MGMT 124 Midterm
Reese Enterprises seeks to fill upper-level positions internally whenever possible and uses validated selection tests when considering external hires. This most likely suggests the company is developing a ________. A) high-performance work system B) scorecard management system C) benchmark and metric analysis D) management by objectives strategy
: A) A firm that attempts to fill upper-level positions internally and uses validated selection tests for external candidates is most likely implementing a high-performance work system. Metrics and benchmarks are frequently used to identify and create the policies and practices of HPWSs, but the manner in which jobs are filled does not necessarily indicate the use of metrics and benchmarks.
All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews EXCEPT ________. A) questions presented rapidly B) response times measured for any delays C) questions focused on experience and skills D) essay questions based on hypothetical situations
: D) Most such interviews present a series of multiple-choice questions regarding background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes.
The ________ of the California Energy Commission indicates that the organization assesses and acts through public and private partnerships to improve energy systems that promote a strong economy and a healthy environment. A) mission statement B) strategic plan C) code of ethics D) vision statement
A) A mission statement addresses the question, "What business are we in?" Mission statements explain the scope of an organization's product or services, and they may also address issues of vertical integration, geographic coverage, and competitive advantage.
Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required? A) ratio analysis B) forecasting ratio C) personnel ratio D) ratio matrix
A) A ratio analysis is a forecasting technique for determining future staff needs by using ratios between, for example, sales volume and the number of employees required. For example, if a salesperson usually generates $500,000 in sales, and a firm hopes to produce an extra $3 million in sales, then six new salespeople would need to be hired.
During the job analysis process, the primary purpose of having workers review and modify data collected about their current positions is to ________. A) confirm that the information is correct and complete B) provide a legal benchmark for employer lawsuits C) encourage employees to seek additional job training D) validate the job specification list provided by HR
A) Allowing employees to review and modify the information collected about their current positions provides the opportunity to confirm that the data is correct and complete, which may help gain employee acceptance of the job analysis data and conclusions.
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?" B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?" C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?" D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?"
A) Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when . . . What did you do?" Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with the following situation . . . What would you do?"
In order to generate the desired workforce skill, competencies, and behaviors that a firm needs to achieve its strategic goals, human resource management must first develop ________. A) strategic plans B) HR policies C) employee skills D) company norms
A) Developing strategic plans and goals is the first step of strategic human resource management.
Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________. A) there are fewer people entering the workforce than there are retiring baby boomers B) one-third of single mothers are not employed in the U.S. labor force C) there are too many nontraditional workers holding multiple jobs D) older employees are more family-centric than younger employees
A) Employers are faced with a possible labor shortage because baby boomers account for a large percentage of the workforce. As these workers reach retirement age, younger workers will need to fill the open positions, except there are fewer younger workers available. The family-centric nature and poor work values of younger workers are problematic for employers, but neither one is the cause of a labor shortage.
Newton Manufacturing is using a private employment agency to recruit individuals for management positions. As the HR manager at Newton, you need to ensure that applicants are screened properly, so you should ________. A) provide the agency with an accurate job description B) post jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards C) develop applicant screening software for internal hires D) send HR experts to monitor the agency's recruiting activities
A) Employers can avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies by providing the agency with an accurate job description. Employers should also make sure that tests, applications, and interviews are part of the agency's selection process. The agency should be screened, but it would be costly and time consuming to have HR managers monitor the agency's activities.
Human resource managers generally exert ________ within the human resources department and ________ outside the human resources department. A) line authority; staff authority B) staff authority; line authority C) functional authority; line authority D) staff authority; implied authority
A) HR managers usually have line authority in the HR department, which means they have the right to direct the activities of the people in their own department. However, outside of the HR department, HR managers are likely to exert implied authority because line managers realize that the HR manager has top management's ear in areas like testing and affirmative action. Staff (assist and advise) function refers to a manager's authority to advise managers or employees outside of his or her department.
In most organizations, human resource managers are categorized as ________, who assist and advise ________ in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. A) staff managers; line managers B) line managers; middle managers C) line managers; staff managers D) functional managers; staff managers
A) Human resource managers are usually staff managers. They assist and advise line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. However, line managers still have human resource duties.
Which data collection method is most frequently used in conjunction with direct observation? A) interview B) questionnaire C) electronic log D) survey
A) Managers frequently combine direct observation with personal interviews to gather job analysis information.
A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times
A) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.
In Griggs v. Duke Power Company, Griggs sued the power company because it required coal handlers to be high school graduates. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Griggs because ________. A) high school diplomas were not related to success as a coal handler B) Duke Power Company intentionally discriminated based on race C) no business necessity existed for Duke Power Company D) Title VII forbids job testing
A) The Court ruled in favor of Griggs because having a high school diploma was not relevant to the job of coal handler. The Court held that an employment practice must be job related if it has an unequal impact on members of a protected class.
All of the following are ways for an employee to prove sexual harassment EXCEPT by proving that ________. A) the verbal remarks of a co-worker were sexually flirtatious B) the rejection of a supervisor's sexual advances led to a demotion C) a hostile work environment was created by a co-worker's sexual conversation D) a hostile work environment was created by a nonemployee's sexual advances
A) The U.S. Supreme Court held that sexual harassment law doesn't cover ordinary "intersexual flirtation." Someone can prove sexual harassment if rejecting a supervisor's sexual advances led to a demotion, firing, or altered work assignment. Sexual harassment can also be proven if a hostile work environment is created by the sexual conduct of supervisors, co-workers, or nonemployees.
Which of the following will be the most likely result of the ADA Amendments Act of 2008? A) Employees will find it easier to prove that their disabilities are limiting. B) The number of major life activities considered disabilities will be narrowed. C) Employers will be required to make fewer accommodations for workers with disabilities. D) Employers will be required to hire a specific percentage of disabled workers to be in
A) The new ADAA's basic effect will be to make it much easier for employees to show that their disabilities are influencing one of their "major life activities," such as reading and thinking.
Which of the following factors is NOT an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963? A) gender B) seniority C) production quality D) production quantity
A) Under the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (amended in 1972), it is unlawful to discriminate in pay on the basis of sex when jobs involve equal work; require equivalent skills, effort, and responsibility; and are performed under similar working conditions. Pay differences derived from seniority systems, merit systems, and systems that measure earnings by production quantity or quality or from any factor other than sex do not violate the act
What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.
A) With concurrent validation, the test scores of current employees are compared with their current job performance. The disadvantage is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants because current employees have already had on-the-job training.
Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, who has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job related? A) employee B) employer C) judge D) EEOC
B) According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once an aggrieved applicant or employee demonstrates that an employment practice (such as "must lift 100 pounds") has a disparate (or "adverse") impact on a particular group, then the burden of proof shifts to the employer, who must show that the challenged practice is job related.
Career FAQs lists things that interviewees should keep in mind when doing an online video interview. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A) clean up the room B) use a new computer C) do a dry run D) look presentable
B) As being prepared for an online video interview is important, using an unfamiliar computer can lead to problems if the interviewee doesn't know its functions well. The interviewee doesn't want technology to get in the way of a successful interview.
Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) Interpersonal skills are difficult to judge from phone interviews. B) Phone interviews can generate spontaneous answers from candidates. C) Candidates prefer phone interviews more than face-to-face interviews. D) Interviewers usually judge candidates the same in phone and face-to-face interviews.
B) Candidates, who are often surprised by an unexpected call from the recruiter, tend to give answers that are spontaneous. Phone interviews can actually be more accurate than face-to-face interviews for judging an applicant's interpersonal skills. In a typical study, interviewers tended to evaluate applicants more favorably in telephone versus face-to-face interviews, particularly where the interviewees were less physically attractive. The applicants themselves preferred the face-to-face interviews.
Which SHRM HR manager competency involves the ability to effectively exchange information with stakeholders? A) relationship management B) communication C) ethical practice D) controlling
B) Communication is the competency that relates to the ability to effectively exchange information with stakeholders.
) Which term refers to software applications used to analyze and draw conclusions from HR data? A) data mines B) talent analytics C) HR scorecards D) digital dashboards
B) Employers increasingly use workforce analytics (or "talent analytics") software applications to analyze their human resources data and to draw conclusions from it. Data mining techniques are used in talent analytics software applications.
Which of the following best explains why employers win the majority of ADA cases? A) Employers make the necessary reasonable accommodations for employees. B) Employees fail to prove that their disabilities affect daily living activities. C) Conservative judges are sympathetic towards most small-business owners. D) Employee attorneys fail to draw connections between Title VII and ADA.
B) Employers traditionally prevailed in almost all—96%—federal circuit court ADA decisions. The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that a disability must be central to the employee's daily living (not just job).
Which Supreme Court case was used to define unfair discrimination in conjunction with EEO laws? A) Brown v. Board of Education B) Griggs v. Duke Power Company C) West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish D) Abington School District v. Schempp
B) Griggs v. Duke Power Company was a landmark Supreme Court case used to define unfair discrimination as put forth in EEO laws such as Title VII. The Court ruled that employment practices must be job related and that discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal.
According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview? A) thank-you notes sent from the candidate to the interviewer B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate C) favorable information about the candidate D) a candidate's extroverted personality
B) Perhaps the most consistent research finding is that interviewers tend to jump to conclusions—make snap judgments—about candidates during the first few minutes of the interview or even before the interview starts, based on test scores or résumé data. Being extroverted is not beneficial for all jobs, and unfavorable information is more influential than favorable information about a candidate.
How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews? A) Situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations. B) Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation. C) Situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and skills. D) Behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations.
B) Situational interviews ask applicants to describe how they would react to a hypothetical situation today or tomorrow, and behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past.
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview? A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation." B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" C) "Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell me about that." D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."
B) Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with the following situation . . . What would you do?" Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when . . . What did you do?"
The primary purpose of strategic human resource management is to ________. A) develop human resource policies that align with industry standards B) integrate a company's strategic plan with its human resource strategies C) create stringent appraisal systems that highlight employee weaknesses D) use offshoring to reduce human resource costs and to initiate globalization
B) Strategic human resource management is intended to link a firm's strategic plan with its human resource strategies. When creating human resource management policies and activities, a manager needs to produce the employee competencies and behaviors that the company needs to achieve its strategic aims.
________ defines the nature of the company's business in terms of how it will match its internal strengths and weaknesses with its external opportunities and threats in order to maintain a competitive position. A) Financial auditing B) Strategic planning C) Employee benchmarking D) Employee testing
B) Strategic planning is the company's overall planning for how it will match its internal strengths and weaknesses with its external opportunities and threats in order to maintain a competitive position.
All of the following are principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company EXCEPT ________. A) burden of proof is on the employer B) performance standards should be unambiguous C) business necessity is a defense for an existing program D) discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal
B) The Court ruled in Griggs v. Duke Power Company that the burden of proof is on the employer to show that a hiring practice such as testing is job related. The Court also ruled that business necessity is the defense for any existing program that has adverse impact and that discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal. The case did not address performance standards
Which of the following is NOT considered one of the line supervisor's responsibilities for effective human resources management under the general headings outlined by a major company discussed in the textbook? A) protecting employees' health and physical condition B) changing employees' attitudes regarding work C) developing the abilities of each person D) interpreting the company policies and procedures
B) The direct handling of people has always been part of every line manager's duties, from the president down to first-line supervisors. One major company outlines its line supervisor's responsibilities for effective human resource management under these general headings: placing the right person in the right job; starting new employees in the organization (orientation); training employees for jobs that are new to them; improving the job performance of each person; gaining cooperation, and developing smooth working relationships; interpreting the company's policies and procedures; controlling labor costs; developing the abilities of each person; creating and maintaining department morale; protecting employees' health and physical condition.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data? A) Interviews are a complicated method for collecting information. B) Employees may exaggerate or minimize some information. C) Interviews provide only general information about a worker's duties. D) Interviews may require managers to reveal the job analysis function.
B) The primary disadvantage of conducting employee interviews for the purpose of gathering job analysis data is the distortion of information. Employees may misunderstand the purpose of the interview and either purposely or mistakenly provide incorrect information. Interviews are considered a simple method for collecting detailed job information especially regarding uncommon but important employee activities.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm? A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted C) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm D) significant training and orientation requirements
B) The primary disadvantage of hiring from within is the potential of losing employees who are not promoted. Employees who apply for jobs and don't get them may become discontented.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions? A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract. B) Applicant screening may not be thorough. C) Applicant processing time is too lengthy. D) Application procedures are complicated.
B) The primary drawback to using a private employment agency is the fact that agencies may not screen applicants very well. Successful applicants may be blocked, while inappropriate applicants may be sent to interview with hiring supervisors.
With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills
B) The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job's basic tasks. An observer monitors performance on each task and rates the applicant's performance.
When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same. A) staffing levels B) currency rates C) productivity levels D) recruitment plans
C) Both a trend analysis and a ratio analysis assume that productivity remains about the same. For example, when using a ratio analysis, an assumption is made that you cannot motivate a salesperson to produce more than he or she has sold in the past. With a trend analysis, historical productivity trends are used and are the basis for predicting the future.
The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the ________. A) unverifiable data a job analysis typically provides B) certification required to conduct a job analysis C) amount of time a job analysis takes to complete D) redundant information gathered during a job analysis
C) Conducting a job analysis can be time-consuming because it may take days to interview multiple employees and their managers, which is why an abbreviated version is often used by managers.
Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable
C) Demonstrating content validity can be accomplished by showing that the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job.
A Markov analysis is primarily used to ________. A) predict the long-term employment needs in an industry B) assess the productivity and tenure of a job applicant C) forecast the availability of internal job candidates D) analyze the effectiveness of recruitment sources
C) Employers use a mathematical process known as Markov analysis to forecast availability of internal job candidates. Markov analysis involves creating a matrix that shows the probabilities that employees in the chain of feeder positions for a key job will move from position to position and therefore be available to fill the key position.
Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks related to the temporary workers should Jessica become directly involved? A) negotiating the pay rate B) setting the time-off policies C) answering task-related questions D) providing online training and development
C) For legal purposes, companies should treat temporary employees as if the temp agency is the worker's employer. Managers should let the temp agency handle matters such as pay, time-off, and training. Managers should control the temporary worker's activities and answer work-related questions.
The primary purpose of implementing high-performance practices such as recruiting, screening, and training is to ________. A) foster a strong organizational culture B) create management opportunities for new hires C) develop a trained, flexible, and self-motivated workforce D) utilize benchmarks to compare personnel skills within an industry
C) High-performance practices generally aspire to help workers to manage themselves. The primary purpose of recruiting, screening, training, and other human resource practices is to foster a trained, empowered, self-motivated, and flexible workforce.
All of the following are major areas in which an HR manager assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________. A) recruiting B) hiring C) strategic business planning D) compensation
C) Human resource managers are usually staff managers. They assist and advise line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation.
Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview. A) board B) panel C) serial D) mass
C) In a sequential or serial interview, several persons interview the applicant, in sequence, one-on-one, and then make their hiring decision. Board or panel interviews involve multiple interviewers questioning a candidate at the same time. With a mass interview, a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously.
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. A) retired workers B) other people in the same industry C) other people in various occupations D) managers and executives in the firm
C) Interest inventories compare an applicant's interests with those of people in various occupations. Thus, a person who takes the Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory would receive a report comparing his or her interests to those of people already in occupations like accounting, engineering, or management
An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________. A) receive assistance writing job ads B) adhere to federal hiring practices C) fill a specific job opening quickly D) spend more time recruiting applicants
C) One of the main reasons an employer uses a private employment agency is to fill a specific job opening quickly. Other reasons include spending less time recruiting and reaching currently employed individuals who might feel more comfortable dealing with an agency than a competing firm.
According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. A) informed consent regarding the use of test results B) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job D) fairness of the test for all who take it
C) Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection tool. Under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests, test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all.
Which of the following is NOT a HR certification? A) HRCI's Professional in Human Resources (PHR) B) HRCI's Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR) C) SHRM Junior Professional D) SHRM Certified Professional
C) The HRCI awards several credentials, including Professional in Human Resources (PHR) and Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR). SHRM offers SHRM Certified Professionals and SHRM Senior Certified Professionals.
The fourth step in conducting a job analysis most likely involves collecting data about all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) required employee abilities B) typical working conditions C) employee turnover rates D) specific job activities
C) The fourth step in analyzing a job requires collecting data about job activities, required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job. Interviews, questionnaires, and observations are the most popular methods for gathering data. It is unlikely that data regarding employee turnover rates would be gathered during a job analysis.
What is the primary benefit of using a position analysis questionnaire to gather data for a job analysis? A) providing the opportunity for employees to vent job frustrations B) sorting information for government statistics and records C) classifying jobs for the purpose of assigning salaries D) uncovering important yet infrequent job tasks
C) The primary benefit of using a PAQ is classifying jobs based on scores in the five different categories. With this data, a manager can quantitatively compare jobs relative to one another and then assign pay for each job.
The sales director at WebMD is calculating annual sales revenue targets and the number of new medical-related content providers that the firm needs to maintain a competitive advantage. In which step of the strategic management process is the sales director involved? A) evaluating the firm's internal and external strengths B) defining the business and its mission C) choosing specific strategies or courses of action D) evaluating the strategic plan
C) The sales director is in the process of translating the firm's mission, which is to maintain a competitive advantage, choosing specific strategies or courses of action. This step is the fifth one in the strategic process, and it occurs after the manager makes a strategic choice.
During the job analysis process, it is important to ________ before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions. A) test job questionnaires on a small group of workers B) confirm the job activity list with employees C) select a sample of similar jobs to analyze D) assemble the job specifications list
C) The third step of the job analysis process involves selecting representative positions to analyze.
The recent trend where in some occupations (such as high-tech) unemployment rates are low, while in others unemployment rates are still very high and recruiters in many companies can't find candidates, while in others there's a wealth of candidates is called: A) talent analytics B) globalization C) the unbalanced labor force D) human capital
C) The unbalanced labor force is shown in that in some occupations, unemployment rates are low, while in others, unemployment rates are still very high. In some industries, recruiters in many companies can't find candidates, while in others there's a wealth of candidates
According to Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act, which of the following employers would be legally allowed to refuse employment to an individual based on race, religion, or sex? A) a state agency with 65 employees B) a medical office with 25 employees C) a local restaurant with 10 employees D) a department store with 100 employees
C) Title VII bars discrimination on the part of most employers, including all public and private employers of 15 or more persons. It also covers all private and public educational institutions, the federal government, and state and local governments
In which of the following situations does sexual harassment NOT violate Title VII? A) if the conduct substantially interferes with a person's work performance B) if the conduct creates an intimidating work environment C) if the conduct is completely consensual D) if the conduct creates an offensive work environment
C) Under Title VII, sexual harassment generally refers to harassment on the basis of sex when such conduct has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with a person's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment. Consensual sexual interactions may not violate Title VII.
Jerome, a manager at an electronics company, needs to gather job analysis information from a large number of employees who perform similar work. Which of the following would be most appropriate for Jerome? A) observing all employees B) interviewing the HR manager C) holding a group interview with a supervisor D) conducting telephone surveys of all employees
C) When a large number of employees perform similar or identical work, conducting a group interview is a fast way to gather information. In most cases, the workers' immediate supervisor attends the group session. It would be costly and time consuming to observe each worker.
The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
D) Cross-validating involves administering additional tests to a new sample of employees. This final step also requires an assessment of predictive validation and an evaluation of the relationship between scores and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot.
All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT ________. A) providing internal training B) implementing job rotation C) offering global assignments D) developing skills inventories
D) Employers develop candidates through internal training, cross-functional experiences, job rotation, external training, and global/regional assignments. Skills inventories are records that list employees' qualifications.
Which of the following guidelines is most likely recommended to managers conducting a job analysis? A) Use one tool for gathering information to maintain the validity of the final results. B) Rely on the human resource manager to complete questionnaires and verify data. C) Conduct group interviews without supervisors present to ensure accuracy. D) Ensure that the questions and the process are clarified to employees.
D) Managers should make sure that the job analysis process and the questions asked to employees are clear. Several tools should be used to gather information rather than only one, and employees and supervisors typically complete questionnaires rather than HR managers. Supervisors should be included in group interviews.
The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance
D) Many things could cause a test to be unreliable. For example, the questions may do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. A lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability.
What is the term for workforces like those at the company Uber, where freelancers and independent contractors work when they can, on what they want to work on, and when the company needs them? A) tele-commuters B) human capital C) job-analysts D) on-demand workers
D) On-demand workers are freelancers and independent contractors who work when they can on what they want to work on, when the company needs them.
Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) intelligence B) apperception C) self-reported D) projective
D) Projective techniques include Make a Picture Story (MAPS) and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. With projective tests, the psychologist presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it
According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT ________. A) administration B) structure C) content D) length
D) Selection interviews are classified according to how structured they are, their "content"—the types of questions they contain, and how the firm administers the interviews. Length is not a category.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process? A) higher potential for bias B) limited validity and reliability C) inconsistency across candidates D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
D) Structured interviews when followed blindly limit the interviewer's chance to ask follow-up questions. Structured interviews are typically reliable, valid, consistent, and have a lower potential for bias. As a result, they have a greater ability to withstand legal challenges.
Which of the following is NOT part of the basic managerial planning? A) evaluation of best options B) establishment of clear objectives C) implementation of the plan D) building corporate hierarchies
D) The basic management planning process involves setting objectives, making basic planning forecasts, reviewing alternative courses of action, evaluating which options are best and then choosing and implementing the plan. However, managerial planning is hindered by the hierarchy of a corporation, which requires that plans meet budgetary requirements and match the long-term goals of the firm.
Claire spends most of her time at work establishing goals for her staff of fifty employees and developing procedures for various tasks. In which function of the management process does Claire spend most of her time? A) leading B) controlling C) organizing D) planning
D) The planning function of the management process requires managers to establish goals and standards, develop rules and procedures, and develop plans and forecast.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using questionnaires to gather job analysis information? A) Questionnaires are the most expensive method of collecting data. B) Supervisors are required to verify all collected questionnaire data. C) Questionnaires are too open-ended for statistical information. D) Developing and testing questionnaires is time-consuming.
D) The primary drawback of questionnaires is the time required to develop questionnaires and test them to ensure that workers understand the questions. Questionnaires can be structured or open-ended, and many are a combination of the two.
A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________. A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing B) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes C) assumes constant increases in worker productivity D) overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed
D) Trend analysis provides an initial estimate of future staffing needs, but employment levels rarely depend only on the passage of time. Factors such as changes in needed skills, productivity, and voluntary withdrawals also affect staffing needs, which is why a trend analysis is limited in its usefulness.
An HR manager conducting an HR audit on compensation would most likely search for ________. A) current job descriptions B) workforce health and safety training C) completed benefit enrollment forms D) compliance with state and federal laws
D) When auditing for compensation compliance, a manager is most likely ensuring that the firm is meeting all state and federal laws regarding overtime and timecards. Job descriptions, health and safety, and benefits would most likely be addressed in other types of HR
True or False: There are five steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test.
False. Although the first step of the validation process begins with job analysis, the last step is revalidating. Administering the test is the third step.