Mental Health Q & A
Multiple Response A nursing instructor is teaching students about cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following student statements about the complications of hepatic encephalopathy should indicate that further student teaching is needed? Select all that apply. A. A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing. B. This condition leads to a rise in serum ammonia, resulting in impaired mental functioning. C. In this condition, blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity. D. Neomycin and lactulose are used in the treatment of this condition. E. This condition is caused by the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea.
A. A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing. C. In this condition, blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity. The nursing instructor should understand that further teaching is needed if the nursing student states that a diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing or that this condition causes blood to accumulate in the abdominal cavity (ascites), because these are incorrect statements. The treatment of hepatic encephalopathy requires abstention from alcohol, temporary elimination of protein from the diet, and reduction of intestinal ammonia by means of neomycin or lactulose. This condition occurs in response to the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea for excretion.
Multiple Response Which of the following risk factors noted during a family history assessment should a nurse associate with the potential development of intellectual disability? Select all that apply. A. A family history of Tay-Sachs disease B. Childhood meningococcal infection C. Deprivation of nurturance and social contact D. History of maternal multiple motor and verbal tics E. A diagnosis of maternal major depressive disorder ANS: A, B, C
A. A family history of Tay-Sachs disease B. Childhood meningococcal infection C. Deprivation of nurturance and social contact The nurse should associate a family history of Tay-Sachs disease, childhood meningococcal infections, and deprivation of nurturance and social contact as risk factors that would predispose a child to intellectual disability. Major predisposing factors of intellectual disability include: hereditary factors, early alterations in embryonic development, pregnancy and perinatal factors, medical conditions acquired in infancy or childhood, environmental influences, and other mental disorders.
Multiple Response Which of the following individuals are communicating a message? Select all that apply. A. A mother spanking her son for playing with matches B. A teenage boy isolating himself and playing loud music C. A biker sporting an eagle tattoo on his biceps D. A teenage girl writing, No one understands me E. A father checking for new e-mail on a regular basis
A. A mother spanking her son for playing with matches B. A teenage boy isolating himself and playing loud music C. A biker sporting an eagle tattoo on his biceps D. A teenage girl writing, No one understands me The nurse should determine that spanking, isolating, getting tattoos, and writing are all ways in which people communicate messages to others. It is estimated that about 70% to 90% of communication is nonverbal.
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The client is unable to concentrate, has no appetite, and is experiencing insomnia. Which should be included in this clients plan of care? A. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities B. A daily schedule filled with activities to promote socialization C. A flexible schedule that allows the client opportunities for decision making D. A schedule that includes mandatory activities to decrease social isolation
A. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities A client with depression has difficulty concentrating and may be overwhelmed by activity overload or the expectation of independent decision making. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities is more appropriate.
A client diagnosed with chronic alcohol use disorder is being discharged from an inpatient treatment facility after detoxification. Which client outcome related to Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) would be most appropriate for a nurse to discuss with the client during discharge teaching? A. After discharge, the client will immediately attend 90 AA meetings in 90 days. B. After discharge, the client will rely on an AA sponsor to help control alcohol cravings. C. After discharge, the client will incorporate family in AA attendance. D. After discharge, the client will seek appropriate deterrent medications through AA.
A. After discharge, the client will immediately attend 90 AA meetings in 90 days. The most appropriate client outcome for the nurse to discuss during discharge teaching is attending 90 AA meetings in 90 days after discharge. AA is a major self-help organization for the treatment of alcoholism. It accepts alcoholism as an illness and promotes total abstinence as the only cure.
When planning care for a client, which medication classification should a nurse recognize as effective in the treatment of Tourettes disorder? A. Antipsychotic medications B. Antimanic medications C. Tricyclic antidepressant medications D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor medications
A. Antipsychotic medications The nurse should recognize that antipsychotic medications are effective in the treatment of Tourettes disorder. These medications are used to reduce the severity of tics and are most effective when combined with psychosocial therapy. Risperidone (Risperdal) has been shown to reduce symptoms by 21% to 61%.
A client has a history of excessive fear of water. What is the term that a nurse should use to describe this specific phobia, and under what subtype is this phobia identified? A. Aquaphobia, a natural environment type of phobia B. Aquaphobia, a situational type of phobia C. Acrophobia, a natural environment type of phobia D. Acrophobia, a situational type of phobia
A. Aquaphobia, a natural environment type of phobia The nurse should determine that an excessive fear of water is identified as aquaphobia, which is a natural environment type of phobia. Natural environmenttype phobias are fears about objects or situations that occur in the natural environment, such as a fear of heights or storms.
Which nursing intervention strategy is most appropriate to implement initially with a suicidal client? A. Ask a direct question such as, Do you ever think about killing yourself? B. Ask client, Please rate your mood on a scale from 1 to 10. C. Establish a trusting nurseclient relationship. D. Apply the nursing process to the planning of client care.
A. Ask a direct question such as, Do you ever think about killing yourself? The risk of suicide is greatly increased if the client has suicidal ideations, if the client has developed a plan, and particularly if the means exist for the client to execute the plan.
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder states, I hate oatmeal. Lets get everybody together to do exercises. Im thirsty and Im burning up. Get out of my way; I have to see that guy. What should be the priority nursing action? A. Assess the clients vital signs. B. Offer to have the dietitian discuss food preferences. C. Encourage the client to lead the exercise program in the community meeting. D. Acknowledge the client briefly and then walk away.
A. Assess the clients vital signs. When assessing a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the nurse should not lose sight of the fact that co-occurring physical problems could be masked by hyperactive, manic, or both behaviors. The clients statement of Im thirsty and Im burning up could be a symptom of either infection or dehydration and must be assessed.
A client has been brought to the emergency department for signs and symptoms of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). The client has a history of a suicide attempt 1 year ago. Which nursing intervention would take priority in this situation? A. Assessing the clients pulse oximetry and vital signs B. Developing a plan for safety for the client C. Assessing the client for suicidal ideations D. Establishing a trusting nurseclient relationship
A. Assessing the clients pulse oximetry and vital signs It is important to prioritize client interventions that assess the symptoms of COPD prior to any other nursing intervention. Physical needs must be prioritized according to Maslows hierarchy of needs. This clients problems with oxygenation will take priority over assessing for current suicidal ideations.
Multiple Response Which of the following instructions regarding lithium therapy should be included in a nurses discharge teaching? Select all that apply. A. Avoid excessive use of beverages containing caffeine. B. Maintain a consistent sodium intake. C. Consume at least 2,500 to 3,000 mL of fluid per day. D. Restrict sodium content. E. Restrict fluids to 1,500 mL per day.
A. Avoid excessive use of beverages containing caffeine. B. Maintain a consistent sodium intake. C. Consume at least 2,500 to 3,000 mL of fluid per day. ANS: A, B, C The nurse should instruct the client taking lithium to avoid excessive use of caffeine, maintain a consistent sodium intake, and consume at least 2,500 to 3,000 mL of fluid per day. The risk of developing lithium toxicity is high due to the narrow margin between therapeutic doses and toxic levels.
Multiple Response Which of the following interventions should a nurse anticipate implementing when planning care for children diagnosed with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? Select all that apply. A. Behavior modification B. Antianxiety medications C. Competitive group sports D. Group therapy E. Family therapy
A. Behavior modification D. Group therapy E. Family therapy The nurse should anticipate that behavior modification, group therapy, and family therapy may be implemented in the management of ADHD in children. These interventions are often used in conjunction with psychopharmacology to reduce impulsive and hyperactive behaviors and to increase attention span.
A client has a history of daily bourbon drinking for the past 6 months. He is brought to an emergency department by family, who report that his last drink was 1 hour ago. It is now 12 midnight. When should a nurse expect this client to exhibit withdrawal symptoms? A. Between 3 a.m. and 11 a.m. B. Shortly after a 24-hour period C. At the beginning of the third day D. Withdrawal is individualized and cannot be predicted. ANS: A
A. Between 3 a.m. and 11 a.m. The nurse should expect that this client will begin experiencing withdrawal symptoms from alcohol between 3 a.m. and 11 a.m. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal usually occur within 4 to 12 hours of cessation or reduction in heavy and prolonged alcohol use.
Multiple Response Which of the following explanations should a nurse include when teaching parents why is it difficult to diagnose a child or adolescent exhibiting symptoms of bipolar disorder? Select all that apply. A. Bipolar symptoms are similar to attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder symptoms. B. Children are naturally active, energetic, and spontaneous. C. Neurotransmitter levels vary considerably in accordance with age. D. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder cannot be assigned prior to the age of 18. E. Genetic predisposition is not a reliable diagnostic determinant.
A. Bipolar symptoms are similar to attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder symptoms. B. Children are naturally active, energetic, and spontaneous. It is difficult to diagnose a child or adolescent with bipolar disorder because bipolar symptoms are similar to attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder symptoms and because children are naturally active, energetic, and spontaneous. Symptoms may also be comorbid with other childhood disorders, such as conduct disorder.
Which nursing response is an example of the nontherapeutic communication block of requesting an explanation? A. Can you tell me why you said that? B. Keep your chin up. Ill explain the procedure to you. C. There is always an explanation for both good and bad behaviors. D. Are you not understanding the explanation I provided?
A. Can you tell me why you said that? This nursing statement is an example of the nontherapeutic communication block of requesting an explanation. Requesting an explanation is when the client is asked to provide the reason for thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and events. Asking why a client did something or feels a certain way can be very intimidating and implies that the client must defend his or her behavior or feelings.
An adolescent client who was diagnosed with conduct disorder at the age of 8 is sentenced to juvenile detention after bringing a gun to school. How should the nurse apply knowledge of conduct disorder to this clients situation? A. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is more severe than the adolescent-onset type, and these individuals likely develop antisocial personality disorder in adulthood. B. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is caused by a difficult temperament, and the child is likely to outgrow these behaviors by adulthood. C. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is diagnosed only when behaviors emerge before the age of 5, and therefore improvement is likely. D. Childhood-onset conduct disorder has no treatment or cure, and children diagnosed with this disorder are likely to develop progressive oppositional defiant disorder.
A. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is more severe than the adolescent-onset type, and these individuals likely develop antisocial personality disorder in adulthood. The nurse should apply knowledge of conduct disorder to determine that childhood-onset conduct disorder is more severe than adolescent-onset type. These individuals are likely to develop antisocial personality disorder in adulthood. Individuals with this subtype are usually boys and frequently display physical aggression and have disturbed peer relationships.
A nursing instructor is teaching about the medications used to treat panic disorder. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly effective in the treatment of panic disorder. B. Clozapine (Clozaril) is used off-label in long-term treatment of panic disorder. C. Doxepin (Sinequan) can be used in low doses to relieve symptoms of panic attacks. D. Buspirone (BuSpar) is used for its immediate effect to lower anxiety during panic attacks.
A. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly effective in the treatment of panic disorder. The student indicates learning has occurred when he or she states that clonazepam is a particularly effective treatment for panic disorder. Clonazepam is a type of benzodiazepine that can be abused and lead to physical dependence and tolerance. It can be used on an as-needed basis to reduce anxiety and its related symptoms.
During a nurse-client interaction, which nursing statement may belittle the clients feelings and concerns? A. Dont worry. Everything will be alright. B. You appear uptight. C. I notice you have bitten your nails to the quick. D. You are jumping to conclusions.
A. Dont worry. Everything will be alright. This nursing statement is an example of the nontherapeutic communication block of belittling feelings. Belittling feelings occurs when the nurse misjudges the degree of the clients discomfort, suggesting a lack of empathy and understanding.
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder was raised in a strongly religious family where bad behavior was equated with sins against God. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to help the client address spirituality as it relates to his illness? A. Encourage the client to bring into awareness underlying sources of guilt. B. Teach the client that religious beliefs should be put into perspective throughout the life span. C. Confront the client with the irrational nature of the belief system. D. Assist the client to modify his or her belief system in order to improve coping skills.
A. Encourage the client to bring into awareness underlying sources of guilt. A client raised in an environment that reinforces ones inadequacy may be at risk for experiencing guilt, shame, low self-esteem, and hopelessness, which can contribute to depression. Assisting the client to bring these feelings into awareness allows the client to realistically appraise distorted responsibility and dysfunctional guilt.
Multiple Response A nurse has been caring for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following nursing interventions would address this clients symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Encourage the client to recognize the signs of escalating anxiety. B. Encourage the client to avoid any situation that causes stress. C. Encourage the client to employ newly learned relaxation techniques. D. Encourage the client to cognitively reframe thoughts about situations that generate anxiety. E. Encourage the client to avoid caffeinated products.
A. Encourage the client to recognize the signs of escalating anxiety. C. Encourage the client to employ newly learned relaxation techniques. D. Encourage the client to cognitively reframe thoughts about situations that generate anxiety. E. Encourage the client to avoid caffeinated products. Nursing interventions that address GAD symptoms should include encouraging the client to recognize signs of escalating anxiety, to employ relaxation techniques, to cognitively reframe thoughts about anxiety-provoking situations, and to avoid caffeinated products. Avoiding situations that cause stress is not an appropriate intervention, because avoidance does not help the client overcome anxiety. Stress is a component of life and is not easily evaded.
Multiple Response A college student has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following symptoms should a campus nurse expect this client to exhibit? Select all that apply. A. Fatigue B. Anorexia C. Hyperventilation D. Insomnia E. Irritability
A. Fatigue D. Insomnia E. Irritability The nurse should expect that a client diagnosed with GAD would experience fatigue, insomnia, and irritability. GAD is characterized by chronic, unrealistic, and excessive anxiety and worry.
A client is admitted for alcohol detoxification. During detoxification, which symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? A. Gross tremors, delirium, hyperactivity, and hypertension B. Disorientation, peripheral neuropathy, and hypotension C. Oculogyric crisis, amnesia, ataxia, and hypertension D. Hallucinations, fine tremors, confabulation, and orthostatic hypotension
A. Gross tremors, delirium, hyperactivity, and hypertension Withdrawal is defined as the physiological and mental readjustment that accompanies the discontinuation of an addictive substance. Symptoms can include gross tremors, delirium, hyperactivity, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, hallucinations, and seizures.
Multiple Response Which of the following components should a nurse recognize as an integral part of a rehabilitative program when planning care for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia? Select all that apply. A. Group therapy B. Medication management C. Deterrent therapy D. Supportive family therapy E. Social skills training
A. Group therapy B. Medication management D. Supportive family therapy E. Social skills training The nurse should recognize that group therapy, medication management, supportive family therapy, and social skills training all play an integral part in rehabilitative programs for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia. Schizophrenia results from various combinations of genetic predispositions, biochemical dysfunctions, physiological factors, and psychological stress. Effective treatment requires a comprehensive, multidisciplinary effort.
A client is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for acute anxiety. What client history should cause a nurse to question this order? A. History of alcohol dependence B. History of personality disorder C. History of schizophrenia D. History of hypertension
A. History of alcohol dependence The nurse should question a prescription of alprazolam (Xanax) for acute anxiety if the client has a history of alcohol dependence. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used in the treatment of anxiety and has an increased risk for physiological dependence and tolerance. A client with a history of substance abuse may be more likely to abuse other addictive substances and/or combine this drug with alcohol.
Multiple Response Which of the following nursing statements exemplify important insights that will promote effective intervention with clients diagnosed with substance use disorders? Select all that apply. A. I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients. B. Because of my fathers alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients. C. Drinking is legal, so the diagnosis of substance use disorder is an infringement on client rights. D. Opiate addicts are typically uneducated, unrefined individuals who will need a lot of education and social skills training. E. I can fix clients diagnosed with substance use disorders as long as I truly care about them.
A. I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients. B. Because of my fathers alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients. D. Opiate addicts are typically uneducated, unrefined individuals who will need a lot of education and social skills training. The nurse should examine personal bias and preconceived negative attitudes prior to caring for clients diagnosed with substance-abuse disorders. A deficit in this area may affect the nurses ability to establish therapeutic relationships with these clients. A nurse who adopts the attitude that he or she can fix another person may be struggling with codependency issues.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of persistent depressive disorder. Which client statement would describe a symptom consistent with this diagnosis? A. I am sad most of the time and Ive felt this way for the last several years. B. I find myself preoccupied with death. C. Sometimes I hear voices telling me to kill myself. D. Im afraid to leave the house.
A. I am sad most of the time and Ive felt this way for the last several years. Persistent depressive disorder is characterized by depressed mood for most of day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years. Thoughts of death would be more consistent with major depressive disorder; hearing voices is more consistent with a psychotic disorder; and fear of leaving the house is more consistent with a phobia.
Multiple Response After a teenager reveals that he is gay, the father responds by beating him. The next morning, the teenager is found hanging in his closet. Which paternal grief responses should a nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A. I cant believe this is happening. B. If only I had been more understanding. C. How dare he do this to me! D. Im just going to have to accept that he was gay. E. Well, that was a selfish thing to do.
A. I cant believe this is happening. B. If only I had been more understanding. C. How dare he do this to me! Suicide of a family member can induce a whole gamut of feelings in the survivors. Shock, disbelief, guilt, remorse, anger, and resentment are all feelings that may be experienced by this father. The last two possible responses suggest acceptance and understanding. It is far more common for survivors of suicide to have a sense of feeling wounded and as if they will never get over it.
A client diagnosed with panic disorder states, When an attack happens, I feel like I am going to die. Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. I know its frightening, but try to remind yourself that this will only last a short time. B. Death from a panic attack happens so infrequently that there is no need to worry. C. Most people who experience panic attacks have feelings of impending doom. D. Tell me why you think you are going to die every time you have a panic attack.
A. I know its frightening, but try to remind yourself that this will only last a short time. The most appropriate nursing reply to the clients concerns is to empathize with the client and provide encouragement that panic attacks last only a short period. Panic attacks usually last minutes but can, rarely, last hours. Symptoms of depression are also common with this disorder.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client taking a benzodiazepine. Which client statement would indicate a need for further follow-up instructions? A. I will need scheduled bloodwork in order to monitor for toxic levels of this drug. B. I wont stop taking this medication abruptly, because there could be serious complications. C. I will not drink alcohol while taking this medication. D. I wont take extra doses of this drug because I can become addicted.
A. I will need scheduled bloodwork in order to monitor for toxic levels of this drug. The client indicates a need for additional information about taking benzodiazepines when stating the need for blood work to monitor for toxic levels. No blood work is needed when taking a short-acting benzodiazepine. The client should understand that taking extra doses of a benzodiazepine may result in addiction and that the drug should not be taken in conjunction with alcohol.
A client is prescribed phenelzine (Nardil). Which of the following client statements should indicate to a nurse that discharge teaching about this medication has been successful? Select all that apply. A. Ill have to let my surgeon know about this medication before I have my cholecystectomy. B. Guess I will have to give up my glass of red wine with dinner. C. Ill have to be very careful about reading food and medication labels. D. Im going to miss my caffeinated coffee in the morning. E. Ill be sure not to stop this medication abruptly.
A. Ill have to let my surgeon know about this medication before I have my cholecystectomy. B. Guess I will have to give up my glass of red wine with dinner. C. Ill have to be very careful about reading food and medication labels. E. Ill be sure not to stop this medication abruptly. The nurse should evaluate that teaching has been successful when the client states that phenelzine (Nardil) should not be taken in conjunction with the use of alcohol or foods high in tyramine and should not be stopped abruptly. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can have negative interactions with other medications. The client needs to tell other physicians about taking MAOIs because of the risk of drug interactions.
Multiple Response A nursing student is developing a study guide related to historical facts about suicide. Which of the following facts should the student include? Select all that apply. A. In the Middle Ages, suicide was viewed as a selfish and criminal act. B. During the Roman Empire, suicide was followed by incineration of the body. C. Suicide was an offense in ancient Greece, and a common-site burial was denied. D. During the Renaissance, suicide was discussed and viewed more philosophically. E. Old Norse traditionally set a person who committed suicide adrift in the North Sea.
A. In the Middle Ages, suicide was viewed as a selfish and criminal act. C. Suicide was an offense in ancient Greece, and a common-site burial was denied. D. During the Renaissance, suicide was discussed and viewed more philosophically. These are true historical facts about suicide and should be included in the students study guide.
A client who has been diagnosed with bipolar I disorder states, God has taught me how to decode the Bible. A nurse should anticipate that which combination of medications would be ordered to address this clients symptoms? A. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and risperidone (Risperdal) B. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and carbamazepine (Tegretol) C. Valproic acid (Depakote) and sertraline (Zoloft) D. Valproic acid (Depakote) and lamotrigine (Lamictal)
A. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and risperidone (Risperdal) The patient who is experiencing psychosis (in this case, delusions of grandeur) may be benefited by the addition of an antipsychotic medication (risperidone) to the mood stabilizer (lithium). In addition, since lithium does not immediately reach therapeutic levels, the sedative properties of an antipsychotic may be useful in reducing agitation, hyperactivity, and/or insomnia.
A client who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit and is taking Thorazine presents to the nurse with severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 105F (40.5C). The nurse identifies these symptoms as which of the following conditions? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Acute dystonia D. Agranulocytosis
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially fatal condition characterized by muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and autonomic instability.
Arthur, who is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder, reports to the nurse that he cant stop thinking about all the potentially life threatening germs in the environment. What is the most accurate way for the nurse to document this symptom? A. Patient is expressing an obsession with germs. B. Patient is manifesting compulsive thinking. C. Patient is expressing delusional thinking about germs. D. Patient is manifesting arachnophobia of germs.
A. Patient is expressing an obsession with germs. Obsessions are unwanted, intrusive, repetitive thoughts. Compulsions are unwanted, repetitive behavior patterns in response to obsessive thoughts that are efforts to reduce anxiety.
A psychiatrist prescribes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for a client. Which foods should the nurse teach the client to avoid? A. Pepperoni pizza and red wine B. Bagels with cream cheese and tea C. Apple pie and coffee D. Potato chips and diet cola
A. Pepperoni pizza and red wine The nurse should instruct the client to avoid pepperoni pizza and red wine. Foods with high tyramine content can induce hypertensive crisis within 2 hours of ingestion. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis include severe occipital and/or temporal pounding headaches with occasional photophobia, sensations of choking, palpitations, and a feeling of dread.
Providing nursing education on drug abuse to a high school class is an example of which level of preventive care? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Primary intervention
A. Primary prevention Providing nursing education on drug abuse to a high school class is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention services are aimed at reducing the incidence of mental health disorders within the population.
A client is diagnosed with bipolar I disorder: manic episode. Which nursing intervention would be implemented to achieve the outcome of Client will gain 2 pounds by the end of the week? A. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day. B. Accompany client to cafeteria to encourage adequate dietary consumption. C. Initiate total parenteral nutrition to meet dietary needs. D. Teach the importance of a varied diet to meet nutritional needs.
A. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day. The nurse should provide the client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day to help the client achieve the outcome of gaining 2 pounds by the end of the week. Because of hyperactivity, the client will have difficulty sitting still to consume large meals.
Which therapeutic communication technique is being used in this nurseclient interaction? Client: My father spanked me often. Nurse: Your father was a harsh disciplinarian. A. Restatement B. Offering general leads C. Focusing D. Accepting
A. Restatement The nurse is using the therapeutic communication technique of restatement. Restatement involves repeating the main idea of what the client has said. The nurse uses this technique to communicate that the clients statement has been heard and understood.
What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal? A. Risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation B. Disturbed thought processes R/T tactile hallucinations C. Ineffective coping R/T powerlessness over alcohol use D. Ineffective denial R/T continued alcohol use despite negative consequences
A. Risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation The priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal should be risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation. Alcohol withdrawal may include the following symptoms: course tremors of hands, tongue, or eyelids; seizures; nausea or vomiting; malaise or weakness; tachycardia; sweating; elevated blood pressure; anxiety; depressed mood; hallucinations; headache; and insomnia.
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder: depressive episode intentionally overdoses on sertraline (Zoloft). Family reports that the client has experienced anorexia, insomnia, and recent job loss. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Risk for suicide R/T hopelessness B. Anxiety: severe R/T hyperactivity C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements R/T refusal to eat D. Dysfunctional grieving R/T loss of employment
A. Risk for suicide R/T hopelessness The priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be risk for suicide R/T hopelessness. The nurse should prioritize diagnoses on the basis of physical and safety needs. This client continues to be at risk for suicide related to an intentional Zoloft overdose.
A client diagnosed with depression and substance use disorder has an altered sleep pattern and demands that a psychiatrist prescribe a sedative. Which rationale explains why a nurse should encourage the client to first try nonpharmacological interventions? A. Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and will lose their effectiveness due to tolerance. B. Sedative-hypnotics are expensive and have numerous side effects. C. Sedative-hypnotics interfere with necessary REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. D. Sedative-hypnotics are not as effective to promote sleep as antidepressant medications.
A. Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and will lose their effectiveness due to tolerance. The nurse should recommend nonpharmacological interventions to this client because sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and will lose their effectiveness due to tolerance. The effects of central nervous system depressants are additive with one another and are capable of producing physiological and psychological dependence.
Multiple Response A nurse is administering risperidone (Risperdal) to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The therapeutic effect of this medication would most effectively address which of the following symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Somatic delusions B. Social isolation C. Gustatory hallucinations D. Flat affect E. Clang associations
A. Somatic delusions C. Gustatory hallucinations E. Clang associations The nurse should expect that risperidone (Risperdal) would be effective treatment for somatic delusions, gustatory hallucinations, and clang associations. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that has been effective in the treatment of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and in maintenance therapy to prevent exacerbation of schizophrenic symptoms.
A client who has been diagnosed with a phobic disorder asks the nurse if there are any medications that would be beneficial in treating phobic disorders. Which of the following would be accurate responses by the nurse? Select all that apply. A. Some antianxiety agents have been successful in treating social phobias. B. Some antidepressant agents have been successful in diminishing symptoms of agoraphobia and social anxiety disorder (social phobia). C. Specific phobias are generally not treated with medication unless accompanied by panic attacks. D. Beta-blockers have been used successfully to treat phobic responses to public performance.
A. Some antianxiety agents have been successful in treating social phobias. B. Some antidepressant agents have been successful in diminishing symptoms of agoraphobia and social anxiety disorder (social phobia). C. Specific phobias are generally not treated with medication unless accompanied by panic attacks. D. Beta-blockers have been used successfully to treat phobic responses to public performance. All of the listed pharmacological treatments are evidence-based treatments for phobic disorders.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which client symptoms related to the side effects of this medication should prompt a nurse to intervene immediately? A. Sore throat, fever, and malaise B. Akathisia and hypersalivation C. Akinesia and insomnia D. Dry mouth and urinary retention
A. Sore throat, fever, and malaise The nurse should intervene immediately if the client experiences a sore throat, fever, and malaise when taking the atypical antipsychotic drug clozapine (Clozaril). Clozapine can have a serious side effect of agranulocytosis, in which a potentially fatal drop in white blood cells can occur. Symptoms of infectious processes would alert the nurse to this potential.
Multiple Response A 20-year-old female has a diagnosis of premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Which of the following should a nurse identify as consistent with this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A. Symptoms are causing significant interference with work, school, and social relationships. B. Patient-rated mood is 2/10 for the past 6 months C. Mood swings occur the week before onset of menses D. Patient reports subjective difficulty concentrating E. Patient manifests pressured speech when communicating
A. Symptoms are causing significant interference with work, school, and social relationships. C. Mood swings occur the week before onset of menses D. Patient reports subjective difficulty concentrating Diagnostic criteria for a premenstrual dysphoric disorder include that symptoms must be associated with significant distress, occur in the week before onset of menses, and improve or disappear in the week post-menses
A child diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder has the nursing diagnosis of disturbed personal identity. Which outcome would best address this clients diagnosis? A. The client will name own body parts as separate from others by day 5. B. The client will establish a means of communicating personal needs by discharge. C. The client will initiate social interactions with caregivers by day 4. D. The client will not harm self or others by discharge.
A. The client will name own body parts as separate from others by day 5. An appropriate outcome for this client is to name own body parts as separate from others. The nurse should assist the client in the recognition of separateness during self-care activities such as dressing and feeding. The long-term goal for disturbed personal identity is for the client to develop an ego identity.
A lonely, depressed divorce has been self-medicating with cocaine for the past year. Which term should a nurse use to best describe this individuals situation? A. The individual is experiencing psychological addiction. B. The individual is experiencing physical addiction. C. The individual is experiencing substance addiction. D. The individual is experiencing social addiction.
A. The individual is experiencing psychological addiction. The nurse should use the term psychological addiction to best describe this clients situation. A client is considered to be psychologically addicted to a substance when there is an overwhelming desire to use a substance in order to produce pleasure or avoid discomfort.
A nurse is caring for a client who has threatened to commit suicide by hanging. The client states, Im going to use a knotted shower curtain when no one is around. Which information would determine the nurses plan of care for this client? A. The more specific the plan is, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. B. Clients who talk about suicide never actually commit it. C. Clients who threaten suicide should be observed every 15 minutes. D. After a brief assessment, the nurse should avoid the topic of suicide.
A. The more specific the plan is, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. Clients who have specific plans are at greater risk for suicide.
After assertiveness training, a formerly passive client appropriately confronts a peer in group therapy. The group leader states, Im so proud of you for being assertive. You are so good! Which communication technique has the leader employed? A. The nontherapeutic technique of giving approval B. The nontherapeutic technique of interpreting C. The therapeutic technique of presenting reality D. The therapeutic technique of making observations
A. The nontherapeutic technique of giving approval The group leader has employed the nontherapeutic technique of giving approval. Giving approval implies that the nurse has the right to pass judgment on whether the clients ideas or behaviors are good or bad. This creates a conditional acceptance of the client.
After an adolescent diagnosed with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) begins methylphenidate (Ritalin) therapy, a nurse notes that the adolescent loses 10 pounds in a 2-month period. What is the best explanation for this weight loss? A. The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite. B. Hyperactivity seen in ADHD causes increased caloric expenditure. C. Side effects of Ritalin cause nausea; therefore, caloric intake is decreased. D. Increased ability to concentrate allows the client to focus on activities rather than food.
A. The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite. The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite that often leads to weight loss. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a central nervous symptom stimulant that serves to increase attention span, control hyperactive behaviors, and improve learning ability for clients diagnosed with ADHD.
A client on the inpatient unit tells a student nurse, My life has no purpose. I cant think about living another day, but please dont tell anyone about the way I feel. I know you are obligated to protect my confidentiality. Which is the most appropriate reply by the student nurse? A. The treatment team is composed of many specialists who are working to improve your ability to function. Sharing this information with the team is critical to your care. B. Lets discuss steps that will resolve negative lifestyle choices that may increase your suicidal risk. C. You seem to be preoccupied with self. You should concentrate on hope for the future. D. This information is secure with me because of client confidentiality.
A. The treatment team is composed of many specialists who are working to improve your ability to function. Sharing this information with the team is critical to your care. The most appropriate response by the student nurse is to explain that sharing the information with the treatment team is critical to the clients care. The nurses priority is to ensure client safety and to inform others of the clients suicidal ideation.
Which statement should indicate to a nurse that an individual is experiencing a delusion? A. There's an alien growing in my liver. B. I see my dead husband everywhere I go. C. The IRS may audit my taxes. D. Im not going to eat my food. It smells like brimstone.
A. There's an alien growing in my liver. The nurse should recognize that a client who claims that an alien is inside his or her body is experiencing a delusion. Delusions are false personal beliefs that are inconsistent with the persons intelligence or cultural background.
A nursing instructor presents a case study in which a 3-year-old child is in constant motion and is unable to sit still during story time. The instructor asks a student to evaluate this childs behavior. Which student response indicates an appropriate evaluation of the situation? A. This childs behavior must be evaluated according to developmental norms. B. This child has symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. C. This child has symptoms of the early stages of autistic disorder. D. This childs behavior indicates possible symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder.
A. This childs behavior must be evaluated according to developmental norms. The students evaluation of the situation is appropriate when indicating a need for the client to be evaluated according to developmental norms. Guidelines for determining whether emotional problems exist in a child should consider if the behavioral manifestations are not age-appropriate, deviate from cultural norms, or create deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning.
A client is questioning the nurse about a newly prescribed medication, acamprosate calcium (Campral). Which is the most appropriate reply by the nurse? A. This medication will help you maintain your abstinence. B. This medication will cause uncomfortable symptoms if you combine it with alcohol. C. This medication will decrease the effect alcohol has on your body. D. This medication will lower your risk of experiencing a complicated withdrawal.
A. This medication will help you maintain your abstinence. Campral has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the maintenance of abstinence from alcohol in clients diagnosed with alcohol dependence who are abstinent at treatment initiation.
A nurse reviews the laboratory data of a 29-year-old client suspected of having major depressive disorder. Which laboratory value would potentially rule out this diagnosis? A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.2 U/mL B. Potassium (K+) level of 4.2 mEq/L C. Sodium (Na+) level of 140 mEq/L D. Calcium (Ca2+) level of 9.5 mg/dL
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.2 U/mL According to the DSM-5, symptoms of major depressive disorder cannot be due to the direct physiological effects of a general medical condition (e.g., hypothyroidism). The diagnosis of major depressive disorder may be ruled out if the clients laboratory results indicate a high TSH level (normal range for this age group is 0.4 to 4.2 U/mL), which results from a low thyroid function, or hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism metabolic processes are slowed, leading to depressive symptoms.
A nurse begins the intake assessment of a client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder. The client shouts, You cant do this to me. Do you know who I am? Which is the priority nursing action in this situation? A. To provide self and client with a safe environment B. To redirect the client to the needed assessment information C. To provide high-calorie finger foods to meet nutritional needs D. To reorient the client to person, place, time, and situation
A. To provide self and client with a safe environment During a manic episode the clients mood is elevated, expansive, and irritable. Providing a safe environment should be prioritized to protect the client and staff from potential injury.
A student nurse is learning about the appropriate use of touch when communicating with clients diagnosed with psychiatric disorders. Which statement by the instructor best provides information about this aspect of therapeutic communication? A. Touch carries a different meaning for different individuals. B. Touch is often used when deescalating volatile client situations. C. Touch is used to convey interest and warmth. D. Touch is best combined with empathy when dealing with anxious clients.
A. Touch carries a different meaning for different individuals. Touch can elicit both negative and positive reactions, depending on the people involved and the circumstances of the interaction.
A client is admitted in a manic episode of bipolar I disorder. Which nursing intervention should be most therapeutic for this client? A. Using a calm, unemotional approach during client interactions B. Focusing primarily on enforcing limits C. Limiting interactions to decrease external stimuli D. Encouraging the client to establish social relationships with peers
A. Using a calm, unemotional approach during client interactions Clients experiencing mania are subject to frequent mood variations, easily changing from irritability and anger to sadness and crying. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain a calm, unemotional approach during client interactions.
Which example of a therapeutic communication technique would be effective in the planning phase of the nursing process? A. We've discussed past coping skills. Lets see if these coping skills can be effective now. B. Please tell me in your own words what brought you to the hospital. C. This new approach worked for you. Keep it up. D. I notice that you seem to be responding to voices that I do not hear.
A. We've discussed past coping skills. Lets see if these coping skills can be effective now. This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of formulating a plan of action. By the use of this technique the nurse can help the client plan in advance to deal with a stressful situation, which may prevent anger and/or anxiety from escalating to an unmanageable level.
If clozapine (Clozaril) therapy is being considered, the nurse should evaluate which laboratory test to establish a baseline for comparison in order to recognize a potentially life-threatening side effect? A. White blood cell count B. Liver function studies C. Creatinine clearance D. Blood urea nitrogen
A. White blood cell count The nurse should establish a baseline white blood cell count to evaluate a potentially life-threatening side effect if clozapine (Clozaril) is being considered as a treatment option. Clozapine can have a serious side effect of agranulocytosis, in which a potentially fatal drop in white blood cells can occur.
A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia for the presence of hallucinations. Which therapeutic communication technique used by the nurse is an example of making observations? A. You appear to be talking to someone I do not see. B. Please describe what you are seeing. C. Why do you continually look in the corner of this room? D. If you hum a tune, the voices may not be so distracting.
A. You appear to be talking to someone I do not see. The nurse is making an observation when stating, You appear to be talking to someone I do not see. Making observations involves verbalizing what is observed or perceived. This encourages the client to recognize specific behaviors and make comparisons with the nurses perceptions.
A client is trying to explore and solve a problem. Which nursing statement would be an example of verbalizing the implied? A. You seem to be motivated to change your behavior. B. How will these changes affect your family relationships? C. Why dont you make a list of the behaviors you need to change. D. The team recommends that you make only one behavioral change at a time.
A. You seem to be motivated to change your behavior. This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of verbalizing the implied. Verbalizing the implied puts into words what the client has only implied or said indirectly.
A 16-year-old client diagnosed with schizophrenia experiences command hallucinations to harm others. The clients parents ask a nurse, Where do the voices come from? Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain, which leads to altered thoughts. B. Your childs hallucinations are caused by medication interactions. C. Your child has too little serotonin in the brain, causing delusions and hallucinations. D. Your childs abnormal hormonal changes have precipitated auditory hallucinations.
A. Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain, which leads to altered thoughts. The nurse should explain that a chemical imbalance of the brain leads to altered thought processes. Hallucinations, or false sensory perceptions, may occur in all five senses. The client who hears voices is experiencing an auditory hallucination.
A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. The nurse should correlate these symptoms with which lithium level? A. 1.3 mEq/L B. 1.7 mEq/L C. 2.3 mEq/L D. 3.7 mEq/L
B. 1.7 mEq/L The therapeutic level of lithium carbonate is 1.0 to 1.5 mEq/L for acute mania and 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L for maintenance therapy. There is a narrow margin between the therapeutic and toxic levels. The symptoms presented in the question can be correlated with a lithium level of 1.7 mEq/L. Levels of 2.3 mEq/L and 3.7 mEq/L would produce more extreme symptoms of intensified toxicity, eventually leading to death.
A nurse is reviewing STAT laboratory data of a client presenting in the emergency department. At what minimum blood alcohol level should a nurse expect intoxication to occur? A. 50 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL C. 250 mg/dL D. 300 mg/dL
B. 100 mg/dL The nurse should expect that 100 mg/dL is the minimum blood alcohol level at which intoxication occurs. Intoxication usually occurs between 100 and 200 mg/dL. Death has been reported at levels ranging from 400 to 700 mg/dL.
Multiple Response Which of the following clients should a nurse recommend for a structured day program? Select all that apply. A. An acutely suicidal teenager who has had three previous suicide attempts B. A chronically mentally ill woman who has a history of medication noncompliance C. An elderly individual with end-stage Alzheimers disease D. A depressed individual who is able to participate in a safety plan E. A client who is hearing voices that tell him or her to harm others
B. A chronically mentally ill woman who has a history of medication noncompliance D. A depressed individual who is able to participate in a safety plan The nurse should recommend a structured day program for a chronically mental ill woman who has a history of medication noncompliance and for a depressed individual who is able to participate in a safety plan. Day programs (also called partial hospitalizations) are designed to prevent institutionalization or to ease the transition from inpatient hospitalization to community living.
A nurse has taken report for the evening shift on an adolescent inpatient unit. Which client should the nurse address first? A. A client diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder being sexually inappropriate with staff B. A client diagnosed with conduct disorder who is verbally abusing a peer in the milieu C. A client diagnosed with conduct disorder who is demanding special attention from staff D. A client diagnosed with attention deficit disorder who has a history of self-mutilation
B. A client diagnosed with conduct disorder who is verbally abusing a peer in the milieu A client diagnosed with conduct disorder who is verbally abusing a peer in the milieu presents a potential safety concern that would need to be addressed by the nurse immediately.
A client who has been taking fluvoxamine (Luvox) without significant improvement asks a nurse, I heard about something called a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Cant my doctor add that to my medications? Which is an appropriate nursing reply? A. This combination of drugs can lead to delirium tremens. B. A combination of an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. C. Thats a good idea. There have been good results with the combination of these two drugs. D. The only disadvantage would be the exorbitant cost of the MAOI.
B. A combination of an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. The nurse should explain to the client that combining an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis include severe occipital and/or temporal pounding headaches with occasional photophobia, sensations of choking, palpitations, and a feeling of dread.
A physician orders methylphenidate (Ritalin) for a child diagnosed with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which information about this medication should the nurse provide to the parents? A. If one dose of Ritalin is missed, double the next dose. B. Administer Ritalin to the child after breakfast. C. Administer Ritalin to the child just prior to bedtime. D. A side effect of Ritalin is decreased ability to learn.
B. Administer Ritalin to the child after breakfast. The nurse should instruct the parents to administer Ritalin to the child after breakfast. Ritalin is a central nervous system stimulant and can cause decreased appetite. Central nervous system stimulants can also temporarily interrupt growth and development.
A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is distraught over insomnia experienced over the last 3 nights and a 12-pound weight loss over the past 2 weeks. Which should be this clients priority nursing diagnosis? A. Knowledge deficit R/T bipolar disorder AEB concern about symptoms B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss C. Risk for suicide R/T powerlessness AEB insomnia and anorexia D. Altered sleep patterns R/T mania AEB insomnia for the past 3 nights
B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss The nurse should identify that the priority nursing diagnosis for this client is altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss. Due to the clients rapid weight loss, the nurse should prioritize interventions to ensure proper nutrition and health.
A client has an IQ of 47. Which nursing diagnosis best addresses a client problem associated with this degree of intellectual disability? A. Risk for injury R/T self-mutilation B. Altered social interaction R/T nonadherence to social convention C. Altered verbal communication R/T delusional thinking D. Social isolation R/T severely decreased gross motor skills
B. Altered social interaction R/T nonadherence to social convention The appropriate nursing diagnosis associated with this degree of intellectual disability is altered social interaction R/T nonadherence to social convention. A client with an IQ of 47 would be diagnosed with moderate intellectual disability and may also experience some limitations in speech communications.
A nursing instructor is teaching about suicide in the elderly population. Which information should the instructor include? A. Elderly people use less lethal means to commit suicide. B. Although the elderly make up less than 13% of the population, they account for 16% of all suicides. C. Suicide is the second leading cause of death among the elderly. D. It is normal for elderly individuals to express a desire to die, because they have come to terms with their mortality.
B. Although the elderly make up less than 13% of the population, they account for 16% of all suicides This factual information should be included in the nursing instructors teaching plan. An expressed desire to die is not normal in any age group
A family member is seeking advice about an elderly parent who seems to worry unnecessarily about everything. The family member states, Should I seek psychiatric help for my mother? Which is an appropriate nursing reply? A. My mother also worries unnecessarily. I think it is part of the aging process. B. Anxiety is considered abnormal when it is out of proportion to the stimulus causing it and when it impairs functioning. C. From what you have told me, you should get her to a psychiatrist as soon as possible. D. Anxiety is a complex phenomenon and is effectively treated only with psychotropic medications.
B. Anxiety is considered abnormal when it is out of proportion to the stimulus causing it and when it impairs functioning. The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to explain to the family member that anxiety is considered abnormal when it is out of proportion and impairs functioning. Anxiety is a normal reaction to a realistic danger or threat to biological integrity or self-concept.
Which is the priority nursing intervention for a client admitted for acute alcohol intoxication? A. Darken the room to reduce stimuli in order to prevent seizures. B. Assess aggressive behaviors in order to intervene to prevent injury to self or others. C. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) to reduce the rebound effects on the central nervous system. D. Teach the negative effects of alcohol on the body.
B. Assess aggressive behaviors in order to intervene to prevent injury to self or others. Symptoms associated with the syndrome of alcohol intoxication include but are not limited to aggressiveness, impaired judgment, impaired attention, and irritability. Safety is a nursing priority in this situation.
A nurse is implementing a one-on-one suicide observation level with a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The client states, Im feeling a lot better, so you can stop watching me. I have taken up too much of your time already. Which is the best nursing reply? A. I really appreciate your concern but I have been ordered to continue to watch you. B. Because we are concerned about your safety, we will continue to observe you. C. I am glad you are feeling better. The treatment team will consider your request. D. I will forward you request to your psychiatrist because it is his decision.
B. Because we are concerned about your safety, we will continue to observe you. Often suicidal clients resist personal monitoring, which impedes the implementation of a suicide plan. A nurse should continually observe a client when risk for suicide is suspected.
Which nursing behavior will enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia? A. Establishing personal contact with family members. B. Being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. C. Sharing limited personal information. D. Sitting close to the client to establish rapport.
B. Being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. The nurse can enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia by being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. The nurse should also convey acceptance of the clients needs and maintain a calm attitude when dealing with agitated behavior.
A client with a history of heavy alcohol use is brought to an emergency department (ED) by family members who state that the client has had nothing to drink in the last 24 hours. Which client symptom should the nurse immediately report to the ED physician? A. Antecubital bruising B. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg C. Mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale D. Dehydration
B. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg The nurse should recognize that high blood pressure is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal and should promptly report this finding to the physician. Complications associated with alcohol withdrawal may progress to alcohol withdrawal delirium and possible seizure activity on about the second or third day following cessation of prolonged alcohol consumption.
A newly admitted client diagnosed with major depressive disorder states, I have never considered suicide. Later the client confides to the nurse about plans to end it all by medication overdose. What is the most helpful nursing reply? A. There is nothing to worry about. We will handle it together. B. Bringing this up is a very positive action on your part. C. We need to talk about the things you have to live for. D. I think you should consider all your options prior to taking this action.
B. Bringing this up is a very positive action on your part. By admitting to the staff a suicide plan, this client has taken responsibility for possible personal actions and expresses trust in the nurse. Therefore, the client may be receptive to continuing a safety plan. Recognition of this achievement reinforces this adaptive behavior.
A client presents in the emergency department with complaints of overwhelming anxiety. Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to assess? A. Risk for suicide B. Cardiac status C. Current stressors D. Substance use history
B. Cardiac status Although all of the listed aspects of assessment are important, the priority is to evaluate cardiac status since a person having an MI, CHF, or mitral valve prolapse can present with symptoms of anxiety.
A newly admitted client is diagnosed with major depressive disorder with suicidal ideations. Which would be the priority nursing intervention for this client? A. Teach about the effect of suicide on family dynamics. B. Carefully and unobtrusively observe on the basis of assessed data, at varied intervals around the clock. C. Encourage the client to spend a portion of each day interacting within the milieu. D. Set realistic achievable goals to increase self-esteem
B. Carefully and unobtrusively observe on the basis of assessed data, at varied intervals around the clock. The most effective way to interrupt a suicide attempt is to carefully, unobtrusively observe on the basis of assessed data at varied intervals around the clock. If a nurse observes behavior that indicates self-harm, the nurse can intervene to stop the behavior and keep the client safe.
A nursing instructor is teaching about case management. What student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. Case management is a method used to achieve independent client care. B. Case management provides coordination of services required to meet client needs. C. Case management exists to facilitate client admission to needed inpatient services. D. Case management is a method to facilitate physician reimbursement.
B. Case management provides coordination of services required to meet client needs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when a student defines case management as providing coordination of services required to meet client needs. Case management strives to organize client care so that specific outcomes are achieved within allotted time frames.
A child has been recently diagnosed with mild intellectual disability (ID). What information about this diagnosis should the nurse include when teaching the childs mother? A. Children with mild ID need constant supervision. B. Children with mild ID develop academic skills up to a sixth-grade level. C. Children with mild ID appear different from their peers. D. Children with mild ID have significant sensory-motor impairment.
B. Children with mild ID develop academic skills up to a sixth-grade level. The nurse should inform the childs mother that children with mild ID develop academic skills up to a sixth-grade level. Individuals with mild ID are capable of independent living, capable of developing social skills, and have normal psychomotor skills.
A nurse evaluates a clients patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump and notices 100 attempts within a 30-minute period. Which is the best rationale for assessing this client for substance use disorder? A. Narcotic pain medication is contraindicated for all clients with active substance-use problems. B. Clients who are regularly using alcohol or benzodiazepines may have developed cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. C. There is no need to assess the client for substance use disorder. There is an obvious PCA malfunction. D. The client is experiencing symptoms of withdrawal and needs to be accurately assessed for lorazepam (Ativan) dosage.
B. Clients who are regularly using alcohol or benzodiazepines may have developed cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. The nurse should assess the client for substance use disorder because clients who are regularly using alcohol or benzodiazepines may have developed cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. Cross-tolerance occurs when one drug lessens the clients response to another drug.
A 27-year-old client was diagnosed 5 years ago with schizophrenia. What course of treatment should the nurse expect to be implemented? A. Eventual admission for long-term care in a psychiatric facility B. Community-based care with numerous brief hospitalizations C. Case management in the community with few relapses D. Occasional contact with outpatient counselors and psychiatrists
B. Community-based care with numerous brief hospitalizations Community-based care is the standard of treatment that followed the deinstitutionalization movement. Schizophrenia is a chronic disease that includes both exacerbations and remissions in the course of the illness, leading to numerous brief hospitalizations.
During an admission assessment, a nurse asks a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, Have you ever felt that certain objects or persons have control over your behavior? The nurse is assessing for which type of thought disruption? A. Delusions of persecution B. Delusions of influence C. Delusions of reference D. Delusions of grandeur
B. Delusions of influence The nurse is assessing the client for delusions of influence when asking if the client has ever felt that objects or persons have control of the clients behavior. Delusions of control or influence are manifested when the client believes that his or her behavior is being influenced. An example would be if a client believes that a hearing aid receives transmissions that control personal thoughts and behaviors.
What is the priority reason for a nurse to perform a full physical health assessment on a client admitted with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? A. The attention during the assessment is beneficial in decreasing social isolation. B. Depression is a symptom of several medical conditions. C. Physical health complications are likely to arise from antidepressant therapy. D. Depressed clients avoid addressing physical health and ignore medical problems.
B. Depression is a symptom of several medical conditions. Medical conditions such as hormone disturbances, electrolyte disturbances, and nutritional deficiencies may produce symptoms of depression. These are a priority to identify and treat, since they may be the cause of the depressive symptoms and represent physiological needs.
In assessing a client with polysubstance abuse, the nurse should recognize that withdrawal from which substance may require a life-saving emergency intervention? A. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) B. Diazepam (Valium) C. Morphine (Astramorph) D. Phencyclidine (PCP)
B. Diazepam (Valium) If large doses of a central nervous system (CNS) depressant (such as Valium) are repeatedly administered over a prolonged duration, a period of CNS hyperexcitability occurs on withdrawal of the drug. The response can be quite severe, even leading to convulsions and death.
A client has the following symptoms: preoccupation with imagined defect, verbalizations that are out of proportion to actual physical abnormalities, and numerous visits to plastic surgeons to seek relief. Which nursing diagnosis would best describe the problems evidenced by these symptoms? A. Ineffective coping B. Disturbed body image C. Complicated grieving D. Panic anxiety
B. Disturbed body image The symptoms presented describe the DSM-5 diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder, and the related nursing diagnosis is disturbed body image.
An individual experiences sadness and melancholia in September continuing through November. Which of the following factors should a nurse identify as most likely to contribute to the etiology of these symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Gender differences in social opportunities that occur with age B. Drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes C. Increased levels of melatonin D. Variations in serotonergic functioning E. Inaccessibility of resources for dealing with life stressors
B. Drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes C. Increased levels of melatonin D. Variations in serotonergic functioning The nurse should identify drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes, increased levels of melatonin, and/or variations in serotonergic functioning as contributing to the etiology of the clients symptoms. A number of studies have examined seasonal patterns associated with mood disorders and have revealed two prevalent periods of seasonal involvement: spring (March, April, May) and fall (September, October, November).
What tool should a nurse use to differentiate occasional spontaneous behaviors of children from behaviors associated with bipolar disorder? A. Risky Activity tool B. FIND tool C. Consensus Committee tool D. Monotherapy tool
B. FIND tool The Consensus Group recommends that clinicians use the FIND tool to differentiate occasional spontaneous behaviors of children from behaviors associated with bipolar disorder. FIND is an acronym that stands for frequency, intensity, number, and duration and is used to assess behaviors in children.
A newly admitted client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic episode. Which symptom related to altered thought is the nurse most likely to assess? A. Pacing B. Flight of ideas C. Lability of mood D. Irritability
B. Flight of ideas Clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic episode experience cognition and perception fragmentation often with psychosis during acute mania. Rapid thinking proceeds to racing and disjointed thinking (flight of ideas) and may be manifested by a continuous flow of accelerated, pressured speak with abrupt changes from topic to topic.
A client has been recently admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse plan to use to reduce the clients focus on delusional thinking? A. Present evidence that supports the reality of the situation B. Focus on feelings suggested by the delusion C. Address the delusion with logical explanations D. Explore reasons why the client has the delusion
B. Focus on feelings suggested by the delusion The nurse should focus on the clients feelings rather than attempt to change the clients delusional thinking by the use of evidence or logical explanations. Delusional thinking is usually fixed, and clients will continue to have the belief in spite of obvious proof that the belief is false or irrational.
A clients spouse asks, What evidence supports the possibility of genetic transmission of bipolar disorder? Which is the best nursing reply? A. Clients diagnosed with bipolar disorders have alterations in neurochemicals that affect behaviors. B. Higher rates of relatives diagnosed with bipolar disorder are found in families of clients diagnosed with this disorder. C. Higher rates of relatives of clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder respond in an exaggerated way to daily stress. D. More individuals diagnosed with bipolar disorder come from higher socioeconomic and educational backgrounds.
B. Higher rates of relatives diagnosed with bipolar disorder are found in families of clients diagnosed with this disorder. Family studies have shown that if one parent is diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the risk that a child will have the disorder is around 28%. If both parents are diagnosed with the disorder, the risk is two to three times as great.
A 6-year-old client is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin) for a diagnosis of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). When teaching the parents about this medication, which nursing statement explains how Ritalin works? A. Ritalins sedation side effect assists children by decreasing their energy level. B. How Ritalin works is unknown. Although it is a stimulant, it does combat the symptoms of ADHD. C. Ritalin helps the child focus by decreasing the amount of dopamine in the basal ganglia and neuron synapse. D. Ritalin decreases hyperactivity by increasing serotonin levels.
B. How Ritalin works is unknown. Although it is a stimulant, it does combat the symptoms of ADHD. It is unknown how Ritalin works, but even though it is a stimulant, it does decrease hyperactivity in individuals diagnosed with ADHD.
After years of dialysis, an 84-year-old states, Im exhausted, depressed, and done with these attempts to keep me alive. Which question should the nurse ask the spouse when preparing a discharge plan of care? A. Have there been any changes in appetite or sleep? B. How often is your spouse left alone? C. Has your spouse been following a diet and exercise program consistently? D. How would you characterize your relationship with your spouse?
B. How often is your spouse left alone? This client has many risk factors for suicide. The client should have increased supervision to decrease likelihood of self-harm.
A mother who has a history of chronic heroin use has lost custody of her children due to abuse and neglect. She has been admitted to an inpatient drug rehabilitation program. Which client statement should a nurse associate with a positive prognosis for this client? A. Im not going to use heroin ever again. I know Ive got the willpower to do it this time. B. I cannot control my use of heroin. Its stronger than I am. C. Im going to get all my children back. They need their mother. D. Once I deal with my childhood physical abuse, recovery should be easy.
B. I cannot control my use of heroin. Its stronger than I am. A positive prognosis is more likely when a client admits that he or she is addicted to a substance and has a loss of control. One of the first steps in the 12-step model for treatment is for the client to admit powerlessness over the substance.
After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, You are incompetent! Which is the nurses best response? A. Do you believe that I was the cause of your blood test being canceled? B. I see that you are upset, but I feel uncomfortable when you swear at me. C. Have you ever thought about ways to express anger appropriately? D. Ill give you some space. Let me know if you need anything.
B. I see that you are upset, but I feel uncomfortable when you swear at me. This is an example of the appropriate use of feedback. Feedback should be directed toward behavior that the client has the capacity to modify.
Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations? A. My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices. B. I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices. C. Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted. D. I wouldn't worry about these voices. The medication will make them disappear.
B. I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices. This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of presenting reality. Presenting reality is when the client has a misperception of the environment. The nurse defines reality or indicates his or her perception of the situation for the client.
Which client statement would the nurse recognize as indicating that the client understands dietary teaching related to lithium carbonate (Lithobid) treatment? A. I will limit my intake of fluids daily. B. I will maintain normal salt intake. C. I will take Lithobid on an empty stomach. D. I will increase my caloric intake to prevent weight loss.
B. I will maintain normal salt intake. A client taking Lithobid should be taught not to skimp on dietary sodium intake. He or she should take Lithobid on a full stomach to avoid gastrointestinal upset and choose lower-calorie foods to prevent weight gain.
A community health nurse is teaching a class to expectant parents. All participants lack infant care knowledge. A student nurse asks, If you had to assign a nursing diagnosis to this group, what would it be? What is the best nursing reply? A. I would assign the nursing diagnosis of cognitive deficit. B. I would assign the nursing diagnosis of knowledge deficit. C. I would assign the nursing diagnosis of altered family processes. D. I would assign the nursing diagnosis of risk for caregiver role strain.
B. I would assign the nursing diagnosis of knowledge deficit. Knowledge deficit is defined as the absence or deficiency of cognitive information related to a specific topic. Cognitive deficit would indicate an alteration in the ability to process information, and this evidence is not provided in the question.
After teaching a client about lithium carbonate (Lithane), a nurse would consider the teaching successful on the basis of which client statement? A. I should expect to feel better in a couple of days. B. Ill call my doctor immediately if I experience any diarrhea or ringing in my ears. C. If I forget a dose, I can double the dose the next time I take this drug. D. I need to restrict my intake of any food containing salt.
B. Ill call my doctor immediately if I experience any diarrhea or ringing in my ears. The initial signs of lithium toxicity include ataxia, blurred vision, severe diarrhea, persistent nausea and vomiting, and tinnitus.
An isolative client was admitted 4 days ago with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which nursing statement would best motivate this client to attend a therapeutic group being held in the milieu? A. Well go to the day room when you are ready for group. B. Ill walk with you to the day room. Group is about to start. C. It must be difficult for you to attend group when you feel so bad. D. Let me tell you about the benefits of attending this group.
B. Ill walk with you to the day room. Group is about to start. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder exhibits little to no motivation and must be actively directed by staff to participate in therapy. It is difficult for a severely depressed client to make decisions, and this function must be temporarily assumed by the staff.
A nurse learns at report that a newly admitted client experiencing mania is demonstrating grandiose delusions. The nurse should recognize that which client statement would provide supportive evidence of this symptom? A. I cant stop my sexual urges. They have led me to numerous affairs. B. Im the worlds most perceptive attorney. C. My wife is distraught about my overspending. D. The FBI is out to get me.
B. Im the worlds most perceptive attorney. Grandiosity is defined as a belief that personal abilities are better than anyone elses. This client is experiencing delusions of grandeur, which are commonly experienced in mania.
A client who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) as prescribed for 2 days is close to discharge. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of important discharge teaching? A. I cannot drink any alcohol with this medication. B. It is going to take 2 to 3 weeks in order for me to begin to feel better. C. This drug causes physical dependence, and I need to strictly follow doctors orders. D. I cant take this medication with food. It needs to be taken on an empty stomach.
B. It is going to take 2 to 3 weeks in order for me to begin to feel better. BuSpar takes at least 2 to 3 weeks to be effective in controlling symptoms of anxiety. This is important to teach clients in order to prevent potential noncompliance due to the perception that the medication is ineffective.
A client admitted to the psychiatric unit following a suicide attempt is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which behavioral symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? A. Anxiety and unconscious anger B. Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene C. Guilt and indecisiveness D. Low self-esteem
B. Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene is the only behavioral symptom presented. Lack of energy, low self-esteem, and feelings of helplessness and hopelessness (all common symptoms of depression) contribute to lack of attention to activities of daily living, including grooming and hygiene.
Which statement indicates that the nurse is acting as an advocate for a client who was hospitalized after a suicide attempt and is now nearing discharge? A. I must observe you continually for 1 hour in order to keep you safe. B. Lets confer with the treatment team about the resources that you may need after discharge. C. You must have been very upset to do what you did today. D. Are you currently thinking about harming yourself?
B. Lets confer with the treatment team about the resources that you may need after discharge. The nurse is functioning in an advocacy role when collaborating with the client and treatment team to discuss client problems and needs.
Which nursing intervention should be prioritized when caring for a child diagnosed with intellectual disability? A. Encourage the parents to always prioritize the needs of the child. B. Modify the childs environment to promote independence and encourage impulse control. C. Delay extensive diagnostic studies until the child is developmentally mature. D. Provide one-on-one tutorial education in a private setting to decrease overstimulation.
B. Modify the childs environment to promote independence and encourage impulse control. The nurse should prioritize modifying the childs environment to promote independence and encourage impulse control. This intervention is related to the nursing diagnosis self-care deficit. Positive reinforcement can serve to increase self-esteem and encourage repetition of behaviors.
A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors, neologisms, and thought insertion. Which nursing action should be prioritized to maintain this clients safety? A. Assess for medication noncompliance B. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately C. Interpret attempts at communication D. Assess triggers for bizarre, inappropriate behaviors
B. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately The nurse should note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately to maintain this clients safety. Early intervention may prevent an aggressive response and keep the client and others safe.
A nurse maintains an uncrossed arm and leg posture. This nonverbal behavior is reflective of which letter of the SOLER acronym for active listening? A. S B. O C. L D. E E. R
B. O The nurse should identify that maintaining an uncrossed arm and leg posture is nonverbal behavior that reflects the O in the active-listening acronym SOLER. The acronym SOLER includes sitting squarely facing the client (S), open posture when interacting with the client (O), leaning forward toward the client (L), establishing eye contact (E), and relaxing (R).
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a flat affect, paranoia, anhedonia, anergia, neologisms, and echolalia. Which statement correctly differentiates the clients positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? A. Paranoia, anhedonia, and anergia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. B. Paranoia, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. C. Paranoia, anergia, and echolalia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. D. Paranoia, flat affect, and anhedonia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
B. Paranoia, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. The nurse should recognize that positive symptoms of schizophrenia include paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia. The negative symptoms of schizophrenia include flat affect, anhedonia, and anergia. Positive symptoms reflect an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms reflect a decrease or loss of normal functions.
A child has been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. The distraught mother cries out, Im such a terrible mother. What did I do to cause this? Which nursing reply is most appropriate? A. Researchers really dont know what causes autistic disorder, but the relationship between autistic disorder and fetal alcohol syndrome is being explored. B. Poor parenting doesnt cause autism. Research has shown that abnormalities in brain structure and/or function are to blame. This is beyond your control. C. Research has shown that the mother appears to play a greater role in the development of this disorder than the father. D. Lack of early infant bonding with the mother has shown to be a cause of autistic disorder. Did you breastfeed or bottle-feed?
B. Poor parenting doesnt cause autism. Research has shown that abnormalities in brain structure and/or function are to blame. This is beyond your control. The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to explain to the parent that autism spectrum disorder is believed to be caused by abnormalities in brain structure and/or function, not poor parenting. Autism spectrum disorder occurs in approximately 6 per 1,000 children and is about four times more likely to occur in boys.
A nurse recently admitted a client to an inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. A health-care provider orders amitriptyline (Elavil) for the client. Which intervention related to this medication should be initiated to maintain this clients safety upon discharge? A. Provide a 6-month supply of Elavil to ensure long-term compliance. B. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. C. Provide a pill dispenser as a memory aid. D. Provide education regarding the avoidance of foods containing tyramine.
B. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. The health-care provider should provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments as an appropriate intervention to maintain the clients safety. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic range and can be used in overdose to commit suicide. Distributing limited amounts of the medication decreases this potential.
A preschool child is admitted to a psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder. To help the child feel more secure on the unit, which intervention should a nurse include in this clients plan of care? A. Encourage and reward peer contact. B. Provide consistent caregivers. C. Provide a variety of safe daily activities. D. Maintain close physical contact throughout the day.
B. Provide consistent caregivers. The nurse should provide consistent caregivers as part of the plan of care for a child diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. Children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder have an inability to trust. Providing consistent caregivers allows the client to develop trust and a sense of security.
Which nursing intervention related to self-care would be most appropriate for a teenager diagnosed with moderate intellectual disability? A. Meeting all of the clients self-care needs to avoid injury B. Providing simple directions and praising clients independent self-care efforts C. Avoiding interference with the clients self-care efforts in order to promote autonomy D. Encouraging family to meet the clients self-care needs to promote bonding
B. Providing simple directions and praising clients independent self-care efforts Providing simple directions and praise is an appropriate intervention for a teenager diagnosed with moderate intellectual disability. Individuals with moderate intellectual disability can perform some activities independently and may be capable of academic skill to a second-grade level.
Which behavioral approach should a nurse utilize when caring for children diagnosed with disruptive behavior disorders? A. Involving parents in designing and implementing the treatment process B. Reinforcing positive actions to encourage repetition of desired behaviors C. Providing opportunities to learn appropriate peer interactions D. Administering psychotropic medications to improve quality of life
B. Reinforcing positive actions to encourage repetition of desired behaviors The nurse should reinforce positive actions to encourage repetition of desired behaviors when caring for children diagnosed with a disruptive behavior disorder. Behavior therapy is based on the concepts of classical conditioning and operant conditioning.
A student nurse tells the instructor, Im concerned that when a client asks me for advice I wont have a good solution. Which should be the nursing instructors best response? A. Its scary to feel put on the spot by a client. Nurses dont always have the answer. B. Remember, clients, not nurses, are responsible for their own choices and decisions. C. Just keep the clients best interests in mind and do the best that you can. D. Set a goal to continue to work on this aspect of your practice.
B. Remember, clients, not nurses, are responsible for their own choices and decisions. Giving advice tells the client what to do or how to behave. It implies that the nurse knows what is best and that the client is incapable of any self-direction. It discourages independent thinking.
A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self because of hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations C. Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes D. Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood
B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations The nursing diagnosis that must be prioritized in this situation is risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations. Hearing voices and yelling accusations indicate a potential for violence, and this potential safety issue should be prioritized.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is hospitalized because of an exacerbation of psychosis related to antipsychotic medication nonadherence. Which level of care does the clients hospitalization reflect? A. Primary prevention level of care B. Secondary prevention level of care C. Tertiary prevention level of care D. Case management level of care
B. Secondary prevention level of care The clients hospitalization reflects the secondary prevention level of care. Secondary prevention aims at minimizing symptoms and is accomplished through early identification of problems and prompt initiation of effective treatment.
A nursing student questions an instructor regarding the order for fluvoxamine (Luvox), 300 mg daily, for a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which instructor reply is most accurate? A. High doses of tricyclic medications will be required for effective treatment of OCD. B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) doses, in excess of what is effective for treating depression, may be required for OCD. C. The dose of Luvox is low due to the side effect of daytime drowsiness and nighttime insomnia. D. The dosage of Luvox is outside the therapeutic range and needs to be questioned.
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) doses, in excess of what is effective for treating depression, may be required for OCD. The most accurate instructor response is that SSRI doses in excess of what is effective for treating depression may be required in the treatment of OCD. SSRIs have been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of OCD. Common side effects include headache, sleep disturbances, and restlessness.
A client is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse assign to this client to address a behavioral symptom of this disorder? A. Altered communication R/T feelings of worthlessness AEB anhedonia B. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room C. Altered thought processes R/T hopelessness AEB persecutory delusions D. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T high anxiety AEB anorexia
B. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room A nursing diagnosis of social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room addresses a behavioral symptom of major depressive disorder. Other behavioral symptoms include psychomotor retardation, virtually nonexistent communication, maintaining a fetal position, and no personal hygiene and/or grooming.
A stockbroker commits suicide after being convicted of insider trading. In speaking with the family, which statement by the nurse demonstrates accurate and appropriate sharing of information? A. Your grieving will subside within 1 year; until then I recommend antidepressants. B. Support groups are available specifically for survivors of suicide, and I would be glad to help you locate one in this area. C. The only way to deal effectively with this kind of grief is to write a letter to the brokerage firm to express your anger with them. D. Since stigmatization often occurs in these situations, it would be best if you avoid discussing the suicide with anyone.
B. Support groups are available specifically for survivors of suicide, and I would be glad to help you locate one in this area. Bereavement following suicide is complicated by the complex psychological impact of the act on those close to the victim. Support groups for survivors can provide a meaningful resource for grief work.
Multiple Response A nurse is discussing treatment options with a client whose life has been negatively impacted by claustrophobia. The nurse would expect which of the following behavioral therapies to be most commonly used in the treatment of phobias? Select all that apply. A. Benzodiazepine therapy B. Systematic desensitization C. Imploding (flooding) D. Assertiveness training E. Aversion therapy
B. Systematic desensitization C. Imploding (flooding) The nurse should explain to the client that systematic desensitization and imploding are the most commonly used behavioral therapies in the treatment of phobias. Systematic desensitization involves the gradual exposure of the client to anxiety-provoking stimuli. Imploding is the intervention used in which the client is exposed to extremely frightening stimuli for prolonged periods of time.
Which finding would be most likely in a child diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder? A. The child has a history of antisocial behaviors. B. The childs mother is diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. C. The child previously had an extroverted temperament. D. The childs mother and father have an inconsistent parenting style.
B. The childs mother is diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. The nurse should expect to find a mother diagnosed with an anxiety disorder when assessing a child diagnosed with separation anxiety. Some parents instill anxiety in their children by being overprotective or by exaggerating dangers. Research studies speculate that there is a hereditary influence in the development of separation anxiety disorder.
A client is diagnosed with cyclothymic disorder. What client behaviors should the nurse expect to assess? A. The client expresses feeling blue most of the time. B. The client has endured periods of elation and dysphoria lasting for more than 2 years. C. The client fixates on hopelessness and thoughts of suicide continually. D. The client has labile moods with periods of acute mania.
B. The client has endured periods of elation and dysphoria lasting for more than 2 years. The essential feature of cyclothymic disorder is a chronic mood disturbance of at least 2 years duration, involving numerous episodes of hypomania and depressed mood of insufficient severity or duration to meet the criteria for bipolar I or II disorder.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, The Shopatouliens took my shoes out of my room last night. Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this clients statement? A. The client is experiencing command hallucinations. B. The client is expressing a neologism. C. The client is experiencing a paranoia. D. The client is verbalizing a word salad.
B. The client is expressing a neologism. The nurse should describe the clients statement as experiencing a neologism. A neologism is when a client invents a new word that is meaningless to others but may have symbolic meaning to the client. Word salad refers to a group of words that are put together randomly.
Multiple Response The nurse should recognize which of the following findings contribute to a clients development of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? Select all that apply. A. The clients father was a smoker. B. The client was born 7 weeks premature. C. The client is lactose intolerant. D. The client has a sibling diagnosed with ADHD. E. The client has been diagnosed with dyslexia.
B. The client was born 7 weeks premature. D. The client has a sibling diagnosed with ADHD. The nurse should identify that premature birth and having a sibling diagnosed with ADHD would predispose a client to the development of ADHD. Research indicates evidence of genetic influences in the etiology of ADHD. Studies also indicate that environmental influences such as lead exposure and diet can be linked with the development of ADHD.
Which is a correctly written, appropriate outcome for a client with a history of suicide attempts who is currently exhibiting symptoms of low self-esteem by isolating self? A. The client will not physically harm self. B. The client will express three positive self-attributes by day 4. C. The client will reveal a suicide plan. D. The client will establish a trusting relationship.
B. The client will express three positive self-attributes by day 4. Although the client has a history of suicide attempts, the current problem is isolative behaviors based on low self-esteem. Outcomes should be client centered, specific, realistic, and measureable and contain a time frame.
A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit. The client has an elaborate routine for toileting activities. Which would be an appropriate initial client outcome during the first week of hospitalization? A. The client will refrain from ritualistic behaviors during daylight hours. B. The client will wake early enough to complete rituals prior to breakfast. C. The client will participate in three unit activities by day 3. D. The client will substitute a productive activity for rituals by day 1.
B. The client will wake early enough to complete rituals prior to breakfast. An appropriate initial client outcome is for the client to wake early enough to complete rituals prior to breakfast. The nurse should also provide a structured schedule of activities and later in treatment begin to gradually limit the time allowed for rituals.
A client who is diagnosed with major depressive disorder asks the nurse what causes depression. Which of these is the most accurate response? A. Depression is caused by a deficiency in neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine. B. The exact cause of depressive disorders is unknown. A number of things, including genetic, biochemical, and environmental influences, likely play a role. C. Depression is a learned state of helplessness cause by ineffective parenting. D. Depression is caused by intrapersonal conflict between the id and the ego.
B. The exact cause of depressive disorders is unknown. A number of things, including genetic, biochemical, and environmental influences, likely play a role. Depression is likely an illness that has varied and multiple causative factors, but at present the exact cause of depressive disorders is not entirely understood.
A nursing instructor is teaching about specific phobias. Which student statement should indicate that learning has occurred? A. These clients do not recognize that their fear is excessive, and they rarely seek treatment. B. These clients have overwhelming symptoms of panic when exposed to the phobic stimulus. C. These clients experience symptoms that mirror a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). D. These clients experience the symptoms of tachycardia, dysphagia, and diaphoresis.
B. These clients have overwhelming symptoms of panic when exposed to the phobic stimulus. The nursing instructor should evaluate that learning has occurred when the student knows that clients experiencing phobias have a panic level of fear that is overwhelming and unreasonable. Phobia is fear cued by a specific object or situation in which exposure to the stimulus produces an immediate anxiety response.
A nursing instructor is teaching about the prevalence of bipolar disorder. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. This disorder is more prevalent in the lower socioeconomic groups. B. This disorder is more prevalent in the higher socioeconomic groups. C. This disorder is equally prevalent in all socioeconomic groups. D. This disorders prevalence cannot be evaluated on the basis of socioeconomic groups.
B. This disorder is more prevalent in the higher socioeconomic groups. The nursing student is accurate when stating that bipolar disorder is more prevalent in higher socioeconomic groups. Theories consider both hereditary and environmental factors in the etiology of bipolar disorder.
A homeless client comes to an emergency department reporting cough, night sweats, weight loss, and blood-tinged sputum. What disease that has recently become more prevalent among the homeless community should a nurse suspect? A. Meningitis B. Tuberculosis C. Encephalopathy D. Mononucleosis
B. Tuberculosis The nurse should suspect that the homeless client has contracted tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a growing problem among homeless individuals because of being in crowded shelters, which are ideal conditions for the spread of respiratory tuberculosis. Alcoholism, drug addiction, HIV infection, and poor nutrition also contribute to the increase in cases of tuberculosis.
A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder: manic episode refuses to take lithium carbonate because he complains that it makes him feel sick. Which of the following medications might be alternatively prescribed for mood stabilization in bipolar disorders? A. Sertraline (Zoloft) B. Valproic acid (Depakote) C. Trazodone (Desyrel) D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
B. Valproic acid (Depakote) Although lithium is a prototype drug in the treatment of bipolar disorders, anticonvulsants such as valproic acid also have demonstrated efficacy for mood stabilization.
A client slammed a door on the unit several times. The nurse responds, You seem angry. The client states, Im not angry. What therapeutic communication technique has the nurse employed, and what defense mechanism is the client unconsciously demonstrating? A. Making observations and the defense mechanism of suppression B. Verbalizing the implied and the defense mechanism of denial C. Reflection and the defense mechanism of projection D. Encouraging descriptions of perceptions and the defense mechanism of displacement
B. Verbalizing the implied and the defense mechanism of denial This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of verbalizing the implied. The nurse is putting into words what the client has only implied by words or actions. Denial is the refusal of the client to acknowledge the existence of a real situation, the feelings associated with it, or both.
A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit for evaluation and medication stabilization. Which therapeutic communication technique used by the nurse is an example of a broad opening? A. What occurred prior to the rape, and when did you go to the emergency department? B. What would you like to talk about? C. I notice you seem uncomfortable discussing this. D. How can we help you feel safe during your stay here?
B. What would you like to talk about? The nurses statement, What would you like to talk about? is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of giving broad openings. Using a broad opening allows the client to take the initiative in introducing the topic and emphasizes the importance of the clients role in the interaction.
A client is taking chlordiazepoxide (Librium) for generalized anxiety disorder symptoms. In which situation should a nurse recognize that this client is at greatest risk for drug overdose? A. When the client has a knowledge deficit related to the effects of the drug B. When the client combines the drug with alcohol C. When the client takes the drug on an empty stomach D. When the client fails to follow dietary restrictions
B. When the client combines the drug with alcohol Both Librium and alcohol are central nervous system depressants. In combination, these drugs have an additive effect and can suppress the respiratory system, leading to respiratory arrest and death.
Which nursing statement is a good example of the therapeutic communication technique of offering self? A. I think it would be great if you talked about that problem during our next group session. B. Would you like me to accompany you to your electroconvulsive therapy treatment? C. I notice that you are offering help to other peers in the milieu. D. After discharge, would you like to meet me for lunch to review your outpatient progress?
B. Would you like me to accompany you to your electroconvulsive therapy treatment? This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of offering self. Offering self makes the nurse available on an unconditional basis, increasing clients feelings of self-worth. Professional boundaries must be maintained when using the technique of offering self.
A client refuses to go on a cruise to the Bahamas with his spouse because of fearing that the cruise ship will sink and all will drown. Using a cognitive theory perspective, the nurse should use which of these statements to explain to the spouse the etiology of this fear? A. Your spouse may be unable to resolve internal conflicts, which result in projected anxiety. B. Your spouse may be experiencing a distorted and unrealistic appraisal of the situation. C. Your spouse may have a genetic predisposition to overreacting to potential danger. D. Your spouse may have high levels of brain chemicals that may distort thinking.
B. Your spouse may be experiencing a distorted and unrealistic appraisal of the situation. The nurse should explain that from a cognitive perspective the client is experiencing a distorted and unrealistic appraisal of the situation. From a cognitive perspective, fear is described as the result of faulty cognitions.
A mother rescues two of her four children from a house fire. In an emergency department, she cries, I should have gone back in to get them. I should have died, not them. Which of the following responses by the nurse is an example of reflection? A. The smoke was too thick. You couldnt have gone back in. B. Youre feeling guilty because you werent able to save your children. C. Focus on the fact that you could have lost all four of your children. D. Its best if you try not to think about what happened. Try to move on.
B. Youre feeling guilty because you werent able to save your children. The best response by the nurse is, Youre experiencing feelings of guilt because you werent able to save your children. This response utilizes the therapeutic communication technique of reflection, which identifies a clients emotional response and reflects these feelings back to the client so that they may be recognized and accepted.
A nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic episode. In which order should the nurse prioritize the listed client outcomes? Client Outcomes: 1. Maintains nutritional status. 2. Interacts appropriately with peers. 3. Remains free from injury. 4. Sleeps 6 to 8 hours a night. A. 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 4, 1, 2, 3 C. 3, 1, 4, 2 D. 1, 4, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 4, 2 The nurse should order client outcomes based on priority in the following order: Remains free of injury, maintains nutritional status, sleeps 6 to 8 hours a night, and interacts appropriately with peers. The nurse should prioritize the clients physical and safety needs.
A recovering alcoholic relapses and drinks a glass of wine. The client presents in the emergency department (ED) experiencing severe throbbing headache, tachycardia, flushed face, dyspnea, and continuous vomiting. What may these symptoms indicate to the ED nurse? A. Alcohol poisoning B. Cardiovascular accident (CVA) C. A reaction to disulfiram (Antabuse) D. A reaction to tannins in the red wine
C. A reaction to disulfiram (Antabuse) Ingestion of alcohol while disulfiram is in the body results in a syndrome of symptoms that can produce a good deal of discomfort for the individual. Symptoms may include flushed skin, throbbing in the head and neck, respiratory difficulty, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, confusion, hypotension, and tachycardia.
On the first day of a clients alcohol detoxification, which nursing intervention should take priority? A. Strongly encourage the client to attend 90 Alcoholics Anonymous meetings in 90 days. B. Educate the client about the biopsychosocial consequences of alcohol abuse. C. Administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. D. Administer vitamin B1 to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
C. Administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. The priority nursing intervention for this client should be to administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is a benzodiazepine and is often used for substitution therapy in alcohol withdrawal. Substitution therapy may be required to reduce life-threatening effects of the rebound stimulation of the central nervous system that occurs during withdrawal.
A college student is unable to take a final examination because of severe test anxiety. Instead of studying, the student relieves stress by attending a movie. Which priority nursing diagnosis should a campus nurse assign for this client? A. Noncompliance R/T test taking B. Ineffective role performance R/T helplessness C. Altered coping R/T anxiety D. Powerlessness R/T fear
C. Altered coping R/T anxiety The priority nursing diagnosis for this client is altered coping R/T anxiety. The nurse should assist in implementing interventions that should improve the clients healthy coping skills and reduce anxiety.
A client on an inpatient unit is diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic episode. During a discussion in the dayroom about weekend activities, the client raises his voice, becomes irritable, and insists that plans change. What should be the nurses initial intervention? A. Ask the group to take a vote on alternative weekend events. B. Remind the client to quiet down or leave the dayroom. C. Assist the client to move to a calmer location. D. Discuss with the client impulse control problems.
C. Assist the client to move to a calmer location. During a manic episode, the client experiences increased agitation and extreme hyperactivity that can lead to a risk for injury. Overstimulation can exacerbate these symptoms. Therefore, the nurses initial action should focus on removing the client from the stimulating environment to a calmer location.
A nurse is caring for four clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. When considering each clients belief system, the nurse should conclude which client would potentially be at highest risk for suicide? A. Roman Catholic B. Protestant C. Atheist D. Muslim
C. Atheist Depressed men and women who consider themselves affiliated with a religion are less likely to attempt suicide than their nonreligious counterparts.
The nurse believes that a client being admitted for a surgical procedure may have a drinking problem. How should the nurse further evaluate this possibility? A. By asking directly if the client has ever had a problem with alcohol B. By holistically assessing the client, using the CIWA scale C. By using a screening tool such as the CAGE questionnaire D. By referring the client for physician evaluation
C. By using a screening tool such as the CAGE questionnaire The CAGE questionnaire is a screening tool used to determine whether the individual has a problem with alcohol. This questionnaire is composed of four simple questions. Scoring two or three yes answers strongly suggests a problem with alcohol.
How would a nurse differentiate a client diagnosed with a social phobia from a client diagnosed with a schizoid personality disorder (SPD)? A. Clients diagnosed with social phobia can manage anxiety without medications, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD can manage anxiety only with medications. B. Clients diagnosed with SPD are distressed by the symptoms experienced in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with social phobia are not. C. Clients diagnosed with social phobia avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life. D. Clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with social phobias tend to avoid interactions in all areas of life.
C. Clients diagnosed with social phobia avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life. Clients diagnosed with social phobia avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life. Social phobia is an excessive fear of situations in which a person might do something embarrassing or be evaluated negatively by others.
How should a nurse best describe the major maladaptive client response to panic disorder? A. Clients overuse medical care because of physical symptoms. B. Clients use illegal drugs to ease symptoms. C. Clients perceive having no control over life situations. D. Clients develop compulsions to deal with anxiety
C. Clients perceive having no control over life situations. The major maladaptive client response to panic disorder is the perception of having no control over life situations, which leads to nonparticipation in decision making and doubts regarding role performance.
The nurse is providing counseling to clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The nurse chooses to help the clients alter their mood by learning how to change the way they think. The nurse is functioning under which theoretical framework? A. Psychoanalytic theory B. Interpersonal theory C. Cognitive theory D. Behavioral theory
C. Cognitive theory Cognitive theory suggests that depression is a product of negative thinking. Helping the individual change the way they think is believed to have a positive impact on mood and self-esteem.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, My psychiatrist is out to get me. Im sad that the voice is telling me to stop him. What symptom is the client exhibiting, and what is the nurses legal responsibility related to this symptom? A. Magical thinking; administer an antipsychotic medication B. Persecutory delusions; orient the client to reality C. Command hallucinations; warn the psychiatrist D. Altered thought processes; call an emergency treatment team meeting
C. Command hallucinations; warn the psychiatrist The nurse should determine that the client is exhibiting command hallucinations. The nurses legal responsibility is to warn the psychiatrist of the potential for harm. A client who is demonstrating a risk for violence could potentially become physically, emotionally, and/or sexually harmful to others or to self.
A depressed client reports to a nurse a history of divorce, job loss, family estrangement, and cocaine abuse. According to learning theory, what is the cause of this clients symptoms? A. Depression is a result of anger turned inward. B. Depression is a result of abandonment. C. Depression is a result of repeated failures. D. Depression is a result of negative thinking.
C. Depression is a result of repeated failures. Learning theory describes a model of learned helplessness in which multiple life failures cause the client to abandon future attempts to succeed.
Which client data indicate that a suicidal client is participating in a plan for safety? A. Compliance with antidepressant therapy B. A mood rating of 9/10 C. Disclosing a plan for suicide to staff D. Expressing feelings of hopelessness to nurse
C. Disclosing a plan for suicide to staff A degree of the responsibility for the suicidal clients safety is given to the client. When a client shares with staff a plan for suicide, the client is participating in a plan for safety by communicating thoughts of self-harm that would initiate interventions to prevent suicide.
A client with a history of insomnia has been taking chlordiazepoxide (Librium), 15 mg, at night for the past year. The client currently reports that this dose is no longer helping him fall asleep. Which nursing diagnosis appropriately documents this problem? A. Ineffective coping R/T unresolved anxiety AEB substance abuse B. Anxiety R/T poor sleep AEB difficulty falling asleep C. Disturbed sleep pattern R/T Librium tolerance AEB difficulty falling asleep D. Risk for injury R/T addiction to Librium
C. Disturbed sleep pattern R/T Librium tolerance AEB difficulty falling asleep Tolerance is defined as the need for increasingly larger or more frequent doses of a substance in order to obtain the desired effects originally produced by a lower dose.
Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when their child, diagnosed with schizophrenia, tells them that voices command him to harm others. Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. Tell him to stop discussing the voices. B. Ignore what he is saying, while attempting to discover the underlying cause. C. Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality. D. Present objective evidence that the voices are not real.
C. Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality. The most appropriate response by the nurse is to instruct the parents to focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality. The parents should maintain an attitude of acceptance to encourage communication but should not reinforce the hallucinations by exploring details of content. It is inappropriate to present logical arguments to persuade the client to accept the hallucinations as not real.
Which therapeutic communication technique is being used in this nurseclient interaction? Client: When I am anxious, the only thing that calms me down is alcohol. Nurse: Other than drinking, what alternatives have you explored to decrease anxiety? A. Reflecting B. Making observations C. Formulating a plan of action D. Giving recognition
C. Formulating a plan of action The nurse is using the therapeutic communication technique of formulating a plan of action to help the client explore alternatives to drinking alcohol. The use of this technique, rather than direct confrontation regarding the clients poor coping choice, may serve to prevent anger or anxiety from escalating.
A preschool child diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder has been engaging in constant head-banging behavior. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? A. Place client in restraints until the aggression subsides. B. Sedate the client with neuroleptic medications. C. Hold clients head steady and apply a helmet. D. Distract the client with a variety of games and puzzles.
C. Hold clients head steady and apply a helmet. The most appropriate intervention for head banging is to hold the clients head steady and apply a helmet. The helmet is the least restrictive intervention and will serve to protect the clients head from injury.
A client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder is admitted for social skills training. Which information should be taught by the nurse? A. The side effects of medications B. Deep breathing techniques to decrease stress C. How to make eye contact when communicating D. How to be a leader
C. How to make eye contact when communicating The nurse should plan to teach the client how to make eye contact when communicating. Social skills, such as making eye contact, can assist clients in communicating needs and maintaining connectedness.
Which nursing statement is a good example of the therapeutic communication technique of giving recognition? A. You did not attend group today. Can we talk about that? B. Ill sit with you until it is time for your family session. C. I notice you are wearing a new dress and you have washed your hair. D. Im happy that you are now taking your medications. They will really help.
C. I notice you are wearing a new dress and you have washed your hair. This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of giving recognition. Giving recognition acknowledges and indicates awareness. This technique is more appropriate than complimenting the client, which reflects the nurses judgment.
An instructor is correcting a nursing students clinical worksheet. Which instructor statement is the best example of effective feedback? A. Why did you use the clients name on your clinical worksheet? B. You were very careless to refer to your client by name on your clinical worksheet. C. I noticed that you used the clients name in your written process recording. That is a breach of confidentiality. D. It is disappointing that after being told, you're still using client names on your worksheet.
C. I noticed that you used the clients name in your written process recording. That is a breach of confidentiality. The instructors statement, I noticed that you used the clients name in your written process recording, is an example of effective feedback. Feedback is a method of communication to help others consider a modification of behavior. Feedback should be descriptive, specific, and directed toward a behavior that the person has the capacity to modify and should impart information rather than offer advice or criticism.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, Cant you hear him? Its the devil. Hes telling me Im going to hell. Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. Did you take your medicine this morning? B. You are not going to hell. You are a good person. C. Im sure the voices sound scary. I dont hear any voices speaking. D. The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence.
C. Im sure the voices sound scary. I dont hear any voices speaking. The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to reassure the client with an accepting attitude while not reinforcing the hallucination.
Upon admission for symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, a client states, I havent eaten in 3 days. Assessment reveals BP 170/100 mm Hg, P 110, R 28, and T 97F (36C) with dry skin, dry mucous membranes, and poor skin turgor. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis? A. Knowledge deficit B. Fluid volume excess C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements D. Ineffective individual coping
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements The nurse should assess that the priority nursing diagnosis is imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. The client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of malnutrition as well as alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should consult a dietitian, restrict sodium intake to minimize fluid retention, and provide small, frequent feedings of nonirritating foods.
A client with a history of three suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for 1 month. The client suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9/10, and is much more communicative. Which action should be the nurses priority at this time? A. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement. B. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group. C. Increase frequency of client observation. D. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.
C. Increase frequency of client observation. The nurse should be aware that a sudden increase in mood rating and change in affect could indicate that the client is at risk for suicide and client observation should be more frequent. Suicide risk may occur early during treatment with antidepressants. The return of energy may bring about an increased ability to act out self-destructive behaviors prior to attaining the full therapeutic effect of the antidepressant medication.
Which intervention should the nurse consider as primary prevention for an individual who is on the verge of being homeless because of a job layoff? A. Referral to primary care provider to improve general health status B. Encouraging client to recognize reasons for job layoff C. Job training to increase employment options D. Encouraging the use of prn medications to control symptoms
C. Job training to increase employment options When the nurse implements primary prevention interventions, the nurse is providing services aimed at reducing the incidences of mental disorders within the population. In this situation, there is emphasis on providing education and support to unemployed or homeless individuals.
A client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder states, Do you think I should move from my parents house and get a job? Which nursing response is most appropriate? A. It would be best to do that in order to increase independence. B. Why would you want to leave a secure home? C. Lets discuss and explore all of your options. D. Im afraid you would feel very guilty leaving your parents.
C. Lets discuss and explore all of your options. The most appropriate response by the nurse is, Lets discuss and explore all of your options. In this example, the nurse is encouraging the client to formulate ideas and decide independently the appropriate course of action.
Which treatment should a nurse identify as most appropriate for clients diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? A. Long-term treatment with diazepam (Valium) B. Acute symptom control with citalopram (Celexa) C. Long-term treatment with buspirone (BuSpar) D. Acute symptom control with ziprasidone (Geodon)
C. Long-term treatment with buspirone (BuSpar) The nurse should identify that an appropriate treatment for clients diagnosed with GAD is long-term treatment with buspirone. Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication that is effective in 60% to 80% of clients with GAD. It takes 10 to 14 days for alleviation of symptoms but does not have the dependency concerns of other anxiolytics.
A clients younger daughter is ignoring curfew. The client states, Im afraid she will get pregnant. The nurse responds, Hang in there. Dont you think she has a lot to learn about life? This is an example of which communication block? A. Requesting an explanation B. Belittling the client C. Making stereotyped comments D. Probing
C. Making stereotyped comments This is an example of the nontherapeutic communication block of making stereotyped comments. Clichs and trite expressions are meaningless in a therapeutic nurseclient relationship.
A client is newly committed to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which nursing intervention best lowers this clients risk for suicide? A. Encouraging participation in the milieu to promote hope B. Developing a strong personal relationship with the client C. Observing the client at intervals determined by assessed data D. Encouraging and redirecting the client to concentrate on happier times
C. Observing the client at intervals determined by assessed data The nurse should observe the actively suicidal client continuously for the first hour after admission. After a full assessment the treatment team will determine the observation status of the client. Observation of the client allows the nurse to interrupt any observed suicidal behaviors.
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder with psychotic features hears voices commanding self-harm. The client refuses to commit to developing a plan for safety. What should be the nurses priority intervention at this time? A. Obtaining an order for locked seclusion until client is no longer suicidal B. Conducting 15-minute checks to ensure safety C. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while monitoring suicidal ideations D. Encouraging client to express feelings related to suicide
C. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while monitoring suicidal ideations The nurses priority intervention when a client hears voices commanding self-harm is to place the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideation.
A nurse discovers a clients suicide note that details the time, place, and means to commit suicide. What should be the priority nursing intervention and the rationale for this action? A. Administering lorazepam (Ativan) prn, because the client is angry about the discovery of the note B. Establishing room restrictions, because the clients threat is an attempt to manipulate the staff C. Placing this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide D. Calling an emergency treatment team meeting, because the clients threat must be addressed
C. Placing this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide The priority nursing action should be to place this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. The appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be risk for suicide.
Which should be the priority nursing intervention when caring for a child diagnosed with conduct disorder? A. Modify the environment to decrease stimulation and provide opportunities for quiet reflection. B. Convey unconditional acceptance and positive regard. C. Recognize escalating aggressive behaviors and intervene before violence occurs. D. Provide immediate positive feedback for appropriate behaviors.
C. Recognize escalating aggressive behaviors and intervene before violence occurs. The priority nursing intervention when caring for a child diagnosed with conduct disorder should be to recognize escalating aggressive behaviors and to intervene before violence occurs. This intervention serves to keep the client and others safe. This is the priority nursing concern.
A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol), 50 mg bid; benztropine (Cogentin), 1 mg prn; and zolpidem (Ambien), 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine? A. Tactile hallucinations B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices
C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity The symptom of tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices would be addressed by an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia, a potentially irreversible condition, would warrant the discontinuation of an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. An anticholinergic medication such as benztropine would be used to treat the extrapyramidal symptoms of restlessness and muscle rigidity.
An elderly client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, the nurse would most appropriately make which statement? A. Make sure you concentrate on taking slow, deep, cleansing breaths. B. Watch your diet and try to engage in some regular physical activity. C. Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing. D. Wear sunscreen and try to avoid midday sun exposure.
C. Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing. The most appropriate statement by the nurse is to instruct the client to rise slowly when changing positions. Antipsychotic medications and beta blockers cause a decrease in blood pressure. When given in combination, this side effect places the client at risk for developing orthostatic hypotension.
A 75-year-old client with a long history of depression is currently on doxepin (Sinequan), 100 mg daily. The client takes a daily diuretic for hypertension and is recovering from the flu. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign highest priority? A. Risk for ineffective thermoregulation R/T anhidrosis B. Risk for constipation R/T excessive fluid loss C. Risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension D. Risk for infection R/T suppressed white blood cell count
C. Risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension A side effect of Sinequan is orthostatic hypotension. Dehydration due to fluid loss from a combination of diuretic medication and flu symptoms can also contribute to this problem, putting this client at risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension
A client diagnosed with brief psychotic disorder tells a nurse about voices telling him to kill the president. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client? A. Disturbed sensory perception B. Altered thought processes C. Risk for violence: directed toward others D. Risk for injury
C. Risk for violence: directed toward others The nurse should prioritize the diagnosis risk for violence: directed toward others. A client who hears voices telling him to kill someone is at risk for responding and reacting to the command hallucination. Other risk factors for violence include aggressive body language, verbal aggression, catatonic excitement, and rage reactions.
A newly admitted client is experiencing a manic episode of bipolar I disorder and presents as very agitated. The nurse should assign which priority nursing diagnosis to this client? A. Ineffective individual coping R/T hospitalization AEB alcohol abuse B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T mania AEB 10-pound weight loss C. Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T agitation and hyperactivity D. Sleep pattern disturbance R/T flight of ideas AEB sleeps 1 to 2 hours per night
C. Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T agitation and hyperactivity Some signs and symptoms of mania include manic excitement, delusional thinking, and hallucinations, which may predispose the client to aggressive behavior. Nurses should be alert to the risk for self or other directed violence and intervene immediately at the first signs of agitation or aggression.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom? A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom
C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom The nurse should expect the physician to order risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Risperidone (Risperdal) is an atypical antipsychotic used to reduce positive symptoms, including disturbances in content of thought (delusions), form of thought (neologisms), or sensory perception (hallucinations).
When interviewing a client, which nonverbal behavior should a nurse employ? A. Maintaining indirect eye contact with the client B. Providing space by leaning back away from the client C. Sitting squarely, facing the client D. Maintaining open posture with arms and legs crossed
C. Sitting squarely, facing the client When interviewing a client, the nurse should employ the nonverbal behavior of sitting squarely, facing the client. Facilitative skills for active listening can be identified by the acronym SOLER. SOLER includes sitting squarely facing the client (S), open posture when interacting with a client (O), leaning forward toward the client (L), establishing eye contact (E), and relaxing (R).
Warrens college roommate actively resists going out with friends whenever they invite him. He says he cant stand to be around other people and confides to Warren They wouldnt like me anyway. Which disorder is Warrens roommate likely suffering from? A. Agoraphobia B. Mysophobia C. Social anxiety disorder (social phobia) D. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder (social phobia) Social anxiety disorder is an excessive fear of social situations R/T fear that one might do something embarrassing or be evaluated negatively by others.
A nursing instructor is teaching students about the Community Health Centers Act of 1963. What was a deterring factor to the proper implementation of this act? A. Many perspective clients did not meet criteria for mental illness diagnostic-related groups. B. Zoning laws discouraged the development of community mental health centers. C. States could not match federal funds to establish community mental health centers. D. There was not a sufficient employment pool to staff community mental health centers.
C. States could not match federal funds to establish community mental health centers. A deterring factor to the proper implementation of the Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963 was that states could not match federal funds to establish community mental health centers. This act called for the construction of comprehensive community mental health centers to offset the effects of deinstitutionalization caused by the closing of state mental health hospitals.
A client is experiencing a severe panic attack. Which nursing intervention would meet this clients immediate need? A. Teach deep breathing relaxation exercises B. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position C. Stay with the client and offer reassurance of safety D. Administer the ordered prn buspirone (BuSpar)
C. Stay with the client and offer reassurance of safety The nurse can meet this clients immediate need by staying with the client and offering reassurance of safety and security. The client may fear for his or her life, and the presence of a trusted individual provides assurance of personal safety.
A new nursing graduate asks the psychiatric nurse manager how to best classify suicide. Which is the nurse managers best reply? A. Suicide is a DSM-5 diagnosis. B. Suicide is a mental disorder. C. Suicide is a behavior. D. Suicide is an antisocial affliction
C. Suicide is a behavior. Suicide is not a diagnosis, disorder, or affliction. It is a behavior.
A nurse is implementing care within the parameters of tertiary prevention. Which nursing action is an example of this type of care? A. Teaching an adolescent about pregnancy prevention B. Teaching an elderly client the reportable side effects of a newly prescribed neuroleptic medication C. Teaching a client with schizophrenia to cook meals, make a grocery list, and establish a budget D. Teaching a client about his or her new diagnosis of bipolar disorder
C. Teaching a client with schizophrenia to cook meals, make a grocery list, and establish a budget The nurse who teaches a client to cook meals, make a grocery list, and establish a budget is implementing care within the parameters of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention is services aimed at reducing the residual effects that are associated with severe and persistent mental illness. It is accomplished by promoting rehabilitation that is directed toward achievement of maximum functioning.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic agent daily. Which assessment finding should a nurse immediately report to the clients attending psychiatrist? A. Respirations of 22 beats/minute B. Weight gain of 8 pounds in 2 months C. Temperature of 104F (40C) D. Excessive salivation
C. Temperature of 104F (40C) When assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who takes an antipsychotic agent daily, the nurse should immediately address a temperature of 104F (40C). A temperature this high can be a symptom of the rare but life-threatening neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
When a home health nurse administers an outpatients injection of haloperidol decanoate (Haldol decanoate), which level of care is the nurse providing? A. Primary prevention level of care B. Secondary prevention level of care C. Tertiary prevention level of care D. Case management level of care
C. Tertiary prevention level of care When administering this long-acting antipsychotic medication, the nurse is providing a tertiary prevention level of care. Tertiary prevention services are aimed at reducing the residual effects associated with severe and persistent mental illness. It is accomplished by preventing complications of the illness and promoting rehabilitation directed toward achievement of maximum functioning.
A client diagnosed with generalized anxiety states, I know the best thing for me to do now is to just forget my worries. How should the nurse evaluate this statement? A. The client is developing insight. B. The clients coping skills are improving. C. The client has a distorted perception of problem resolution. D. The client is meeting outcomes and moving toward discharge.
C. The client has a distorted perception of problem resolution. This client has a distorted perception of how to deal with the problem of anxiety. Clients should be encouraged to openly deal with anxiety and recognize the triggers that precipitate anxiety responses.
A client diagnosed with alcohol use disorder joins a community 12-step program and states, My life is unmanageable. How should the nurse interpret this clients statement? A. The client is using minimization as an ego defense. B. The client is ready to sign an Alcoholics Anonymous contract for sobriety. C. The client has accomplished the first of 12 steps advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous. D. The client has met the requirements to be designated as an Alcoholics Anonymous sponsor.
C. The client has accomplished the first of 12 steps advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous. The first step of the 12-step program advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous is that clients must admit powerlessness over alcohol and that their lives have become unmanageable.
A newly admitted client has taken thioridazine (Mellaril) for 2 years, with good symptom control. Symptoms exhibited on admission included paranoia and hallucinations. The nurse should recognize which potential cause for the return of these symptoms? A. The client has developed tolerance to the antipsychotic medication. B. The client has not taken the medication with food. C. The client has not taken the medication as prescribed. D. The client has combined alcohol with the medication.
C. The client has not taken the medication as prescribed. Altered thinking can affect a clients insight into the necessity for taking antipsychotic medications consistently. When symptoms are no longer bothersome, clients may stop taking medications that cause disturbing side effects. Clients may miss the connection between taking the medications and an improved symptom profile.
During group therapy, a client diagnosed with alcohol use disorder states, I would not have boozed it up if my wife hadnt been nagging me all the time to get a job. She never did think that I was good enough for her. How should a nurse interpret this statement? A. The client is using denial by avoiding responsibility. B. The client is using displacement by blaming his wife. C. The client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol dependence. D. The client is using reaction formation by appealing to the group for sympathy.
C. The client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol dependence. The nurse should interpret that the client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol use disorder. Rationalization is the defense mechanism by which people avoid taking responsibility for their actions by making excuses for the behavior.
In planning care for a child diagnosed with autistic spectrum disorder, which would be a realistic client outcome? A. The client will communicate all needs verbally by discharge. B. The client will participate with peers in a team sport by day 4. C. The client will establish trust with at least one caregiver by day 5. D. The client will perform most self-care tasks independently.
C. The client will establish trust with at least one caregiver by day 5. The most realistic client outcome for a child diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder is for the client to establish trust with at least one caregiver. Trust should be evidenced by facial responsiveness and eye contact. This outcome relates to the nursing diagnosis impaired social interaction.
A client states, I hear voices that tell me that I am evil. Which outcome related to these symptoms should the nurse expect this client to accomplish by discharge? A. The client will verbalize the reason the voices make derogatory statements. B. The client will not hear auditory hallucinations. C. The client will identify events that increase anxiety and illicit hallucinations. D. The client will positively integrate the voices into the clients personality structure.
C. The client will identify events that increase anxiety and illicit hallucinations. It is unrealistic to expect the client to completely stop hearing voices. Even when compliant with antipsychotic medications, clients may still hear voices. It would be realistic to expect the client to associate stressful events with an increase in auditory hallucinations. By this recognition the client can anticipate symptoms and initiate appropriate coping skills.
A client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which is the priority outcome for this client? A. The client will accomplish activities of daily living independently by discharge. B. The client will verbalize feelings during group sessions by discharge. C. The client will remain safe throughout hospitalization. D. The client will use problem-solving to cope adequately after discharge.
C. The client will remain safe throughout hospitalization. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is at risk for injury in either pole of this disorder. In the manic phase the client is hyperactive and can injure self inadvertently, and in the depressive phase the client can be at risk for suicide.
What client information does a nurse need to assess prior to initiating medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil)? A. The clients understanding of the need for regular bloodwork B. The clients mood and affect score, according to the facilitys mood scale C. The clients cognitive ability to understand information about the medication D. The clients access to a support network willing to participate in treatment
C. The clients cognitive ability to understand information about the medication There are many dietary and medication restrictions when taking Nardil. A client must have the cognitive ability to understand information about the medication and which foods, beverages, and medications to eliminate when taking Nardil.
A client is newly admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which of the following is most critical to assess when determining risk for suicide? A. Family history of depression B. The clients orientation to reality C. The clients history of suicide attempts D. Family support systems
C. The clients history of suicide attempts A history of suicide attempts places a client at a higher risk for current suicide behaviors. Knowing this specific data will alert the nurse to the clients risk.
A child diagnosed with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is having difficulty completing homework assignments. What information should the nurse include when teaching the parents about task performance improvement? A. The parents should isolate the child when completing homework to improve focus. B. The parents should withhold privileges if homework is not completed within a 2-hour period. C. The parents should divide the homework task into smaller steps and provide an activity break. D. The parents should administer an extra dose of methylphenidate (Ritalin) prior to homework.
C. The parents should divide the homework task into smaller steps and provide an activity break. By dividing the homework task into smaller steps, the child can remain more focused within a limited about of time. Physical activity can release pent-up energy that would distract from task completion.
An adult client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal), 400 mg three times a day, for mood stabilization. Which is a true statement about this medication order? A. This dosage is within the recommended dosage range. B. This dosage is lower than the recommended dosage range. C. This dosage is more than twice the recommended dosage range. D. This dosage is four times higher than the recommended dosage range.
C. This dosage is more than twice the recommended dosage range. The recommended dose of lamotrigine for treatment of bipolar disorder in adult clients should not exceed 400 mg daily.
A client living on the beachfront seeks help with an extreme fear of crossing bridges, which interferes with daily life. A psychiatric nurse practitioner decides to try systematic desensitization. Which explanation of this therapy should the nurse convey to the client? A. Using your imagination, we will attempt to achieve a state of relaxation that you can replicate when faced with crossing a bridge. B. Because anxiety and relaxation are mutually exclusive states, we can attempt to substitute a relaxation response for the anxiety response. C. Through a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps, we will gradually increase your tolerance to anxiety. D. In one intense session, you will be exposed to a maximum level of anxiety that you will learn to tolerate.
C. Through a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps, we will gradually increase your tolerance to anxiety. The nurse should explain to the client that systematic desensitization exposes the client to a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps that will gradually increase anxiety tolerance. Systematic desensitization was introduced by Joseph Wolpe in 1958 and is based on behavioral conditioning principles.
The nurse says to a newly admitted client, Tell me more about what led up to your hospitalization. What is the purpose of this therapeutic communication technique? A. To reframe the clients thoughts about mental health treatment B. To put the client at ease C. To explore a subject, idea, experience, or relationship D. To communicate that the nurse is listening to the conversation
C. To explore a subject, idea, experience, or relationship This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of exploring. The purpose of exploring is to delve further into the subject, idea, experience, or relationship. This technique is especially helpful with clients who tend to remain on a superficial level of communication.
A nurse admits an older client who is experiencing memory loss, confused thinking, and apathy. A psychiatrist suspects depression. What is the rationale for performing a mini-mental status exam? A. To rule out bipolar disorder B. To rule out schizophrenia C. To rule out neurocognitive disorder D. To rule out a personality disorder
C. To rule out neurocognitive disorder A mini-mental status exam should be performed to rule out neurocognitive disorder. The elderly are often misdiagnosed with neurocognitive disorder such as Alzheimers disease, when depression is their actual diagnosis. Memory loss, confused thinking, and apathy are common symptoms of depression in the elderly.
A client began taking lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder approximately 1 month ago. The client asks if it is normal to have gained 12 pounds in this time frame. Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. Thats strange. Weight loss is the typical pattern. B. What have you been eating? Weight gain is not usually associated with lithium. C. Weight gain is a common but troubling side effect. D. Weight gain occurs only during the first month of treatment with this drug.
C. Weight gain is a common but troubling side effect. The nurse should explain to the client that weight gain is a common side effect of lithium carbonate. The nurse should educate the client on the importance of medication compliance and discuss concerns with the prescribing physician if the client does not wish to continue taking the medication.
The nurse is interviewing a newly admitted psychiatric client. Which nursing statement is an example of offering a general lead? A. Do you know why you are here? B. Are you feeling depressed or anxious? C. Yes, I see. Go on. D. Can you chronologically order the events that led to your admission?
C. Yes, I see. Go on. The nurses statement, Yes, I see. Go on, is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of a general lead. Offering a general lead encourages the client to continue sharing information.
A mother questions the decreased effectiveness of methylphenidate (Ritalin), prescribed for her childs attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which nursing reply best addresses the mothers concern? A. The physician will probably switch from Ritalin to a central nervous system stimulant. B. The physician may prescribe an antihistamine with the Ritalin to improve effectiveness. C. Your child has probably developed a tolerance to Ritalin and may need a higher dosage. D. Your child has developed sensitivity to Ritalin and may be exhibiting an allergy.
C. Your child has probably developed a tolerance to Ritalin and may need a higher dosage. The nurse should explain to the mother that the child has probably developed a tolerance to Ritalin and may need a higher dosage. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a central nervous system stimulant in which tolerance can develop rapidly. Physical and psychological dependence can also occur.
A newly admitted homeless client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, I have been living in a cardboard box for 2 weeks. Why did the government let me down? Which is an appropriate nursing reply? A. Your discharge from the state hospital was done prematurely. Had you remained in the state hospital longer, you would not be homeless. B. Your premature discharge from the state hospital was not intended for patients diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia. C. Your discharge from the state hospital was based on firm principles; however, the resources were not available to make the transition a success. D. Your discharge from the state hospital was based on presumed family support, and this was not forthcoming.
C. Your discharge from the state hospital was based on firm principles; however, the resources were not available to make the transition a success. The most accurate nursing reply is to explain to the client that the resources were not available for successful transitioning out of a state hospital to the community. There are several factors that are thought to contribute to homelessness among the mentally ill: deinstitutionalization, poverty, lack of affordable housing, lack of affordable health care, domestic violence, and addiction disorders.
A clients wife has been making excuses for her alcoholic husbands work absences. In family therapy, she states, I just need to work harder to get him there on time. Which is the appropriate nursing response? A. Why do you assume responsibility for his behaviors? B. Codependency is a typical behavior of spouses of alcoholics. C. Your husband needs to deal with the consequences of his drinking. D. Do you understand what the term enabler means?
C. Your husband needs to deal with the consequences of his drinking. The appropriate nursing response is to use confrontation with caring. In Stage One (The Survival Stage) of recovery from codependency, the codependent person must begin to let go of the denial that problems exist or that his or her personal capabilities are unlimited.
A client on an inpatient psychiatric unit tells the nurse, I should have died, because I am totally worthless. In order to encourage the client to continue talking about feelings, which should be the nursing initial response? A. How would your family feel if you died? B. You feel worthless now, but that can change with time. C. Youve been feeling sad and alone for some time now? D. It is great that you have come in for help.
C. Youve been feeling sad and alone for some time now?
The treatment team is making a discharge decision regarding a previously suicidal client. Which client assessment information should a nurse recognize as contributing to the teams decision? A. No previous admissions for major depressive disorder B. Vital signs stable; no psychosis noted C. Able to comply with medication regimen; able to problem-solve life issues D. Able to participate in a plan for safety; family agrees to constant observation
D. Able to participate in a plan for safety; family agrees to constant observation Participation in a plan of safety and constant family observation will decrease the risk for self-harm. All other answer choices are not directly focused on suicide prevention and safety.
A highly agitated client paces the unit and states, I could buy and sell this place. The clients mood fluctuates from fits of laughter to outbursts of anger. Which is the most accurate documentation of this clients behavior? A. Rates mood 8/10. Exhibiting looseness of association. Euphoric. B. Mood euthymic. Exhibiting magical thinking. Restless. C. Mood labile. Exhibiting delusions of reference. Hyperactive. D. Agitated and pacing. Exhibiting grandiosity. Mood labile.
D. Agitated and pacing. Exhibiting grandiosity. Mood labile. The nurse should document that this clients behavior is Agitated and pacing. Exhibiting grandiosity. Mood labile. The client is exhibiting signs of irritation accompanied by aggressive behavior. Grandiosity refers to an exaggerated sense of power, importance, knowledge, or identity.
An 8-year-old client diagnosed with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) was admitted 5 days ago for management of temper tantrums. What would be a priority nursing intervention during the termination phase of the nurseclient relationship? A. Set a contract with the client to limit acting-out behaviors while hospitalized. B. Teach the importance of taking fluoxetine (Prozac) consistently, even when feeling better. C. Discuss behaviors that are and are not acceptable on the unit. D. Ask the client to demonstrate learned coping skills without direction from the nurse.
D. Ask the client to demonstrate learned coping skills without direction from the nurse. The priority nursing intervention during the termination phase of the nurseclient relationship should include encouraging the client to demonstrate the coping skills learning during the working phase of the nurseclient relationship.
A nursing student is developing a plan of care for a suicidal client. Which documented intervention should the student implement first? A. Communicate therapeutically. B. Observe the client. C. Provide a hazard-free environment. D. Assess suicide risk.
D. Assess suicide risk. Assessment is the first step of the nursing process to gain needed information to determine further appropriate interventions.
The family of a suicidal client is very supportive and requests more facts related to caring for their family member after discharge. Which information should the nurse provide? A. Address only serious suicide threats to avoid the possibility of secondary gain. B. Promote trust by verbalizing a promise to keep suicide attempt information within the family. C. Offer a private environment to provide needed time alone at least once a day. D. Be available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings
D. Be available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings Being available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings increases the potential that a client would confide suicidal ideations to family members.
Which medication orders should a nurse anticipate for a client who has a history of complicated withdrawal from benzodiazepines? A. Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) C. Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepam (Ativan) D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin) The nurse should anticipate that a physician would order chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin) for a client who has a history of complicated withdrawal from benzodiazepines. It is common for long-lasting benzodiazepines to be prescribed for substitution therapy. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an anticonvulsant that would be indicated for a client who has experienced a complicated withdrawal. Complicated withdrawals may progress to seizure activity.
When intervening with a married couple experiencing relationship discord, which reflects a nursing intervention at the secondary level of prevention? A. Assessing how the children are coping with the parents relationship issues B. Supplying the couple with guidelines related to marital seminar leadership C. Teaching the couple about various methods of birth control D. Counseling the couple in relation to open and honest communication skills
D. Counseling the couple in relation to open and honest communication skills Counseling the couple in relation to open and honest communication skills is reflective of a nursing intervention at the secondary level of prevention. Secondary prevention aims at minimizing symptoms and is accomplished through early identification of problems and prompt initiation of effective treatment.
A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse asks the client, Do you receive special messages from certain sources, such as the television or radio? Which potential symptom of this disorder is the nurse assessing? A. Thought insertion B. Paranoia C. Magical thinking D. Delusions of reference
D. Delusions of reference The nurse is assessing for the potential symptom of delusions of reference. A client who believes that he or she receives messages through the radio is experiencing delusions of reference. When a client experiences these delusions, he or she interprets all events within the environment as personal references.
How would a nurse differentiate a client diagnosed with panic disorder from a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? A. GAD is acute in nature, and panic disorder is chronic. B. Chest pain is a common GAD symptom, whereas this symptom is absent in panic disorders. C. Hyperventilation is a common symptom in GAD and rare in panic disorder. D. Depersonalization is commonly seen in panic disorder and absent in GAD
D. Depersonalization is commonly seen in panic disorder and absent in GAD The nurse should recognize that a client diagnosed with panic disorder experiences depersonalization, whereas a client diagnosed with GAD would not. Depersonalization refers to being detached from oneself when experiencing extreme anxiety.
A client states, You wont believe what my husband said to me during visiting hours. He has no right treating me that way. Which nursing response would best assess the situation that occurred? A. Does your husband treat you like this very often? B. What do you think is your role in this relationship? C. Why do you think he behaved like that? D. Describe what happened during your time with your husband.
D. Describe what happened during your time with your husband. This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of exploring. The purpose of using exploring is to delve further into the subject, idea, experience, or relationship. This technique is especially helpful with clients who tend to remain on a superficial level of communication.
A client is newly diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder and spends 45 minutes folding clothes and rearranging them in drawers. Which nursing intervention would best address this clients problem? A. Distract the client with other activities whenever ritual behaviors begin. B. Report the behavior to the psychiatrist to obtain an order for medication dosage increase. C. Lock the room to discourage ritualistic behavior. D. Discuss the anxiety-provoking triggers that precipitate the ritualistic behaviors.
D. Discuss the anxiety-provoking triggers that precipitate the ritualistic behaviors. The nurse should discuss with the client the anxiety-provoking triggers that precipitate the ritualistic behavior. If the client is going to be able to avoid the anxiety, he or she must first learn to recognize precipitating factors. Attempting to distract the client, seeking medication increase, and locking the clients room are not appropriate interventions because they do not help the client recognize anxiety triggers.
A client who frequently exhibits angry outbursts is diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which appropriate feedback should a nurse provide when this client experiences an angry outburst? A. Why do you continue to alienate your peers by your angry outbursts? B. You accomplish nothing when you lose your temper like that. C. Showing your anger in that manner is very childish and insensitive. D. During group, you raised your voice, yelled at a peer, and slammed the door.
D. During group, you raised your voice, yelled at a peer, and slammed the door. The nurse is providing appropriate feedback when stating, During group, you raised your voice, yelled at a peer, and slammed the door. Giving appropriate feedback involves helping the client consider a modification of behavior. Feedback should give information to the client about how he or she is perceived by others. Feedback should not be evaluative or be used to give advice.
A nursing instructor is teaching about suicide. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. Suicidal threats and gestures should be considered manipulative and/or attention-seeking. B. Suicide is the act of a psychotic person. C. All suicidal individuals are mentally ill. D. Fifty to eighty percent of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt.
D. Fifty to eighty percent of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt. It is a fact that between 50% and 80% of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt. All other answer choices are myths about suicide.
A nurse is planning care for a child who is experiencing depression. Which medication is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of depression in children and adolescents? A. Paroxetine (Paxil) B. Sertraline (Zoloft) C. Citalopram (Celexa) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
D. Fluoxetine (Prozac) Fluoxetine (Prozac) is FDA approved for the treatment of depression in children and adolescents. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used in the treatment of depression. All antidepressants carry an FDA warning for increased risk of suicide in children and adolescents.
Laboratory results reveal elevated levels of prolactin in a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. When assessing the client, the nurse should expect to observe which symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Apathy B. Social withdrawal C. Anhedonia D. Galactorrhea E. Gynecomastia
D. Galactorrhea E. Gynecomastia Dopamine blockage, an expected action of antipsychotic medications, also results in prolactin elevation. Galactorrhea and gynecomastia are symptoms of prolactin elevation.
A client is diagnosed with persistent depressive (dysthymia) disorder. Which should a nurse classify as an affective symptom of this disorder? A. Social isolation with a focus on self B. Low energy level C. Difficulty concentrating D. Gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life
D. Gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life The nurse should classify a gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life as an affective symptom of dysthymia. Symptoms of depression can be described as alterations in four areas of human functions: affective, behavioral, cognitive, and physiological. Affective symptoms are those that relate to the mood.
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder states, Ive been feeling down for 3 months. Will I ever feel like myself again? Which reply by the nurse will best assess this clients affective symptoms? A. Have you been diagnosed with any physical disorder within the last 3 months? B. Have you ever felt this way before? C. People who have mood changes often feel better when spring comes. D. Help me understand what you mean when you say, feeling down?
D. Help me understand what you mean when you say, feeling down? The nurse is using a clarifying statement in order to gather more details related to this clients mood.
During a one-to-one session with a client, the client states, Nothing will ever get better, and Nobody can help me. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a nurse to assign to this client at this time? A. Powerlessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements B. Risk for injury R/T altered mood AEB client statements C. Risk for suicide R/T altered mood AEB client statements D. Hopelessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements
D. Hopelessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements The clients statements indicate the problem of hopelessness. Prior to assigning either risk for injury or risk for suicide, a further evaluation of the clients suicidal ideations and intent would be necessary.
A client diagnosed with an obsessive-compulsive disorder spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify? A. Sublimation B. Dissociation C. Rationalization D. Intellectualization
D. Intellectualization The nurse should identify that the client is using the defense mechanism of intellectualization when discussing the rituals of obsessive-compulsive disorder in detail while avoiding discussion of feelings. Intellectualization is an attempt to avoid expressing emotions associated with a stressful situation by using the intellectual processes of logic, reasoning, and analysis.
A suicidal client says to a nurse, Theres nothing to live for anymore. Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. Why dont you consider doing volunteer work in a homeless shelter? B. Lets discuss the negative aspects of your life. C. Things will look better in the morning. D. It sounds like you are feeling pretty hopeless
D. It sounds like you are feeling pretty hopeless This statement verbalizes the clients implied feelings and allows him or her to validate and explore them.
A newly admitted client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) washes hands continually. This behavior prevents unit activity attendance. Which nursing statement best addresses this situation? A. Everyone diagnosed with OCD needs to control their ritualistic behaviors. B. It is important for you to discontinue these ritualistic behaviors. C. Why are you asking for help if you wont participate in unit therapy? D. Lets figure out a way for you to attend unit activities and still wash your hands.
D. Lets figure out a way for you to attend unit activities and still wash your hands. The most appropriate statement by the nurse is, Lets figure out a way for you to attend unit activities and still wash your hands. This statement reflects the therapeutic communication technique of formulating a plan of action. The nurse attempts to work with the client to develop a plan without damaging the therapeutic relationship or increasing the clients anxiety.
Which therapeutic communication technique is being used in this nurseclient interaction? Client: When I get angry, I get into a fistfight with my wife or I take it out on the kids. Nurse: I notice that you are smiling as you talk about this physical violence. A. Encouraging comparison B. Exploring C. Formulating a plan of action D. Making observations
D. Making observations The nurse is using the therapeutic communication technique of making observations when noting that the client smiles when talking about physical violence. The technique of making observations encourages the client to compare personal perceptions with those of the nurse.
Which client statement indicates a knowledge deficit related to substance use? A. Although its legal, alcohol is one of the most widely abused drugs in our society. B. Tolerance to heroin develops quickly. C. Flashbacks from LSD use may reoccur spontaneously. D. Marijuana is like smoking cigarettes. Everyone does it. Its essentially harmless.
D. Marijuana is like smoking cigarettes. Everyone does it. Its essentially harmless. The nurse should determine that the client has a knowledge deficit related to substance use when the client compares marijuana to smoking cigarettes and claims it to be harmless. Both of these substances have potentially harmful effects. Cannabis is the second most widely abused drug in the United States.
When a nurse attempts to provide health-care services to the homeless, what should be a realistic concern? A. Most individuals who are homeless reject help. B. Most individuals who are homeless are suspicious of anyone who offers help. C. Most individuals who are homeless are proud and will often refuse charity. D. Most individuals who are homeless relocate frequently.
D. Most individuals who are homeless relocate frequently. A realistic concern in the provision of health-care services to the homeless is that individuals who are homeless relocate frequently. Frequent relocation confounds service delivery and interferes with providers efforts to ensure appropriate care.
Which client statement expresses a typical underlying feeling of clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder? A. Its just a matter of time and I will be well. B. If I ignore these feelings, they will go away. C. I can fight these feelings and overcome this disorder. D. Nothing will help me feel better.
D. Nothing will help me feel better. Hopelessness and helplessness are typical symptoms of clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder.
A cab driver stuck in traffic is suddenly lightheaded, tremulous, and diaphoretic and experiences tachycardia and dyspnea. An extensive workup in an emergency department reveals no pathology. Which medical diagnosis is suspected, and what nursing diagnosis takes priority? A. Generalized anxiety disorder and a nursing diagnosis of fear B. Altered sensory perception and a nursing diagnosis of panic disorder C. Pain disorder and a nursing diagnosis of altered role performance D. Panic disorder and a nursing diagnosis of panic anxiety
D. Panic disorder and a nursing diagnosis of panic anxiety The nurse should suspect that the client has exhibited signs/symptoms of a panic disorder. The priority nursing diagnosis should be panic anxiety. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, sudden-onset panic attacks in which the person feels intense fear, apprehension, or terror.
A nurse is caring for four clients taking various medications, including imipramine (Tofranil), doxepine (Sinequan), ziprasidone (Geodon), and tranylcypromine (Parnate). The nurse orders a special diet for the client receiving which medication? A. Tofranil B. Senequan C. Geodon D. Parnate
D. Parnate Hypertensive crisis occurs in clients receiving a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) who consume foods or drugs with a high tyramine content.
A nursing instructor is teaching students about the differences between partial and inpatient hospitalization. In what way does partial hospitalization differ from traditional inpatient hospitalization? A. Partial hospitalization does not provide medication administration and monitoring. B. Partial hospitalization does not use an interdisciplinary team. C. Partial hospitalization does not offer a comprehensive treatment plan. D. Partial hospitalization does not provide supervision 24 hours a day.
D. Partial hospitalization does not provide supervision 24 hours a day. The instructor should explain that partial hospitalization does not provide supervision 24 hours a day. Partial hospitalization programs generally offer a comprehensive treatment plan formulated by an interdisciplinary team. This has proved to be an effective method of preventing hospitalization.
10. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate when caring for an acutely agitated client with paranoia? A. Provide neon lights and soft music. B. Maintain continual eye contact throughout the interview. C. Use therapeutic touch to increase trust and rapport. D. Provide personal space to respect the clients boundaries.
D. Provide personal space to respect the clients boundaries. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to provide personal space to respect the clients boundaries. Providing personal space may serve to reduce anxiety and thus reduce the clients risk for violence.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed disulfiram (Antabuse) as a deterrent to alcohol relapse. Which information should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication? A. Only oral ingestion of alcohol will cause a reaction when taking this drug. B. It is safe to drink beverages that have only 12% alcohol content. C. This medication will decrease your cravings for alcohol. D. Reactions to combining Antabuse with alcohol can occur for as long as 2 weeks after stopping the drug.
D. Reactions to combining Antabuse with alcohol can occur for as long as 2 weeks after stopping the drug. If Antabuse is discontinued, it is important for the client to understand that the sensitivity to alcohol may last for as long as 2 weeks.
The inpatient psychiatric unit is being redecorated. At a unit meeting, staff discusses bedroom dcor for clients experiencing mania. The nurse manager evaluates which suggestion as most appropriate? A. Rooms should contain extra-large windows with views of the street. B. Rooms should contain brightly colored walls with printed drapes. C. Rooms should be painted deep colors and located close to the nurses station. D. Rooms should be painted with neutral colors and contain pale-colored accessories.
D. Rooms should be painted with neutral colors and contain pale-colored accessories. Clients experiencing mania are subject to frequent mood variations, easily changing from irritability and anger to sadness and crying. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain low levels of stimuli in the clients environment (low lighting, few people, simple dcor, low noise levels). Anxiety levels rise in a stimulating environment. Neutral colors and pale accessories are most appropriate for a client experiencing mania.
A confused client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The clients spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil). The client presents with restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. What complication does a nurse suspect, and what could be its possible cause? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by ingestion of two different serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by ingestion of an SSRI and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) C. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of an SSRI and an MAOI D. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs
D. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs The nurse should suspect that the client is suffering from serotonin syndrome possibly caused by ingesting two different SSRIs (Zoloft and Paxil). Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, abdominal pain, myoclonus, muscle rigidity, fever, sweating, and tremor.
A nursing instructor is teaching about pharmacological treatments for attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which information about atomoxetine (Strattera) should be included in the lesson plan? A. Strattera, unlike methylphenidate (Ritalin), is a central nervous system depressant. B. When taking Strattera, a client should eliminate all red food coloring from the diet. C. Strattera will be a life-long intervention for clients diagnosed with this disorder. D. Strattera, unlike methylphenidate (Ritalin), is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor.
D. Strattera, unlike methylphenidate (Ritalin), is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Strattera is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Ritalin is classified as a stimulant. The exact mechanism by which these drugs produce a therapeutic effect in ADHD is unknown.
Which term should a nurse use to describe the administration of a central nervous system (CNS) depressant during alcohol withdrawal? A. Antagonist therapy B. Deterrent therapy C. Codependency therapy D. Substitution therapy
D. Substitution therapy A CNS depressant such as Ativan is used during alcohol withdrawal as substitution therapy to prevent life-threatening symptoms that occur because of the rebound reaction of the central nervous system.
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, who has taken lithium carbonate (Lithane) for 1 year, presents in an emergency department with severe diarrhea, blurred vision, and tinnitus. How should the nurse interpret these symptoms? A. Symptoms indicate consumption of foods high in tyramine. B. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate discontinuation syndrome. C. Symptoms indicate the development of lithium carbonate tolerance. D. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity.
D. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity. The nurse should interpret that the clients symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity. The initial signs of toxicity include ataxia, blurred vision, severe diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and tinnitus. Lithium levels should be monitored monthly during maintenance therapy to ensure proper dosage.
Which client statement demonstrates positive progress toward recovery from a substance use disorder? A. I have completed detox and therefore am in control of my drug use. B. I will faithfully attend Narcotic Anonymous (NA) when I cant control my cravings. C. As a church deacon, my focus will now be on spiritual renewal. D. Taking those pills got out of control. It cost me my job, marriage, and children.
D. Taking those pills got out of control. It cost me my job, marriage, and children. A client who takes responsibility for the consequences of substance use is making positive progress toward recovery. This client would most likely be in the working phase of the counseling process, in which he or she accepts the fact that substance use causes problems.
17. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia, who has been taking antipsychotic medication for the last 5 months, presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications B. Agranulocytosis, treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril) C. Extrapyramidal symptoms, treated by administration of benztropine (Cogentin) D. Tardive dyskinesia, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications
D. Tardive dyskinesia, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications The nurse should expect that an ED physician would diagnose the client with tardive dyskinesia and discontinue antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a condition of abnormal involuntary movements of the mouth, tongue, trunk, and extremities that can be an irreversible side effect of typical antipsychotic medications.
Which developmental characteristic should a nurse identify as typical of a client diagnosed with severe intellectual disability? A. The client can perform some self-care activities independently. B. The client has advanced speech development. C. Other than possible coordination problems, the clients psychomotor skills are not affected. D. The client communicates wants and needs by acting out behaviors.
D. The client communicates wants and needs by acting out behaviors. The nurse should identify that a client diagnosed with severe intellectual disability may communicate wants and needs by acting out behaviors. Severe intellectual disability indicates an IQ between 20 and 34. Individuals diagnosed with severe intellectual disability require complete supervision and have minimal verbal skills and poor psychomotor development.
A nurse assesses a client suspected of having major depressive disorder. Which client symptom would eliminate this diagnosis? A. The client is disheveled and malodorous. B. The client refuses to interact with others. C. The client is unable to feel any pleasure. D. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors.
D. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors. The nurse should assess that a client who has maxed-out credit cards and exhibits promiscuous behavior would be exhibiting manic symptoms. According to the DSM-5, these symptoms would rule out the diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia was released from a state mental hospital after 20 years of institutionalization. A nurse should recognize which characteristic that is likely to be exhibited by this client? A. The client is likely to be compliant with treatment because of institutional dependency. B. The client is likely to find a variety of community support services to aid in the transition. C. The client is likely to adjust to the community environment if given sufficient support. D. The client is likely to be admitted at some time to an acute care unit for psychiatric treatment.
D. The client is likely to be admitted at some time to an acute care unit for psychiatric treatment. Because of the chronic nature of this clients diagnosis and commonly occurring medication noncompliance, the nurse would expect recidivism during the course of the illness.
A nurse is interviewing a client in an outpatient drug treatment clinic. To promote success in the recovery process, which outcome should the nurse expect the client to initially accomplish? A. The client will identify one person to turn to for support. B. The client will give up all old drinking buddies. C. The client will be able to verbalize the effects of alcohol on the body. D. The client will correlate life problems with alcohol use.
D. The client will correlate life problems with alcohol use. To promote the recovery process the nurse should expect that the client would initially correlate life problems with alcohol use. Acceptance of the problem is the first step of the recovery process.
During the planning of care for a suicidal client, which correctly written outcome should be a nurses first priority? A. The client will not physically harm self. B. The client will express hope for the future by day 3. C. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse. D. The client will remain safe during the hospital stay.
D. The client will remain safe during the hospital stay. The nurses priority should be that the client will remain safe during the hospital stay. Client safety should always be the nurses priority. The A answer choice is incorrectly written. Correctly written outcomes must be client focused, measurable, and realistic and contain a time frame. Without a time frame, an outcome cannot be correctly evaluated.
A nurse states to a client, Things will look better tomorrow after a good nights sleep. This is an example of which communication technique? A. The therapeutic technique of giving advice B. The therapeutic technique of defending C. The nontherapeutic technique of presenting reality D. The nontherapeutic technique of giving false reassurance
D. The nontherapeutic technique of giving false reassurance The nurses statement, Things will look better tomorrow after a good nights sleep, is an example of the nontherapeutic technique of giving false reassurance. Giving false reassurance indicates to the client that there is no cause for anxiety, thereby devaluing the clients feelings.
A nursing instructor is teaching about the developmental characteristics of clients diagnosed with moderate intellectual disability (ID). Which student statement indicates that further instruction is needed? A. These clients can work in a sheltered workshop setting. B. These clients can perform some personal care activities. C. These clients may have difficulties relating to peers. D. These clients can successfully complete elementary school.
D. These clients can successfully complete elementary school. The nursing student needs further instruction about moderate mental retardation because individuals diagnosed with moderate ID are capable of academic skill up to only a second-grade level. Moderate ID reflects an IQ range of 35 to 49.
During an admission assessment, a nurse notes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia has allergies to penicillin, prochlorperazine (Compazine), and bee stings. On the basis of this assessment data, which antipsychotic medication would be contraindicated? A. Haloperidol (Haldol), because it is used only in elderly patients B. Clozapine (Clozaril), because of a cross-sensitivity to penicillin C. Risperidone (Risperdal), because it exacerbates symptoms of depression D. Thioridazine (Mellaril), because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines
D. Thioridazine (Mellaril), because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines The nurse should know that thioridazine (Mellaril) would be contraindicated because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) and thioridazine are both classified as phenothiazines.
nurse holds the hand of a client who is withdrawing from alcohol. What is the nurses rationale for this intervention? A. To assess for emotional strength B. To assess for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome C. To assess for tachycardia D. To assess for fine tremors
D. To assess for fine tremors The nurse is most likely assessing the client for fine tremors secondary to alcohol withdrawal. Withdrawal from alcohol can also cause headache, insomnia, transient hallucinations, depression, irritability, anxiety, elevated blood pressure, sweating, tachycardia, malaise, coarse tremors, and seizure activity.
What is the purpose of a nurse providing appropriate feedback? A. To give the client good advice B. To advise the client on appropriate behaviors C. To evaluate the clients behavior D. To give the client critical information
D. To give the client critical information The purpose of providing appropriate feedback is to give the client critical information. Feedback should not be used to give advice or evaluate behaviors.
Which nursing statement best describes the current nature of mental health care in the community? A. All homeless people have a history of institutionalization and are frequently admitted to acute care settings. B. In the United States, the rate of serious mental illness in the prison population is the same as the general population. C. The deinstitutionalization movement in the United States was successful in transitioning clients into the community. D. Today, the majority of clients admitted to psychiatric hospitals are in a crisis stage, and the treatment goal is stabilization.
D. Today, the majority of clients admitted to psychiatric hospitals are in a crisis stage, and the treatment goal is stabilization. The majority of clients admitted to psychiatric hospitals are in a crisis stage, and the treatment goal is stabilization and reintroduction into the community. Crisis situations can occur because of treatment noncompliance and exacerbations of the chronic mental illness.
A nursing instructor is discussing various challenges in the treatment of clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which student statement demonstrates an understanding of the most critical challenge in the care of these clients? A. Treatment is compromised when clients cant sleep. B. Treatment is compromised when irritability interferes with social interactions. C. Treatment is compromised when clients have no insight into their problems. D. Treatment is compromised when clients choose not to take their medications.
D. Treatment is compromised when clients choose not to take their medications. The nursing student should understand that the most critical challenge in the care of clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder is that treatment is often compromised when clients choose to not take their medications. Symptoms of bipolar disorder will reemerge if medication is stopped.
A client tells the nurse, I feel bad because my mother does not want me to return home after I leave the hospital. Which nursing response is therapeutic? A. Its quite common for clients to feel that way after a lengthy hospitalization. B. Why dont you talk to your mother? You may find out she doesnt feel that way. C. Your mother seems like an understanding person. Ill help you approach her. D. You feel that your mother does not want you to come back home?
D. You feel that your mother does not want you to come back home? This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of restatement. Restatement is the repeating of the main idea that the client has verbalized. This lets the client know whether or not an expressed statement has been understood and gives him or her the chance to continue, or clarify if necessary.
Which nursing statement is a good example of the therapeutic communication technique of focusing? A. Describe one of the best things that happened to you this week. B. Im having a difficult time understanding what you mean. C. Your counseling session is in 30 minutes. Ill stay with you until then. D. You mentioned your relationship with your father. Lets discuss that further.
D. You mentioned your relationship with your father. Lets discuss that further This is an example of the therapeutic communication technique of focusing. Focusing takes notice of a single idea or even a single word and works especially well with a client who is moving rapidly from one thought to another.
A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is exhibiting severe manic behaviors. A physician prescribes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) and olanzapine (Zyprexa). The clients spouse questions the Zyprexa order. Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. Zyprexa in combination with Eskalith cures manic symptoms. B. Zyprexa prevents extrapyramidal side effects. C. Zyprexa ensures a good nights sleep. D. Zyprexa calms hyperactivity until the Eskalith takes effect.
D. Zyprexa calms hyperactivity until the Eskalith takes effect. The nurse should explain to the clients spouse that Zyprexa can calm hyperactivity until the Eskalith takes effect. Eskalith may take 1 to 3 weeks to begin to decrease hyperactivity. Zyprexa is classified as an antipsychotic and can be used to immediately to reduce hyperactive symptoms in acute manic episodes.
Chapter 8. Therapeutic Communication
Question and Answer