Missed Questions EPPP

Speed tests cannot use _______________ reliability methods but can use ____________ reliability methods. A) inter-rater; internal consistency B) internal consistency; test-retest C) alternative forms; internal consistency D) test-retest; inter-rater

A) inter-rater; internal consistency speed tests do not contain enough items to use traditional reliability methods

According to the DSM-5, the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States is _____ percent. a. 0.6 b. 1.8 c. 3.2 d. 5

A- 0.6

To obtain more power, one should obtain a________ sample. A) larger B) smaller C) random D) representative

A- larger increased sample size reduces sampling error

A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on a(n) ________ of attributes. a. quantification b. categorization c. exclusion d. dichotomization

A- quantification dimensional approach- individual is ranked on the quantitative dimension (e.g. scale 1 to 10) on each sx or characteristic

To use multiple regression, it is necessary to have: A) one criterion variable and one predictor variable B) one criterion variable and two predictor variables C) three criterion variables and one predictor variable D) two criterion variables and two predictor variables

B) one criterion variable and two predictor variables multiple regression is used to predict one criterion variable (dependent variable) and two or more predictor variables (independent variables). appropriate when several independent variables are used to predict one continuous dependent variable (E.g. EPPP score)

A factor matrix indicates that Test A has a factor loading of .40 on Factor I and a factor loading of .30 on Factor II. Assuming the factors are orthogonal, what is the communality for Test A? A. 0.1 B. 0.25 C. 0.45 D. 0.7

B- 0.25 Test A's communality is equal to .40 squared (.16) plus .30 squared (.09) = 0.25

Thermal (temperature) biofeedback would be most effective as a treatment for: A. hyperventilation. B. Raynauds disease. C. stuttering. D. TMJ.

B- Raynauds Disease disease of the blood vessels that limits circulation to certain areas of the body

Which of the following would be least likely to describe GAD or a pt dx w/ GAD? A) lower level of ANS arousal compared to others w/ anxiety disorders B) rarely occurs w/o a occurring dx C) 24 yr old male D) increased muscle fatigue

C- 24 yr old male 2/3 women and more older than younger men

Approximately what percentage of rape survivors develop PTSD? A- 10-15 B- 15-30 C- 30-50 D- 50-65

C- 30-50%

Which of the following is often used to prevent the spread of acute leukemia to the brain? A) splenectomy B) spinal leukapheresis C) cranial irradiation D) chemotherapy

C- cranial irradiation

The dACC is located: A) superior to the corpus callosum B) inferior to the corpus callosum C) superior to the genu of the corpus callosum D) inferior to the genu of the corpus callosum

C- superior to the genu of the corpus callosum

Describe the correct sequence of events during action potential

Sodium ENTERS the cell and the cell depolarizes Potassium LEAVES the cell and the cell repolarizes

Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to: a. internal, stable, and global attributions for negative life events. b. inadequate stimulus discrimination. c. emotion dysregulation. d. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.

d- a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.

The Cleary Rule is statistical rule that examines: A) test reliability B) test bias C) test validity D) clarity

B- test bias Cleary Rule is designed to identify test bias

Research has shown that interventions can help cancer pts to cope w/ the anticipatory side effects of chemotherapy, which include all of the following EXCEPT: A) nausea B) vomiting C) tremors D) sweating

C- tremors

Joshua is dissatisfied with the amount of his bonus and he believes his other co-workers received more than he did. This greatly angers him. Joshua is concerned with what type of justice? A. Compensatory B. Procedural C. Corrective D. Distributive

D. Distributive In fairness research, there is a focus on what a person receives (distributive justice) and how perceived goods are allocated (procedural justice), and then there is the interpersonal treatment received by individuals as the justice is carried out. For the most part, organizational justice is concerned with the ways in which employees decide if they been treated fairly in their jobs and the conditions in which those determinations influence other work-related variables.

OCD may result from hyperactivity in the: A- medial reticular formation B-caudate nucleus C- cingulate gyrus D- locus coeruleus

b- caudate nucleus

Dissociative Amnesia is most associated with: a. a loss of memory for events from the distant past. b. an inability to recall personal information. c. an inability to form new sensory memories. d. an inability to attach emotions to memories.

b. an inability to recall personal information.

For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback: A. is generally ineffective. B. is effective only when combined with medication. Incorrect C. is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure. D. is more effective than relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.

c- about as equally effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure

Don Jackson, Murray Bowen, and a number of pioneers in the field of family therapy had a psychodynamic background, which they incorporated, to some degree, in their approach to family therapy. However, it is the psychoanalyst _______________ who is generally identified as the first to formally adapt and apply psychoanalytic principles to the understanding of the family. Select one: A. Nathan Ackerman B. Carl Whitaker C. Richard Stuart D. Robert Liberman

A- Ackerman first to integrate psychoanalytic approach with systems approach

With regard to test bias, a slope bias occurs when: A. a predictor's validity coefficient differs for different groups. B. a predictor's reliability coefficient differs for different groups. C. members of one group consistently score higher than members of another group on the predictor. D. members of one group consistently score higher than members of another group on the criterion.

A- a predictor's validity coefficient differs for different groups slop bias occurs when there is differential validity- i.e. when the validity coefficients for a predictor differ for different groups

The concepts of "job relatedness" and "business necessity" are associated with which of the following? A. adverse impact B. truth in testing C. comparable worth D. personnel training

A- adverse impact if a selection or other employment procedure is found to be having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue to use the procedure if he/she can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity job relatedness and business necessity are conditions that may permit the use of a selection procedure that is having an adverse impact for members of a protected group.

The coefficient of stability is useful for: A. assessing the reliability of a test that is administered on two different occasions to the same group of examinees. B. assessing the reliability of two versions of a test that are administered to the same group of examinees. C. evaluating the validity of a test across administrations of the test at two different times. D. evaluating the validity of a test across different groups of examinees.

A- assessing the reliability of a test that is administered on two different occasions to the same group of examinees. coefficient of stability = test-retest reliability coefficient

The Zeigarnik effect is a reflection of: A) beneficial effects of covert rehearsal on long-term memory B) how intermittently reinforced responses are sometimes difficult to extinguish C) post-reinforcement pause in operant responding D) limited storage capacity of working memory

A- beneficial effects of cover rehearsal on long-term memory Zeigarnik effect refers to our tendency to remember uncompleted tasks better than completed tasks.

The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised (WPT-R) is a(n): A. brief test of mental ability for adults. B. measure of global and facet job satisfaction. C. test of English-language proficiency. D. apparatus test of psychomotor skills.

A- brief test of mental ability for adults Wonderlic is a 12minute test of mental ability for adults, used to assist employers with hiring decisions

An MRI of a patient with Huntington's disease is most likely to show atrophy in which brain structure? Select one: A. caudate nucleus B. suprachiasmatic nucleus C. septum D. medulla

A- caudate nucleus caudate nucleus and putamen are structures of the basal ganglia and have been found to be the brain areas most severely affected by Huntington's disease. Huntington's disease (chorea) is a basal ganglia disorder, and the basal ganglia are involved in the control of motor movements.

To reduce a five-year old's nighttime fear of the dark, the most effective treatment would be: A. coping self-statements and positive imagery. B. in vivo exposure with response prevention. Incorrect C. stress inoculation. D. covert sensitization.

A- coping self-statements and positive imagery coping skills training- which incorporates positive self-statements and positive imagery- is a useful technique for eliminating nighttime fear of the dark

Metcalfe and Mischel (1999) use a "hot/cool" system to explain which of the following? A. delay of gratification B. risk and resilience C. aggression Incorrect D. attitude change

A- delay of gratification delay of gratification is related to "hot" and "cool" systems in the brain .The hot system is emotional and demands immediate gratification, while the cool system is cognitive and, in certain conditions, can divert attention away from the hot (arousal-based) features of a reward, resulting in an increased ability to delay gratification. According to these investigators, the hot system develops earlier than the cool system, which explains why the ability to delay gratification increases with increasing age.

A parent is concerned about her 6-year old son's thumb sucking. After reading several articles on behavioral techniques for eliminating self-reinforcing behaviors, she decides to spend an hour a day with her son using a strategy recommended in one of the articles. It involves setting a timer for 5 minutes and, during a one-hour period, giving her son a quarter for each 5-minute period that he does not suck his thumb but instead plays with the toys she has made available for him. The mother is using which of the following strategies? A. differential reinforcement B. time-out C. overcorrection D. shaping

A- differential reinforcement reducing an undesirable self-reinforcing bx by providing a reinforcer after each predefined interval of time that the individual does not engage in that behavior, but engages in other bx

When using the Adult Attachment Interview, a mother will be classified as ____________ if she describes her parents in positive terms (e.g., "Dad was a very loving person") but either reports negative interactions with her parents or says she can't remember any early interactions with them. A. dismissing B. preoccupied C. unresolved/disorganized D. resistant

A- dismissing describe their parents in positive terms that are not substantiated by descriptions of actual interactions Adult Attachment Interview categories: -Autonomous -Dismissing -Preoccupied

L-dopa acts as a: A. dopamine agonist. B. dopamine antagonist. C. dopamine neurotoxin. D. dopamine metabolite.

A- dompamine AGONIST l-dopa is a precursor to dopamine, which means it is transformed to dopamine in the brain. An agonist is a chemical that increases the amount/action of a neurotransmitter

According to McGregor (1960), Theory X managers assume that: A. employees have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it when they can. B. employees are inherently motivated to work and are capable of self-control and self-direction. C. the most effective management style depends on the nature of the organizational climate. D. the most effective management style depends on the nature of the task and certain characteristics of the employees.

A- employees have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it when they can. Theory X managers have a pessimistic view of employees Theory Y managers have more positive views of employees x = negative views (Wrong answer! x) Y= positive views (Y= YASSSSS you great!)

In the acute phase of rape trauma syndrome, the three categories of response are; A) expressed, controlled, and shock disbelief B) shocked, expressed, and repressed C) denial, shock, anger D) disbelief, denial, and depression

A- expressed, controlled, and shock disbelief

The rates of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder are: a. higher for males in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood. b. higher for females in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood. c. about equal for males and females throughout the lifespan. d. higher for females throughout the lifespan.

A- higher for males in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood. In adults, the rate of OCD is about equal for males and females. However, because the average age of onset is earlier for males, the rate for males is higher during childhood.

The goal of using incremental validity process to construct an employee screening selection program is: A) to improve the overall predictive ability of the selection program B) see if a valid selection program can be applied to a different sample and different organization C) incrementally weed out unproductive workers D) identify unintentional discrimination due to selection procedures

A- improve the overall predictive ability of the selection program incremental validity refers to the additional predictive validity that can be gained by adding more measurement devices to assess a program. The addition of 1 or more measures tends to improve the validity coefficient, and thereby the predictive validity, of the overall assessment procedure.

Communication networks in which info is accessed and received by all group members is likely to: A) increase speed and accuracy on complex tasks, as long as the group does not get too big B) increase speed and accuracy on simple tasks, as long as the group does not get too big C) decrease job satisfaction, as long as the task is simple D) decrease collaboration as long as the task is simple

A- increase speed and accuracy on COMPLEX tasks, as long as the group does not get too big

Intelligence test items assessing which of the following provide a measure of crystallized intelligence? A. language comprehension B. short-term memory C. sequential reasoning D. problem solving

A- language comprehension crystallized intelligence: acquired knowledge and skills, affected by education and cultural experiences. Language comprehension is a measure of crystallized intelligence. -Intellectual ability: crystallized & fluid

Research investigating the usefulness of the serial position effect for detecting malingering provides some evidence that, in comparison to patients with traumatic brain injury, volunteers instructed to malinger (i.e., to feign brain injury) are: A. less likely to exhibit a primacy effect. B. less likely to exhibit a recency effect. C. less likely to exhibit a primacy and a recency effect. D. more likely to exhibit a primacy and a recency effect.

A- less likely to exhibit a primacy effect malingerers are less likely than patients with TBI to exhibit a primacy effect (i.e., are less likely to recall words from the beginning of the word list) but are equally likely to exhibit a recency effect (i.e., are equally likely to recall words from the end of the list)

Which of these is not part of EMDR tx? A) logging triggers for distressing recollections B) cognitive reprocessing C) desensitization D) flooding

A- logging triggers for distressing recollections

As described by Piaget, the ability of a child to see someone else perform a behavior and subsequently perform that behavior him/herself depends on the development of which of the following abilities? A. mental representation B. assimilation C. transductive reasoning D. centration

A- mental representation

A psychologist tells the parents of an 8-year old to give him a "time-out" each time he torments his little sister. The parents find that, over time, the child needs less and less time in the time-out to calm down and apologize for his behavior. The boy's behavior is being controlled by which of the following? Select one: A. negative punishment B. negative reinforcement C. stimulus control D. stimulus fading

A- negative punishment time-out involves removing the child from all sources of positive reinforcement for a prespecified period of time following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior

Kandel and Schwartz (1982) studied habituation in Aplysia, an invertebrate marine animal, in order to obtain information on: A. neuronal processes underlying memory. B. environmental factors that impact sensory memory. C. neuronal processes underlying sexual behavior. D. environmental factors that affect goal-directed behavior.

A- neuronal processes underlying memory. habituation- decrease in response strength that occurs as the result of repeated stimulation; simplest type of learning

Which one of these errors or misjudgments is NOT part of Bongar's standard of care? A) not abandoning the client when suicidal B) failure to supervise an intern sufficiently C) not seeking consultation D) not establishing a formal tx plan

A- not abandoning the client when suicidal

Following a head injury, a middle-aged man experiences a loss of sensation in the fingers of his left hand. Most likely the damage involves the: A. postcentral gyrus. B. precentral gyrus. C. lateral fissure. D. precentral sulcus.

A- postcentral gyrus somatosensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe loss of sensation due to brain injury is likely to involve the somatosensory cortex

__________ is used to determine the minimum sample size needed for a study, given a particular level of significance, expected effect size, and other factors. A. Power analysis B. Meta-analysis C. Incremental analysis D. Sensitivity analysis

A- power analysis determine the minimum sample size needed, given the desired level of power, type of statistical test, level of significance, and expected effect size

Which of the following is likely to be least effective when working with American Indian or Alaskan Native therapy clients? Select one: A. promoting a value free environment in therapy B. adopting a holistic perspective that regards illness as a result of multiple factors C. incorporating traditional healers and practices into the treatment process D. adopting a client-centered approach that avoids highly directive techniques

A- promoting a value free environment in therapy value free environment is similar to color-blind perspective ** be careful when reading the question- "least effective"**

Recent findings suggest that ________ is/are a good predictor of future cognition. A) recognition memory and attention B) sensorimotor skills C) language development D) genetic determinants

A- recognition memory and attention

An example of secondary prevention is: A) relaxation training for an anxious kid B) health education C) the chicken pox vaccine D) drug rehabiliatation

A- relaxation training for an anxious child recognition of a problem, such as anxiety in a child, and working to prevent the onset or worsening of a psychiatric illness by using skills is the basis of secondary prevention.

Fourteen-year-old Kevin Kendall frequently uses four-letter words when he's with his friends because they respond positively when he does so. However, Kevin never uses those words when he's at home with his family because his parents and siblings become very upset when he uses them. Kevin's differential use of four-letter words in different settings illustrates the concept of: A. stimulus control. B. partial reinforcement. C. shaping. D. overcorrection.

A- stimulus control a response is brought under stimulus control when the person learns to respond in situations in which reinforcement is likely but not in situations in which no reinforcement (punishment) is likely

Multicollinearity is the result of: A) strongly correlated predictors B) uncorrelated predictors C) strongly correlated criteria D) uncorrelated criteria

A- strongly correlated predictors multicollinearity occurs when predictors, not criteria, are highly correlated. Usually, multiple predictors are used to predict only one criteria.

Ego psychologists assume that the ego is an autonomous psychic entity that has a number of characteristics, including: A) the ability to synthesize the energies of the mind and body B) enabling adaptation to the environment by negotiating internal needs and external demands, although it is not responsible for the development of a sense of self and others C) the ability to ward off excessive anxiety and unpleasant feelings by operating through a system of defenses that can be adaptive, maladaptive, or inactive D) digressing in the service of the ego

A- the ability to synthesize the energies of the mind and body

Catell's 16-factor system was used in the development of: A) the big 5 personality inventory B) rorschach inkblot test C) myers-briggs test D) beck's anxiety scale

A- the big 5 personality inventory

Valence is a component of expectancy theory. Valence is the belief that: A) the reward of successful work is desirable B) hard work will lead to success C) performance will result in a particular outcome D) workers adjust performance based on incentives and punishments

A- the reward for successful work is desirable employees will work harder if they value the possible outcomes of their work (valence)

When treating a couple in which the husband has physically abused his wife and it has been clearly determined that the abuse can be classified as instrumental (vs. expressive), the best initial approach is: A. to ensure that the husband and wife are physically separated and to provide them with separate therapy. B. to have the husband and wife sign a "no-violence contract" and to provide them with separate therapy. C. to have the husband and wife sign a "no-violence contract" and to provide them with conjoint therapy. D. to provide combined individual and group therapy for both the husband and wife.

A- to ensure that the husband and wife are physically separated and to provide them with separate therapy. -in cases of instrumental abuse (brutal, dangerous, committed w/ little provocation), the woman's safety is priority --> make sure husband and wife are separated recommend conjoint therapy for expressive abuse, not instrumental abuse

The Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP) is best described as: A. a measure of basic knowledge of psychology. B. a predictor of job proficiency. C. an aptitude test. Incorrect D. a way to protect the public from incompetent psychologists.

A. a measure of basic knowledge of psychology.

The progression of Alzheimer's disease can be described in terms of three stages. A person in the second (middle) stage of the disease is most likely to exhibit: Select one: a. retrograde amnesia for recent long-term events, indifference or irritability, and anomia. b. anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia, indifference or sadness, and urinary incontinence. d. severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, apathy, and urinary and fecal incontinence.

Answer B is correct: The symptoms listed in this answer are characteristic of the second stage.

At least eight times in the past month, Mark has experienced a sudden arousal from sleep that starts with a loud scream and is accompanied by signs of autonomic arousal. When his partner tries to comfort him during these episodes, Mark does not respond and, in the morning, does not remember what happened. Assuming that Mark's episodes usually happen in the first third of the night during stage 3 or 4 sleep, the most likely diagnosis is which of the following? a. Narcolepsy b. Nightmare Disorder c. Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder d. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder

Answer C is correct: Mark's symptoms (sudden arousal from sleep that starts with a loud scream and is accompanied by autonomic arousal) and the fact that his arousal from sleep occurs during stage 3 or 4 sleep are consistent with a diagnosis of Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type.

If a child has Schizophrenia, his or her biological sibling has a _____ percent chance of developing the disorder. a. 5 b. 10 c. 17 d. 48

B- 10%

A predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient is .70. This means that ____% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores. A. 30 B. 49 C. 51 D. 70

B- 49 A validity coefficient of .70 indicates that 49% (.70 squared) of variability is shared by the predictor and criterion -- or, put another way, that 49% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores. criterion-related validity coefficient is interpreted like any other correlation coefficient for two variables -- i.e., it is squared to obtain a measure of shared variability.

Which of the following children with ASD is likely to have the best prognosis? A) 8yr old girl w/mild language delays who was dx at age 7, IQ 80, and tx w/ stimulant B) 6yr old boy who was dx at age 5, recently started speaking, IQ 75, tx w/ behavioral therapy at home C) 5yr old girl w/ language deficiencies who was dx 2 months before 5th bday, IQ 75, and tx w/ CBT at outpatient clinic D) 7yr old who was dx at age 6, not yet developed language, IQ 80, tx w/ interventions at home 20hr/week

B- 6yr old boy who was dx at age 5, recently started speaking, IQ 75, tx w/ behavioral therapy at home MALES HAVE BETTER PROGNOSIS girls more likely to have learning disorder

A distribution of test scores is normally shaped and has a mean of 100 and standard error of measurement of 5. For an examinee who obtains a score of 103 on the test, the 68% confidence interval is: Select one: A. 95 to 105. B. 98 to 108. C. 93 to 113. D. 90 to 115.

B- 98 to 108 adding and subtracting 5 (standard error) to and from the examinee's score of 103 produces a confidence interval that ranges from 98 to 108 to calculate 68% confidence interval, 1 standard error is added to and subtracted from the examinee's test score.

Soon after birth, infants express, through facial expression: A. discomfort, interest, and surprise. B. distress, interest, and disgust. C. joy, disgust, and fear. D. joy, anger, and surprise.

B- Distress, Interest, Disgust by 3-4 months, infants express at least 4 emotions through facial expressions: INTEREST, SADNESS, DISTRESS, DISGUST 6-8 months: anger, joy, surprise, and fear

__________ described "personal constructs" as bipolar dimensions of meaning that determine how a person perceives, interprets, and predicts events. A. William Glasser B. George Kelly C. Victor Frankl D. Fritz Perls

B- George Kelly Personal Construct Theory- constructivist approach that focuses on how people construe events and proposes that construing involves reliance on personal constructs

Which of the following is true regarding skeletal age? Select one: A. Girls are behind boys in terms of skeletal age from birth, which accounts for their shorter height in adulthood. B. Girls are ahead of boys in terms of skeletal age from birth, which explains why girls reach their full height before boys do. C. Boys and girls are similar in terms of skeletal age until puberty, when the skeletal age of boys begins to increase more rapidly. D. Boys and girls are similar in terms of skeletal age at all ages, which confirms that skeletal age is unrelated to height in adulthood.

B- Girls are ahead of boys in terms of skeletal age from birth, which explains why girls reach their full height before boys do.

A woman and her husband, who have been married for two years, come for marital therapy. The woman complains about her husband's lack of interest in family activities and in their 9-month-old child, his lack of affection toward her, and his lack of interest in sex. The husband, who says he did not want to come to therapy at all, states that he is a "loner," that he has always had few friends, and that he has never really been interested in his family. He seems quite aloof and emotionally unresponsive. Your tentative diagnosis is: a. Avoidant Personality Disorder. b. Schizoid Personality Disorder. c. Schizoaffective Disorder. d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

B- Schizoid Personality Disorder characterized by detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression Schizotypal: husband does not seem to have the cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities that are characteristic of this disorder

Bateson, Jackson, Haley, and Weakland (1956) identified double-bind communication as an etiological factor for which of the following disorders? A. Anorexia B. Schizophrenia C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

B- Schizophrenia Double-Bind Communication: when a family member receives contradictory messages from another family member and is unable to comment/escape from them

A moderator variable: A. is responsible for (causes) the relationship between independent and dependent variables. B. affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables. C. is applied sequentially to participants during the course of the research study. D. is the outcome variable that is predicted in a correlational research study.

B- affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables. e.g. if results of a research study indicate that EMG biofeedback is more effective for tension headaches than for migraine/cluster, type of headache = moderator variable- i.e. the type of headache moderates the effects of EMG feedback on headache sxs

Which list accurately orders personality traits from the Big Five from most to least stable? A) neuroticism, conscientiousness, openness to experience B) agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism C) extraversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness D) conscientiousness, agreeableness, openness to experience

B- agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism Most to least stable: extraversion, agreeableness, openness to experience, conscientiousness, and neuroticism

An assumption underlying process consultation is that: A. attitude change precedes behavior change. B. behavior change precedes attitude change. C. motivation is a proximal and primary cause of performance. D. motivation and performance have a reciprocal relationship

B- behavior change precedes attitude change focuses on identifying and altering the over behaviors that are interfering with normal processes; based on the assumption that behavior change is the priority and precedes attitude change Process consultation is an organizational development strategy that focuses on organizational processes- or more specifically the social processes that are a normal part of the job

To use scores obtained on the eight subscales of the Parental Activities Scale to predict scores on the five subscales of the Child Adjustment Profile, you would use: A. multiple regression. Incorrect B. canonical correlation. C. multiple discriminant analysis. D. cluster analysis

B- canonical correlation an extension of multiple regression that is appropriate when there is more than one Y variable

For children with an anxious temperament: A) conscience develops best with parents who are authoritarian in their discipline B) conscience develops best with moderate, rather than aggressive, discipline C) conscience develops through internalization of parents' bx D) heightened anxiety helps them to focus on personal development

B- conscience develops best w/ moderate, rather than aggressive discipline

Which of the following is the best example of a secondary prevention? A) creating a program that offers various tx modalities for a group of first responders that have been dx w/ PTSD B) creating a program to screen for breast cancer among those w/ a family hx of this illness C) group therapy to prevent future domestic violence D) passing out fliers in a shopping mall to educate the public about the spread of viruses

B- creating a program to screen for breast cancer among those w/ a family hx of this illness a specific at-risk group is being targeted for screening

The review process used by managed care organizations (MCOs) to ensure that providers meet and maintain the requirements to participate in a health plan is referred to as: Select one: A. concurrent review. B. credentialing. C. quality management. D. clinical audit.

B- credentialing Credentialing is a formal process for determining whether or not a provider meets and maintains qualification standards and provides some legal protection for the MCO. **know terms in ?

n the context of the Rorschach test, form quality indicates: A. what aspect of the inkblot determined the response. B. the degree of congruence between the response and reality. C. the extent to which the response is based on an unusual or common details D. the extent to which form is well integrated with other determinants.

B- degree of congruence between the response and reality

As described by Piaget, a tertiary circular reaction occurs when an infant: A. repeats an interesting or enjoyable action that involves his/her own body. B. deliberately varies an action to discover or observe the consequences of that action. C. attempts to reproduce a pleasurable action that involves another person or an object. Incorrect D. combines cognitive schemes into more complex action sequences.

B- deliberately varies an action to discover or observe the consequences of that action. tertiary circular reaction: miniature experiments that involve engaging in specific actions to observe their consequences

A husband and wife avoid conflicts with one another by focusing their attention on helping their child overcome his difficulties at school. As described by Minuchin, this is an example of: A. reframing. B. detouring. C. stable coalition. D. triangulation

B- detouring occurs when parents avoid the tension between them by either blaming or overprotecting a child triangulation- when both parents attempt to get the child to side with him/her

Except under certain conditions, psychologists are ethically obligated to maintain a client's confidentiality. Potential limitations on confidentiality should be: A. discussed at the onset of the professional relationship. B. discussed at the onset of the professional relationship and when feasible thereafter as needed. C. discussed and documented in writing as soon as feasible. Incorrect D. discussed when the psychologist deems it to be appropriate.

B- discussed at the onset of the professional relationship and when feasible thereafter as needed.

The most effective way to improve prospective memory is to use: A) internal mnemonics B) external mnemonics C) method of loci D) elaborate rehearsal

B- external mnemonics prospective memory involves remembering to perform a previously planned action, and one of the most effective ways to facilitate it is to use an external cue or reminder

Which of the following is true about gender resiliency? A) boys are at lower risk for poor adjustment for major stressful events B) girls are at lower risk for poor adjustment following major stressful events C) boys are more resilient in early childhood, while girls are more resilient in later childhood to adolescence D) resiliency differences between the two sexes tend to remain consistent throughout the lifespan

B- girls are at lower risk for poor adjustment following major stressful events, such as parental divorce or natural disasters

During the sixth week of the semester, students in an introductory psychology class meet on a Saturday morning to discuss their class project. In the first meeting, a couple of the students say they think the instructor is boring and a "bad" teacher. The other students say they disagree and that he "isn't so bad." At the end of their meeting, however, one of the students says, "Let's take a vote - how many of you agree that our instructor is one of the worst teachers you've ever had?" and every student raises his or her hand. The students' agreement about the instructor's lack of ability is an example of which of the following? A. social facilitation B. group polarization C. the fundamental attribution bias D. negative framing

B- group polarization refers to the tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions than individual group members would make alone.

A patient taking the neuroleptic clozapine exhibits several symptoms including tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysfunction. The best action in this case would be to: A. gradually reduce the drug dose until the symptoms are alleviated. B. immediately stop the drug and administer fluids and electrolytes. C. switch the patient to a traditional antipsychotic drug. D. check to see what other drugs the patient is taking since clozapine does not produce these symptoms.

B- immediately stop the drug and administer fluids and electrolytes sxs in ? are characteristic of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)- rare disorder that can occur w/ any class of neuroleptic agent

In the context of Porter and Lawler's (1968) expectancy theory, __________ refers to the belief that meeting job performance goals will lead to certain outcomes. A. valence B. instrumentality C. vigor D. expectancy

B- instrumentality belief that good performance will be rewarded Expectancy theory predicts motivation is a function of 3 beliefs: 1) Expectancy 2) Instrumentality 3) Valence

In comparison to conventional (traditional) neuroleptics, risperidone (Risperdal), an atypical neuroleptic: A. is more likely to produce tardive dyskinesia. B. is less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia. C. is equally likely to produce tardive dyskinesia. D. is less useful for alleviating tardive dyskinesia.

B- less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia One of the advantages of many of the newer (atypical) neuroleptics is that they are associated with fewer negative side effects than the traditional neuroleptics are.

Incentive/reward theory implies that which of the following is most important for ensuring worker motivation? A. clearly tying rewards and punishments to effective performance B. making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying C. explicitly linking individual goals to organizational goals D. allowing workers to identify their preferred benefits

B- making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying incentive/reward theory is broader than reinforcement theory and emphasizes the features of the job and work environment that maximize worker interest and satisfaction

A researcher has collected data on annual family income from a small town in CA, finding that the majority had incomes on the lower end of the scale, with a relative few tapering off toward the higher end. In this study, what would be the best measure of central tendency? A) mean would be most appropriate B) median would be more appropriate C) median and mean would be equally appropriate D) neither the median nor the mean would be appropriate and a nonlinear transformation is required

B- median would be most appropriate MEDIAN IS THE BEST MEASURE OF CENTRAL TENDENCY due to the effect of a skewed distribution on the mean

Which of the following statements about psychologists who enter therapist-client relationships is least true? A) likely to enter sexual relationships w/ significantly younger clients B) more likely to have lower levels of professional achievement C) more likely to engage in nonsexual multiple relationships D) psychologists are likely using the sexual relationship to fulfill unmet needs in their personal lives

B- more likely to have lower levels of professional achievement

A 2-1/2 year old whines until his mother picks him up. In this situation, the mother's behavior is being controlled by which of the following? A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. positive punishment Incorrect D. negative punishment

B- negative reinforcement the mom's behavior increases (reinforcement) because the stimulus that is removed following the behavior (negative) *** the mother's "picking up her child" behavior occurs because it is reinforced by the cessation of her child's whining ~similar to taking a Tylenol to help with a headache

Antisocial bx is influenced by: A) parenting styles that are rigid and overly strict B) parenting styles that are permissive and inconsistent in discipline C) parenting styles that are uninvolved with demanding and rigid rules D) parenting styles that are passive and avoidant

B- parenting styles are are permissive and inconsistent in discipline antisocial bx is associated w/ parenting styles that are permissive, uninvolved, inconsistent in discipline, lacking in positivity, and lacking in supervision

Following a head injury, Jake J., age 24, exhibits a period of post-traumatic amnesia that persists for nearly one hour. Two days later, Jake is still experiencing a number of symptoms including headache, fatigue, irritability, visual disturbances, and impaired attention. Jake does not have a history of a prior head injury or psychiatric problems. In terms of prognosis, Jake can expect: A. recovery of all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within two to four weeks. B. recovery of most or all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within three to six months. C. significant impairment of some neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for at least nine to 12 months. D. significant impairment of most neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for an indefinite period of time.

B- recovery of most or all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within 3 to 6 months.

People using the ____________ heuristic base their judgments on resemblances and similarities. A. availability B. representativeness C. simulation D. anchoring

B- representativeness involved judging the likelihood/frequency of an event based on the extent to which it resembles a "typical" case

Which of the following is most relevant to equity theory? A. Rosenthal effect B. social comparison theory C. drive theory D. the buffering hypothesis

B- social comparison theory EQUITY THEORY: motivation is a function of the comparisons workers make between their own input/outcome ratio and those of workers doing similar jobs

As described by Sue & Sue "playing it cool" and "uncle tom syndrome" are: A. signs of an internal locus of control. B. survival mechanisms. C. characteristics of the immersion-emersion stage of racial/cultural identity development. D. signs of functional (versus cultural) paranoia.

B- survival mechanisms playing it cool and uncle tom syndrome: reactions to African American to long-term racial oppression "playing it cool" helps conceal feelings that might be unacceptable to Whites and that, if expressed, could lead to harm and exploitation "Uncle Tom Syndrome" use of passivity as a defense mechanism

In a study designed to evaluate the correlates of achievement motivation, a psychologist would be likely to find that, in comparison to people with a low need for achievement, people with a high need for achievement will prefer which of the following kinds of tasks? A. tasks of low difficulty B. tasks of moderate difficulty C. tasks of high difficulty D. tasks representing a range of difficulty levels

B- tasks of moderate difficulty achievement-oriented people tend to prefer moderate to moderately difficult tasks

A listener is LEAST likely to change her attitude as the result of a communicator's message if: A. the listener accidentally overhears the message. B. the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message. C. the communicator is arguing against his or her own best interests. D. there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener's initial position and the communicator's position.

B- the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message research suggests that listeners are better able to resist a persuasive message if they have been forewarned about the content

Drugs that block the activity of __________ produce dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, tachycardia, and sedation. A. 5-HT B. ACh C. glycine D. glutamate

B. ACh sxs listed are ANTICHOLINERGIC effects

A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in organizational psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements of APA's guidelines regarding a change in specialty, the psychologist must: A. complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a licensed clinical psychologist. B. complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training. C. obtain a second Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited university or professional school. D. obtain appropriate supervision of her clinical practice.

B. complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.

During the postpartum period, approximately _____ of women experience postpartum depression. A. 1 to 2% B. 10 to 15% C. 25 to 30% D. 45 to 50%

B: 10-15%

Dr. D. Centt is conducting a study to investigate the effectiveness of a brief behavioral treatment for reducing self-mutilation in young women. The treatment involves 20 hourly sessions that will be administered once a week for 20 weeks. Dr. Centt randomly assigns 40 women with a history of self-mutilation to either the treatment group or the no-treatment control group. After women in the treatment group have completed only six sessions, he finds that the treatment has nearly eliminated their self-mutilating behaviors. In contrast, nearly all of the women in the control group report multiple incidents of self-mutilation since the study began. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Centt's best course of action would be to: A. continue the study as long as the women in the control group signed informed consents at the onset of their participation. B. continue the study but offer the treatment to the women in the control group at the end of the study. C. discontinue the study and offer the treatment to the women in the control group immediately. D. try to get the results of the study published as soon as possible so that the effectiveness of the treatment is recognized.

C-

In a normal distribution of scores that has a mean of 120 and a standard deviation of 12, a raw score of 138 is equivalent to a z score of: A. 0.75 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. 2.25

C- 1.5 120 + 12 (1) = 132 + 6 (.5) = 138 ***Z score indicate how far a raw score is below or above the mean***

Children's understanding of race as a physical, social, and biological category is usually first evident by ____ years of age. A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 13

C- 10 sophisticated understanding develops later

The Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities combines the Cattell-Horn theory of fluid intelligence and Carroll's three stratum theory of intelligence and distinguishes between ___ broad abilities and over ___ narrow abilities. A. 5; 25 B. 8; 40 C. 10; 70 D. 15; 90

C- 10; 70 Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory has influenced the development a several intelligence tests including the fifth edition of the Stanford-Binet. CHC theory distinguishes between 10 broad cognitive abilities and over 70 narrow cognitive abilities, with each broad ability being composed of several related but distinct narrow abilities. The ten broad abilities are fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, quantitative knowledge, reading/writing ability, short-term memory, visual processing, auditory processing, long-term storage and retrieval, processing speed, and correct decision speed/reaction time.

Choose the description of the person w/ the highest likelihood of being dx w/ Parkinson's disease: A) 50yr male taking antidepressant medication B) 50 yr old female whose father died from Parkinson's C) 70 yr old male w/ mild depressive sxs D) 60 yr old female w/ grandparent who died from Parkinson's and who has recently been experiencing dementia

C- 70 yr old male w/ mild depressive sxs vast majority of cases (85%) occur after age 65

Three multicultural counseling competencies: A. ability, knowledge, and sensitivity. B. flexibility, sensitivity, and awareness. C. awareness, knowledge, and skills. D. self-awareness, expertise, and strategies.

C- Awareness, Knowledge, Skills

Which of the following describes the most likely outcome for a one-year-old child who sustains left-hemisphere brain injury that involves extensive damage to Broca's area? A. The child will have substantial deficits in language production and comprehension throughout his/her life. B. The child will have substantial deficits in language production throughout his/her life but normal language comprehension. C. The child will eventually exhibit language abilities in the low-normal to normal range due to a takeover of language functions by the right hemisphere. D. The child will eventually exhibit language abilities in the low-normal to normal range due to synaptogenesis in Brocas area.

C- The child will eventually exhibit language abilities in the low-normal to normal range due to a takeover of language functions by the right hemisphere.

As described by __________, internalization involves an internal reconstruction of an external operation. A. Piaget B. Erikson C. Vygotsky D. Elkind

C- Vygotsky Internalization is a key concept in Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development. For example, he described language development as a process involving a transition from social (external) speech to private (self-directed) speech to internal speech. In other words, speech first serves a social function (social speech); is then used to direct, plan, and evaluate one's own actions (private speech); and then acts as a tool for thinking (internal speech). Vygotsky viewed cognitive development as being initially interpersonal (which refers to the child's interactions with others) and then intrapersonal (which occurs when the child internalizes what he or she has learned).

Anomia is a likely outcome of damage to which of the following areas of the brain? A. somatosensory cortex B. mammillary bodies C. Wernickes area Correct D. Papezs circuit

C- Wernicke's area anomia = sx of some types of aphasia and/or that it involves an inability to name familiar objects/people

A married couple's insurance provides reimbursement for individual therapy but not for marital therapy. The psychologist has determined, however, that marital therapy is the appropriate form of treatment for the couple. The psychologist should: A. treat them in individual therapy since it is covered by the insurance. B. bill for individual therapy while treating them as a couple. C. appeal to the insurance company for coverage for marital therapy. D. none of the above.

C- appeal to the insurance company for coverage for marital therapy.

In Freudian psychoanalysis, clarification: A. reduces the clients resistance. B. links current behavior to unconscious processes. C. brings a confusing or unclear issue into focus. D. helps the client gain control over his/her inner conflicts.

C- brings confusing or unclear issues into focus

Data published by Hans Eysenck in 1952: A. confirmed the effectiveness of behavioral treatments for a variety of psychological disorders. B. confirmed the "Dodo bird" hypothesis, which predicts that various types of therapy are equally effective for a variety of psychological disorders. C. challenged the notion of "spontaneous remission." D. challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions.

C- challenged the notion of spontaneous remission 66% of pts in eclectic therapy and 44% in psychoanalytical psychotherapy improved vs 72% of those with similar problems who did not receive therapy

Compensable factors identified within a job evaluation include all of the following EXCEPT: A) skill B) responsibility/accountability C) conscientiousness D) working conditions

C- conscientiousness

A colleague at the mental health clinic where you are employed tells you that one of his clients has admitted to sexually abusing his daughter. The colleague says he is not going to report the abuse since it was mild in nature and the client has expressed remorse, promised not to do it again, and is willing to continue therapy. In addition, he feels that reporting the abuse would be detrimental to the community since the client is a widely-known, well-respected person. You should: Select one: A. attempt to discuss the matter further with the colleague and encourage him to make a report to the appropriate child abuse reporting authority. Incorrect B. file a complaint against the colleague with APA or the state licensing board. C. contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague's name. D. contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse but refuse to give them the colleague's name if they request it.

C- contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague's name.

Dr. D. Centt is conducting a study to investigate the effectiveness of a brief behavioral treatment for reducing self-mutilation in young women. The treatment involves 20 hourly sessions that will be administered once a week for 20 weeks. Dr. Centt randomly assigns 40 women with a history of self-mutilation to either the treatment group or the no-treatment control group. After women in the treatment group have completed only six sessions, he finds that the treatment has nearly eliminated their self-mutilating behaviors. In contrast, nearly all of the women in the control group report multiple incidents of self-mutilation since the study began. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Centt's best course of action would be to: A. continue the study as long as the women in the control group signed informed consents at the onset of their participation. B. continue the study but offer the treatment to the women in the control group at the end of the study. C. discontinue the study and offer the treatment to the women in the control group immediately. D. try to get the results of the study published as soon as possible so that the effectiveness of the treatment is recognized.

C- discontinue the study and offer the treatment to the women in the control group immediately. effectiveness of an intervention is unknown, it is acceptable to include a "no-treatment control group" in a research study. However, as soon as the treatment is shown to be effective (especially when it is effective for a serious disorder or problem), the treatment should be made immediately available to individuals in the control group.

A common migraine: A. begins with an aura and is usually accompanied by nausea. B. is constant and non-throbbing and may be exacerbated by bright lights. C. does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting. D. is sharp and unilateral and is usually accompanied by autonomic symptoms.

C- does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting A number of things can exacerbate the pain of a migraine (including lifting and bending over). In contrast to CLASSIC migraines, COMMON migraines do not begin with an aura.

A researcher would use the Solomon four-group design to: A. reduce practice effects. B. eliminate demand characteristics. C. evaluate the effects of pretesting. D. determine if there are any selection biases.

C- evaluate the effects of pretesting purpose of Solomon Four-Group Design is to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity

The mildest forms of intellectual disability are usually caused by: A) organic factors B) extra X chromosome C) familial factors D) impairment to the hypothalamus

C- familial factors

Research investigating the impact of group heterogeneity and task performance has generally found that: A. group heterogeneity is always preferable to group homogeneity regardless of the type of task. B. group homogeneity is always preferable to group heterogeneity regardless of the type of task. C. group heterogeneity is preferable on disjunctive tasks but can actually be detrimental on some other types of tasks. D. group heterogeneity is preferable on conjunctive tasks but can actually be detrimental on some other types of tasks.

C- group heterogeneity is preferable on disjunctive tasks but can actually be detrimental on some other types of tasks.

Two types of long-term memory coded by the ______ are ________ and _________ . A) hippocampus; implicit; constructive B) amygdala; implicit; explicit C) hippocampus; semantic; episodic D) basal ganglia; explicit; declarative

C- hippocampus; semantic; episodic hippocampus is an important structure in the coding of long-term memories.

In Ainsworth's "strange situation," a one-year old shows little distress when her mother leaves the room and ignores her when she returns. Most likely, this mother is: A. neglectful or physically abusive. B. depressed. C. impatient or overstimulating. D. a single parent.

C- impatient or overstimulating child attachment = insecure/avoidant tend to have mothers who are impatient and non-responsive or overstimulating

Which of the following would NOT be a focus of coping skills training? A) exposure to the stimuli to decrease anxiety through the use of imagery B) teaching and practicing breathing techniques to decrease anxiety C) increasing awareness and insight into the connection between past experiences and current difficulties D) training to avoid certain situations with unfavorable consequences

C- increasing awareness and insight into the connection between past experiences and current difficulties coping skills training teaches the pt skills to increase cognitive, bx, and affective proficiencies, thereby increasing the person's ability to manage a variety of uncomfortable, anxiety-provoking situations

If a person receives an unexpected extrinsic reward for an activity that is intrinsically motivated, then: A) intrinsic motivation for that activity will decrease B) extrinsic motivation for that activity will increase C) intrinsic motivation for that bx will not decrease D) extrinsic motivation for that bx will not decrease

C- intrinsic motivation for that bx will not decrease providing an extrinsic reward for a bx may decrease intrinsic motivation to perform that bx, but only if the person expects to receive the extrinsic reward; if the person does not know about it beforehand, intrinsic motivation will not be affected, and it may actually increase

With regard to the care and use of animals in research, a psychologist who is the principal investigator: A. can designate which employees or assistants are responsible for the animals. B. can designate which employees or assistants are responsible for the animals as long as the psychologist has provided them with appropriate training. C. is ultimately responsible for the animals him/herself. D. shares equal responsibility for the animals with the employees and assistants.

C- is ultimately responsible for the animals him/herself.

Which of the following characteristics does not describe reality therapy? A) its main objective is to assist clients in altering their identity B) it depends on a comfortable therapeutic relationship C) it emphasizes appropriate assessment before referring a pt for medication D) therapist would not allow a pt to complain about his wife in therapy

C- it emphasizes appropriate assessment before referring a client for medication Reality therapy does not believe in medication or diagnosis but emphasizes the pt's choice to exhibit behaviors. Focuses on pt taking responsibility for his/her "failure identity" and helps him/her replace this with a "success identity"

Damage to which region may result in difficulty coordinating muscle movements? A) secondary motor cortex B) posterior motor cortex C) motor association cortex D) primary motor cortex

C- motor association cortex damage to the motor association cortex may result in difficulties w/ coordinating muscle movement, such as the sequence of muscles required for speech

Family therapy is probably contraindicated in which of the following situations? A. The presenting problem involves long-term marital conflict. B. Family members attribute their problems to one of the members. C. One of the family members has severe depression. D. One of the family members has anorexia or bulimia.

C- one of the family members has severe depression depression not consistently linked w/ any particular family factor family therapy is contraindicated when a family member's disturbance, while affecting the family, is basically unrelated to family processes or structure or is so disruptive that it would interfere with the success of the therapy

The most prominent risk factor for drug abuse in adolescence is: A. parent and family member drug use. B. availability of drugs. C. prior use of gateway drugs. D. depression.

C- prior use of gateway drugs

An insurance company is conducting a peer review and requests that you provide it with information about a current client whose fee is being paid by the company. In this situation, you are best advised to: A. provide the company with the requested information only if the client is willing for you to do so. B. provide the company with only that information you believe to be pertinent to the review. C. provide the company with relevant information after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality. D. provide the company with the requested information because the client waived confidentiality when he/she signed the insurance form.

C- provide the company with relevant information after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality when a client's therapy fee has been paid by an insurance company, it is likely that the client has already signed a waiver on his/her insurance form. In addition, therapists are expected to cooperate with peer reviews. A therapist would be required to provide information to the the insurance company as requested, but the therapist should release only relevant information and should take steps to ensure that confidentiality is safeguarded.

As described in the DSM-5, which of the following are symptoms of Stimulant Intoxication? Select one: A. nystagmus, numbness, and muscle rigidity B. blurred vision, tremor, and depressed reflexes C. pupillary dilation, nausea, and muscular weakness D. fatigue, increased appetite, and vivid dreams

C- pupillary dilation, nausea, and muscular weakness

Prospective memory: A. is an aspect of working memory. B. contains memories of one's personal experiences. C. refers to "remembering to remember." D. refers to "knowing about knowing."

C- refers to "remembering to remember." e.g. remember an appointment in the future

Failure to reciprocate social gestures or expressions, lack of interest in sexual activity, flattened affect, and a preference for solitude are most suggestive of: A) schizotypal pd B) avoidant pd C) schizoid pd D) ASD

C- schizoid personality disorder

A group of people start a test prep company for EPPP. They decide on a name for the company, the goals, job descriptions, employees, and financial aspects of managing the company, and they all work together to complete the work required, such as writing test ?'s, implementing new procedures and programs, etc. This best describes: A) hierarchical management B) self-managed team C) self-directed group D) work group

C- self-directed team group of people who work together in their own ways toward a common goal, which the team defines. self-managed: goal determined outside of the team

A predictor's ___________ is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives. A. positive predictive value B. negative predictive value C. sensitivity D. specificity

C- sensitivity proportion of individuals in the validation sample who have the characteristic measured by the predictor and were accurately identified by the predictor as having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor's ability to identify true positives. Sensitivity is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.

For more than 4 decades, women and citizens of minority groups who have felt discriminated against have been able to call on________________, established by the Civil Rights Act of 1964, to determine if there is "just cause" to seek a legal remedy for the discrimination. A) civil rights commission B) congressional anti-discrimination council C) the EEOC D) federal civil rights courts

C- the EEOC Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

When using equity theory to evaluate an employee's motivation, you would be most interested in which of the following? A. the employee's level of intrinsic motivation B. the employee's self-efficacy beliefs C. the employee's perceptions regarding the pay and benefits received by workers performing similar work duties as the employee D. the employee's perceptions regarding the likelihood that successful performance will be rewarded with desirable outcomes

C- the employee's perceptions regarding the pay and benefits received by workers performing similar work duties as the employee EQUITY THEORY= worker compares his/her input/outcome ratio to the ratio of another worker performing the same/similar job. When the ratio seem equal to the worker, the worker is motivated to continue performing at the same level. If the ratios are unequal, this has an effect on motivation, performance, and other job outcomes.

Marisa has joined the spirituality in Action group, where she meets with like-minded women to meditate, read and discuss spirituality literature, create artwork, and collaborate on a number of community projects. In which of the following scenarios would social loafing be less of an issue for the group members? A) the group is tight, engages in simple projects, and people are not made to stand out B) the group is large, engages in meaningful projects, and people are appreciated for their individual contributions C) the group is small, engages in complex projects, and individual contributions are recognized D) the group is large, engages in simple tasks, and is democratic

C- the group is small, engages in complex projects, and individual contributions are recognized

A researcher uses a factorial ANOVA to statistically analyze the effects of four types of training strategies and three levels of self-efficacy on a measure of job performance. The results indicate that there are significant main effects of each independent variable and a significant interaction. The researcher will conclude that: A. training is effective regardless of level of self-efficacy. B. each type of training is equally effective for each level of self-efficacy. C. the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy. D. overall, training is effective only for people with a certain level of self-efficacy.

C- the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy. Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy --e.g., training method #1 might be most effective for people with low self-efficacy, while training method #2 might be most effective for people with high self-efficacy.

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical requirements regarding publication credit for publications that are substantially based on a student's doctoral dissertation? A. Authorship credit must reflect each individual's relative contribution to the research project. B. Authorship credit must be mutually agreed upon by all individuals who contributed to the project. C. The student must be listed as first author except under exceptional circumstances. D. The student must always be listed as first author.

C- the student must be listed as 1st author except under exceptional circumstances

A researcher interested in retention of information in short-term memory shows participants a list of five letters ("C-S-J-Z-M") and asks them to memorize the list. She then instructs the participants to count backwards by 3's from 99. After six seconds, 12 seconds, and 18 seconds, the researcher asks the participants to recall the list. The reason why participants are instructed to count backwards is: Select one: A. to increase the effects of retroactive interference. B. to deter the "trace decay" process. C. to keep them from rehearsing the list of letters. D. to maximize their concentration.

C- to keep them from rehearsing the list of letters. having participants count backwards ensures that they do not rehearse the list of letters so that an accurate estimate of the duration of short-term memory can be ascertained

Your new client, a college freshman, says she sometimes has an "out of body" experience in which she is watching what she is doing from outside herself. She describes a recent experience in which she was in her dorm room writing a paper when she realized she couldn't feel her fingers on the computer keyboard or her feet on the floor and then suddenly felt like she was watching herself from the ceiling. The client says that these episodes make her feel like she's "going crazy" and are interfering with her ability to attend class and complete course assignments. The client's symptoms are most suggestive of a DSM-5 diagnosis of: A. Delusional Disorder B. Dissociative Fugue C. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder D. Depersonalization Disorder

C. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder recurrent episodes of depersonalization (sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one's thoughts, feelings, etc.) that cause clinically significant distress/impaired functioning

What is the best course of action for a counselor who lacks competence in a certain area? A) consult several counselors to decide the best course of tx B) inform client of lack of competence, have them sign an informed consent form and proceed w/ tx C) provide the service as long as a "reasonable effort" is made to obtain the necessary competence through research, consultation, and training D) dismiss service and refer the client to another counselor

D) dismiss service and refer the client to another counselor

Caplan (1970) distinguished between four types of mental health consultation. Which of the following is an example of the type he labeled "consultee-centered case consultation"? Select one: A. A consultant is hired by a colleague to resolve a diagnostic dilemma she is having with a current client. B. A consultant is hired by a school to help school administrators evaluate the effectiveness of an existing remedial program for at-risk students. C. A consultant monitors a support group for administrators to help them develop better interpersonal skills. D. A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom.

D- A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom. In this situation, the consultant is helping the consultee improve her skills so that she is better able to deal with future problems in the classroom. The focus of the consultation is on the consultee rather than on particular individuals who the consultee will be in contact with.

Nicotine helps improve slugishness, reduce constipation, and increase attention because it mimics the effects of: A) DA B) serotonin C) glycine D) ACh

D- ACh nicotinic receptors are one type of ACh receptors, and when nicotine binds to nicotinic receptors, it mimics ACh

Helms's (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six statuses, with each status being associated with a different information processing strategy. For example, the "flexibility and complexity" strategy is characteristic of the __________ status. A. internalization B. integrative awareness C. reintegration D. autonomy

D- Autonomy Autonomy- aware of one's own whiteness and role in perpetuating racism and commitment to abandoning a sense of White entitlement Helm's 6 statuses: 1) contact 2) disintegration 3) reintegration 4) psuedo-independence 5) immersion/emersion 6) autonomy

When the sole of an infant's foot is stroked, her big toe bends back toward the top of her foot and her other toes fan out. This is referred to as the _______ reflex. A. root B. palmar C. Moro D. Babinski

D- Babinski

The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum and Jaremko's (1982) stress inoculation training are: A. formulation, problem focus, and termination. B. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement. C. cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction. D. conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.

D- Conceptualization, Skills Acquisition and Application Stress Inoculation Training- help people cope more effectively w/ stress by increasing their coping skills ?'s might use these phrases instead: 1) conceptualization, education, cognitive phase 2) skills application, training phase, skills acquisition, rehearsal phase 3) application or application and follow-through phase

In his study of moral development, Kohlberg presented research participants with stories that posed a conflict between two moral dilemmas. In the most famous of these stories, the "________ dilemma," participants were presented with a choice between the value of obeying the law and the value of human life. Select one: A. Clever Hans B. Good Boy/Good Girl C. Hawthorne D. Heinz

D- Heinz required research participants to reason about a dilemma in which a man musth choose between not stealing a drug and stealing the drug to save his wife's life

In their study of outpatient mental health services in Los Angeles County, Sue et al. (1991) found that, while clients from all groups showed improvement at the end of therapy, __________ had the best outcomes. A. African Americans B. Anglo Americans C. Asian Americans D. Hispanic Americans

D- Hispanic Americans

A social psychologist tells his male and female subjects the following story about Jack and Jane: On Saturday, Jack fixes his car's transmission and Jane sews. Both complete their tasks successfully. On Sunday, Jack decorates his apartment and Jane cuts down a tree in her front yard. Again, both complete their tasks successfully. Which of the following statements best describes the likely results of this research? A. Males and females will attribute Jack's success in fixing the transmission and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jack's success in decorating and Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck. B. Males will attribute Jack's success on both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but females will attribute Jack's success in fixing the transmission and Jane's success in sewing to ability and Jack's success in decorating and Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck. C. Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks to ability and Jane's success in both tasks to luck. Incorrect D. Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.

D- Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.

Tom is not colorblind but he has a brother who is colorblind. Tom's wife, Alice, is not colorblind and does not have any relatives who are colorblind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the children of Tom and Alice will be colorblind? A. Their male children only are likely to be colorblind. B. Their female children only are likely to be colorblind. C. Their male and female children may or may not be colorblind. D. Neither their male nor their female children will be colorblind.

D- Neither their male nor their female children will be colorblind. colorblindness would have to come from the mother for sons and from both the mother and father for daughters. colorblindness is a recessive trait that is carried on the X chromosome

Rehearsal techniques can reduce each of the following EXCEPT: A) loss of information from working memory B) selective attention C) rate at which the recency effect dissipates D) the TOT phenomenon

D- TOT phenomenon Rehearsal improves retrieval of most kinds of info from memory, but it is known to be ineffective for preventing the TOT phenomeon (tip of the tongue)

If an unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented just prior to a conditioned stimulus in order to replace an undesirable response with a more desirable one, which of the following will most likely occur? A. The target response will eventually be eliminated. B. The target response will be suppressed (but not eliminated). C. The target response will paradoxically increase. D. The target behavior will not change in frequency.

D- The target behavior will not change in frequency. backwards conditioning rarely works: for classical conditioning to be effective, the CS must be presented before the US

Which leadership theory assumes that workers are committed to task performance and outcomes, but that they also need informal supervision? A) Theory W B) Theory X C) Theory Y D) Theory Z

D- Theory Z blend of American and Japanese companies; values: commitment to employees, evaluation, careers, control, decision making, responsibility, and concern for people; primarily rely on implicit and informal control rather than external control (American companies)

Which of the following intermittent schedules of reinforcement produces the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction? A. fixed interval B. fixed ratio C. variable interval D. variable ratio

D- Variable Ratio Variable Ratio Schedule: a reinforcer is provided after a variable number of responses. (slot machines)

The complete loss of color vision resulting from a lack of functioning cone cells is referred to as: A. color agnosia. B. akinetopsia. C. prosopagnosia. D. achromatopsia.

D- achromatopsia chroma = color

Manuel is a 21-year old college student who moved to the United States from Mexico with his family when he was four years old. Manuel has many Anglo friends at school and usually dates Anglo women, but, at home, he speaks Spanish and participates in the cultural traditions practiced by his family. When asked about his ethnic identity, Manuel says, "I'm American and Hispanic, but I guess I consider myself mostly Hispanic." Manuel is best described as: A. fused. B. separated. C. assimilated. D. bicultural.

D- bicultural adopted both cultures

A normal distribution is all of the following, except: A) bell-shaped B) a probability distribution C) symmetrical D) bimodal

D- bimodal bimodal means having two modes.

Which of the following would NOT be useful for alleviating the psychotic symptoms associated with schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder? A. risperidone (Risperdal) B. olanzapine (Zyprexa) C. chlorpromazine (Thorazine) D. carbamazepine (Tegretol)

D- carbamaezpine anticonvulsant, also useful for Bipolar

The RER and Golgi apparatus are: A) inclusion bodies B) cytoplasm C) cell membranes D) cell organelles

D- cell organelles

Your research study involves assessing the effects of two independent variables on three dependent variables. In this situation, you would choose to conduct a MANOVA to analyze the data you collect rather than separate factorial ANOVAs in order to: A. maximize experimental variance. B. control an extraneous variable. C. increase statistical power. D. control the experimentwise error rate.

D- control the experimentwise error rate. The more statistical comparisons made within a research study, the greater the likelihood of making a Type I error. By using the MANOVA to simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable(s) on the dependent variables, the fewer the total number of statistical comparisons, and the lower the probability of making a Type I error. (The word "error" in the term experimentwise error rate refers to a Type I error.)

The reliability of a test can be measured using all of the following EXCEPT: A) spearman-brown prophecy formula B) coefficient of stability C) cronbach's alpha D) correction for attenuation formula

D- correction for attenuation formula correction for attenuation formula makes use of reliability estimates for 2 measures in order to produce a correlation coefficient corrected for measurement of error

Mary had always known Peter as peace-loving and even-tempered. Therefore, she was totally surprised to find out that Peter had participated in a riot during Monday's football game. What theory best explains what happened to Peter? A) group norms B) social facilitation C) peer pressure D) deindividuation

D- deindividuation

The following have been cited as factors in increasing job satisfaction throughout work life EXECPT: A) increase in pay B) better positions C) more job security D) different opportunities to use skills

D- different opportunities to use skills 3 factors that increase job satisfaction: 1) increase pay 2) better positions 3) more job security

Jon, 21 yr old, was taken to the hospital after he complained of a headache, right hemiparesis, and then loss of consciousness. Which type of stroke did he likely have? A) ischemic stroke B) posterior cerebral artery C) anterior cerebral artery D) hemorrhagic stroke

D- hemorrhagic stroke most common type of stroke among ppl ages 18-45

Based on the empirical research, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of maternal depression on infant development is that children of depressed mothers: A. are at no higher risk for future psychopathology than children whose mothers are not depressed. B. are at higher risk for future psychopathology although symptoms are not usually first apparent until adolescence. C. are at higher risk for emotional and behavioral problems during the preschool years but are essentially indistinguishable from children whose mothers are not depressed in subsequent years. D. are at higher risk for psychopathology and may show symptoms of disturbance as early as three months of age.

D- higher risk for psychopathology and may show symptoms of disturbance as early as three months of age. there is some evidence that signs of distress (e.g. elevated heart rate and greater frontal lobe EEG) are apparent by the time the infant is 3 months

The field of pharmacokinetics (PK) is concerned with: A) what a drug does to the body B) how the body absorbs, distributes, breaks down, and reuptakes drugs C) what the body does to the drug and how to quantify the changes D) how the body assimilates, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs

D- how the body assimilates, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs

A structured interview: A) includes specific ?'s asked of all interviewees B) includes pre-specified criteria asked of all interviewees C) creates item scores and total scores for each individual interviewee D) includes specific questions and pre-specified criteria for all interviewees

D- includes specific questions and pre-specified criteria for all interviewees

Multiple regression analysis has several advantages over the analysis of variance including all of the following except: A. it eliminates the need for a two-stage analysis involving a global significance test that is followed, when appropriate, by "fine grain" significance tests. B. it is not limited to categorical (or categorized continuous) variables. C. it enables the researcher to determine if entering additional independent variables affects the dependent variable beyond the effects found for previously entered variables. D. it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed.

D- it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed

__________ is a cause of delirium and may result from kidney or liver failure or from diabetes mellitus, hypo- or hyperthyroidism, vitamin deficiency, electrolyte imbalance, severe dehydration, or a number of other conditions. a. Gerstmann's syndrome b. Cushing's syndrome c. Wernicke's encephalopathy d. Metabolic encephalopathy

D- metabolic encephalopathy state of global brain dysfunction. sxs range from impairments in executive functioning to agitated delirium to coma

Use of which of the following substances is NOT likely to produce a Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder? A. alcohol B. cannabis C. cocaine D. opioids

D- opioids

The rational-economic model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make: A. satisficing decisions. B. bounded decisions. C. representative decisions. D. optimal decisions.

D- optimal decisions. Rational-Economic Model assumes that decision-makers are perfect and rational- will consider all alternative and choose the optimal one

The three components of a needs assessment are: A. microsystem, macrosystem, and exosystem. B. unfreezing, changing, refreezing. C. worker satisfaction, worker performance, and organizational effectiveness. D. organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis.

D- organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis.

In her landmark study, Hatfield found that which of the following traits most determines whether one will date someone again? A) similarity in education B) status C) intelligence D) physical appearance

D- physical appearance

To determine the degree of association between pregnancy status (pregnant or not) and the number of items selected on a stress event checklist, you would use which of the following? A. Pearson r Incorrect B. Spearman rho C. biserial D. point biserial

D- point biserial appropriate when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is continuous in this situation, you are correlating a variable representing a true dichotomy (pregnant vs not pregnant) with a variable representing a ratio (continuous) scale of measurement (number of stress events)

You receive a court order requesting that you provide information about a 19-year-old client who is currently the defendant in a court case. You discuss the request with the client but he refuses to sign a waiver of confidentiality. You should: A. refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client. B. refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client's attorney or legal guardian. C. provide the court only with information that you believe will not be harmful to the client. D. provide the court with the requested information.

D- provide the court with the requested information Exceptions to privilege: court order

ACh antagonists do which of the following? A) contract muscles B) increase concentration C) improve memory D) relax muscles

D- relax muscles

According to Bem, categorizing information by gender is called: A) gender labeling B) sex-typed C) undifferentiated D) sex-linked

D- sex-typed people who readily categorize info by gender classification in a manner that is popular w/ their culture are said to be sex-typed

The primary goal of advocacy consultation is: A) legal reform B) bx change C) institutional change D) social change

D- social change

After completing inpatient and intensive outpatient substance tx programs, a client engages in sober social support groups, such as AA. 12-step programs including AA, are an example of: A) primary prevention B) secondary prevention C) relapse prevention D) tertiary prevention

D- tertiary prevention tertiary prevention programs are aimed at further reducing residual effects or assisting in relapse prevention for already established severe conditions such as substance dependence.

Use of the guessing formula is questionable when: A) test-takers either have the knowledge to answer a given item correctly or they do not B) test-takers possessing the knowledge to answer a given item do so correctly, and the rest guess randomly C) incorrect answers reflect guessing D) test-takers may eliminate possible answers on some questions depending on their knowledge of the subject matter

D- test-takers may eliminate possible answers on some questions depending on their knowledge of the subject matter

Which of the following is a challenge that may arise from mandating Evidence Based Therapies? A. The financial cost of training all of the individuals needed. B. The limited number of trainers with which to prepare those that are gaining skills in Evidence Based Therapies. C. The limited number of Evidence Based Trainings. D. The varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions.

D- the varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions

A child in the preoperational stage of development: A. carefully follows the rules when playing a game. B. views death as a "bogeyman" that can be outwitted. C. thinks objects "disappear" when they have been hidden from view. Incorrect D. treats objects as symbols of things (e.g., dolls as babies).

D- treats objects as symbols of things (e.g. dolls as babies) 4 stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. Sophomore Psychologists are Egocentric Animals and Can't Fail.

Herzberg's two-factor theory classifies job security, pay and benefits, relationships with co-workers, working conditions, and company policies as: A. quality factors. B. quantity factors. C. motivator factors D. hygiene factors

D. hygiene factors hygiene factors include the factors listed in this question, while motivator factors include the nature of the work itself and opportunities for responsibility, achievement, and promotion.

When working with a "split-brain" patient, you would notice that he or she has the most difficulty with regard to which of the following? A. reflexive functions B. executive functions C. memory functions D. sensory functions

D. sensory functions A primary function of the corpus callosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and vice versa, and this deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.

The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are categorized in three groups in the DSM-5. These groups are: A. destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules. B. negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior. C. deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms. D. angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

D: 1) Angry/irritable mood 2) argumentative/defiant behavior 3) vindictivenes

Birdwhistell claimed that about ________ of communication between people is accomplished with words: A) 20-25% B) 70-75% C) 25-30% D) 30-35%

D: 30-35%

A sample of 100 people produces a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. the 95% confidence interval for the population mean is: A) 49.9-50.1 B) 49.8-50.2 C) 49-51 D) 48-52

D: 48-52

Meiosis refers to: A) process by which DNA is converted to RNA B) division of a cell into 2 identical cells C) production of a gamete with 23 chromosomes D) programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms

c- the production of a gamete with 23 chromosomes gamete= sperm and egg