Microbiology

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What transports electrons from the light reactions to the Calvin cycle? A. Chlorophyll B. FADH2 C. NADH D. NADPH E. An electron transport chain

NADPH

2 Bacillus (aerobic) & Clostridium (anaerobic), GP rods

Name two genera that produce endospores and how are the different?

Which bacteria is the number one cause of bacterial meningitis in children and adults?

Neisseria meningitidis is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in children and adults.

Would penicillin be an effective treatment for an infection with Mycoplasma? Why/why not?

No, Penicillin attacks the cell wall, mycoplasma has no cell wall.

The "building block" (molecular structural units) of nucleic acids are:

Nucleotides

Figure 4.4 shows movement across a plasma membrane. Which figure best represents a specific transporter protein?

O with o through the center partially closed

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?

OO OO

DNA replication:

Occurs bidirectionally & Is semiconservative & Begins at the origin of replication (All of the above)

What did Griffith's experiment with pneumococci demonstrate?

Only encapsulated cells are pathogenic (which may form from non encapsulated and heat killed encapsulated and kill the mouse)

HEPA

Operating rooms may receive ventilation from air that has passed through __________ filters to remove microorganisms.

A cluster of polar flagella is called A. lophotrichous B. amphitrichous C. monotrichous D. petritrichous

Option A

A single polar flagella is known as A. monotrichous B. lophotrichous C. amphitrichous D. none of these

Option A

Bacteria having no flagella are unable to A. move B. reproduce C. stick to tissue surfaces D. grow in nutrient agar

Option A

Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria A. 50% or more B. About 10% C. 11%+ 0.22% D. About 20%

Option A

True/False: Endospores require higher temperatures to be destroyed as compared to vegetative cells

TRUE

True/False: N. meningitidis has a number of different ways to avoid the host's immune system.

TRUE

True/False: Silver is an effective antimicrobial when treating P. aeruginosa infections

TRUE

True/False: LPS can be released during an infection with N. meningitidis.

TRUe

True/False: At high temperatures, enzymes undergo denaturation and lose their catalytic properties; at low temperatures, the reaction rate decreases.

TRue

True/False: Oxygen is required during fermentation.

TRue

True/False: Pyruvic acid can only be broken down (during fermentation) by yeasts.

TRue

The DNA polymerase that is isolated from a thermophile is

Taq

What type of phage is involved in specialized transduction?

Temperate

Lambda phage is a model for:

Temperate phage

Cell membrane, mitochondria

The site of ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is the ______and in the eukaryotic cells is the_______

What is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage called?

Transduction

What is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell as naked DNA in a solution called?

Transformation

Which of the following is a type of gene transfer?

Transformation, Conjugation, Transduction (all)

The decoding of mRNA to form a polypeptide chain is...

Translation

The process in which the genetic code in RNA is converted into a polypeptide chain (protein) is called...

Translation

(T/F) An operon is a group of genes that is under the control of a singe operator site.

True

(T/F) In the absence of glucose, when lactose is present it combines with the repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to carry on transcription.

True

(T/F) Regulation of degradative pathways involving an activator that is activated by an inducer is referred to as positive control.

True

(T/F) Some degradative pathways are regulated by an activator protein. An activator is a regulatory protein that facilitates transcription by binding to DNA.

True

(T/F) The inducer of the lac operon is an isomer of lactose.

True

(T/F) The lac repressor protein is active in the absence of lactose within the cell.

True

(T/F) The polycistronic mRNA is transcribed from the lac operon when lactose is present in the cell.

True

(T/F) The trp repressor is a helix-turn-helix regulator protein.

True

(T/F) When RNA polymerase is bound to the lac promoter sequence, transcription of the lac operon is on.

True

At high temperatures, enzymes undergo denaturation and lose their catalytic properties; at low temperatures, the reaction rate decreases. T/F

True

Endospores are resting structures formed by some bacteria for survival during adverse environmental conditions T/F

True

Endospores require higher temperatures to be destroyed as compared to vegetative cells T/F

True

Oxygen is not required during fermentation. t/f

True

PABA is a competitive inhibitor which inhibits the catalysis of sulfanilamide to folic acid. T/F

True

Some photosynthetic bacteria produce gas vacuoles that regulate their buoyancy. True False

True

True/False Biochemical tests for the identification of bacteria involve testing fermentation products or amino acid catabolism.

True

True/False Enzymes work most effectively at their optimal temperature and pH.

True

True/False Glycolysis produces ATP through substrate phosphorylation.

True

True/False Metabolic pathways that function in both anabolism and catabolism are called amphibolic pathways.

True

True/False NADPH produced in noncyclic photosynthesis is used to provide electrons for the fixation of CO2 in the Calvin-Benson cycle.

True

True/False The synthesis of sugars by using carbon atoms from CO2 gas is called carbon fixation.

True

True/False: Bacteria are able to repair thymine dimers using energy from visible light.

True

True/False: Bacteria can conjugate with plants.

True

True/False: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is used to synthesize sugars in the Calvin-Benson cycle.

True

True/False: Endospores are resting structures formed by some bacteria for survival during adverse environmental conditions.

True

True/False: In general transduction, any bacterial genes can be transferred.

True

True/False: The phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane is permeable to protons (i.e. protons can easily pass through).

True

True/False: Transposons are small segments of DNA that can move from one region to another region of the same chromosome or to a different chromosome or a plasmid.

True

True/False: most mutations are corrected by a repair system before being passed on as a mutation.

True

True

True or False-Members of the Archaea and Bacteria domains are both prokaryotic and have similar structure, but differ molecularly.

True

True or False-Plasmids are small extrachromosomal DNA molecules that contain nonessential genes that give bacteria competitive characteristics in their environment.

How many net ATPs can be made from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis? A. One B. Four C. Two D. Six

Two

What mutagen causes thymine dimers?

Ultraviolet light

5 Continuous culture- open system microbial culture of fixed volume (chemostat)

Under what conditions would a lag phase not occur?

What types of diseases is Proteus mirabilis associated with?

Urinary Tract Infections, wound infections as well, kidney stones.

What is biocontrol ?

Use of one type of microbe to control others

2 Coccus and spirillum differ in shape. Pathogens have a capsule surrounding then where nonpathogens do not.

Using a microscope, could you differentiate a coccus from a spirillum? A pathogen from a nonpathogen?

c) Adverse environmental stress

Usually, bacteria form more endospores in response to: a) Need for reproduction b) Colony formation c) Adverse environmental stress d) Nutrient surplus e) Increased aeration

Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?

WATER WILL MOVE OUT OF THE CELL

Figure 4.4 shows movement across a plasma membrane. Which figure best represents an aquaporin?

Water channel only (no diffusion)

Which is true of simple diffusion of water?

Water usually enters a cell and produces a tremendous osmotic pressure.

If two cultures of a facultative anaerobe were grown under identical conditions except that one was exposed to oxygen and the other was completely deprived of oxygen, what differences would you expect to see between the two cultures? (What metabolic pathway would be occurring in each? Why?)

We would expect that the facultative anaerobe grown under oxygen would have better growth, more of the culture, because facultative anaerobes grow faster with oxygen but do not require it. It would take anaerobic respiration or fermentation.

In glycolysis, ATP molecules are produced by _____. 1.oxidative phosphorylation 2.cellular respiration 3.substrate-level phosphorylation 4.photosynthesis 5.photophosphorylation

3

The typical end products of complete aerobic respiration are carbon dioxide, water, and ....

ATP

The typical end products of complete aerobic respiration are carbon dioxide, water, and: A. ATP B. glucose C. Lactic Acid D. pyruvate

ATP

Which of the following molecules traps energy released during oxidation reduction reactions? A. NADP+ B. FAD+ C. ATP D. NAD

ATP

Which of the following would you predict to be a feedback inhibitor of the glycolytic enzyme phosphofructokinase? A. ATP B. FAD C. fructose D. ADP E. NAD+

ATP

During the energy-harvesting steps of glycolysis, which chemicals are produced?

ATP and NADH

What two molecules are produced by the light reactions and used to power the Calvin cycle? A. C6H12O6 and RuBP B. C6H12O6 and O2 C. CO2 and O2 D. ATP and NADPH E. G3P and H2O

ATP and NADPH

Which of the following are products of light-dependent photosynthetic reactions and are necessary for the light-independent photosynthetic reactions to occur? A. ATP and NADPH B. O2 and ATP C. O2 and NADPH D. glucose and O2

ATP and NADPH

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. b) Membrane-bound nucleus

Neither

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. d) Viruses

Both

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. e) 70S ribosomes

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. f) Endoplasmic reticulum

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. g) Respiratory enzymes in mitochondria

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. h) Mitosis

Prokaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. i) Peptidoglycan in cell wall

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. j) Cilia

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. k) 80S ribosomes

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. l) Chloroplasts

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. m) "9+2" microtubule arrangement in flagella

Prokaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. n) Bacteria

Both

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. o) Can have extrachromosomal DNA

Eukaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. p) Meiosis

Prokaryotes only

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only;Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. a) Single chromosome

The correct order of the phases of cellular respiration is a. Krebs cycle, glycolysis, prep reaction, ETC b. glycolysis, prep reaction, Krebs cycle, ETC c. prep reaction, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, ETC d. None of these are correct.

B

Which of these is not true of the prep reaction? a. The prep reaction begins with pyruvate and ends with acetyl CoA. b. produces more NADH than does the Krebs cycle. c. occurs in the mitochondria d. occurs after glycolysis and before the Krebs cycle.

B

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell? - Ribosomes - Plasma membrane - Around organelles - B and C - Flagella

B and C

Prokaryotic ribosomes are A. 80 S B. 70 S C. 20 S D. none of the above

B. 70 S

Twenty Staphylococcus aureus cells contaminated the macaroni salad you were making for a picnic. Given a generation time of 60 minutes, how many bacteria would you have after 2 hours? A. 160 B. 80 C. 40 D. 1200

B. 80 (starts with 20, each hour it doubles. So after 1 hour it's 40, then 2 hours it's 80.)

Which of the following is the best (most SPECIFIC) definition of respiration? A. A sequence of carrier molecules with oxygen as the final electron acceptor B. A sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor C. A method of generating ATP D. A series of reactions in which pyruvic acid is oxidized to CO2 and H2O

B. A sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor

Which of the following is an example of Acid-Fast bacteria? A. Staphylococcus B. Mycobacterium C. Streptococcus D. HIV

B. Mycobacterium

The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after completion of the Gram stain A. Purple B. Red/Pink C. colorless D. none of the above

B. Red/Pink

Symptoms of which of the following diseases are due to toxin production and release throughout the body? A. Impetigo B. Scalded skin syndrome

B. Scalded skin syndrome

What is the function of fimbriae? A. Protein synthesis B. Specific attachment C. Photosynthesis D. DNA replication

B. Specific attachment

Which of the following is not true? A. The botulism toxin is produced under anaerobic conditions B. The botulism toxin is produced by Clostridium endospores C. The botulism toxin is produced by Clostridium vegetative cells D. none of the above

B. The botulism toxin is produced by Clostridium endospores

Which of the following is the best definition of generation time? A. The length of time it takes for lag phase to occur B. The length of time it takes a population of cells to double C. The length of time a culture stays in stationary phase D. none of the above

B. The length of time it takes a population of cells to double

Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation? A. The reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid B. The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors C. The complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O D. The production of ethyl alcohol from glucose

B. The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors

An organized structure sometimes found outside of the cell wall is called A. slime layer B. capsule C. plasma membrane D. cytoplasm

B. capsule — outermost layer, not every bacteria has it, also called a glycocalyx, called capsule if it's organized, called slime layer if it's disorganized, falling off.

Enzymes are: A. free radicals B. catalysts C. ions D. carbohydrates

B. catalysts

Penicillin disrupts the bacterial A. cell membrane B. cell wall C. flagella D. nucleus

B. cell wall

Which cellular structure is important in classifying a bacterial species as Gram-positive or Gram-negative? A. flagella B. cell wall C. cilia D. glycocalyx

B. cell wall

What is the basic reasoning for each bacterium having a minimum, optimum, and maximum growth temperature? A. lipid requirements B. enzyme requirements C. nucleic acid requirements D. none of the above

B. enzyme requirements

The "food spoilage" microbes that can survive in a refrigerator are A. psychrophiles B. psychrotrophs C. mesophiles D. thermophiles

B. psychrotrophs

Please select the CORRECT pair.

Bacillus and Clostridium - endospores

mesophilic and heterotrophic

Bacteria growing in and on the human body, including normal microbiota as well as pathogens, are classified as __________.

obligate anaerobes

Bacteria that CANNOT grow in the presence of oxygen (O2) are called __________.

psychrotrophs

Bacteria that spoil food in the refrigerator are most likely __________.

d) Adherence to surface

Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface are used for: a) Cellular motility b) Sexual reproduction c) Cell wall synthesis d) Adherence to surfaces e) Adherence and exchange of genetic information

In an evolutionary classification scheme, species within one genus should...

Be more closely related to one another than they are to species in another genus.

Translation occurs...

Between mRNA and tRNA

The lac repressor

Binds to the operator and prevents transcription

What is sepsis?

Body's immune response injures our own tissue organs during an infection.

Which of the following is not true of fermentation? a. Fermentation has a net gain of only two ATP b. occurs in the cytoplasm. c. donates electrons to the electron transport chain. d. begins with glucose. e. is carried on by yeast.

C

Under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose (aerobic respiration) by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP molecules? A. 2 B. 4 C. 38 D. 0

C. 38

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to higher concentration? A. Simple diffusion B. Facilitated diffusion C. Active transport D. Any of the above

C. Active transport

Reactions involved in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis constitute the A. Krebs cycle B. Entner-Duodoroff pathway C. Calvin-Benson cycle D. pentose phosphate pathway

C. Calvin-Benson cycle

11. Which of the following is true about a gram-negative cell wall? A. It is the site of ATP production in bacteria B. It contains teichoic acids C. It contains LPS D. none of the above

C. It contains LPS

Where does the Electron Transport Chain take place in prokaryotic cells? A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Plasma Membrane D. Cytoplasm

C. Plasma Membrane

The use of antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of which of the following functions? A. DNA replication B. Phagocytosis C. Protein synthesis D. Cell division

C. Protein synthesis

Through which structure are bacterial plasmids transferred from one cell to another? A. Flagella B. Fimbriae C. Sex pili D. Chloroplasts

C. Sex pili

Which of the following bacteria are responsible for dental caries? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus mutans D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Streptococcus mutans — likes sucrose.

Which of the following best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing a high concentration of NaCl? A. Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to lower concentration B. The cell will undergo osmotic lysis C. Water will move out of the cell D. No change will result; the solution is isotonic

C. Water will move out of the cell

Oxygen is poisonous for: A. halophiles B. obligate aerobes C. obligate anaerobes D. facultative anaerobes

C. obligate anaerobes

A facultative anaerobe: A. doesn't use oxygen, but tolerates it B. is killed by oxygen C. uses both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism D. requires oxygen for growth

C. uses both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism

Which phase of the bacterial growth curve has more dead/dying cells than living cells. A. lag B. log C. stationary D. death

D. death

Which of the following bacterial groups would you expect to be MOST likely associated with human infections? A. thermophiles B. lactophiles C. psychrophiles D. mesophiles

D. mesophiles (body temperature)

Which of the following is not true regarding the electron transport chain? A. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is an inorganic molecule B. electrons pass through ATP synthase in order to generate ATP from ADP C. the phospholipid bilayer in the plasma membrane is impermeable to protons (i.e. they cannot pass through, freely) D. water is a byproduct of the ETC

D. none of the above (Final electron acceptor is inorganic for respiration, organic for fermentation.)

Why have most scientists changed their method of classification?

DNA evidence often shows that species that share characteristics but look different can be more closely related than species that look alike.

1 dna replication

DNA info copied into new strand process by which info from DNA is copied into a new strand of DNA

1 transcription

DNA information converted to RNA synthesis of an RNA molecule complementary to one of the strands of a DNA molecule

On average, RNA polymerase makes one error for every 10,000 nucleotides it incorporates in RNA. By contrast, only one base pair error remains for every ten billion base pairs during DNA replication. Explain why the accuracy of RNA transcription is not as critical as the accuracy of DNA replication.

DNA is the permanent repository of the genetic information of an organism, thus changes to the DNA result in permanent changes in the genetic code. RNA is a temporary copy of the genetic code, therefore errors in RNA do not have lasting effect.

In order for the transferred genetic material to be passed down to the daughter cells, what must occur?

DNA must be integrated with a replicon -- origin of replication

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing the growing (new) daughter strand by reading the template strand and incorporating the appropriate nucleotide?

DNA polymerase

4 replisome

DNA replication complex consists of 2 copies of DNA polymerase III, DNA gyrase, helicase, primase, & copies of single-stranded binding protein

4 semiconservative rep

DNA synth yielding 2 new double helices, each consisting of one parental & one progeny strand

What occurs at the bridge step? A. The formation of succinyl CoA B. The formation of oxaloacetate C. The production of GTP D. Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid

Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid

90%

Decimal reduction time is the time in minutes in which __________ of the population at a given temperature will be killed.

4. Complementary- base sequences always pair up (A/T, C/G) Antiparallel- form double helix, run from 5'-3' & 3'-5'

Define the terms complementary and antiparallel as they pertain to DNA

True/False: Repressors enhance transcription. Activators block transcription.

False; reverse is true

The trp operon consists of __________ structural genes.

Five

The trp operon consists of________genes that encode tryptophan biosynthesis enzymes.

Five

Warm environmental conditions

For control of microbial growth on a surface, which of these conditions is LEAST likely to interfere with the effectiveness of an antiseptic or disinfectant?

Based on the animation, how many electron carriers are reduced in the Krebs cycle only? A. Five B. Three C. Six D. Four

Four

What can be found at the 5' end of a nucleic acid strand?

Free phosphate group

2 treponema

GN, coiled, helical

2 vibrio

GN, curved-rod shaped, food-borne infect, polar flagella

2 e. coli

GN, rod-shaped, individually/large clumps

2 bacillus

GP (aerobic), rod-shaped

2 streptococcus

GP, cocci, pairs/singly/short-chains

2 staphylococcus

GP, cocci-shaped, "grape-like" clusters

2 mirococcus

GP, spherical, tetrads

1 evolution

Genetic changes transfer to offspring; change over time in gene sequence/ frequency w/in org pop; result in descent w/ modification

If there are equal concentrations of glucose and lactose in the environment outside of an E. coli cell, which will be transported in to use as an energy source?

Glucose

5 exponential phase

In which phase of the growth curve do cells divide in a constant period?

In the absence of tryptophan, the trp repressor is

Inactive and cannot bind to the operator

5 Synthesizing cytoplasmic solutes, used by solutes to maintain positive water balance To keep cel from dehydrating, equals out osmotic pressure

What are compatible solutes, and when and why are they needed by the cell?

3 Bio catalysts made out of proteins, substrate specific

What are enzymes made of? Why is that important when it comes to high temperatures?

4 Catalyze macromolecular folding events/refold partially denatured proteins, heat-shock proteins (synth is accelerated when stressed by heat). Makes them heat-resistant.

What are molecular chaperones and why are they necessary?

Chemotaxis

What are nonrandom response of movement toward or away from chemical concentration gradients in the environment?

4 (start) AUG-Methionine, in bacteria informal methionine (stop) UAA, UAG, UGA. When it's not read in frame that could lead to the wrong sequence being translated

What are start codons and stop codons? Why is it important for the ribosome to read "in frame"?

5 Min= 3.06 C, optimal=41.10 C, max=46.05 C (mesophile)

What are the cardinal temperature for E. coli? To what temperature class does it belong?

4 Composed of 2 subunits ribosome (bacteria= 30s, 50s, total of 70s) (eukarya= 60s, 40s)

What are the components of a ribisome? How are they different in bacteria and eukaryotic cells?

4 (polymerase) catalyze polymerization of deoxynucleotides (helicase) unwinds DNA (ligase) seals nicks in DNA after primer is replaced

What are the functions of DNA polymerase, DNA helicase and DNA ligase?

Conjugation pilus

What are tiny, hollow, projections that attaches 2 cells, providing a conduit for exchange of genetic material?

2 The (lipid A) LPS on outer half of outer membrane lipid A, the toxic component of LPS

What component of the gram-negative cell has endotoxin properties?

The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms.

What do all of these bacteria have in common? -Bacteria in the rumen of cattle and sheep -Bacteria in a sewage treatment plant -Bacteria growing in the middle ear in chronic otitis media -Bacteria growing on the teeth in dental plaque

2 Lysozymes and penicillin both lyse (break down) Beta-1,4 linkages Cant destroy archeal cell walls bc no peptidylglycan

What do the enzyme lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have in common?

4 RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription. A promoter (Prinbow, TTGACA) is an initiation site that is recognized by the sigma factor of RNA polymerase

What enzyme catalyzes transcription? What is a promoter and what protein recognizes promoters in bacteria?

Fimbria

What external structure help bacteria adhere to surfaces?

4 16s facilitates initiation/holds mRNA in position, involved in ribosome subunit association & positioning tRNAs, catalyzes peptide bond formation, interacts w/ elongation factors

What functional roles does rRNA play in protein synthesis?

4 Release factors recognize stop codon & cleave, ribosome subunits dissociate, subunits free to form new initiation complex & repeat process

What happens once the completed polypeptide chain is released from the ribosome?

Hypertonic solution

What is a fluid environment surrounding cells that contains a higher concentration of a dissolved substance, causing cells to shrink?

Hypotonic solution

What is a fluid environment surrounding cells that contains a lower concentration of dissolved substance, causing cells to burst?

Isotonic solution

What is a fluid environment surrounding cells that contains an equal concentration of a dissolved substance, causing no change in cell volume?

4 Complete set of genes of in a cell; genetic info flow can be divided into 3 stages (DNA>RNA>PROTEIN)

What is a genome and what is It composed of? What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

Flagellum

What is a long, thin, helical appendage used for movement?

Phototaxis

What is a response of some bacteria to move toward or away from light?

Capsule

What is a thick, protective polysaccharide containing structure located outside of the cell wall?

Slime layer

What is a thin glycocalyx that prevents dehydration, traps nutrients, and allows for attachment to other cells and objects in the environment?

5 Enzyme, converts Hydrogen peroxide to O2 & water

What is catalase and how does it work?

2 Found in bacterial endospores, responsible for heat-resistance

What is dipicolinic acid and where is it found?

2 Vegetative cells, unfavorable growth conditions vegetative cell converted to nongrowing, heat-resistant, light-refractive structure only occurs when growth ceases due to lack of essential nutrient such as carbon or nitrogen

What is formed when an endospore germinates? What causes a cell to make endospores?

5 Time required for microbial cells to double in number. E coli=20 minutes

What is meant by the term generation time? What is the average generation time of E. coli?

2 Positive move towards the chemical, negative move away from chemicals

What is positive and negative chemotaxis? When would you see each?

2 Polysaccharide similar to peptidoglycan found in cell walls of methanogenic Archaea (N-Acetylglucosamine & N-Acetyltalosaminuronic) Beta 1-3 linkages, AA= L-stereoisomer • cannot be destroyed by lysozyme and penicillin

What is pseudomurein and where is it found?

Axial filament

What is the Spirochete endoflagella that causes the corkscrew motion?

3 c02 light E

What is the carbon source for autotrophic organism? Energy source?

3 o2 water

What is the final election acceptor in aerobic respiration and what does it form?

3 Nitrate (NO3-), Ferric Iron (Fe3+), sulfate (S042-), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), certain org compounds

What is the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?

2 transmembrane protein channels for entrance and exit of solutes Periplasm: space located between cytoplasmic and outer membranes houses many extracellular proteins in LPS section

What is the function of porins and where are they located in a gram negative cell wall?

4 3 bases on tRNA that recognize codon: 3 NAs that encode its cognate (correct) AA

What is the function of the anticodon of a tRNA?

4 To go to the site of translation, contains multiple ORFs that encode for polypeptides. The classes of RNA are mRNA (messenger), tRNA (transfer- mediates recog of the codon & provides the aa), & rRNA (ribosomal- central machinery of the ribosome)

What is the role of messenger RNA? What are the two classes of RNA?

Chromosome

What is the source of genetic information for an organism and essential for reproduction?

2 Assist in attachment to surfaces, develop/maintain biofilms, virulence factors, prevent dehyd/dessication/phagocytosis. Composed of polysaccharides, surround the bacteria (staph) not considered part of cell wall because these do not confer significant structural strength polysaccharide layers - may be thick or thin, rigid or flexible capsule: if tightly attached, tight matrix; visible if treated with India ink slime layer: loosely attached, easily deformed (e.g., Leuconostoc)

What is the value of a cell having a capsule? What is the capsule composed of and where is it found. Name a bacteria that has a capsule.

3 (macro) C, H, O, N , P, S, K, Mg, Ca, Na (micro) Fe, trace metals. As food for growth Catabolized/broken down into monomers that the cell can use

What macronutrients and micronutrients do cells need to grow? What do they do with the macronutrients?

Cell wall

What maintains the bacteria's characteristic shape and prevents the cell from bursting when fluids flow into the cell via osmosis?

Osmosis

What mechanism is diffusion in which water molecules diffuse across a selectively permeable membrane?

Passive transport

What mechanism is movement of substances down a concentration gradient with no expenditure of energy?

Facilitated diffusion

What mechanism is passive diffusion down a concentration gradient and across a membrane with the aid of special pores or carrier molecules?

Spirillum

What morphological term is used to describe Corkscrew shaped?

Tetrad

What morphological term is used to describe Cube of 4 cells?

Vibrio

What morphological term is used to describe Curved rods?

Staph

What morphological term is used to describe Grapelike clusters?

Coccus

What morphological term is used to describe Round spheres?

Bacillus

What morphological term is used to describe rod-shaped?

Flagellum

What propels the bacterial cell by the action of rings in their basal body?

Capsule or Slime layer

What protects bacteria from host defense mechanisms (phagocytosis), from dehydration, helps trap nutrients near the cell, and sometimes binds cells together?

Cell membrane

What regulates the movement of material into and out of the cell via transport mechanisms?

Active transport

What requires ATP energy to move molecules and ions against their concentration gradient?

5 0.45 µm

What size filter is needed to sterilize a broth?

Plasmid

What structure in the bacterial cell produces plasma membrane proteins, synthesizes bacterial toxins, provides bacterial tolerance to toxic metal and enables bacteria to become antibiotic resistant?

Ribosomes

What structure inside the cell membrane consists of RNA and protein and serve as sites for protein synthesis?

Inclusion

What structure inside the cell membrane stores glycogen, other substances, gas, or iron compounds?

Glycocalyx

What term is used to describe all polysaccharide-containing substances external to the cell wall?

5 (high) alkaliphiles (low) acidophiles

What terms are used to describe organisms whose growth pH is very high? Very low?

1 (TEM)- enables visualization of structures at molecular level (0.2 nm) Negative staining allows direct observation of intact cells/components Confocal SLM- can generate a 3D image

What type of microscope would be used to view the three-dimensional features of a cell? Of the internal parts of a cell?

4 Termination sequence (stem loop, GC rich sequence) that case the RNA polymerase to fall off

What type of structures lead to transcription termination?

Will lose water and shrink

What would happen to a bacterial cell when it is placed in a Hypertonic solution?

No net gain or loss of water

What would happen to a bacterial cell when it is placed in a Isotonic solution?

Will gain water and swell

What would happen to a bacterial cell when it is placed in a hypotonic solution?

When does transcription begin?

When RNA polymerase binds to the promoter

When does translation begin?

When the ribosome locates the AUG codon

What is decarboxlyation?

Where carbon is removed from pyruvic acid and releasing CO2. Ultimately turns it into Acetyl Co-A

Cytoplasm

Where in the bacterial cell do anabolic and catabolic chemical reactions occur?

3 ETC (34 ATP)

Where is the most ATP produced? Glycolysis, Kreb's cycle or in the ETC?

3 active site

Where on the enzyme does the substrate bind?

Flagella

Which of the following are NOT major targets for action of antimicrobials?

a) Lacks outer membrane c) Lacks a periplasmic space d) Lack lipopolysaccharide e) Contains a thick peptidoglycan layer

Which of the following are characteristics of the Gram-positive cell wall? a) Lacks outer membrane b) Lacks teichoic acid c) Lacks a periplasmic space d) Lack lipopolysaccharide e) Contains a thick peptidoglycan layer f) Two of the above

Removal of vegetative microorganisms from living tissue

Which of the following correctly describes antisepsis?

e) All of these

Which of the following describes prokaryotic cell membranes? a) Selectively permeable b) Regulates passage of materials into and out of the cell c) Contains proteins and phospholipids d) Contains metabolic enzymes e) All of these

Prions

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be damaged by exposure to gamma radiation?

Molecular oxygen

Which of the following is NOT a chemical requirement of all bacteria?

a) It is a form of exocytosis

Which of the following is not true about phagocytosis? a) It is a form of exocytosis b) It is energy dependent c) It only occurs in eukaryotes d) A larger cell engulfs a smaller cell that will eventually be present in an internal vacuole. e) It requires fusion of internal lysosomes to engulfed vacuole for contents to be digested

After the first minute of application of the agent, 10% of the original microbes are still left on the surface.

Which of the following is true of an antimicrobial substance with a microbial death rate of 90% after 1 minute?

D.

Which of the following statements regarding biofilms is true? A.Fortunately, biofilms are not an issue that impacts human health. B.The close proximity of microbes within a biofilm probably inhibits conjugation. C.Biofilms occur in nature but rarely occur in human infections. D.The microbes in biofilms can work cooperatively to carry out complex tasks.

Hyperthermophiles; 0°C

Which of the following terms are mismatched?

Autoclaving

Which of the following treatments achieves sterilization?

Microwaves

Which of the following types of radiation is the LEAST effective control method against microorganisms?

Presence of biofilms

Which of these conditions is likely to interfere with the effectiveness of an antiseptic or disinfectant?

The requirement for long (hours) exposure times

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of the autoclave?

Incineration

Which one of the following physical methods of microbial control is bactericidal?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Which organelle contains enzymes for lipid synthesis?

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Which organelle has sites for protein synthesis?

Cytoskeleton

Which organelle is a network of microtubules and microfilaments?

Lysosomes

Which organelle is a vacuole that contains digestive enzymes?

Nucleus

Which organelle is the site of ribosome synthesis?

Bacteriostatic

Which term refers to an agent that inhibits bacterial growth?

Microwaves

Which type of radiation is LEAST effective in killing microbes?

A newly developed antibiotic drug shows promise by inhibiting prokaryotic 70S ribosomes in initial studies. However, when animal studies are begun, it's noted that the drug also inhibits growth of animal cells. Select the statement that may be explain how this can be happening.

While the proteins made in the cytosol of eukaryotic cells are produced from the 80S eukaryotic ribosome, mitochondria and chloroplasts possess 70S ribosomes. This drug might be impairing the activity of chloroplasts in animal cells.

Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) treatment

While waiting for your meal at a restaurant, you read the information on the creamer containers at your table and notice that they do not need to be refrigerated. You are surprised, because dairy products typically must be kept cold to prevent spoilage. How were these products treated to eliminate microbial growth and prevent spoilage?

2 For structural purposes, not all (mycoplasmas)

Why do bacterial cells need cell walls? Do all bacteria have cell walls?

5 As temp rises, the death rate increases

Why is heat an effective sterilizing agent?

5 UV can't penetrate solid, opaque, or light-absorbing surfaces

Why is ionizing radiation more effective than UV radiation for sterilization of food products?

4 Must be compact to be able to fit into the cell, topoisomerase inserts/removes supercoil, DNA gyrase introduces supercoils into DNA via double strand breaks

Why is supercoiling essential to a bacterial cell? What enzyme facilitates this process?

A population of Bacillus species is growing in a soil sample. Suppose glycolysis came to a halt in these bacterial cells. Would this mean that the TCA (Krebs) cycle would also stop? Why /Why not?

Yes, TCA would stop, without glycolysis to create pyruvate, and without pyruvate there is no acetyl co-a.

Could two mRNAs have different nucleotide sequences and yet code for the same protein? Explain.

Yes, different mRNA sequences can encode for the same protein but be different genetic sequences.

Prepare and autoclave the medium before adding the growth factors.

You are preparing a medium for growing fastidious bacteria and must add several heat-labile solutions of growth factors. Which of the following is an appropriate strategy for preparing and sterilizing this medium?

chemostaxis

bacteria move toward or away from substances in their environment by a nonrandom process - positive: toward - negative: away

4 thermus aquatics

bacteria that tolerate high temp source of heat resistant enzyme (Taq DNA polymerase) 4 subunits of RNA polymerase

Viruses that infect bacteria are called:

bacteriophages

How are bacteriophage grown in a lab?

bacteriophages can be grown in suspension of bacteria in liquid media or in bacterial cultures of solid media. solid media allows for the plaque method for detecting and counting viruses

The Gram stain and the endospore stain both use

basic dyes AND safranin.

Streptococcus

berry-shaped (bacterium) in twisted chains

1 organelle

bilayer mem enclosed structure mitochondria

How do prokaryotes divide?

binary fission

3 glycolysis

biochem path in which glucose is oxidized to pyruvate (either used in resp/fermented); yields ATP &, in ferment, various ferment products (Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway)

3 catabolic rxn catabolism

biochem reactions leading to energy conservation (usually as ATP) by the cell

What color will a culture of P. aeruginosa often exhibit?

bluish green pigment

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a wall that protects against osmotic lysis

both

Which culture uses NAD+? A. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius with O2 for 5 days B. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius without O2 for 5 days C. both a and b D. neither a nor b

both a and b

Facilitated diffusion and active transport

both transport molecules into or out of a cell

What could be conferred to Clostridium botulinum after a bacteriophage infection?

botulinum toxin

1. saccharomyces cerevisiae

brewers yeast microorg behind commoon ferment euk; fungus reproduce by budding -12 RNA subunits used to bake and brew

Which of the following microscope types would be least useful in viewing unstained living cells?

bright field

Enzymes are important in living organisms because they ________. A. bind irreversibly to substrates and remove them from the cellular pool B. bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction C. increase local temperatures to increase rates of reactions D. catalyze the covalent bonding of NAD+ molecules to substrates E. interact with and destroy unwanted cellular substrates

bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction

How is the flagella attached to the cell membrane

by the basal region

Which drawing in Figure A is a bacillius? - e - b - a - c - d

c

Which of the following steps is the first step in translation? a) A stop codon is reached and the polypeptide is completed. b) A ribosome reads a start codon from the mRNA. c) mRNA enters the cytoplasm from the nucleus. d) A ribosome moves along mRNA binding tRNA molecules and amino acids.

c) mRNA enters the cytoplasm from the nucleus.

It has been said hat bacteria are essential for the existence of life on Earth. Which of the following is the essential function performed by bacteria? a.) control insect populations b.) directly provide food for humans c.) decompose organic material and recycle elements d.) cause disease e.) produce hormones such as insulin

c. decompose organic material and recycle elements

Spallanzani's conclusion about spontaneous generation was challenged because Lavoisier had just shown that oxygen was the vital component of air. Which of the following statements is true? a. All life requires air b. Only disease-causing organisms require air c. Some microbes do not require air d. Pasteur kept air out of his biogenesis experiment e. Lavoisier was mistaken

c. some microbes do not require air

What molecule is the inducer for the POSITIVE regulation of the lac operon?

cAMP

When in a complex with ________, the CAP protein binds to the CAP site and ________ the expression of the lac operon.

cAMP ; switches on

According to the animation, the reactions that occur between glucose and pyruvic acid A. are only anabolic. B. can either be anabolic or catabolic. C. are neither catabolic nor anabolic. D. are only catabolic.

can either be anabolic or catabolic.

5 psychrotolerant

can grow at 0C but optimally from 20-40C

Please select the MISMATCHED pair.

capsules and slime layer- phospholipids

At the completion of the Krebs cycle, the carbons from glucose are in ____ . (name the molecule)

carbon dioxide

1 confocal microscopy

computerized microscope coupled with a laser source generate a 3d image focus on single layers of the specimen which are then compiled for 3D image

1 Sergei Winogradsky

concept of chemolithotrophy (oxidation of inorg cmpds to yield energy) Specific bacteria linked to specific biogeochem transformations Chemolithotropes use carbon from CO2 (autotrophy) First to demo N fixation & nitrification (Clostridium)

3 chemoorganotroph

conserve energy from organic chemicals. Fermentation/ respiration

Ribosomes

consists of RNA and protein - polyribosomes: chains - contain a small and a large subunit

Endotoxins

consists of lipopolysaccharide.

The membranes of eukaryotes and mycoplasma

contain sterols for "strength"

vacuoles

contain various stored substances and material engulfed by phagcytosis

The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria

contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan

All of the following are required for the generation of ATP by chemiosmosis except ________. A. formation of a proton motive force B. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid C. active transport of protons across a phospholipid membrane D. passage of electrons through electron carrier chains E. use of proton flow by ATP synthase

conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

3 phototroph

convert light energy into ATP. photophosphorylation: light-mediated ATP synthesis

spirochete

corkscrew-shaped

4 genetic code

correspondence b/t NA sequence & AA sequence of proteins

1. Koch's Postulates

criteria set proving a given microorg causes a given disease; solid media for obtaining mricrob pure cult

What does Agrobacterium tumefaciens cause?

crown gall -- Large tumors on plants, these plants have different properties, produce opine, plant hormones. Piece of tumor-including (Ti) plasmid called T-DNA is transferred to plant. Incorporated into plant chromosome via non-homologous recombination

The order of reagents in the Gram stain reaction is

crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safaranin

1 anabaena

cyanobacteria genus N- fixing abilities home heterocysts; convert N to ammonia

1 oscillatoria

cyanobacteria genus use photosynthesis to survive/ reproduce

When glucose is present

cyclic AMP is low, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site, and transcription is turned off

3 CAC

cyclical series of react resulting in the conversion of acetate to 2 molecules of C02

Which drawing in Figure A is streptococci? - b - d - c - e - a

d

Occasionally cells make mistakes in copying their own DNA by inserting the wrong base or skipping a base as a strand is constructed. What is an effect of these errors? a) A dramatic change in protein structure or gene activity that may disrupt normal biological activity. b) A mutation that can help an organism become better adapted to its environment. c) A genetic error that causes no known negative or positive effects. d) All of the answer choices.

d) All of the answer choices

What is one reason why the classification of protists is difficult? a)Some protists are unicellular while other protists are multicellular b)Protists more closely resemble members of other eukryotic kingdoms than they do other protists. c)Protists may be funguslike, plantlike, or animal-like, but they do not have characteristics of more than one of these groups d)All of the answer choices

d)All of the above

1 phase contrast microscopy

dark cells on light background improves image contrast of unstained, live cells - Phase ring amplifies differences in the refractive index of cell and surroundings.

You inoculate a bacterial culture into a tube containing glucose and peptides. The pH indicator shows that the pH decreased after 24 hours and then increased at 48 hours. What has caused the increase in pH? A. oxidation of glucose B. deamination C. compounds in the Krebs cycle D. fermentation of glucose

deamination

Which phase of the bacterial growth curve has more dead/dying cells than living cells

death

Which may result in Gram-positive bacteria appearing to be Gram-negative?

decolorizing too long AND using old cultures

In viewing a microscopic specimen, oil is used to

decrease the refraction AND increase the resolution.

Eukaryotic cells are

defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus.

False: nucleic acid strands are synthesized via hydrolysis

dehydration synthesis

Biological oxidations are also called ____ reactions.

dehydrogenation

2 ether linkages in phospholipids of Archaea in contrast to Bacteria and Eukarya that have ester linkages in phospholipids Archaeal lipids have isoprenes instead of fatty acids. Major lipids are phosphoglycerol diethers with phytanyl C20 side chains and diphosphoglycerol tetraethers with biphytanyl C40 side chains, which can form lipid monolayers.

describe archeal membranes

2 8-10 nm wide some species strengthened by hopanoids (sterol-like molecules) embedded proteins including integral membrane proteins (significantly embedded) or peripheral membrane proteins (loosely attached)

describe bacterial membranes

1 have mem enclosed nuc/ organelles plants, animals, algae, protozoa, fungi

describe euk orgs

1 1. The suspected pathogen must be present in all cases of the disease & absent from healthy animals 2. Suspected pathogen must be grown in pure culture 3. Cells from a pure culture of the suspected pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal 4. Suspected pathogen must be re-isolated & shown to be the same as the original

describe koch's postulate?

Which amino acid is found only in the cell walls of bacteria?

diaminopimelic acid

1 gram stain

differential staining procedure of purple/ pink

how does lysozyme, found in tears, prevent further bacteria growth?

digests peptidoglycan. This enzyme helps prevent bacteria from entering the body and is the body's main defense against eye infections

zygote

diploid cell formed from gametes from each of two parent organisms

2 chemotaxis

directed mvmt of an org toward (positive)/ away from (negative) a chem gradient avoid harmful substances

1 watson/ crick/ franklin

discovered structure of DNA

what was robert hooke responsible for

discovered that plant cells have rigid cell walls and thus look like boxes

what was cohn responsible for

discovery of endospores

1 pathogen

disease causing microorg

what was Koch responsible for

diseases are caused by microorganisms

what was pasteur responsible for

disproving spontaneous generation

strepto-

division in chains

staphylo-

division in grapelike clusters

Diplo-

division in one plane

What gets transferred from an Hfr cell to an F- cell? Does that F- cell become an F+ cell?

donor DNA is integrated into the recipient cell's chromosome by homologous recombination; F- cell is still F-

spores

dormant: allow for survival during adverse environments - others reproduce by mitosis as haploid vegetative cells

4 antiparallel

double-stranded DNA, 2 strands run in opposite directions

Which of the following is a beneficial activity of microorganisms? a. some microorganisms are used as food for humans b. some microorganisms use carbon dioxide c. some microorganisms provide nitrogen for plant growth d. some microorganisms are used in sewage treatment processes e. all the above

e. all the above

2 phodobacteria

effected by brownian motion most studied photosynthesis org in fresh water/ marine envt

A coenzyme assists an enzyme by accepting or donating matter. What does NAD+ transfer? A. CoA B. acetyl groups C. phosphate groups D. ATP E. electrons

electrons

Eu. nucleus

enclosed in nuclear membrane (double membrane bound) - Nuclear pores: allow RNA to leave - nucleoplasm: semifluid portion of the nucleus - nucleoili: contains RNA for ribosome production

Which mechanism of cell transport is not seen in bacteria? - Group translocation - Active transport - Endocytosis - Facilitated diffusion - Simple diffusion

endocytosis

The major site of cell membrane synthesis in eukaryotes is the - plasma membrane. - lysosome. - nucleus. - endoplasmic reticulum.

endoplasmic reticulum.

resting structures in bacteria that are important in their survival

endospores

The theory that explains the evolution of chloroplasts and mitochondria is: - endosymbiosis. - symbiosis. - punctuated equilibrium. - evolution.

endosymbiosis

The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is also known as - endotoxin. - murein. - exotoxin. - teichoic acid.

endotoxin

1 growth

envt nutrients converted to cell materials to form new cells an increase in cell number with time

4 DNA gyrase

enzyme found in most prokaryotes that introduces negative supercoils in DNA

4 Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

enzyme that catalyzes attachment of an AA to its cognate tRNA

4 DNA ligase

enzyme that seals nicks in the backbone of DNA

4 DNA polymerase

enzyme that synth a new strand of DNA in the 5'>3' direction using antiparallel DNA strand as a template

4 primase

enzyme that synth the RNA primer used in DNA rep

What is the function of RNA primase?

enzyme that synthesizes short RNA sequences called primers, which serve as starting points for DNA synthesis

4 DNA helicase

enzyme that uses ATP to unwind the double helix of DNA

Erythromycin is used to treat microbial infections by binding to the front of the A site on the 50S subunit of a ribosome. What step in protein synthesis is inhibited by this drug? Will this drug affect the host's (human) cell? Why or why not? Will this drug be effective against bacteria, viruses* or both? (*remember that viruses are acellular; not made of cells and do not contain the cellular components that bacteria do)

erythromycin binds in front of the A site on the 50s subunit of the ribosome it inhibits aminoacyl translocation by interfering with the transfer of trna from a site to the p site therefore elongation of the polypeptide chain is inhibited; does not effect viruses because the single strands of DNA and RNA of viruses would not require unwinding of ssDNA for transcription and ssRNA already have mRNA for protein synthesis; does not effect host cell because acts specifically on bacterial ribosome

1 nucleus

euk mem enclosed structure containing cells DNA genome

1 phylogeny

evo history of org

4 plasmid

extrachromosomal genetic element that's not essential for growth

5 halobacterium salinarium

extreme halophile gram - aerobic

Bacillus and Clostridium are medically relevant groups of bacteria that characteristically stain acid-fast.

false

Cilia and flagella project from the cell and are not covered by cytoplasmic membrane.

false

Drugs that target prokaryotic protein synthesis would have no effect on eukaryotic protein synthesis.

false

Endospores are involved in bacterial reproduction.

false

Penicillin affects the synthesis of phospholipids, thereby producing weak membranes and lysis of the bacteria.

false

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis.

false

True/False: A prophage can NEVER be excised from the bacterial chromosome after integration.

false

What type of phage is used to produce single-stranded recombinant DNA?

filamentous phage

4 tertiary structure

final folded structure of a polypeptide that has prev attained secondary structure

1 Antoni van Leeuwenhoek

first to describe bacteria, microscope was a light microscope Wee animalcules

1 robert hooke

first to describe microbes (Micrographia in 1665) illustrated the fruiting structures of molds

The structures used for motility in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are

flagella

peritrichous

flagella all over the surface

golgi apparatus

flattened membrane sacs - receives substances transported from the ER stores the substances, and typically alters their chemical structure. It packages these substances in small segments of membrane called secretory vesicles.

Eukaryotic plasma membrane

fluid mosaic model

5 ancalomicrobium

form appendages bacteria

5 hyphomycrobium

form hyphae gram negative rod shaped bacteria

3 anaerobic respiration

form of repiration where O2 is absent and alternative e- acceptors are reduced

5 caulobacteria

forms cytoplasmic stalks gram (-) asymmetric cell division

1 sterile

free of all living org/ viruses

1 genome

full gene component

Which of the following have a cell wall

fungi

The organism that causes ring worm is a/an

fungus

1 asperigillus

fungus found in various climates

A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will - both gain and lose water equally. - lose more water than it gains. - gain more water than it loses. - divide. - neither gain nor lose water.

gain more water than it loses.

2 gas vesicles

gas filled cytoplasmic structures bounded by proteins/ conferring bouyancy

2 periplasm

gel-like region b/t outer surface of the cyto membrane & the inner-surface of the LPS of gram-negative Bacteria

1 Rhizopus

genus od common sparphytic fungi on plants/ specialized animal parasites filamentous, branching hyphae that generally lack cross walls reprod by ferming a/sexual spores

2 leuconostoc

genus of gram (+) bact cocci chain catalase (-) slime forming

2 paramecium

genus of unicellular ciliates presence of hair-like organelles short; occur in lrg #s

Which of the following is NOT a possible function of magnetosomes

get cells to the north pole

Energy is released during a cell's oxidation of _____

glucose

Most commonly used carbohydrate?

glucose

Which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy for a cell? A. CO2 B. ATP C. glucose D. O2 E. lactic acid

glucose

Which one molecule could provide the carbon source, the energy source, and the electron source for a chemoheterotroph? A. glucose B. carbon dioxide C. ATP D. nitrogen E. sulfur

glucose

The lac operon is expressed when

glucose is low and lactose is present

3 glycolysis

glucose to pyruvic acid 2 atp

What is needed for glycolysis to occur?

glucose, NAD+, ATP

During cellular respiration, __________ is oxidized and __________ is reduced.

glucose, oxygen

In fermentation, ATP is generated only in ____. (name the pathway)

glycolysis

The most common pathway for the oxidation of glucose is?

glycolysis

Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell? A. acetyl CoA formation B. citric acid cycle C. glycolysis D. electron transport chain E. ATP production by ATP synthase

glycolysis

Select the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration. A. glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain B. electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → acetyl CoA C. glycolysis → citric acid cycle → acetyl CoA → electron transport chain D. acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain → glycolysis E. citric acid cycle → electron transport chain → glycolysis → acetyl CoA

glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain

2 epulopiscium fishelsoni

gram (+) range from 200- 700 micrometers

2 micrococcus

gram (+) sherical in tetrads catalase (+)

1 streptococcus pneumonia

gram (+) bact major cause of pneumonia show genetic transfer in bact/ DNA is genetic material

2 thiomargorita hambiensis

gram (+) cocci form chains lrgst bact discovered (.1-.33)

2 vibrio

gram (-) curved/ rod shaped foodborn infection - undercooked sea food dont form spores motile w/ polar flagella

1 pseudomonas

gram (-) bact rod shaped used for bioremediation (clean up pollutants) genetically engineered to grow on crude oil

2 moraxella

gram negative rods catalase positive type 4 pili adhere to host tissue and supporttwitching motilityin moraxella

1 heliocobacter pylon

gram negative motile pathogen living in stomach curved rod prod ammonia neutralize stomach to allow bacteria to grow more and cause infection - body prod antibodies in response

1 staphylococcus catalase +

gram(+) bacteria spherical (cocci) grape-like clusters can grow w/ or w/o air

Penicillin would be most effective against

growing bacteria AND Gram-positive bacteria.

5 alivibrio fischeri

halophile bacteria gram - rod shaped single polar flagella

Gametes

haploid cells that participate in sexual reproduction

You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume that the cell

has a cell wall

The cell wall of Gram-negative organisms

has a thin peptidoglycan layer AND is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.

Basic dyes

have positive charges

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bacteria? a.)are prokaryotic b.)have peptidoglycan walls c.)have the same shape d.)grow by binary fission e.) have the ability to move

have the same shape

2 peritrichous flagellation

having flagella located in many places around the surface of the cell

2 polar flagellation

having flagellation emanating from one/both poles of the cell

Viral morphology can be describe using which term(s)

helical, icosehedral, complex (all)

What structure is associated with nitrogen fixation in cyanobacteria?

heterocytes

One of the sites of allosteric regulation of the Krebs cycle is the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. Which of the following conditions would you expect to inhibit the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA? A. high ATP and low NADH B. high ADP and low NADH C. low ATP and low NADH D. low ATP and high NADH E. high ATP and high NADH

high ATP and high NADH

An advantage of the smaller size of prokaryotes, compared to eukaryotes, is

high surface area relative to low cell volume AND more rapid growth rates.

2 histone

highly basic proteins that compact/ wind DNA euk nucleus

2 endopsore

highly heat-resistant, thick-walled, differentiated structure produced by certain gram-positive bacteria

2 Pili (conjugation) are longer and fewer compared to fimbriae (stick to surfaces)

how are fimbriae different from pili?

1 1. Flood the heat-fixed smear w/ crystal violet for 1 min (both purple) 2. Add iodine solution for 1 min (still purple) 3. Decolorize w/ alcohol briefly-about 20 sec (GP= purple, GN=no stain) 4. Counterstain w/ safranin for 1-2 min (GP= purple, GN=pink) 5. Gram-positive cells are purple, Gram-negative cells are pink to red

what are the steps for gram stain and the possible results?

How does penicillin block the final stages of peptidoglycan synthesis?

it keeps the cells from forming complete walls

47. What has vitamin C recently been used to treat? How might it function as an effective treatment?

it treated septis

5 bactericidal agent

kills bacteria

5 bacteriolytic agent

kills by lysis

5 bacteriocidal agent

kills microorg, bind tightly

The lac repressor binds to what site within the lac operon?

lacO

1 prokaryotic

lack mem enclosed nuc/ organelles; bact/ archaea

Archaeal cell walls - lack murein and D-amino acids. - are similar to those of gram-negative bacteria. - include orthomureine. - are disrupted by treatment with lysozyme or penicillin.

lack murein and D-amino acids.

atrichous

lacking flagella -cocci

Which of the following is not part of the lac operon?

lacl

Which are possible products of fermentation?

lactate, alcohol, CO2

Under which of the following conditions will transcription of the lac operon occur?

lactose present/glucose absent

Bacteria have a ___ surface to volume ratio

large - meaning that no internal part of the cell is very far from the surface and that nutrients can easily and quickly reach all parts of the cell.

ribosomes of EU

larger 60% RNA 40% protein made in the nucleoli - ER ribosomes: make proteins for secretions - Free: make proteins for use in cell

During replication, which strand is synthesized continuously (choose the most specific one)?

leading strand

1 archea

less morphologically diversity, mostly undifferentiated (1-10 µm long), five well-described phyla, historically associated with extremes but not all extremophiles, lack known parasites/pathogens of plants & animals

4 wobble

less rigid form of base pairing allowed only in codon-anticodon pairing

1 micoorg/ microbe

life forms too small to be seen by the unaided human eye

Lipases break down A. proteins. B. carbohydrates. C. nucleic acids. D. lipids.

lipids

1 medium/ media

liquid/solid mixture containing all required nutrients; used to grow microorg

20 Polar/ iphotricous- on end Amphoteric- in clump Peritrichous- all around

list the types of flagellum

1 Agar- solid Broth liquid Plate- petri dish Slant- tube

list the types of media

Which of the following statements is the best definition of biogenesis? a.) Nonliving matter gives rise to living organisms b.) Living cells can only arise from preexisting cells c.) a vital force is necessary for life d.) air is necessary for living organisms e.) Microorganisms can be generated from nonliving matter

living cells can only arise from preexisting cells

A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will - divide. - both gain and lose water equally. - gain more water than it loses. - neither gain nor lose water. - lose more water than it gains.

lose more water than it gains

4 denaturation

loss of the correct folding of a protein, leading (usually) to protein aggregation & loss of bio activity

5 psychrophile

low, cold environments grow at min 0C, max 20C

Which of the following is involved in translation?

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA (all)

1 colony

macroscopically visible pop of cells growing on solid medium, arising from single cell

2 magnetosome

magnetite (fe3o4) particle enclosed by a nonunit mem in cytoplasm of magnetic bact

Some species of aquatic bacteria use inclusion bodies known as ________ to orient themselves in Earth's magnetic field.

magnetosomes

Electron microscopes differ from light microscopes in that

magnification is lower.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the plasma membrane

maintains cell shape

Peptidoglycan

may be digested by lysozyme.

The capsule

may be used for protection AND may be used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces.

Capsules

may correlate with an organism's ability to cause disease, are typically "negatively" stained, AND are stained as a wet mount.

L-forms

may normally have a cell wall but can suddenly lose their ability to form cell walls. - may revert to walled forms and regrow an infecting population - Example: Mycobacterium paratuberculosis with Crohn's dis- ease, a chronic disorder of the intestine.

Prokaryotic cells lack organelles that are___

membrane bound, whereas eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles

perioxisomes

membrane enclosed organelles that convert peroxides to water and o2 and sometimes oxidize amino acids and fats

2 nucleus

membrane-enclosed structure in eukaryotic cells that contains the cell's DNA genome

1. Which of the following bacterial groups would you expect to be MOST likely associated with human infections? A. thermophiles B. lactophiles C. psychrophiles D. mesophiles

mesophiles

The sum of all chemical reactions within a living organism is know as A. Anabolism B Catabolism C. Metabolism

metabolism

1 chemolithotrophy

metabolism where E is generated from oxidation of inorganic compds

volutin

metachromatic granules - polyphosphate granules - exhibit different intensities of color.

Use the following information to answer the questions below: Codon on mRNA and the corresponding amino acid AUG - methionine UAA - nonsense CCG - proline GCA - alanine AAG - lysine GUU - valine AAU - asparagine UGC - cysteine UCG, UCU - serine What is the sequence of amino acids coded for by the following DNA sequence: 3' T A C T T A G G C A G C

methionine - asparagine- proline- serine

Which type of mRNA attach to certain other mRNA molecules to keep them from passing on their protein-making instructions.

miRNA

1 gut microbiome

microbial communities present in the animal GI tract

1 extremophyles

microorg inhabiting extreme envts regarding temp, pH, P, salinity

5 aerotolerant anaerobe

microorg unable to respire O2 but whose growth is unaffected by it

5 cardinal temperatures

min/max/ optimum growth temp for given orgs

Extrachromasomal DNA is found in ____________________________.

mitochondria and plasmids

In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain? A. nucleus B. lysosome C. chloroplast D. mitochondrion E. Golgi apparatus

mitochondrion

simple diffusion

molecular kinetic energy and random movement of particles - depends on the size, nature, and distances of substances

4 AA

monomer making up protein

4 nucleotide

monomer of a NA containing a nitrogenous base, 1/more molecules of phosphate, & sugar

In the Gram's stain, Gram's iodine is which of the following?

mordant

bacterial flagella

motile long thin helical appendages

active transport

move from low to high requires protein, ATP and an enzyme

phototaxis

move toward or away from light

Chemotaxis refers to

movement in response to chemicals

2 phototaxis

movement of an organism toward light

1 motility

movement of cells by some form of self-propulsion

Agents in the environment that directly or indirectly bring about mutations are called

mutagens

cause of tuberulosis

mycobacterium tuberculosis

In prokaryotic cells DNA is ___

n a nuclear region not surrounded by a membrane.

Viruses are often measured in

nanometers

1 virus

need host cells to grow, smallest

cytoskelton

network of microfilaments and microtubles that support and give rigidity to cells and provide for cell movements

What is meant by a "productive infection"?

new particles are formed

4 leading strand

new strand of DNA that's synth continuously during DNA rep

4 lagging strand

new strand of DNA that's synth in short pieces & then joined together later

4 nucleoside

nitrogenous base (AGCTU) plus a sugar (ribose/deoxyribose) but lacking phosphate

If you ingest millions of Vibrio cholerae cells, none of which have been infected with a bacteriophage, what are your symptoms?

no symptoms

Bacteria have a region of the cytoplasm known as the ________, which is not bounded by a membrane but contains the chromosome.

nucleoid

What are some ways that chemicals can cause mutations in DNA?

nucleotide substitution, +/- of nucleotides, insertional inactivation

3 ATP

nucleotide that is the primary form where chem E is conserved/ utilized in cell

Which organism produces catalase and superoxide dismutase

obligate aerobe

Oxygen is poisonous for...

obligate anaerobes

1 cyanobacteria

obtain E through photosynthesis only prok to prod O2 oxygenated the earth

Unlike eukaryotes, in prokaryotes chemiosmosis ________. A. does not require ATP synthase B. occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria C. does not require a membrane D. electrons are eventually passed to organic molecules instead of inorganic acceptors E. moves iron instead of protons across the membrane

occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria

The two magnifying lenses found in a light microscope are the

ocular and objective

4 primer

oligonucleotide to which DNA polymerase attaches the first deoxyribonucleotide during DNA synth

4 purine

one of the nitrogenous bases of NAs that contain 2 fused rings; adenine & guanine

4 pyrimidine

one of the nitrogenous bases of NAs that contain a single ring; cytosine, thymine, uracil

3 use ATP + CO2 for biosynthesis use ATP + organic carbon for biosynthesis

what do photoautotrophs do? photoheterotrophs?

2 Salmonella- peritrichously flagellated Pseudomonas-polarly flagellated Spirillum-lophotrichously

what kind of flagella does salmonella have? pseudomonas? sprillum?

1 gram-positive bacteria (peptidoglycan, stains purple), gram-negative (LPS, stain pink), plant cells, fungi all cells have cell membranes

what organisms have cell walls/ membranes?

1 Prok- B/A; no mem enclosed organelles/ nuc; DNA- single-cellular chromo>nucleoid region, may also have plasmids, small/compact Euk- mem bound organelles; DNA enclosed in nuc; Plants, animals, algaea, protozoa, fungi; mito, cyto membrane; DNA- linear chromo in nucleus, much larger/more DNA c. All cells- cyto. Mem, ctyo., rib, cell wall

what structures distinguish prokaryotic/ eukaryotic cells?

1 Magnification- capacity to enlarge an image Resolution- governs our ability to distinguish/ see it

whats the difference btw magnification and resolution?

1 Help characterize new bacterium by showing diff in cell wall structures improve contrast Improve contrast, bind to specific cell materials (basic bind to negatively charged cells) (differential makes different cells different colors, + are purple-violet, - are pink)

whats the function of staining in light microscopy?

3 media/ envt

where do bacteria get nutrients?

5 Either an essential nutrient is used up/waste products accumulate

why do cells enter stationary phase?

2 Beta-1,4 linkages (alt glucose linkages) Bacteria: N-Acetylglucosamine, N-Acetylmuramic Acid rigid layer that provides strength can be destroyed by lysozyme (enzymes that cleave glycosidic bond between sugars)

why is peptidoglycan such a strong molec?

A research lab is trying to produce new antibiotics. They come up with drugs that detach the hydrophilic heads from the phospholipids in plasma membranes. This drug

would be highly toxic for human beings if taken orally, but might be useful as a topical antibiotic skin cream. The top layer of skin cells is dead anyway, so it wouldn't matter if this damaged those cells.

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament?

~~~~~~~~~~~

2 flagellum

ong, thin cellular appendage that rotates (Bacteria) or has a whiplike motion (Eukarya) & is responsible for swimming motility in B and A

Which of the following would NOT be a tenet to the cell theory? - cells have genetic material - new cells arise only from preexisting cells - the cell is the basic unit of life - all living things are made of cells - only eukaryotes are made of cells

only eukaryotes are made of cells

What happens to DNA that is not integrated within a replicon?

only one daughter cell will receive DNA fragment

The pH at which enzymatic activity activity is maximal is know as the ______ (2 words)

optimum pH

A genus is composed of a number of similar...

orders

3 autotroph

org capable of biosynthesizing all cell material from C02 as the sole carbon source

5 acidophile

org growing at low ph (> 5.5)

3 chemolithotroph

org that can grow w/ inorganic cmpds as e- donors in energy metabolism

5 aerobe

org that can use O2 in respiration; some req O2

5 anaerobe

org that cant use O2 in resp; o2 inhibits growth

3 chemoorganotroph

org that obtains its energy from the oxidation of org cmpds

3 phototroph

org that use light as their source of energy

3 heterotroph

org that uses org cmpds as a carbon source

alkaliphile

org w/ growth ph of 8+

4 genome

org's full complement of genes

2 lysosome

organelle containing digestive enzymes for hydrolysis of proteins, fats, & polysaccharides

What can be found on R plasmids?

origin of replication and transfer, plus synthesis genes, tetracycline resistant genes, carbenicillin resistant genes, chloramphenicol resistant genes

4 Uses DNA as a template to produce mRNA, tRNA, or rRNA RNA polymerase/sigma factor bind to promoter sequence They start copying, sigma factor falls off RNA falls off once it reaches the termination sequence, polymerase is reused

outline steps of transcription

4 Begins w/ AUG (methionine) Continues until it reaches a stop codon (UGA, UAA, UAG) Initiation-2 ribosomal subunits + formylmethionine tRNA + initiation factors assemble w/ mRNA & begins at start codon Elongation- occurs at A-acceptor & P-peptide sites) Termination- ribosome reaches stop codon. Release factors recognize & cleave polypeptide from tRNA, ribosome subunits dissociate

outline steps of translation

All of the following pairs are correctly matched except ________. A. catabolism; breakdown of organic compounds B. oxidation; reaction where electrons are gained C. anabolism; building of complex molecules D. metabolic pathways; sequences of chemical reactions E. metabolism; sum of all chemical reactions

oxidation; reaction where electrons are gained

Which of the following four stages of glucose oxidation requires molecular oxygen? A. production of acetyl CoA B. Krebs cycle C. oxidative phosphorylation D. glycolysis

oxidative phosphorylation

3 chemolithotrophs

oxidize inorganic compounds (H2, H2S, NH4+). inorganic chemicals as electron donors hydrogen sulfide (H2S), hydrogen gas (H2), ferrous iron (Fe2+), ammonium (NH4+) waste products of chemotrophs aerobic

NADH molecules formed during glycolysis and in the Krebs cycle are ________. A. oxidized when electrons are needed in anabolic pathways B. oxidized when electrons are passed to the electron transport chain C. transported out of the cell during oxidative phosphorylation D. oxidized when electrons are passed to NADP+ E. stored in the mitochondria

oxidized when electrons are passed to the electron transport chain

Fermentation occurs in the absence of __.

oxygen

In noncyclic photophosphorylation, ____ is produced as water is oxidized.

oxygen

The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is ___.

oxygen

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain? A. NAD+ B. oxygen C. FMN D. cyt a

oxygen

The products of cellular respiration are energy and ____.

oxygen and carbon dioxide

chromosomes of EU.

paired contais DNA and histones -

1 chlamydia

pathogenic bact; obligate intercell parasites most common bact STD

1 candida albicans

pathogenic yeast

Heterotrophs use organic molecules as energy and carbon sources. To produce 5-carbon intermediates needed for synthesis of nucleic acids, the cell utilizes the ________. A. cyclic photophosphorylation pathway B. glycolytic pathway C. pentose phosphate pathway D. mixed acid fermentation pathway E. Krebs cycle

pentose phosphate pathway

The macromolecule found in the cell walls of all bacteria is

peptidoglycan

The organelle that can oxidize fatty acids and store catalase to break down accumulated toxic oxygen forms is - mitochondria. - centrioles. - lysosomes. - peroxisomes

peroxisomes

1 escherichia coli

ph-7 1x3 micrometers gram (-) bact rod shaped (peritrichous flagella) found in mammal LI (symbiotic) can cause food poisoning expelled w/ fecal matter takes 20 min to reprod

endocytosis

phagocytosis pinocytosis

2 outer mem

phospholipid/ polysac containing unit mem lying external to peptidoglycan layer in cells of gram (-) bacteria

Fluid-mosaic model

phospholipids in the membrane are in a fluid state and that proteins are dispersed among the lipid molecules in the membrane, forming a mosaic pattern.

2 teichoic acid

phosphorylated polyalcohol found in the cell wall of some gram-positive Bacteria

Which organism is not correctly matched to its energy source? A. anoxygenic autotroph; light B. photoheterotroph; light C. chemoheterotroph; glucose D. photoautotroph; CO2 E. chemoautotroph; iron

photoautotroph; CO2

Carbon fixation occurs during __________. A. anaerobic respiration B. photosynthesis C. fermentation D. the complete oxidation of glucose

photosynthesis

3 rhodobacteria capsulatus

phototrophic org obtain E through photosynthesis

1 robert koch

physician/microbiologist, NPP for physio/med generated link b/t microbes & infectious disease Identified causative agents of anthrax, TB, & cholera

4 transposable elem

piece of DNA able to move (transpose) from one site to another on host DNA molecules

Proteinacious projections from the surface of a bacterium that are used to mediate conjugation are called sex ________, whereas projections that mediate attachment to surfaces such as host cells are called ________.

pili; fimbriae

1 eukarya

plants/animals/fungi 1st were unicellular six kingdoms, vary dramatically in size/shape/physiology

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

plasma membane

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell? - B and C - Ribosomes - Flagella - Around organelles - Plasma membrane

plasma membrane

Shrinkage of the plasma membrane away from the cell wall when the bacterium is placed in a hypertonic environment is called - hydrolysis. - hypertonolysis. - plasmolysis. - osmolysis.

plasmolysis.

Bacteria that do not have a fixed shape are said to be ________.

pleomorphic

4 polypeptide

polymer of AAs bonded to one another by peptide bonds

4 DNA

polymer of deoxyribonucleotides liked by phosphodiester bonds, carries genetic info

1 macromolecule

polymer of mononumeric units Protein, NA, polysac, lipids

4 RNA

polymer of ribonucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds that plays many roles in cells, in particular, during protein synth

4 protein

polypeptide/group of polypeptides forming a molecule of specific bio funct

2 capsule

polysac/ protein outermost layer, slimy, on bacteria layer org in tight matrix and is tightly attached

2 peptidoglycan

polysaccharide composed of alternating repeats of N-acetylglucosamine & N-acetylmuramic acid arranged in adjacent layers & cross-linked by short peptides

4 primary structure

precise sequence of monomers in a macromolecule such as a polypeptide or a NA

Acetyl CoA is the end product of the___.

preparatory reaction.

1 cell wall

present in some microbes; confers structural strength; rigid layer outside cytoplasmic mem

3 respiration

process in which a cmpd is oxidized w/ 02 (or 02 substitute) as the term e- acceptor, usually accompanied by ATP product by oxidative phosphorylation

3 substrate level phosphorylation

product of ATP by the direct transfer of an energy rich phosphate molecule from a phosphorylated org cmpd to ADP

3 oxidative phosphorylation

production of ATP from a PMF formed by e- transport of e- from org/inorg e- donors

3. Photophosphorylation

production of ATP from a PMF formed from light-drive e- transport

pseudopodia

projections into which cytoplasm flows, causing a creeping movement

1 bacteria

prokaryotes undifferentiated single cells (1-10 µm long), 30 major phylogenetic lineages, mostly diverse species w/ diverse physio/ ecological strategies

Which of the following statements about a gram-positive cell wall is false? - It is sensitive to lysozyme. - It maintains the shape of the cell. - It is sensitive to penicillin. - It protects the cell in a hypertonic environment. - It contains teichoic acids.

protects the cell in a hypertonic environment

3 enzyme

protein (or in some cases an RNA) catalyst that function to speed up chem reaction

4 chaperone

protein that helps other proteins fold/refold from a partly denatured state

1 ribosomes

protein-synthesizing structures; structure made of RNA and proteins where new proteins are made

1 enzyme

protein/RNA catalyst; speed up chem rxns

Enzymes are _____, producing by _____ cells, that catalyze chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy.

proteins, living

_______ is a peptidoglycan-like molecule found in the cell walls of some archaea.

pseudomurein

The "food spoilage" microbes that can survive in a refrigerator are

psychrotrophs

Gram positive cells stain _ because they _

purple; retain crystal violet

All of the following are potential end-products of fermentations except ________. A. carbon dioxide B. ethanol C. pyruvic acid D. acetic acid E. lactic acid

pyruvic acid

At the completion of glycolysis, the carbons from glucose are in ____. (name the molecule)

pyruvic acid

1 carl woese

realized RNA sequences could be used to infer evol relationships (phylogenic tree) Discovered rRNA from methanogens distinct from Bacteria & Eukarya, named the new group Archaea Found relationships can be deduced by comparing genetic info in diff specimens

NAD+ is ___________(reduced/oxidized) to NADH

reduced

The cytoplasmic membrane of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes functions to

regulate movement of molecules that enter and leave the cell.

Making new copies of DNA from old copies of DNA is known as:

replication

Considering that Staphylococcus epidermidis does not typically cause disease in a healthy person, why would it be significant if it carries an R plasmid?

resistant to antibiotics

The use of oil with certain high-power objective lenses increases

resolution AND the amount of light that enters the objective lens.

1 myobacterium tuberculosis

resp pathogen has wax cell wall and doesnt stain

endospores

resting stages - bacillus and clostricium - germinate: develop into vegetative cells -

_______ are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.

ribosomes

spirillum

rigid, wavy shaped

bacillus

rodlike

1 clostridium botulinum

rodshaped bact forms spores anaerobic

Which microscope would be the BEST selection for examination of a virus?

scanning electron microscope

5 autoclave

sealed heating device destroying microorgs w/ temp and steam under presuure

4 gene

segment of DNA specifying a protein (via mRNA), a tRNA, an rRNA, or any other noncoding RNA

prokaryotic cytoplasm

semifluid sub- stance inside the cell membrane - four-fifths water and one-fifth substances dissolved or suspended in the water (enzymes, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids) - anabolic and catabolic reactions - does not stream

1 cytoplasmic membrane

semipermeable barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside environment Differentiation- Some microbes modify structures to form specialized cell. (spore)

2 cytoplasmic membrane

semipermeable membrane that separates the cell interior (cyto) from the environment nutrients in and waste out

The resolving power of a microscope is described as the ability of the microscope to

separate clearly two objects that are very close together.

4 antocodon

sequence of 3 bases in a tRNA molecule that base-pairs w/ a codon during protein synth

4 codon

sequence of 3 bases in mRNA that encodes an AA

4 open reading frame ORF

sequence of DNA/RNA that could be translated to give a polypeptide

What could be conferred to E. coli 0157:H7 after a bacteriophage infection?

shiga toxin

1 phylogenetic tree

shows how close org related; diagram depicting evo org history; root is LUCA

monotrichous

single polar flagellum located at one end

How can a productive phage infection not kill a host cell?

single stranded DNA phages that look like long fibers (filamentous) cause productive infection but do not kill host cell.

4 promoter

site on DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to commence transcription

4 replication fork

site on chromo where DNA rep occurs & where enzymes replicating DNA are bound to untwisted, single-stranded DNA

Eukaryotes have a ___ surface to volume ratio

small

Lysosomes

small made by the goldi apparatus - contain digestive enzymes - fuse with vacuoles

3 coenzyme

small & loosely bound nonprotein molecule that participates in a react as part of an enzyme

Inclusions

small bodies in the cytoplasm

cilia

smaller than flagella, beat in coordinated waves

cytoplasm of Eu.

smaller, because of organelles

Prokaryotes are among the _____ of all organisms.

smallest range from 0.5 to 2.0 um in diameter

In a basic staining procedure, which is the correct order?

smear, fix, stain

3 p+ motive force

source of energy resulting from the separation of protons from hydroxyl ions across the cyto membrane, generating a membrane electrochem potential

4 start codon

special codon (usually AUG) that signals the start of a protein

coccus

spherical

1 streptococcus catalase (-)

spherical gram(+) bact

When the cell wall is removed from a Gram-negative bacterium, the resulting form is called a(n) ________.

spheroplast

The process of endospore formation is called

sporulation

________ is the process through which endospores are formed within a vegetative cell.

sporulation

The substrate for amylase is ...

starch

5 aseptic technique

steps taken to prevent contamination

4 nonsense codon

stop codon

4 termination

stopping the elongation of an RNA molecule at a specific site

4 ribosome

structure composed of RNAs & proteins upon which new proteins are made

4 genetic element

structure that carries genetic info, such as a chromo, plasmid, or a virus genome

1 microbial ecology

study of microorg in their nat envt

2 dipicolinic acid

substance unique to endospores that confers heat resistance on these structures in endospores but not vegetative cells

Glycolysis literally means A. sugar splitting. B. sugar producing. C. energy producing. D. Embden-Meyerhof

sugar splitting.

4 replication

synth of DNA using DNA as a template

4 transcription

synth of an RNA molecule comp to one of the 2 strands of double-stranded DNA molecule

4 translation

synth of protein by a ribosome using the genetic info in a messenger RNA as a template

1 translation

synthesis of protein by a ribosome using the genetic info in a messenger RNA as a template

During the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis, organisms __________. A. produce molecular oxygen B. use molecular oxygen to produce ATP C. synthesize sugars D. ferment glucose

synthesize sugars

Where is an anticodon located?

tRNA

In the process of translation, amino acids are brought to the mRNA strand by...

tRNA molecules

Which of the following processes does not generate ATP? A. photophosphorylation B. the Calvin-Benson cycle C. oxidative phosphorylation D. substrate-level phosphorylation E. none of the above

the Calvin-Benson cycle

Hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides are crucial to the structure of dsDNA because they hold the two strands together. Why couldn't the two strands be effectively linked by covalent bonds? What process(es) would this inhibit if they were?

the amont of energy required to separate covalently bonded strands, which would be necessary for transcription and replication, would be prohibitive

During an oxidation reaction, A. the acceptor molecule gains an electron and becomes oxidized. B. the acceptor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized. C. the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized. D. the donor molecule gains an electron and becomes oxidized.

the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized

The complete oxidation (catabolism) of glucose typically involves three stages. The greatest amount of ATP is produced in which stage? A. Krebs cycle B. glycolysis C. the electron transport chain D. photosynthesis

the electron transport chain

2 endosymbiotic hypothesis

the idea the mitochondria & chloroplasts originated from Bacteria

A public health physician isolated large numbers of phages from rivers used as a source of drinking water in western Africa. The physician is very concerned about humans becoming ill from drinking this water, although she knows that phages specifically attack bacteria. Why is she concerned?

the phages are probably there becasue the bacteria are there. the bacteria are what make the people sick.

Phospholipid bilayer

the phosphate ends of the lipid molecules extend toward the membrane surface (hydrophillic) - the fatty acid ends extend inward (hydrophobic).

2 morphology

the shape of a cell-rod, coccus, spirillum, and so on

3 anabolic rxn anabolism

the sum total of all biosynthetic reactions in the cell

4 sulfolobus sulfataricus

thermophile autotroph receiving info from growing on S 13 RNA polymerase sub units

2 pili

thin, filamentous structures that extend from the surface of a cell &, depending on type, facilitate cell attachment, genetic exchange, or twitching motility

For every NADH that is oxidized via the electron transport chain, ____ ATP are formed.

three

1 domain

three distinct lineages of microbial cells one of the 3 main evo cell lineages BAE

The light reactions take place in the _________ and the Calvin cycle takes place in the _________. A. thylakoids; stroma B. chloroplasts; mitochondria C. inner membrane; outer membrane D. mitochondria; chloroplasts E. stroma; thylakoids

thylakoids; stroma

pili

tiny, hollow projections. - attach bacteria to surfaces and are not involved in movement. - composed of subunits of the protein pilin. -

Cells use nitrogen for which of the following?

to make proteins and nucleic acids

4 bacteriocin

toxic protein secreted by bacteria that inhibits/kills other, related bacteria

The proteins of bacteria that are involved in the movement of small molecules into the cell are called

transport protein, permeases and carriers

In the presence of tryptophan, tryptophan binds to the

trp repressor

4 theta structure

tructure that's formed when circular DNA is ½ way through replication

LPS is found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.

true

Mitochondria and chloroplasts are thought to have once been free-living bacteria that invaded another cell.

true

True or false: Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are surrounded by a cell membrane, or plasma membrane.

true

Lophotrichous

two or more flagella at one or both ends

amphitrichous

two polar flagella, one at each end

4 peptide bond

type of covalent bond linking AAs in a polypeptide

4 phosphodiester bond

type of covalent bond linking nucleotides together in a polynucleotide

chromatin

uncoilded chromosomes

5 chlamydomanas miralis

unicellular red photosynthesis- algae on snow - water melon

How does the Ames test help to determine if a chemical is mutagenic?

use a petri dish which only allows mutants to grow and if many colonies, chemical is a powerful mutagen

Fermentation differs from anaerobic respiration in all of the following ways EXCEPT that fermentation does NOT ________. A. oxidize NADH B. oxidize glucose C. use an electron transport chain D. require molecular oxygen

use an electron transport chain

facilitated diffusion

use protein carrier molecules or proyein liked pores

A Facultative anaerobe...

uses both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism

what was jenner responsible for

vaccinations

Jenner is associated with what?

vaccines

WHat do bacterial cells normally contain within their cytoplasm?

vaculoes ribosomes nucleoid

5 hyperthermophile

very high, hot springs/deep-sea hydrothermal vents

exocytosis

vesicle leaves the cell as insecretion

The term used to describe bacteria that are shaped like curved rods is - vibrio. - bacillus. - coccobacillus. - coccus.

vibrio

1 fluorescence microscope

visualize specimens that fluoresce (emit light after illumination with different wavelength) Cells appear to glow on black background due to filters used to enumerate bact in natural samples

A new medication is developed that targets and binds to the lipid A portion of LPS in Gram-negative bacterial cells. This drug shows a high degree of binding and activity against purified lipid A in an experiment carried out in test tubes. Based on this information,

we should next proceed by repeating the experiment in test tubes using intact Gram-negative cells to see if the drug binds with the same strength.

1 single microbial cell placed on solid medium grows and divides into millions of cells; makes it easier to see/ grow microorg Growing a culture on a medium (10^7 cells=colony)

what are bacterial colonies and how do they form?

1 Electron - use e- instead of visible light (photons) to image cells & structures - Electromagnets function as lenses, operates in a vacuum, camera takes a pic (electron micrograph) Path of light from B>T in light microscope, from T>B in e- microscpe

what are the differnces btw light/ electron microscope?

3 acids gases ethanols

what are the end products of fermintation?

2 Permeability barrier, protein anchor, energy conservation/consumption Polar and charged molecules must be transported. - Transport proteins accumulate solutes against the concentration gradient. (Figure 2.8) protein anchor - holds transport proteins in place energy conservation and consumption generation of proton motive force

what are the major functions of the cytoplasmic membrane?

The phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane is permeable to protons. T/F

False

True/False Anaerobic respiration is another name for fermentation.

False

True/False Feedback inhibition generally acts on the last enzyme in an anabolic pathway.

False

True/False Lipids, proteins, and sugars all may serve as substrates of glycolysis.

False

True/False: A silent mutation causes an amino acid change in the synthesized protein.

False

True/False: Alcohol is a product of all fermentation pathways.

False

True/False: Individuals with latent TB are symptomatic and contagious.

False

True/False: Mycobacterium tuberculosis multiplies rapidly.

False

True/False: Only carbohydrates can be broken down within a cell and used for energy.

False

True/False: PABA is a competitive inhibitor which inhibits the catalysis of sulfanilamide to folic acid.

False

True/False; Extreme or obligate halophiles require high temperatures for growth.

False

True/False: Pyruvic acid can enter the Kreb's cycle

False (t cannot, so it has to go through decarboxylation, carbon will remove and it will leave CO2. NAD+ is an electron acceptor. NADH is potential energy. Acetyl Co-A can enter the Kreb's cycle. 2 Acetyl Co-A enters, twice, because there's 2.)

Extreme or obligate halophiles require high temperatures for growth.

False, High osmotic pressure

True/False: The entire bacteriophage enters a bacterial cell during infection.

False, just phage DNA

True/False: When many cells are present in a bacterial population, the concentration of signaling molecules is low.

False.

flagella

composed of microtubles sliding bases cause them to move

What is the correct base pairs in DNA?

T-A G-C

How do lactic acid bacteria exert their antilisterial effect?

"Mitigation of Listeria monocytogenes in Ready-to-Eat Meats Using Lactic Acid Bacteria" It is a common bacterium in natural environments, including vegetation, agricultural soils and livestock, so it may be brought into the plant in raw animal and plant materials, dust, water and even through plant employees. Secondly, it typically finds its niche in cold, humid environments, making it a potential nightmare to control in RTE meat processing facilities once it has established itself on the premises. Its ability to form biofilms and persist in this protective microbial community is one of the most common reasons for its difficult eradication, despite aggressive cleaning and sanitizing. Lastly, L. monocytogenes can survive and even grow in refrigerated, packaged RTE products, including those packed under low-oxygen conditions.

acid-fast bacteria

- mycobacteria - thick cell wall, but 60% lipid and contains much less peptidoglycan - In the acid-fast staining process, carbolfuchsin binds to cytoplasm and resists removal by an acid-alcohol mixture

cell wall of EU

- no peptidoglycan - chitin: cell walls of fungi, exoskeleton

chlorplast

- photosynthesis - outer and inner membrane - contains DNA - can replicate oindependantly

Gram positive cell wall

- thick cell wall - 60-90% peptidoglycan

eukaryotic cells

- true nucleus - cells that have a nucleus and an outer membrane

1. At which temperature would a mesophile not be able to grow? A. -50 C B. 25 C C. 40 C D. 37 C

-50

1 microbial community

2+ cell pop coexisting/ interacting in a habitat; mixed cult/ not pure

How many ATP molecules are produced when one NADH donates electrons to the ETC?

3

Facultative Anaerobes Test tube Example

(2nd test tube in picture) 1: Obligate aerobes need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically. They gather at the top of the tube where the oxygen concentration is highest. 2: Obligate anaerobes are poisoned by oxygen, so they gather at the bottom of the tube where the oxygen concentration is lowest. 3: Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen because they can metabolise energy aerobically or anaerobically. They gather mostly at the top because aerobic respiration generates more ATP than either fermentation or anaerobic respiration. 4: Microaerophiles need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically. However, they are poisoned by high concentrations of oxygen. They gather in the upper part of the test tube but not the very top. 5: Aerotolerant organisms do not require oxygen as they metabolise energy anaerobically. Unlike obligate anaerobes however, they are not poisoned by oxygen. They can be found evenly spread throughout the test tube.

Enzymes SOD and catalase Test tube Example

(4th tube in picture) 1: Obligate aerobes need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically. They gather at the top of the tube where the oxygen concentration is highest. 2: Obligate anaerobes are poisoned by oxygen, so they gather at the bottom of the tube where the oxygen concentration is lowest. 3: Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen because they can metabolise energy aerobically or anaerobically. They gather mostly at the top because aerobic respiration generates more ATP than either fermentation or anaerobic respiration. 4: Microaerophiles need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically. However, they are poisoned by high concentrations of oxygen. They gather in the upper part of the test tube but not the very top. 5: Aerotolerant organisms do not require oxygen as they metabolise energy anaerobically. Unlike obligate anaerobes however, they are not poisoned by oxygen. They can be found evenly spread throughout the test tube.

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a bacillus?

(____)

1 louis pasteur

(chemist/microscopist) discovered living org discriminate b/t optical isomers Discovered that alcoholic ferment was a bio (not just chem) mediated process Disproved spontaneous generation Vaccines for anthrax, fowl cholera, rabies

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids?

(larger) gram-positive

4 virus

(linear/circular, single/double strand, extracellular) contain either RNA/DNA genomes, not cells

Which of the following is NOT part of an operon?

(operator, gene, promoter) ORIGIN

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins?

(smaller) gram-negative

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall

(smaller) gram-negative

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a toxic cell wall

(smaller) gram-negative

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by acetone-alcohol?

(smaller) gram-negative

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)?

(smaller) gram-negative

What are the three domains?

- Archaea (archaeobacteria) (from archae, ancient) - Bacteria (eubacteria) - Eukarya

Cell wall

- Outside the cell membrane - maintains shape of the cell - prevents the cell from bursting from osmosis

mitochondria

- an outer membrane, an inner membrane, and a fluid-filled inside the inner membrane - contain DNA - can replicate independantly

prokaryotic cells

- before nucleus - cells that lack a nucleus and an outer membrane

Tertrapeptide

- chains of four amino acids - what penicillin breaks

meiosis

- chromosomes replicate, forming dyads, - pairs of dyads come together. - During the course of two cell divisions, the dyads are distributed to four new cells. - each cell receives only one chromosome from each pair. Such cells are said to be haploid (1N) cells. - Haploid cells can become gametes or spores.

mitosis

- chromosomes replicates to from dyads - nuclear envelope breaks apart and forms the spindle apparatus: guides movement of chromosomes - dyads aggregate into single chromosomes along the center and move to the poles - each new chromosome one copy of each chromosome that was present in the parent cell

Sarcinae

- division in three planes - eight cells arranged in a cube

tetrads

- division in two planes - four cells arranged in a cube

periplasmic space

- gap between cell membrane and cell wall - gram negative - represents active area in metabolism - contains peptidoglycan, digestive enzymes and transport proteins -

Outer membrane

- gram negative - bilayer that forms the outermost layer of the cell wall and is attached to the peptidoglycan

spheroplast

- gram negative - have both a cell membrane and most of the outer membrane

protoplasts

- gram positive - cells with a cell membrane but no cell wall - must be in isotonic solutions -

granules

- inclusion - contains a spe- cific substance, such as glycogen or polyphosphate.

Chromatophores

- internal membrane system - contain the pigments used to capture light energy for the synthesis of sugars.

Teichoic acid

- molecule in gram positive - consists of glycerol, phosphates, and the sugar alcohol ribitol, occurs in polymers up to 30 units long. -- extend beyond the rest of the cell wall - provides attachment sites for bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) - serves as a passge way for movement of ions into and out of the cell

Peptidoglycan

- most important part of cell wall - polymer that forms a support around the cell wall - thick in gram positive - thin in gram negative

Pyruvic acid can enter the Kreb's cycle. T/F

False

Why is biofilm development in catheters (tubes that can be inserted into a body cavity, duct or vessel which allow drainage or injection of fluids) such a dangerous source of infection in hospitals?

-Biofilms are more resistant against antibacterial because they are in a clump. -Biofilms are more resistant to antibiotics. Plus, the catheter gives direct access to the body.

Give some examples of various specialized forms of Bacillus subtilis that can be found in its biofilm.

-Cells on the edges multiply move and move more. -Center: they produce spores

What are some advantages of biofilm production?

-Stick to surfaces -Resistant to antiboitics.

Two daughter cells are most likely to inherit which one of the following from the parent cell? (why/why not for each) -a change in a nucleotide in mRNA -a change in a nucleotide in tRNA -a change in a nucleotide in rRNA -a change in a nucleotide in DNA -a change in a protein

-a change in a nucleotide in DNA

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?

000000000

Into which molecule are all the carbon atoms in glucose ultimately incorporated during cellular respiration? 1.Carbon dioxide 2.NADH 3.ATP 4.Water

1

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs _____. 1.In both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle 2.during oxidative phosphorylation 3.in glycolysis i4.n the citric acid cycle

1

The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? 1.accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain 2.the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA 3.the citric acid cycle 4.glycolysis

1

True or false? The potential energy in an ATP molecule is derived mainly from its three phosphate groups. 1. True 2. False

1

True or false? The reactions that generate the largest amounts of ATP during cellular respiration take place in the mitochondria. 1. True 2. False

1

Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true? 1.NADH and FADH2 donate their electrons to the chain. 2.Electrons gain energy as they move down the chain. 3.Water is the last electron acceptor. 4.The electron transport chain is the first step in cellular respiration.

1

What is the 5 step process for lytic phage infections?

1. attachment 2. genome entry 3. synthesis 4. assembly 5. release

What are the two main different replication cycles that a bacterial virus can follow?

1. lytic cycle (virulent) 2. lysogenic cycle (temperate)

List three ways that bacteria defend themselves against bacteriophage.

1. prevent phage attachment 2. attacking foreign DNA with restriction enzymes, protecting native DNA with methylation 3. CRISPR system degrades incoming viral nucleic acid

Gram-negative cell wall

10-20% is peptidoglycan; the remainder consists of various polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids - this is why they do mot retain the crystal violet iodine stain

If there are 78 colonies on the 1/100 plate then the dilution factor is....

100

micrographia robet hooke

1st mold sketches 1st documented escription of microorg

How many NADH are produced by glycolysis? 1.3 2.2 3.4 4.5 5.1

2

In chemiosmosis, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP +Pi to ATP? 1.energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport chain 2.energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase, down their electrochemical gradient 3.energy released as electrons are transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane 4.energy released from substrate-level phosphorylation

2

In glycolysis there is a net gain of _____ ATP. 1.3 2.2 3.1 4.4 5.5

2

In glycolysis, what starts the process of glucose oxidation? 1.ADP 2.ATP 3.hexokinase 4.NADPH 5.FADH2

2

Streptococcus bacteria lack an electron transport chain. How many molecules of ATP can a Streptococcus cell net from one molecule of glucose? A. 4 B. 38 C. 10 D. 2 E. 36

2

The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is 1.ADP. 2.oxygen. 3.water. 4.pyruvate. 5.NAD+.

2

Under ideal conditions, the fermentation of one glucose molecule by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP molecules?

2

Under ideal conditions, the fermentation of one glucose molecule by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP molecules? A. 2 B. 4 C. 38 D. 0

2

What is the net number of ATP molecules produced during glycolysis? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

2

What molecule is indicated by the letter D? 1.glucose 2.oxygen 3.water 4.ATP 5.pyruvate

2

What process occurs within Box B? 1.electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation 2.the citric acid cycle 3.glycolysis 4,oxidative phosphorylation 5.electron transport

2

When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomes _____. 1.reduced 2.oxidized 3.an oxidizing agent 4.hydrolyzed

2

Which molecule is metabolized in a cell to produce energy "currency" in the form of ATP? 1.ADP 2.Glucose 3.Carbon dioxide 4.Phosphate

2

Which step of the cellular respiration pathway can take place in the absence of oxygen? 1.Fermentation 2.Glycolysis 3.Krebs cycle 4.Electron transport chain

2

What is the end product of glycolysis?

2 Pyruvic Acid — which have 3 carbons each. Glucose got split in half. Two ATP and two NADH and 2H+ ions

End product of glycolysis?

2 Pyruvic acid

Select the correct statement about cellular respiration. Select the correct statement about cellular respiration. 1.Animals carry out cellular respiration whereas plants carry out photosynthesis. 2.Plants carry out cellular respiration only in organs such as roots that cannot carry out photosynthesis. 3.Cellular respiration and breathing differ in that cellular respiration is at the cellular level, whereas breathing is at the organismal level.

3

The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or oxidation-reduction reaction _____. 1.gains electrons and gains potential energy 2.loses electrons and gains potential energy 3.loses electrons and loses potential energy 4.gains electrons and loses potential energy

3

What process occurs in Box A? 1.electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation 2.the citric acid cycle 3.glycolysis 4,oxidative phosphorylation 5.electron transport

3

Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of a glucose molecule? 1.the electron transport chain 2.synthesis of acetyl CoA from pyruvate 3.glycolysis 4.the citric acid cycle 5.reduction of pyruvate to lactate

3

Which of these is NOT a product of glycolysis? 1.NADH 2.pyruvate 3.FADH2 4.ATP

3

Which process is not part of the cellular respiration pathway that produces large amounts of ATP in a cell? 1.Krebs cycle 2.Glycolysis 3.Fermentation 4.Electron transport chain

3

Which stage of glucose metabolism produces the most ATP? 1.Glycolysis 2.Krebs cycle 3.Electron transport and chemiosmosis 4.Fermentation of pyruvate to lactate

3

During replication, what would the correct sequence be for a newly synthesized strand, if the template strand read 5' G C A T T 3'

3' C G T A A 5'

During transcription what would the correct sequence be for a newly synthesized strand, if the template strand read 5' G C A T T 3'

3' C G U A A 5'

Under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose (aerobic respiration) by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP molecules?

38 ATP, in Eukaryotes is 36ATP

The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to _____. 1. combine with lactate, forming pyruvate 2.yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain 3.combine with carbon, forming CO2 4.act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water

4

When a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a proton), the molecule becomes _____. 1.dehydrogenated 2.oxidized 3.redoxed 4.reduced

4

Which of the listed statements describes the results of the following reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy 1.CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized. 2.O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced. 3.O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. 4.C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.

4

What is degeneracy?

64 possible codons; 20 amino acids

Which of the following equations represents photosynthesis? A. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O B. 6CO2 + 6O2 → C6H12O6 + 6H2O C. 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 D. 6H2O + 6O2 → C6H12O6 + 6CO2 E. C6H12O6 + 6CO2 → 6O2 + 6H2O

6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

Bacterial and archaeal ribosomes are known as ________ ribosomes, based on their sedimentation coefficient. - 70S - 30S - 80S - 50S

70S

Twenty Staphylococcus aureus cells contaminated the macaroni salad you were making for a picnic. Given a generation time of 60 minutes, how many bacteria would you have after 2 hours?

80

Which nucleotides pair together in DNA?

A & T -- C & G

Which nucleotides pair together in RNA?

A & U -- C & G

What is a mutation?

A change in the genetic material of a cell.

fungicidal agent

A chemical that reduces spoilage in fruit by destroying fungi but does NOT appear to affect other microbes would be called a __________.

Which of the following is the most important element of Koch's germ theory of disease? The animal shows disease symptoms when? a.)the animal has been in contact with a sick animal b.) the animal has a lowered resistance c.) a microorganism is observed in the animal d.)a microorganism is inoculated into the animal e.) microorganisms can be cultured from the animal

A microorganism is inoculated into the animal

What could you conclude about an enzyme's activity? A. Enzymes are rigid molecules that never change their shape. B. A particular enzyme is capable of catalyzing many different reactions. C. A particular enzyme can be used only once. D. A particular enzyme is very specific to the reaction it catalyzes.

A particular enzyme is very specific to the reaction it catalyzes.

What is a replicon?

A replicon is a DNA molecule or RNA molecule, or a region of DNA or RNA, that replicates from a single origin of replication.

The best definition of a gene is:

A segment of DNA that encodes a functional product, usually a protein

In which temperature range would a mesophile not grow best? A. -50 C B. 12 C C. 40 C D. 37 C

A. -50 C

The large subunit of a prokaryotic ribosome is: A. 50S B. 60S C. 40S D. 30S

A. 50S

Which of the following statements about biofilms is false? A. Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics. B. Biofilms in pipes block the flow of water. C. Biofilms on medical implants cause infections. D. All of the above

A. Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.

Cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV) is a carrier molecule in bacterial and eukaryotic Electron Transport Chains. Cyanide inhibits Complex IV. A. Explain how cyanide is effective as a common poison. B. A shipping company employee notices that the inside of ships' hulls, where ballast water is stored, are deteriorating. The hull paint contained cyanide to prevent microbial growth. Bacteria, however, were still growing on the hulls. What could you conclude about the metabolic pathway of these bacteria?

A. CyanidecytochromecOxidaseblocksaerobicrespiration. B. These are bacteria are using fermentation.

Which is most likely to cause pneumonia? A. Encapsulated Streptococcus pneumonia B. Streptococcus pneumonia without a capsule

A. Encapsulated Streptococcus pneumonia

When is ATP produced during photosynthesis? A. Light-dependent reactions B. Light-independent reactions

A. Light-dependent reactions

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plasma membrane? A. Maintains cell shape B. Composed of a phospholipids bilayer C. Contains proteins D. Selectively permeable

A. Maintains cell shape

TEST TUBE PIC - look at screen shot! also know which contains enzyme and SOD catalyst

A. Obligate Anaerobes B. Microaerophiles C. Aerotolerant anaerobes D. Facultative Anaerobes

In which of the following is chemical energy used for carbon fixation? A. Photosynthesis B. Krebs cycle C. Fermentation D. Glycolysis

A. Photosynthesis

Which of the following is not true about fermentation? A. The final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule B. The energy yield is less than that of cellular respiration C. The final electron acceptor is an organic molecule D. Fermentation does not require oxygen

A. The final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule

Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in which of the following respects? A. The final electron acceptors are different B. Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport chain while anaerobic does not C. None of the above D. Both A and B

A. The final electron acceptors are different

A function of fermentation is A. The regeneration of NAD+ for use in glycolysis B. Production of large amounts of ATP C. Production of NADH for use in the electron transport chain D. all of the above

A. The regeneration of NAD+ for use in glycolysis

Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells? A. Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane B. They have membrane-enclosed organelles C. They all have cell walls containing sterols D. All of the above

A. Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane

Which of the following is not a chemical component of a bacterial cell wall? A. cellulose B. Peptidoglycan C. NAM-NAG D. Peptide chains

A. cellulose

A reduced molecule A. has gained electrons B. has become more positive in charge C. has lost electrons D. is an electron donor

A. has gained electrons

Which organism produces catalase and superoxide dismutase A. obligate aerobe B. obligate anaerobe C. both A and B D. none of the above

A. obligate aerobe

What is the shape of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a A. Rod B. Coccus C. Spiral

A.ROD

The anticodon for asparagine is

AAU --> UUA

Slime layer

AKA: Biofilm? less tightly bound to the cell wall and is usually thinner than a capsule - allow bacteria to adhere to objects in their environment Example: The slime layer keeps the bacteria in close proximity to the tooth surface, where they can cause dental caries.

conjugation pili

AKA: Sex pili, F pili - long - furnish a pathway for the transfer of genetic material DNA

axial filaments

AKA: endoflagella - lie between the outer sheath and the cell wall, - their twisting causes the rigid spirochete body to rotate like a corkscrew.

Lipopolysaccharide

AKA: endotoxin - apart of the outer membrane and is used to identify gram-negative - composed of lipid A (toxin that makes up the infection, causes fever) - not released until the cell walls of dead bacteria are broken down

attachment pili

AKA: fimbriae - help bacterial adhere to surfaces - contribute to the pathogenicity of certain bacteria—their ability to produce disease—by enhancing colonization (the development of colonies) on the surfaces of the cells of other organisms. - For example, some bacteria adhere to red blood cells by attachment pili and cause the blood cells to clump, a process called hemagglutination.

nuclear region

AKA: nucleoid - includes just one, large, circular chromosome but can have two or three, some of which may be linear in shape, and which contain the prokaryotic cell's DNA and some RNA and protein.

Cell membrane

AKA: plasma membrane, cytoplasmic membrane - a living membrane that forms the boundary between a cell and its environment.

vesicles

AKA: vacuoles - specialized membrane enclosed structures

At the completion of aerobic respiration, energy has been formed. The energy from the oxidation of glucose is stored in ____?

ATP

The energy for chemical reactions is stored in ____

ATP

Why is ATP required for glycolysis? A. ATP is used to convert PEP into pyruvic acid. B. ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules. C. ATP is used to reduce NAD+ to NADH. D. ATP is used to convert DHAP into G3P.

ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.

What is the bacterial "start codon"?

AUG

What is the intermediate product formed by pyruvic acid during alcoholic fermentation? A. Carbon dioxide B. Acetaldehyde C. Ethanol D. Lactic acid E. Formic acid

Acetaldehyde

Which of the following stains are considered differential?

Acid-fast stain AND Gram stain.

Which of the following is not true for activators?

Activators bind directly to the DNA.

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration? - Extracellular enzymes - Simple diffusion - Aquaporins - Facilitated diffusion - Active transport

Active transport

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? A. Aerobic respiration uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor, and anaerobic respiration uses an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor. B. Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and anaerobic respiration uses either an inorganic molecule, such as nitrate ions or sulfate ions, or an organic molecule, such as an acid or alcohol. C. Anaerobic respiration uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and aerobic respiration uses either an inorganic molecule, such as nitrate ions or sulfate ions, or an organic molecule, such as an acid or alcohol. D. Aerobic respiration uses O2 as the final electron acceptor, whereas anaerobic respiration uses H2O.

Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and anaerobic respiration uses either an inorganic molecule, such as nitrate ions or sulfate ions, or an organic molecule, such as an acid or alcohol.

To prevent excess phosphate from entering lakes and streams, certain laws govern the amount of phosphorus allowed in laundry and dishwasher detergents. What can happen if phosphorus levels in a lake increase?

Algae plants require phosphorous to grow. Too much phosphorous will lead to algae overgrowth in lakes.

Within a 3-day period at a large hospital, five patients undergoing hemodialysis developed fever and chills. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Klebsiella pnuemoniae were isolated from three of the patients. P. aeruginosa, K. pneumoniae, and Enterobacter agglomerans were isolated from the dialysis system. Why do all three bacteria cause similar symptoms?

All gram negative, all produce lipid A.

direct flaming

All of the following methods are used for food preservation EXCEPT __________.

What molecule is the inducer for the negative regulation of the lac operon?

Allolactose

skin before an injection

An antiseptic is used to remove microbes from __________.

You want to examine the structure of the protein coat of a virus by microscopy. Which microscope is your best choice, and why?

An atomic force microscope—this has the highest resolution and magnification of the microscopes we discussed and we want to visualize a subcomponent of the virus particles.

What connects the two photosystems in the light reactions? A. Chlorophyll B. A chain of glucose molecules C. The Calvin cycle D. A thylakoid E. An electron transport chain

An electron transport chain

What is the function of GTP? A. A scaffolding for carbon atoms B. An electron carrier C. An oxidizer to produce CO2 D. An energy carrier

An energy carrier

psychrotroph

An organism displays some growth at 4°C and at 25°C. However, it grows best at 20°C. This organism would be classified as a __________.

facultative anaerobe

An organism that grows both in the presence and the absence of oxygen and uses oxygen when it is available is called a(n) __________.

obligate aerobe

An unknown organism grows at the top of a tube of thioglycolate broth. This organism is best described as a(n) __________ for its oxygen requirements.

Chemical reaction in which simpler substances are combined to form more complex molecules. A. Anabolism B Catabolism C. Metabolism

Anabolism

An organism is a multi cellular heterotroph made up of eukaryotic cells lacking cell walls. Into which taxonomic group should the organism be classified?

Animals

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell

Around organelles and in plasma membrane

What is quorum sensing?

At a high density of bacteria, sufficient quantities of signaling molecules (autoinducers) are available for binding to the signaling receptors on the bacterial surface (Gram-positive bacteria) or in the cytoplasm (Gram-negative bacteria), and the quorum sensing genes that enable the bacteria to act as a population become activated.

Both

Attribute the following to either Prokaryotes only ; Eukaryotes only; Both; Neither. c) Fluid-mosaic membrane

What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration? A. 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2 B. C6H12O6 + 6H2O → 6CO2 + 6O2 + ATP energy C. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP energy D. C6H12O6 + 6CO2 → 6O2 + 6H2O + ATP energy E. 6O2 + 6H2O + ATP energy → C6H12O6 + 6CO2

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP energy

What does the nuclear area of a bacterial cell contain?

CHROMOSOMES: contain the genes (hereditary info) PLASMIDS: conjugative plasmids (sex pili) & R factors (antibiotic resistance)

Reactions involved in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis constitute the ...

Calvin-Benson cycle

a microaerophile

Campylobacter bacteria are grown with a CampyPak that produces 5% carbon dioxide and 15% oxygen. This bacterium is __________.

Select the FALSE statement regarding capsules.

Capsules take up stain well.

Light-independent reactions fix...

Carbon

What provides the carbon atoms that are incorporated into sugar molecules in the Calvin cycle? A. Sucrose (C12H22O11) B. RuBP C. Glucose (C6H12O6) D. G3P (C3H6O3) E. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Which of the following are NOT energy reserves

Carboxysomes

Which of the following are NOT energy reserves? - Lipid inclusions. - Polysaccharide granules. - Metachromatic granules. - Carboxysomes. - Sulfur granules.

Carboxysomes

5 cold sterilization

Carried out at low temps w/ the help of chem, radiations, membranes, & other means except high temps

Where does the energy required for anabolic reactions come from? A. Unused energy from metabolism B. Catabolic reactions C. Heat

Catabolic reactions

Which of the following is true of catabolism? A. Catabolic reactions build up complex organic compounds from simpler ones. B. Catabolic reactions are exergonic; they break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones. C. An example of a catabolism is the creation of sugar from carbon dioxide and water. D. Catabolic reactions use energy from ATP, converting it to ADP.

Catabolic reactions are exergonic; they break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones.

A chemical reaction that results in the breakdown of more complex organic molecules into simpler substances. A. Anabolism B Catabolism C. Metabolism

Catabolism

Enzymes are...

Catalysts

Which characteristic distinguishes eukoryotes from other organisms?

Cells with nuclei encased within membranes.

Which of the following is NOT a chemical component of a bacterial cell wall? - Peptidoglycan - Cellulose - Teichoic acids - Peptide chains - N-acetylmuramic acid

Cellulose

Which of the following pairs is mismatched

Centrosome — food storage

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? - Golgi complex — secretion - Endoplasmic reticulum — internal transport - Mitochondria — ATP production - Lysosome — digestive enzymes - Centrosome — food storage

Centrosome — food storage

In which of the following organelles does photosynthesis take place? A. Chloroplast B. Central vacuole C. Ribosome D. Mitochondrion E. Nucleus

Chloroplast

In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in

Chromatophores

In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in - Chromatophores. - Ribosomes. - Chloroplasts. - Mesosomes. - Cytoplasm.

Chromatophores

Which of the following pairs is NOT a functionally analogous pair

Cilia — pili

Which of the following structures is NOT found in prokaryotic cells? - Pilus - Flagellum - Peritrichous flagella - Cilium - Axial filament

Cilium

How are clades different from traditional Linnaean taxonomic groups?

Clades focus on derived characters

Which of the following is an anaerobic gram positive spore former? a Bacillus b Clostridium c E. coli d Corynebacterium

Clostridium

The botulism toxin is produced by

Clostridium botulinum

Which feature do scientists mainly consider when grouping organisms according to evolutionary classification?

Common Ancestry

1 light microscope

Compound light microscope uses visible light to illuminate cells. Uses two lenses to form image

What is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by cell to cell contact called?

Conjugation

What (in general) could be made from a genetic modification procedure where a gene of interest is inserted into recipient bacteria, via a plasmid vector?

Copies of gene or make protein products of the gene

Where does the Electron Transport Chain take place in prokaryotic cells?

Cytoplastic membrane

The H+ released by NADH and FADH2: a. passes down the ETC along with electrons. b. is pumped into the intermembrane space. c. passes through the ATP synthase complex. d. Both b and c are correct.

D

Which of these are carrying high-energy electrons? a. NAD+ and NADH b. FAD and FADH2 c. water and carbon dioxide d. NADH and FADH2

D

Bacteria with a spherical shape may be: A. oval B. elongated C. flattened on one side D. any of the above

D. any of the above

What is false about this graph? A. (1) = the lag phase where cell division is slow but is about to speed up. B. (2) = is called the logarithmic growth phase C. (3) = the phase of logarithmic death D. both A and C are false

D. both A and C are false

Pyruvic acid can only be broken down (during fermention) by yeasts. t/f

False

Why is deleting 1 nucleotide more detrimental than deleting 3 nucleotides?

Deleting 1 nucleotide results in frame shift mutations, resulting in a change of all amino acids translated beyond the deletion. Deleting 3 nucleotides results in only thedeletion of 1 amino acid

The sugar found in DNA is:

Deoxyribose

From the DNA model lab we completed with beads, what 2 molecules made up the backbone of the DNA?

Deoxyribose and phosphate

In biology, a trait that arose in an ancestor and is passed along to its descendants is referred to as a...

Derived Character

Which term best describes a trait that is shared by all members of a clade and only by members of that clade?

Derived characters

5 Turbid=cloudy, cells scatter light Measured w/ sprectrophometer (light through prism to get different wavelengths through filter) w/unicellular OD is proportional to cell number standard curve must first be est, as cells grow OD gets greater

Describe how you could use a turbidity measurement to tell how many colonies you would expect from plating a culture of a given OD (optical density).

2 Have at least two layers, contains peptidoglycan and have LPS (barrier against antibiotics/harmful agents=Core PS, OPS, Lipid A) on them

Describe the major chemical components in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.

A scientist is building a cladogram for animals. Which of the following is a node that you would expect to find on the cladogram?

Deuterostome Development

1 kochs postulates

Develop solid media for obtaining pure cultures of microbes Observed that masses of cells (colonies) have diff shapes/colors/sizes

1 Martinus Beijerinck

Developed enrichment culture technique Microbes can be isolated from natural samples in a highly selective fashion by manipulating nutrient/incubation conditions

Which amino acid(s) is/are found only in the cell walls of bacteria?

Diaminopimelic acid

4 Primary- linear array of amino acids Secondary- from H-bonding (alpha-helix/beta sheet) Tertiary- 3D shape of polypeptide from hydrophobic & other interactions Quaternary- number/types of polypeptides (subunits) that make a protein

Differentiate between the different classes of protein structure.

Your instructor wants you to bring in an example of a biofilm to your lab. Which choice is the best selection for bringing in an intact biofilm for further study?

Disconnecting and bringing in the old, mildewed showerhead from the showers in your dorm.

3 activation E

E req to bring substrate of an enzyme to the reactive site

Which of the following micoorganisms is a Gram negative rod? a E. coli b Staphylococcus epidermidis c Bacillus d Clostridium

E. coli

Which culture produces the most ATP? A. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius with O2 for 5 days B. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius without O2 for 5 days C. both a and b D. neither a nor b

E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius with O2 for 5 days

Which culture produces the most lactic acid? A. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius with O2 for 5 days B. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius without O2 for 5 days C. both a and b D. neither a nor b

E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius without O2 for 5 days

Which culture uses the most glucose? A. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius with O2 for 5 days B. E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius without O2 for 5 days C. both a and b D. neither a nor b

E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 celsius without O2 for 5 days

Which of the following statements is true about enzymes? A. Each enzyme has a characteristic three-dimensional shape. B. Enzymes are used up in the reactions they catalyze. C. Enzymes have active sites that interact with a variety of different molecules. D. Enzymes raise the activation energy of the reaction.

Each enzyme has a characteristic three-dimensional shape.

An electron microscope must use electromagnet "lenses" shaped like donuts to direct the electrons onto the specimen. Why?

Electrons are particles but there are other particles in air as well. Without a vacuum, the electrons would strike and be scattered by the particles within the air.

An electron microscope must use electromagnet "lenses" shaped like donuts (with a hole in the middle) to direct the electrons onto the specimen. Why aren't they solid, like the lenses in a light microscope?

Electrons are particles, and particles cannot travel through a solid item. The hole in the middle allows them to travel from the source of the electrons to the specimen.

All of the following steps are involved in the aerobic electron transport chain. Which step happens last? A. Protons move to the outside of the membrane. B. NAD+ is formed. C. NADH is oxidized. D. Electrons flow between membrane-bound electron carriers. E. Electrons are transferred to O2.

Electrons are transferred to O2.

When does translation end?

Elongation continues until ribosome reaches stop codon and falls off mRNA, UAG, UGA, UAA

Which of the following statements is true

Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes

Which of the following statements is true? - A cell can produce many endospores. - Endospores are for reproduction. - A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing. - Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes. - Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.

Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes.

Why do all enzymatic reactions need activation energy? A. Energy is required to disrupt a substrate's stable electron configuration. B. Energy is needed for the enzyme to find its substrate. C. Energy allows only the substrate to bind. D. Energy is required by an enzyme so that it can be reused.

Energy is required to disrupt a substrate's stable electron configuration

What is the basic reasoning for each bacterium having a minimum, optimum, and maximum growth temperature?

Enzyme requirements

5 taq polymerase

Enzyme that prolongs shelf life, for polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-uses a machine to heat up piece of DNA & separate it & use Taq to copy the DNA leading to multiple copies Isolated from hypothermophile, DNA polymerase

Why are enzymes important to biological systems? A. Enzymes are reuseable. B. Enzymes increase the energy barrier required of chemical reactions. C. Enzymes prevent unwanted chemical by-products from forming. D. Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.

Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.

What is meant by the statement "Enzymes are biological catalysts"? A. Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells. B. Enzymes produce biological organisms. C. Enzymes are products of biological systems. D. Enzymes produce products useful for biology

Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells.

What is genetic recombination?

Exchange of genes between two DNA molecules; crossing over occurs when two chromosomes break and rejoin

5 Sealed device that uses steam under pressure, water gets above 100C, temp kills endospores 121 C, 15 psi, 15 minutes

Explain how an autoclave works. What are the standard autoclaving conditions?

5 Added to culture media to reduce oxygen, separates microbes based on O2 requirements (02 can penetrate top of the tube)

Explain how thioglycolate broth works?

5 Pour- have the microorg and pour media over it (aerobic/anaerobic conditions) Spread- place microorg in prepared medium Can be counted if between 30-300 colonies & diluted 2.34x10^8 cells (colony-forming units) per mL of the original sample

Explain how to do a plate count? How many bacteria would be in the culture if you had 234 colonies on the 1/1,000,000 plate?

5 Uses solid media, antimicrobial agent is added to filter paper disc and diffuses into agar Zone of inhibition- area of no growth around the disk, the bigger the better killing

Explain how to interpret a disc diffusion test of a disinfectant.

5 Smallest amount of an agent needed to inhibit the growth of microorg

Explain how to interpret the MIC (Min Inhibitory Concentration) test.

Disease-causing bacteria vary widely in their ability to synthesize amino acids. What kinds of pathogens (extracellular or intracellular) are likely to make their own amino acids, and what kinds are not?

Extracellular pathogens are likely to make their own amino acid because they don't have it readily available. E.coli for example have the amino acids to synthesize their own. Bacteria that produce their own amino acids are pathogens.

What does an Hfr cell have in its chromosome?

F plasmid

What happens when an F plasmid is transferred to an F- cell? What does the cell become?

F+

Which of the following has a sex pilus/F pilus?

F+ bacteria

True/False: All bacteria have flagella.

FALSE

True/False: Energy use within a cell is a closed system (energy does not need to be replenished)

FALSE

True/False: Pseudomonas aeruginosa often causes infections in immunocompetent individuals (those w/ a healthy immune system). — only cause in immunocompromised

FALSE

True/False: The nuclear region in a prokaryotic cell is surrounded by a nuclear membrane

FALSE

True/False: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-negative bacterium.

FALSE (Staphylococcus aureusis is a gram-positive bacteria that is found frequently in the nose, respiratory tract, etc.)

True/False: Most strains of P. aeruginosa are sensitive to antibiotics.

FaLSE (many strains of P. aeruginosa are resistant to a wide range of antibiotics.)

Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt? Would you be susceptible to foodborne infection if you were to eat this spoiled fish?

Faculative halophiles, yes you could be susceptible to foodborne infection. Halophiles love salt. Osmophiles love sugar. Acidophile— An organism with optimal growth at pH levels of 3 or below. Alkaliphile —An organism with optimal growth at pH levels of 9 or above

(T/F) In the presence of tryptophan, transcription of the trp operon is on.

False

(T/F) In the presence of tryptophan, transcription of trp operon is on.

False

(T/F) When both glucose and lactose are absent, transcription occurs.

False

Alcohol is a product of all fermentation pathways. t/f

False

Endospores are reproductive structures. True False

False

Energy use within a cell is a closed system (energy does not need to be replenished) T/F

False

Gram-positive bacteria have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan than gram-negative bacteria. True False

False

Only carbohydrates can be broken down within a cell and used for energy. T/F

False

Prokaryotes may ingest particles via phagocytosis.

False

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true? A. Glycolysis is also called the Embden-Meyerhof pathway. B. Glycolysis produces glucose. C. Glycolysis is the main source of NADH in the cell. D. All cells perform glycolysis.

Glycolysis is also called the Embden-Meyerhof pathway

Which of the following organelles is involved in the modification, packaging, and secretion of materials? - Lysosomes - Centrioles - Mitochondria - Golgi apparatus

Golgi apparatus

Deamination of an amino acid results in ____.

H2O

What provides electrons for the light reactions? A. The Calvin cycle B. CO2 C. H2O D. O2 E. Light

H2O

A reduced molecule...

Has gained electrons

The strands of ds (double-stranded) DNA are:

Held together by H bonds; antiparallel

Which enzyme is responsible for separating the DNA during replication?

Helicase

Which type of gene transfer involves cells of the same generation?

Horizontal gene transfer

4 Proofreading by DNA Pol I/III (can detect mismatch through incorrect H bonding, removed by 3'-5' exonuclease)

How are errors in DNA replication kept extremely low?

2 Similar because they are made of phospholipids but bacteria have ester linkages and archaea has ether linkages & isoprenes instead of PL

How are the membrane lipids of Bacteria and Archaea similar, and how do they differ?

2 E. Coli=1x3 µm, Staph=1 µm diameter

How big is E. coli? How big is Staphylococcus?

5 Antiseptics (germicides) used on people bc it kills/inhibits microbial growth but is non-toxic to human tissues

How could you decide what is the best disinfectant to kill the bacteria on your hands?

5 (binary fission) cell div following enlargement of a cell to 2x its min size (budding) results from unequal cell growth, forms totally new daughter Form stalks, hyphae, appendages

How do binary fission and budding cell division differ?

5 (batch culture) closed-system, fixed volume, lag, exp, stationary, death (chemostat) open-system, fixed volume, steady state

How do microorganisms in a chemostat differ from microorganisms in a batch culture?

3 (chemoorganotroph) energy from org compounds, (chemolithotroph) inorganic compounds. (chemotroph) obtain energy by oxidation of e- donors in their enviro, (phototroph) covert light energy into ATP

How does a chemoorganotroph differ from a chemolithotroph? A chemotroph from a phototroph?

3 (autotroph) obtain carbon from CO2, (heterotroph) obtain carbon from organics

How does an autotroph differ from a heterotroph?

5 (obligate) require O2 (facultative) can live with or w/o O2

How does an obligate aerobe differ from a facultative aerobe?

1 Fluorescence- visualize cells that fluoresce, cells glow on black background (filters), used to enumerate bacteria in natural samples Confocal- uses computerize microscope w/ laser source to generate 3D image Phase-contrast- dark cells on light background, improves image contrast of unstained/live cells, phase ring amplifies differences in refractive index of cell & surroundings Light- uses light to visualize the cell

How does fluorescence microscopy differ from confocal scanning laser microscopy, light or phase contrast microcopy?

4 Contain multiple ORFs that contain multiple AAs, one mRNA but multiple proteins that can be encoded at one time

How does polycistronic mRNA allow for gene families to be controlled as a group?

5 (defined) exact chem comp known (complex) comp of digests of microbial, animal, plant products. Used most often.

How is a complex media different from a defined media? Which is used most often to grow bacteria?

5 Uses precisely controlled heat to reduce the microbial lead in heat-sensitive organisms (doesn't kill all organisms, unlike sterilization)

How is pasteurization different from sterilization?

3 (resp) donor is oxidized w/ O2/another cmpd as e- acceptor, complete breakdown of sugar (ferm) org cmpds donate/accept e-, incomplete breakdown of sugar

How is respiration different from fermentation?

The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to which of the following?

Human DNA

Flagellum

Identify area labeled a

Inclusion

Identify area labeled b

Ribosomes

Identify area labeled c

Fimbria

Identify area labeled d

Chromosome

Identify area labeled e

Capsule or Slime layer

Identify area labeled f

Cell wall

Identify area labeled g

Cell membrane

Identify area labeled h

Cytoplasm

Identify area labeled i

Plasmid

Identify area labeled j

4 Find the start codon (AUG) and continue by 3s until you reach the stop codon

If you were given a nucleotide sequence, how would you find the ORFs?

Which of the following describes an immune system that allows for certain opportunistic pathogens to cause disease? A. Immunocompromised B. Immunocompetent

Immunocompromised

4 Primer is composed of RNA, leading is continuous & lagging is discontinuous bc there's no free 3' hydroxyl group

In DNA replication, what is the primer composed of and why are there leading and lagging strands?

Transcription occurs...

In the nucleus

You are an emergency medical technician and are called to the home of Kevin, a 13-week-old boy who has become listless and is having trouble breathing. The parents report that Kevin used to smile, but lately he has not smiled, nor has he had other noticeable facial expressions in the last two days. Kevin's eyes are open when you arrive, but he does not seem to be focusing. You place your outstretched finger under his fingers and he fails to grasp it. You lift his foot and it drops back to the mattress. The parents report that he has not had a bowel movement in three to four days. What is your suspicion, based on what seem to be nervous system symptoms? What should be administered to Kevin at the earliest opportunity? How do babies acquire this condition? Although the diagnosis should be confirmed with laboratory tests, the tests should probably not be performed in the hospital lab. Why not?

Infant botulism—Clostridium botulinum is a spore-forming organism that is common in nature. The spores may be found in soil and certain foods (such as honey and some corn syrups). Infant botulism occurs mostly in young infants between 6 weeks and 6 months of age. It may occur as early as early as 6 days and as late as 1 year. Risk factors include swallowing honey as a baby, being around contaminated soil, and having less than one stool per day for a period greater than 2 months. Highly contagious.

What is the function of DNA?

Information storage 1. Replication 2. Expression: A. Transcription 3. Translation

obligate anaerobes

Instead of oxygen, __________ may utilize nitrate or sulfate as their final electron acceptors.

Which is not true of the cytoplasmic membrane?

It consists mainly of a fixed, static phospholipid bilayer.

Which is (are) true concerning the cell wall of prokaryotes?

It determines the shape of the bacteria. It prevents the bacteria from bursting. It contains peptidoglycan. It may be targeted by antimicrobials. All of the answer choices are true. ANSWER: ALL OF THE ANSWER CHOICES ARE TRUE

Which of the following statements about fermentation is true? A. It provides additional protons to allow the electron transport chain to continue. B. It allows the electron transport chain to continue in the absence of oxygen. C. It is an alternative way for a cell to produce oxygen. D. It is an alternative way to return electron carriers to their oxidized state.

It is an alternative way to return electron carriers to their oxidized state.

An organism is classified in the kingdom Plantae. Which of the following must be true about the organism?

It is autotrophic

All of the following statements about the periplasmic space are true except: - It is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. - It contains digestive enzymes. - All of the choices are true. - It is found only in gram-positive bacteria.

It is found only in gram-positive bacteria.

While on a trip to the desert, a friend of yours was bitten by a rattlesnake. He nearly died from hemolysis, or breakage of many of his red blood cells. You have analyzed the snake venom and found three enzymes: phospholipase, which degrades phospholipids; neuraminidase, which removes cell surface carbohydrates; and protease which degrades proteins. Which of these enzymes do you think was responsible for his near fatal red blood cell hemolysis? Why?

It is mainly phospholipase that degrades phospholipids, the major component of cell membrane. It causes hemolysis.

A child enjoyed bath time at his home because of the colorful orange and red water. The water did not have this rusty color at its source (the municipal water treatment plant). The water department could not culture the Thiobacillus bacteria responsible for the rusty color from either the source or the tub. How were the bacteria getting into the household water? What SPECIFIC structures ON THE BACTERIA make this possible? What structure can form from this?

It oxidies iron and inorganic sulfur compounds. The oxidation process can be harmful, as it produces sulfuric acid, which is a major pollutant. It has been suggested that T. ferrooxidans forms a symbiotic relationship with members of the genus Acidiphilium, a bacterial capable of iron reduction. Other species of Thiobacillus grow in water and sediment; there are both freshwater and marine strains. The pili, specifically firmbrae, attaches to iron, causing a biofilm. This bacteria uses inorganic sources to grow, ferrous oxidase enzyme. The bacteria are usually found in rivers, canals, mine drainage effluents and mining areas. So there may be some source of these bacilli near their house.They require inorganic sources to grow and contain an enzyme called ferrous oxidase that allows them to metabolize iron. They eat iron pipes corroding the pipes leading into households and produce a thick slimelayer, biofilm.

Which of the following statements about the glycocalyx is false

It protects from osmotic lysis

Which of the following statements about the glycocalyx is false? - It may be composed of polypeptide. - It may be composed of polysaccharide. - It may be responsible for virulence. - It is used to adhere to surfaces. - It protects from osmotic lysis.

It protects from osmotic lysis.

Which of the following statements about a gram-positive cell wall is false

It protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.

What is the fate of the NAD+ newly regenerated by fermentation? A. It is oxidized into carbon dioxide. B. It is converted into an organic acid. C. It returns to glycolysis to pick up more electrons. D. It is converted into ethanol.

It returns to glycolysis to pick up more electrons.

What is the role of pyruvic acid in fermentation? A. It provides the protons to be used in the electron transport chain. B. It takes the electrons from NADH, oxidizing it back into NAD+. C. It becomes the final electron acceptor for the electron transport chain in the absence of oxygen. D. It is the organic acid end-product of fermentation.

It takes the electrons from NADH, oxidizing it back into NAD+.

What is the role of the enzyme RNA polymerase in the process of transcription?

It transcribes DNA sequences to produce a complementary strand of RNA.

Most medically useful antibiotics interfere with either peptidoglycan synthesis or ribosome function. Why would the cytoplasmic membrane be a poor target for antibacterial medications

It would also affect the cell membrane of the host cells = not specific enough just to affect the bacteria. Anything that is clinically effective has to be specific. Human cells don't have cell walls.

Botulism was first described as a clinical disease in the early 1800's, when it was known as the sausage disease. Blood sausage was made by filling a pig stomach with blood and ground meats, tying shut all the openings, boiling it for a short time, and smoking it over a wood fire. The sausage was then stored at room temperature." How did this attempt at food preservation include most of the requirements for an outbreak of botulism (describe what was occurring in each step)

Kill competing bacteria (by heating) -allow heat-resistant C. botulinum endospores to survive -provides anaerobic conditions and an incubation period for toxin production

Which of the following is an acid produced by fermentation? A. Lactic acid B. Pyruvic acid C. Ethanol D. Lactic acid and propionic acid E. Propionic acid

Lactic acid and propionic acid

Fermentation is used as a means of preserving foods. Why would it slow spoilage?

Lactic acid would inhibit or kill food-spoil bacteria.

You are a microbiologist working for a pharmaceutical company and discover a new metabolite that can serve as a medication. You now must oversee its production. Which phase of the bacterial growth curve do you need to maintain the bacteria in, in order to make sufficient amounts of this primary metabolite?

Late log phase is when they produce metabolites, so keep them at stationary phase. Antibiotics form response to nutrient depletion. Protects resources.

DNA cannot...

Leave the nucleus

What are some challenges with controlling TB infections worldwide?

Length of treatment, early detection, and cost of treatment

1 spontaneous gerneration

Life arose spontaneously from nonliving material living org come from nothing

When is ATP produced during photosynthesis?

Light-dependent reactions

13. SPECIFICALLY, where is Lipid A located? When is Lipid A released from bacteria?

Lipid A is in the outer membrane. When bacteria cells are lysed by the immune system, then fragments of membrane containing Lipid A are released into circulation.

Which pathogen, associated with gastrointestinal infections, is prevalent in retail delis?

Listeria

THE GRAPH!

Look it up! 1= lag 2= log 3= stationary 4= death

Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2

Lophotophores

4 denaturation

Loss of structure/biological properties. If you lose the structure you lose the function

During which cycle does the viral genome integrate into the bacterial chromosome?

Lysogenic

Which cycle is more destructive to the bacteria?

Lytic

T4 phage is a model for:

Lytic phage

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the plasma membrane? - Contains proteins - Is the site of cell wall formation - Maintains cell shape - Is selectively permeable - Is composed of a phospholipid bilayer

Maintains cell shape

Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell? - Cell wall - Golgi complex - Vacuole - Mitochondrion - Nucleus

Mitochondrion

b) In mitosis, all chromosomes are replicated, whereas in meiosis, only half are replicated.

Mitosis differs from meiosis in the following ways EXCEPT: a) Mitosis results in a full complement of chromosomes in two cells, whereas meiosis results in four cells having half the number of chromosomes b) In mitosis, all chromosomes are replicated, whereas in meiosis, only half are replicated. c) Mitosis only occurs in somatic or body cells, whereas meiosis occurs in production of gametes or sex cells d) None of the above e) a and c only

What is a mobilome?

Mobile gene pool made from plasmids, transposons, or phage DNA

c) Get nutrients easily to all parts of the cell

Most prokaryotes range in size from 0.5 to 2.0 μm, yet have large surface-to-volume ratios. This large surface-to-volume ratio allows prokaryotes to: a) Ward off invaders b) Resist antibiotics c) Get nutrients easily to all parts of the cell d) Undergo meiosis e) b and d

What is a mutation?

Mutations are random, inheritable changes in the sequence of DNA Mutations may be neutral, beneficial, or harmful Mutations are important because they are the ultimate source of genetic variability in a species -error by DNA polymerase, UV light, chemicals

What pathogen has recently emerged as the leading cause of death due to a single pathogen?

Mycobacterium TB

Which of the following is a scientific name?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis(both words italicized, first nane capitalized, second lowercase)

Why do Mycoplasma species have sterols in the plasma membrane (what function do the sterols serve)?

Mycoplasma species have sterols in their plasma membranes to prevent lysis, it provides the structure and rigidity. It would burst without sterols.

4 complementary

NA sequences that can base-pair w/ each other

During glycolysis, electrons from the oxidation of glucose are transferred to ________. A. FADH2 B. lactic acid C. NAD+ D. FAD E. NADH

NAD+

In an enzymatic reaction involving oxidation of a substrate, which of the following would be required? A. H2O B. NAD+ C. O2 D. FADH2 E. ATP

NAD+

In fermentation, the electrons from ___ are passed to pyruvic acid to form reduced organic molecules.

NADH

What molecule enters the Electron Transport Chain? A. NAD+ B. Pyruvic acid C. NADH D. ATP

NADH

Which of the following molecules carry electrons during various stages of glucose catabolism? A. acetyl CoA B. NADH and FADH2 C. pyruvic acid D. glucose

NADH and FADH2

What molecule enters the Electron Transport Chain?

NADH and FADH2 carrying H+

Periplasm is A. the area between the inner and outer membranes of gram-negative bacteria B. the area between the inner and outer membranes of Gram-positive bacteria C. the interior portion of mitochondria D. the area outside the cell membrane that is influenced by the polymers

Option A

Porins are located in A. the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria B. the peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive bacteria C. the cytoplasmic membrane of both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria D. the periplasmic space of gram-negative bacteria

Option A

Swimming towards a chemical of bacteria is termed as A. positive chemotaxis B. negative chemotaxis C. phototaxis D. magnetotaxis

Option A

Teichoic acids are typically found in A. cell walls of gram positive bacteria B. outer membranes of gram positive bacteria C. cell walls of gram negative bacteria D. outer membranes of gram negative bacteria

Option A

The cell wall of A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-negative bacteria B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-positive bacteria C. both have same thickness but composition is different D. none of these

Option A

The cocci which forms a bunch and irregular pattern are A. Staphylococci B. diplococci C. Tetracocci D. Streptococci

Option A

The cocci which forms a chain is A. Streptococci B. diplococci C. Staphylococci D. Tetracocci

Option A

The common word for bacteria which are spherical in shape is A. cocci B. bacilli C. spirilla D. pleomorphic

Option A

Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface of a gram-negative bacterium? A. Pore protein (porin) B. Protein involved in energy generation C. Lipoteichoic acid D. Phospholipids

Option A

Which of the following is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria? A. Mitochondria of eukaryotes B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes C. Lysosomes of eukaryotes D. None of these

Option A

Which of the following is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium? A. O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) B. Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA) C. Braun lipoprotein D. Electron transport system components

Option A

Cyanobacteria have A. a gram-positive cell wall B. a gram-negative cell wall C. Neither (a) nor (b) D. No cell wall

Option B

Gram positive cells have a A. second outer membrane that helps to retain the crystal violet stain B. multiple layer of peptidoglycan that helps to retain the crystal violet stain C. thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain D. periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet

Option B

In which of the following, lipo-polysaccharide is a major constituent of outer membrane of the cellwall? A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria C. Fungi D. None of these

Option B

Peptidoglycan is also known as A. N-acetyl muramic acid B. murein mucopeptide C. N acetylglucosamine D. mesodiaminopimetic acid

Option B

The bacteria deficient in cell wall is A. Treponema B. Mycoplasma C. Staphylococcus D. Klebsiella

Option B

The cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can be easily destroyed by the enzyme known as A. lipase B. lysozyme C. pectinase D. peroxidase

Option B

The common word for bacteria which are straight rod in shape is A. cooci B. bacilli C. spirilla D. pleomorphic

Option B

The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are A.Streptococci B.Diplococci C.Tetracocci D.None of these

Option B

The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is A. attachment of a peptide to muramic acid B. attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link C. attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a membrane lipid D. binding of penicillin to a membrane protein

Option B

The protein from which hook and filaments of flagella are composed of, is A. keratin B. flagellin C. gelatin D. casein

Option B

The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is A. pilli B. flagella C. sheath D. capsules

Option B

Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin? A. Cyanobacteria B. Mycoplasmas C. Bdellovibrios D. Spirochetes

Option B

Which of the following has peptidoglycan as a major constituent of cell wall? A. Gram-negative bacteria B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Fungi D. None of these

Option B

Which of the following may contain fimbriae? A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of these

Option B

Chemically the capsule may be A. polypeptide B. polysaccharide C. either (a) or (b) D. none of these

Option C

Chemotaxis is a phenomenon of A. swimming away of bacteria B. swimming towards a bacteria C. swimming away or towards of bacteria in presence of chemical compound D. none of the above

Option C

In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes are A. 70S B. 60S C. 80S D. Not specific

Option C

Peptidoglycan is found only in the bacterial A. cell membrane B. glycocalyx C. cell wall D. spore

Option C

Single or clusters of flagella at both poles is known as A. monotrichous B. petritrichous C. amphitrichous D. none of these

Option C

The arrangement, in which flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, is known as A. lophotrichous B. amphitrichous C. peritrichous D. monotrichous

Option C

The location where the bacterial chromosome concentrates is called A. nucleus B. nuclein C. nucleoid D. nucleose

Option C

What pathogen has recently emerged as the leading cause of death due to a single pathogen?

TB

The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis is A. synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit B. removal of the subunit from bactoprenol C. linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to the growing peptidoglycan chain D. cross-linking the peptide side chains of peptidoglycan

Option C

The other name for peptidoglycan is A. mucopeptide B. murein C. both (a) & (b) D. none of these

Option C

Which of the following bacterial genera (that produces endospore) have medical importance? A. Clostridium B. Bacillus C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of these

Option C

Which of the following does not contain protein? A. Pili B. Flagellum C. Lipoteichoic acid D. Porin

Option C

Which of the following may be most likely to be missing from a gram-positive bacterium? A. Penicillin binding protein B. Peptidoglycan C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Phospholipid bilayer membrane

Option C

Which of the following organism has sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane? A. Clostridum B. Proteus C. Mycoplasma D. Bacillius

Option C

Cytoplasmic inclusions include A. ribosomes B. mesosomes C. fat globules D. all of these

Option D

Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in A. nucleoid B. chromatin C. nuclear material D. all of these

Option D

Microcapsules are composed of A. proteins B. polysaccharides C. lipids D. all of these

Option D

Name the component of flagellum. A. Filament B. Hook C. Basal body D. All of these

Option D

The cell walls of Gram positive bacteria contain two modified sugar, viz. N- acetylgucosamine (NAG) and N- acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently linked by A. α- 1,4-glycosidic bond B. β-1,6-glycosidic bond C. α- 1,6-glycosidic bond D. β- 1,4-glycosidic bond

Option D

The common word for bacteria which are helically curved rods is A. cooci B. pleomorphic C. bacillus D. spirilla

Option D

Which of the following has Chinese letter arrangement? A. Bacillus anthracis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Clostridium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Option D

Which of the following is not true about peptidoglycan? A. It is a polymer consisting of N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids (alanine, lysine, etc.) B. It is present in prokaryotic cell wall C. It occurs in the form of a bag shaped macro molecule surrounding the cytoplasm membrane D. None of the above

Option D

Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria? A. It consists of multiple layers B. It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative bacteria C. It contains teichoic acids D. All of these

Option D

Which of the following structure(s) is /are external to cell wall? A. Flagella B. Stalks C. Sheath D. All of these

Option D

In heterotrophs, energy for the life processes comes from the chemical energy stored in the bonds of...

Organic Compounds

4 Replisome binds & initiates synth Rep forks continue synth in opposite directions Rep forks hit terminus of rep & collide, releasing 2 chromo copies

Outline the steps in DNA replication in bacteria.

Explain how P. aeruginosa can easily cause skin infections via transmission in hot tubs

P. aeruginosa can cause skin infections via transmission in hot tubs that are not well chlorinated. It likes hot environments and is resistant to chlroine and disinfectants. Hair follicles opening because of heat. Allows bacteria to come in.

ultra-high-temperature (UHT) treatment

Packages of milk and coffee creamers may be stored without refrigeration if they have been sterilized by __________.

Wine

Pasteurization was first used by Pasteur to control spoilage of __________.

the microbes that survived pasteurization were able to grow at 4ºC

Pasteurized milk in an unopened container spoils in the refrigerator. A sample reveals the presence of microorganisms. The most likely explanation is __________.

Which of the following is most abundant in bacterial cells?

Peptidoglycan

Positive, spheroplasts, L-forms

Peptidoglycan digested from Gram-_______bacteria retain their cell membrane but lose their cell walls, making them protoplasts, whereas cell wall digests of Gram-negative bacteria retain their cell and outer membranes intact, making them ______. Other genera of bacteria normally have cell walls but can lose their ability to form cell walls; such bacteria are called______

What is a prophage?

Phage DNA inserted into the host cell's DNA

You have two flasks with broth media. One contains a species of cyanobacteria, which is a photosynthetic bacteria. The other flask contains Escherichia. coli (nonphotosynthetic bacteria). Both flasks are sealed and incubated under optimal growth conditions for two days. Assuming the cell volume and metabolic rate of the bacterial cells is identical in each flask, why would the carbon dioxide concentration be higher in the E. coli flask than in the cyanobacteria flask after the two-day incubation?

Photosynthesis uses CO2 and produces O2. E.Coli Fermentation produces CO2

In which of the following is chemical energy used for carbon fixation?

Photosynthesis?

What is a plaque assay?

Plaque assays used to quantitate phage particles in samples: sewage, seawater, soil Zones of clearing from bacterial lysis are plaques

Where is the gene for the F pilus found?

Plasmid (f factor)

What does a bacterium that is pleomorphic look like?

Pleomorphic bacteria appear in many forms. They have different shapes that look irregular. Star, rectangular

True/False: A culture of Proteus exhibits swarming motility due to its flagellar activity.

TRUE

A new drug is developed thatinhibits formation of the flagellar filament by impairing production of the protein flagellin. Is this going to be a good drug?

Potentially-it would definitely only impair bacteria, but wouldn't matter for the ones that don't use a flagellum to move around.

What is a major function of the Krebs cycle?

Produces ATP = Energy

The bacteria on the outside of termite protozoa

Propel the protozoan.

What carbon molecules remain at the end of glycolysis? A. Glucose B. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) D. Pyruvic acid

Pyruvic acid

Which of the following statements is accurate concerning glucose metabolism? A. Pyruvic acid, the product of glycolysis, is the starting block for both the Krebs cycle and fermentation. B. Glucose is split in glycolysis and produces large amounts of ATP. C. The electron transport chain is the final step for both fermentation and aerobic respiration. D. Fermentation produces large amounts of ATP.

Pyruvic acid, the product of glycolysis, is the starting block for both the Krebs cycle and fermentation.

1. Which of the following is the best (most SPECIFIC) definition of respiration? A. A sequence of carrier molecules with oxygen as the final electron acceptor B. A sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor C. A method of generating ATP D. A series of reactions in which pyruvic acid is oxidized to CO2 and H2O

Q 36 - A method of generating ATP?

NAD+ is ___________(reduced/oxidized) to NADH

REDUCED

1 rRNA

RNA in ribosomes; made it possible to build 1st tree of life

Blocking gene expression by means of a silencing complex is known as...

RNA inferference

4 mrna

RNA molecule that contains the genetic info to encode 1/more polypeptides

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is

RNA polymerase

When does transcription end?

RNA polymerase reaches terminator sequence

If the following cross occurs... AA with aa, what is the result?

Ration of 4:0

Which of the following statements regarding redox reactions is true? A. No metabolic reactions are redox reactions. B. Redox reactions must either be oxidizing reactions or reducing reactions. C. Redox reactions are only seen in the electron transport chain. D. Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.

Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Replication of a new DNA strand (daughter strand) occurs in the 5'3' direction & During replication, two new DNA strands are created (Both A and B are correct)

Which gene is turned off when it is not needed?

Repressed

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion

Requires transporter proteins

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion - Can move materials from a higher to a lower concentration. - Requires ATP. - Can move materials from a lower to a higher concentration. - Requires transporter proteins. - Doesn't require ATP.

Requires transporter proteins.

4 R plasmid

Resistance to antibiotics/other growth inhibitors

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched

Ribosomes — protein storage

Bacillus

Rod shaped bacteria

You discover an encapsulated Gram-positive, peritrichous, spore-forming bacillus. Which of the following describes the organism?

Rod-shaped bacterium with a thick cell wall, a capsule, and flagella distributed over its surface, that can form endospores for survival of adverse conditions.

Which of the following are possible outcomes of a base substitution?

Silent mutation, Missense mutation, Nonsense mutation (all)

What might happen if a mutation occurs in the promoter sequence of a gene such that a segment of the bases are deleted?

So how likely you will see no protein being made depends on how many regulatory sequences your promoter has and how big your deletion is.

pleomorphism

Some bacteria vary widely in form even within a single culture

Which of the following organisms is a gram positive cocci in clusters? a Micrococcus b Streptococcus c Salmonella d Staphlococcus

Staphlococcus

destruction of all microbial life

Sterilization is the __________.

Figure 4.4 shows movement across a plasma membrane. Which figure best represents simple diffusion?

Substance passes through membrane without the aid of a protein

You look in the refrigerator and find some orange, sugary drink you had forgotten was there. The drink now has an off taste and bubbles. What is the most likely explanation for the changes in the drink? (what specific metabolic pathway is occurring?)

Sugars have fermented to alcohol and the bubbles are CO2 from pyruvate.

Explain why sulfa drugs prevent bacterial growth without harming the human host.

Sulfa drugs act as a competitive inhibitor to PABA (binding its active site), which is required for bacteria to create folic acid. Humans don't create folic acid.

If Pasteur's swan-necked flask had contained endospores, what results would have been observed? (What was Pasteur's original experiment attempting to prove? What are endospores? How would the presence of endospores have altered the experiment?)

Temperature would not have killed the endospores. They would've multiplied and made the water cloudy. It would not have disproven spontaneous generation.

What molecule cross-links the NAG-NAM repeating units in peptidoglycan?

TetraPeptide Chain (peptide)

Recombinant DNA is? a.) DNA in bacteria b.) the study of how genes work c.) the DNA resulting when genes of two different organisms are mixed d.) the use of bacteria in the production of foods e.) the production of proteins by genes

The DNA resulting when genes of two different organisms are mixed

90 minutes

The DRT for a particular bacterial species at 60°C is 30 minutes. How long would it take at this temperature to remove 99.9% of this bacterial population?

Quorum sensing

The ability of bacteria in a biofilm to communicate with each other and coordinate their activities

nitrogen fixation

The ability of microbes to utilize N2 as a nitrogen source is called __________.

b) Lipopolysaccharide

The association of endotoxin in Gram-negative bacteria is a result of the presence of: a) Peptidoglycan b) Lipopolysaccharide c) Polypeptide d) Steroids e) Calcified proteins

A child with a bloodborne (gram-negative) bacterial infection was treated with antibiotics. After treatment, bacteria could not be cultured from her blood, indicating that the bacteria were killed. However, her symptoms became worse. Annually, nearly half of similar patients die. Explain why antibiotic treatment made her symptoms increase.

The bacteria dies but LPS is released. LPS causes an inflammatory response. Lipid A is released. LPS is embedded. It has to do with the antibiotic attacking the bacteria which actually cause the blood cells to burst releasing more toxin into the blood stream and actually causing the person to become septic and die. That's about the simplest way I know how to explain it.

What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl with penicillin?

The cell will plasmolyze

What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme?

The cell will undergo osmotic lysis

Photosynthesis

The conversion of light energy into chemical energy stored in organic compounds

What can be determined by interpreting a cladogram?

The derived characters that differentiate species on the cladogram.

Why won't a gram stain of an acid-fast bacteria give accurate results?

The dye isn't absorbed by their cell wall, which is made of mycolic acid, a lipid. They give the cells a waxy structure, which makes it resistant to staining.

Why is reduction the term used to describe the gain of an electron? A. The electron acceptor gets smaller. B. The amount of energy in the molecule decreases. C. The number of molecules in the reaction decreases. D. The electron acceptor's net charge decreases

The electron acceptor's net charge decreases

1. Which of the following is not true regarding the electron transport chain? A. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is an inorganic molecule B. electrons pass through ATP synthase in order to generate ATP from ADP C. the phospholipid bilayer in the plasma membrane is impermeable to protons (i.e. they cannot pass through, freely) D. none of the above

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is an inorganic molecule

1. Which of the following is not true about fermentation? A. The final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule B. The energy yield is less than that of cellular respiration C. The final electron acceptor is an organic molecule D. Fermentation does not require oxygen - t

The final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule

1. Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in which of the following respects? A. The final electron acceptors are different B. Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport chain while anaerobic does not C. None of the above D. Both A and B

The final electron acceptors are different

The best definition of osmotic pressure is

The force with which a solvent moves across a semipermeable membrane from a higher to a lower concentration

What genes are transferred during specialized transduction?

The genes that get transferred (donor genes) depend on where the phage genome is located on the chromosome. Specialized transduction occurs when the prophage excises imprecisely from the chromosome so that bacterial genes lying adjacent to the prophage are included in the excised DNA.

Which of the six kingdoms correspond to the domain Eukarya?

The kingdoms Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia only

Each node on a cladogram represents...

The last point at which two groups shared a common ancestor.

Definition of generation time

The length of time it takes a population of cells to double

What is a major function of the Krebs cycle?

The major function of the Krebs cycle is to transfer most of the chemical energy from the breakdown of pyruvate (through acetyl CoA) to NAD+ and FAD during redox reactions.

definition of fermentation

The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors

A research laboratory is investigating environmental factors that would inhibit the growth of Archaea. One question they have is whether adding the antibiotic penicillin would be effective in controlling their growth. What do you think the outcome would be if they tried this?

The penicillin wouldn't affect the Archaea because it prevents crosslinking of peptidoglycan-Archaea don't have this compound in their cell walls.

Select the TRUE statement about the proton motive force.

The proton motive force involves movement of hydrogen ions across the nuclear membrane by the electron transport chain.

A function of fermentation is...

The regeneration of NAD+ for use in glycolysis

Consumers are advised to avoid stuffing a turkey the night before cooking (where the stuffing would be made on the stove and then placed in the turkey), even though the turkey is refrigerated. A homemaker questions this advice and points out that the bacteria of human disease grow mainly at warm temperatures, not in the refrigerator. What explanation might you offer to counter this argument?

The stuffing would be hot, allowing bacteria that are psychrotrophs to potentially grow. These bacteria can also grow at refrigeration temperature.

Which of the following is the best definition for transcription?

The synthesis of a complementary strand of RNA from a DNA template

d) Protein synthesis

The use of antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of which of the following functions: a) ATP production b) DNA replication c) Phagocytosis d) Protein synthesis e) Cell division

Assume that you are working for a chemical company and you are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethyl alcohol (ethanol). The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation? What could you do to fix the situation?

There is a presence of oxygen. — You can fix the situatuion by preventing oxygen from being in there

Bacteria normally do not grow in jams and jellies. In terms of osmosis, what might explain this?

There's a lot of sugar, the bacteria is in a hypertonic solution and it goes into plasmolysis, which kills it. Water is sucked out.

What is the fate of metabolites during respiration? A. They are oxidized completely to form pyruvic acid. B. They are rearranged to form GTP. C. They are oxidized completely to carbon dioxide and water. D. They are reduced to from NADH and FADH2.

They are oxidized completely to carbon dioxide and water.

Which of the following is not true of bacterial plasmids? - They may carry genes that enhance survival of the bacterium under certain conditions. - They may carry genes for drug resistance. - They are required for host growth and/or reproduction. - They can replicate independently of the chromosome.

They are required for host growth and/or reproduction.

Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is false

They are sensitive to penicillin

Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is false? - They are sensitive to penicillin. - Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane. - They are toxic to humans. - They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment. - They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids.

They are sensitive to penicillin.

46. What is the link between antibiotics, biofilm production and chronic infections?

They became harder because they produced glycogen

Why do most Americans refrigerate raw shell eggs while most Europeans don't?

They can safely do that because of the way eggs are produced in Europe, but it can't be safely done in the U.S. because of Salmonella.Salmonella bacteria, discovered in 1885 and named for the man who headed the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) back then, can be transmitted via the outside of an egg if there is chicken manure present, or from inside the egg via the hen.

How can anaerobes grow in the human mouth when so much oxygen is there?

They could be protected in a biofilm. In addition, facultative anaerobes could consume O2 and obligate anaerobes could grow beneath them.

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells

They lack a plasma membrane.

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells? - They lack a plasma membrane. - Their DNA is not associated with histones. - They lack membrane-enclosed organelles. - Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane. - They have cell walls containing peptidoglycan.

They lack a plasma membrane.

Which of the following statements about prokaryotic cells is generally false?

They possess 80S ribosomes.

Which of the following statements about prokaryotic cells is generally false? - They are motile by means of flagella. - They possess 80S ribosomes. - They lack membrane-bound nuclei. - They reproduce by binary fission. - They have a semirigid cell wall.

They possess 80S ribosomes.

Which statement describes the citric acid cycle? A. This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration. B. This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. C. This process converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. D. This process joins 2 pyruvic acid molecules into a molecule of glucose. E. This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.

This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.

Which statement describes glycolysis? A. This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration. B. This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. C. This process converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. D. This process joins 2 pyruvic acid molecules into a molecule of glucose. E. This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.

This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose.

Which statement describes the electron transport chain? A. This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. B. This process converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. C. This process joins 2 pyruvic acid molecules into a molecule of glucose. D. This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration. E. This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.

This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.

What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?

To carry amino acids to ribosomes to build the polypeptide.

What is the goal of evolutionary classification?

To classify organisms according to phylogeny rather than physical similarities only.

When both glucose and lactose are present

Transcription if turned off

Heat (52ºC)

You contaminate the kitchen counters with Salmonella enterica in chicken blood and expose it to a variety of treatments to study the survival of the bacteria on kitchen surfaces. The following DRT values were obtained: 2.0 minutes at 52°C; 3.7 minutes at pH 2.6; 13.3 minutes with 10 mM hydrogen peroxide; and > 35 days without treatment. Which treatment is most effective against S. enterica?

the compound is fungistatic

You discover a compound that you suspect reduces spoilage in fruit. You treat apples with your compound and inoculate them with Botrytis, a common spoilage fungus. After 7 days, the dry weight of fungi is 5 mg on the treated apples and 10 mg on the untreated apples. You conclude from these results that __________.

thermophile

You inoculate two tubes of liquid culture medium with 100 bacterial cells and incubate one tube at 37°C and the other at 55°C. After 48 hours, there are 20,000 bacteria per milliliter in the 37°C tube and 1,568,000 bacteria per milliliter in the 55°C tube. You conclude that this species is a __________.

What determines the type and severity of symptoms that occur due to LPS exposure?

Your symptoms depend on where LPS is released, if it's in your small intestines, you might have some diarrhea, but if it's in your blood stream, you might have worse poisoning.

Thermoduric

__________ bacteria may survive pasteurization.

Psychotroph

__________ organisms are often responsible for food spoilage in refrigerated foods.

What is decarboxlyation?

a chemical reaction that removes a carboxyl group and releases carbon dioxide

Endospores are

a dormant cell type

2 archaellum

a long, thin cellular appendage present in many Archaea that rotates & is responsible for swimming motility flagellar

What does an F' cell have in its plasmid?

a portion of excised chromosome

capsule

a protective structure outside the cell wall of the organism that secretes it - polysaccharide molecules arranged in a loose gel

reaction that involves the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is referred to as A. an oxidation reaction. B. a reduction reaction. C. a redox reaction.

a redox reaction.

Which of the following is the best definition of respiration? A. a sequence of carrier molecules with O2 as the final electron acceptor B. a sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor C. a method of generating ATP D. the complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O E. a series of reactions in which pyruvic acid is oxidized to CO2 and H2O

a sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor

Which of the following is the best definition of the Krebs cycle? A. the oxidation of pyruvic acid B. the way cells produce CO2 C. a series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid D. a method of producing ATP by phosphorylating ADP E. a series of chemical reactions in which ATP is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid.

a series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid

pellicle

a shiny or fuzzy, thin layer at the air-water interface of a broth culture

What is meant by a defective phage?

a temperate bacteriophage mutant with a genome that does not contain all normal components and cannot become a fully infectious virus, yet can replicate indefinitely in the bacterial genome as defective prophage; many defective bacteriophages are mediators of transduction

Which of the following best defines the process of transcription? a) A molecule of DNA is copied into a complementary sequence of RNA. b) A DNA strand unzips and makes an exact copy of itself. c) tRNA molecules carry amino acids to match up with the sequence on the RNA molecule. d) None of the answer choices.

a) A molecule of DNA is copied into a complementary sequence of RNA.

Which of the following statements about E.coli is false? a. E.coli was the first disease causing bacterium identified by Koch b. E.coli is part of the normal microbiota of humans c. E.coli is beneficial in human intestines d. A disease causing strain of E. Coli causes bloody diarrhea e. None of the above

a. E.coli was the first disease causing bacterium identified by Koch

Which of the following is an example of bioremediation? a.) application of oil degrading bacteria to an oil spill b.) application of bacteria to a crop to prevent frost damage c.) fixation of gaseous nitrogen into usable nitrogen d.) production by bacteria of a human protein such as interferon e.) all of the above

a. application of oil-degrading bacteria to an oil spill

1 resolution

ability to distinguish two adjacent objects as distinct and separate when viewed under a microscope; .2 micrometers

1 magnification

ability to make an object larger

1 contrast

ability to resolve a cell/ structure from its surroundings

Which of the following reactions produces the most molecules of ATP during aerobic metabolism? A. glucose --->glucose6 - phosphate B. Phosphoenolpyruvic acid ---> pyruvic acid C. glucose ---> pyruvic acid D. acetyl CoA ---> CO2 + H2O E. Succinic Acid ----> fumaric acid

acetyl CoA ---> CO2 + H2O

Fatty acids are broken down to___.

acetyl groups, which enter the Krebs cycle.

When fermentation tests are used to help identify bacteria, which of the following end-products is typically detected by a color change? A. O2 B. NADP C. gas D. acid

acid

In the absence of lactose, the lac repressor is

active and can bind to the opereator

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration

active transport

Which group of organisms has members representing each of the following nutritional classifications: chemoheterotrophs, chemoautotrophs, photoheterotrophs, and photoautotrophs? A. bacteria B. animals C. plants D. protists

bacteria

Which of the following would be an example of bioremediation of an oil spill in a marine environment? a Physically removing the oil by binding it to absorbent chemicals b Burning the oil c Adding nutrients that stimulate indigenous microorganisms to degrade the oil d Skimming the surface of the water and collecting the oil

adding nutrients that stimulate...

5 pseudomonas

adv antibiotic resistance low O2 atm found in catheters

The opportunistic pathogen, Pseudomonas aeruginosa colonizes wounds and the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients. P. aeruginosa also grows in soil. It can respire aerobically or else anaerobically by using nitrate. In which habitat (the lung or the soil) would P. aeruginosa respire aerobically or with nitrate?

aerobically in lungs ( because the lung has air), soil would use nitrate, because there's no oxygen.

5 bacteriostatic agent

agent inhibiting bacterial growth

1 nucleoid

aggregated DNA mass of prok cell chrom.

E. coli is which of the following? a prokaryotic b eukaryotic c gram negative d in the kingdom Monera e all the above except b

all of the above except b

Glycocalyx

all polysaccharide-containing substances found external to the cell wall, from the thickest capsules to the thinnest slime layers.

The lac repressor is inactivated by binding to which of the following?

allolactose

Some amino acids are synthesized by adding an amine group to pyruvic acid or to one of the Krebs cycle intermediates. This process is known as __________. A. amination B. catabolism C. carbon fixation D. hydrolysis

amination

Which of the following terms refers to pathways that can function both in anabolism and catabolism? A. light-dependent pathways B. homolactic fermentation pathways C. chemiosmotic pathways D. amphibolic pathways

amphibolic pathways

A sequence of nucleotides formed during replication of the lagging DNA strand is

an Okazaki fragment

The proton motive force is ________. A. the accumulation of water formed in respiration B. an electrochemical gradient formed across a membrane C. ATP accumulation in the mitochondria D. the movement of flagella E. the movement of water across a membrane

an electrochemical gradient formed across a membrane

4 RNA polymerase

an enzyme that synth RNA in 5'>3' direction using a comp & antiparallel DNA strand as a template

bioremediation biotechnology

an expert in ___ would be the best person to consult about cleaning soil contaminated w/ carcinogenic compds the production of human proteins (insulin) by genetically engineered microorg is an example of___

2 s layer

an outermost cell surface layer composed of protein/glycoprotein present on some Bacteria & Archaea

The chemical reactions involved in synthesizing proteins and cell wall peptidoglycan are examples of ________ reactions. A. anabolic B. autotrophic C. photosynthetic D. catabolic

anabolic

The reactions involved in producing larger compounds from smaller compounds is called A. metabolism. B. anabolism. C. catabolism.

anabolism.

3 fermentation

anaerobic catabolism in which and org cmpd is both an e- donor/receptor & ATP is produced by substrate-level phosphorylation

1 cytoplasm

aqueous mixture of macromolecules, small organics, ions, and ribosomes inside cell fluid cell portion enclosed by cytoplasmic mem

2 thermolasma

archaea genus belongs to thermoplasmata (acidic/ high temp) no cell wall; tough cyto mem

Fungi are different from plants primarily because they...

are heterotrophic

Eukaryotic cells

are more obviously compartmentalized than prokaryotes.

Individual atoms on the surface of prepared samples can be observed by using the

atomic force microscope

Specimens can be observed at the atomic level using a(n)

atomic force microscope

5 biofilm

attached polysac matrix containing bact cells

In many spirochetes, multiple flagella combine to form a bundle known as a(n) ________ filament, which winds around the cell and confers motility on the cell.

axial

Fermentation does not yield as much ATP as cellular respiration does because fermentation: a. generates mostly heat. b. makes use of only a small amount of the potential energy in glucose. c. creates by-products that require large amounts of ATP to break down. d. creates ATP molecules that leak into the cytoplasm and are broken down.

b

Which of the following statements about translation is true? a) It is the process in which base-pairs are matched with nucleotides in DNA. b) It is the process in which proteins are made in ribosomes according to instructions in messenger RNA. c) It is the process in which part of the nucleotide sequence of DNA is copied into RNA. d) None of the answer choices.

b) It is the process in which proteins are made in ribosomes according to instructions in messenger RNA.

G+, rod shaped bacterium

bacillus

The general name for a rod-shaped bacterium is

bacillus

cause of anthrax

bacillus anthracis

1 cloostridium pasteurianium

bact 1st free living microorg that can fix free N from air form spores

1 bacillus anthracis

bact anthrax agent only pathogen of genus bacillus gram (+) endospore ferming rod shaped

1 gram negative

bact cell w/ cell wall containing small amt of peptidoglycan and an outermem pink

1 gram positive

bact cell wall of peptidoglycan lacks outer mem purple

Like glucose, amino acids are catabolized for energy, but these must be converted to a form where they can enter the Krebs cycle for oxidation. All of the following reactions occur in the catabolism of amino acids EXCEPT __________. A. decarboxylation B. carbon fixation C. dehydrogenation D. deamination

carbon fixation

2 mycobacterium leprae

cause leprosy acid fast pathogenic bacterium aerobic rod shaped thick/ wax coating from mycolic acids

1 streptococcus pyogenes

cause pus and fever; clinically important for humans pathogenic/ virulent factors agent of strepthroat- infection gram (+) spherical (cocci) chains made of nonmotile/ spinning cocci

5 binary fission

cell division following enlrgmt to 2x min size

What structure performs the functions of mitochondria in prokaryotes?

cell membrane

Which of the following is NOT found in mitochondria and prokaryotes?

cell wall

Which of the following is NOT part of the active transport process

cell wall

The major criteria used in placing bacteria into different groups is based on differences in

cell wall structure

What do mycoplasma lack?

cell walls

1 pure culture

cells from only a single type of microorganism

1 culture

cells grown in/on nutrient medium; microbial cell collection grown using a nutrient medium

vegetative cells

cells that are metabolizing nutrients - bacillus and clostridium

Haploid

cells with one chromosome (1N)

diploid

cells with paired chromosomes (2N)

Which of the following is NOT a chemical component of a bacterial cell wall

cellulose

5 antiseptic / germicide

chem agent killing/ inhibitinh microorg; nontoxic to living tissues

5 antimicrobial agent

chem compd killing/ inhibiting mircoorgs

1 metabolism`

chem transformation of nutrients all biochem rxns in a cell

Name of the process that results in ATP production using the flow of hydrogen ions?

chemiosmosis

Thiobacillus bacteria use the Calvin-Benson cycle to reduce CO2 and the oxidation of sulfide ions for energy. This organism is a ________. A. photochemotroph B. photoautotroph C. photoheterotroph D. chemoautotroph E. chemoheterotroph

chemoautotroph

Organisms that use carbon dioxide as a carbon source and energy sources such as ammonia or hydrogen sulfide are called ________. A. chemoheterotrophs B. photoautotrophs C. saprophytes D. photoheterotrophs E. chemoautotrophs

chemoautotrophs

Nitrobacter bacteria use carbon dioxide for their carbon source and nitrate ions as an energy source. This organism is a __________. A. photoautotroph B. photoheterotroph C. chemoautotroph D. chemoheterotroph

chemoheterotroph

3 thiobacillus thiooxidans

chemolithotrophs gram negative rod shaped use sulfur as primary E s ource

In cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons released from excited chlorophyll molecules eventually return to ____.

chlorophyll

The organelle in eukaryotes responsible for harvesting light as an energy source for photosynthesis is the - chloroplast. - kinetoplast. - mitochondrion. - centriole.

chloroplast

What could be conferred to Vibrio cholerae after a bacteriophage infection?

cholera toxin

Which of the following structures is NOT found in prokaryotic cells

cilium

4 plasmid

circular, generally beneficial, NOT extracellular) double-stranded DNA that replicate separately from chromo, not essential cells/advantage

5 batch culture

closed system microbial culture of fixed V

4 operon

cluster of genes that are cotranscribed as a single messenger RNA

Which term(s) refer(s) to bacterial morphology?

coccus AND bacillus

4 stop codon

codon that signals the end of a protein

1. Aseptic Technique

collection of practices that allow preparation and maintenance of sterile (no living organisms) chemicals; manipulation of sterile instruments/ cult media to maintain sterility

2 lipopolysac (LPS)

combo of lipid w/ polysaccharide & protein that forms the major portion of the outer membrane in gram-negative Bacteria

vibrio

comma-shaped

2 Poly-B-hydroxybutyric acid (PHB)

common storage material of prokaryotic cells consisting of a polymer of Beta-hydroxybutyrate/another Beta-alkanoic acid/mixtures of Beta-alkanoic acids

1 bacillus stearothermophilus

commonly used to check autoclave thermophile cause of spoilage in food products

4 They have an outer membrane for molecules to have to travel through

compared with gram-positive bacteria, why is it important for gram-negative bacteria to have additional secretion pathways?

Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves ________. A. competition for binding at the enzyme allosteric site B. irreversible binding to the enzyme active site C. destruction of the enzyme substrate D. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site E. alteration of the enzyme's active site

competition with the substrate for binding at the active site

____ involves an inhibitor that fills the active site of an enzyme and competes with the normal substrate for the active site. (two words)

competitive inhibition

1 agriculture depend on microbial activities nitrogen-fixing bacteria cellulose-degrading microbes in rumen gut microbiome: digests complex carbs in humans - synthesize vitamins and other nutrients disease agents improve food safety/preservation (dairy/others) Biofilms (growth on submerged surfaces), industrial micro (naturally-occurring microbes make low-cost products), biotech (genetically engineered, high-value products in small amounts), biofuels, wastewater treatment, bioremediation (clean up pollutants: oil spill clean-up).

how are microbes beneficial?

1 Used swan-necked Pasteur flask, disproved the theory when life didn't arise spontaneously from nonliving material Developed vaccines for anthrax, fowl cholera, & rabies.

how did pasteur disprove spontaneous generation?

1 Earth-4.6 billion yrs - anoxic first 2.6 billion yrs *Phototrophic org (cyanobacteria) prov O2 and orgs begin to evolve (eukarya) - 80% earths history- microbial Origin of Earth (4.6 bya)>Cellular life present>Anoxygenic phototropic bacteria>Cyanobacteria present (2.6 bya) >Modern eukaryotes>Algal diversity>Shelly invertebrates>Vascular plants>Mammals>Humans

how has earth changed over history? how have microorg contributed to this?

1 Cell membrane- separates inside of the cell from the outside (PLB) Cell wall- confers structural strength (bacteria-Peptidoglycan) (euk-plant cell walls -cellulose)

how is the cell wall different form the cell membrane?

2 coccus/i: spherical or ovoid rod/bacillus: cylindrical spirillum: curved or spiral - chains of Streptococcus, cubes of Sarcina, grapelike clusters of Staphylococcus). Cells with unusual shapes - spirochetes (tightly coiled), appendaged bacteria, and filamentous bacteria

howo do cocci/ rods differ in morphology?

In eukaryotic cell DNA is__

in a nucleus surrounded by a membranous nuclear envelope,

4 quaternary structure

in proteins, the # & types of indiv polypeptides in the final protein molecule

Movement in bacteria

includes run and tumble as well as gliding and twitching motility. (may involve Pili)

Intracellular granules of organic or inorganic material that are stockpiled by bacteria for future use are called ________.

inclusions

If everything else is equal, the best way to observe more details in a microscopic specimen is to

increase resolution

1 influenza

infectious disease caused by this virus

5 bacteriostatic agent

inhibits biochem processes, bond weakly

4 2ndary structure

initial pattern of folding a polypeptide or a polynucleotide, usually dictated by opportunities for H bonding

cristae

inner membrane of mito, extends into matrix

stroma

inner of chloroplast similar to matrix of mito

The microscope that allows the specimen to appear three-dimensional is the

interference microscope

thylakoids

internal membranes that contain chlorophyll ( captures energy from light during photosynthesis)

what was leeuwenhoek responsible for

invented a hand held microscope and was the first to see bacteria which are smaller than the plant cells that hooke saw

1 frederick griffith

involved with Streptococcus pneumoniae & transformation

magnetosomes

iron containing vesicles

According to the animation, oxidative phosphorylation A. is a catabolic process. B. is an anabolic process. C. makes larger compounds from smaller ones. D. requires a net input of energy

is a catabolic process.

The nucleus

is a double membrane sac containing DNA and is found in eukaryotes.

The cytoskeleton

is a dynamic structure composed of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments.

The Pentose Phosphate Pathway A. is a part of photosynthesis. B. is another name for fermentation. C. is an example of catabolism. D. is an example of anabolism

is an example of anabolism

The use of amino acids to make proteins A. is a completely efficient reaction. B. involves the production of ATP. C. is an example of anabolism. D. is an example of catabolism.

is an example of anabolism.

The endospore stain

is applicable to only a few groups of bacteria AND usually shows the spores as green structures among a background of pink cells.

In metabolism, energy that is not used A. is used to build up large compounds from smaller ones. B. is given off as heat. C. is used to break down large molecules into smaller ones. D. is stored in the form of ATP.

is given off as heat.

An isotonic solution means that the solute concentration outside the cell - is same as inside the cell. - is slightly less than inside the cell. - is much less than inside the cell. - is much greater than inside the cell

is same as inside the cell

Phagocytosis

is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by animal cells.

A repressor protein...

is unable to bind to the DNA molecule and prevent transcription

The acid-fast stain

is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium AND uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.

1 enrichment culture technique

isolate microbes having particular metabolic characteristics from nature using specific cult media and incubation conditions nitrogen-fixing rhizobia

MSA is selective because...

it contains 7.5% NaCl

MSA is differential because...

it contains mannitol

When a microorganism such as E. coli is grown on glucose...

it is capable of amino acid production


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