MLS Exam Questions 2
A Rh negative individual has produced an anti-D antibody. Which situation has the ability to stimulate this production of anti-D? Delivering a Rh negative baby. Delivering a Rh positive baby. Receiving Rh negative packed red blood cells. Receiving Rh positive fresh frozen plasma.
Delivering a Rh positive baby.
The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in all the following EXCEPT: Transfusion reactions Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Hemolytic disease of the newborn Detection of alloantibodies in serum
Detection of alloantibodies in serum
Which of the following describes the basis for the freezing point Osmometer?
The freezing point depression is lowered by an amount that is directly proportional to the concentration of dissolved particles in the solution.
Why is it dangerous to transfuse a blood group O person with a unit of blood group A?
The patient's anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient.
A chemical reaction that is utilized by many different analytical methods involves: Fluorometry Glucose oxidase The reduction of NAD to NADH UV spectrophotometry
The reduction of NAD to NADH
Illustrated in the top photograph is a 5-day culture on Sabouraud's dextrose agar obtained from a skin scraping specimen of a "ringworm" lesion from the groin of a 25 year old male. The appearance of a wine red pigment diffusing into the agar at the margins of a cottony white colony is distinctive. The accompanying microscopic features are observed in the accompanying lactophenol blue stained mount illustrated in the lower photomicrograph. From the multiple choices, select the species name of the fungal isolate as illustrated. Trichophyton rubrum Trichophyton mentagrophytes Epidermophyton floccosum Microsporum gypseum
Trichophyton rubrum
Which of these cells tend to occur in tight clusters and may have prominent nucleoli, immature chromatin, and scant cytoplasm? Macrophages Adipocytes Tumor cells Megakaryocytes
Tumor cells
This microscopic field is representative of other fields that were observed on a Gram-stained smear. Which of the following describes the quality of the smear? Under-decolorized; Poor Quality Over-decolorized; Good Quality Sufficiently decolorized; Poor Quality Under-decolorized; Good Quality
Under-decolorized; Poor Quality
Gram stains are performed on positive blood culture bottles. Each of the following responses correctly matches the organism with its description EXCEPT: a. Large, gram-positive rods with square ends occurring in short or long chains = Bacillus anthracis b. Small gam-negative coccobacillus or bacillus demonstrating bipolar staining = Yersinia pestis c. Very tiny, pale staining, gram-negative coccobacillus often arranging in pairs = Fusobacterium species d. Small, gram-negative coccobacilli that may stain very faintly or appear gram-positive due to retention of crystal violet stain; individual cells present = Brucella species
Very tiny, pale staining, gram-negative coccobacillus often arranging in pairs = Fusobacterium species Fusobacterum are long, thin, filamentous gram-negative bacilli with tapered ends that may arrange end to end. F. necrophorum may show pleomorphism with irregular or pale staining and swollen ends.
When collecting routine blood product donations, the venipuncture site is first cleaned with:
0.7% Iodophor compound
If a Brucella species is suspected in a blood culture, it should be held for a maximum of how many days on a commercial blood culture system?
10-14
A routine laboratory workup is ordered for an outpatient. The patient's lipid results are as follows: Total cholesterol = 295 mg/dL HDL = 30 mg/dL Triglycerides = 200 mg/dL What is the LDL cholesterol level for this patient?
225 mg/dL LDL cholesterol = Total cholesterol - (HDL + (Trig / 5)) In this case, the calculation for LDL would be: LDL cholesterol = 295 mg/dL - (30 mg/dL + (200 mg/dL / 5)) LDL cholesterol = 295 mg/dL - 70 mg/dL = 225 mg/dL
Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is TRUE? a. A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) b. A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus. c. Sphingomyelin levels increase during the 3rd trimester causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly during the last two weeks of gestation. d. A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid
A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) L/S ratio <2.0 indicates an increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) at delivery. L/S ratio <1.5 indicates a very high risk of developing RDS.
In the antibody screening test, at what phase of reactivity is it most important to read the reactions for detection of clinically significant antibodies?
AHG
Whole blood glucose values are ____________ plasma glucose values. About 40% higher About 11% lower About 80% lower Equal to
About 11% lower
What is the cause of iron overload in hereditary hemochromatosis?
Absorption of excessive amounts of iron in the small intestine
Which of the following blood tests is used in the evaluation of hepatic disease? Amylase Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT) Creatinine Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT)
Which one of the following proteins in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier? Albumin Prealbumin Transferrin IgG
Albumin
Illustrated in the image to the left are 3-day old colonies growing on blood agar. The colonies are gray and spreading, and a sweet, fruity odor is noted. Plump, Gram-negative coccobacilli are seen on Gram stain. This isolate belongs to the motile, non-fermenters with peritrichous flagella. Carbohydrate utilization is asaccharolytic. Nitrite reduction produces gas and citrate is positive. From the multiple choices, select the name of this isolate. Bordetella bronchiseptica Alcaligenes faecalis Moraxella catarrhalis Acinetobacter baumannii
Alcaligenes faecalis
The product produced in amplification is termed:
Amplicon
Which of the following blood tests is used to determine acute pancreatitis? Acid phosphatase Uric acid Amylase Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Amylase
On a quiet evening shift at a small hospital, you encounter a specimen with a positive antibody screen. As per your current laboratory protocol, you check for agglutination at the immediate spin phase of testing; and then again at the antihuman gloubulin (AHG) phase of 37°C. According to your laboratory guidelines, a single homozygous cell may be used to rule out an antibody. Based on the following 3-cell screen performed by tube, which of the following clinically significant antibodies are you unable to rule out? Anti-Fya, -D Anti-Lua, -Lea, -Fya, -C Anti-Lea, -Fya, -C Anti-Fya, -C, -Lub
Anti-Fya, -C, -Lub
Of the following blood group antibodies, which has been most frequently associated with severe cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? Anti-A,B Anti-Lea Anti-K Anti-M
Anti-K
When determining the identification of an amebic parasite, which morphologic structures are most helpful in distinguishing them from one another?
Internal and external structures
In a case involving actual lead poisoning, what would a technologist expect to find on a Wright-stained blood smear?
Basophilic stippling
All of the following are components of a basic single beam spectrophotometer, except: Beam splitter Cuvette Prism Light source
Beam splitter
Hemoglobin H (HbH) bodies are tetramers of which globin chain?
Beta
The immunoassay procedure for serum hCG utilizes antisera against which subunit of hCG?
Beta
Fecal urobilinogen level may be markedly decreased because of:
Biliary obstruction
Which Brucella species has positive H2S production and may or may not need CO2 for growth? Brucella canis Brucella suis Brucella melitensis Brucella abortus
Brucella abortus
Which of the following conditions is associated with the Epstein-Barr Virus? Measles Burkitt's lymphoma Mumps Chicken pox
Burkitt's lymphoma
A traveler is being evaluated at a local hospital for gastrointestinal pain, fever, and diarrhea. The patient has recently returned from a month-long visit to Southeast Asia. The patient has no recent history of sexual activity or IV drug use but did describe conditions of poor sanitation where they were visiting. If liver function test results were elevated and bilirubinuria was noted, which of the following would be the next logical test to order? a. ELISA test for the Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg) b. Recombinant Immunoblot Assay (RIBA) test for Hepatitis C c. Western Blot test for HIV d. ELISA testing for Hepatitis A antigens in the stool
ELISA testing for Hepatitis A antigens in the stool
Which values would be expected with metabolic alkalosis? a. Elevated pH, increased bicarbonate, normal PCO2 b. Elevated pH, decreased bicarbonate, normal PCO2 c. Lowered pH, normal bicarbonate, decreased PCO2 d. Increased pH, normal bicarbonate, increased PCO2
Elevated pH, increased bicarbonate, normal PCO2
Which of the following would you find in a primary hyperparathyroidism case? a. Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus b. Elevated serum calcium and elevated serum phosphorus c. Decreased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus d. Decreased serum calcium and increased serum phosphorus
Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus Primary hyperparathyroidism is a disorder of the parathyroid glands where overactive parathyroid glands secrete too much parathyroid hormone (PTH). This excess PTH triggers the release of too much calcium into the bloodstream. The bones may lose calcium, and too much calcium may be absorbed from food. The levels of calcium may increase in the urine, causing kidney stones. PTH also lowers blood phosphorus levels by increasing the excretion of phosphorus in the urine.
Which of the following assays is commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of Activated Protein C resistance? Factor V Leiden Mutation Assay Antithrombin Activity Assay Antithrombin Antigen Assay Anticardiolipin Antibody Immunoassay
Factor V Leiden Mutation Assay
A deficiency in which of the following coagulation factors will produce an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) test result but will not affect the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) test result? Factor X Factor VII Factor V Factor II
Factor VII Factor VII is only involved in the extrinsic pathway, so a deficiency will not be detected by the APTT test. Factors X, V, and II are all factors in the common pathway. Deficiencies in any of these will affect both the APTT and the PT test results.
All of the following are types of epithelial cells that line the genitourinary system EXCEPT: Squamous Cuboidal Transitional Flattened cells
Flattened cells
In the evaluation of a positive DAT result, all of the below techniques can be used to dissociate the antibody(ies) form the RBCs EXCEPT: EDTA-glycine Saline replacement Chloroquine diphosphate Murine monoclonal antibodies
Saline replacement
The bioavailability of an oral drug refers to the:
Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into the systemic circulation
Which of the following is a correct pairing of cell type in the image and a disease state associated with that type of cell? All cells are from a Wright stained peripheral blood smear. Frame A - acute lymphoblastic leukemia Frame B- polycythemia vera Frame C- primary myelofibrosis Frame D- infectious mononucleosis
Frame C- primary myelofibrosis
Each of the following hypothalamic hormones is correctly matched with the anterior pituitary hormone that it releases EXCEPT: TRH --> TSH GnRH --> LH and FSH CRH --> ACTH GHRH --> Oxytocin
GHRH --> Oxytocin
All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT Measles (rubeola) vaccine German measles (rubella) vaccine Mumps vaccine Polio vaccine
German measles (rubella) vaccine
Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
Glucuronyl transferase
A kidney graft would have the BEST chance of survival post-transplantation if it were: a. HLA non-identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (+), ABO identical. b. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (+), ABO identical. c. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO identical. d. HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO non-identical.
HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO identical. A graft which is matched based on HLA and ABO typing is ideal. The mixed lymphocyte culture, or MLC, should be negative also to prevent graft vs. host disease in transplant procedures.
An effective voluntary accreditation agency for a clinical laboratory has a role in all of the following areas EXCEPT: Reduce or eliminate billing errors whenever possible. Prevent criminal activities within the company. Help the laboratory during an investigation by the government. Hiring and dismissal of employees.
Hiring and dismissal of employees.
The chief purpose of performing a serologic crossmatch is to:
Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells
Which immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic shock?
IgE
A secondary immune response is generally associated with which of the following antibodies? IgG IgA IgM IgD
IgG
A patient presents with fatigue. The CBC results are as seen below: White blood cells (WBC) 5.7 x 10^9/L (4.0-10.0 x 10^9/L) Red blood cells (RBC) 4.0 x 10^12/L (4.2-5.9 x 10^12/L) Hemoglobin 12.9 g/dL (12-16 g/dL) Hematocrit 34% (37-48%) MCV 85 fL (80-100 fL) MCHC 38 g/dL (30-37 g/dL) Considering all of the above information and the cells indicated by the arrows that were observed on the peripheral smear, what is the probable mechanism for the anemia that the patient is experiencing? a. Increased destruction of red blood cells (RBCs) caused by an intracorpuscular abnormality b. Decreased production of RBCs c. Sudden blood loss d. Increased destruction of red blood cells (RBCs) caused by an extracorpuscular abnormality
Increased destruction of red blood cells (RBCs) caused by an intracorpuscular abnormality
A patient presents with an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin, normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal liver enzymes, and no bilirubin in the urine. This combination would suggest:
Increased rate of hemolysis. Unconjugated bilirubin is a byproduct of RBC breakdown or hemolysis. It would be expected to see an increase in unconjugated bilirubin when hemolysis is occurring at an increased rate. The liver enzymes would not remain at normal levels if there were a viral infection of the liver, chemical damage to the liver, or obstruction of bile ducts.
Enterobius vermicularis infection is acquired by:
Ingestion or inhalation of egg
A college student is treated in the hospital for suspected meningitis. Which cells should be identified in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report for the cytospin field that is shown?
Lymphocytes
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lymphocyte cytoplasmic granules? a. Lymphocytes never contain granules in the cytoplasm. b. Lymphocytes contain fine primary or non-specific granules in the cytoplasm. c. Lymphocytes contain large secondary or specific granules in the cytoplasm. d. Lymphocytes may contain a few azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm.
Lymphocytes may contain a few azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm.
The structure indicated by the arrow in this image, along with giant platelets (also present in the image), is characteristic of which of the following conditions? Chediak-Higashi anomaly Alder-Reilly anomaly May-Hegglin anomaly Infectious Mononucleosis
May-Hegglin anomaly
The presence of an increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood, as shown in this image, is an indication of which of the following conditions? Preleukemia Megaloblastic anemia Aplastic anemia Myeloproliferative disorder
Megaloblastic anemia
All of the following are granulocytes EXCEPT: Neutrophilic band Basophil Mott cell Mast cell
Mott cell
Creatinine excretion correlates best with which of the following parameters: Age Sex Muscle mass Bodyweight
Muscle mass
MacConkey agar without crystal violet is a culture medium useful in the presumptive identification of:
Mycobacterium fortuitum
The mutational status of Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) is most commonly used for the diagnosis of which of the following? Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) Myeloproliferative neoplasms Anemias due to nutritional deficiencies Hypoproliferative conditions
Myeloproliferative neoplasms
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is classified as which of the following? Nematode Trematode Filaria Cestode
Nematode
Which of the following organisms is an acid-fast aerobic actinomycete? Streptomyces spp. Nocardia spp. Actinomadura spp. Nocardiopsis spp.
Nocardia spp.
This antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is viewed using fluorescent microscopy, which pattern is this?
Nucleolar
Anticoagulant drugs which are direct thrombin inhibitors (such as argatroban and bivalirudin) can prolong which of the following clot based assay/s? Ecarin clotting time only (ECT) Activated thromboplastin time (aPTT) only PT and aPTT PT, aPTT and Ecarin clotting time
PT, aPTT and Ecarin clotting time
The adult fluke related to the 100 µm ovum, as illustrated in the image shown, most commonly inhabits the lung parenchyma. The ovum, as may be observed in a sputum specimen, has a smooth, slightly thickened shell with a prominent shouldered operculum as seen at the left lower end. A developing larva is observed within, retracting from the inner margin of the shell leaving a clear space. Infections with this fluke are endemic in the orient, in West Africa, in South and Central America and may be observed in patients elsewhere after travel to one of these regions. Humans become infected after ingestion of poorly cooked crab meat or crayfish contaminated with metacercariae. Intermittent chest pain, and cough with occasional spitting up of blood (hemoptysis) may be experienced after infection. From the choices below, select the trematode species related to this ovum. Clonorchis sinensis Fasciola hepatica Fasciolopsis buski Paragonimus westermani
Paragonimus westermani
An 85-year-old female nursing home patient was treated empirically with a cephalosporin for a urinary tract infection, but later failed therapy. The physician then requested a culture and sensitivity on a new urine specimen which grew >100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli. After reviewing the Kirby-Bauer disc susceptibility plate and susceptibility interpretations, what is the resistance mechanism (if any) for this organism? Plasmid-mediated AmpC CRE - Carbapenem Resistant Enterobacteriaceae ESBL - Extended-Spectrum Beta Lactamase No resistance mechanism detected
Plasmid-mediated AmpC Cefoxitin and all the first, second, and third generation cephalosporins are resistant with the exception of Cefepime. Ertapenem and Imipenem are both susceptible. Aztreonam is intermediate. This resistance pattern is indicative of a plasmid-mediated AmpC. AmpC is a cephalosporinase that hydrolyzes all beta lactam antibiotics except Cefepime and the carbapenems. AmpCs are also not inhibited by clavulanate.
Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias? Rouleaux Positive DAT Splenomegaly Increased erythrocyte count
Positive DAT
All of the following fungi are considered to cause major opportunistic infections in humans, EXCEPT? Aspergillus fumigatus Mucor species Scopulariopsis species Candida albicans
Scopulariopsis species Scopulariopsis species is correct by exclusion. It is most commonly isolated from nail specimens and has been implicated in pulmonary infections, but it is not a common opportunistic pathogen. It is commonly found in the environment all around the world.
If a TSI agar slant shows a neutral or slightly alkaline slant, acid butt, no/gas production, and no H2S production, the organism might be: Salmonella typhi Proteus vulgaris Shigella dysenteriae Proteus mirabilis
Shigella dysenteriae Shigella dysenteriae are lactose negative organisms, but ferment glucose. Therefore, they produce an alkaline slant with an acid butt on the TSI agar slant. They also do not produce H2S.
What is the anticoagulant most commonly used for routine coagulation testing?
Sodium citrate
A WBC differential count on CSF should be performed using the following technique:
Stained smear of a cytocentrifuged specimen
A mother's serologic results are shown above. Her newborn types as group A Rh positive with a (1+) positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST? (The 3 cell antibody screen was negative and check cells were 2+) a. Test an eluate prepared from newborn's red cells against an antibody identification panel by IAT. b. Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT. c. Test newborn's plasma against mother's red cells by IAT. d. Test newborn's plasma against father's red cells by IAT.
Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT.
The measurement of 17-ketosteroids (17-KSs) in urine is performed to assess PRIMARILY which organ(s)?
Testes and adrenal cortex
What would be considered a common characteristic of anti-Jka and anti-Jkb? The immunoglobulin class is IgM. Agglutination reactions are best observed by DAT. The antibodies show dosage with Kidd antigens on red cells. The antibodies are naturally occurring.
The antibodies show dosage with Kidd antigens on red cells.
After irradiating a unit of packed red blood cells, how is the expiration date affected?
The expiration date shortens to 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original expiration date, whichever is first.
Assume you perform microbiology for an institution submitting surveillance cultures for MRSA. Which isolate should receive further workup to rule out methicillin (oxacillin) resistance? a. On Baird Parker agar, a gray brownish colony with no clear zone. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive. b. Black colonies on Chromagar. Catalase-positive, Gram-positive cocci in clusters. c. Yellow colonies on Mannitol Salt agar; catalase-positive, coagulase-positive. d. Clear colonies on Mannitol Salt agar; catalase-positive, coagulase-negative.
Yellow colonies on Mannitol Salt agar; catalase-positive, coagulase-positive. On Mannitol Salt agar, S. aureus produces a yellow colony; S. aureus is catalase and coagulase positive. Thus, this isolate should be tested for MRSA.
Note the view of a peripheral blood smear in the photograph. Pictured are scattered acanthocytes, echinocytes, target cells, spherocytes, schistocytes and a Howell-Jolly Body. The condition in which each of these atypical RBC's may be found in the same patient's peripheral blood smear is: Hemolytic anemia Postsplenectomy syndrome Disseminated intravascular coagulation Thalassemia minor
Postsplenectomy syndrome
A patient is experiencing prolonged bleeding following a transfusion. The complete blood count indicates that the patient's platelet count has decreased following the transfusion. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
Posttransfusion purpura
What accelerates the rate of lipase activity in the body?
Presence of bile salt
Upon centrifugation, a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample supernatant exhibited xanthochromia. The image is a Wright-Giemsa stained smear that was made from that CSF sample. What condition is probably related to these macroscopic and microscopic findings?
Previous subarachnoid hemorrhage
Which condition is caused by the increased Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1) and fibrinogen often present in metabolic syndrome? Hyperglycemia Proinflammatory state Prothrombotic state Atherogenic dyslipidemia
Prothrombotic state A prothrombotic state, sometimes referred to as hypercoagulability or thrombophilia, refers to an increase in blood coagulation that can lead to thrombosis. PAI-1 and fibrinogen are proteins that are often increased in metabolic syndromes. Increased levels can lead to an increased risk of thrombus formation.
Although not endemic in the United States, travelers and hunters in regions of East and Central Africa may acquire this blood infection from the bite of a tsetse fly. Intermittent fever, headache, joint and muscle pains may be experienced. In chronic cases, central nervous system symptoms such as mental retardation, tremors, and slow gait may lead to somnolence and "sleeping sickness." The invasive curved trypanosomes, as shown in the image of a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, average 20 µm in length. What is the presumptive species identification of the hemo-flagellate related to this infection? Brugia malayi Trypanosoma rhodesiense Leishmania donovani Trypanosoma cruz
Trypanosoma rhodesiense
Sequence-based analysis is an alternate method used to identify bacteria and fungal isolates. This methodology uses rRNA genes (rDNA) and their intergenic regions as common target sites to identify these organisms. Which of the following rRNA gene target sites is used to identify fungal isolates? 16S rRNA 28S rRNA 25S rRNA 14S rRNA
28S rRNA
In a closed system, thawed FFP and PF24 blood components may be labeled as "Thawed Plasma" 24 hours after the original thaw time and given a shelf life of?
5 days
If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients? Anti-M Anti-N Anti-Leb Anti-Fya
Anti-Leb
Which of the following procedures should be followed when storing supplies or reagents that do not have a manufacturer-assigned expiration date? A. It doesn't matter how they are stored because there is no assigned expiration date. B. Mark each container of supply or reagent with the date of receipt before putting it into the storage area. C. Store supplies in a manner that ensures the oldest will be used first. D. Store supplies in a manner that ensures the newest will be used first.
C. Store supplies in a manner that ensures the oldest will be used first.
In DNA sequencing, multiple fluorescence labeled nucleotides are commonly separated using what type of test?
Capillary electrophoresis (CE) Capillary electrophoresis is used in DNA sequencing and several other molecular diagnostic procedures to separate amplified products.
The purpose of C3a and C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to:
Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils.
The Philadelphia chromosome is consistently associated with which of the following blood disorders? Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
What are fires called that involve combustible materials such as paper, wood, or cloth?
Class A
Which of the following is the bacterial agent associated with antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis? Campylobacter jejunii Clostridium difficile Shigella dysenteriae Bacillus cereus
Clostridium difficile
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be associated with gas gangrene: Clostridioides difficile Pseudomonas aeruginosa Clostridium perfringens Escherichia coli
Clostridium perfringens
Which of the following fungal infections is endemic in the Southwestern United States desert regions?
Coccidioidomycosis
Thymic hypoplasia is a/an: Congenital T-cell disorder Congenital B-cell disorder Acquired T-cell disorder Acquired B-cell disorder
Congenital T-cell disorder
Which of the following blood components contains the most factor VIII concentration relative to the unit volume? Whole Blood Cryoprecipitated AHF Fresh Frozen Plasma Platelet Concentrate
Cryoprecipitated AHF
The measurement of sodium and chloride in the sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease?
Cystic fibrosis
Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:
Cystine crystals
The crystals seen in these images are:
Cystine crystals
Each of the following organisms may possess extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) activity except: Escherichia coli Klebsiella oxytoca Proteus mirabilis Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not tested for ESBL production. The organism is typically resistant to ampicillin, cefazolin, and other first and second generations cephalosporins
Which of the following tests require a 72-hour stool (fecal) collection? Occult blood Quantitative fecal fat Ova and Parasite (O&P) Stool culture
Quantitative fecal fat
What would be the next step when an EDTA specimen had an automated platelet count of 61,000/mm3 and the platelets were surrounding the neutrophils on the differential?
Recollect a specimen for a platelet count without using EDTA
