Microbiology test 4

In treating urethritis, it is important to consider that N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are often both present and must both be treated.

true

Social media apps have been postulated to be a contributing factor in the reurgance of STIs.

true

True or False: In the elderly, pneumonia is a significant cause of mortality.

true

True or False: Respiratory syncytial virus can be life-threatening in infants.

true

True or False: S. pyogenes is the sole member of the Lancefield group A streptococci and is often referred to as GAS, or group A strep.

true

True or False: Some strains of C. diphtheriae become pathogenic because of the presence of a temperate bacteriophage-encoded protein—the diphtheria toxin.

true

True or False: The common cold is actually caused by more than 200 different viruses.

true

True or False: The second leading cause of pediatrician visits by young children and leading indication of antibiotic prescription (under age 5 years) in the United States is acute otitis media.

true

catalase test used to distinguish Staphylococcus from Streptococcus

used to distinguish Staphylococcus from Streptococcus Staphylococcus species are catalase-positive Streptococcus species are catalase-negative.

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common causes of ALL of the following except_____ .

vaginosis

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) infections are common causes of ALL the following except

vaginosis

bronchi

connects the trachea to the bronchioles

True or False: Prior vaccinations with the BCG vaccine will NOT cause false-positive results of the Mantoux tuberculin skin test.

False

Common signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis do NOT include

edema

All HPV strains are associated with both genital warts and cervical cancer

false

HPV vaccination protects against all strains of HPV that can cause cervical cancer

false

Mycoplasma hominis, M. genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are rarely present in the microbiota of individuals without symptoms of urethritis.

false

Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are one the most common bacterial infections worldwide.

false

There is no way to conclusively determine whether an individual has candidiasis because Candidais found in the normal microbiota.

false

True or False: Influenza virus subtypes are based on whether they have an RNA or DNA genome.

false

True or False: Influenza viruses produced by antigenic drift that have the potential to be extremely virulent.

false

Viruses (viromes) and fungi found on skin (normal skin microbiota)

Malassezia (fungi) Circoviridae, Papillomaviridae, Polyomaviridae (viromes)

Which test is preferred for detecting T. vaginalis because of its high sensitivity?

NAAT

In women, chlamydia infections can cause ______ . (Choose all that apply)

PID salpingitis urethritis

Sabouraud dextrose agar is selective for

fungi, dermatophyte

alveoli

grape like structure at terminal bronchioles

Genital herpes is most commonly caused by _____.

herpes simplex virus 2

Cold sores are associated with

herpes simplex viruses

What is the most likely causative agent of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following is also known as group A streptococcus (GAS)

Streptococcus pyogenes

what is the most likey causative agent of necrotizing fasciitis

Streptococcus pyogenes

In the United States, most histoplasmosis cases occur _______________.

The Mississippi river valley

Trachea

a cartilaginous tube extending from the larynx that provided an unobstructed path for air to reach the lungs

Microbial growth on eye

chemicals in tears (defensins, lactoferin, lysozyome) help prevent colonization of pathogens mucins: facilitate removal of microbes from surface of eye

nasal cavity (upper respiratory tract)

lines with hair to trap dust particles, mucous membrane and Bowman's glad that produce mucous to remove and trap organisms

Which oral medication is recommended as an initial topical treatment for genital yeast infections?

miconazole

Eustachian tube

connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx and allows passage of air

Herpes can be passed from mother to fetus, causing neonatal herpes

true

Which species is not associated with NGU?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

cemedones

-0takes form of blackhead (oxidize) and whitehead (covered by skin) pimples -infection can occur with propionibacterium acnes -Treatment mild acne: salicylic acid (remove old skin cells), retinoids -Treatment moderate acne: with antibiotics (erythromycin, clindamycin), acne creams (e.g., benzoyl peroxide), and hormones. -Treatment severe acne: isotretinoin (side effect to light), phototherapy and laser therapy (kill bacteria, reduce oil production)

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

-A bacterium that causes infections in different parts of the body and is often resistant to commonly used antibiotics; can be found on the skin, in surgical wounds, in the bloodstream, lungs, and urinary tract. -can be harmless to health workers and be carried in their nares, but if introduced to other parts of body like wounds, post surgery, during surgery. -effort to scan carriers, but has been ineffective -trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ), clindamycin, a tetracycline (doxycycline or minocycline), or linezolid for initial treatment -virulence factor

human papillomavirus (HPV)

-Causative agent: spread by direct contact virus -symptoms: Papillomas (warts) on nails hands or broken skin, plantar sole of foot, filliform thread like form quickly, flat small form throughout body Treatment: frozen off warts w/liquid nitrogen, topical application of salicylic acid, burning, laser, cutting, cantharidin, chemical peel, immunotherapy -Vaccine: available for some strains of HPV - Can LEAD TO CANCER

Passive agglutination testing can distingluish CoNS and CoPS

-If the sample is coagulase-positive, the sample is generally presumed to contain S. aureus -Additional genetic testing would be necessary to identify the particular strain of S. aureus

mannitol salt agar (MSA) can also distinguish CoPS and CoNS

-Staphylococcus species readily grow on this medium because they are tolerant of the high concentration of sodium chloride -CoPS such as S. aureus ferment mannitoT, turns yellow -CoNS such as S. epidermidis do not ferment mannitol but can be distinguished by the fermentation of other sugars such as lactose, malonate, and raffinose

Anthrax

-causative agent: Basillus anthracis (gram-positive, endospore-forming, facultative anaerobe, zoonotic) -often enter through abrasion in skin, can enter through spores (less common) -Identification: blood agar rough texture, serrated edges -Treatment: Broad spectrum antibiotics such as penicillin, erythromycin, and tetracycline are often effective treatments. -cutaneous anthrax: nodule on skin, form black eschar, locatized them bacteremia or septicemia, death in 20% if untreated virulence: in skin form capsules (prevent phagocytized), protective agent (PA) with enzymatic lethal factor (ELF) lethal exotoxin (LeTX) and protective agent (PA) with edema factor (EF) edema exotoxin (EdTX) -vaccine: available for cutaneous and inhalation anthrax, 18 months intravenous, not FDA approved for any person

Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener's Disease/ Rose thorn)

-causative agent: fungus Sporothrix schenkii -most common subcutaneous mycosis -entry:small wounds like thorn-prick or splinter, can be small ulcer but them enter lymphatic system or more -symptoms: nodules appear, become necrotic, and may ulcerate, abscesses and ulceration (around hand) -identification: histological exam of tissue, macroscopic morphology on potato dextrose agar, microscopic morphology staining with lactophenol cotton blue -treatment: itraconazole

Necrotizing fasciitis (flesh eating bacteria)

-cause: (organism) streptococcus pyogenes, can be caused by klebsella, E. coli, S. aureus, Clostridium, Aeromonas hydrophila -symptom: flesh is destroyed about an inch an hour -virulence: invasins allow bacterial cells to adhere to tissue and establish, proteases invade host cell inactivate complement and prevent neutorphil migration -treatment/prevention: intravenous clindamycin, penicillin, removal of infected area tissue

herpes keratitis

-cause: virus (HSV-1) -symptoms: affects the conjunctiva and cornea, causing irritation, excess tears, and sensitivity to light, blindness -affects: eye conjunctiva -Diagnosis: laboratory test -Treatment: antiviral medication, acyclovir, ganciclovir, famiclovir, valacyclovir

Staphylococcus scaled skin syndrome (SSS)

-caused by S. aureus -young children, infants -symptoms: exotoxins produce erythema, severe peeling, burning -determining: blood test for elevated WBCs, culturing, observing symptoms -treatment: intravenous antibiotics, fluid therapy

Carbuncles (boils)

-deeper infection of multiple furuncles -systemic symptoms and illness feeling -treatment often is drainage and antibiotics -antibiotic resistance is common

impetigo

-formation of vesicle, pustules, maybe bullae formed around nose & mouth -nonbullous: vesicle and pustules rupture and cause encrusted sores (yellow crust) -bullae fill and rupture, result in larger draining encrusted lesions -children, highly contaigious -caused by S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes or both -diagnosis: characteristics, culturing, susceptibility test -treatment: topical or oral antibodies - Streptococcus pyogenes can cause sequelae infections (AGN): inflammation in kidney

Folliculitis

-generally presents as bumps and pimples that may be itchy, red, and/or pus-filled -folliculitis is self-limiting, -can occur repeatedly -irritants (tight clothes, sweat, injuries) can all contribute -topical antibiotics and removing irritants is treatment

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

-gram-negative, oxidase-positive, aerobic bacillus -commonly in water and soil as well as on human skin -enters in woulds and burns -hot tub rash, otitis externa (swimmer's ear) -virulence: 2-aminoacetophenone used for quorum sensing (caused odor), pigments pyocyanin and pyoverdin (cause blue-green pus, enhance iron uptake for survival), phospholipase C (hemolysis breaks down RBCs), exoenzyme S (involved in adherence to epithelial cells), exotoxin A (capable of causing tissue necrosis), protease, fimbriae, and slime -detection: cetrimide agar (selective for Pseudomonas aeruginosa -treatment: resistant to most antibiotics, Polymyxin B and gentamicin are effective, as are some fluoroquinolones or even antibiofilms

Streptococcus

-gram-positive cocci -1 to 2mm diameter, translucent, entire edge, slightly raised -nonhemolytic (gamma), alpha-hemolytic, beta-hemolytic on blood agar -facultative-anaerobe, catalase-negative -Diagnosis: serological Lancefield based on surface carbohydrates, ELISA, agglutination reactions, immunological tests, pathogens susceptibility to antibiotics -common skin infection: cellulitis, erysipelas, and erythema nodosum

Virulence factors for Staphylococcus aureus

-hemolysins called staphylolysins, which are cytotoxic for many types of cells, including skin cells and white blood cells. -also coagulase-positive, meaning they produce coagulase, a plasma-clotting protein that is involved in abscess formation. -produce leukocidins: kill WBC, contribute to production of pus and protein A (inhibit phagocytosis, bind to constant region of antibodies.) -toxic shock syndrome toxin-1

Otitis externa

-infection of ear canal, itching, redness can progress to fever, pain, swelling -treatment: ear drops with acetic acid, antibacterials, and steroids for decrease inflammation and even antifungals

oral herpes (herpes simplex virus 1)

-many asymptomatic, 65% of U.S. population -symptoms: cold sores, fever blisters, virus can be latent resulting in trigeminal nerve ganglia between recurring bouts, herpes gladiatorum, herpetic whitlow (finger), itching, burning, tingling -treatment: antiviral medications such as acyclovir, penciclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir reduce symptoms and transmission, creams with n-docosanol and penciclovir -vaccine: none

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)

-most important streptococcus in body -(GAS) group A streptococcus -produce virulence factors: extracellular enzymes, capsule, M protein (cell wall protein) -identified as a catalase-negative, beta hemolytic bacterium that is susceptible to 0.04 units of bacitracin -causes pharyngitis and scarlet fever -causes streptococcal infections of the skin -spread by direct contact or droplet transmission through coughing and sneezing -diagnosis: rapid enzyme immunoassay for the group A antigen, culture identification often needed (golden standard) -Antibiotics: β-lactams remain effective; oral amoxicillin and intramuscular penicillin G

Nosocomial Staphylococcus epidermidis Infections

-not as virulent as S. aureus -can be harmful in hospitals by being on equipment: catheters, prostheses, indwelling medical devices -antibiotic resistant, can cause systemic infection quickly

Staphylococcus aureus

-often associated with pyoderma, skin infection purulent -many strains form luekocidins -start off as folliculitis end up as furuncles or carbuncles and cellulitis in extreme cases

staphylococcus spp. confirm test

-samples from the wound are cultured. -gram-positive Staphylococcus species have cellular -arrangements that form grapelike clusters -when grown on blood agar, colonies have a unique pigmentation ranging from opaque white to cream. -catalase test -Passive agglutination testing

Furuncles (boils)

-young adults and teens, play contact sports, weakened immune system, share equipment, poor nutrition -often resolve on own or hygiene -if spread to systemic infection, can cause fever and chills -treated with drainage or antibiotics if serious

1. bacterial vaginosis 2. cervical cancer 3. chancroid 4. syphilis 5. yeast infection

1. Gardnerella vaginalis 2. HPV 3. Haemophilus ducreyi 4. Treponema pallidum 5. Candida albicans

Match the vaccine to the pathogen 1. Rhinovirus 2. Corynebacterium diphtheria 3. Haemophilus influenza 4. Measles virus 5. Streptococcus pneumoniae 6. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

1. None 2. DtaP, Tdap, DT, Td, DTP 3. Hib 4. MMR 5. PCV13, PPSV23 6. BCG

Match each disease with the best treatment. 1. bacterial vaginosis 2. chancroid 3. chlamydia 4. gonorrhea 5. syphilis

1. clindamycin, metronidazole, tinidazole 2. azithromycin, ceftriaxone, erythromycin, ciprofloxacin 3. azithromycin, doxycycline, erythromycin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin 4. azithromycin and ceftriaxone but not erythromycin or ciprofloxacin 5. penicillin G, tetracycline, doxycycline

Match each type of inflammation with the affected structure. 1. cystitis 2. orchiditis 3. pyelonephritis 4. salpingitis 5. urethritis

1. inflammation of the bladder 2. inflammation of the testicle 3. inflammation of the kidney 4. inflammation of the fallopian tubes 5. inflammation of the urethra

1. Conjunctivitis 2. Acute purulent conjunctivitis 3. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis 4. Blepharitis 5. Keratitis 6. Keratoconjunctivitis 7. dacryocystitis 8. Acute ulcerative blepharitis 9. Follicular conjunctivitis 10. Nonulcerative blepharitis 11. Papillary conjunctivitis

1. inflammation of the conjunctive, pinkeye 2. association with pus formation, Bacterial (Haemophilus, Staphylococcus) causative agent 3. association with bleeding in the conjunctiva, Viral (Picornaviradae) causative agent 4. inflammation of the eyelid 5. inflammation of the cornea, Bacterial, viral, or protozoal; environmental irritants causative agent 6. inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva, Bacterial, viral (adenoviruses), or other causes (including dryness of the eye) causative agent 7. inflammation of the lacrimal sac that can often occur when a nasolacrimal duct is blocked, Bacterial (Haemophilus, Staphylococcus, Streptococcus) causative agent 8. Infection involving eyelids; pustules and ulcers may develop, Bacterial (Staphylococcal) or viral (herpes simplex, varicella-zoster, etc.) causative agent 9. Inflammation of the conjunctiva with nodules (dome-shaped structures that are red at the base and pale on top), Viral (adenovirus and others); environmental irritants causative agent 10. Inflammation, irritation, redness of the eyelids without ulceration, Environmental irritants; allergens causative agent 11. Inflammation of the conjunctiva; nodules and papillae with red tops develop, Environmental irritants; allergens causitive agent

1. Chlamydial pneumonia 2. Haemophilus pneumonia 3. Mycoplasma pneumonia 4. Pseudomonas pneumonia

1. intracellular pathogens; three causative species, with one type causing psittacosis 2. caused by unencapsulated strains; treatment is complicated by antibiotic resistance; most commonly causes disease in the elderly, but commonly found in asymptomatic children 3. spread in crowded environments; usually relatively mild; called "walking pneumonia" 4. especially problematic in those with cystic fibrosis or exposed to contaminated ventilators in hospitals

1. abscess 2. bulla (pl., bullae) 3 carbuncle 4. crust 5. cyst 6. folliculitisa 7. furuncle (boil) 8. macules 9. papules 10. pseudocyst 11. purulent 12. pustules 13. pyoderma 14. suppurative 15. ulcer 16. vesicle 17. wheal

1. localized collection of pus 2. fluid-filled blister no more than 5 mm in diameter 3. deep, pus-filled abscess generally formed from multiple furuncles 4. dried fluids from a lesion on the surface of the skin 5. encapsulated sac filled with fluid, semi-solid matter, or gas, typically located just below the upper layers of skin 6. localized rash due to inflammation of hair follicles 7. pus-filled abscess due to infection of a hair follicle 8. smooth spots of discoloration on the skin 9. small raised bumps on the skin 10. lesion that resembles a cyst but with a less defined boundary 11. pus-producing; suppurative 12. fluid- or pus-filled bumps on the skin 13. any suppurative (pus-producing) infection of the skin 14. producing pus; purulent 15. break in the skin; open sore 16. small, fluid-filled lesion 17. swollen, inflamed skin that itches or burns, such as from an insect bite

1. epiglottis 2. nasopharynx 3. tympanic membrane 4. eustachian tube

1. the structure that seals off the lower respiratory system from the pharynx during swallowing 2. part of the upper throat extending from the posterior nasal cavity 3. ear drum 4. connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

Match each type of illness with the appropriate vaccine for its prevention. 1. Chicken pox 2. Diphtheria 3. Haemophilus influenzae Type b meningitis 4. Rubella 5. Tuberculosis

1. varicella 2. DtaP, TdaP, DT, Td, or DTP 3. Hib 4. MMR vaccine 5. BCG

Match each bacterial disease with its distinguishing characteristics. 1. Acute otitis media 2. Diphtheria 3. Pertussis 4. Streptococcal pharyngitis 5. Tuberculosis

1. without fluid buildup 2. associated with the production of an exotoxin that causes the formation of a pseudomembrane that impairs breathing 3. causes severe coughing that can last for months; especially dangerous for infants; can be effective through vaccination 4. can be associated with serious sequelae, such as acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever 5. associated with severe cough and small round, lesions in the lungs; antibiotic resistance is a serious problem

1.-Cellulitis 2.-erysipelas 3.-erythema nodosum

1.-Often caused by S. pyogens from cut or breach, but can also be caused by Staphylococcus -hot to touch, red and swollen area -penicillin treatment, oral or intravenous antibiotics 2.-S. pyogens causative agent -large inflamed patch of skin involving dermis (face and leg), can be supprative (pus producing) and bullous (blister) -penicillin treatment (oral or intravenous drugs) 3.-Streptococcal can cause it and others -inflammation of hypodermis fat cells -red modules on skin, shins -time, cooling compression, rest, non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs treatment

most abundant microbes typically found in the dry and sebaceous regions (normal skin microbiota)

Betaproteobacteria and Propionibacteria

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by serovars of

Chlamydia trachomatis

most abundant microbes in moist areas of the body (normal skin microbiota)

Corynebacterium and Staphylococcus

A strain of bacteria associated with a bladder infection shows gram-negative rods. What species is most likely to be the causative agent?

Esherichia coli

The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with

Haemophilus influenzae

what is the most common STI in the U.S.?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

how is skin inhospitable for some microbes

It is inhospitable due to the competition of nutrients and production of antimicrobial substances. Sebum also contains lipids and fatty acids to prevent some types of microbial growth. Sweat contains salts, lysosome, and antimicrobial peptides to prevent certain growth.

What is the most likey causative agent of bacterial keratitis? (choose all that apply)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus (CoPS)

S. aureus, coagulase-positive

Staphylococcus spp. present in normal microbiota

S. epidermidis (gram-positive, coagulase negative) and S. hominis (gram-positive, coagulase negative) S. aureus is also commonly found in the nasal passages and on healthy skin, but pathogenic strains cause large spectrum of infections

Sraphylococcus (CoNS)

S. epidermidis, common coagulase-negative species, less likely to cause disease -can cause disease via catheters, indwelling medical devices, and wounds

Based on its shape, which microbe is this?

Treponema pallidum

Which of the following infections can be diagnosed using a skin test similar to the tuberculin test?

aspergillosis

Koilocytes are characteristic of

cells infected with human papillomavirus

Koilocytes are characteristic of _____.

cells infected with human papillomavirus

Which of the following is most likey to cause an Acanthamoeba infection?

swimming in a lake while wearing contact lenses

What term refers to multinucleated cells that form when many host cells fuse together during infections?

syncytia

Treponemal and non-treponemal serological testing can be used to test for

syphilis

Which of these statements are false? (Choose all that apply)

the MMR vaccine has been scientifically linked to autism current vaccination guidelines in the U.S. recommend only 1 MMR at ~1 year measles can suppress the immune system for up to 16 weeks the MMR vaccine contains mercury MeV is a single-stranded, positive-strand RNA virus

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

the causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract

Which of these statements are incorrect concerning SARS-CoV-2? (Choose all that apply)

the current estimated R0 for SARS-CoV-2 is <1 as of April 1st, 2020, there have been over 900,000 confirmed deaths caused by COVID-19 the most at-risk age range for COVID-19 is 0-9 years of age influenza seems to spread more easily than SARS-CoV-2 currently, it is thought that coronaviruses in pigs mutated and jumped to humans all states in the U.S. have mandated stay-at-home orders due to COVID-19 currently, typical diagnosis for active COVID-19 infection is via an antibody test

A patient tests positive for Loa loa antibodies. What does this test indicate?

the individual was exposed to Loa loa at some point

The latent stage of syphilis, which may last for years, can occur between

the secondary and tertiary stages

When it first leaves the kidney, urine flows through

the ureter

What part of the male urogenital tract is shared by the urinary and reproductive systems?

the urethra

The parasitic Loa loa worm can cause great pain when it

travels through the conjunctiva

What is the only common infection of the reproductive tract caused by a protozoan?

trichomoniasis