Microbiology (Dr. AL, LSUE) Exam 2
Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Cercariae, metacercaria, and redia are all life cycle stages of trematodes. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Currently, no members of Archaea have been linked to human disease. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Filtration methods, followed by growth of the bacteria trapped on the filters in growth media, are used to count bacteria present in very low concentrations such as in lakes and streams. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function. (TRU or FALSE)
TRUE
NItrogen-fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, can used atmospheric nitrogen (N2) for their nitrogen source. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active sites reverts back to its original form. (TRUE or FALSE )
TRUE
Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Positive sense RNA strands of viruses are treated like mRNA inside the host cell. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Western blotting is an immunological test used to identity the antibodies in the serum of an individual suspected of having Lyme disease. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Which statements correspond to amphibole pathways? 1. Anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate 2. They are shared metabolic pathways 3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reaction 4. Both types of reaction are necessary but do not occur simultaneously
B) 1,2,3,
Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?
B) 2; 3; 4; 1
In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is release from
B) 2H2O
In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes?
B) 4,6
Most fungi grow best at pH
B) 5
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group
B) Archaea
The graph shows the normal reaction rate of an enzyme and the reaction rate when a competitive inhibitor is present. Which description below explains the appearance of the graph?
B) As the substrate concentration increases, the effect of the inhibitor was overcome and enzyme activity was restored.
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?
B) Bacteria
Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall?
B) Bacteria
The most widely accepted classification scheme for bacteria is one found in:
B) Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
Yeast infections are caused by
B) Candida albicans.
Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?
B) DNA polymerase
Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with others?
B) Escherichia
How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown in Figure 5.3?
B) It would bind to b
A urease test is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis because
B) M. tuberculosis produces urease
In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related?
B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium
Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation?
B) O2 is in the medium
________ were first identified in cancer-causing viruses and can induce ________ in infected cells.
B) Oncogenes; transformation
The genus of bacteria that are particularly problematic in hospital setting due to their ability to grow in solutions with minute traces of unusual carbon sources is
B) Pseudomonas
Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT
C) immunity to reinfection by any phage.
Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data?
B) The two organisms are unrelated
All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?
B) They are currently classified as plants.
In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tracts of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infection?
B) a biofilm in the reprocessor
What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
B) a segmented genome
A genus can be best defined as
B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family
Which of the following form conidiospores?
B) actinomycetes an related organisms
Which of the following form conidiospores?
B) actinomycetes and related organisms
What is an oncogene?
B) an altered form of a gene that may induce cancer
In a direct ELISA test, the method is determining if _____________ is/are present in the patient's sample by attempting to bind a labeled antibody to it.
B) an antigen from a particular pathogen
Serological testing is based on the fact that
B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen
Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?
B) b
In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms?
B) b
In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?
B) b
In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?
B) b
The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature?
B) b
Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?
B) b and d
Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related?
B) both are gram-positive
The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
B) budding
The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
B) budding.
Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infection caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite. wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they
B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions
Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are
B) capnophiles that grow best on carbon dioxide incubators
You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)
B) cellular slime mold.
Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?
B) chemoautotroph
The arrangement of organisms into group is best described as:
B) classification
An example of a latent viral infection is
B) cold sores.
An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of all of the following except
B) competitive inhibition
A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a
B) complex medium
Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
B) culture media
Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH 7. The action of bacterial lipases should cause the pH of the medium to
B) decrease (become more acidic)
Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?
B) determines the number of viable cells
In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35 degrees C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 um) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 35 degrees C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of infection is a
B) dimorphic fungus
The ________ method is used to indirectly measure microbial growth of filamentous bacteria and molds.
B) dry weight
The non sulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as
B) electron donors to reduce CO2
If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they
B) evolved from a common ancestor
Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?
B) facultative halophiles
In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the
B) genus
Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?
B) glucose consumption
Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all
B) gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
A viral species is a group of viruses that
B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche
Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum sampled were positive for antibodies fro Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle,
B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host
A viroid is a(n)
B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
Infecting more than 2 billion people worldwide, ________ are the most common causes of chronic infectious diseases.
B) intestinal roundworms
Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes
B) lack a membrane-bound nucleus
Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they
B) lack mitochondria.
During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?
B) log phase
A feature that may be found in viruses but never in bacteria is
B) may contain an RNA genome.
What is the outstanding characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi?
B) members absorb dissolved organic matter
Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?
B) nearly all protozoa cause disease
Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?
B) photoautotroph - CO2
Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it
B) possesses an axial filament
A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane
Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?
B) proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembranen
In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of
B) protons
Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA?
B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
When we say that a human is a dead end host for a parasite, we mean
B) the infected human is highly unlikely to transmit the infection to another organism.
Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
B) the length of time needed for a cell to divide
Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?
B) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth temperatures is mismatched?
B) thermophile - growth at 37 degrees C
The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because
B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.
Which type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?
B) transamination
Which of the following is an organic growth factor?
B) vitamine B1
If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the
C) intermediate host.
Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)
C) oomycote alga.
Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that
C) pairing between complementary bases occurs
If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down?
C) pentose phosphate pathway
The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is
C) peptone and beef extract
Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ -----> 2H2O?
C) peroxidase
Cyanobacteria are a type of
C) photoautotroph
Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?
C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on
C) rRNA sequences
Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths?
C) reproductive system
Richettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias
C) required an arthropod for transmission
Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?
C) requires no incubation time
The head of a tapeworm intestinal parasite is known as the ________.
C) scolex
A persistent infection is one in which
C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period
A persistent infection is one in which
C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
Assume you inoculated 100 cells, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 3 hours, you can reasonably expect to have
C) the same number of cells in both
A bacterium such as Pseudomonas uses nitrate as a final electron acceptor in an electron transport system. All below statements are true EXCEPT
C) they require light
The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT
C) three ATPs
A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely
C) using the peptides
The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
When cultivating anaerobic organisms in the laboratory setting, a candle jar is sufficient for the vast majority of organisms. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT
D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes
Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?
D) metabolic activity
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
D) mosquito - Pneumocystis
Below are paired items referring to the heart worm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched?
D) mosquitos - definitive host
All of the follow gin are required in the reactions of microbial respiration EXCEPT
D) oxygen
Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon?
D) photoheterotroph
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a
D) plaque.
Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales?
D) rRNA sequences
Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. The type of medium would be referred to as a(n)
D) selective and differential medium
Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n)
D) selective and differential medium
In the roundworms, the females have 1-2 hardened ________ on their posterior ends
D) spicules
All of the following bacteria are motile. Which does NOT have flagella?
D) spirochetes
Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2- + O2- + 2H+ ---> H2O2 + O2?
D) superoxide dismutase
Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
D) synthesis of DNA
All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT
D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?
D) they use organic carbon sources
Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?
D) togavirus
A sample of raw, unpasteurized milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has approximately 500 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained
E) the answer cannot be determined reliably with the information given
One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about
E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences
The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step?
E) uncoating
When performing phage typing to identify an unknown bacterium, you must have ____________ in your possession.
E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify
Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because
E) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria
The characteristics most notable regarding the mycoplasmas is that they
E) lack cell walls
Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?
E) phosphorus - used for production of carbohydrates.
In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n)
E) plasmodial slime mold.
An infectious protein is a
E) prion
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
E) release
What is group "c." in the key shown in Figure 11.1?
E) spirochetes
How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?
E) substrate-level phosphorylation
27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?
C) adult
The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that
C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation
For serological bacterial identification test to be performed, you must have ____________ in your possession.
C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified
Phage typing is based on the fact that
C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species
Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices fro drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because
C) biofilms develop on catheters
Assume a patient has influenza. During which time on the graph in Figure 13.2 would the patient show the symptoms of the illness?
C) c
Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section (or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?
C) c
In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0 degrees C?
C) c
In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?
C) c
In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?
C) c
Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?
C) c
The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers was provided by
C) cancer that developed in chickens following injection of cell-free filtrates.
Oncogenic viruses
C) cause tumors to develop.
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can usually be differentiated by microscope examination because of
C) cell arrangement
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
C) chemoautotrophic bacteria- fix atmospheric nitrogen
Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?
C) coenzyme A
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, excited electrons ultimately?
C) combine with hydrogen ions and NADP+ to produce NADPH
The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure to avoid human infection?
C) cooking fish before eating
The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a
C) cysticercus
Flow cytometry, where a cell is passed through a light source such as a laser beam, can directly indicate all EXCEPT which one of the following about a cell?
C) density
A primary difference between cyanobacteria and purple and green photosynthesizing bacteria is
C) electron donor for CO2 reduction
Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?
C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes
You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next?
C) endospore stain
Why do eukaryotes generate only about 36 ATP per glucose in aerobic respiration but prokaryotes may generate about 38 ATP?
C) eukaryotes must shuttle pyruvate across the mitochondrial membrane by activate transport
The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)
C) facultative halophile
Which of the following best describes the enterics, a bacterial group found primality in the intestines of humans?
C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
Which of the following kingdoms consists of unicellular, colonial, or multicellular organisms capable of absorption nutrition?
C) fungi
Helminthic disease are usually transmitted to humans by
C) gastrointestinal route
Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?
C) green algae
Caulobacter are different from most bacteria in that they
C) have stalks
Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely be categorized as
C) heterolactic fermenters
Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?
C) houseflies
Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
D) PrPSc
Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
D) Staphylococcus
What is NOT true regarding viruses that infect plants?
D) They are often cultured in embryonated chicken eggs.
Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE?
D) They evolved before bacteria
Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?
D) They have chlorophyll
Which one of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one if the three domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain?
D) Viruses are not composed of cells
How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?
D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong?
D) bacillales
Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?
D) beta oxidation
Most bacteria reproduce by
D) binary fission
Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
D) biosynthesis
A biochemical test, in microbiology world, is used to determine
D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity
A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine
D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity
Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following?
D) considered prokaryotic cells
Continuous cells lines differ from primary cell lines in that
D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations
Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that
D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations.
In Figure 10.1, species "c" is most closely related to which of the following?
D) d
Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed?
D) d
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of spirochetes?
D) easily observed with brightfieqld microscopy
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents
Nucleic acid base composition (% G + C) is useful for determining relatedness at the __________________
D) genus
Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a
D) hypertonic environment
Flow cytometry, where a cell is passed through a light source such as a laser beam, can directly indicate all EXCEPT which one of the following about a cell?
D) identity
Increasing the temperature of a reaction will do all of the following EXCEPT
D) increase the activation energy
Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves
D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.
What do tapeworms eat?
D) intestinal contents
A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species
D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics
Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces
D) is a strict aerobe
The human body is typically free of archaea species. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H2S. These bacteria differ in that Beggiatoa
A) uses H2S for an enrage source
In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related?
A) 1 and 3
In Table 12.1, which of these pores are asexual spores?
A) 1,4,5,6,7
In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya?
A) 2,3,5
Which of the following statements are TRUE? 1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes 2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways 3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules 4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration 5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels
A) 2,4,5
Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver?
A) Animalia
The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is
A) BSL-1
Which of the following do you expect to be MOST resistant to high temperatures?
A) Bacillus subtilis
Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source.
A) Citrobacter
You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause?
A) Cryptosporidium
You have isolated and grown a pure culture of a prokaryotic cell type. The first step in identification is a(n)
A) Gram stain
Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan
Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?
A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans
Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus
A) Neisseria
Which of the following is the best evidence from a three-domain system?
A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains
______________ are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that are similar in rRNA sequences, but quite different from each other in motility types and ecology. They have been used previously as a "catch-all" for organisms that couldn't be easily classified into other groups.
A) Protists
Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections?
A) Streptococcus
A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient?
A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative?
A) Treponema
For the three types of media in Table 6.1, which medium (or media) is/are chemically defined?
A) a
In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?
A) a
In Table 6.1, in which medium (or media) would an autotroph grow but a heterotroph could not?
A) a
What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8?
A) a
Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms?
A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species
Researchers are developing a ribozyme that cleaves the HIV genome. This pharmaceutical agent could be described as
A) an RNA molecule capable pf catalysis
Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?
A) ascomycete
Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
A) biochemical tests
The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?
A) buffers
A bacterium that only possesses that ability to ferment obtains energy
A) by glycolysis only
Which enzyme catalyzes the following reaction? 2H2O2 -----> 2H2O +O2
A) catalase
Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy?
A) chemoautotroph
The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that
A) does not use oxygen but tolerates it
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
A) elementary body - Escherichia
Ringworm is caused by a(n)
A) fungus.
A clone is
A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell
What is the key characteristic of a transformed cell?
A) has acquired tumor-forming properties
Chlamydia differ from the most other bacteria in that they
A) have a developmental cycle
A wolf kills a deer that is infected with ________ of Echinococcus granulosis in its liver and eats it. After consuming the deer, the wolf's intestine becomes filled with a number of ________ produced from scoleces. These eventually release eggs into the wolf's intestines, which are released in its feces.
A) hydatid cysts; proglottids
Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used
A) in bacterial identification
Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called
A) latent viruses.
Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
A) lysozyme
Streptomyces are important because they
A) make antibiotics
The morphological types of viruses illustrated in Figure 13.1 are ultimately determined by the
A) nucleic acid.
Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ ----> Fe3+. This reaction is an example of
A) oxidation
The definition of lysogeny is
A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in:
A) plants
Escherichia coli belongs to the
A) proteobacteria
Shingles is an example of
A) reactivation of latent virus.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of Neisseria?
A) requires X and V factors
The arrangement of organisms into taxa
A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms
The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA
Fatty acids are oxidized in
A) the Krebs cycle
Which of the following techniques is used to cultivate viruses?
A) tissue culture
Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?
C) They undergo photosynthesis
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to a nitrate ion. This bacterium is
C) a chemoautotroph
In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled "1" is
C) a plasma membrane
Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1. arthroconidium - formed by fragmentation 2. sporangiospore - formed within hyphae 3. conidiospore - formed in a chain 4. blastoconidium - formed form a bond 5. chlamydoconidium - formed in a sac
C) 2 and 5
In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristics of Penicillium?
C) 2 and 6
In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?
C) 5
Most bacteria grow best at pH
C) 7
Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. Assuming no lag phase takes place, how many cells are there after 5 hours?
C) 96
The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is
C) BSL-3
Which of the following genera can be described as a non-motile aerobic gram negative rod?
C) Bordetella
Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
C) DNA polymerase.
Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?
C) Euglena
All of the following are characteristics of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they
C) Have highly developed digestive and nervous system
DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of
C) Hepadnaviridae
Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families
C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae
Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?
C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor
All prokaryotic organisms are currently classified in the Kingdom
C) Monera
Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
C) NAD+
Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?
C) Strepococcus
Which one of the following characteristics most reasonably indicates that two microorganisms are closely related?
C) Their DNA can hybridize together
A sample of ocean water is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one milliliter sample of the water is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. 0.1 milliliter of the second dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 191 colonies, indicating that the original water sample contained
D) 191,000 cells per milliliter
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration convention when performing pour and spread plate counts is to count only plates with ____________ colonies.
D) 25 to 250
Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth at least
D) 3.5 billion years ago
Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many viable and cultural cells were in the original sample?
D) 36 per milliliter
An experiment began with 4 cells in a log phase and ended with a 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go though?
D) 5
A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one milliliter sample of milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained
D) 54,000 cells per milliliter
Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?
D) All are parasites
Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
D) All are unicellular
Reproduction of animal viruses differs from bacterial viruses in the following:
D) All of the above (entire vision is taken into animal cell, the animal cells does not necessarily rupture to release mature visions, animal viruses do not have tad pole tail for absorption)
Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?
D) Anabolic reactions are degradative
Dimorphic fungi:
D) Both a and c (exist as either yeast or molds, are camouflaged from the body's protective white blood cells
If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells'
D) DNA and proteins
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents
Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?
D) Fungi
In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from
D) H2S
Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify
D) Haemophilus
Which of the following statements about photophosphoyrlation is FALSE?
D) It requires CO2
The general order of classification is:
D) Kingdom, phyla, class, order, family, genus, species
All of the following bacteria are gram-positive. Which does NOT belong with the others?
D) Listeria
From the list below, which is NOT produced during the Krebs cycle?
D) NADPH
Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?
D) One molecule of ATP is expended
In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the _________ host, while mosquitoes are the _____________ host as well as the vector.
E) intermediate; definitive
The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom". (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be which of the following?
E) 5
In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristics of Rhizopus?
E) 7 and 8
A sample of well water is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one milliliter sample of the water is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the fourth dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 83 colonies, indicating that the original water sample contained
E) 830,000 cells per milliliter
Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
E) Campylobacter
Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
E) It causes lysis of host cells
Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
E) It causes lysis of host cells.
What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?
E) It is connected into acetyl CoA
Which one of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is FALSE?
E) It is found in soil and water
Which of the following can survive in phagocytic cells and grows in refrigeration temperatures?
E) Listeria monocytogenes
Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE?
E) NADH and ATP are generated
Under anaerobic conditions, yeast enzymes convert glucose to
E) None of the above ( CO2 and water, Alcohol and CO2, lactic acid)
Data collected to date indicate that
E) None of the answers is correct
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
E) Pseudomonas - gram-positive
All viruses possess
E) RNA or DNA and a capsid
Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the other betaproteobacteria?
E) Salmonella
Which of the following statements about viral spikes is false?
E) They are found only on non enveloped viruses
Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
Why do most scientists agree that viruses are nonliving entities?
E) They are not composed of cells.
An example of a persistent viral infection is
E) Varicellavirus infection.
Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization?
E) Western blotting
A biological control method to reduce the reproductive success of mosquitoes involves the use of
E) Wolbachia
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
E) anamorphic - lack spores
Bacteroides
E) are found in gingival crevices and in the intestinal tract
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
E) cestodes - all are free-living
Which one of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in each of the other options listed?
E) cladogram
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
E) coenocytic hyphae - hyphae with cross-walls
Assume a patient had chickenpox (human herpesvirus 3) as a child. Which line on the graph in Figure 13.2 would show the number of viruses present in this person as a 60-year-old with shingles (human herpesvirus 3)?
E) e
In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced?
E) e
In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?
E) e
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
E) green algae - prokaryotic
A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by a capsid. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
All gram-negative bacteria are classified as proteobacteria. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria isolates for similarities. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Bacterial predators such as Bdellovibrio are members of the betaproteobacteria. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen ions. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Gelatin is used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media since few bacteria can degrade it. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the adult sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
In measuring turbidity if a culture in indirect measurement of bacterial growth, absorbance and transmittance are identical and interchangeable values. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
In performing a ten-fold dilutions series from a sample containing 10,000 bacteria per milliliter, the fourth tube in the dilution series will have 10 cells per milliliter. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Myxobacteria are classified as actinobacteria due to fungal-like lifestyle. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Photosynthetic organisms always produce oxygen gas as a metabolic byproduct. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates, even if the desired bacteria are present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members for the Archaea. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
The cell membranes of all there domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage. (TRUE or FALSE)
FALSE
As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
An isolated colony on a streak plate contains millions (or even billions) of identical cells all arising from one initial cell. (TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE
Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens. TRUE or FALSE)
TRUE