication?

Peritonitis

A patient is being assessed for a suspected deficit in intrinsic factor synthesis. What diagnostic or assessment finding is the most likely rationale for this examination of intrinsic factor production?

Persistently low hemoglobin and hematocrit

A patient who experienced an upper GI bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and the patient's condition is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this patient should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence?

Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea

A patient has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis after presenting in distress to the emergency department with abdominal symptoms. What would be the nursing care most needed by the patient at this time?

Providing the patient with physical and emotional support

A patient has been scheduled for a urea breath test in one month's time. What nursing diagnosis most likely prompted this diagnostic test?

Risk For Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Peptic Ulcers

A nurse is completing a health history on a patient whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the patient's health problem?

Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.

A nurse is presenting a class at a bariatric clinic about the different types of surgical procedures offered by the clinic. When describing the implications of different types of surgeries, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply.

Specific lifestyle changes associated with each procedure Implications of each procedure for eating habits Effects of different surgeries on bowel function

A nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with an exacerbation of chronic gastritis. What health promotion topic should the nurse emphasize?

Strategies for avoiding irritating foods and beverages

A nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with late-stage gastric cancer. The patient's family is distraught and angry that she was not diagnosed earlier in the course of her disease. What factor contributes to the fact that gastric cancer is often detected at a later stage?

The early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually not alarming or highly unusual.

Ans: Flat bones Feedback: Flat bones, such as the sternum, provide vital organ protection. Fractures of the flat bones may lead to puncturing of the vital organs or may interfere with the protection of the vital organs. Long, short, and irregular bones do not usually have this physiologic function.

The human body is designed to protect its vital parts. A fracture of what type of bone may interfere with the protection of vital organs?

Ans: Calcium, Vitamin D Feedback: A patient's risk for osteoporosis is strongly influenced by vitamin D and calcium intake. Carbohydrate, protein, and fiber intake do not have direct effect on the development of osteoporosis.

The nurse is assessing a patient for dietary factors that may influence her risk for osteoporosis. The nurse should question the patient about her intake of what nutrients? Select all that apply.

Ans: Compare parts of the body symmetrically. Feedback: When assessing bone integrity, symmetric parts of the body, such as extremities, are compared. Analgesia should not be necessary and percussion is not a clinically useful assessment technique. Bone integrity is best assessed when the patient is not moving.

The nurse is performing an assessment of a patient's musculoskeletal system and is appraising the patient's bone integrity. What action should the nurse perform during this phase of assessment?

Ans: Raynaud's phenomenon Feedback: The "R" in CREST stands for Raynaud's phenomenon. Thyroid dysfunction, esophageal varices, and osteopenia are not associated with scleroderma.

The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has scleroderma. The nurse refers to resources that describe CREST syndrome. Which of the following is a component of CREST syndrome?

Ans: Instruct the patient to walk away from the nurse for a short distance and then toward the nurse. Feedback: Gait is assessed by having the patient walk away from the examiner for a short distance. The examiner observes the patient's gait for smoothness and rhythm. Looking at the floor is not disallowed and gait is not assessed by observing balance on one leg. Heel-to-toe walking ability is not gauged during an assessment of normal gait.

The nurse's comprehensive assessment of an older adult involves the assessment of the patient's gait. How should the nurse best perform this assessment?

Ans: Fasciculations Feedback: Fasciculation is involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Clonus is a series of involuntary, rhythmic, muscular contractions and tetany is involuntary muscle contraction, but neither is characterized as "twitching." Atony is a loss of muscle strength.

The nurse's musculoskeletal assessment of a patient reveals involuntary twitching of muscle groups. How would the nurse document this observation in the patient's chart?

A patient has recently received a diagnosis of gastric cancer; the nurse is aware of the importance of assessing the patient's level of anxiety. Which of the following actions is most likely to accomplish this?

The patient is encouraged to express fears openly.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this patient?

The patient maintains or gains weight.

A patient will be undergoing abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast. The nurse has administered IV sodium bicarbonate and oral acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) before the study as ordered. What would indicate that these medications have had the desired therapeutic effect?

The patient's BUN and creatinine levels are within reference range following the CT

Ans: Lordosis Feedback: The nurse documents the spinal abnormality as lordosis. Lordosis is an increase in lumbar curvature of the spine. Kyphosis is an increase in the convex curvature of the spine. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. Osteoporosis is the significant loss of bone mass and strength with an increased risk for fracture.

The results of a nurse's musculoskeletal examination show an increase in the lumbar curvature of the spine. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem?

A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease has just been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). How should the nurse best describe this medication's therapeutic action?

This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach.

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with a suspected GI bleed. The nurse assesses the patient's stool after a bowel movement and notes it to be a tarry-black color. This finding is suggestive of bleeding from what location?

Upper GI tract

Ans: Ulnar Feedback: The ulnar nerve is assessed for sensation by pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger. The radial, median, and tibial nerves are not assessed in this manner.

When assessing a patient's peripheral nerve function, the nurse uses an instrument to prick the fat pad at the top of the patient's small finger. This action will assess which of the following nerves?

Ans: Clonus Feedback: Clonus may occur when the ankle is dorsiflexed or the wrist is extended. It is characterized as rhythmic contractions of the muscle. Fasciculation is involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Contractures are prolonged tightening of muscle groups and an effusion is the pathologic escape of body fluid.

While assessing a patient, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing rhythmic muscle contractions when the nurse performs passive extension of her wrist. What is this pattern of muscle contraction referred to as?

A nurse is providing preprocedure education for a patient who will undergo a lower GI tract study the following week. What should the nurse teach the patient about bowel preparation?

You'll need t have enemas the day before the test

A patient has been brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy but questions the nurse about how his health will be affected by the absence of an appendix. How should the nurse best respond?

Your appendix doesn't play a major role, so you won't notice any difference after you recovery from surgery."

A patient has come to the clinic complaining of blood in his stool. A FOBT test is performed but is negative. Based on the patient's history, the physician suggests a colonoscopy, but the patient refuses, citing a strong aversion to the invasive nature of the test. What other test might the physician order to check for blood in the stool?

a quanitative fecal immunochemical test

A nurse is caring for a patient with recurrent hematemesis who is scheduled for upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy (UGF). How should the nurse in the radiology department prepare this patient?

apply local anesthetic to the back of the pt's throat

Probably the most widely used in-office or at-home occult blood test is the Hemoccult II. The patient has come to the clinic because he thinks there is blood in his stool. When you reviewed his medications, you noted he is on antihypertensive drugs and NSAIDs for early arthritic pain. You are sending the patient home with the supplies necessary to perform 2 hemoccult tests on his stool and mail the samples back to the clinic. What instruction would you give this patient?

avoid calcium C for 72 hrs before you start the test

A nurse is caring for a patient with biliary colic and is aware that the patient may experience referred abdominal pain. Where would the nurse most likely expect this patient to experience referred pain?

below the right nipple

A nurse is performing an admission assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. What technique should the nurse use to palpate the patient's liver? A) Place hand under the right lower abdominal quadrant and press down lightly with the other hand. B) Place the left hand over the abdomen and behind the left side at the 11th rib. C) Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other hand. D) Hold hand 90 degrees to right side of the abdomen and push down firmly.

c

A patient has come to the outpatient radiology department for diagnostic testing. Which of the following diagnostic procedures will allow the care team to evaluate and remove polyps?

colonoscopy

A patient has been experiencing significant psychosocial stress in recent weeks. The nurse is aware of the hormonal effects of stress, including norepinephrine release. Release of this substance would have what effect on the patient's gastrointestinal function?

decreased motility

A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an older adult patient. When collecting and analyzing data, the nurse should be cognizant of what age-related change in gastrointestinal structure and function?

decreased mucus secretion

A patient with cystic fibrosis takes pancreatic enzyme replacements on a regular basis. The patient's intake of trypsin facilitates what aspect of GI function?

digestion of proteins

An adult patient is scheduled for an upper GI series that will use a barium swallow. What teaching should the nurse include when the patient has completed the test?

fluids must be increased to facilitate the evacuation of the stool

A clinic patient has described recent dark-colored stools;the nurse recognizes the need for fecal occult blood testing (FOBT). What aspect of the patient's current health status would contraindicate FOBT?

hemorrhoids

A patient asks the nursing assistant for a bedpan. When the patient is finished, the nursing assistant notifies the nurse that the patient has bright red streaking of blood in the stool. What is this most likely a result of?

hemorrhoids

A nursing student has auscultated a patient's abdomen and noted one or two bowel sounds in a 2-minute period of time. How would you tell the student to document the patient's bowel sounds?

hypoactive

A patient who has been experiencing changes in his bowel function is scheduled for a barium enema. What instruction should the nurse provide for postprocedure recovery?

increase fluid intake to evacuate the barium

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of AIDS. Inspection of the patient's mouth reveals the new presence of white lesions on the patient's oral mucosa. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?

inform the PCP of this finding

The nurse is preparing to perform a patient's abdominal assessment. What examination sequence should the nurse follow?

inspection auscultation percussion palpation

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a suspected malabsorption disorder. The nurse knows that one of the accessory organs of the digestive system is the pancreas. What digestive enzymes does the pancreas secrete? Select all that apply.

lipase amylase ptyalin

The nurse is providing health education to a patient scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should explain that she will be placed in what position during this diagnostic test?

lying on left side w/ legs drawn toward the chest

A nurse in a stroke rehabilitation facility recognizes that the brain regulates swallowing. Damage to what area of the brain will most affect the patient's ability to swallow?

medulla oblongata

An advanced practice nurse is assessing the size and density of a patient's abdominal organs. If the results of palpation are unclear to the nurse, what assessment technique should be implemented?

percussion

The nurse is caring for a patient with a duodenal ulcer and is relating the patient's symptoms to the physiologic functions of the small intestine. What do these functions include? Select all that apply.

secretion of mucus absorption of nutrients movement of nutrients into the bloodstream

The nurse educator is reviewing the blood supply of the GI tract with a group of medical nurses. The nurse is explaining the fact that the veins that return blood from the digestive organs and the spleen form the portal venous system. What large veins will the nurse list when describing this system? Select all that apply.

splenic vein inferior mesenteric vein gastric vein

A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old patient who is being assessed for recurrent and intractable nausea. What age-related change to the GI system may be a contributor to the patient's health complaint?

stomach emptying takes place more slowly

The physiology instructor is discussing the GI system with the pre-nursing class. What should the instructor describe as a major function of the GI tract?

the absorption into the bloodstream of nutrient molecules produced by digestion

A medical patient's CA 19-9 levels have become available and they are significantly elevated. How should the nurse best interpret this diagnostic finding?

the pt may have cancer but other GI disease must be ruled out