Mock ARRT Exam #1

What does the term asepsis mean? A. Free from infection B. Unsterile C. Clean D. Spread of disease

A ("A" means without and "sepsis" means infection. Infection is defined as the establishment and growth of a microorganism in or on a host.)

Which of the following devices is designed to attenuate all secondary radiation originating under the table during fluoroscopy? A. Bucky slot cover B. Leaded screen drapes C. Deadman switch D. Fluoroscopy tower

A (A Bucky slot cover has .025 mm lead equivalent and will automatically cover the Bucky slot opening during fluoroscopy when the Bucky tray is positioned at the foot end of the fluoroscopic table.)

The Congressional Federal Register (21 CFR) requires the exposure switch for a fluoroscopic unit must be a deadman type. What does a deadman switch require? A. Continuous pressure B. Remote control C. Voice activation D. Automatic Exposure Control (AEC)

A (A deadman switch requires continuous pressure and would terminate the exposure if the operator dropped dead)

Which of the following types of fractures would most often be seen in children? A. Greenstick B. Compound C. Compression D. Impacted

A (A greenstick fracture is a break on only one side of the bone. It is a result of the pliability of the young person's bone, they break like a young green branch would break.)

Which of the following is a graphical representation of the numerical values that make up a digital image? A. Histogram B. Bar graph C. Scatter graph D. Pictograph

A (A histogram plots the numerical values and how frequently they occur.)

Which of the digital imaging systems uses a laser to read the image data? A. Computed radiography B. Direct digital image receptors C. Indirect digital image receptors D. Charge-coupled devices

A (A laser releases the stored energy as visible light. The intensity of the light is read and converted to electrical data.)

Which of the following would relate to a film-screen radiograph having low contrast? 1. Long scale 2. Many shades of gray 3. Low kVp A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

A (A low contrast radiograph is one that has very little difference in densities between adjacent areas. It can also be described as one having a long scale of contrast. It is produced with high kVp not low kVp.)

When using automatic exposure control (AEC), an increase in kVp will have what effect on the radiograph? A. Shorter exposure time B. Higher contrast C. Lower exposure D. Higher exposure

A (AEC's are designed to maintain the same exposure no matter what exposure factors are used. However, increasing kVp will shorten the exposure time)

A patient that develops hives after the injection of a contrast medium may be given which type of drug? A. Antihistamine B. Antibiotic C. Analgesic D. Anti-inflammatory

A (Antihistamines are drugs that are used to treat allergic reactions.)

The field positioning light and the actual radiation field CANNOT vary by more than what percentage of the SID? A. 2% B. 5% C. 10% D. 20%

A (At a 40" SID, the light and field must be within .8".)

What is the most proximal end of the fibula called? A. Apex B. Head C. Neck D. Lateral malleolus

A (At the proximal end of the fibula is a projection called the apex.)

According to the American Heart Association's guidelines, what is the correct order for administering basic life support (CPR)? A. Circulation, airway, breathing B. Airway, circulation, breathing C. Breathing, circulation, airway D. Airway, breathing, circulation

A (By changing the sequence, compressions will be initiated sooner and starting with compressions may encourage more bystanders to begin CPR.)

For a lateral view of the 2nd digit, the hand should rest on which surface? A. Lateral B. Medial C. Palmar D. Dorsal

A (By resting the hand on the lateral surface, the 2nd digit (index finger) will be close to the film allowing for better recorded detail)

Which of the following would NOT be considered a type of transmission-based precaution? A. AIDS B. Contact C. Airborne D. Droplet .

A (Contact isolation prevents the spread of diseases like staphylococcus, airborne isolation prevents the spread of airborne diseases like tuberculosis, and droplet precautions prevents the spread of diseases like influenza)

What is the greatest advantage of digital imaging? A. Contrast resolution B. Spatial resolution C. Decreased exposure D. Less distortion

A (Digital imaging's exceptional ability to differentiate between the slight differences in subject contrast is its greatest advantage. Spatial resolution is its greatest disadvantage.)

To demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus, which of the following would be correct? A. Supinate the hand B. Internally rotate the arm C. Abduct the arm D. Flex the elbow

A (In order to demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus the hand has to be supinated (arm externally rotated). This puts the greater tubercle in profile laterally.)

Who is the person responsible for the evaluation and maintenance of cumulative dose records? A. Radiation safety officer B. Radiology department manager C. Chief radiologist D. Chief technologist

A (It is recommended that the radiation safety officer be a medical physicist.)

After a barium enema, you notice that the sheets have fecal material and blood on them. What should be done with the sheets? A. Place them in a leak proof linen bag B. Place them in a red biohazardous bag C. Place them in a red bag and then put them in a leak-proof linen bag D. Double bag them

A (Linen bags must be leak-proof. Also, all linen is considered contaminated. Therefore, simply place the sheets in the linen hamper as you would with any other sheet. The laundry will handle them properly.)

Automatic rescaling means the values of interest that were determined by the histogram are used to produce digital images with the proper: A. brightness. B. contrast. C. spatial resolution. D. size and shape.

A (Look-up tables are used to produce the proper contrast.)

If the SID is 40" and the OID is 8", what is the magnification factor? A. 1.25 B. 1.55 C. 5.00 D. 5.25

A (Magnification factor = SID/SOD. SOD (source-to-object distance) = SID - OID. In this example, 40" SID - 8" OID = 32" SOD; 40" SID / 32" SOD = 1.25.)

To help the technologist determine if the proper exposure was used, an exposure indicator number is generated from the histogram. What is the proper exposure for a photostimulable phosphor plate? A. 1 mR B. 2 mR C. 4 mR D. 8 mR

A (Photostimulable phosphor plates require 1 mR of exposure to produce an optimum quality image.)

When comparing the two knee radiographs, radiograph "A" exhibits: A. overexposure. B. overpenetration. C. underexposure. D. underpenetration.

A (Radiograph "A" would be too dark (overexposed) to be an acceptable radiograph.)

Failure to collimate accurately while using AEC may result in a radiograph that is: A. underexposed. B. overexposed. C. lacking recorded detail. D. magnified. .

A (Scatter radiation from outside the area of interest can reach the ionization chamber, causing the exposure to be stopped prematurely)

There are two general types of cells in the human body. What are they? A. Somatic and genetic B. Mitotic and somatic C. Mitotic and genetic D. Ionic and prolific

A (Somatic cells are all non-reproductive cells. Genetic cells refer to the reproductive cells.)

After a myelogram, the patient may be taken to _______ for additional studies while the contrast is still in the subarachnoid space. A. CT B. MRI C. Sonography D. Nuclear medicine

A (The contrast agent would help show anatomy on a CT, it would interfere with the other modalities.)

Which of the following should be checked daily to make sure that the automatic film processor is properly processing films? A. Developer temperature B. Replenishment rates C. Transport speed D. Solution filters

A (The developer temperature should be checked at least once a day to make sure the films are being developed properly. Temperatures that are too high will cause the radiographs to be too dark and vice versa.)

The first ribs form a joint with which of the following? A. Manubrium B. Body of sternum C. Xiphoid process D. Clavicle

A (The first pair of ribs form the first sternocostal joint.)

When does major organogenesis occur in the developing fetus? A. 2 - 8 weeks after conception B. 10 - 12 weeks after conception C. 15 - 20 weeks after conception D. 24 - 36 weeks after conception

A (The incidence of congenital abnormalities are more frequent during this period of organ development.)

Which of the following would increase the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)? A. Increase x-ray intensity B. Increase scatter radiation C. Increase electronic noise D. Increase background noise

A (The intensity of the x-ray beam represents the signal. Anything that does not contribute to the image is considered noise. Increasing the number of x rays will increase the SNR.)

Which of the following contributes significantly to the exposure of the diagnostic radiographer. A. Compton scatter photons B. Photoelectrons C. Primary photons D. Secondary photons

A (The major source of exposure to the radiographer is the scatter radiation from the patient. Proper collimation, not holding patients and wearing lead aprons and gloves will reduce the exposure to personnel.)

While wearing a lead apron, where should the radiation monitor be worn? A. On the collar, outside the apron B. At the waist, outside the apron C. At the waist, under the apron D. On the wrist

A (The radiation monitor may be worn at chest level or waist level if the technologist is not wearing a lead apron. Otherwise, it must be worn on the collar, outside the apron.)

For a lateral position of the L5-S1 junction, the central ray enters on the midcoronal plane at a point: A. 1 1/2" inferior to the iliac crest. B. 2 1/2" superior to the iliac crest. C. 3 1/2" inferior to the iliac crest. D. directly on the iliac crest.

A (This position shows the L4-L5 and L5-S1 joint spaces.)

The latent image in a CR imaging plate is formed by which of the following? A. Trapped electrons B. Charged capacitors C. Photostimulable luminescence D. Electrical resistance

A (When a CR imaging plate is exposed to x rays, electrons are trapped in a higher energy state forming the latent image)

The unit of radiation exposure, the roentgen, applies to which of the following radiations? A. X ray and gamma ray B. X ray and beta C. Alpha and beta D. Alpha, beta and gamma

A (X and gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation and have the same unit of exposure. Exposure is a measure of the ionization caused by the absorption of these rays in a specified mass of air.)

What is the maximum amount of leakage radiation that can escape from an x-ray tube? A. 100 mR/hr/meter B. 200 mR/hr/meter C. 300 mR/hr/meter D. 400 mR/hr/meter

A (X rays other than the primary beam are called leakage radiation. They would pass through areas of the x-ray tube other than the window. Leakage radiation is harmful to the patient and the radiographer.)

How should x-ray film be stored? A. On edge in a cool, dry room B. Lying flat in a cool, dry room C. On edge in a warm, humid room D. On edge in a cool, humid room

A (X-ray film should be stored in a room that is between 50 - 70 degrees Fahrenheit and 40 - 60% relative humidity. The boxes must be stored on one of their edges to prevent pressure artifacts.)

To achieve a three second breathing technique, what mA station is needed to produce 75 mAs? A. 25 mA B. 50 mA C. 200 mA D. 225 mA

A (mA = mAs divided by time. mA = 75 mAs/3 secs. = 25 mA.)

What is the name of the most distal part of the stomach? A. Cardiac orifice B. Pylorus C. Body D. Fundus

B (>From proximal to distal - cardiac orifice, fundus, body, and pylorus.)

For the oblique position, the foot should be rotated how many degrees medially? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

B (A 30 degree medial oblique will best visualize the joints between the tarsal bones and keep the metatarsals from superimposing.)

Which of the following projections of the elbow best demonstrates elevated fat pads? A. AP B. Lateral C. AP oblique projection, medial rotation D. AP oblique projection, lateral rotation

B (A 90 degree flexion of the elbow is necessary because partial flexion simulates fat pad pathology)

A lateral projection of the thoracic spine requires a breathing technique of at least how many seconds? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

B (A minimum of 3 seconds and preferably 5 seconds.

Which of the following is an acceptable means for receiving a request to perform an examination? 1. Verbal request over the phone from the physician's office 2. Written request from the physician's office 3. Verbal request from the patient A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

B (A verbal request over the phone is acceptable, but it should be followed up with a written request sent by fax.)

AP weight bearing knees are ordered to demonstrate which of the following pathologies? A. Tibial plateau fracture B. Arthritis C. Edema D. Torn meniscus

B (AP weight bearing knees demonstrates narrowing of the knee joint that would appear normal on non-weight bearing knees.)

What is the device called that regulates the amount of IV fluid given to a patient and the time of infusion? A. Intravenous meter B. Infusion pump C. Ventilator D. Fluidmanometer

B (An infusion pump regulates the flow rate of the fluid electronically.)

Foreshortening of a radiographic image is the result of which of the following? A. Angling the radiographic tube B. Angling the anatomical part C. Aligning the tube-part-image receptor D. Increasing the OID

B (Angling the anatomical part while the tube and image receptor are perpendicular will cause the part to look shorter.)

In order to demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in an AP open mouth projection, which of the following must be done? A. Adjust head so the atlas and axis are superimposed B. Adjust head so the lower margin of the upper incisors and the mastoid tips are superimposed C. Rotate the head 45 degrees D. Extend the chin until the mentomeatal line is perpendicular to the cassette

B (Another way of saying this is to have the occlusal plane and the base of the skull superimposed.)

Beam restriction will affect which of the following radiographic qualities? A. Brightness B. Contrast C. Recorded detail D. Distortion

B (As the size of the x-ray beam is restricted, less scatter radiation will be produced. This will cause the contrast to be higher (shorter scale)

What is it called when part of a patient's bronchial tree is blocked, causing a partial collapse? A. Pneumothorax B. Atelectasis C. Hemothorax D. Pleural effusion

B (Atelectasis is a collapsed or airless condition of the lung which may be caused by obstruction of the airway.)

Which of the following should be done to reduce OID on a PA projection of the wrist? A. Increase SID B. Flex fingers slightly C. Elevate elbow D. Extend thumb upward

B (By slightly flexing the fingers the wrist and carpal area is brought closer to the image receptor.)

A patient suddenly has difficulty breathing, what is the first thing a radiographer must do? A. Lie the patient supine B. Call for help C. Administer oxygen D. Begin CPR

B (Difficulty breathing could be anything from chocking to a pulmonary embolus. The radiographer must react quickly.)

What is the greatest disadvantage of digital imaging? A. Contrast resolution B. Spatial resolution C. Decreased exposure D. Less distortion

B (Digital imaging's inability to record small objects is its greatest disadvantage. 5 line pairs per millimeter is the maximum spatial resolution a digital image receptor can record. A medical monitor can only display about 3 line pairs per millimeter.)

Cycles per second or hertz is the unit of measurement for which of the following? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Velocity D. Wavelength

B (Frequency is the number of wavelengths that pass a fixed point per unit time.)

Seven pairs of ribs are visualized in the right lung field of an infant AP chest radiograph. Which of the following would be necessary to improve this radiograph? A. Increase kVp to see the ribs below the diaphragm B. Catch infant on inspiration to visualize ten ribs in the right lung field C. Use a grid to absorb scatter radiation D. Pinch the infant to make it cry .

B (Full inspiration, demonstrating ten posterior ribs, will visualize the entire lung and elongation of the heart)

Which of the following will cause visible grid lines on a radiograph that was exposed in a Bucky device? A. Backup time set too long B. Bucky device not selected C. Wrong ionization chamber selected D. Poor patient positioning

B (If the Bucky device is not selected then it will not blur out the grid lines, making them visible.)

To prevent shape distortion which of the two elements must be parallel? A. The object and the CR B. The object and the image receptor C. The CR and the image receptor D. The CR and the object

B (If the object and the image receptor are not parallel, some form of shape distortion will be present in the digital image.)

Which of the following situations has the greatest potential for a radiographer to be exposed to primary radiation? A. Assisting during fluoroscopy B. Holding patients C. Portable (mobile) radiography D. Operating a C-arm

B (If you must hold a patient, make sure none of the collimator light is projected on your body. That is where the primary x-ray beam will strike.)

When imaging an average patient, DO NOT use over _______ kVp when using iodinated contrast media. A. 50 B. 70 C. 90 D. 99

B (Iodinated (containing iodine) contrast media is not dense enough to absorb x rays with energies over 70 keV.)

A CT scanogram can be used for which of the following purposes? A. Bone survey B. Long bone measurement C. Bone age D. Soft tissue neck

B (It has been determined that CT scanograms are more accurate and use less radiation than conventional radiographs to measure long bones.)

Which of the following positions/projections will produce the least exposure to the breasts during a scoliosis (thoracolumbar spine) radiographic series? A. AP B. PA C. RPO D. Lateral

B (It is especially important for young females, who have scoliosis radiographs on a regular basis, that the breasts are shielded and the position is PA rather than AP. This prevents the breasts from being exposed to primary radiation.)

Digital imaging requires higher frequency grids to prevent the Moire effect. This makes the grid less efficient, therefore, the grid ratio is increased to compensate. How does this high frequency, high ratio grid affect patient exposure? A. Patient exposure is decreased B. Patient exposure is increased C. Patient exposure remains the same D. The use of grids have no effect on patient exposure

B (It is not unusual to see 8:1 and 10:1 ratio grids used for portables and 13:1 and 16:1 grids used in stationary devices.)

Which of the following types of primary radiation CANNOT be produced at tube potentials less than 70 keV? A. Bremsstrahlung B. Characteristic C. Primary D. Secondary

B (It requires 70 keV to dislodge a K shell electron from the tungsten atom. When the K shell electron is removed another electron will drop into its vacancy, releasing characteristic radiation.)

Which of the following refers to the kinetic energy released in matter? A. Exposure rate B. Kerma C. Bremsstrahlung D. Kines

B (Kerma is an acronym for Kinetic Energy Released in Matter.)

Which of the following long-term effects to ionizing radiation is considered the most common? A. Cataracts B. Leukemia C. Myocardial infarction D. Life span shortening

B (Leukemia is an unrestrained growth of leukocytes (white blood cells). Since leukocytes are radiosensitive, leukemia developed in A-bomb survivors, radiation therapy patients, American radiologists, and children irradiated in utero.)

In a DR system, an analog-to-digital converter (ADC) converts _______ into _______. A. light; numbers B. an electric signal, numbers C. an electric signal, light D. light, an electric signal

B (Light or an electric signal is analog, but digital always refers to numbers.)

The brightness gained by an image intensification tube is the product of which of the following? A. Minification gain times tube distance B. Minification gain times flux gain C. Flux gain times mA D. mA times kVp times tube-to-table distance

B (Minification gain is a result of the focusing of the electron beam to a smaller output phosphor. Flux gain is the result of accelerating the electron beam through a series of electrostatic lens. Multiply the two together to get the brightness gained.)

Fluoroscopy produces a considerable amount of exposure to the patient as well as the personnel, that is why the NCRP requires that fluoroscopic units CANNOT exceed how many R/minute? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

B (Most fluoroscopic equipment is set up to deliver 2R/mA/minute. They usually operate between 3 - 5 mA.)

Which of the following radiographic procedures would require nonionic contrast media as opposed to ionic contrast media? A. Intravenous urography B. Myelography C. Sialography D. Venography

B (Most procedures you have the option of using ionic or nonionic contrast media. Myelography should only be done with nonionic.)

A patient restraint: 1. is typically in use before the patient arrives at the radiology department. 2. would include using tape to help a child stay still during a hand study. 3. might include a vest with straps that are tied to a stretcher. A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

B (Patient restraints, used to protect the patient, are usually in place when the patient arrives in the department and may include wrist or ankle bands or a vest with straps.)

The distance between the centers of two adjacent pixels is known as: A. fill factor. B. pixel pitch. C. spatial resolution. D. line pair.

B (Pixel pitch and pixel size are usually equal. They are used to determine the spatial resolution which is measured in line pairs per millimeter.)

While using a C-arm, fluoroscopic unit, which of the following will reduce radiation exposure to the patient the most? A. Placing the x-ray tube as close to the patient as possible B. Placing the image intensification tube as close to the patient as possible C. Placing the patient mid-way between the x-ray tube and the image intensification tube D. Increase fluoroscopic mA

B (Placing the image intensification tube close to the patient means the x-ray tube will be further from the patient when using a C-arm. Therefore, less leakage radiation exposure.)

Which of the following describes the term projection? A. Patient position B. Path of the x-ray beam C. Radiographic view D. Body habitus type

B (Projection is a positioning term that describes the path of the x-ray beam as it passes through the patient. An AP projection means the x-ray beam is passing through the patient from anterior to posterior.)

Which of the following refers to the quality of the x-ray beam? A. The number of x rays B. The energy of the x-ray beam C. The exposure rate D. The ability to ionize

B (Quality refers to the energy of the x-ray beam and quantity refers to the number of x rays in the beam)

If a digital imaging system can record 10 lines per millimeter, what is its spatial resolution? A. 1 lp/mm B. 5 lp/mm C. 10 lp/mm D. 20 lp/mm

B (Spatial resolution is measured in line pairs per millimeter (lp/mm). It takes two lines to make a pair, therefore, 10 divided by 2 = 5 lp/mm.)

For an AP projection of the sacrum, how is the CR directed? A. 10 degrees caudad B. 15 degrees cephalad C. 20 degrees caudad D. 25 degrees cephalad

B (The CR is angled 15 degrees cephalad to enter at a point 2" superior to the symphysis pubis)

An AP projection of the pelvis requires the patient to be supine, the CR perpendicular, and entering a point: A. midway between the crests of the ilium. B. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis. C. parallel to the sacroiliac joints. D. at the level of the sacral foramina.

B (The CR should enter midway between the level of the ASIS and symphysis pubis, or 2" superior to the symphysis pubis.)

Which of the following will best demonstrate the right sternoclavicular joint? A. 10 - 15 degree LAO B. 10 - 15 degree RAO C. 20 - 25 degree LAO D. 20 - 25 degree RAO

B (The RAO will best demonstrate the right or downside sternoclavicular joint.)

Fuji's cassette-based system uses a sensitivity (S) number to determine if the proper exposure was received by the imaging plate. If 200 is the ideal number, what number would indicate the plate was exposed to twice the necessary radiation? A. 50 B. 100 C. 200 D. 400

B (The S number is determined by dividing 200 by the exposure. The ideal exposure is 1 mR, hence the reason why a S number of 200 is ideal. Twice the exposure (2 mR) would yield an S number of 100. 200/2=100.)

Which of the following is the name for the socket which holds the head of the femur? A. Glenoid fossa B. Acetabulum C. Mandibular fossa D. Olecrannon

B (The acetabulum is made up of the ischium, the ilium, and the pubic bone.)

How would the digit "0" of a CR or DR digital image appear on a monitor? A. Black pixel B. White pixel C. Gray pixel D. Dull pixel

B (The digit "0" would allow all of the backlight to pass through the pixel.)

What is the area of the tungsten target called where the high speed electrons strike the surface? A. Effective focal spot B. Actual focal spot C. Melting point D. Target angle

B (The electron stream bombards a limited area on the target called the focus or actual focal spot.)

What is the filtration called that is manufactured into the x-ray tube and tube housing? A. Added filtration B. Inherent filtration C. Compensating filtration D. Radiation filtration

B (The filtration that is built into the system is called inherent. Added filtration can be removed and compensating filters allow for uneven anatomical structures.)

How will the use of radiographic grids affect the contrast of a radiograph? A. Produce lower contrast B. Produce higher contrast C. Eliminate contrast D. Have no effect on contrast

B (The higher the grid ratio, the more scatter radiation is absorbed. This causes the unexposed areas on the radiograph to be whiter, producing a greater difference between white and black which is a higher contrast.)

Which of the following refers to the movement of the imaging plate as it is being read by the laser? A. Fast scan B. Slow scan C. Direction D. Sliding

B (The imaging plate slowly moves through the reader as it is being rapidly scanned by the laser.)

Which of the controls on the control panel adjusts the autotransformer? A. mA control B. kVp control C. Focal spot control D. Automatic exposure control (AEC)

B (The kVp control is used to vary the voltage that leaves the autotransformer and is supplied to the step-up transformer.)

In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts? A. Medial cuneiform B. Lateral cuneiform C. Cuboid D. Navicular

B (The lateral cuneiform articulates with the third metatarsal.)

What is the rounded process on the proximal, lateral aspect of the femur called? A. Lateral epicondyle B. Greater trochanter C. Medial tubercle D. Femoral tuberosity

B (The lesser trochanter is located on the proximal, medial aspect of the femur.)

Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system? A. Gallbladder B. Spleen C. Pancreas D. Liver

B (The main function of the spleen is to store blood.)

Where should the central ray be directed for an AP projection of the knee joint? A. 1 cm proximal to the base of the patella B. 1 cm distal to the apex of the patella C. 1 cm distal to the base of the patella D. Parallel to patellar surface

B (The patella is triangular shaped with the apex more inferior than the base)

A patient in the first stages of shock would display which of the following symptoms? A. Rapid and shallow respirations, falling blood pressure, unconsciousness B. Increased respirations, anxiety levels increase, skin is cold and clammy C. Blood pressure falls, tachycardia D. Renal failure, chest pain

B (The radiographer must recognize these early symptoms and call for help before the situation progresses and symptoms as in A, C and D above occur.)

Dr. Johnson is your favorite radiologist, so you decided to go to his office to say hello. While there, he explains that the hospital administrator is a patient in ICU. He asks you to log into the computer system so he can check the medical records and the health status of the administrator. Which of the following is the appropriate response? A. You quickly type in your password so Dr. Johnson can look at the administrator's medical records. B. You explain to Dr. Johnson that you cannot do that because you could get in trouble for breaching the patient's rights to privacy. C. You check with the department manager to see if it is all right to use your password to login for Dr. Johnson. D. You inform Dr. Johnson that you just did a portable chest exam on the administrator and he was just put on life support.

B (The radiographer must respect the patient's right to privacy under all circumstances. Do not ask the department manager, he/she will tell you no. Typing in your password and letting Dr. Johnson read the medical records could get you fired.)

To best demonstrate the body of the mandible in an axiolateral projection, the head must be placed in which of the following positions? A. True lateral B. 30 degree rotation toward the affected side C. 45 degree rotation toward the affected side D. 60 degree rotation toward the affected side

B (The ramus of the mandible is best demonstrated with a true lateral and the mentum is best demonstrated with a 45 degree rotation toward the affected side.)

How many times must the primary beam scatter before reaching the radiographer behind the control booth? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B (The reason control booths are "L" shaped is to make sure the x rays scatter twice before reaching the radiographer.)

Which of the following sets of exposure factors will produce the greatest radiation exposure to the patient? A. 100 mA, .1 second, 70 kVp, 40" SID B. 200 mA, .2 second, 80 kVp, 30" SID C. 100 mA, .2 second, 70 kVp, 40" SID D. 200 mA, .1 second, 80 kVp, 30" SID

B (This technique uses the highest mAs (40), highest kVp (80), and the shortest SID (30).)

Which of the following is the most effective means of protection from ionizing radiation available to the radiographer? A. Spend as little time as possible near a source of radiation B. Get as far as possible from a source of radiation C. Use protective shielding when near a source of radiation D. Never stand in the primary beam

B (Time, distance and shielding are the basic methods of radiation protection. Distance is considered the best method of reducing radiation exposure.)

When manipulating a digital image, what does changing the window width do? A. Changes the brightness of the image B. Changes the contrast of the image C. Changes the resolution of the image D. Changes the size of the image

B (Widening the window width lowers the contrast.)

Primary radiation can be produced by which of the following methods when electrons interact with the anode (target)? 1. Bremsstrahlung 2. Characteristic 3. Compton A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

B (X rays are produced by one of two methods (bremsstrahlung, characteristic) when electrons interact with the anode (target).)

Which of the following affect the attenuation of the x-ray beam? 1. Thickness of body part (density) 2. Type of tissue (atomic number) 3. Speed of the photon A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

B (X-ray photons all travel at the speed of light. However, an x-ray's frequency and wavelength would affect its attenuation.)

Which of the following positions/projections would be preferred if the patient had left posterior rib trauma? A. RPO and AP B. LPO and AP C. RAO and PA D. LAO and PA

B (You always want to place the area of interest closest to the image receptor, in this case the LPO position and AP projection would place the left posterior ribs closest to the image receptor.)

What is the process of "boiling off" electrons called? A. Space charge production B. Electron emission C. Thermionic emission D. Heat production

C ("Boiling off" may be a simplistic term, but basically, that is what happens during thermionic emission.)

Which of the following oblique positions is preferred to demonstrate the sternum? A. RPO B. LPO C. RAO D. LAO

C (A 15 - 20 degree RAO is preferred because it projects the sternum over a homogenous heart shadow. The secret to obtaining a good sternum view is using low kVp, 60 kVp range!)

Which of the following positions/projections best demonstrates the esophagus filled with barium? A. AP B. LAO C. RAO D. Right lateral decubitus

C (A 35 degree RAO projects the esophagus between the heart and the vertebral column.)

Which of the following are best demonstrated in the oblique position of the lumbar spine? A. Intervertebral foramina B. Spinous processes C. Zygapophyseal joints D. Pedicals

C (A 45 degree oblique will demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints.)

Many contrast media procedures require fasting and laxatives, which of the following patient types should be done first? A. Children B. Adults C. Debilitated patient D. Diabetic patient

C (A debilitated patient is one who is weak or feeble and should not be kept NPO any longer than necessary. The elderly and debilitated patients should always be scheduled first, followed by diabetic patients, children and adults.)

Which of the following documents express a patient's choices about his/her future care? A. Patient's Bill of Rights B. Standards of Ethics C. Living Will D. Informed Consent

C (A living will expresses a patient's desire as to how he/she will be cared for if he/she is unable to communicate those desires.)

If a child must be restrained for a radiographic examination, who should be asked to assist the radiographer? A. An attendant B. Another radiographer C. A parent D. A student radiographer

C (A parent may have success in calming and disciplining the child.)

Which of the following techniques will produce the greatest image receptor exposure? A. 100 mA, 50 ms, 80 kVp B. 200 mA, 50 ms, 70 kVp C. 300 mA, 30 ms, 80 kVp D. 400 mA, 25 ms, 70 kVp

C (A, B and D will produce equal exposures, however, C will produce about twice the exposure of the other three techniques. The highest mAs and the highest kVp will produce the greatest exposure)

This AP radiograph of the hip was done using automatic exposure control (AEC). What could have made it come out underexposed? A. mA set too low B. Small focal spot used C. Back-up time too short D. kVp too high

C (AEC is designed to reproduce a predetermined density. Changing mA, kVp and focal spot size should still produce the correct density. However, if the back-up time is too short, it will terminate the exposure before the ionization device does.)

Tissue is more sensitive to radiation when irradiated under which of the following conditions? A. Anoxic (without oxygen) B. Hypoxic (low oxygen) C. Aerobic (well oxygenated) D. Mature (middle age)

C (Additional oxygen creates additional free radicals which increases the damage to the tissue)

When an x-ray beam scatters, its intensity at 1 meter from the patient is what fraction of its original intensity? A. 1/10 B. 1/100 C. 1/1000 D. 1/10,000 exposure.

C (Always stand at right angles to the patient and x-ray beam to receive the minimum amount of radiation)

Non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast media: A. contains no iodine. B. produces no adverse reaction. C. does not dissolve into charged particles. D. is less expensive than ionic, water-soluble contrast media.

C (An ion is a charged atom or molecule, meaning it has either a negative or positive charge. An ion will react differently than neutral atoms or molecules, which may cause adverse chemical reactions. Nonionic contrast media does not dissociate and is therefore safer.)

Which of the following target materials increases the efficiency and energy of x-ray production? A. Molybdenum B. Rhodium C. Tungsten D. Xenon

C (As the atomic number of the target material increases, efficiency and energy increases. Molybdenum (Z=42), Rhodium (Z=45), Tungsten (Z=74). Xenon (Z=54) is not a target material.)

What is the function of contrast in a radiograph? A. Increase brightness B. Increase the sharpness of detail C. Increase the visibility of detail D. Increase distortion

C (Contrast, as well as density/brightness, are the two factors that affect the visibility of detail.)

Which of the following will be on the cover of a patient's chart if he/she does not want to be resuscitated if he/she quits breathing or his/her heart stops beating? A. CPR B. NPO C. DNR D. Stop

C (DNR stands for Do Not Resuscitate. A patient has the right to state that in his/her Advance Health Care Directive.)

In a busy imaging department, how often should CR imaging plates be cleaned? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Yearly

C (Dirty imaging plates can cause white specks that can look like calcifications.)

When should the exposure be made for an AP projection or lateral position of the upper airway? A. After deep inspiration B. After expiration C. During a slow, deep inspiration D. During rapid respiration

C (Exposure during a slow, deep inspiration ensures filling of the upper airway with air.)

The margin of error a radiographer has in setting his/her technical factors and still obtaining a diagnostic quality image is known as what? A. Luck B. Technical margin C. Exposure latitude D. Error area

C (Exposure latitude is the range of technical factor settings that will produce a diagnostic quality radiograph. For example, if 40 mAs will produce a perfect density, anything between 30 mAs - 50 mAs will produce a diagnostic quality image. This 20 mAs range is the margin of error or exposure latitude.)

Which of the following positions/projections is demonstrated in this radiograph? A. Lateral cervical spine B. Lateral cervical spine in flexion C. Lateral cervical spine in extension D. Oblique

C (Flexion and extension laterals are used to determine the mobility of the spine.)

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the patient was overexposed? A. 2.2 B. 2000 C. 100 D. 200

C (Fuji's perfect sensitivity number is 200. Anything below that would indicate an overexposure, since the S-number is inversely proportional to the exposure. 100 indicates the patient received twice the necessary exposure.)

To reduce the risks of causing leukemia, which of the following anatomical parts should be shielded from radiation exposure whenever possible? A. Skin B. Liver C. Bone marrow D. Thyroid

C (Leukemia is an unrestrained growth of leukocytes (white blood cells) that can be fatal. The unrestrained growth may be from subtle changes in the DNA caused by radiation exposure.)

With digital imaging, radiographers can avoid the possibility of repeats by overexposing the patient. This practice is referred to as: A. digital danger. B. patient indexing. C. exposure creep. D. x ray over-load. .

C (Overexposing patients is a problem with digital radiography because it often goes unnoticed if the exposure indicator numbers are not being monitored)

Which of the following defines photoemission? Emission of ..... A. light when stimulated by electrons. B. light when heated. C. electrons when stimulated by light. D. electrons from a heated wire.

C (Photoemission is the emission of electrons when stimulated by light photons. The photocathode absorbs the light photons and emits electrons. Thermionic emission is the emission of electrons from a heated wire.)

How does quantum noise appear on a digital image? A. Blurry B. Unsharp C. Grainy D. High contrast

C (Quantum noise has also been described as having a salt and pepper appearance.)

Failure of a radiographer to provide reasonable care describes which of the following? A. Assault B. Battery C. Negligence D. Slander .

C (Radiographers are not held to a standard of perfection, but they are required to provide reasonable care)

During retrograde urography contrast media is administered in which of the following ways? A. Intravenously B. Via a cystoscope C. Via a ureteral catheter D. Intramuscularly

C (Retrograde means backwards, or against the flow. During a retrograde urography examination, the urologist use a cystoscope to view the bladder and then places one or two ureteral catheters into the ureter(s) and injects contrast media backwards into the renal pelvis.)

When radiation exposure causes hematopoietic death, what is the main reason why the person died? A. Hemorrhage B. Respiratory distress C. Immune system is destroyed D. Heart failure

C (Since the lymphocytes are the cells that are easiest to destroy, the person will die from infection.)

Where is the needle placed for a lumbar puncture during a myelogram? A. T12 - L1 B. L1 - L2 C. L3 - L4 D. L5 - S1

C (Since the spinal cord terminates at the level of the 2nd lumbar, the needle needs to be placed below that area. The most common site is the interspace between L3 - L4.)

Which of the following helps prevent oxidation of the developer? A. Activator B. Restrainer C. Preservative D. Hardener

C (Sodium sulfite is the preservative that is used to help prevent the oxidation of the reducing agents in the developer.)

Any image on a radiograph that is foreign to the patient, describes which of the following? A. Static B. Emission C. Artifact D. Crescent mark

C (Static and crescent marks are types of artifacts.)

The 4th cervical vertebra lies at the level of which of the following topographical landmarks? A. Sternal notch B. Angle of the mandible C. Thyroid cartilage D. Mastoid process

C (Suprasternal notch = T2-T3, angle of the mandible = C3, and mastoid process = C2.)

Which of the following stomach positions/projections will best demonstrate the duodenal loop? A. AP B. LAO C. RAO D. Erect

C (The 45 degree RAO is especially helpful in demonstrating an unobstructed view of the duodenal loop.)

Which of the following DICOM standards assures digital images will look the same on various monitors? A. DICOM LCD B. DICOM encoding scheme C. DICOM grayscale standard display function D. DICOM capture system

C (The DICOM grayscale standard display function assures that the pixel values are displayed at the proper luminance, producing a more consistent image on various monitors.)

Which of the following would be considered an advantage of the air-gap technique? A. Less distortion of the anatomical part B. Lower contrast on the radiograph C. Less radiation to the patient D. Greater filtration of the x-ray beam

C (The air-gap technique reduces the need for a grid, therefore, decreasing the exposure by as much as five times)

Where should the CR be located for an AP projection of the shoulder joint? A. Acromion process B. Coronoid process C. Coracoid process D. Glenoid fossa

C (The coracoid process is assumed to be at the center of the shoulder joint.)

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint? A. AP B. 15 - 20 degree medial oblique C. 45 degree medial oblique D. Lateral

C (The distal tibiofibular joint is best visualized with a 45 degree medial oblique position of the ankle. A 15 - 20 degree medial oblique position (Mortise) will best demonstrate the entire ankle joint.)

Which of the following definitions describes effective dose limit? A. The maximum dose a body can tolerate B. The maximum dose a film badge records C. A dose that is not expected to produce significant effects D. The dose a radiation worker will receive per year

C (The effective dose limit for a radiation worker is 50 mSv (5 rem)/year)

Which bones make up the elbow joint? A. Radius and ulna B. Radius and humerus C. Radius, ulna and humerus D. Capitulum, trochlea and radial head

C (The elbow joint is made up of articulations between the forearm (radius and ulna) and the upper arm (humerus).)

How much should the patient be rotated for an RPO position during intravenous urography? A. 10 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 45 degrees

C (The elevated kidney (left) will be parallel with the IR with a 30 degree oblique.)

In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts? A. Distal phalanx of the great toe B. Middle phalanx of the great toe C. Proximal phalanx of the great toe D. 1st metatarsal of the great toe

C (The great toe (1st) only has a distal and proximal phalanx.)

The distal end of an endotracheal tube should be placed _______ superior to the carina. A. 1 cm B. 3 cm C. 5 cm D. 7 cm

C (The ideal position for endotracheal tubes is in the midtrachea, 5 cm from the carina, when the head is neither flexed nor extended. This allows for movement of the tip with head movements. The minimal safe distance from the carina is 2 cm.)

The skull and spine make up which of the following? A. True skeleton B. Bony skeleton C. Axial skeleton D. Appendicular skeleton

C (The limbs, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle make up the appendicular skeleton)

For a true lateral position of the skull, the midsagittal plane must be in which for these positions? A. Perpendicular to the image receptor B. At a right angle to the image receptor C. Parallel to the image receptor D. Parallel to the CR

C (The midsagittal plane must be parallel to the image receptor and perpendicular to the CR.)

To make sure the proper patient information and images get sent to the proper folder in PACS, the best practice is to make sure the _______ on the worklist matches the _______ on the patient's requisition. A. gender, gender B. birth date, birth date C. accession number, accession number D. patient's name, patient's name

C (The only safe way to make sure everything gets stored in the proper PACS files is to check the accession number for each exam.)

What is the name of the imaginary line drawn between the outer canthus of the eye and the E.A.M.? A. Glabellomeatal line B. Infraorbitomeatal line C. Orbitomeatal line D. Acanthiomeatal line

C (The orbitomeatal line is a reference point for several skull positions.)

The red X lies in which of the nine regions of the abdomen? A. Right hypochondriac B. Epigastric C. Pubic (hypogastric) D. Left lateral (lumbar)

C (The pubic region is where you would find the bladder and sigmoid colon.)

Which of the following is the unit of absorbed radiation dose? A. Rem B. RBE C. Rad D. Res

C (The rad is defined as 100 ergs of energy per gram of absorbing material. 100 rads is equivalent to 1 gray.)

Which of the following is the most common site for measuring a patient's pulse? A. Brachial artery B. Subclavian artery C. Radial artery D. Carotid artery .

C (The radial artery is used most often because it is easily located at the base of the thumb)

Which of the following is the radiation that has passed through an anatomical part and is available for recording the radiographic image? A. Primary radiation B. Quality radiation C. Remnant radiation D. Secondary radiation

C (The remnant (exit) radiation is what is remaining in the beam after it has traversed the patient.)

Which of the following is used to determine if there is any separation of the AC joint? A. Patient supine B. Patient erect, steep oblique C. Patient erect, holding weights D. 25 degree caudad angle

C (The weights should weigh between 5 - 8 pounds)

The scapular Y position is used to demonstrate which of the following? A. Acromioclavicular separation B. The shoulder joint in an oblique position C. Anterior or posterior dislocation of the humerus D. The relationship between the coracoid process and the scapular spine

C (This position demonstrates the relationship of the humeral head to the glendoid cavity.)

Which of the following is a primary factor in protecting radiographers from scatter radiation? A. Increase kVp B. Reduce focal spot size C. Use some type of lead shielding D. Reduce screen speed

C (Time, distance and shielding are the primary means of radiation protection.)

Which of the following is the patient preparation for an upper GI series? A. Clear fluids only prior to exam B. Clear fluids for 24 hours prior to exam C. NPO for at least 8 hours prior to exam D. Only gum chewing and/or smoking prior to exam

C (To make sure the stomach is completely empty, the patient must be NPO after midnight or at least 8 hours prior to exam.)

What is the minimum number of persons needed for a stretcher-to-table transfer when using a draw sheet? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

C (Two people pull the patient from the table side, one supporting the patient's head, the other supporting the patient's legs. The third person is on the stretcher side supporting the patient's pelvic girdle and bracing the stretcher so it will not move.)

During a myelogram, what position is the patient in when his head is put lower than his feet? A. Fowler B. Prone C. Trendelenburg D. Sim's

C (Used during a myelogram to allow contrast to flow into the cervical area, the Trendelelburg position has the patient's feet raised higher than the head.)

Which of the following combines an automatic exposure control (AEC) system with a computerized technique chart? A. Automatic Technique Radiography (ATR) B. Computerized Exposure Control (CEC) C. Anatomically Programmed Radiography (APR) D. Computed Radiography (CR)

C (With APR, all the radiographer has to do is select an anatomical part and the computer automatically sets the mAs, kVp, focal spot size, and AEC detector(s).)

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental property of an x-ray beam? A. Travels in a straight line B. Travels at the speed of light C. Is negatively charged D. Capable of ionizing atoms

C (X rays do not have a charge, they are electromagnetic radiation.)

What does PACS stand for? A. Patient access computer system B. Pictures accessed by computers C. Picture access computer system D. Picture archiving and communication system

D (A PACS stores (archives) images and patient information and allows it to be accessed (communication) by other computer users in the network.)

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate foreign bodies in the hand? A. Tunnel B. Carpal C. Ulnar flexion D. Lateral in extension

D (A lateral hand with the fingers extended would show the depth of a foreign body within the hand.)

Which of the following are true of radiation-induced mutations? 1. Radiation-induced mutations are usually harmful 2. Radiation-induced mutations are always recessive 3. The frequency of radiation-induced mutations is proportional to dose A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D (All of the above are true, but the frequency of radiation-induced mutations is extremely low.)

Patients from different cultural groups may have different: 1. attitudes towards health and illness. 2. language skills. 3. responses to being treated or imaged by someone of the opposite gender. A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D (All of these differences can be attributed to cultural diversity. It is critical that the technologist be sensitive to these differences.)

Which of the following is the preferred SID for a portable (mobile) radiograph of the chest? A. 36" B. 40" C. 55" D. 72"

D (All radiographs of the heart and lungs should either be taken erect at 72" or supine at 40". Naturally, erect at 72" is preferred.)

How would you attempt to stop the bleeding if your patient started to hemorrhage from the radial artery? A. Raise the arm B. Place a tourniquet directly above the elbow C. Place a tourniquet directly below the elbow D. Apply direct pressure to the wound

D (Applying direct pressure to the wound is the best way to stop the bleeding. It may take several minutes for the bleeding to stop, be sure to wear gloves.)

Which of the following is/are associated with good body mechanics? A. Provide a broad base of support B. When lifting, bend your knees and keep your back straight C. Keep your load well balanced and close to your body D. All of the above

D (Back injuries are a major risk to radiographers. Practice good body mechanics.)

Betadine is used for which of the following? A. Topical anesthetic B. Contrast agent C. Lubricant D. Skin disinfectant

D (Betadine will kill any pathogens on the surface of the skin.)

Where should the CR enter for an AP projection during an operative cholangiogram? A. At the level of the iliac crest B. At the level of the ASIS C. At the xiphoid tip D. Where the surgeon indicates

D (During a sterile, surgical procedure the surgeon will indicate where to center the CR.)

Where is Henle's loop located? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Spinal cord D. Kidney

D (Henle's loop is part of the urinary collecting system of the kidney.)

Medications include which of the following? A. Contrast media B. Analgesics C. Diuretics D. All of the above

D (In addition to analgesics and diuretics, contrast media is considered medication and must be reconciled with the patient's medication history.)

The term intrathecal refers to an injection into which of the following anatomical areas? A. Vein B. Artery C. Muscle D. Spinal canal

D (Intrathecal refers to an injection into the spinal canal. Contrast media for myelography would be labeled as such.)

There is only one safe solution that can be used to clean photostimulable phosphor plates. Which one is it? A. Water B. Alcohol C. Isopropyl methanol D. Anhydrous ethyl alcohol

D (It is imperative that the image plates be cleaned only with anhydrous ethyl alcohol (abbreviated name - anhydrous ethanol). Anything else could damage the imaging plate)

Generally, how much must a digital image receptor be overexposed in order to produce saturation? A. 1X B. 2X C. 3X D. 4X

D (It takes a lot to saturate an image receptor, but it occurs more than it should. Particularly in portable (mobile unit) chests.)

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 encompasses which of the following areas? 1. Health insurance reform 2. Administration of health care information 3. Privacy of protected health information A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D (Keeping your health insurance when you change jobs; standardizing the collection, maintenance, and transmission of health care information; and keeping private protected health information are all part of HIPAA.)

A dose of whole body radiation that will kill 50% of the exposed individuals within 60 days is referred to as: A. death dose. B. fatal dose. C. destructive dose. D. LD50/60.

D (LD50/60 means that 50% of the exposed individuals would die within 60 days; it would take a whole body dose of 350 rads.)

Which of the following items used in the Imaging Department may contain latex? 1. Gloves 2. Enema tips 3. Tourniquets A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3 .

D (Latix (rubber) can also be found in catheters, adhesive tape, blood pressure cuffs, and stethoscopes)

Which of the following positions of the abdomen should be used to demonstrate air-fluid levels when an erect position cannot be obtained? A. Prone B. Fowler C. Right anterior oblique D. Left lateral decubitus

D (Left lateral decubitus means the patient is lying on his left side and the x-ray beam is horizontal. A horizontal beam is necessary to visualize air-fluid levels. The left lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate free air projected over a homogenous liver shadow.)

Which of the following publications recommends limits of exposure to ionizing radiation? A. NCRP #100 B. NCRP #102 C. NCRP #105 D. NCRP #116

D (NCRP #116 is titled "Limitation of Exposure to Ionizing Radiation" and sets equivalent dose limits for exposure to ionizing radiation of radiation workers and the general public.)

In computed radiography, if a cassette has NOT been used for _______ hours, the imaging plate should be erased. A. 8 B. 16 C. 24 D. 48

D (Natural background radiation can expose a CR imaging plate. If a plate is not used or properly rotated then it could sit for more than 48 hours accumulating background radiation. This can increase noise, lower contrast, and affect the exposure indicator number. The manufacturers state that erasing them more often (e.g., 24 hours) only wears them out faster.)

Which of the following is a major factor in contributing to a patient contracting an infection while in the hospital? A. Unsterile instruments B. Coming in contact with infected patients C. Soiled linen D. Poor health

D (Poor health makes the patient susceptible to infection. This is why the radiographer should keep a clean environment.)

Scatter radiation will have the greatest effect on which of these radiographic qualities? A. Recorded detail/Spatial resolution B. Distortion C. Density/Brightness D. Contrast

D (Scatter radiation will fog a radiograph, causing the white areas to be gray. This will produce a longer scale of contrast (low contrast).)

Which of the following is a postprocessing option to decrease the amount of noise in a digital image? A. Masking B. Edge enhancement C. Equalization D. Smoothing

D (Smoothing is also known as noise suppression. The noise may be reduced but the image is still underexposed.)

According to 21 CFR, fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006 must have which of the following features? A. Display of last-image-hold (LIH) B. Display of air kerma rate (AKR) and cumulative air kerma C. Display of irradiation time D. All of the above

D (The AKR, cumulative air kerma and irradiation time must be displayed at the fluoroscopist's working position. The AKR must be updated every second, the cumulative air kerma every 5 seconds and the irradiation time every 6 seconds.)

When radiographing the soft tissues of the neck in the lateral position, which of the following upper airway structures should be visualized? 1. Nasopharynx 2. Oropharynx 3. Proximal trachea A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D (The image of the soft tissues should be high enough to include the nasopharynx and low enough to include the proximal trachea.)

The quality of an image displayed on a monitor depends on which of the following? 1. Matrix size 2. Size of field of view 3. Bit depth A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3 .

D (The larger the matrix size, the smaller the field of view (FOV), and the higher the bit depth the better the image)

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the rectum filled with barium? A. Supine B. Erect C. RPO D. Lateral

D (The lateral position will demonstrate the rectum without superimposition of the pelvic structures.)

Beam filtration of 2.5 mm Al equivalent reduces the skin entrance dose by how much? A. 15% B. 25% C. 55% D. 75%

D (The main purpose of filtering the low energy x rays from the primary beam is to reduce skin exposure.)

The nasal bones articulate with which of the following bones? 1. Ethmoid 2. Frontal 3. Maxillae A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

D (The nasal bones posterior surface articulates with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. They also articulate with the frontal bone and maxillae on both sides.)

Why was this lumbar spine radiograph repeated? A. Bucky tray was not pushed in B. Grid cutoff C. Right marker in anatomy D. X-ray tube was not detented

D (The part being off-centered and noticeable grid lines indicates that the tube was not detented.)

Which of the following is NOT a beam restricting device? A. Aperture diaphragm B. Collimator C. Cylinder D. Filter

D (The purpose of a filter is to remove harmful, low-energy x rays from the primary beam before they can harm the patient.)

When performing a mobile (portable) radiographic examination, the radiographer should stand at a ______ angle to the beam. A. 30 degree B. 45 degree C. 75 degree D. 90 degree

D (The radiographer will receive 1/1000th of the exposure the patient receives if he/she stands at a 90 degree angle to the beam and 1 meter from the patient.)

According to the anode heel effect, in the diagram to the right, which letter corresponds to the greatest radiation intensity? A. A B. B C. C D. D

D (The reason it is called the "anode heel effect" is because the heel of the anode absorbs the x rays. This causes the greatest intensity of x rays to be toward the cathode end of the tube.)

In the diagram of the x-ray circuit, the red X lies in the center of which of the following circuit components? A. Timer B. Autotransformer C. kVp selector D. Rectification circuit

D (The rectification circuit lies between the secondary side of the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube.)

Which of the following can be done to reduce the entrance skin dose during pediatric fluoroscopy? A. Remove the anti-scatter grid B. Increase added filtration C. Increase kVp D. All of the above

D (The reduction in patient dose is 40% for .1 mm Cu and nearly 70% when using a .2 mm Cu filter. However, removing the grid would have the greatest effect.)

Which type of shielding should be used while fluoroscoping an infant for an upper GI examination? A. Shadow shield B. Shaped contact shield over the pelvis C. Flat contact shield over the pelvis D. Flat contact shield under the pelvis

D (The shield has to go between the fluoroscopic tube (under the table) and the child.)

The red arrow is pointing at what anatomical structure? A. Sella turcica B. External auditory meatus C. Lateral margin of the orbit D. Sphenoid sinus

D (The sphenoid sinus will be seen directly below the sella turcica in a lateral position)

Which of the following is NOT a radiation protection measure? A. High kVp techniques B. Shielding C. High speed film-screen combinations D. Radiographic grids

D (The use of radiographic grids will increase the amount of exposure to the patient. A 12:1 ratio grid would require 5X more radiation to produce an equal density without a grid.)

Which of the following radiation dosimeters uses aluminum oxide to absorb and store the x-ray energy? A. Film badge B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter C. Pocket dosimeter D. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter

D (Thermoluminescent dosimeters use lithium fluoride to absorb and store the x-ray energy.)

To assure the maximum radiation protection, which of the following is important? A. Accurate technique selection B. Proper gonadal shielding C. Careful collimation D. All of the above

D (These three factors should be considered before each exposure.)

What is the minimum schedule for testing lead aprons and gloves for shielding defects? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Bi-monthly D. Annually .

D (To be safe, protective apparel should be tested once a year)

Which of the following combinations of exposure factors would result in the least radiation exposure to the patient? A. Low kVp, high mAs, 100 speed screens B. Low kVp, high mAs, 200 speed screens C. High kVp, high mAs, 100 speed screens D. High kVp, low mAs, 400 speed screens

D (To produce the proper amount of density with the least number of x rays you would want to use the highest kVp and highest screen speed to allow the lowest mAs.)

A flat panel detector is exposed with nothing between the x-ray tube and detector. The pixel readings of 5 different regions of interest (ROI) across the detector are averaged and compared. What quality control test was performed? A. Detectability B. Linearity C. Repeatability D. Uniformity

D (Uniformity measures how uniform the pixel readings are inside a ROI under uniform exposure.)

What must the radiographer do to start the rotation of the anode? A. Select the mA station B. Turn the control panel on C. Select the kVp station D. Engage the rotor .

D (When the technologist engages the rotor, the filament wire begins to heat up and the rotor begins to spin)

Which of the following is NOT related to recorded detail/spatial resolution? A. OID B. SID C. Motion D. kVp

D (kVp controls subject contrast which affects the visibility of detail.)