Microbio Lab 1-13

Place the following events in the correct order as they occur on the lagging strand: 1. Helix unwinding 2. DNA polymerase III builds DNA 3. DNA polymerase I acts 4. Ligase glues Okazaki fragments together 5. RNA primase builds RNA primers

1, 5, 2, 3, 4

Indicate how food molecules reach the body's cells and fuel cellular respiration.

1. Eating food provides fuel and building blocks for your body. 2. After food is broken down in the digestive system, it is transported to cells via the circulatory system. 3. Fuel molecules are broken down further glycolysis and and the citric acid cycle (aka Krebs Cycle). 4. ATP is produced with the help of the Electron Transport Chain

what is the recommended schedule for the first chicken pox vaccine in infants?

12 months of age

In what year did Stanley Prusiner discover prions?

1982

Put the following steps of protein synthesis in the order that they occur in a eukaryotic cell: 1. Translation ends at a stop codon 2. RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA from DNA 3. Protein sequence is elongated 4. Translation initiates 5. mRNA is processed and travels to a ribosome

2, 5, 4, 3, 1

According to the CDC graph, __________ had one of the highest rates of initial doctor office visits for HPV.

2006

Put the following steps of bacterial replication in the correct order, starting from a parent cell. 1.Cell elongation 2.Septum formation 3.Chromosome replication 4.Separation of daughter cells

3, 1, 2, 4

It is estimated that 1 out of ________ teenage girls have an STD. [

4

what is the total magnification of a specimen if you are using a compound light microscope with the 40x objective lens?

400x

According to the animation, ribosomes move along the mRNA in which direction?

5' to 3'

During elongation, how is the RNA synthesized?

5' to 3'

The leading strand of DNA is synthesized in which direction?

5' to 3' in the same direction as helix unwinding

Part complete Place the following events in the correct order as they occur in the lytic cycle: 1. Assembly 2. Penetration 3. Release 4. Replication 5. Attachment

5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Is the pediatrician suspecting a bacterial or viral pathogen? What tests will help identify the causative pathogen?

A bacterial pathogen is suspected. Stool samples from infected individuals should be sent for growth culture analysis.

What is a boil?

A boil is a red lump in the skin that may be warm and painful to the touch. It is a localized accumulation of pus and tissue debris.

Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to lead to graft-versus-host disease?

A bone marrow is transplanted from an older, unaffected sibling to a younger sibling affected with severe combined immunodeficiency.

Sometimes during DNA replication a change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, which is called a mutation, can occur. There are various reasons why mutations occur. In certain instances, a chemical called _______ can increase the mutation rate.

A mutagen

What kind of bond is formed when two amino acids join together?

A peptide bond

What results from the process of translation?

A polypeptide

Karina's blood and vitreous humor were subjected to culture techniques in an effort to isolate and characterize a pathogen. Nothing grew from these samples. What might explain this observation? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

A prion could be causing Karina's condition. Something other than an infectious agent may be causing Karina's condition. A virus could be causing Karina's condition

What would happen if the mRNA codon that coded for Cys was mutated in the third position from a U to an A?

A stop codon would be introduced prematurely.

What is the anticodon sequence of a tRNA molecule for the mRNA codon UCA?

AGU

Which energy-rich molecule produced by cellular respiration directly powers cell work?

ATP

Which of the following is the correct mRNA sequence encoded by the DNA sequence: TAC GGT CAC TTC ACT?

AUG CCA GUG AAG UGA

Which differential staining method uses the primary stain, carbolfuchsin, acid-alcohol decolorizer, and methylene blue as the counterstain?

Acid-fast stain

Which of the following is useful for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis?

Acid-fast stain

which differential stain is used to detect bacteria that have the waxy lipid, mycolic acid in their cell wall?

Acid-fast stain

Which of the following is (are) mismatched? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all mismatched statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

Acid-fast stain: turns acid-fast cells blue Gram stain: turns Gram-negative cells purple

Conjunctivitis can be caused by bacterial and viral pathogens. What microbe is the main cause of viral conjunctivitis?

Adenoviruses

Which of the following is another term for a virus attaching to the host cell?

Adsorption

In what areas of the world is this infection most prevalent?

Africa and Asia

When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?

After proliferation into colonel population

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?

All of the answers are correct

Which of the following are functions of lectins?

All of the answers are correct

Which of the complement pathways employs properdin?

Alternative Pathways

Which of the following scenarios is most concerning for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn?

An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh+ fetus

Part complete During his research on West Nile virus, Bill learned that this virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovirus?

An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus. An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission.

Why is a specimen smaller than 200 nm not visible with a light microscope?

Anything smaller than 200 nm cannot interact with visible light.

In which stage does formation of mature viruses occur?

Assembly

At what site on the chromosome does DNA replication begin?

At the origin of replication

Based upon the signs and symptoms, what is definitively causing Karina's vision problems?

At this point in the case, it is impossible to know.

Which organism(s) ferment(s) lactose?

B and C

TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate

B cells

Which domain of the A-B toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell?

B domain

A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following?

B+

Cutaneous anthrax is caused by what type of microbe?

Bacillus anthracis

How is bacterial translation different from eukaryotic translation?

Bacteria can begin translation before transcription has terminated.

Why is visualization not sufficient to properly identify bacteria?

Bacteria have a limited set of shapes and many unrelated bacteria share the same shape.

Based upon the signs and symptoms Jane is now experiencing, which of the following diseases should be considered as a possible cause (listed in the differential diagnosis)? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

Bacterial meningitis Viral meningitis

What is the function of the CD8 receptor?

Bind to MHC molecules

What is the function of single-strand binding proteins?

Bind to the DNA strands near the replication fork to keep them separated

The host DNA is usually degraded during which stage?

Biosynthesis

What causes a cerebrovascular accident?

Blood flow to a part of the brain is blocked.

Based on LaTonia's drooping eyelids, what is your new working diagnosis?

Botulism

Candida albicans is part of normal vaginal microbiota. List three reasons why vulvovaginitis candidiasis can occur in women.

C. albicans is part of normal vaginal microbiota Change in vaginal microbiota causes overgrowth of the yeast Vaginal microbiota changes caused by Microbiota disruption (antibiotic use) Increased vaginal pH Increased estrogen

C3 convertase cleaves C3 into __________ and ___________.

C3a and C3b

Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell?

C3b

Which complement protein is used as an opsonin?

C3b

What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration?

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy --Cellular respiration extracts energy from glucose (C6H12O6) to produce smaller energy packets (ATP).--

Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells

What is the most likely cause of this couple's disease?

Campylobacter jejuni

name the etiological agent that is the main cause of foodborne illness in the USA and is associated with a rare, but dangerous autoimmune disease called Guilian-Barre

Campylobacter jejuni

Which fungal genus and species is the most common cause fungal UTIs?

Candida albicans

What type of microbe causes cutaneous candidiasis?

Candida albicans- yeast

How can capsules enable bacteria to evade the immune system?

Capsules block the complement biding sites on the surface of the pathogen.

Which of the following can release histamines?

Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway

Painful genital ulcers caused by Haemophilus ducreyi is called __________.

Chanchroid

What complement result involves the use of phagocytes?

Chemotaxis and opsonization

What microbial agent would be associated with the symptoms seen in this mother-to-be?

Chlamydia trachomatis

Which bacterial genus and species is divided into two main biovars that cause trachoma and lymphogranuloma venereum?

Chlamydia trachomatis-

What microbe is the etiological agent of the eye disease, trachoma?

Chlamydia trachomatis.

Which of the following prion diseases is found in deer and elk?

Chronic wasting disease

Why did the man's sexual partners believe they were not infected with a STD?

Clinical signs and symptoms in females are often not detectable, especially early in the infection.

What is the indicated structure on this pictured microscope?

Coarse focus

What is the indicated structure on this pictured microscope?

Condenser

What would have been the possible source for this patient's infection?

Contaminated water in Honduras was used for drinking or cooking.

Which microorganism requires the low pH inside a phagolysosome in order to reproduce?

Coxiella burnetii

Which etiological agent is the most likely disease candidate for this case study?

Coxsackievirus A16

Prions are misfolded proteins that cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. Name three prion diseases.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Mad cow disease kuru

What spore-forming, yeast-like fungus causes cryptococcosis?

Cryptococcus neoformans

Giardia undergoes a process called encystation that requires a large energy investment. Cysts are considered the parasite's infective stage. What advantages does encystation provide for the microbe? Select all that apply.

Cysts have a survival advantage in the environment. Cysts can resist pharmacological therapies. Cysts can tolerate low pH. Cysts resist water chlorination and ultraviolet treatment.

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.

The sugar ribose: RNA Nucleotides A, U, C, G: RNA Used as a template for transcription: DNA nucleotides A, T, C, G: DNA Translated to synthesize a polypeptide: RNA The sugar deoxyribose: DNA Double Stranded: DNA Single Stranded: DNA

Determine if the properties listed on the left-hand side column are describing DNA or RNA. The sugar ribose: Nucleotides A, U, C, G: Used as a template for transcription: nucleotides A, T, C, G: Translated to synthesize a polypeptide: The sugar deoxyribose: Double Stranded: Single Stranded:

Jane was prescribed dexamethasone, a corticosteroid that would help limit inflammation and reduce the risk of permanent damage to her central nervous system. How does this drug work?

Dexamethasone inhibits the production of arachidonic acid-a precursor to cellular inflammatory signals.

Ashleigh's working diagnosis for her patients was based mainly on the signs and symptoms present, which included fever, vomiting, nausea, and diarrhea. Which of these manifestations are signs? Select all that apply.

Diarrhea Fever Vomiting

The fish tapeworm, ___________________ (genus/species) is the largest tapeworm found in humans

Dipyllobothrium latum

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 Antibodies every second

The brain tissue of the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.

Name the protozoan that causes amebic dysentery, but can cause rare complications such as liver, lung and brain abscesses.

Entamoeba histolytica

Which species of amoeba would be considered the causes this patient's disease?

Entamoeba histolytica

The incidence of cholera in the city has been recorded for the past decade and is shown in the graph below. (Note, more cases were eventually identified than were originally discovered in the case.) The 10-year average is indicated by the dashed red line. Using the incidence data, select the epidemiology terms that accurately describe this year's outbreak

Epidemic

Drag the test result to the correct genus.

Escherichia no H2S productionrapid lactose fermentation salmonella H2S productionno rapid lactose fermentation

Using your knowledge of organism's gram staining properties, which of the following organisms would grow on EMB?

Escherichia coli

Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage?

Exposure to UV light

What does the term facultative anaerobe mean?

Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen. More growth is evident when oxygen is present.

How does the child chewing on clover leaves impact the list of suspected potential pathogens?

Fecal matter from the free-roaming chickens may have contaminated the clover leaves. Thus pathogens found naturally in chicken intestines should be of increasing concern. Since only the ill child chewed on the clover leaves, it is now more likely that the clover leaves are the source of infection (as opposed to the raw eggs and poultry).

Which of the following would be the first sign of an infection that resulted in the release of endotoxin?

Fever

Which of the following features of Salmonella prevent it from being phagocytosed?

Flagella

How can the spread of this infection be halted?

Fomite disinfection Keep infected children home General hygiene practices

To confirm your diagnosis, what item(s) will you ask Denisha to bring to you?

Food items consumed (The canned green beans used to make the green bean salad are the primary suspect, although luncheon meats and potatoes are also known to harbor the pathogen.)

If your final diagnosis is confirmed, what public health steps, if any, must you take?

Food samples associated with suspect cases must be obtained immediately, stored in properly sealed containers, and sent to laboratories for testing, so that a food recall may be issued if necessary. Immediately report the infection to the CDC

How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway?

Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them

Clostridium perfringens is the etiological agent of __________.

Gas gangrene

what is the etiological agent that causes traveler's diarrhea referred to as "montezuma's revenge"

Giardia lamblia

Which of the following molecules is broken down in cellular respiration, providing fuel for the cell?

Glucose

_____ is used as food and _____ is produced as a waste in the overall process of cellular respiration.

Glucose ... carbon dioxide --The carbon in glucose is oxidized to carbon dioxide during cellular respiration.--

Simplified Equation for Cellular Respiration

Glucose>>Oxygen>>Carbon Dioxide>>Water>>Energy

Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?

Glycolysis --Glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid, takes place in the cytosol, outside the mitochondria.--

Stages of Cellular Respiration

Glycolysis>>Citric Acid>>Electron Transport

The _______ resembles a series of flat sacs called cisternae. This organelle modifies, builds, sorts, and distributes products to the cell membrane to be secreted.

Golgi apparatus

Which of the following is part of the endomembrane system?

Golgi apparatus

Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

Goodpasture Syndrome

Richard is a Waste Water Treatment Laboratory Technician for the Tri-County Water District. Today, he is doing his routine visit to one of the three Waste Water Treatment Facilities, where he'll collect samples of the treated water to take back to the lab. At the lab, his coworker Joey will do a chemical analysis of the water, while he does the microbiological analysis. After washing his hands, he labels the containers with his name, the sample site location, and the date and time of the sample collection. Back at the lab, Richard gives the chemistry samples to Joey, and then heads to his microbiology lab. He starts setting up his tests to look for Enterobacteriaceae in the water samples. Which of the following best describes the Enterobacteriaceae group (enteric bacteria)?

Gram-negative bacillus found in many locations including animal intestines

Which molecule triggers apoptosis?

Granzyme

Infection with which bacterial genus and species is one of the most important cofactors in the transmission of HIV?

Haemophilus ducreyi

What is the causative agent for this sexually transmitted disease?

Haemophilus ducreyi

Which of the following infections best fits the described signs and symptoms?

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

How did this man most likely become exposed to this disease agent?

He is likely to have been exposed while hunting elk in Colorado during his childhood.

Which of the following is a symptom associated with Jane's illness? Select all that apply.

Headache Stiff neck Malaise, a general feeling of illness or discomfort

Which of the following strategies may have prevented the spread of Listeria at the party?

Heating the deli meats before serving

Name the etiological agent that is mainly associated with gastritis and gastric ulcer formation.

Helicobacter pylori

Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are:

Helper T Cells

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.

Which of the following acts as a proinflammatory factor?

Histamine

6

How many codon sequences code for the amino acid serine?

The most common viral STI in the world that causes genital warts and cervical cancer is caused by ______________.

Human papilloma viruses (HPVs)

Which of the following enzymes breaks down the "glue" that holds cells together?

Hyaluronidase

The most common cause of tapeworm worldwide is the dwarf tapeworm, ________________ (genus/species).

Hymenolepis nana

Part complete What was the best treatment for this patient once he had gone to the ER?

IV fluids, sedation, and respiratory support

Health care providers determine the specific allergen that is generating symptoms by using a blood test to look at ________ levels.

IgE

Choose the false statement.

IgG binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils.

Which class of antibody is the first produced during the primary response?

IgM

what is the recommended course of treatment when a rabid animal bites a person?

Immediately wash the wound with soap and water, inject the bite area with rabies immunoglobulin, and begin a series of four rabies vaccine injections.

What is graft versus host disease?

Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.

Where would one find an uncharged tRNA molecule in a ribosome?

In the P and E sites

The paralytic toxin from C. botulinum differs from the toxin from C. tetani in that __________.

In the United States, most common exposure to Clostridium botulinum and its toxins occurs through __________.

How would one increase the concentration of a particular polypeptide in a cell?

Increase the level of transcription

What signs, symptoms, and medical history components would have led the nurse practitioner to suspect chlamydia and gonorrhea over a UTI?

Increased vaginal discharge Jessica's sexual history (multiple sexual partners and denied condom use) Spotting between periods

Where do Salmonella pathogens grow and replicate in the infected host?

Inside phagocytes

Eukaryotic mRNA have non-coding sequences called _______ that are spliced out before the RNA leaves the nucleus.

Introns

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?

It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.

How does the protozoan Trypanosoma evade detection by the immune system?

It can change the surface antigens frequently, preventing the immune system from tracking it.

Why is a release of endotoxin into the bloodstream potentially deadly?

It can lower blood pressure and cause the patient to go into shock.

How does the Gram staining procedure differentiate between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria?

It differentiates between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on cell wall composition.

What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage?

It is copied every time the host DNA replicates.

The presence of a sudden high fever, when taken into context with Jane's other signs and symptoms, allows us to conclude that Jane's illness is caused by a

It is impossible to tell what is causing Jane's infection based only on her presented signs and symptoms.

What is meant by light rays being divergent?

It is spreading out

What does halophilic mean?

It means the organism is "salt-loving."

How would the results be different if this organism was Salmonella?

It would produce hydrogen sulfide.

What is the purpose of an anticodon?

It's a region on a tRNA that binds to a complementary codon on mRNA to ensure the proper amino acid is added to a growing protein.

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?

Jellyfish sting

Jessica tells you that she's stunned that she was diagnosed with an STI; she was really convinced she had a UTI. What information aligns with her self-diagnosis?

Jessica's described symptoms (dysuria and frequent urgency to urinate) align with those commonly seen in lower UTIs. Jessica had an elevated white blood cell count within the urine, which is often indicative of UTI. Bacterial UTIs are especially common in women since they have shorter urethras compared to men, and female urethras are anatomically close to the anus.

Which of the following are fecal coliforms? [Remember the test used to indicate the presence of fecal coliforms and then review the results located in the Dichotomous Key]

Klebsiella Enterobacter Serratia

Which of the following prion diseases was also known as laughing disease?

Kuru

Sports physiologists at an Olympic training center wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point their muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for a buildup of _____.

Lactic Acid --In humans, muscle cells switch to lactic acid fermentation after becoming anaerobic.--

What is the role of lenses in microscopy?

Lenses focus either light or electrons to create a magnified image of a specimen.

Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections

Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.

Endotoxins are also known as

Lipid A

The doctor received a report from the clinical lab with the results of Jane's tests. Her blood culture was positive for bacteria, and her blood showed an abnormally elevated white blood cell count. Most of the WBCs in her sample had a single, circular nucleus. Strangely, Jane's CSF (cerebral spinal fluid) sample showed normal glucose levels despite elevated protein. When a Gram stain of the CSF was performed, purple, rod-like structures were seen. Based upon the attached data table, what is causing Jane's meningitis? (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

Listeria

As the physician assistant on duty, you have narrowed down the possible causes of LaTonia's illness. What did you think was the most likely cause of her illness when you ordered the initial tests?

Listeria meningitis

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down a host bacterium's cell wall so that the virus can leave the cell?

Lysozyme

Where is the site of Shigella attachment in the host?

M cells

This image shows the results of three different bacterial species that were streaked onto MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37ºC. What do the observed results of Micrococcus luteus indicate?

M. luteus is not a halophile or facultative halophile

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?

MHC proteins

A physician swabs an inflammed raised area on patient's arm for testing to determine if Staphylococcus aureus is the cause of the infection. The test should confirm the presence of S. aureus, but also rule out other species found in the patient's normal skin microbiota. What selective and differential media would be the best choice to use to determine an S. aureus infection?

MSA

Part complete The typical composition of MSA is as follows: 5.0 g/L enzymatic digest of casein 5.0 g/L enzymatic digest of animal tissue 1.0 g/L beef extract 10.0 g/L D-mannitol 75.0 g/L sodium chloride 0.025 g/L phenol red 15.0 g/L agar pH 7.4 ± 0.2 at 25°C Whcih of the following statements about the media composition is FALSE?

MSA is a chemically defined media

Which of the following media is used to isolate Gram-negative organisms?

MacConkey agar plate

Urinary tract infections are commonly caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Escherichia coli, less commonly caused by Proteus mirabilis. You have a mixed culture of these pathogens, which you inoculate onto both MacConkey agar and nutrient agar, and then you incubate the plates at optimal growth conditions. On the MacConkey agar, E. coli appears pink, P. mirabilis appears colorless, and S. saprophyticus does not grow. All three microorganisms appear cream on the nutrient agar plate. What is the best explanation for this data?

MacConkey is both a differential and a selective medium.

Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?

Macrophages

Which cells are involved in a secondary response?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

What does the term mesophile mean?

Mesophiles grow well at body temperature.

As shown in the animation, the start codon also codes for which amino acid?

Methionine

In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain?

Mitochondrion --All of the steps of cellular respiration except glycolysis take place in the mitochondrion.--

What are leukocidins?

Molecules that are capable of destroying phagocytes

The causative agent for leprosy is the bacterium __________.

Mycobacterium leprae

What is the etiological agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)? It is also known as the brain-eating amoeba.

Naegleria fowleri

What is the name for the dark-staining bodies observed in the brain cells from this patient?

Negri bodies

What is the etiological agent of ophthalmia neonatorum?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which bacterial genus and species is the etiological agent of PID and ophthalmia neonatorum?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Analysis of the spinal tap shows the presence of Gram-negative bacteria cocci; for this age group which bacteria would be the probable cause of these symptoms?

Neisseria meningitidis

A college student presents with a fever, headache, and a stiff neck. The doctor suspects meningococcal meningitis. What is the etiological agent of this form of meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis- capsulated gram negative diplococci

a patient is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. upon analysis, the doctor observes encapsulated gram-negative diplococci in her cerebrospinal fluid. what is the likely etiological agent of the patient's meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis- capsulated gram negative diplococci called meningococcal meningitis

Meningitis and gonorrhea are caused by

Neisseria species

How long does it take for the daughter cells to initiate or start the next round of replication?

No time is required -- they are ready to divide immediately after DNA replication and separation of the daughter cells is complete if conditions are right.

Is this disease contagious?

No, the disease is not contagious.

Jessica asks you if this infection is proof that her ex-boyfriend cheated on her. How do you respond? Use information from the text to support your response.

No. Jessica has had sexual intimacy with more than one partner without consistent condom use.

Was the pediatrician negligent in not prescribing antibiotics? Why or why not?

No. Supportive therapy is the suggested treatment for mild cases of several bacterial diseases, including the one presented in the case study.

Is it critical to determine the fungal agent or agents contributing to this case? Why or why not?

No. The treatment would be the same.

Did you make a mistake in ordering the tests on her CSF? Support your answer

No. While LaTonia's CSF may be unremarkable, the negative CSF findings may help to reconfirm the correct disease diagnosis.

How do normal prion proteins (PrP) differ from the infectious prion proteins?

Normal PrP have alpha-helices; infectious PrP have beta-pleated sheets.

What is the indicated structure on this pictured microscope?

Objective lens

Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?

On the surface of the cell

Based on information provided, what is another piece of evidence that may support Jane's claim of safe food handling?

Only one of the twin daughters is ill, yet both children most likely ate the same food items (the fruit and baby jar food item). The sick twin had stuffed clover leaves into her mouth, making the clover leaves a suspected source of infection, as opposed to a contaminated food item or preparation area.

Why does infection with Mycobacterium leprae usually effect body extremities such as the fingers and toes?

Optimal growth temperature of 30-35°C, therefore grows easier in the hands and feet

How can Organism "A" grow if it cannot ferment the carbohydrate contained in EMB media?

Organism "A" is metabolizing other nutrients contained in EMB, which do not cause acidic by-products

What do the results of organism A depicted in the image indicate?

Organism A is gram-negative, but doesn't ferment lactose

Aerobic metabolism always requires _____.

Oxygen

During the initiation step of translation, the fMet charged tRNA assembles in which site of the ribosome?

P site

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?

PLASMA CELLS PRODUCE ANTIBODIES

Genital warts are caused by __________.

Papillomaviridae

Which primary skin lesion is incorrectly matched with its description?

Papule: Sore of irregular size and shape that results as epidermal and dermal skin layers are destroyed

CAUTIs (catheter associated urinary tract infections) have been associated with increased morbidity and mortality, higher hospital costs, and lengthier hospital stays. Based on this information along with information in your text, which of the following statements is (are) true? Select all that apply.

Patients diagnosed with a CAUTI will likely spend more time in the hospital than patients being treated for the same overall condition who do not have a CAUTI. CAUTIs result in higher death rates. All CAUTIs are considered nosocomial infections.

In which stage is the viral DNA introduced into the cell?

Penetration

After obtaining the negative blood and vitreous humor culture results, which of the following might have been a better alternative to continuing Karina's current anti-inflammatory therapy? (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

Perform other tests to look for viruses.

What other blood tests might have been useful to perform? (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

Perform tests for inflammation that may be due to infection or autoimmunity such as ESR ("Sed rate") and C-reactive protein assays.

_____ is a chemical process that uses light energy from the sun to build organic molecules.

Photosynthesis --Humans and other animals depend on plants for food.--

What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?

Plasma Cells, and memory B cells

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic extrachromosomal DNA is called ______ DNA.

Plasmid

What type of pathogen causes Polio?

Poliovirus (RNA virus

How does the number of infectious prions increase?

Prions transform normal proteins into the misfolded beta-pleated sheet configuration; therefore, prions multiply by conversion.

The etiological agent of acne is ______________.

Propionibacterium acnes

From which phrase is the term "prions" derived?

Proteinaceous infectious particles

Otitis externa is caused when the ear is infected with ______________.

Pseudomonas

Which of the following primary skin lesions is a raised lesion that contains pus and is found below the skin surface?

Pustule

According to the animation, which of the following makes mRNA from the information stored in a DNA template?

RNA polymerase

What enzyme is necessary for transcription?

RNA polymerase

Which of the following is not an enzyme involved in DNA replication?

RNA polymerase

What type of pre-transcriptional regulation is the most likely to turn off the production of a substance that is already plentiful?

Repressible operons

_________ is the ability to distinguish two distinct points as separate.

Resolution

Which of the following should be excluded from the differential diagnosis (DDx)?

Rubella Smallpox Measles Chickenpox

Certain Salmonella enterica serovars cause diarrhea, dysentery, or typhoid fever. Which serovar causes typhoid fever?

S. enterica

What is the etiologic agent of typhoid?

Salmonella

Name the etiological agents of schistosomiasis.

Schistosoma mansoni, S. japonicum, S. haematobium

Which disease did Stanley Prusiner first identify as being caused by prions?

Scrapie

What other potential symptoms should Jane be looking for in her daughter over the next few days?

Signs of sepsis and septic shock (such as hypotension and tachycardia) Symptoms of dehydration (including fewer wet diapers, little to no tear production, and decreased skin turgor)

How many codons code for the amino acid arginine?

Six

MRSA and VRSA are antibiotic resistant forms of which bacteria?

Staphylococcus aureus

What is the etiological agent of scalded-skin syndrome and impetigo?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which organism is most likely to be responsible for the boils?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which bacteria is the most common cause of gram-positive uncomplicated UTIs?

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which of the following virulence factors would be found in Staphylococcus aureus?

Staphylokinase

Name the etiological agent that mainly responsible for the formation of dental carries?

Streptococcus mutans

A child presents with a fever, headache, and a stiff neck. The pediatrician suspects pneumococcal meningitis. What is the etiological agent of this form of meningitis?

Streptococcus pneumoniae- gram positive cocci in chains

Infections with these symptoms are generally caused by which of the following pathogens?

Streptococcus pyogenes

What is the etiological agent of necrotizing fasciitis?

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following microorganisms use M protein to avoid destruction of a phagocyte?

Streptococcus pyogenes

How are superantigens different from other types of exotoxins?

Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system.

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as

T- independent antigens

Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?

TCR

The helminth, ________________ (genus/species), is the etiological agent of cysticercosis.

Taenia solium

Natural killer cells are activated by

Th1 cells

What part of the nervous system is most affected by fatal familial insomnia?

Thalamus

A laboratory performed two different types of vancomycin susceptibility testing of the MRSA strain isolated from Angel's urine. Based on the provided data and schematic, choose the correct statement(s). Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

The MBC is 8ug/mL. The MIC is 4ug/mL. Bacteria incubated in 4ug/mL vancomycin are alive but unable to divide.

In eukaryotes, the electron transport chain is a series of electron carrier molecules embedded in which organelle?

The Mitochondria --The electron transport chain molecules are embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane.--

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?

The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch.

Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies?

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria

How does the ribosome know if the entering charged tRNA is correct?

The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA.

Why do symptoms persist after antibiotics have been used to treat and remove the bacterial infection?

The blebs containing lipid A are still present in the blood and in the tissues.

How does a capsule help certain bacteria evade detection by the immune system?

The capsule is composed of polysaccharides that are similar to those found in the host; thus, the immune system does not recognize it as foreign.

What enables the copied chromosomes to separate during binary fission?

The chromosomes are attached to different parts of cell membrane, which elongates and thus separates the chromosomes.

This disease is spread from person to person only. How contagious a disease is it considered to be?

The disease is rarely transmitted from person to person.

How is fermentation of lactose detected?

The drop in pH turns the indicator dye yellow.

Ashleigh suspected the illnesses she saw were likely caused by norovirus. What information from the case support(s) that hypothesis? Select all that apply.

The first signs/symptoms appeared within 48 hours of the patient's initial infection. Patients were experiencing gastrointestinal distress. Patients were experiencing a low fever.

Why did the pediatrician assume Jane was mishandling raw eggs and poultry?

The girl's exhibited symptoms align with campylobacteriosis and salmonellosis, diseases caused by gastrointestinal pathogens that are known to be associated with poultry.

It was determined that Angel's UTI was caused by MRSA. Which of the following could be the source of his infection? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

The healthcare staff Urine catheter tube Angel himself

How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell?

The host cell dies during the lytic stage.

What test result indicates that the unknown can utilize citrate as its sole carbon source?

The medium turns blue

Why are the beta-pleated multimers of PrP potentially pathogenic?

The multimers are more stable and resistant to protease.

In a typical brightfield microscope (seen in the animation), at which point does magnification begin?

The objective lens

What would happen if the septum did not form during binary fission?

The parent cell would now have two copies of the chromosome.

Choose the feature(s) of an uncomplicated UTI. Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

The patient's urinary tract anatomy is normal. The patient did not develop the UTI as a result of a healthcare intervention.

Where does the name "scrapie" come from?

The prion disorder causes infected sheep to scrape against objects until their skin is raw.

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?

The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody

What is the initial target of RNA polymerase?

The promoter

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

Choose the false statement(s) about the simple staining technique. To be marked correct, you'll need to select all false statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

The simple staining method uses a single acidic dye that stains the slide background. Simple staining typically involves heat-fixing the specimen smear prior to staining. The simple staining method reveals information about cell shape and arrangement. The simple staining method requires only one dye.

If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus on finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine?

The students tried to isolate and identify West Nile virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.

Why should the actor worry about the spread of the injected Botox from the forehead to other parts of the body or face?

The toxin spreading to other areas of the body would inhibit muscle contractions required for normal daily activities.

What would be the fate of a lytic bacteriophage if the host cell died prior to the assembly stage?

The virus would not be able to infect new hosts.

How is Streptococcus pneumoniae able to avoid destruction by a phagocyte?

Their capsules make them "slippery" to phagocytes.

Missense Mutation: A change in the wild type amino acid to a different amino acid Silent Mutation: no change in the amino acid sequence Nonsense: premature stop codon introduced

There are two main types of mutations: base-substitution and frameshift mutations. Match the type of base substitution mutation located in the left-hand side column with the result of that mutation. Missense Mutation: Silent Mutation: Nonsense:

In healthy people, the urinary tract is typically free of cultivable bacteria. Select all the factors that limit bacteria growth in a healthy person's urinary tract.

There is lysozyme in urine. The flow of urine limits bacterial attachment in the urinary tract.

What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?

They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky.

Why are flowcharts useful for dichotomous keys?

They allow the researcher to visualize relationships between different bacteria.

How are immune cells able to detect foreign pathogens?

They are able to detect structures on the surfaces of foreign cells that are not found in the host.

What happens to the light rays when they hit the specimen?

They are reflected, refracted, or absorbed by the specimen.

What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?

They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.

How do fibrinolysins enhance a pathogen's virulence?

They break down fibrin proteins that are involved in clot formation, allowing the cells to penetrate deep into damaged skin.

How do Shigella cells move between host cells?

They can polymerize actin molecules from the epithelial cells into tail-like structures that propel them from one cell to another.

How do superantigens enable pathogens to hide from the immune system if they actually stimulate the immune system?

They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.

What is the hallmark of dichotomous keys?

They consist of a series of paired statements, in which only one statement of each pair applies to a given organism.

Which of the following statements describes eukaryotic cells?

They contain membrane-bound organelles such as a nucleus.

Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false?

They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets

How are prions different from other infectious agents?

They lack nucleic acid.

How are viruses different from eukaryotic cells?

They require a host in order to reproduce.

How is this disease transmitted?

This disease is most commonly transmitted by unprotected sex.

As a means to confirm diagnosis, TCBS agar (Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar) is used to grow Vibrio cholerae from patient samples The recipe for this growth media is shown below. Based on this information, which of the following statements accurately describe this media? Select all that apply

This media is considered a complex agar. Bromothymol blue and thymol blue contribute to this agar's use as a differential media. This agar is selective.

Which statement describes the citric acid cycle?

This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion. --The citric acid cycle breaks down carbon molecules, releasing carbon dioxide and forming some ATP.--

Which statement describes glycolysis?

This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. --In glycolysis, glucose is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid. The released energy is stored in ATP and the electron carrier NADH.--

Which statement describes the electron transport chain?

This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration. --In the electron transport chain, electrons move from one electron carrier to another, eventually reaching oxygen. The released energy is used to make ATPs.--

How many questions are needed in this dichotomous key to determine if the unknown is Bacteroides?

Three

Non-damaged blood vessels in Karina's eye would have dilated very soon after injury. Why? Select all that apply.

To deliver more oxygen to the site of injury To deliver more immune cells to fight infection and repair damage

Why was Angel given physical therapy?

To help him regain some mobility

What is the function of the structural elements of a virus?

To package and protect the viral genome

What is the role of the ocular lens?

To recreate the image in the viewer's eye

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?

To repair the damaged tissue

What eye disease is the leading cause of preventable microbial blindness?

Trachoma

threonine-glutamine-methionine-valine-proline

Translate the mRNA sequence ACA CAG AUG GUG CCC

Which bacterial genus and species is the etiological agent of syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

What zoonotic helminth infection is caused by eating undercooked game meat?

Trichinella spiralis trichinellosis

What type of microbe causes trichomoniasis?

Trichomonas vaginalis (protist parasite)

What conditions would a wet mount analysis of the vaginal discharge help eliminate from the list of possible urogenital conditions

Trichomoniasis

Which of the following amino acids is coded by only one codon?

Trp

The EMB results seen above would accurately be reported as two fecal coliforms / 100 ml water sample.

True

What is the etiological agent of African sleeping sickness?

Trypanosoma brucei

Which of the following microorganisms actually grows inside the macrophage?

Tuberculosis bacterium

Starting with three cells, how many cells would result from three rounds of replication?

Twenty-four

Allergies are classified as:

Type I hypersensitivities

Which of the following statements regarding type IV hypersensitivities is true?

Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.

What mRNA sequence is synthesized using the DNA template strand AAT CCG AGG T?

UUA GGC UCC A

Which enteric bacteria causes 70-95% of uncomplicated UTIs?

Uropathogenic Escherichia coli

Why was Jane's treatment reduced to only one antibiotic after the cause of illness was identified? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style)

Using multiple antimicrobial agents is likely to cause more side effects.

Which of the following conditions in humans is linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy?

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

What is the etiological agent of smallpox?

Variola virus

Which statement regarding viral species is true? Viral species are not classified as part of any of the three domains. Viral species are classified within the Kingdom Plantae in the Domain Eukarya. Viruses are classified as prokaryotes. Viral species are taxonomically differentiated based upon their cell wall.

Viral species are not classified as part of any of the three domains.

An important end product of cellular respiration is _____.

Water --Water, carbon dioxide, and energy are the end products of cellular respiration.--

What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern?

West Nile virus is an arthropod-borne virus transmitted by mosquitoes. West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America. West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods.

which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease?

West Nile virus outbreaks have increased in number and affected areas since 1937.

What is the function of eosin and methylene blue in EMB media?

What is the function of eosin and methylene blue in EMB media?

Which of the following best describes a prophage?

When a phage genome is integrated into the host cell's chromosome

How is translation terminated?

When a protein called a release factor enters and binds to the A site

When would endotoxins be released from a bacterial cell?

When the cell dies

UGG

Which of the following is NOT a stop codon?

Provided your newest working diagnosis is correct, what do you expect the tests you ordered will reveal? Differential white blood cell and glucose level of the CSF sample ELISA for West Nile virus Gram stain and culturing of the CSF

White blood cell counts and glucose levels should be normal, the ELISA test should be negative, and the Gram stain and culturing of the CSF will most likely be inconclusive.

Jessica wonders if she should call both men that she has been intimate with in the past. What do you advise? Support your position with information from the chapter and the case.

Yes, Chlamydia is often subclinical and has serious disease complications; all of a patient's sexual partners must be treated in order to limit the spread of disease.

Should Jessica go ahead and get the HPV vaccine if she is diagnosed with HPV, or is it too late for her to derive any benefits from the vaccine? Explain your response.

Yes. Jessica may still have benefits from vaccination if the HPV vaccine contains subtypes that Jessica is not already infected with.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?

Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production.

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following? a. Jellyfish sting b. A headache c. Vomiting

a

Based on the animation, which of the following is responsible for cleaving C3? a. C2aC4b b. C4aC2b c. C5bC6C7 d. C1

a

How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway? a. Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them b. Stimulation of the inflammatory response c. Triggering the release of histamine d. Disrupting cell wall of pathogens

a

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron? a. To repair the damaged tissue b. To destroy the agent causing injury c. To destroy the agent causing injury, to limit the effects of the agent on the rest of the body, and to repair the damaged tissue d. To limit the effects of the agent on the rest of the body

a

Where are the complement proteins found in the body? a. The blood serum b. In every cell c. The liver d. The thymus e. The spleen

a

Which of the following are functions of lectins? a. They act as opsonins for phagocytosis, they attach to carbohydrates on some bacterial and viral surfaces, and they activate C2 and C4. b. They act as opsonins for phagocytosis. c. They produce antibodies. They attach to carbohydrates on some bacterial and viral surfaces. d. They can activate C2 and C4. They produce factor P (properdin).

a

Which of the following groupings contain things that are all true indicators of inflammation? a. redness, heat, edema, pain b. redness, coolness, numbness, fever c. blueness, coolness, edema, pain d. redness, heat, edema, pain, fever

a

Autoimmune disorders are diagnosed using

a collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms.

Lysogenic viral DNA which has integrated into the host genome is referred to as

a prophage.

The primary immune response involves

a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.

Part complete ___________ is caused by a Gram-positive resident, Propionibacterium, which uses sebum as a nutrition source.

acne

Genital warts are transmitted by __________.

all answers are correct

Which of the following is a way that and individual could contract an STD?

all answers stated are ways that someone could contract an STD

What is the best way to prevent the spread of this infection?

all food handlers are required to wash their hands thoroughly after using the restroom.

Which protozoan disease would be responsible for the symptoms seen in this patient?

amebiasis

An anamnestic response is

another name for secondary response.

Along with intravenous rehydration, many of the medication groups listed below may be used for secondary infections. But which group must be used if the infection is to be controlled?

antiprotozoan medications

the word ____ is derived from the shortened form of "anthropod borne" virus

arbovirus

many extremophiles such as halophiles, thermophiles, and acidophiles belong to domain ________.

archaea

organisms in domain _______ are more closely related genetically to organisms in domain _________ than domain _______.

archaea; eukarya; bacteria

Biochemical tests _________________.

are the main methods used to identify unknown bacteria

GAU codes for

aspartic acid.

The normal function of the PrP protein in mammals is believed to be:

assisting in normal synaptic development and function.

What type of vaccine would be used to vaccinate the twins?

attenuated virus vaccine

Based on the animation, which of the following is cleaved by C1? a. C5 b. C2 and C4 c. C4 d. C2 e. C5 and C4

b

Diapedesis is a. the attachment of phagocytes to the walls of capillaries. b. the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage. c. the production and release of chemicals during inflammation. d. the increase in the diameter of blood vessels.

b

Histamines are released when mast cells are exposed to _____, which are fragments of complement proteins. a. bradykinins b. C3a and C5a c. C3 and C5 d. platelets

b

If a person lacked the ability to form C5, what direct result of complement could still occur? a. Cytolysis b. Opsonization c. Chemotaxis

b

In the classical pathway, which of the following directly activates cellular responses? a. C2aC4b b. C3a, C5a, and C5bC6C7 c. C5bC6C7 d. C3b e. C4aC2bC3b f. C3a and C5a

b

Pus is comprised of a. collected cells from damaged tissue. b. dead phagocytes. c. excess fluid from leaky blood vessels. d. unused histamines and leukotrienes.

b

The process of blood clotting leads to the formation of _____ a potent mediator of inflammation. a. prostaglandin b. bradykinin c. leukotriene d. histamine

b

What complement result nvolves the use of phagocytes? a. Chemotaxis b. Chemotaxis and opsonization c. Cytolysis d. Opsonization

b

What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries? a. They decrease the diameter of capillaries. b. They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky. c. They prevent phagocytes from sticking to the walls of capillaries.

b

Which of the complement pathways employs properdin? a. Classical pathway b. Alternative pathway c. Lectin pathway d. Alternative and lectin pathways all employ properdin. e. Classical, alternative, and lectin pathways all employ properdin. f. The classical and alternative pathways both require properdin.

b

Which of the complement pathways was discovered first? a. The lectin pathway b. The classical pathway c. The alternative pathway

b

Hepatitis A, B, and C are the primary cause for infectious hepatitis. Which type(s) of hepatitis is(are) spread by the sexual contact or inoculation with contaminated blood?

b and c

What type of microbe causes lymphogranuloma venereum?

bacteria

Staphylococcus aureus is streaked on MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37ºC. What results would you expect to observe on MSA?

bacterial growth with yellow colored media

Which type of organism would NOT be included in the Domain Eukarya? protist ameba fungus bacterium

bacterium

1) Bacteremia, also known as ____________ poisoning, causes fever, low blood pressure, and sometimes internal organ damage.

blood

Tinea corporis is the etiological agent of _______________.

body ringworm

Prions are located in the ___________ of an infected human

brain

Which test confirmed the presence of this prion disease?

brain scan

Fred has developed a large blister on his foot. What is the name of the primary lesion that he is exhibiting?

bulla

Botulism and tetanus are caused by toxins produced by which genus of bacteria?

by Clostridium

The etiological agent of genital herpes is _______________.

by HSV-2 (herpes simplex virus 2)

Most prokaryotic cells reproduce

by binary fission.

How is this disease transmitted?

by direct contact with an open sore during sexual activity

Acute and chronic inflammations differ in that acute inflammation _____. a. involves the formation of pus b. always involves a fever c. develops quickly, ends quickly, and is typically beneficial d. develops slowly, lasts a long time, and is potentially damaging

c

Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in a. the alternative pathway. b. both the classical and alternative pathways. c. the classical pathway. d. the lectin pathway.

c

Basophils, platelets, and _____ are all capable of secreting histamines. a. monocytes b. complement c. mast cells d. neutrophils

c

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred? a. The ankle is very warm to the touch. b. The ankle swells. c. The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch. d. The ankle is red.

c

Increased permeability of the vessels leads to _____ and pain. a. heat b. redness c. edema d. fever

c

Leukocytes have the ability to cross the vessel wall out of the blood stream and into the tissues. This process is known as _____. a. phagocytosis b. apoptosis c. diapedesis d. phagocytosis

c

Which complement protein is used as an opsonin? a. C3a b. C4a c. C3b d. C7 e. C5b f. C2a

c

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair? a. It allows more nutrients to be delivered to the site of damage. b. It allows for an increase in oxygen to the site of damage. c. It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage. d. It allows more phagocytes to travel to the site of damage.

c

What type of cancer is more likely to develop in people who have had papillomavirus infections?

cancer of the tonsils

which special staining method is considered a negative stain?

capsule stain

a thick, detectable, discrete polysaccharide layer located outside of the cell wall that protects bacteria from the host's immune system and allow pathogens to invade the body is called __________

capsules

The most common source of hospital acquired infections that is responsible 70-80% of complicated UTI's is caused by which medical device?

catheter-associated UTIS

Which does not apply to ringworm infections?

caused by a worm

Based on the recommendations in this textbook, which antibiotic would be the treatment of choice for this disease?

ceftriaxone and azithromycin

A staph infection called ___________ is a disease of the skin and deeper tissues. It results in skin swelling and redness, and sometimes oozing sores or ulcers.

cellulitis

The nervous system is divided into the _______ nervous system and the ______ nervous system.

central and peripheral

In most cases, bacterial meningitis is diagnosed by the presence of bacteria in what body fluid?

cerebrospinal fluid

What disease has this patient contracted?

chancroids

Autoimmune disorders are

chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone.

Which topical medication would likely be recommended for use in this case?

clotrimazole cream

The common infection known as "pink eye" is an infection of the

conjunctiva.

How can this disease best be categorized?

contagious and chronic

Transcription occurs in the _________ of prokaryotes and the __________ of eukaryotes.

cytoplasm/nucleus

The structural framework in a cell is the

cytoskeleton.

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

cytotoxic T-cells

An exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a(n)

cytotoxin

If a person could not form C2, which result of complement would be affected? a. Opsonization b. Cytolysis c. Chemotaxis and inflammation d. Cytolysis, chemotaxis, inflammation, and opsonization

d

Inflammatory mediators such as bradykinin and histamine cause blood vessels to _____. a. vasoconstrict b. increase permeability c. lengthen d. vasodilate

d

What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway? a. Lipids b. Nucleic acids c. Carbohydrates d. Proteins

d

Which of the following can release histamines? a. The complement system b. Wood from a splinter c. Invading bacterial cells d. Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway e. Cells from damaged tissues

d

Which of the following is NOT an accepted treatment for warts?

daily application of tincture of iodine to the wart surface

Pus is comprised of

dead phagocytes.

What is the typical incubation period for prion diseases?

decades

Which nucleic acid is part of the varicella-zoster virion?

dsDNA

Which of the following is not directly involved in protein synthesis?

dsRNA

Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell? a. C2b b. C4a c. C2a d.C5b e. C3b

e

Part complete What is it called when there is only inflammation of the brain

encephalitis

lethal ________-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus anthracis, can be used for bioterrorism

endospore

what special stain method uses the primary stain, malachite green, and the counterstain safranin?

endospore stain

metabolically inactive (dormant) forms of bacteria that can survive harsh environmental conditions such as heat and UV radiation are called ______

endospores

Based on the observations given, what is the probable diagnosis made by the health care provider?

erysipelas

What is one of the virulence factors associated with the causative agent for this infection

erythrogenic toxin

What would be the best treatment options?

erythromycin

If there is not enough time between determination of an STD in the pregnant mother and time of delivery, after birth the doctor may choose to prophylactically treat the infant for infections. What would the treatment be?

erythromycin cream initially placed in the newborn's eyes

The function of cellular respiration is to __________.

extract usable energy from glucose --The most prevalent and efficient energy-yielding pathway is cellular respiration, in which oxygen is consumed as a reactant, along with the organic fuel (frequently glucose).--

Next, Richard observes the HE plate. The results are as follows: Only a few yellow/orange colored colonies are observed The HE results indicate the presences of Salmonella.

false

The next day Richard examines the EMB plate filters. The results are as follows: The EMB agar average two blue colonies / plate. Drag the label to the correct area.

fecal form: blue spot non-decal coliform: red spot

Which maculopapular rash-producing disease is caused by human parvovirus B19?

fifth disease

distinctive red rash on the cheeks with an otherwise mild illness is most likely

fifth disease.

Short, bristle-like structures that extrude from the surface of a prokaryotic cell are called

fimbriae

Botulism is generally associated with ingestion of the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. The activity of the toxin will result in __________.

flaccid paralysis

Virulence factors associated with this organism include all of the following, EXCEPT __________.

flagella

If a nucleotide is inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence, the resulting mutation is known as a _________________ mutation.

frameshift

Tinea infections are cause by what type of microbe?

fungal

The photograph shows

genital warts

Rubella is also known as _____________ and the etiological agent is ____________.

german measles; rubella virus

Select the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration.

glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain --Glycolysis produces pyruvic acid, which enters the mitochondrion. There, it is converted to acetyl CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle. Electron carriers bring electrons from the first three steps to the electron transport chain, and ATP is made.--

What disease does this patient have? What is the common name for this disease?

gonorrhea; "the clap"

what category of bacteria have cell walls that possess peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide?

gram negative

what category of bacteria have cell walls that possess peptidoglycan and teichoic acid?

gram positive

what category of bacteria is resistant to physical disruption and drying, but are highly susceptible to penicillin and anionic detergents?

gram positive

what color do endospores stain when performing the endospore special staining method?

green

Which of the following groups in the Domain Archaea require high salt concentrations for survival? hyperthermophiles halophiles Archaezoa methanogens

halophiles

Coxsackievirus 16 and enterovirus 71 are the main viruses that cause ______________ disease.

hand foot mouth

The tertiary stage of syphilis can affect what part of the body?

heart, brain, nerves

when preparing a slide for bacterial staining, the ________ step attaches the bacteria to the slide and kills the microorganisms.

heat fixing

The result of Shiga toxin exposure can lead to a serious complication called _______________ (2 words) syndrome.

hemolytic uremic

Hepatitis A, B, and C are the primary cause for infectious hepatitis. Which type(s) of hepatitis is(are) spread by the fecal-oral route?

hep a

Which of the following microbes that cause reproductive diseases can typically be prevented by a vaccination that is administered to individuals who are 26 and under, and who don't have the disease?

hpv

Fever blisters are vesicular/pustular rashes that usually occur around the mouth area. What is the etiological agent of fever blisters?

hsv-1

Which picture shows an icosahedral enveloped virus with spikes?

https://session.masteringmicrobiology.com/problemAsset/2793423/2/figure_6.2b.jpg

A chemist has discovered a drug that blocks an enzyme that catalyzes some of the reactions of glycolysis. He wants to use the drug to kill bacteria in people with infections. However, he cannot do this because __________.

human cells also perform glycolysis; the drug might also poison them --The chemist's drug could have a devastating effect on human cells.--

What etiological agent causes roseola?

human herpesvirus 6 and 7

Low blood volume due to loss of blood or severe dehydration that can lead to organ failure is called ____________ shock.

hypovolemic

A number of different RNA viruses can cause infection of the digestive system. What genome-based diagnostic tool is used to detect RNA viruses in the blood of a patient? [Note: antibody detection would be an immunology-based diagnostic tool]

igm antibodies (reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction)

_______ oil prevents the scattering of light when viewing a sample using the 100x objective lens

immersion

you are viewing a specimen using the 100x objective, but the image is fuzzy. Assuming that the microscope is clean and functioning properly, what is the likely reason why the image isn't clear?

immersion oil is not present

According to the US Environmental Protection Agency, Cryptosporidium has been detected in 65 to 97% of US surface waters (lakes, streams, etc.). What infective stage of the protozoan must be ingested to cause Cryptosporidiosis?

infective stage

the suffix "itis" means

inflammation

How did this couple become infected with C. jejuni?

ingestion of undercooked poultry

Transmission of the causative bacterial agent is via this route.

inhalation of respiratory droplets

Which portion of the mitochondria is folded to create a large surface area?

inner membrane

Part complete What would be the best course of action to treat someone who has been exposed to Clostridium boltulinum toxin or has had a Botox injection that is spreading?

intravenous immunoglobulins

Antigen processing and presentation

is a way for a cell to give information about its activities

Boys should receive the HPV vaccine because __________.

it can prevent oropharyngeal cancer caused by having oral sex with a woman infected with HPV

Why is the unknown in this example not Pseudomonas?

it ferments lactose

An infection with Chlamydia is easily spread, because ________.

it is usually asymptomatic]

A prion disease cause by ritualist cannibalism is called _____________.

kuru

the common name for hansen's disease is

leprosy

Mitochondria share all the following features with bacteria except

linear DNA and 80S ribosomes.

If not handled promptly with the correct treatment regime, which of the following infections may develop and be considered as life threatening?

liver and lung abscesses

Which of the following organelles breaks down worn-out organelles?

lysosomes

What carries instructions for making proteins from the nucleus into the cytoplasm?

mRNA

What type of RNA codes for proteins?

mRNA

Which of the following can be translated into protein?

mRNA

Transcription produces which of the following?

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are all produced by transcription.

If humans did not breathe in O2, we would not __________.

make enough ATP to meet our energy requirements --The electron transport chain accepts electrons from the breakdown products of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, and it passes these electrons from one molecule to another until they are passed (along with two hydrogen ions) to oxygen to form water.--

The main function of cellular respiration is __________.

making ATP to power cell activities --The energy made available during cellular respiration is coupled to a process that phosphorylates ADP, making ATP.--

What is the host range for rabies?

mammals

Which three viruses are individuals protected from who are administered the MMR vaccine?

measles, mumps, rubella

Rubeola is also known as ___________ and the etiological agent is ____________.

measles; measles virus/paramyxovirus

Based on the symptoms stated, what is the most probable disease that this student has developed?

meningitis

Mismatch-repair enzymes cannot repair a DNA mutation once it becomes ______________.

methylated

Immersion oil is required to _________.

minimize scattered light when the high-powered lens is used

Where in a cell is ATP made?

mitochondria

the two organelles that are theorized to have evolved from prokaryotic cells are _____ and _____.

mitochondria & chloroplast

What is the vector that spreads West Nile Virus and La Cross Virus to humans?

mosquito

The glycolipid substance that forms a insulating sheath around certain CNS and PNS nerve axons is called ________.

myelin

A patient who has been hospitalized with uncontrolled muscle spasms has probably been infected with bacteria that secrete a(n)

neurotoxin.

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?

non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus

This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on MacConkey. All three organisms have grown on the media. Which organism(s) is/are gram-positive?

none of the organisms are gram-positive

Prokaryotic DNA is found in the __________ region and eukaryotic DNA is located in the ___________.

nucleoid, nucleus

Where is the genetic information of the cell stored?

nucleus

How does boiling water kill pathogens in it

oiling denatures proteins and cell membranes.

What should the course of treatments for this infection entail?

oral antibiotics

What is the recommended course of therapy?

oral fluids

Herpes is caused by the viruses, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 usually causes ________ herpes, while HSV-2 usually causes _________ herpes.

oral; genital

This image shows the results of three different bacterial species grown on EMB. All three organisms have grown on the media. What does the appearance of the growth of organism "C" indicate?

organims "C" exhibited an abundance of lactose fermentation resulting in a metallic sheen

What causes warts?

papillomavirus

What is the main salivary gland that is inflamed when a patient has the mumps?

parotid glands

What type of bond joins amino acids to a growing protein chain?

peptide bond

what cells or tissues will harbor the bacteria in a patient with Hansen disease?

peripheral nerve endings, mucous membranes, and skin cells in the fingers, toes, lips, and earlobes

jamie gave birth to her first child after 15 hours of labor. the next day..........small, pinpoint sized spots on her face. capillaries burst under her skin during the strenuous delivery. what is the name of the secondary lesions on jamie's face?

petechiae

Thymine dimer mutations cause by ultraviolet light can be repaired using ___________.

photolyases and excision-repair enzymes

what color do vegetative cells stain when performing the endospore special staining method?

pinkish/red

Enterobius vermicularis causes ___________ infections while Necator americanus causes __________ infections.

pinworm hookworm

When mixed with their host bacterium and plated on solid agar, lytic phage will form clear areas in the bacterial growth. What are these clear areas called?

plaques

What structure acts as a selective barrier, regulating the traffic of materials into and out of the cell?

plasma membrane

The ability of certain bacterial cells to take on different cell shapes is known as

pleomorphism.

Which of the following diseases cause flu-like symptoms in most people infected, but can cause muscle weakness or paralysis?

polio

What is the most likely etiology (cause) of this disease?

prion

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are cause by ___________. [

prions

What is apoptosis?

programmed cell death

Prions are misfolded _______________.

proteins

What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway?

proteins

organisms in domain archaea have cell walls that possess _______.

pseudopeptidoglycan

Ribosomes contain which of the following?

rRNA

What type of RNA makes up a portion of the ribosome?

rRNA

Part complete What disease is transmitted from bats to humans and produces the signs/symptoms displayed by this patient?

rabies

what infection's diagnostic indicator is the presence of negri bodies within a neuron?

rabies

A patient has been diagnosed with a wart, a type of primary lesion known as a papule. Describe the appearance of a papule.

raised solid lesion (not fluid filled), may be disclored. has distinct borders; less than 0.5 in diameter

The fact that more than one codon can code for a single amino acid is referred to __________ in the genetic code.

redundancy

Which stage of viral replication is shown? The figure shows a viral structure in a cell. It moves to the cell membrane and goes through it covering itself with part of the membrane. This part of the membrane has pin-like structures on its outer side.

release by budding

One of the ways smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) differs from rough endoplasmic reticulum is that rough ER is covered by

ribosomes

Which structure pictured is the site of synthesis of proteins destined for secretion?

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A patient has been diagnosed with psoriasis. Psoriasis body lesions are caused by the shedding of the outer layers of the skin, so that the skin surface appears flaky. What is the name of the secondary lesion that the patient is exhibiting?

scale

Which type of media has ingredients that foster the growth of certain bacteria while suppressing the growth of others?

selective

EMB media is a selective and differential diagnostic media. What does EMB select for? What does it differentiate?

selects for gram-negative organisms and differentiates between organisms that can or cannot ferment lactose

MacConkey media is a selective and differntial diagnostic media. What does MacConkey select for? What does it differentiate?

selects for gram-negative organisms and differentiates between organisms that can or cannot ferment lactose

Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli O157:H7 produce ___________ toxin that can damage the kidneys in some patients resulting in hematuria, purpura, and edema.

shiga

Fifth disease is sometimes called _______________ syndrome, because of the appearance of the rash.

slapped cheek syndrome

Where are lipids made in the cell?

smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

Which food is the most likely source of the infection?

sprouts

RNA that has hydrogen bonded to itself forms a

stem loop.

If you were an epidemiologist looking for the source of the pathogen, what samples would you collect at Jane's house?

stool sample of caretakers Soil sample (including clover sample) Food preparation areas (such as kitchen countertops), food preparation tools (such as knives used to cut food), and consumed food items (including the baby jar food)

Which of the following arrangements is sometimes referred to as having a beads-on-a-string appearance?

streptococci

A person who attended a picnic early in the day develops a very high fever and is unresponsive by the evening. This person most likely has been exposed to a(n)

superantigen

Measles viruses are capable of inactivating host defenses by

suppressing the immune system.

Which of the following is involved in bringing amino acids to the ribosomes?

tRNA

Two types of flatworms are ___________ and blood __________.

tapeworms and blood flukes

RNA polymerase is guided by the

template strand of DNA.

Athlete's foot is caused by a variety of different fungal infections. The presentation of a severe case would look much like the photograph here. The interdigital spaces and any moist areas of the foot are likely to be affected first. As the disease progresses, the nail and nail bed become affected. Once the nails are infected, the course of treatment must involve three different areas. First, the feet must be kept clean and dry. This includes allowing shoes to air dry for 24 hours between wearings, wearing shoes made of leather or other "breathable" materials, using antifungal powders inside the shoes, changing socks at least twice daily, wearing sandals whenever practical, washing the feet with soap twice daily, and applying an astringent. Additional precautions include always wearing shower shoes in public showers/locker rooms and not sharing towels or wearing another person's shoes to prevent contact with the fungus and reinfection. Second, an appropriate antifungal cream, such as clotrimazole, should be applied to clean, dry feet daily. This helps to kill the infection from the outside toward the inside of the body. Third, in advanced cases that involve the nail bed, oral medications are necessary for at least 12 weeks and often up to 6 months (until the new nail is visible and free of fungal discoloration and texture). This kills the fungus from the inside of the skin toward the surface. What would be the most effective oral agent to use for treating the condition depicted in this case?

terbinafine tablets

A powerful toxin called tetanospasmin causes the symptoms of what nervous system infection?

tetanus

A chief concern of the health care provider with an infection such as this one would be which of the following?

the bacteria spreading to the blood (bacteremia) and damaging the heart or the kidneys

Where are the complement proteins found in the body?

the blood serum

Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in

the classical pathway

Which of the complement pathways was discovered first?

the classical pathway

Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?

the endoplasmic reticululm

Describe the function of the indicator, neutral red, when the bacteria growing on MacConkey media ferment lactose.

the indicator will change from colorless to pinkish

Emigration is

the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage.

An organism is streaked onto MSA and allowed to grow overnight at 37º C. The plate has bacterial growth, but the media remained a pinkish color. What do the results indicate about the organism?

the organism can grow in high salt conditions, but cannot ferment mannitol

Evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory includes

the presence of 70S ribosomes in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

Part complete What determines which form of Hansen disease a person will develop after infection with the causative bacterium?

the state of a person's immune response during early development of the disease

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

they present antigens from engulfed foreign cells

what bacterial cell wall characteristic does Gram staining differentiate?

thin/think layer of peptidoglycan

If filtering and boiling water can prevent infection, how do you think most gastrointestinal illnesses are transmitted?

through the fecal-oral route

What type of infection is shown? (bullseye rash and feet)

tinea

What risk is there, if any, to the unborn child during passage through the birth canal?

trachoma

While on a medical volunteer trip to an impoverished country, you encounter a patient whose eyelids are turned inward as shown. What is the cause and the best treatment?

trachoma; single dose of oral azithromycin

The symptoms point toward a form of Hansen disease. Which form of the disease best fits the symptoms that are being seen by the nurse?

tuberculoid leprosy

How many answers are there to a question in a dichotomous key flowchart?

two

To reduce the chances of bacterial meningitis, the CDC recommends what actions be taken for military recruits and college freshman?

vaccinations for meningococcus

Which virus results in shingles when it is reactivated with peripheral nerves?

varicella-zoster

What is the etiological agent of chickenpox

varicella-zoster virus

Which virus is responsible for Grandfather Davis's shingles?

varicella-zoster virus

Reactivation of latent (dormant) viruses cause shingles and reoccurring cold sores. Name these two viruses

variecella-zoster, herpes zoster

Which of the following cell shapes look like a comma?

vibrio

Certain traits that allow pathogens to create infection and cause disease are termed

virulence factors.

What type of pathogen causes rubella and rubeola? Not the names of the organisms

virus

Localized anaphylaxis tends to feature isolated symptoms such as

watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.

Which of the following factors would NOT contribute to the development of severe dermatomycoses?

wearing sandals

What is the common name of vulvovaginitis candidiasis?

yeast infection

Is it possible for Rudy's warts to spread to other areas of his body?

yes. Papillomaviruses are spread by direct contact

Is Grandfather Davis contagious?

yes. The twins would probably develop chicken pox two weeks after their visit with Grandfather Davis.

What is the word used to refer to diseases transmissible from animals to humans?

zoonoses