MGS425 - Midterm Review
Which action involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them? A - Collecting requirements B - Defining scope C - Controlling scope D - Validating scope
A - Collecting requirements
Which term refers to a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project? A - Deliverable. B - Input. C - System. D - Resource.
A - Deliverable.
What processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase? A - Initiating B - Planning C - Executing D - Monitoring and controlling
A - Initiating
Select all of the projects below that would have broad organizational need. A - Recruitment system for corporate human resources. B - Workflow automation for the sales division. C - Streamlined purchasing system. D - System that provides a mechanism for improving communication across the organization.
A - Recruitment system for corporate human resources. D - System that provides a mechanism for improving communication across the organization.
Galaxy, a construction company, buys a particular brand of tiles manufactured by Tiles and Floors, an eco-friendly tile manufacturing company. However, Tiles and Floors has declared bankruptcy and closed down. At present, Galaxy is facing a crisis because there are no other manufacturers in the market that supplies eco-friendly tiles. Which constraint is Galaxy currently facing? A - Resources B - Time C - Scope D - Cost
A - Resources
Select all items below which would typically be found in a project charter. A - Time goals. B - Cost goals. C - Project objective. D - Comprehensive risk management plan.
A - Time goals. B - Cost goals. C - Project objective.
Which process in project schedule management involves identifying the specific tasks that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables? A - defining activities B - sequencing activities C - developing the schedule D - estimating activity durations
A - defining activities
Which type of dependencies are inherent in the nature of work being performed on a project? A - mandatory B - discretionary C - external D - random
A - mandatory
Which term is used for a significant event on a project that normally has no duration? A - milestone B - activity attribute C - activity sequence D - schedule baseline
A - milestone
What document is used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control? A - project management plan B - statement of work C - scope statement D - business case
A - project management plan
Which process includes defining project scope, benefits, and constraints? A - project planning B - business area analysis C - resource allocation D - information technology strategy planning
A - project planning
What is a table that lists requirements, their various attributes, and the status of the requirements to ensure that all are addressed referred to as? A - requirements traceability matrix B - Gantt chart C - state transition table D - entity-attribute-value model
A - requirements traceability matrix
A _____ is usually not necessary to the Scrum method, because Scrum implies that team members work as a self-directed group. A - team charter B - velocity estimate C - Gantt chart D - product backlog
A - team charter
What is scope creep? A - the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger B - subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces C - the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS. D - a task at the lowest level of the WBS
A - the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger
What is the first step in the planning process? A - tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan B - perform a business area analysis C - start defining potential IT projects in terms of their scope, benefits, and constraints D - choose which projects to do and assigning resources to work on them
A - tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan
The 2017 survey by VersionOne found that organizations using agile reported that the top three benefits of using this methodology were (check all correct answers): A - Less documentation required. B - Ability to manage changing priorities. C - Less project management needed. D - Increased team productivity. E - Improved project visibility.
B - Ability to manage changing priorities. D - Increased team productivity. E - Improved project visibility.
What term is used for benefits minus costs? A - Cost of capital B - Cash flow C - Discount factor D - Opportunity cost of capital
B - Cash flow
Which action involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved? A - Creating scope B - Defining scope C - Controlling scope D - Validating scope
B - Defining scope
Which is an example of a pre-initiation task? A - Drawing up a work breakdown structure B - Developing a business case for a project C - Drafting the project charter D - Identifying stakeholders
B - Developing a business case for a project
Which process includes measuring progress toward project objectives and taking corrective action to match progress with the plan? A - Planning B - Monitoring and controlling C - Executing D - Initiating
B - Monitoring and controlling
What type of analysis involves calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time? A - Cost of capital B - Net present value C - Cash flow D - Payback
B - Net present value
In what type of organizational structure do project managers have the most authority? A - Functional. B - Project. C - Matrix. D - Circular.
B - Project.
Projects must operate in a broad organizational environment, and project managers need to consider projects within the greater organizational context. Which approach describes the holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization? A - Linear analysis B - Systems thinking C - Reductionism D - The silo approach
B - Systems thinking
Which process involves generating ideas by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products inside or outside the performing organization? A - variance B - benchmarking C - prototyping D - decomposition
B - benchmarking
Which stage of information technology planning outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology? A - project planning B - business area analysis C - resource allocation D - information technology strategy planning
B - business area analysis
Project procurement management mainly involves: A - making effective use of the people involved with the project. B - buying goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization. C - generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. D - identifying and analyzing stakeholder needs while managing and controlling their engagement.
B - buying goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
A _____ is a tool used in quality management. A - probability matrix B - checklist C - request for proposal D - critical path analysis
B - checklist
In project schedule management, which process generates the main outputs of an activity list, activity attributes, and a milestone list? A - sequencing activities B - defining activities C - resource estimating activities D - estimating activity durations
B - defining activities
Which dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care because they may limit later scheduling options? A - mandatory B - discretionary C - external D - inherent
B - discretionary
Which dependencies do AOA network diagrams use? A - start-to-start B - finish-to-start C - finish-to-finish D - start-to-finish
B - finish-to-start
What is often the most difficult and unappreciated process in project management? A - initiating B - planning C - executing D - monitoring and controlling
B - planning
Which output documents how project needs will be analyzed, documented, and managed? A - requirements traceability matrix B - requirements management plan C - WBS D - project scope statement
B - requirements management plan
In which of the following areas of management is payback analysis most likely to be used? A - Resource B - Communication C - Cost D - Quality
C - Cost
Which planning process is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area? A - Schedule development B - Developing a project management plan C - Creation of a WBS D - Quality planning
C - Creation of a WBS
Which tool is most likely to be used in project schedule management? A - Payback analysis B - Impact matrices C - Gantt charts D - Fishbone diagrams
C - Gantt charts
Reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track, is a common part of which process? A - Executing B - Closing C - Monitoring and controlling D - Planning
C - Monitoring and controlling
Refers to a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization. A - Chain of command. B - Line of control. C - Organizational culture. D - Organizational structure.
C - Organizational culture.
Which framework is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members? A - Agile Unified Process B - Dynamic Systems Development Method C - Rational Unified Process D - Six Sigma
C - Rational Unified Process
What important Scrum artifact is used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process? A - WBS B - sprint backlog C - burndown chart D - product backlog
C - burndown chart
What is one of the main outputs of the initiation process? A - creating the work breakdown structure B - selecting the project manager C - developing the project charter D - identifying the project sponsor
C - developing the project charter
What is the first process involved in project schedule management? A - defining activities B - estimating activity durations C - planning schedule management D - sequencing activities
C - planning schedule management
Which section of the project management plan includes external interfaces, internal structure, as well as roles and responsibilities? A - overview B - technical processes C - project organization D - supporting processes
C - project organization
Team building exercises and motivation techniques are tools used in _____ management. A - procurement B - scope C - resource D - cost
C - resource
Select an example of external stakeholders for an organization. A - Top managers. B - Functional managers. C - Employees. D - Competitors.
D - Competitors.
Of the six main processes involved with planning scope management, which one listed below is related to project change management? A - Collecting requirements. B - Defining scope. C - Creating the WBS. D - Controlling scope.
D - Controlling scope.
What are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence referred to as? A - Opportunities B - Charters C - Problems D - Directives
D - Directives
In Rizzati Corp, vice presidents in departments such as engineering, manufacturing, IT, and human resources report directly to the chief executive officer and undertake their tasks independently of each other. The staffs of these departments have specialized skills in their respective disciplines. Which type of organizational structure does Rizatti Corp have? A - Project. B - Symbolic. C - Matrix. D - Functional.
D - Functional.
The outputs of which process include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates? A - Initiating B - Planning C - Executing D - Monitoring and controlling
D - Monitoring and controlling
Which document recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management? A - Skateholder register B - Risk register C - Directive D - Project charter
D - Project charter
Which project management knowledge area primarily involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information? A - Project cost management B - Project procurement management C - Project time management D - Project communications management
D - Project communications management
Which project management knowledge area ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken? A - Project cost management B - Project time management C - Project risk management D - Project quality management
D - Project quality management
Which problem-solving approach requires defining the scope of a system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs? A - Linear programming. B - Independent component analysis. C - Principal component analysis. D - Systems analysis.
D - Systems analysis.
Steve, an engineer in a construction company, is at present working on a home construction project. The home is being built for the Robinson family, the owners of the home. Steve is working with his project team and support staff to ensure the project is completed on time. In such a scenario, the project sponsor is _____. A - Steve B - The support staff C - The project team D - The Robinson family
D - The Robinson family
Which characteristic of organizational culture refers to the degree to which departments within an organization are encouraged to coordinate with each other? A - Member identity. B - People focus. C - Group emphasis. D - Unit integration.
D - Unit integration.
Which action involves normalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables? A - Creating scope B - Defining scope C - Controlling scope D - Validating scope
D - Validating scope
An important tool for project scope management is _____. A - fast tracking B - a kickoff meeting C - a Gantt chart D - a work breakdown structure
D - a work breakdown structure
Which approach for constructing a WBS uses a similar project's WBS as a starting point? A - top-down B - bottom-up C - mind-mapping D - analogy
D - analogy
In an AOA network diagram, what occurs when two or more activities follow a single node? A - combinations B - buffers C - mergers D - bursts
D - bursts
Which dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities? A - mandatory B - discretionary C - external D - inherent
D - inherent
Which document is most likely to include planned project start and end dates which serve as the starting points for a detailed schedule? A - resource breakdown structure B - milestones list C - organizational process assets update D - project charter
D - project charter
Which statement best describes scope? A - each level of work that is outlined in a work breakdown structure B - end product created as part of a project that is delivered to the client C - tasks that are decomposed into smaller tasks in a work breakdown structure D - work involved in creating the products and the processes used to create them
D - work involved in creating the products and the processes used to create them
Which task is at the lowest level of the WBS? A - variance B - objective C - deliverable D - work package
D - work package
A SWOT analysis, being a linear process, cannot be performed using the nonlinear mind mapping technique.
False
A difference between operations and projects is that operations end when their objectives have been reached, whereas projects do not.
False
A project manager's primary role is to provide the funding for a project.
False
Agile is a form of Scrum.
False
An organization's information technology project selection process should guide the strategic plan.
False
Decisions and actions taken in one knowledge area at a certain time rarely affect other knowledge areas.
False
Deliverables are only product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software.
False
In project schedule management, the next step after sequencing activities is to define these activities.
False
In project schedule management, the primary output of defining activities is a schedule management plan.
False
Initiating processes are not required to end a project.
False
Internal stakeholders include groups affected by the project such as government officials or concerned citizens.
False
It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during the earlier phases.
False
Opponents to a project would not be good candidates to serve as stakeholders.
False
Project scope statements must include the project boundaries, constraints, and assumptions.
False
Projects that address broad organizational needs are likely to fail.
False
The discount rate is the same for each organization.
False
The last phase of the traditional project life cycle is the implementation phase.
False
The number of interfaces in a single project is limited, and does not depend on the number of people involved in the project.
False
The project's size, complexity, importance, and other factors do not affect how much effort is spent on collecting requirements for scope planning.
False
The scope baseline in a WBS consists of the requirements documentation and enterprise environmental factors.
False
The scope of a project is clear and specific from the start.
False
Trust is NOT a major contributor to the success or failure of virtual teams.
False
When creating a lessons-learned report, it is best practice to include only elements that went well during the project.
False
When managing a Scrum project, it is not required to utilize change control during a Sprint, since the outcome may or may not result in a deployable release.
False
According to the symbolic frame, the most important aspect of any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means.
True
Additional time spent on planning has been shown to have a direct correlation to a reduction in time spent on executing.
True
An activity is an element of work that has an expected duration, cost, and resource requirements.
True
In project integration management, directing and managing project execution involves carrying out the project management plan by performing the activities included in it.
True
Monitoring and controlling processes overlap all of the other project management process groups.
True
One of the main reasons why project management is challenging is because of the factor of uncertainty.
True
Project managers and their teams must recognize the effects of any project on the interests and needs of the entire system or organization instead of focusing on the immediate concerns of the project.
True
Project schedules grow out of basic documents such as the project charter.
True
Projects should be developed in increments.
True
The executing process group generally requires the most resources.
True
The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project.
True
The main purpose of the WBS is to define all of the work required to complete a project.
True
To define activities, the project team should start with reviewing the schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational processes.
True
Until the 1980s, project management primarily focused on providing schedule and resource data to top management in the military, computer, and construction industries.
True